MKT 475 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer University – *New*

MKT 475 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

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Chapter 15

Strategic Marketing Implementation and Control

True/False Questions

1. The analytical dimension of marketing planning process is concerned with the organizational structure in which planning is carried out, along with the associated information resources and corporate culture.

2. Internal marketing involves developing programs to win line management support for new strategies.

3. External marketing involves changing the attitudes and behavior of employees working at key points of contact with customers.

4. Internal marketing goals include promoting the external marketing strategy.

5. The balanced scorecard method is used to implement marketing plans.

6. The balanced scorecard method formally includes an assessment of the strategy component across all aspects of the business unit at the same time.

7. A benefit of the balanced scorecard methodology is that it is feasible for any business unit level strategy and provides a means to link performance evaluation to strategy implementation.

8. The second step in marketing evaluation and control is determining performance metrics and standards.

9. When monitoring a firm’s effectiveness of marketing activities, external information sources must be excluded.

10. Marketing metrics should be chosen to reflect issues most closely linking marketing investments with value chain requirements.

Multiple Choice Questions

11. The _____ indicates marketing objectives and the strategy and tactics for accomplishing the objectives, and guides implementation and control. 
A. strategic marketing plan
B. traditional marketing design
C. integrated marketing communications
D. market positioning strategy

12. Which of the following techniques guides short-term marketing activities?
A. Strategic marketing plan
B. Annual marketing plan
C. Situation analysis
D. Positioning strategy

13. Which of the following marketing planning process dimensions is concerned with an organization’s structure, associated information resources, and corporate culture?
A. Analytical process dimension
B. Behavioral process dimension
C. Organizational process dimension
D. Cognitive process dimension

14. Which of the following marketing planning process dimensions is concerned with managerial perceptions, participation, and strategic assumptions?
A. Analytical process dimension
B. Cognitive process dimension
C. Organizational process dimension
D. Behavioral process dimension

15. Which of the following marketing planning process dimensions is concerned with techniques, procedures, systems, and planning models?
A. Analytical process dimension
B. Cognitiveprocess dimension
C. Organizational process dimension
D. Behavioral process dimension

16. Which of the following is true about internal marketing?
A. It positions the marketing strategy in the customer marketplace.
B. Its goals include promoting the external marketing strategy.
C. It aims at providing superior external customer service to support internal strategy.
D. Its aim is to better align internal market objectives with external capabilities.

17. Which of the following is true about internal marketing?
A. It positions the marketing strategy in the customer marketplace.
B. It involves changing the attitudes and behavior of customers at key points of contact with employees.
C. It is aimed at the potential customers within the company.
D. It is targeted at particular market segments and niches.

18. _____ is a formalized management control system that implements a given business unit strategy by means of activities across four areas: financial, customer, internal business process, and learning and growth (or innovation).
A. Benchmarking
B. Internal strategy-organization fit
C. Strategic marketing audit
D. Balanced scorecard method

19.Which of the following is true of the balanced scorecard method?
A. It translates aggregate and broadly defined strategies to very specific actions.
B. It provides a means to link customer satisfaction with value orientation.
C. It is not feasible for business unit level strategies.
D. It does not assess the strategy component across all aspects of the business unit.

20. The _____ approach allows consideration of specific activities which will accomplish the objective, but also formally includes an assessment of the strategy component across all aspects of the business unit at the same time. 
A. vertical assessment
B. balanced scorecard
C. strategic marketing audit
D. benchmarking

21. Which of the following is the initial step in setting up a strategic marketing evaluation program?
A. Obtaining and analyzing information for performance-gap identification
B. Selecting performance criteria and choosing relevant marketing metrics
C. Conducting strategic marketing audit
D. Assessing performance and taking necessary action

22. Which of the following is the strategic marketing audit used for?
A. To translate broadly defined marketing strategy into very specific actions
B. To provide a means to link performance evaluation to strategy implementation
C. To ensure that activities in one area do not interfere with activities in another area
D. To initiate a formal strategic marketing planning program

23. The results of the _____ provide the basis for selecting performance criteria and choosing relevant marketing metrics to assess actual performance against plans and tactical intent.
A. strategic marketing audit
B. integrated marketing communications
C. balanced scorecard
D. customer relationship analysis

24. _____ use both internal and external information sources to provide a structure for monitoring the effectiveness of marketing activities and strategies.
A. Marketing segmentation strategies
B. Balanced scorecard methods
C. Marketing metrics
D. Salesforce strategies

25. The choice of the most relevant marketing metrics should be made in the light of the need to:
A. track performance relative to alliances.
B. track performance relative to suppliers.
C. track performance over investment capabilities.
D. measure performance relative to strategy.

26. Which of the following is a danger of using a marketing dashboard?
A. The dashboard contains metrics only relevant to assessing past performance.
B. The dashboard contains metrics which only give insight into present performance.
C. The dashboard contains metrics which only give insight into future developments.
D. The dash board contains only metrics related to the main business drivers.

27. Which of the following approaches is a quality control technique useful in determining when operating results are fluctuating normally or instead are disorderly?
A. Value chain analysis
B. Statistical process-control methods
C. Benchmarking
D. Data-control processes

28. _____ is/are used to analyze and improve results in marketing performance measures such as the number of orders processed, customer complaints, and territory sales.
A. Value chain analysis
B. Benchmarking
C. Quality-control charts
D. Cluster analysis

29. A _____ indicates when the process is experiencing normal variation and when the process is out of control.
A. data-control process
B. value chain analysis
C. BCG matrix
D. control-chart analysis

30. Which of the following is true of a control-chart analysis?
A. It cannot be used to detect randomness in operating results.
B. Its control boundaries are set using historical data.
C. It can only be used to establish average and upper limits of the measure.
D. It can only be used to establish average and lower limits of the measure.

Essay Questions

31. What are the core tasks of a CMO?

32. Explain the dimensions of the marketing planning process.

33. Discuss factors that influence the implementation of a marketing strategy.

34. Discuss how organizational designs help implement a strategic marketing plan.

35. What guiding points should be considered when selecting relevant marketing metrics?

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MKT 475 Week 10 Quiz – Strayer

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Chapter 14

Designing Market-Driven Organizations

True/False Questions

1. Traditional companies decentralize decision making when they run into hard times like economic downturns.

406

2. In traditional organizational structures, units were either within the organization and closely connected to other units, or they were outside the organization and not connected at all.

407

3. Knowledge workers may operate more effectively as conventional employees rather than “internal partners.”

407

4. The management of knowledge workers puts less emphasis on innovation and creativity.

407

5. “Talent marketplaces” inside the organization allow capable employees to plot their own career paths internally.

407

6. A key characteristic of new organizations is an emphasis on managing organizational process, rather than a primary emphasis on structure.

410

7. In the past, organizations were designed for agility and responsiveness rather than stability.

412

8. A key advantage of functional organizational design is its customer focus.

425

9. A new-product team is different from a venture team in a new-product team is comprised of functional specialists working on a specific new-product development project.

425

10. The market-focused organizational design is often used when a single product or a closely related line is marketed to one market target.

425

Multiple Choice Questions

11. Which of the following is true of conventional approaches to organizing?
A. Ideas and commands flow vertically between center and business units
B. Information and flow of knowledge between units are unrestricted 
C. Decision making is decentralized
D. Organizational hierarchy is not visible

406
12. Which of the following does the management of knowledge workers emphasize on?
A. Formal structures
B. Talent management
C. Reporting lines
D. Conventional culture

407

13. Which of the following does the management of knowledge workers emphasize less on?
A. Talent management
B. Team leadership
C. Formal structure
D. Culture of innovation

407

14. _____ are influential individuals who move across network clusters and carry ideas from one corporate silo to another and thereby generate new ideas.
A. Knowledge mules
B. Networked workers
C. Formal reporters
D. Silo scribes

409

15. Which of the following processes’ function is to define value for the organization?
A. New product development
B. Knowledge management
C. Logistics
D. Customer service

411

16. Which of the following processes’ function is to create value for the organization?
A. New product development
B. Logistics
C. Customer service
D. CRM

411

17. Which of the following processes’ function is to deliver value for the organization?
A. CRM
B. New product development
C. Knowledge management
D. Customer service

411

18. Which of the following is the first stage in aligning the organization with the market?
A. Aligning customer-based units with customers
B. Using integrating mechanisms such as segment managers
C. Improving alignment through informal lateral integration
D. Integrating functions like global account coordinators and market segment specialists

414

19. Which of the following is the final stage of organizational evolution?
A. The functional or product organization is retained.
B. Sales or product management takes informal steps to cross silos and solve customer problems.
C. Organizations use integrating mechanisms such as key account or segment managers.
D. Comprehensive approaches are adopted to get full structural alignment with the market.

414

20. The _____ of marketing activities across multiple functions is more common in market-oriented businesses serving business customers, and operating in uncertain markets with uncertain technologies.
A. centralization
B. integration
C. diffusion
D. collection

420
421

21. Which of the following marketing organizational forms is highly effective for tasks requiring little specialized investment, are nonroutine, and difficult to assess?
A. Bureaucratic form
B. Transactional form
C. Organic form
D. Relational form

422

22. Which of the following is an appropriate usage context for a transactional marketing organizational form?
A. Tasks that are repetitive, easily assessed, with no specialized investment required
B. Tasks that are repetitive, easily assessed, and requiring specialized investment
C. Tasks that are infrequent, difficult to assess, requiring highly specialized investment
D. Tasks that are nonroutine, difficult to assess, requiring little specialized investment

422

23. Which of the following is an appropriate usage context for an organic marketing organizational form?
A. Under competitive market conditions, low environmental uncertainty
B. Conditions of market failure, high environmental uncertainty, infrequent tasks
C. High environmental activity, under competitive market conditions, frequent tasks
D. Conditions of market failure, low environmental uncertainty, repetitive tasks

422

24. Which of the following are the performance characteristic of a bureaucratic marketing organizational form?
A. Highly effective for appropriate tasks, less adaptive
B. Highly adaptive, less efficient
C. Highly effective and efficient, less adaptive
D. Highly effective for nonroutine, specialized tasks, less efficient

422

25. Which of the following marketing organizational forms have the following performance characteristics: most efficient form; highly effective for appropriate tasks; less adaptive?
A. Bureaucratic form
B. Transactional form
C. Organic form
D. Relational form

422

26. Which of the following conditions suggests a market-oriented organizational design?
A. Substantial differences in the customer requirements in a given target market
B. Substantial similarities in the customer requirements in a given target market
C. Single market targets being served by dedicated strategic business units
D. Greater use of organizational designs that focus on products rather than customers

423

27. _____ organizational design assigns departments, groups, or individuals, responsibility for specific activities, such as advertising and sales promotion, pricing, sales, marketing research, and marketing planning and services.
A. Product-focused
B. Functional
C. Market-focused
D. Matrix

424

28._____ organizational design is used when a business unit serves more than one target and customer considerations are an important factor in the design of the marketing organization.
A. Product-focused
B. Functional
C. Market-focused
D. Matrix

425

29. Which of the following organizational designs would utilize a cross-classification approach that emphasizes two different factors, such as products and marketing functions?
A. Functional organizational design
B. Market-focused design
C. Product-focused design
D. Matrix design

426

30. Which of the following is a limitation of an internal marketing organization design?
A. Less control of activities
B. Limited familiarity with company operations
C. Lower commitment of employees to the organization
D. Lack of experience in other business environments

0

Essay Questions

31. Explain the traditional organizational structure and its limitations.

32. Describe the dependence of innovation and growth on knowledge workers. What should the management of these workers emphasize on?

33. Explain the importance of organizational agility and flexibility.

34. Give an account of the challenges in integrating marketing with other activities in a company.

35. Explain the issue of integration vs. diffusion in the organizational design of marketing.

MKT 475 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer University – *New*

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Chapter 13

Sales, Digital, and Direct Marketing Strategies

True/False Questions

1. The final step in a salesforce strategy is designing the sales organizations.

3
2. Sales quotas are used to state the management’s expected sales results.

3

3. Transactional selling is not restricted to small, low-volume buyers.

3

4. The new business selling strategy is based on firms selling to an existing customer base and providing technical and application assistance.

3

5. Trade selling provides assistance and support to value chain members rather than obtaining sales.

3

6. If a customer base displays substantial differences in purchasing power and servicing requirements, then the use of a single salesforce channel is appropriate.

3

7. If the product or the customer base does not dominate design considerations, a geographical sales organization is used.

3

8. Single-factor models analyze the profit performance of accounts or trading areas as the basis to estimate the profit impact of adding more salespeople.

3

9. In social media–based positioning attempts, the goal is to create a community providing only functional benefits.

392

10. In direct marketing, accuracy of targeting is only as good as the lists used to access potential buyers.

400

Multiple Choice Questions

11. Which of the following initiatives of forming a salesforce strategy requires deciding how personal selling is expected to contribute to the marketing program?
A. Determining the role of the sales force in the promotion strategy
B. Selecting the selling process
C. Deciding if and how alternative sales channels will be utilized
D. Designing the sales

3

12. Which of the following initiatives is the second step in building a salesforce strategy?
A. Determining the role of the sales force in the promotion strategy
B. Select the selling process
C. Deciding if and how alternative sales channels will be utilized
D. Designing the sales organization

3

13. _____ selling involves obtaining sales from first-time buyers, who may be one-time purchasers or repeat buyers.
A. Missionary
B. Trade selling
C. New business
D. Consultative

3

14. _____ selling provides assistance and support to value chain members rather than obtaining sales. 
A. New business
B. Consultative/technical
C. Missionary
D. Trade

3
15. _____selling is a form of selling in which the salespeople work with the customers of a channel member to encourage them to purchase the producer’s product from the channel member. 
A. Missionary
B. Trade
C. New business
D. Consultative/technical

3

16. _____ is targeted at an existing customer base and provides technical and application assistance. These positions may involve the sales of complex equipment or services.
A. New business selling
B. Consultative selling
C. Missionary selling
D. Trade selling

3

17. Sales representatives of Oasis Travels collaborate with various hotels across the state to get customers to book package tours. Which of the following sales positions do the salespeople of Oasis Travels hold?
A. New business selling
B. Consultative selling
C. Missionary selling
D. Trade selling

3

18. Which of the following activities does a selling process include?
A. Advertising the product
B. Training the salespeople
C. Prospecting for suppliers
D. Presenting the sales message

3

19. Which of the following activities would most likely be the first in the selling process?
A. Prospecting for customers
B. Opening relationships
C. Presenting the sales message
D. Training salespeople

3

20.Which of the following sales organization designs is most appropriate when customer needs are different and the product offering is simple?
A. Product-driven
B. Market-driven
C. Geography-driven
D. Product/market-driven

3

21. Which of the following sales organization designs can be adopted when customer needs are similar and there is a complex range of products offered?
A. Geography-driven
B. Market-driven
C. Product-driven
D. Product/market-driven

3

22. If the product or the customer base does not dominate design considerations, a _____ sales organization is used.
A. market-driven
B. product-driven
C. product/market-driven
D. geography-driven

3

23. _____ require information on each salesperson’s sales and/or costs and can help spot high performing and unprofitable territories by comparing each salesperson to an average break-even sales level.
A. Revenue/cost analysis techniques
B. Single-factor models
C. Sales and effort response models
D. Portfolio deployment models

3

24. _____ for analyzing sales force assume that size of the sales force and/or effort deployment are determined by one factor, such as market potential or workload whose values can be used to determine required selling effort.
A. Revenue/cost analysis techniques
B. Single-factor models
C. Sales and effort response models
D. Portfolio deployment models

3
25. _____ for analyzing sales force size consider the impact of multiple influences like market potential, intensity of competition, and workload on market response that can improve salesperson deployment decisions.
A. Revenue/cost analysis techniques
B. Single-factor models
C. Sales and effort response models
D. Portfolio deployment models

3
26. Mark sees an ad in the newspaper of a new line of treadmills and orders for it by calling the number provided in the ad. Which of the following type of direct marketing methodology did the ad employ?
A. Direct response media
B. Direct mail
C. Catalog shopping
D. Kiosk shopping

399

27. Which of the following is a disadvantage of direct marketing?
A. Limited content support in direct-response advertising
B. Effectiveness of direct marketing cannot be measured
C. Restricts selective reach and segmentation opportunities
D. No flexibility provided in accessing potential buyers

400

28. Which of the following is an advantage of direct marketing?
A. Sufficient content support in direct-response advertising
B. Timing contact can be managed and personalized
C. Negative image factors are non-existent
D. Shipping and postal rates tend to decrease over time

400

29. Which of the following is true, with regard to an organizational buyer, of computer ordering?
A. It does not allow for direct purchase responses.
B. It makes it hard to monitor customer preferences.
C. It enables the buyer to lower inventory levels.
D. It increases the overall cost of inventory.

400

30. Which of the following types of networks is most likely to be present at a kiosk for customers to use?
A. Internet
B. Intraweb
C. Extranet
D. Intranet

400

Essay Questions

31. What are the major initiatives of a salesforce strategy?

32. Describe the different types of sales jobs.

33. List the activities that make up the selling process.

34. An important part of deciding the personal selling strategy is choice of the alternative channels to end-user customers. Explain the issues involved.

35. Explain the communications features of the Internet.

MKT 475 Week 8 Quiz – Strayer University – *New*

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Chapter 11

Pricing Strategy

True/False Questions

1. Price strategy is always related to competition whether firms use a higher, lower, or equal price.

323

2. Both revenues and costs need to be taken into account in selecting pricing strategies.

323

3. Lowering prices generally eliminates potential price wars.

324

4. The second step in selecting a pricing strategy is analyzing the pricing situation.

324

5. The core issue in pricing is finding out what value requirements (benefits-costs) the buyer places on the product or brand.

327
6. The underlying logic of economic value modeling (EVM) is that using the price/benefit ratio is a more realistic view of value than “dollar worth of benefits minus price.”

328

7. Customer value mapping estimates are based on the differentiated benefits that a customer receives from a product.

328

8. Competitive bidding is an example of demand-oriented approach of pricing.

340
9. Reverse auction pricing involves sellers bidding for organizational buyers’ purchases.

340
10. The competitor is the frame of reference for demand-oriented pricing methods.

340

Multiple Choice Questions

11. Which of the following distribution approaches is most likely to call for more competitive pricing?
A. Exclusive
B. Selective
C. Intensive
D. Narrow

321
322

12. Price cuts in economic downturns are primarily aimed at:
A. increasing short-term profits.
B. defending a firm’s position vigorously.
C. compensating for low quality products.
D. capturing market share.

323

13. Which of the following is the first step in selecting a pricing strategy?
A. Setting pricing objectives
B. Analyzing the pricing situation
C. Selecting pricing strategy
D. Determining specific prices and policies

323

14. Which of the following is the final step in selecting a pricing strategy?
A. Setting pricing objectives
B. Determining specific prices and policies
C. Selecting pricing strategy
D. Analyzing the pricing situation

323

15. _____ is the percentage change in the quantity sold of a brand when the price changes, divided by the percentage change in price.
A. Price distribution
B. Price band
C. Price point
D. Price elasticity

327

16. _____ estimates value as the perceived quality buyers obtain per unit of price.
A. Customer value mapping
B. Customer equity
C. User lifetime value
D. Customer value proposition

327
328

17. Value using _____ consists of the financial savings and gains provided to customers due to purchase of the firm’s brand instead of competitors’ brands.
A. customer value mapping
B. economic value modeling
C. user lifetime value
D. customer value proposition

328

18. Which of the following is the first step in cost analysis for pricing decisions?
A. Estimating how cost varies with the volume of sales
B. Analyzing the cost competitive advantage of the product
C. Determining the components of the cost of the product
D. Estimating how much control management has over costs

330

19. _____ indicates whether costs and prices for various products decline by a given amount each time the number of units produced doubles.
A. Economic value modeling
B. Activity-based costing
C. Customer value mapping
D. Learning-curve analysis

331

20. A high-active pricing strategy:
A. values superiority.
B. emphasizes nonprice competitive factors.
C. offers discounts.
D. avoids price comparisons.

336

21. Which of the following is true of high-passive strategy pricing?
A. It is used when competition for the market target is very high.
B. It emphasizes nonprice competitive factors.
C. It is primarily used by discount retailers.
D. It is used by producers whose brands are not familiar to the market.

337

22. A low-active pricing strategy:
A. emphasizes nonprice competitive factors.
B. is mainly used to gain margins in small market targets.
C. is most effective for discount retailers.
D. is an attractive strategy when competition for market target is high.

337

23. A low-passive pricing strategy:
A. emphasizes superior value of the product.
B. emphasizes nonprice competitive factors.
C. offers discounts.
D. avoids price comparisons.

337

24. When two or more competitors collude to explicitly or implicitly set prices, this practice is referred to as _____.
A. horizontal price fixing
B. price discrimination
C. deceptive pricing
D. predatory pricing

337

25. _____ is the practice of charging different prices to different buyers for goods of similar grade and quality.
A. Price fixing
B. Price discrimination
C. Deceptive pricing
D. Predatory pricing

338

26. Charging a very low price for a product with the intent of driving competitors out of business is referred to as _____.
A. cannibalization
B. price fixing
C. predatory pricing
D. deceptive pricing

338
27. Which of the following types of price determination methods uses the price of producing and marketing the product as the basis for determining price?
A. Cost-oriented
B. Supply-oriented
C. Competition-oriented
D. Demand-oriented

339

28. _____ pricing methods consider estimated market response to alternative prices.
A. Cost-oriented
B. Supply-oriented
C. Competition-oriented
D. Demand-oriented

339

29. Which of the following types of pricing is considered a cost-oriented approach of pricing?
A. Break-even pricing
B. Reverse auction pricing
C. Demand-oriented pricing
D. Internet auction pricing

339

30. When using markup pricing, which of the following formulas determines the selling price?
A. Price = Average unit cost divided by Markup percentage
B. Price = Average unit cost divided by 1 minus Markup percentage
C. Price = Unit cost minus Markup price
D. Price = Total fixed costs divided by Unit price minus Unit variable cost

340

Essay Questions

31. Explain the role of price in the distribution strategy.

32. Explain the various roles of price in the marketing program.

33. What are the steps in selecting a pricing strategy?

34. Give an account of predatory pricing. What are its ethical implications?

35. Give an account of the impact of emerging markets on pricing.

Chapter 12

Promotion, Advertising, and Sales Promotion Strategies

True/False Questions

1. An advantage of personal selling over advertising is its flexibility in responding to the buyer’s objections and questions at the time the decision to purchase is being made.

355

2. The percent-of-sales method of budgeting for promotion is arbitrary and does not recognize that promotion efforts and results are related.

357
3. Promotion expenditures for the competitive parity method are guided by comparing which component(s) is/are appropriate for attaining each objective.

357
4. The final step in developing an advertising strategy involves evaluating its effectiveness.

359
5. Determining the sales and profit impact of advertising is more difficult to measure than the exposure and awareness it creates.

360
6. The fragmentation of many consumer markets is driving significant amounts of advertising spending from traditional mass media to more focused narrowcast media.

363

7. Recall tests measure consumers’ awareness of specific ads and campaigns by asking questions to determine if a sample of people remembers an ad.

366

8. Longitudinal studies use empirical data to build a mathematical relationship between sales and advertising effort.

366

9. Sales promotions are primarily used to bring awareness of a particular product.

366

10. Coupons are extensively used as a promotional activity to target value chain members.

369

Multiple Choice Questions

11. _____ consists of planning, implementing, and controlling an organization’s communications to its customers and other target audiences. 
A. Promotion strategy
B. Distribution program
C. Benchmarking
D. Planned obsolescence

350
12. Which of the following is a disadvantage of advertising?
A. It has high cost per exposure.
B. It has fixed messages for the duration of an exposure.
C. It does not allow much creativity in message design.
D. It provides low control of message content.

351

13. Which of the following is true about advertising?
A. It has high cost per exposure.
B. It provides low control over exposure.
C. It does not allow direct interactions with buyer.
D. It does not allow for creative message designs.

351

14. _____ consists of verbal communication between a salesperson and one or more prospective purchasers with the objective of making or influencing a sale. 
A. Public relation
B. Sales promotion
C. Advertising
D. Personal selling

351

15. _____ consists of activities such as, trade shows, contests, samples, point-of-purchase displays, product placement in films and other occasions, trade incentives, and coupons.
A. Sales promotion
B. Advertising
C. Personal selling
D. Interactive marketing

351
16. _____ refers to communications placed in the commercial media at no charge to the company receiving the publicity.
A. Advertising
B. Public relations
C. Personal selling
D. Interactive marketing

353

17. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the percent of sales method of setting promotional budgets?
A. It heavily relies on the experience and judgment of the marketing team.
B. It can result in too much spending on promotion when sales are high and not enough when sales are low.
C. Its budgeting method is directly guided by how much competitors spend.
D. It does not base its budgeting on past expenditure patterns.

357
18. Which of the following promotion strategies is most appropriate when buyers’ information needs are high?
A. Advertising-driven
B. Sales promotion-driven
C. Personal selling-driven
D. Generic

358

19. An advertising-driven promotion strategy is used when:
A. the numbers of buyers are small.
B. the size and importance of purchase is large.
C. product complexity is high.
D. no post purchase contact is required.

358

20. Which of the following advertising objectives is used more often because of the ease of measurement?
A. Exposure objectives
B. Attitude change objectives
C. Sales objectives
D. Profit objectives

360

21. Distributing promotional video clips across the Internet is referred to as _____.
A. personal selling
B. viral marketing
C. sales promotion
D. direct distribution

363

22. _____ identifies relationships between advertising expenditures and sales using statistical techniques such as regression analysis. 
A. Test marketing
B. Recall test
C. Longitudinal study
D. Evaluating historical data

366
23. _____ measure(s) consumers’ awareness of specific ads and campaigns by asking questions to determine if a sample of people remembers an ad. 
A. Recall tests 
B. Effort/result models 
C. Longitudinal studies
D. Test marketing

366
24. _____ track(s) advertising expenditures and sales results before, during, and after an advertising campaign. 
A. Effort/result models
B. Longitudinal studies
C. Recall tests
D. Test marketing

366
25. _____ use empirical data to build a mathematical relationship between sales and advertising effort. 
A. Controlled tests
B. Recall tests
C. Effort/results models
D. Longitudinal studies

366
26. Which of the following is a promotional pricing form of sales promotion activity?
A. Selling aids
B. Trade shows
C. Prizes
D. Coupons

369

27. Which of the following sales promotion activity is targeted at industrial buyers?
A. Coupons
B. Bonuses
C. Rebates
D. Advertising support

369

28. Which of the following informational activities is targeted at both channel members and the salesforce?
A. Demonstrations
B. Trade shows
C. Displays
D. Selling aids

369

29. Which of the following is a disadvantage of sales promotions?
A. The sales response of the sales promotion activities cannot be measured to determine their effectiveness.
B. The incentive and price promotion techniques trigger the purchase of other products.
C. It allows value-added resellers to build inventories on products that receive manufacturers’ trade discounts.
D. It has the flexibility to contribute to various marketing objectives.

370

30. Which of the following is the first step in developing a sales promotion strategy?
A. Setting specific promotion objectives
B. Defining the communications task(s) to be accomplished
C. Evaluating the relative cost-effectiveness of various methods
D. Coordinating the content and the timing with other activities

371

Essay Questions

31. Identify the advantages and disadvantages of advertising.

32. List the activities involved in designing an organization’s promotion strategy.

33. Define and explain the benefits of the objective and task method of promotion budget.

34. Explain the challenges impacting the creative process in advertising and changing the design of creative strategies and media.

35. Give an account of the different promotional activities targeted at a firm’s salesforce.

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Chapter 10

Value-Chain Strategy

True/False Questions

1. Buying and selling activities by marketing intermediaries reduce the number of transactions for producers and end-users.

2
2. A single product makes distribution by the manufacturer economically feasible, whereas the cost of direct sales for a complete line may be prohibitive.

2

3. Relationships between the conventional channel participants are rather informal and the members are not closely coordinated.

292

4. The conventional channel of distribution is a group of horizontally linked independent organizations.

292

5. Relationships between the conventional distribution channel participants are rather informal and the members are not closely coordinated.

292

6. A primary feature of a vertical marketing system is the management (or coordination) of the distribution channel collectively by the organizations involved.

292

7. If one retailer or dealer in the trading area distributes the product, then management is following a selective distribution strategy.

296

8. Large producers with extensive capabilities and resources have a lot of flexibility in choosing intermediaries.

297

9. A conventional distribution channel offers little opportunity for control by a member firm, yet there is a lot of flexibility in entering and exiting from the channel.

299

10. Agile supply chains require long-term partnership with suppliers.

304

Multiple Choice Questions

11. _____ is defined as the group of vertically aligned organizations that keep improving a product in moving from basic supplies to finished products for consumer and organizational end-users.
A. Value chain
B. Distribution strategy
C. Retail strategy
D. Digital channel

2
12. _____ is a network of value chain organizations performing functions that connect goods and services with end-users.
A. Line extension
B. Retail chain
C. Channel of distribution
D. Digital channel

2

13. Which of the following value-added activities would most effectively reduce the number of transactions for producers and end-users?
A. Assembly of products into inventory
B. Servicing and repairs
C. Processing and storage of goods
D. Buying and selling activities by marketing intermediaries

2

14. Which of the following value-added activities helps to meet buyers’ time-of-purchase and variety preferences?
A. Assembly of products into inventory
B. Transportation
C. Processing and storage of goods
D. Advertising and sales promotion

2

15. Consumer-products manufacturers often direct advertising to _____to help pull products through distribution channels.
A. middlemen
B. consumers
C. distributors
D. retailers

2

16. Which of the following factors favors direct distribution by the manufacturer?
A. Simple product/application
B. Large number of geographically concentrated buyers
C. Opportunity for competitive advantage
D. Small and frequent purchases

291

17. The _____ of distribution is a group of vertically linked independent organizations, each trying to look out for itself, with limited concern for the total performance of the channel. 
A. digital channel
B. vertical marketing system
C. direct channel
D. conventional channel

292
18. In a _____, one organization coordinates the distribution channel and directs programming of channel activities and functions.
A. vertical marketing system 
B. conventional channel
C. direct channel
D. digital channel

292
19. _____ VMS includes various formal arrangements between channel participants including franchising and voluntary chains of independent retailers.
A. Ownership
B. Contractual
C. Administered
D. Relationship

294
20. _____ VMS exists because one of the channel members has the capacity to influence other channel members and exerts substantial control over them.
A. Ownership
B. Contractual
C. Administered
D. Relationship

294

21. In _____ VMS, a single firm does not exert substantial control over other channel members but involves close collaboration and sharing of information. 
A. ownership
B. contractual
C. administered
D. relationship

294
22. _____ marketing system exists when two or more unrelated companies put together resources or programs to exploit a marketing opportunity. Its characteristics are close to the partnering, joint venture, and strategic alliance arrangements.
A. Horizontal
B. Digital
C. Administered
D. Relationship

295

23. The process of replacing distributors with direct manufacturer-owned channels is referred to as _____.
A. e-procurement
B. channel invasion
C. channel audit
D. disintermediation

295
24. If a company decides to distribute its products in many of the retail outlets in a trading area that might normally carry such a product, it is using a(n) _____ distribution approach. 
A. exclusive
B. intensive
C. selective
D. moderate

296
25. If a company decides to distribute its products through one retailer or dealer in the trading area, then the company is following a(n) _____ distribution strategy.
A. intensive
B. selective
C. exclusive
D. moderate

296
26. Which of the following is the final step in selecting the distribution strategy?
A. Selecting the channel configuration
B. Determining the type of channel arrangement
C. Deciding the intensity of distribution
D. Identifying appropriate distribution strategy

297

27. Channel _____ refers to the strategic shift from one channel to another.
A. invasion
B. migration
C. innovation
D. audit

301

28. The _____ supply chain seeks to remove waste and manage volatility out of the supply chain by leveling demand.
A. fluid
B. agile
C. lean
D. conventional

304

29. The _____ supply chain mandates fluid and market-based relationships to enhance responsiveness to the market and capacity for rapid change.
A. fluid
B. conventional
C. lean
D. agile

304

30. Often customers shop for information in one channel, then defect from that channel to make the purchase in another medium. This process is referred to as _____.
A. personal selling
B. channel surfing
C. direct distribution
D. channel mapping

306

Essay Questions

31. Discuss the factors that influence distribution decision.

32. Discuss the emerging issue of the digital distribution channel occurring in markets in which the product can be converted to digital format.

33. Discuss the major issues in deciding distribution intensity.

34. What is channel migration? List the issues to be considered when opting for migration.

35. Discuss the impact of e-procurement in business-to-business marketing.

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Chapter 08

Innovation and New-Product Strategy

True/False Questions

1. New products that provide improved performance or greater perceived value are known as substantial innovations.

219

2. Conformity between consumer value expectations and product use experience indicates greater new-product opportunities.

221

3. Analyzing customer value expectations to finding new-product opportunities are very useful in evaluating potential transformational innovations.

222

4. Radical innovations have the potential of creating negative impacts on the leading firms that pursue new-product strategies using existing technologies.

222

5. When products become commodities, profit margins increase and differentiated advantages are easily achieved.

222
6. The elite circle is a form of innovation through collaborative relationship in which a company chooses participants, defines the problem, and chooses the solution.

225

7. A new-product screening involves testing if the product is commercially viable.

235
236

8. A product prototype is the first completed model of the product that is ready for commercial production and marketing.

241

9. Product specifications describe what the product will do rather than how it should be designed.

241

10. The traditional method of market testing helps eliminate the risk present in simulated tests of competitor exposure.

245
246

Multiple Choice Questions

11. Which of the following enables producing a product by building it up a layer at a time?
A. Additive manufacturing
B. Productive layering
C. Merchandise fabrication
D. Object enabling

218

12. _____ innovation occurs when products are radically new and the values created are substantial.
A. Substantial
B. Transformational
C. Incremental
D. Nondescript

219

13. Products that are significantly new and create important value for customers are called _____ innovations. 
A. transformational
B. incremental
C. substantial
D. nondescript

219
14. New products that provide improved performance or greater perceived value (or lower cost) are called _____ innovations. 
A. transformational
B. substantial
C. nondescript
D. incremental

219
15. Customer _____ indicates how well the product use experience compares to the value expected by the buyer. 
A. value
B. satisfaction
C. need
D. segmentation

221
16. _____ is the combination of benefits provided by a product minus all of the costs incurred by the buyer.
A. Product use experience
B. Customer satisfaction
C. Customer value
D. Leveraging cost

221
17. The objective of _____ is to identify needs for new products and improvements in existing products, processes, and supporting services. 
A. test marketing
B. incremental innovation
C. analytical positioning techniques
D. customer value analysis

221

18. The _____ is a form of innovation through collaborative relationship in which a company chooses participants, defines the problem, and chooses the solution.
A. elite circle
B. innovation mall
C. innovation community
D. consortium

225

19. The _____ is a form of innovation through collaborative relationships where a company posts a problem and anyone can propose a solution.
A. elite circle
B. innovation mall
C. innovation community
D. consortium

225

20. The _____ is a form of innovation through collaborative relationships where anybody can propose problems, offer solutions, and decide which solutions to use.
A. elite circle
B. innovation mall
C. innovation community
D. consortium

226

21. The _____ is a form of innovation through collaborative relationships which operates like a private club with participants jointly selecting problems, deciding how to work on them, and choosing solutions.
A. elite circle
B. innovation mall
C. innovation community
D. consortium

226

22. Product _____ refers to when a new product attracts sales from an existing product.
A. cannibalization
B. knockdown
C. scaffolding
D. benchmarking

226

23. _____ consists of the pursuit of a deliberate, ongoing strategy of developing and introducing new products that attract the buyers of a company’s existing products. 
A. Sustained innovation
B. Proactive cannibalization
C. Cross production
D. Planned obsolescence

226

24. The company’s _____ spells out management’s choice of the company’s most promising opportunities for new products. 
A. mission statement
B. vision consortium
C. innovation strategy
D. articles of incorporation

227

25. Which of the following is the first step in the new-product-planning process?
A. Idea generation
B. Marketing strategy development
C. Product development
D. Customer needs analysis

229
26. Which of the following is true of scanner-based tests?
A. It uses cable television and a computerized database to track new product.
B. It is the cheapest and quickest market test available.
C. Its findings are more accurate than actual market tests.
D. It is conducted in a fabricated shopping environment inside a research facility.

245

27. Which of the following marketing tests is conducted in an actual market environment?
A. Regression tests
B. Simulated tests
C. Traditional tests
D. Web-enabled tests

246

28. Which of the following is a description of the Generic (market-pull) products process type?
A. The team begins with a market opportunity and selects appropriate technologies to meet customer needs.
B. The team begins with a new technology, and then finds an appropriate market.
C. The team assumes that the new product will be built around an established technological subsystem.
D. Characteristics of the product are highly constrained by the production process.

249

29. Which of the following are examples of quick-build products?
A. Sporting goods, furniture, tools
B. Software, cellular phones
C. Pharmaceuticals, space systems
D. Airplanes, jet engines, automobiles

249

30. Which of the following describes the process for platform products?
A. Characteristics of the product are highly constrained by the production process.
B. New products are slight variations of existing configurations.
C. System must be decomposed into several subsystems and many components.
D. The team assumes that the new product will be built around an established technological subsystem.

249

Essay Questions

31. How can innovations be classified? What are the different types of innovations?

32. Describe the various forms of innovation through collaborations?

33. What is proactive cannibalization and what is the strategic logic of this concept?

34. Describe how focus groups help generate new-product ideas.

35. Explain the importance of concept evaluation in new-product planning.

Chapter 09

Strategic Brand Management

True/False Questions

1. Product life cycles are becoming longer for many products due to new technology, rapidly changing preferences of buyers and intense competition.

264
2. Preference mapping offers useful guidelines for strategic targeting and product positioning.

265
3. The brand as a person (brand personality) perspective recognizes that strong brands may have an identity beyond the product or the company, which has positive impacts on the customer relationship and perception of value.

266
4. Combination branding places a brand name on one or more lines of related products representing different product categories.

268

5. In private branding, retailers with established brand names contract with producers to manufacture and place the retailer’s brand name on products sold by the retailer.

268

6. A disadvantage of fighter brands is that they may cannibalize the company’s premium offering.

2

7. Stretching the brand vertically consists of launching a new product line in another product class.

2

8. Moving the brand down is relatively easy to pursue since it benefits from the image of the higher-level brand.

2

9. Brand extension consists of two well-known brands working together in promoting their products.

2
10. Co-branding is the sale of a firm’s brand name to another company for use on a noncompeting product.

2

Multiple Choice Questions

11. A _____ is intended to meet the needs of buyers, and it may consist of objects, services, organizations, places, people, and ideas. 
A. product
B. brand
C. resource
D. trademark

255
12. A name, term, design, symbol, or any other feature that identifies one seller’s good or service as distinct from those of other sellers is known as a(n) _____.
A. product
B. merchandise
C. brand
D. advertisement

255
13. According to the American Marketing Association, the legal term for brand is _____.
A. merchandise
B. asset
C. patent
D. trademark

255
14. If a brand is used for the firm as a whole, then it is referred to as a _____.
A. trade name
B. corporation
C. trademark
D. patent

255
15. Which of the following is a function of brands for buyers?
A. Facilitate the introduction of new products
B. Reduce customer search costs
C. Raise the buyers’ perceived risk
D. Curtail premium pricing

256

16. For buyers, brands play the function of:
A. aiding repeat purchases.
B. reducing premium pricing.
C. minimizing buyers’ perceived risks.
D. facilitating brand loyalty.

256

17. Which of the following is a function of brands for sellers?
A. Reduce sellers’ perceived risks
B. Facilitate low production costs
C. Diminish market segmentation, offering products to a larger target
D. Facilitate the introduction of new products

256

18. Which of the following about brands is true?
A. Brands facilitate promotional effectiveness for sellers.
B. Brands help reduce prices for buyers.
C. Brands minimize market segmentation to cater to a larger target.
D. Brands enhance buyers’ perceived risks.

256

19. Which of the following leads to a negative impact on brand management?
A. Reduced customer search costs
B. Fragmentation of markets and media
C. Increased brand loyalty
D. Reduction in buyer’s perceived risk

257

20. Marketing plans for specific brands are usually developed at _____ level.
A. market-driven management
B. product group/marketing management
C. product portfolio management
D. product/brand management

258

21. A business that has several product categories and/or brands may assign responsibility for coordinating the initiatives of product or brand managers to _____.
A. the chief executive of the SBU
B. a product director
C. a product portfolio manager
D. a brand analyst

259

22. _____ management is normally assigned to the chief executive of the strategic business unit, the corporate level of an organization, or a team of top executives.
A. Product/brand
B. Product group/marketing
C. Product portfolio
D. Market-driven

260
23. Which of the following activities of strategic brand management primarily provides essential information for decision making for other brand management activities?
A. Leveraging the brand 
B. Brand equity management
C. Brand identity strategy
D. Strategic brand analysis

261
24. The intent of _____ is to determine “a unique set of brand associations that the brand strategist aspires to create or maintain.”
A. brand identity strategy
B. brand equity management
C. strategic brand analysis 
D. brand equity measurement

261

25. _____ consists of coordinating the organization’s system of brands with the objective of achieving optimal system performance. It focuses on brand interrelations rather than an individual brand.
A. Strategic brand analysis
B. Managing the brand portfolio
C. Leveraging the brand
D. Brand equity management

262

26. _____ involves extending the core brand identity to a new addition to the product line, or to a new product category.
A. Strategic brand analysis
B. Managing the brand portfolio
C. Leveraging the brand
D. Brand equity management

262

27. Which of the following is the first step in tracking brand performance?
A. Identifying problem products
B. Selecting method(s) for evaluation
C. Deciding how to resolve the problem
D. Establishing the performance objectives

262
263

28. Using the same brand name to market one or more lines of related goods which represent different categories, such as Crest toothpaste, brushes, and floss, is referred to as _____.
A. corporate branding
B. product-line branding
C. combination branding
D. private branding

267

29. Which of the following strategies for brand strength involves launching a brand aimed to combat low-price competitors while protecting the company’s premium priced offerings?
A. Brand revitalization
B. Licensing
C. Fighter brands
D. Co-branding

2

30. Which of the following brand leveraging strategies involves the sale of a firm’s brand name to another company for use on a noncompeting product?
A. Line extension
B. Brand extension
C. Co-branding
D. Licensing

2

Essay Questions

31. What functions do brands serve for sellers?

32. Explain three internal and external forces that create hurdles for brand managers in their efforts to build strong brands. What is one key to reducing these negative impacts on brand-building strategies?

33. List the measures that Aaker proposes to capture all relevant aspects of brand equity.

34. Brands that have been successful over a long time period offer useful insights about brand strategy management. Discuss some of these insights.

35. Discuss the state of counterfeit brands, the ethical issues, the involvement of law enforcement, and the role of the internet in counterfeiting.

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CHAPTER 18
ORGANIZED CRIME AND GANGS

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Any fraudulent scheme that uses any interstate delivery services can be prosecuted as a felony under the
a. “mail fraud act”
b. “bank fraud act”
c. “wire fraud act”
d. none of these answers is correct

484

2. A scheme defined to include a scheme to deprive another of the “intangible right of honest services” is known as a
a. wire fraud
b. mail fraud
c. bank fraud
d. loan fraud

484

3. Which of the following are ways of laundering money?
a. gold purchases
b. purchases of cashier’s checks
c. wire transfers
d. all of these

476-478

4. What is the name of an underground banking system used to launder money?
a. Hawala
b. RICO
c. Miranda
d. CTR

476-477

5. In 1970, Congress enacted the RICO law. What does RICO stand for?
a. Racket Induced Criminal Operations
b. Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations
c. Racketeer Influenced Commercial Operation
d. Racket Induced Criminal Organization

472

6. To obtain a conviction under RICO, the government must prove that the defendant
a. is part of a continuing criminal enterprise
b. has committed at least three felonies
c. has invested illegally obtained funds
d. is a member of the Mafia

472

7. The primary purpose of RICO laws is to strike at the source of the economic power of
a. terrorist organizations
b. illegal business monopolies
c. manufacturers of counterfeit goods
d. organized crime

472

8. For the purpose of money laundering statutes, profits gained from unlawful activities are known as
a. proceeds
b. receipts
c. markers
d. tickets

476-477

9. One of the benefits of the passage of the RICO ACT was that it enabled prosecutors to charge all people engaged in unlawful activity who own or invest in an enterprise that affects
a. interstate commerce
b. the federal government
c. state taxes
d. banking

474

10. If the underlying criminal acts do not affect interstate commerce
a. the federal government has no jurisdiction to prosecute
b. the federal government still has jurisdiction to prosecute under special provisions of the RICO statute
c. the federal government can engage in a joint prosecution with the state
d. the state government can elect to turn the case over to federal officials

11. One of the benefits of the passage of the CCE Statute was that it enabled prosecutors to charge people
a. whose actions enable a criminal enterprise to function
b. aided and abetted the mafia
c. with tax evasion
d. who cross state lines when committing crimes

472

12. Which of the following statements regarding the federal witness protection program is true?
a. The program was created during the period of Prohibition in the U.S.
b. Since being established, the program has seldom been used.
c. The program is utilized in both federal and state prosecutions.
d. The program applies to witnesses, but not their families.

475-476

13. Which of the following statements regarding the Federal Victim and Witness Protection Act is FALSE?
a. The Act was passed by Congress in 1982.
b. This statute created the crime of witness tampering.
c. Tampering is a crime only if the witness testifies in a criminal trial.
d. All of these are true statements.

475-476

14. Which of the following statements regarding money laundering is FALSE?
a. The USA PATRIOT Act toughened money laundering laws.
b. It is the world’s third largest business.
c. Money laundering is a crime only on the federal level.
d. Sentences for cash smuggling have been increased.

476-478

15. The RICO laws focus on the conspiratorial nature of
a. organized crime
b. white collar crime
c. burglary
d. wire fraud

16. The practice of keeping payments for expensive items under the amount requiring a currency transaction report to launder illegal money is called.
a. smurfing
b. rigging
c. switching
d. wiring

478-480

17. To obtain a RICO or “little RICO” conviction, the prosecution must prove which of the following?
a. that the enterprise existed and was engaged in racketeering activity
b. that the defendants were members of the racketeering enterprise
c. two or more incidents of racketeering conduct “that have the same or similar intents, results, victims, or methods of commission”
d. all of these

472

18. Which of the following criminal acts qualify as “predicate acts” under the RICO laws?
a. drug trafficking
b. mail fraud
c. witness tampering
d. all of these criminal acts qualify

472

19. What federal statute permits prosecution under that act if the extortion can be shown to interfere with interstate commerce?
a. the Travel Act
b. the Hobbs Act
c. the Bribery Act
d. the Extortion Act

481

20. What act requires banks, businesses, and financial institutions to report large cash transactions?
a. National Money Laundering Act
b. Currency Transaction Reporting Act
c. Large Cash Transaction Act
d. Prevention of the Laundering Illegal Proceeds Act

21. RICO and CCE laws have been successfully used to stop which of the following?
a. illegal activities by anti-abortion groups
b. stock exchange violations
c. porn shop violations
d. all of these

472-474

22. The Supreme Court has ruled that for the federal RICO law a “criminal enterprise” means
a. association in fact
b. formal business
c. informal business
d. formal structure

473

23. The federal RICO statute permits federal prosecutions based on criminal acts that would normally fall under
a. state criminal jurisdiction
b. district court criminal jurisdiction
c. appellate criminal jurisdiction
d. county criminal jurisdiction

472-474

24. The witness protection program created in 1970 provides new identities and relocation for witnesses
a. and their families in both state and federal criminal prosecutions of organized crime
b. and their families in federal criminal prosecutions of organized crime
c. in both state and federal criminal prosecutions of organized crime
d. and their families in state criminal prosecutions of organized crime

475-476

25. What act did Congress pass in 1982 related to the witness protection program?
a. the Federal Victim and Witness Protection Act
b. the Federal Victim Protection Act
c. the Federal Witness Protection Act
d. none of these

476
26. According to the U.S. Supreme Court, under the money laundering statute, proceeds can be
a. profits
b. receipts
c. profits or receipts
d. none of these answers

478

27. Any fraudulent scheme that uses an interstate delivery system may be prosecuted as a felony under
a. the federal mail fraud statute
b. a state criminal fraud law
c. both the federal mail fraud statute and state criminal fraud law
d. neither the federal mail fraud statute nor a state criminal fraud law

484

28. Illegal profits can NOT be laundered through the purchase of which of the following?
a. homes
b. jewelry
c. cars
d. drugs

476-477

29. When it comes to prosecuting organized crime
a. there is no advantage to a federal versus state prosecution
b. state law usually offers more advantages than federal law
c. the jurisdiction that can prosecute most quickly will more likely be the
best venue
d. there are advantages to a federal over a state prosecution

483

30. Legislation that can be used to prosecute those involved in criminal activities that cross state borders or involve foreign commerce is known as the
a. travel act
b. wire act
c. bank act
d. fraud act

480-481

TRUE/FALSE

1. The federal RICO removes the jurisdictional requirement that the racketeering activities affected interstate commerce.

2. Money can be laundered by taking it to another country.

3. Prior to 1970, attempts to prosecute groups known as the mafia were largely unsuccessful.

4. Federal and state RICO laws generally require the government to prove that the defendants committed or conspired to commit acts of racketeering.

5. The federal RICO statute permits federal prosecutions based on criminal acts that would normally fall under state criminal jurisdiction.

6. Organized crime and gang members often used bribery and extortion of witnesses to present witnesses from testifying.

7. The Mail fraud act is a federal law used to combat organized crime.

8. The process by which criminals seek to disguise the illicit nature of their proceeds by introducing them into the stream of legitimate commerce is known as money washing.

9. The grand jury system makes prosecution in federal courts advantageous.

10. There is one type of immunity provided to federal grand jury witnesses.

COMPLETION

1. A RICO conviction requires proof that an enterprise existed that engaged in
activity.

2. Most courts now hold that any effect on commerce satisfies the RICO

3. Money can be by buying cash or bearer instruments.

4. Federal jurisdiction is possible under RICO if the underlying acts affect commerce.

5. Witness is a crime whether the witness plans to testify in a criminal trial or a civil trial.

6. Proceeds for purpose of the money statutes means profits gained from unlawful activities.

7. The Act can be used to prosecute those involved in criminal activities that cross state borders or involve foreign commerce.

8. The federal statute, known as the Act, permits prosecution under that act if the extortion can be shown to interfere with interstate commerce.

9. Federal court rules make prosecution in federal courts advantageous.

10. The acronym CTR stands for currency reports.

CHAPTER 19
IMMIGRATION CRIMES, CONTEMPT, AND OTHER CRIMES AGAINST GOVERNMENT

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Contempt requires a showing of what kind of disregard of the authority of a court or legislative body?
a. willful
b. negligent
c. reckless
d. accidental

2. The purpose of civil contempt is to
a. punish the defendant
b. compel the defendant to carry out the court’s order
c. allow the defendant to challenge the court’s order
d. none of these

3. Which of the following is one of the purposes of the charge of criminal contempt?
a. to punish the defendant for wrongdoing
b. to compel the defendant to carry out the court’s order
c. to allow the defendant time to appeal
d. to deter others

4. In 2010 Arizona passed a state statute aimed at
a. illegal immigrants
b. resident aliens
c. legal immigrants
d. minorities

5. In 2010 Arizona passed a state statute which requires persons to carry valid
a. immigration documents
b. driver’s licenses
c. birth certificates
d. proof of residency

6. Direct contempt is that which
a. directly challenges the authority of the court or legislative body
b. occurs in the presence of the judge or legislative body
c. may be punished following a trial on the issue
d. directly affects the defendant

7. Constructive or indirect contempt is that which
a. does not occur in the presence of the court or legislative body
b. is done without wrongful intent
c. occurs in the presence of the judge
d. may be punished summarily

8. In July of 2010 a federal judge issued a preliminary injunction blocking these provisions of the Arizona immigration law, agreeing with the U.S. Justice Department that immigration enforcement laws were within the exclusive power of the
a. federal government
b. Supreme Court
c. U.S. Military
d. state government

9. An individual may not be held in contempt unless it can be shown that
a. the person was warned after the first occurrence
b. the judge personally witnessed the wrongdoing
c. the judge provided the person an opportunity to apologize
d. the person acted with some sort of wrongful intent

10. Constructive contempt is also known as
a. situational contempt
b. indirect contempt
c. circumstantial contempt
d. common contempt

11. How do illegal immigrants enter the United States?
a. walk across the border
b. on boats
c. as students
d. all of these

12. Which of the following conduct is a felony under immigration laws?
a. failure to notify of change of address
b. failure to register
c. making false statements
d. harboring illegal aliens

13. Which of the following conduct is a misdemeanor under immigration laws?
a. first illegal entry
b. reentry of deported alien
c. second illegal entry
d. aiding subversive alien to enter

14. What kind of violation is required for criminal prosecutions under the Clean Air Act?
a. knowingly
b. willingly
c. specifically
d. intentionally

15. In what case was the definition of “knowingly” decided for purposes of the Clean Air Act?
a. United States v. Rubenstein
b. Holland v. United States
c. People v. Hollingshead
d. Richard W. Miller

16. The immigration laws make it a crime to
a. make a false entry into this country
b. assist others to make an illegal entry in this country
c. hire an illegal alien.
d. all of these

17. Extortion by public employees or officials is a violation of the
a. Jones Act
b. Smith Act
c. Hobbs Act
d. Locke Act

18. For a gift to a public official to be illegal, the gift must be
a. given specifically for favorable treatment in the future
b. given or received specifically for favorable treatment in the future, the exact nature of the return must be expressed.
c. received specifically for favorable treatment in the future
d. none of these

19. Summary contempt convictions require that the contempt
a. occurred in the presence of the judge
b. occurred in the courtroom
c. occurred during a trial
d. occurred in the presence of a courtroom actor

20. Susan McDougal was convicted of felony offenses for failure to answer grand jury questions pertaining to the
a. Watergate investigation
b. Whitewash investigation
c. Whitewater investigation
d. Westminster investigation

21. There is no contempt unless there is some sort of
a. wrongful intent
b. criminal intent
c. malicious
d. knowledgeable intent

22. Which of the following may use civil or criminal contempt?
a. divorce cases
b. child custody cases
c. criminal cases
d. all of these

23. Which of the following acts require a “knowingly” element to be violated?
a. the Clean Air Act
b. the Clean Water Act
c. the Clean Air Act and the Clean Water Act
d. none of these answers is correct

24. What usually happens to most of the people detained annually for violation of United States immigration laws?
a. they are removed to their home countries
b. they are incarcerated in jail
c. they are incarcerated in prison
d. they are incarecreated in jail and then removed to their home countries

25. What is the usual limit under federal law, 28 U.S.C. § 1826, on the period a person can be held in jail for civil contempt for refusal to obey a court order?
a. 18 months
b. 24 months
c. 36 months
d. 48 months

26. What is the name of the crime of knowingly and materially testifying falsely while under oath?
a. perjury
b. subornation of perjury
c. misprision of felony
d. misprision of perjury

27. Little was done to regulate disposal of hazardous waste until what decade?
a. 1950s
b. 1960s
c. 1970s
d. 1980s

28. Which of the following statements regarding environmental crimes is FALSE?
a. All states have enacted environmental laws.
b. All states have authorized agencies to enforce environmental laws.
c. Federal environmental laws are civil, not criminal, in nature.
d. Vigorous enforcement of environmental laws is a top priority.

29. What is the difference between contempt and summary contempt?
a. summary contempt occurs in the presence of the judge
b. summary contempt occurs in the presence of the jury
c. summary contempt occurs in the presence of the attorneys
d. summary contempt occurs in the courtroom

492-493

30. Attempts to thwart illegal immigration include which of the following?
a. walls
b. cameras
c. electronic monitoring devices
d. all of these

TRUE/FALSE

1. Contempt is the willful disregard of the authority of a court of law or of a legislative body.

2. Contempt may be used in criminal cases, but not in civil cases.

3. Not every gift, favor or contribution to a government or political official constitutes bribery.

4. Summary contempt is proper for all kinds of contempt.

5. There is no contempt unless there is some sort of wrongful intent.

6. Direct contempt may NOT be punished summarily.

7. The crime of subornation of perjury is committed when another person is induced or knowingly permitted to testify falsely.

8. Obstruction of justice may be a violation of federal or state law.

9. Until the 1990s, little was done to regulate disposal of hazardous waste.

10. It is a federal crime to use marriage as a means of evading the immigration laws of the United States.

COMPLETION

1. Acts that delay, impede, or frustrate the functioning or the dignity of a court or legislative body may be held to be in __________ of that body.

2. In order to compel a person to do something she is obligated to do, a court may hold the person in __________ contempt.

3. The offense of of justice seeks to protect the judicial system, both civil and criminal, from intentional acts that would hinder, corrupt, or impede the functioning of the system.

4. Deliberate tax and tax fraud are generally punished as crimes

5. States often make failure to report for duty when summoned a crime.

6. A witness who knowingly and materially testifies falsely while under oath commits the crime of __________.

7. Encouraging or paying someone to commit perjury is the crime of __________ of perjury.

8. A person who gives or sells national military or defense secrets to a foreign nation, for example, has committed the felony offense of ________.

9. In the 1980s and 1990s, laws were enacted to protect public health and the quality of the __________.

10. It is a crime to use marriage as a means of evading the immigration laws of the United States.

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LEG 320 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer

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CHAPTER 16
DRUG ABUSE AND ALCOHOL-RELATED CRIMES

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is NOT generally one of the elements of the crime of possession with intent to deliver?
a. the accused possessed a large amount of an illegal drug
b. the accused possessed scales
c. the accused possessed a cellular phone
d. the accused possessed a counterfeit credit card

432

2. In Gonzales v. Raich, the court reasoned that the private use of marijuana might have
a. an adverse impact on federal drug laws
b. a positive impact on federal drug laws
c. an adverse impact on state drug laws
d. a positive impact on state drug laws

443

3. In Gonzales v. Raich, the court reasoned Congress had the power under the Commerce Clause to regulate
a. even purely intra-sate use of marijuana
b. only purely intra-sate use of marijuana
c. even purely inter-sate use of marijuana
d. only purely inter-sate use of marijuana

443

4. All of the following are crimes under the Uniform Controlled Substances Act EXCEPT
a. manufacture or delivery of an illegal drug
b. possession with intent to deliver an illegal drug
c. delivery or possession with intent to deliver a counterfeit substance
d. possession of alcohol by a minor

428

5. Medical use of marijuana is permitted in some states. Although medical users can be prosecuted under federal laws,
a. in 2010 the Justice Department said it would not prosecute medical users
b. in 2010 the Justice Department said it would prosecute medical users
c. in 2010 the U.S. Supreme Court said it would not prosecute medical users
d. in 2010 the U.S. Supreme Court said it would prosecute medical users

433

6. What is the most widely abused and misused drug in America and in many other countries?
a. alcohol
b. meth
c. marijuana
d. cocaine

438

7. The 2002 National Institutes of Health study surveyed drinking among the 8 million college and university students in the United States. What percentage of students were shown to drink in binges?
a. 44%
b. 55%
c. 40%
d. 30%

438

8. How many alcohol-related student deaths are there each year?
a. 1,445
b. 2,545
c. 3,645
d. 4,745

438

9. The federal government and all states have enacted some form of the Uniform
a. Narcotics Act
b. Illegal Drug Act
c. Dangerous Drug Act
d. Controlled Substances Act

428

10. The most common illegal drug charge is some form of
a. selling
b. buying
c. possession
d. trafficking

428

11. How many states currently have a “Compassionate Use Medical Marijuana” statute?
a. 14
b. 19
c. 20
d. 16

433

12. The Uniform Controlled Substances Act divides drugs into how many schedules?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9

428

13. A minority of states require that the defendant have possessed what minimum amount of the illegal substance to sustain a conviction?
a. a trace amount
b. a usable amount
c. a gram
d. a bindle

430

14. What is the minimum amount of the illegal substance required to sustain a drug conviction by a majority of states?
a. usable amount
b. trace amount
c. any amount
d. a gram

430

15. In fourteen states, doctors may prescribe the personal use of what drug for pain management for people with serious illnesses?
a. cocaine
b. marijuana
c. heroin
d. methamphetamine

433

16. Challengers of the Federal Controlled Substances Act alleged Congress has no constitutional authority to prohibit the medical use of marijuana based on the
a. due process clause
b. equal protection clause
c. interstate commerce clause
d. none of these answers are correct

433

17. A defendant arrested in possession of a large amount of an illegal drug would most likely have been charged with the offense of
a. possession of a controlled substance
b. delivery of a controlled substance
c. possession with intent to deliver
d. possession of stolen property

432

18. In New Jersey an individual who provides an illegal drug to another, and that person dies as a result of ingesting the drug,
a. cannot be held liable for the death
b. may be held strictly liable for the death
c. will be found guilty of premeditated murder
d. will be charged with a misdemeanor drug offense

435

19. Approximately what number of people are killed every day in the United States because of driving under the influence?
a. 50
b. 100
c. 25
d. 150

438

20. The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration estimates the yearly costs of drunk driving to be
a. $45 billion
b. $35 billion
c. $25 billion
d. $15 billion

438

21. Which of the following is a violation of the Uniform Controlled Substances Act?
a. possession of a controlled substance
b. deliver a counterfeit substance
c. manufacture a controlled substance
d. all of these answers are correct

428

22. What are the two types of possession?
a. actual and constructive
b. real and actual
c. real and constructive
d. actual and contractual

430

23. The “usable quantity” rule holds that a useless trace amount is not
a. a usable amount
b. a sufficient amount
c. a chargeable amount
d. a sufficient quantity

430

24. Delivery of an illegal drug can be either an actual delivery, or it could be the crime of possession of a controlled substance with
a. intent to deliver
b. sufficient amount to deliver
c. quantity of delivery
d. delivery potential

432

25. What drug is particularly dangerous because it is an unpredictable killer that can cause life-threatening complications that are not related to the dose taken, the length of use, or the manner in which the drug is taken?
a. cocaine
b. heroin
c. marijuana
d. meth

435

26. Laws that make people who illegally manufacture, distribute, or dispense illegal drugs strictly liable for a death that results from the using such drugs are often called
a. Len Bias laws
b. Terrance Bianchi laws
c. Lawrence Brewer laws
d. Stephen Breyer laws

435

27. Which of the following may qualify as delivery of an illegal drug?
a. all of these may qualify as delivery of an illegal drug
b. possession of a controlled substance with intent to deliver
c. possession of a controlled substance with intent to sell
d. possession of a controlled substance with intent to transfer

432

28. British and U.S. studies of accidental deaths in the 1980s and a National Institutes of Health study in 2002 showed that alcohol has a high relationship to deaths caused by which of the following?
a. drowning
b. choking
c. burns
d. all of these answers are correct

438

29. What percent of state prisoners were convicted of a violent crime while under the influence of alcohol alone?
a. 21%
b. 31%
c. 41%
d. 51%

438

30. Which of the following is NOT a field sobriety test?
a. the walk-and-turn test
b. the HGB test
c. the one-leg-stand test
d. all of these are field sobriety tests

439

TRUE/FALSE

1. A suspect cannot be found to have been operating a motor vehicle by being behind the wheel of a car with the keys in the ignition.

2. The Uniform Controlled Substances Act lists marijuana as a Schedule I drug with the highest abuse potential.

3. In a majority of states, even a “trace” amount of an illegal drug will sustain a conviction for possession of that drug.

4. All states have a uniform charge of possession of a small amount of marijuana.

5. Possession of marijuana for personal use is illegal throughout the U.S.

6. A defendant arrested in possession of a large amount of an illegal drug may be charged with possession with intent to deliver.

7. A person who claims to be selling cocaine, but delivers baking soda, cannot be charged with a drug crime.

8. People who illegally dispense illegal drugs will be held strictly liable in many states for a death that results from the ingestion of such a drug.

9. Criminal liability for drug induced death requires that the state must show only that the defendant provided the drugs to the victim, and that the victim died as a proximate result of the defendant’s actions.

10. Victims of drunk driving may be able to sue bars or individuals who furnished the alcoholic drinks.

COMPLETION

1. Intent to deliver illegal drugs can be proved by showing a “ connection” between the facts of possession, such as the large quantity of the drug, and an intent to sell the drugs.

2. The most common criminal illegal drug charge is that of _____________ of a controlled substance.

3. Two types of drug possession are “actual” and “___________.”

4. An amount of an illegal drug that is so small that it is unusable is referred to as a “________” amount.

5. Depending upon the jurisdiction, possession of a small amount of marijuana may be charged as either a criminal or a _________ offense.

6. In Gonzales v. the court reasoned that private use of marijuana might have an adverse impact on federal drug laws.

7. In a number of states, a person who dispenses an illegal drug will be held ________ liable for a death that results from ingestion of such drug.

8. Most students drink or not at all, but 44 percent of students drink in binges.

9. The most widely abused and misused drug in America is _________.

10. Nystagmus is a persistent, rapid, , side-to-side eye movement.

CHAPTER 17
TERRORISM

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Terrorists are willing to take innocent lives to
a. make money
b. make a political statement
c. satisfy their bloodlust
d. stimulate reprisals

450

2. Congress was required to clearly define the acts that constituted terrorism and condemned under the conventions because of the
a. vagueness limitation on statutes
b. void limitation on statutes
c. definition limitation on statutes
d. discreet

451

3. People who believe that organized government is evil may be referred to as
a. anarchists
b. agnostics
c. advocates
d. agents

451

4. Generally, terrorists differ from other criminals on the basis of their
a. psychological characteristics
b. mental illness
c. motive
d. physical characteristics

451

5. Which of the following statements regarding terrorism is FALSE?
a. Acts of terrorism may be sponsored by a nation or a group.
b. Terrorism is not a form of warfare.
c. Terrorism is a global problem.
d. The U.S. is a stated target of the terrorist group Al Qaeda.

451
6. Who is authorized to identify groups or organizations as terrorist organizations?
a. the State Department
b. the President
c. the Congress
d. the House of Representatives

452

7. The Alabama Criminal Code, Section 13-A-10-151, defines the crime of terrorism as an act or acts intended to
a. Intimidate or coerce a civilian population.
b. Influence the policy of a unit of government by intimidation or coercion.
c. Affect the conduct of a unit of government by murder, assassination, or kidnapping.
d. all of these

454

8. Most state statutes also make it a crime for a person to support a terrorist act or organization. Actions that could constitute support include which of the following?
a. providing financial support
b. providing lodging
c. providing training
d. all of these

454

9. Which of the following is the definition of a terrorist threat under state laws?
a. threatened violence against another
b. terrorizing a person
c. threatened violence against another with the purpose of terrorizing
d. none of these

454

10. Most of the money used to finance the 9/11 terrorist attack came from which of the following?
a. charitable organizations
b. private donors
c. foreign governments
d. drug dealers

461
11. Which of the following crimes are favored by terrorists to finance their terrorist activities?
a. theft
b. fraud
c. drug trafficking
d. all of these

461

12. According to the text, terrorists sometimes use which of the following to move funds in and out of the United States?
a. electronic wire transfers
b. television commercials
c. radio advertisements
d. none of these

462

13. One way in which terrorists move funds in and out of the United States is through the use of IVTS. What does IVTS stand for?
a. informal value transfer systems
b. international value transfer systems
c. informal value terrorist systems
d. international value terrorist systems

462

14. One example of a kind of IVTS is
a. Hawala
b. Farouq
c. Mandamus
d. Baksheesh

462

15. What is one advantage of using an IVTS?
a. no paper trail
b. it is faster than wire transfers
c. more money is available through IVTS
d. none of these answers is correct

462

16. An extraordinary rendition occurs when a person is seized in one country and then transported to another country for
a. interrogation
b. extradition
c. repatriation
d. mediation

462

17. Customs and practices followed by most nations in wartime and now the subject of international conventions are known as
a. rules of war
b. degrees of war
c. peace negotiations
d. contracts

460

18. Advocating the forceful overthrow of the U.S. government is the crime of
a. sedition
b. sabotage
c. terrorism
d. treason

454

19. Which of the following is NOT one of the classes of crimes created by rules of war?
a. government crimes
b. crimes against peace
c. crimes against humanity
d. traditional war crimes

460

20. The use of unlawful force to coerce or intimidate persons or governments in the pursuit of political, social, or religious goals is known as
a. terrorism
b. genocide
c. humanism
d. feticide

450

21. Many states have adopted a definition of the crime of terrorism closely modeled after the
a. federal definition
b. international definition
c. Supreme Court definition
d. Hague definition

454

22. Damaging or injuring national defense material or national defense utilities with the intent to obstruct the national defense is the crime of
a. sedition
b. sabotage
c. treason
d. aiding a terrorist

457

23. Customs, practices, treaties, and agreements that most nations subscribe to for the conduct of wars openly declared against sovereign nations are called
a. international conventions
b. treaties
c. international agreements concerning waging war
d. rules of war

460

24. Funds for terrorist activities are often transferred through
a. informal value transfer systems
b. human couriers
c. high-tech electronic wire transfers
d. all of these

462

25. A program whereby suspected terrorists are seized by U.S. agents and transported to another country for interrogation is known as
a. secret abduction
b. extraordinary rendition
c. international detention
d. terrorist detention

462

26. Which of the following are possible charges against terrorists?
a. treason
b. sedition
c. sabotage
d. all of these

453-457

27. Which of the following statements regarding the rules of war is FALSE?
a. President Lincoln began the codification of these rules in 1864.
b. Most nations subscribe to the rules of war.
c. Combatants in a war are liable for the violation of ordinary criminal laws.
d. President Eisenhower began the codification of these rules in 1953.

460

28. Which of the following laws forbids the planning, commencement, and conduct of an aggressive war?
a. Crimes Against Peace
b. Crimes Against Humanity
c. Traditional War Crimes
d. Antiterrorism Act of 1996

460

29. Which of the following laws forbids deportation based on race, religion or ethnic origin?
a. Crimes Against Peace
b. Crimes Against Humanity
c. Traditional War Crimes
d. Antiterrorism Act of 1996

460

30. Which of the following laws addresses conduct of combatants towards prisoners of war?
a. Crimes Against Peace
b. Crimes Against Humanity
c. Traditional War Crimes
d. Antiterrorism Act of 1996

460

TRUE/FALSE

1. Not all terrorists are sponsored or protected by a nation or a group.

2. Acts of terrorism may be considered a form of warfare.

3. The term “terrorist” is reserved for those who believe organized government is evil.

4. The State Department is authorized to identify groups or organizations as terrorist organizations.

5. Congress enacted the Federal Antiterrorism Law following the 1995 bombing of the Oklahoma City federal building.

6. The intention to intimidate or coerce a civilian population is one of the elements of the crime of terrorism.

7. A terrorist threat is a threat to commit a violent felony that is a danger to human life, and is made to intimidate only a military group.

8. Rules of war are customs and practices followed by most nations in wartime and now the subject of international conventions.

9. No countries contribute directly to terrorists organizations.

10. An extraordinary rendition occurs when a person is seized in one country and then transported to another country for torture.

COMPLETION

1. Terrorists are criminals who use force and violence in the pursuit of _________, ideological, or religious goals.

2. People who believe organized government is evil are called _________.

3. The State Department is authorized to groups or organizations as terrorist organizations.

4. One of the elements of the crime of terrorism under most state laws is to
or coerce a civilian population.

5. The Antiterrorism and Effective ________ Penalty Act makes it a crime to aid a terrorist organization in the U.S.

6. A terrorist threat is a threat to commit a violent felony that is a danger to human life, and is made to intimidate or coerce a civilian group or a .

7. Rules of are customs and practices followed by most nations in wartime.

8. The shortage of financial support can affect the scope of a terrorist .

9. Individuals contribute indirectly to terrorist organizations by giving money and support to phony “ ” groups that support terrorists.

10. An “extraordinary “ occurs when a person is seized in one country and then transported to another country for interrogation.

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LEG 320 Week 7 Quiz – Strayer

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CHAPTER 12
SEXUAL ASSAULT, RAPE, PROSTITUTION AND RELATED SEX CRIMES

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Sexual relations (nonmarital) become a crime in the United States if
a. there is a lack of consent
b. they are with a minor incapable of legally consenting
c. they are with a mentally deficient person or an adult incapable of consenting
d. all of these answers are correct

312

2. Sexual relations (nonmarital) become a crime in the United States if
a. they are performed in public
b. they are performed for profit
c. they are between a therapist and a patient and in violation of the laws of that state
d. all of these answers are correct

312

3. The National Institute of Justice defines rape as which of the following types of penetration achieved through the use of force or threat of force?
a. vaginal
b. oral
c. anal
d. all of these answers are correct

312

4. What is the name of the crime in which people of the same family have sex?
a. rape
b. sexual assault
c. sexual battery
d. incest

323-324

5. Rule 412 of the Federal Rules of Evidence is an example of a
a. rape shield law
b. sexual predator law
c. child pornography law
d. prostitution law

319-321

6. Rule 412 of the Federal Rules of Evidence provides that in a criminal trial of a sexual assault charge, evidence (1) offered to prove the victim engaged in other sexual behavior, or (2) offered to prove the victim’s sexual predisposition, is
a. inadmissible
b. admissible
c. inflammatory
d. defensible

319-321

7. Which of the following is not one of the exemptions to rape shield law’s prohibitions?
a. evidence of specific sexual behavior of victim offered to prove another person was the source of semen or other physical evidence
b. evidence of specific past sexual contact between the victim and the accused, if offered to prove consent
c. evidence the exclusion of which would violate the constitutional rights of the accused
d. evidence offered to prove the victim’s sexual predisposition

319-321

8. Under the rape shield laws enacted in most states
a. defendants convicted of rape are sentenced to life in prison
b. the rape victim can submit a written statement instead of testifying at trial
c. the victim may have an advocate present with them at trial
d. a rape victim’s past sexual conduct with people other than the
defendant may not be used at trial

319-321

9. Rape shield laws were enacted to
a. encourage the reporting of sexual assaults
b. make it easier to obtain convictions for rape
c. make it easier to obtain convictions for rape and encourage the reporting
of sexual assaults
d. make it more difficult to obtain convictions for rape and discourage the
reporting of sexual assaults

319-321

10. Which of the following are exceptions to the rape shield laws?
a. evidence of specific sexual behavior of victim offered to prove another person was the source of semen or other physical evidence
b. evidence of specific past sexual contact between the victim and the accused, if offered to prove consent
c. evidence the exclusion of which would violate the constitutional rights of the accused
d. all of these are exceptions to the rape shield laws

319-321

11. In most states, honest mistake as to the age of the minor in a statutory rape case
a. is a well-recognized defense
b. is not permitted as a defense
c. is permitted as a defense as long as the child gave consent
d. none of the above

323

12. In State v. Baker, the Iowa Supreme Court permitted a defendant in a rape case to offer evidence that the victim had in the past made false rape claims against others. Since such evidence is not about past sexual behavior, the court held the rape shield law
a. inapplicable
b. invalid
c. applicable
d. valid

321

13. Sexual intercourse with a minor female under the age stated by the criminal code, who is not the wife of a perpetrator is the definition of what crime?
a. statutory rape
b. incest
c. assault
d. battery

321-323

14. Which of the following is a basis for civil commitment of a sexual predator?
a. pedophilia
b. sociopathy
c. schizophrenia
d. psychosis

327

15. Because the goal of the commitment was to furnish treatment to the sex offender, rather than punish him for criminal conduct, it is generally held that these civil commitments do not violate the
a. Double Jeopardy Clause or Ex Post Facto Clause of the U.S. Constitution
b. Double Jeopardy Clause of the U.S. Constitution.
c. Ex Post Facto Clause of the U.S. Constitution.
d. none of these answers is correct

327

16. Once civilly committed, many sex offenders are
a. never released
b. released within a year
c. returned to prison
d. released after they are deemed cured

327

17. Which of the following is NOT considered prostitution?
a. engaging in sexual relations with another person for a fee
b. offering to engage in sexual relations with another person for a fee
c. requesting to pay a fee to another person for sexual services
d. engaging in sexual relations with a spouse

327-328

18. Persons who procure customers for and provide assistance to prostitutes are called
a. procurers
b. pimps
c. facilitators
d. assistors

328-330

19. The owner of a hotel who rented out rooms, knowing that rooms were being used for prostitution, could
a. not be convicted of solicitation for this conduct alone
b. be convicted of solicitation for this conduct alone
c. not be convicted of solicitation if he or she were married
d. be convicted of solicitation if he or she were married

328-330

20. A defendant could be convicted of pimping for prostitution by proof that the defendant
a. lived off the earnings of a person known by the defendant to be a prostitute
b. supported the defendant and knew she was a prostitute
c. lived with the defendant and knew she was a prostitute
d. was married to the defendant and knew she was a prostitute

328-330

21. The Communications Decency Act passed by Congress in 1996, was found to be unconstitutional because it violated which amendment to the U.S. Constitution?
a. the 1st Amendment
b. the 2ndAmendment
c. the 4th Amendment
d. the 5th Amendment

334-338

22. Most statutes regarding the offense of sexual touching require the state to prove the touching was intentional, non-consensual, and
a. involved adults
b. was done for commercial gain
c. was done to arouse or gratify one’s sexual desire
d. was obscene

332-334

23. What is the stated purpose of the Prison Rape Elimination Act of 2003?
a. to provide the means and funds to reduce the incidence of sexual assaults in prisons in the United States
b. to provide the means to reduce the incidence of sexual assaults in prisons in the United States
c. to provide the funds to reduce the incidence of sexual assaults in prisons in the United States
d. none of these answers is correct

338-339

24. What child pornography legislation was passed by congress to eliminate the problems in earlier legislation?
a. the Communications Decency Act
b. the Child Pornography Prevention Act
c. the Child Online Protection Act
d. none of these answers is correct

334-338

25. In ACLU v. Gonzales, a federal judge held that the Child Online Protection Act statute was unconstitutional because it
a. did not use the least restrictive means to achieve the desired result
b. was overbroad
c. failed to meet the reasonableness standard
d. violated the 1st Amendment

337-338

26. Most states divide sexual assault into
a. two or more degrees
b. three or more degrees
c. four or more degrees
d. five or more degrees

342

27. Which of the following factors can increase the degree of sexual assault?
a. force used
b. a weapon used
c. bodily injury inflicted
d. all of these answers are correct

315-317

28. The Child Online Protection Act (COPA)
a. was enacted by Congress in 1998
b. prohibits commercial internet communication that is harmful to minors
c. was attacked as unconstitutional
d. all of these answers are correct

337-338

29. What kind of intent is required for the crime of statutory rape?
a. no specific intent is required
b. specific intent is required
c. real intent is required
d. harmful intent is required

321-323

30. Civil commitment is permissible only if it can be shown the person is a dangerous sexual predator who poses a substantial threat to commit sexual offenses in the future, and
a. that the person cannot control his behavior
b. that the person represents a risk to minors
c. that the person has a history of violent behavior
d. that the person has at last three prior charges

327

TRUE/FALSE

1. Most states divide sexual assault into two or more degrees.

2. It is a defense to the charge of statutory rape that the defendant reasonably believed the person was not a minor.

3. Pimping includes not only securing clients for a prostitute, but also living off the prostitutes illegal earnings.

4. The Child Online Protection Act has been found unconstitutional by a Circuit Court of Appeal, and the Supreme Court has denied review of that decision.

5. Under rape shield laws at trial rape victims do not have to defend their reputations or past sexual conduct with persons other than the defendant.

6. Members of either sex may be convicted of pimping for prostitution.

7. The U.S. Supreme Court has held that the 1996 Child Pornography Prevention Act was unconstitutional because it failed to clearly identify what constituted “indecent” or “patently offensive” material.

8. Aggravated rape is handled the same in all states.

9. Sexual touching laws often require a showing that the conduct was intended to arouse sexual desire.

10. The U.S. Supreme Court has stated that pedophilia is not a basis for civil commitment.

COMPLETION

1. Under some rape statutes, it must be shown that the victim had a genuine and real fear that ____________ force would be used.

2. Most states divide sexual assault into two or more .

3. Rape laws prohibit questioning of a rape victim if the purpose of the questions is to expose the victim’s previous sexual history.

4. Before rape shield laws, a victim’s __________ was deemed “fair game” by defense lawyers.

5. One of the purposes of statutory rape laws is the prevention of illegitimate _________.

6. In most states forbidding statutory rape, a child cannot ___________ to having sexual intercourse with the defendant.

7. Statutory rape requires no specific to have sex with a minor.

8. _________________ includes not only securing clients for a prostitute, but also living off the prostitutes illegal earnings.

9. A majority of states and the federal government do not require __________ as an element of the crime of child pornography.

10. In terms of sexual harassment, the U.S. Supreme Court has held that a “______ or abusive” environment violates the law.

CHAPTER 13
THEFT

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. “Property” is divided into what two types?
a. personal and tangible
b. personal and intangible
c. real and personal
d. single ownership and dual ownership

348

2. Two important rights to property are
a. ownership and title
b. ownership and possession
c. title and disposability
d. title and immutability

348

3. A bailment, or pledge, is an example of a legal situation where the person who
a. has actual possession does not have constructive possession
b. has possession of an item, is not the owner of the property
c. has the title to the item does not have a right to possess the item
d. has ownership of the item but does not have title

348

4. What rule provides that a person who receives money in good faith and for value given takes title to the money?
a. the “money” rule
b. the “title” rule
c. the “nemo dat” rule
d. the “bond” rule

348-349

5. A “taking” can occur by
a. acts of a stranger
b. a trusted employee
c. a spouse
d. any of these

352

6. The “money” rule is an exception to what other rule?
a. the “securities” rule
b. the “title” rule
c. the “nemo dat” rule
d. the “bond” rule

348

7. The act of obtaining physical possession or control of another’s property is known as
a. taking
b. stealing
c. shoplifting
d. burglary

349

8. The key to taking is that the thief
a. exercises unauthorized dominion over the property
b. exercises authorized dominion over the property
c. exercises a lack of control over the property
d. none of these answers are correct

350

9. An employee who steals money or property from their employer commits
a. extortion
b. bribery
c. fraud
d. embezzlement

353

10. Under the old common law, the only property that could be stolen consisted of
a. tangible personal property
b. real estate and items attached to the land
c. documents such as stocks and bonds
d. all of these are correct

354

11. Taking can occur by
a. direct acts
b. appropriating lost or mislaid goods
c. deception
d. all of these are correct

352

12. A joint owner “takes” the property of the other joint owner if the taker had no right to use or keep the property and
a. doing so infringes on the rights of the joint owner
b. doing so causes harm to the joint owner
c. doing so offends the joint owner
d. does so in a suspicious manner

349-351

13. In which of the following ways can the taking requirement be met in shoplifting?
a. hiding retail goods on the person
b. taking the goods out of the store
c. exercising control over goods inconsistent with the right of a shopper to possess goods prior to sale
d. all of these answers are correct

358-360

14. Credit card theft can be proved by showing that the defendant
a. caused purchases to be made with the number taken from another person’s credit card
b. caused purchases to be made with a card that had exceed its limit
c. purchased stolen merchandise
d. shoplifted while holding someone else’s wallet

365

15. What kind of intent is required for the crime of theft?
a. general
b. specific
c. concurrent
d. reckless

357-358

16. The prosecution must prove the same basic elements in a shoplifting case as in a trial for
a. robbery
b. theft
c. extortion
d. bribery

363-364
17. In a self-service store, a “taking” occurs when the individual exercises control over the merchandise
a. and has exited the store
b. and has gone past the last checkout counter
c. and refuses to pay when requested
d. that is wholly inconsistent with the store’s continued rights

360

18. For store security to lawfully use force in dealing with a shoplifter, it must be shown that the force was necessary and reasonable
a. in self-defense
b. to prevent the theft of store property
c. to detain the shoplifter
d. all of these

360-363

19. If a shoplifter is detained without probable cause, this would constitute
a. false prosecution
b. malicious arrest
c. false arrest or imprisonment
d. malicious detention

364

20. Many states have enacted what kind of statutes to help protect businesses from civil suits brought by suspected shoplifters?
a. Shoplifting Detention Acts
b. Non-criminal Shoplifting Sanctions
c. In Rem Civil Forfeitures
d. Civil Shoplifting Remedies

363

21. Shoplifting detention acts (or shopkeeper’s privilege) grants merchants immunity from civil actions brought by suspected shoplifters who were detained if the security personnel
a. are licensed security guards
b. can demonstrate the existence of probable cause
c. personally witnessed the act of shoplifting
d. captured the theft on videotape

363
22. If a shopper in a store is falsely accused of shoplifting in public but no criminal charges were brought, it may give rise to a civil suit alleging
a. slander
b. libel
c. false detention
d. malicious prosecution

364

23. Credit card theft
a. requires that the thief have actual possession of the card
b. requires that the thief take and carry away the card
c. can occur merely by unauthorized use of a credit card number
d. is a form of embezzlement

365

24. Writing a bad check, or one that “bounces”
a. is always a crime
b. may be a civil, but not a criminal violation
c. is a crime only if the check is written in excess of $100
d. may be a crime when the writer refuses to make good the check

366-367

25. Wrongfully signing a writing or instrument in the name of the person who issued the writing or instrument, or to whom it was payable is the crime of
a. uttering
b. theft
c. forgery
d. embezzlement

367

26. Putting into circulation a check known to be worthless is the crime of
a. theft
b. uttering
c. unlawful presentation
d. fraudulent production

366-367

27. Creating a false document, or altering an existing document, is the essence of
a. forgery
b. uttering
c. counterfeiting
d. fraudulent procurement

367

28. The crime of uttering may be committed by presenting to a store clerk
a. a stolen credit card
b. a stolen debit card
c. counterfeit currency
d. a post-dated check

366-367

29. Which of the following is an example of a check-kiting scheme?
a. a person has two accounts and deposits a large check from one to the other
b. a person has two accounts and deposits a large check from one to the other, then fraudulently withdraws money from the account before the check clears
c. a person has two accounts and deposits a large check from one to the other knowing the check will bounce
d. a person has two accounts and deposits a forged check in one of the accounts

368-370

30. Property ownership may be in the form of
a. sole ownership
b. business partners
c. husband and wife
d. all of these answers are correct

349

TRUE/FALSE

1. A person may have lawful possession of property yet not be the owner.

2. Taking and keeping lost or mislaid goods is not a crime.

3. Check-kiting involves two bank accounts.

4. Credit card theft can be proved by showing the defendant was in actual possession of a stolen credit card.

5. A person must leave the store without paying for goods before a theft occurs.

6. Generally, to detain a suspected shoplifter, security personnel must have proof beyond a reasonable doubt.

7. When a forged check is presented for payment, the felony offense of theft by deception is committed.

8. Uttering is most often committed when a person presents a forged instrument for payment.

9. Hiding retail goods on the person can constitute taking in a shoplifting crime.

10. The crime of forgery may involve creation of a fake document with intent to defraud.

COMPLETION

1. A ___________ refers to the act of obtaining physical possession or control of another’s property.

2. Credit card theft can be proved by showing the defendant was in actual of a stolen card.

3. The crime of ________________ forbids a person already in lawful possession of property from fraudulently converting it to his own use.

4. The “ ” rule is necessary to make sure money is freely negotiable.

5. A joint owner “ ” the property of the other joint owner if he/she had no right to use or keep the property and doing so infringes on the rights of the joint owner.

6. Exercising control over the goods with the right of a shopper to possess goods prior to sale can constitute taking in a shoplifting crime.

7. ________________ is the form of theft that occurs most frequently in any retail business.

8. To detain or arrest a shoplifter, store personnel generally have to have reasonable grounds, or ___________.

9. When a forged instrument is presented for payment, the crime of __________ has been committed.

10. Altering an existing document or creating a false document with intent to defraud are examples of the crime of ___________.

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CHAPTER 14
ROBBERY, BURGLARY, AND RELATED CRIMES

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Robbery may be thought of as a _____ type of stealing.
a. forcible
b. covert
c. surreptitious
d. inchoate

376

2. “Strong arm” robbery is also known as
a. misdemeanor robbery
b. armed robbery
c. simple robbery
d. aggravated robbery

376

3. A strong-arm robbery is one in which
a. the victim is a child
b. the victim is injured
c. a deadly weapon is used
d. no weapon is displayed or used

376

4. Strong-arm robbery is also known as
a. mugging
b. aggravated robbery
c. armed robbery
d. burglary

376

5. For the crime of robbery to occur
a. the robber must have used force against the victim
b. the robber must have caused physical harm to the victim
c. the robber must have used force or threatened to use imminent force
against the victim
d. the robber must have used or threatened to use gun violence against the
victim

376-377

6. Home invasion requires which of the following?
a. unlawful entry of the dwelling of another with intent to commit a crime
b. persons present in the home
c. use force or threat of force to commit a crime
d. all of these are required

381-382

7. When does purse snatching become robbery?
a. when more force than necessary to take the property is used in the crime
b. when less force than necessary to take the property is used in the crime
c. purse snatching is always robbery
d. none of these answers are true

382-383

8. Unlike most thefts, a robbery requires that the property be taken
a. with an intent to deprive
b. with an intent to commit a felony
c. from the person or from the presence of the victim
d. with a value exceeding $100

376-377

9. In a majority of states, if the perpetrator uses force, not to take the property, but to prevent the victim from escaping, the offense is
a. extortion
b. a robbery
c. embezzlement
d. intimidation

379-380

10. In a majority of states, if a purse-snatching involves no more force than necessary to take the purse from the victim’s hand, the offense will be charged as
a. a robbery
b. a strong armed robbery
c. theft
d. extortion

382-383

11. The crime of defiant trespass occurs when a person
a. remains in a place where he is not privileged to remain after notice of trespass is given
b. is violent in a place where he is not privileged to remain after notice of trespass is given
c. is violent after trespassing
d. remains in a place where he is not privileged to remain after notice of trespass is given and becomes violent

391

12. Forcible stealing is known as
a. robbery
b. burglary
c. aggravated robbery
d. aggravated burglary

376-377

13. In many jurisdictions, the unlawful entry into a dwelling by a person who knows someone is present in the dwelling at the time of the entry, and who is armed with a dangerous weapon which he uses or threatens to use against someone inside the dwelling is considered the crime of
a. intimidation
b. extortion
c. home invasion
d. “strong arm” robbery

381-382

14. Purse snatching without force is a form of
a. theft
b. robbery
c. burglary
d. home invasion

382-383

15. Robbery differs from extortion in that extortion requires
a. a threat to inflict harm in the future
b. the property to be taken from the person of the victim
c. the property to be taken by fraud or deceit
d. the person to be threatened with imminent harm

383-384

16. The federal act dealing specifically with extortion is the
a. Calvin Act
b. Hobbs Act
c. Lindbergh Act
d. Robbery and Extortion Act

384

17. The crime of extortion requires a threat
a. to use violence against the victim
b. to use violence or sue the victim
c. to take certain actions that are not legally protected against the victim, including but not limited to violence, for the purpose of obtaining anything of value from the victim
d. to take steps to tarnish the victim’s reputation

383-384

18. Robbery of persons inhabiting a dwelling is called
a. home invasion
b. aggravated robbery
c. burglary
d. aggravated burglary

381-382

19. The majority rule in the United States is that crimes like purse snatching are not robberies unless
a. there is some force used greater than that needed to take the purse
b. the value of the purse is greater than $100
c. two or more perpetrators participate
d. another crime is committed during the purse snatching

382-383

20. At common law, burglary was limited to
a. the dwelling of another, at night, with intent to commit a felony
b. the dwelling of another, at any time of day, with the intent to steal
c. structures where people gather or live, at night
d. structures where people gather or live, at any time of day

385

21. All states have abolished the common law burglary requirement that there be
a. a felony committed in the building
b. a breaking into the building
c. something stolen from the building
d. more than one burglar involved

385
22. Most courts hold that the crime of burglary requires
a. the burglar get entirely inside the building
b. some part of the burglar’s body (such as an arm) get inside the building
c. the burglar get in and then out of the building
d. some part of the burglar’s body or something attached to the burglar
get inside the building

385-387

23. At common law, the only type of buildings that could be burglarized were
a. dwellings
b. closed businesses and homes
c. businesses
d. privately owned buildings

385

24. Under the common law, the unlawful entry into and theft from a place of business
a. would be considered a burglary
b. would be considered a burglary depending on the value of the stolen
property
c. would not be considered a burglary
d. would be considered burglary if there was a breaking

385

25. Today state and federal burglary statutes
a. restrict burglary to only dwellings
b. consider all buildings within the scope of a jurisdiction’s burglary statute
c. consider only buildings that are inhabited within the scope of burglary
d. follow the common law requirements

385-387

26. What proportion of states have modified and changed the definition of burglary in their jurisdictions?
a. 100%
b. 10%
c. 50%
d. 75%

385-387

27. Under the common law, which of the following was required for burglary?
a. breaking into a residence
b. committing the crime at night
c. intent to commit a felony
d. all of these were required

385-387
28. In most jurisdictions, a defendant who unlawfully enters a building with intent to commit a rape or arson
a. can be convicted of burglary
b. can be convicted of burglary only if they completed the crime they intended to commit when they entered the building
c. cannot be convicted of burglary
d. can be convicted of burglary if they also stole property once inside the building

388-389

29. When force is not used in the taking of property, but it is used to keep the property and to escape from the scene of the theft
a. all states follow the rule that because force wasn’t used to take the property, a robbery was not committed
b. all states follow the rule that because force was used to keep the property after it was stolen, a robbery was committed
c. some state courts have ruled a robbery occurred, while others have ruled it did not occur
d. the crime of extortion was committed

379-380

30. The bad guy unlawfully enters the victim’s house with the intent to sexually assault her but, once inside, he realizes she is not home. He leaves without committing rape and without stealing any property from the home. The bad guy
a. cannot be prosecuted for any crime
b. can only be prosecuted for criminal trespass
c. can be prosecuted for attempted sexual assault
d. can be prosecuted for burglary

388-389

TRUE/FALSE

1. Robbery is the taking of property from a person or from the presence of the victim by the use of force or threat of force.

2. Strong-arm robbery is commonly called “armed robbery.”

3. Home invasion requires unlawful entry of the dwelling of another with intent to commit a crime, with persons present in the home, and the use force or threat of force to commit a crime.

4. Theft differs from robbery in that robbery involves force or threat of force.

5. Grabbing a victim and turning her around to get at her purse is not enough to make purse snatching a robbery.

6. If the threat is to inflict harm in the future, the offense charged will be robbery rather than extortion.

7. For the crime of extortion, the threat need not be communicated in the actual, physical presence of the victim.

8. In some states the burglary statute requires the intent to commit a felony; in others, specific crimes are listed.

9. Criminal trespass occurs when a person unlawfully and knowingly enters the land or building of another.

10. For purposes of a burglary charge, general intent may be inferred from the circumstances of the break-in itself.

COMPLETION

1. The taking of property from a person or from the presence of a victim by use or threat of force is the crime of ____________.

2. Armed or aggravated robbery occurs when a weapon is used in a robbery.

3. A person who unlawfully enters a dwelling knowing someone is present, and threatens the person with a dangerous weapon may be charged with home __________.

4. One of the requirements of home unlawful entry of the dwelling of another with intent to commit a crime.

5. When Congress enacted the __________ Act, the statute was aimed primarily at gangsters who were extorting protection money from businesses.

6. Purse snatching becomes when force more than that needed to take the property is used in the crime.

7. Under the old common law, the punishment for burglary was ________.

8. States no longer require _________ in their simple burglary statutes.

9. __________ trespass occurs when the person unlawfully entering is given notice of the trespass, but refuses to leave the premises.

10. The common law required that burglary be committed in the ___________.

CHAPTER 15
WHITE-COLLAR CRIME, CYBER CRIME, AND COMMERCIAL CRIME

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A class or type of criminal conduct that has solely economic gain to the criminal as its goal is known as
a. white collar crime
b. racketeering
c. wire fraud
d. bank fraud

396

2. What federal statute makes it a federal crime to defraud a financial institution that is federally insured?
a. false statement
b. claims
c. bank fraud
d. wire fraud

396-397

3. Deceitful means or acts used to cheat a person, corporation, or governmental agency is known as
a. fraud
b. forgery
c. false statement
d. false claims

396

4. Books, movies, and songs are protected by the
a. federal copyright act
b. the “fair use” doctrine
c. federal and state laws that protect trade secrets
d. federal wire fraud laws

398

5. A scheme to deprive another of the intangible right of honest services is known as a
a. scheme of artifice
b. scheme of neglect
c. scheme of fraud
d. scheme of deprivation

397

6. Laws protecting intellectual property do NOT include which of the following?
a. copyright laws
b. trade secrets
c. wire fraud
d. all of these are included

398-399

7. The reason fraud convictions require action done knowingly is because
a. fraud is a crime of deceit
b. fraud causes more harm than most other crimes
c. too many people would be falsely convicted otherwise
d. persons committing fraud do not always know what they are doing

396-397

8. Martha Stewart was investigated for insider trading
a. and was convicted of that charge
b. but was convicted of making false statements to federal investigators
c. but was convicted of security fraud
d. and was never convicted

405

9. Which of the following is not a type of fraud?
a. material fraud
b. bank fraud
c. health care fraud
d. intellectual property fraud

396 – 398

10. Offering a gift or payment to another with the specific intent to obtain some unlawful particular quid pro quo for the gift or payment is known as
a. bribery
b. bank fraud
c. health care fraud
d. intellectual property fraud

401-403

11. Under the Hobbs Act, what is required of an official regarding the quid pro quo requirement?
a. exercise of some influence
b. an agreement on a specific official act
c. multiple exercises of some influence
d. an agreement on numerous specific official acts

402

12. The term meaning giving something of value for something else is
a. quid pro quo
b. pro bono
c. pro rata
d. quid pro bono

402

13. Bribery under the federal statute is similar to extortion because it is not necessary in an extortion prosecution to prove an official threatened to use his official authority if
a. the extortion amount was not paid
b. the extortion amount was paid
c. the extortion was carried out
d. none of these answers is correct

402-403

14. What are the two types of identity theft?
a. true name and synthetic identity
b. false name and synthetic identity
c. true name and false identity
d. synthetic name and true identity

408

15. Insider trading includes using information acquired by an insider and
a. not available to the public to profit in a sale of securities
b. paid for through bribery
c. received by extorting a government official
d. gained through illegal entry

403-405

16. Which of the following consequences could result from importation of a counterfeit product into the United States?
a. prosecution under the criminal code of a state
b. civil suit and sanctions
c. federal prosecution under the mail fraud statute
d. all of these answers are correct

410-411

17. Criminal acts implemented through use of a computer are known as
a. cyber crime
b. identity theft
c. wire fraud
d. video voyeurism

411-415

18. Unlawful access to a computer or computer system with intent to commit a crime is known as
a. computer trespass
b. identity theft
c. wire fraud
d. video voyeurism

414

19. To convict someone of trafficking in stolen goods, the state is ordinarily required to prove that the
a. property involved was stolen property
b. defendant received, concealed, possessed, purchased, or transferred the -property as forbidden by the statutes of that state
c. defendant knew the property was stolen
d. all of these answers are correct

415

20. A person who traffics in stolen property is called a
a. fence
b. trafficker
c. mobster
d. dealer

415-416

21. Possession of burglary tools is
a. difficult to prove
b. easy to prove
c. not a crime
d. legal in most states

417

22. While the “white collar” language suggests the status of the wrongdoer, most definitions of the term focus on what rather than the identity of the criminal?
a. the kind of behavior made criminal
b. the socio-economic status of the criminal
c. the thinking of the criminal
d. the social impact of the criminal

396
23. The economic cost of white collar crimes is
a. enormous
b. slight
c. the same as many other crimes
d. less than many other crimes

396

24. What criminal charge is often used in fraud cases?
a. theft by fraud or larceny by fraud
b. theft by fraud
c. larceny by fraud
d. none of these answers is correct

396

25. The U.S. Supreme Court has held that any “scheme of artifice” must include which of the following?
a. a material falsehood
b. a legal falsehood
c. a criminal falsehood
d. a falsehood

397

26. It has been estimated that the yearly cost of healthcare fraud is more than
a. $13 billion
b. $14 billion
c. $15 billion
d. $16 billion

397

27. Insider trading includes a person called the
a. tippee
b. tipper
c. rippee
d. ripper

403-405

28. Although Martha Stewart was ultimately convicted of conspiracy and making false statements to federal investigators, what was she initially charged with?
a. insider trading
b. wire fraud
c. bank fraud
d. identity theft

405

29. What is the name of the crime that occurs when an actual person’s identity is stolen?
a. true name identity theft
b. synthetic identity theft
c. cyber identity theft
d. wire identity theft

408-410

30. Which of the following elements is included in wire fraud but NOT necessary in bank fraud?
a. the wire communication must cross state lines
b. the bank fraud must cross state lines
c. the wire communication must cross international borders
d. the bank fraud must cross international borders

407-408

TRUE/FALSE

1. Fraud involves deceitful means or acts to cheat a person, corporation, or governmental agency.

2. Stock market and corporate fraud declined significantly from 1990-2004.

3. Fraud schemes may be prosecuted on the federal, but not state level.

4. The federal government has no general Health Care Fraud statute which makes it a crime to willfully execute a “scheme of artifice” intended to defraud a “health care benefit” program.

5. A federal officer that “solicits” a bribe in exchange for some official act may also threaten to use his official position to prevent the official act from occurring has committed extortion in addition to bribery.

6. The principal laws protecting intellectual property are the federal copyright, patent, and trademark laws, as well as state trade secret laws.

7. The state bank fraud act and the wire fraud act are frequently used to convict white collar criminals.

8. A communication under the bank fraud act must cross state lines.

9. Insider trading includes using information acquired by an insider and not available to the public to profit in a sale of securities.

10. The federal identity theft statute requires the defendant know the identification document belongs to another person.

COMPLETION

1. Using deceitful acts to cheat another is called __________.

2. The federal government has passed many criminal laws directed at health care fraud, such as the False Claims Statute.

3. The _______________ Claims Act makes it a crime to present a claim to the U.S. government that is false or fraudulent.

4. A class or type of criminal conduct that has solely economic gain to the criminal as its goal is the definition of white crime.

5. Among the crimes created to protect stock markets and financial markets of the U.S. is the crime of insider _________.

6. Fraud is in essence a crime of .

7. Congress has power to punish most large fraud schemes under the __________ commerce clause.

8. The receipt of unlawful payment to an official may prove , and also could prove bribery.

9. The primary criminal laws aimed at property fraud are the federal copyright and patent acts and federal and state trade secret acts.

10. The federal fraud act and the wire fraud act are frequently used to convict white collar criminals.