ACC 303 Week 3 Quiz – Strayer University NEW

ACC/303 Week 3 Quiz – Strayer NEW

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Chapter 2
CONCEPTUAL FRAMEWORK UNDERLYING FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING

IFRS questions are available at the end of this chapter.

TRUE-FALSE—Conceptual

1. A soundly developed conceptual framework enables the FASB to issue more useful and consistent pronouncements over time.

2. A conceptual framework is a coherent system of concepts that flow from an objective.

3. The first level of the conceptual framework identifies the recognition, measurement, and disclosure concepts used in establishing accounting standards.

4. The IASB has also issued a conceptual framework and the FASB and the IASB have agreed to develop a common conceptual framework.

5. Although the FASB has developed a conceptual framework, no Statements of Financial Accounting Concepts have been issued to date.

6. The objective of financial reporting is the foundation of the conceptual framework.

7. Users of financial statements are assumed to need no knowledge of business and financial accounting matters to understand information contained in financial statements.

8. Relevance and faithful representation are the two primary qualities that make accounting information useful for decision making.

9. The idea of consistency does not mean that companies cannot switch from one accounting method to another.

10. Timeliness and neutrality are two ingredients of relevance.

11. Verifiability and predictive value are two ingredients of faithful representation.

12. Revenues, gains, and distributions to owners all increase equity.

13. Comprehensive income includes all changes in equity during a period except those resulting from investments by owners and distributions to owners.

14. The historical cost principle would be of limited usefulness if not for the going concern assumption.

15. The economic entity assumption means that economic activity can be identified with a particular legal entity.

16. The expense recognition principle states that debits must equal credits in each transaction.

17. Revenues are realizable when assets received or held are readily convertible into cash or claims to cash.

18. Supplementary information may include details or amounts that present a different perspective from that adopted in the financial statements.

19. In order to justify reguiring a particular measurement or disclosure, the benefits to be derived from it must equal the costs associated with it.

20. Prudence or conservatism means when in doubt, choose the solution that will be least likely to overstate liabilities or expenses.

True False Answers—Conceptual

MULTIPLE CHOICE—Conceptual

21. Generally accepted accounting principles
a. are fundamental truths or axioms that can be derived from laws of nature.
b. derive their authority from legal court proceedings.
c. derive their credibility and authority from general recognition and acceptance by the accounting profession.
d. have been specified in detail in the FASB conceptual framework.

22. A soundly developed conceptual framework of concepts and objectives should
a. increase financial statement users’ understanding of and confidence in financial reporting.
b. enhance comparability among companies’ financial statements.
c. allow new and emerging practical problems to be more quickly solved.
d. all of these.

23. Which of the following are not true concerning a conceptual framework in account-ing?
a. It should be a basis for standard-setting.
b. It should allow practical problems to be solved more quickly by reference to it.
c. It should be based on fundamental truths that are derived from the laws of nature.
d. All of the above (a-c) are true.

24. What is a purpose of having a conceptual framework?
a. To enable the profession to more quickly solve emerging practical problems.
b. To provide a foundation from which to build more useful standards.
c. Neither a nor b.
d. Both a and b.

S25. Which of the following is not a benefit associated with the FASB Conceptual Framework Project?
a. A conceptual framework should increase financial statement users’ understanding of and confidence in financial reporting.
b. Practical problems should be more quickly solvable by reference to an existing conceptual framework.
c. A coherent set of accounting standards and rules should result.
d. Business entities will need far less assistance from accountants because the financial reporting process will be quite easy to apply.

26. In the conceptual framework for financial reporting, what provides “the why”–the purpose of accounting?
a. Recognition, measurement, and disclosure concepts such as assumptions, principles, and constraints
b. Qualitative characteristics of accounting information
c. Elements of financial statements
d. Objective of financial reporting

27. The underlying theme of the conceptual framework is
a. decision usefulness.
b. understandability.
c. faithful representation.
d. comparability.

28. Which of the following is not an objective of financial reporting?
a. To provide information about economic resources, the claims to those resources, and the changes in them.
b. To provide information that is helpful to investors and creditors and other users in assessing the amounts, timing, and uncertainty of future cash flows.
c. To provide information that is useful to those making investment and credit decisions.
d. All of these are objectives of financial reporting.

P29. The objectives of financial reporting include all of the following except to provide information that
a. is useful to the Internal Revenue Service in allocating the tax burden to the business community.
b. is useful to those making investment and credit decisions.
c. is helpful in assessing future cash flows.
d. identifies the economic resources (assets), the claims to those resources (liabilities), and the changes in those resources and claims.

30. What is a primary objective of financial reporting as indicated in the conceptual framework?
a. provide information that is useful to those making investing and credit decisions.
b. provide information that is useful to management.
c. provide information about those investing in the entity.
d. All of the above.

31. What is a primary objective of financial reporting as indicated in the conceptual framework?
a. Provide information that is helpful to present and potential investors, creditors, and other users in assessing the amounts, timing, and uncertainty of future cash flows.
b. Provide information that is helpful to present investors, creditors, and other users in assessing the amounts, timing, and uncertainty of future cash flows.
c. Provide information that is helpful to potential investors, creditors, and other users in assessing the amounts, timing, and uncertainty of future cash flows.
d. None of the above.

32. Which of the following is a fundamental characteristic of useful accounting information?
a. Comparability.
b. Relevance.
c. Neutrality.
d. Materiality.

33. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of useful accounting information?
a. Conservatism.
b. Comparability.
c. Faithful representation.
d. Consistency.

34. What is meant by comparability when discussing financial accounting information?
a. Information has predictive or confirmatory value.
b. Information is reasonably free from error.
c. Information that is measured and reported in a similar fashion across companies.
d. Information is timely.

35. What is meant by consistency when discussing financial accounting information?
a. Information that is measured and reported in a similar fashion across points in time.
b. Information is timely.
c. Information is measured similarly across the industry.
d. Information is verifiable.

36. Which of the following is an ingredient of relevance?
a. Verifiability.
b. Neutrality.
c. Timeliness.
d. Materiality.

37. Which of the following is an ingredient of faithful representation?
a. Predictive value.
b. Materiality.
c. Neutrality.
d. Confirmatory value.

38. Changing the method of inventory valuation should be reported in the financial statements under what qualitative characteristic of accounting information?
a. Consistency.
b. Verifiability.
c. Timeliness.
d. Comparability.
39. Company A issuing its annual financial reports within one month of the end of the year is an example of which ingredient of fundamental quality of accounting information?
a. Neutrality.
b. Timeliness.
c. Predictive value.
d. Completeness.

40. What is the quality of information that enables users to better forecast future operations?
a. Faithful representation.
b. Materiality.
c. Timeliness.
d. Relevance.

41. Neutrality is an ingredient of which fundamental quality of information?
a. Faithful representation.
b. Comparability.
c. Relevance.
d. Understandability.

42. If the FIFO inventory method was used last period, it should be used for the current and following periods because of
a. relevance.
b. neutrality.
c. understandability.
d. consistency.

43. The pervasive criterion by which accounting information can be judged is that of
a. decision usefulness.
b. freedom from bias.
c. timeliness.
d. comparability.

44. The two fundamental qualities that make accounting information useful for decision making are
a. comparability and timeliness.
b. materiality and neutrality.
c. relevance and faithful representation.
d. faithful representation and comparability.

45. Accounting information is considered to be relevant when it
a. can be depended on to represent the economic conditions and events that it is intended to represent.
b. is capable of making a difference in a decision.
c. is understandable by reasonably informed users of accounting information.
d. is verifiable and neutral.

46. The quality of information that means the numbers and descriptions match what really existed or happened is
a. relevance.
b. faithful representation.
c. completeness.
d. neutrality.

47. Which of the following does not relate to relevance?
a. Materiality
b. Predictive value
c. Confirmatory value
d. All of these

48. According to Statement of Financial Accounting Concepts No. 2, materiality is an ingredient of the fundamental quality of
Relevance Faithful Representation
a. Yes Yes
b. No Yes
c. Yes No
d. No No

49. According to Statement of Financial Accounting Concepts No. 2, completeness is an ingredient of the fundamental quality of
Relevance Faithful Representation
a. Yes No
b. Yes Yes
c. No No
d. No Yes

50. According to Statement of Financial Accounting Concepts No. 2, neutrality is an ingredient of the fundamental quality of
Relevance Faithful Representation
a. Yes Yes
b. No Yes
c. Yes No
d. No No

51. Neutrality means that information
a. provides benefits which are at least equal to the costs of its preparation.
b. can be compared with similar information about an enterprise at other points in time.
c. would have no impact on a decision maker.
d. cannot favor one set of interested parties over another.

52. The characteristic that is demonstrated when a high degree of consensus can be secured among independent measurers using the same measurement methods is
a. relevance.
b. faithful representation.
c. verifiability.
d. neutrality.

53. According to Statement of Financial Accounting Concepts No. 2, predictive value is an ingredient of the fundamental quality of
Relevance Faithful Representation
a. Yes No
b. Yes Yes
c. No No
d. No Yes

54. Under Statement of Financial Accounting Concepts No. 2, free from error is an ingredient of the fundamental quality of
Faithful Representation Relevance
a. Yes Yes
b. No Yes
c. Yes No
d. No No

55. Financial information does not demonstrate consistency when
a. firms in the same industry use different accounting methods to account for the same type of transaction.
b. a company changes its estimate of the salvage value of a fixed asset.
c. a company fails to adjust its financial statements for changes in the value of the measuring unit.
d. none of these.

56. Financial information exhibits the characteristic of consistency when
a. expenses are reported as charges against revenue in the period in which they are paid.
b. companies apply the same accounting treatment to similar events, from period to period.
c. extraordinary gains and losses are not included on the income statement.
d. accounting procedures are adopted which give a consistent rate of net income.

57. Information about different companies and about different periods of the same company can be prepared and presented in a similar manner. Comparability and consistency are related to which of these objectives?
Comparability Consistency
a. companies companies
b. companies Periods
c. Periods companies
d. Periods Periods

58. When information about two different enterprises has been prepared and presented in a similar manner, the information exhibits the characteristic of
a. relevance.
b. faithful representation.
c. consistency.
d. none of these.

59. The elements of financial statements include investments by owners. These are increases in an entity’s net assets resulting from owners’
a. transfers of assets to the entity.
b. rendering services to the entity.
c. satisfaction of liabilities of the entity.
d. all of these.

60. In classifying the elements of financial statements, the primary distinction between revenues and gains is
a. the materiality of the amounts involved.
b. the likelihood that the transactions involved will recur in the future.
c. the nature of the activities that gave rise to the transactions involved.
d. the costs versus the benefits of the alternative methods of disclosing the transactions involved.
61. A decrease in net assets arising from peripheral or incidental transactions is called a(n)
a. capital expenditure.
b. cost.
c. loss.
d. expense.

62. One of the elements of financial statements is comprehensive income. As described in Statement of Financial Accounting Concepts No. 6, “Elements of Financial Statements,” comprehensive income is equal to
a. revenues minus expenses plus gains minus losses.
b. revenues minus expenses plus gains minus losses plus investments by owners minus distributions to owners.
c. revenues minus expenses plus gains minus losses plus investments by owners minus distributions to owners plus assets minus liabilities.
d. none of these.

63. Which of the following elements of financial statements is not a component of compre-hensive income?
a. Revenues
b. Distributions to owners
c. Losses
d. Expenses

P64. Which of the following is false with regard to the element “comprehensive income”?
a. It is more inclusive than the traditional notion of net income.
b. It includes net income and all other changes in equity exclusive of owners’ invest-ments and distributions to owners.
c. This concept is not yet being applied in practice.
d. It excludes prior period adjustments (transactions that relate to previous periods, such as corrections of errors).

S65. According to the FASB conceptual framework, which of the following elements describes transactions or events that affect a company during a period of time?
a. Assets.
b. Expenses.
c. Equity.
d. Liabilities.

S66. According to the FASB Conceptual Framework, the elements⎯assets, liabilities, and equity⎯describe amounts of resources and claims to resources at/during a
Moment in Time Period of Time
a. Yes No
b. Yes Yes
c. No Yes
d. No No

67. Which of the following is not a basic element of financial statements?
a. Assets.
b. Balance sheet.
c. Losses.
d. Revenue.

68. Which of the following basic elements of financial statements is more associated with the balance sheet than the income statement?
a. Equity.
b. Revenue.
c. Gains.
d. Expenses.

69. Issuance of common stock for cash affects which basic element of financial statements?
a. Revenues.
b. Losses.
c. Liabilities.
d. Equity.

70. Which basic element of financial statements arises from peripheral or incidental transactions?
a. Assets.
b. Liabilities.
c. Gains.
d. Expenses.

71. Which of the following is not a basic assumption underlying the financial accounting structure?
a. Economic entity assumption.
b. Going concern assumption.
c. Periodicity assumption.
d. Historical cost assumption.

72. Which basic assumption is illustrated when a firm reports financial results on an annual basis?
a. Economic entity assumption.
b. Going concern assumption.
c. Periodicity assumption.
d. Monetary unit assumption.

73. Which basic assumption may not be followed when a firm in bankruptcy reports financial results?
a. Economic entity assumption.
b. Going concern assumption.
c. Periodicity assumption.
d. Monetary unit assumption.

74. Which accounting assumption or principle is being violated if a company provides financial reports in connection with a new product introduction?
a. Economic entity.
b. Periodicity.
c. Revenue recognition.
d. Full disclosure.

S75. Which of the following basic accounting assumptions is threatened by the existence of severe inflation in the economy?
a. Monetary unit assumption.
b. Periodicity assumption.
c. Going-concern assumption.
d. Economic entity assumption.

S76. During the lifetime of an entity accountants produce financial statements at artificial points in time in accordance with the concept of
Relevance Periodicity
a. No No
b. Yes No
c. No Yes
d. Yes Yes

77. Under current GAAP, inflation is ignored in accounting due to the
a. economic entity assumption.
b. going concern assumption.
c. monetary unit assumption.
d. periodicity assumption.

78. The economic entity assumption
a. is inapplicable to unincorporated businesses.
b. recognizes the legal aspects of business organizations.
c. requires periodic income measurement.
d. is applicable to all forms of business organizations.

79. Preparation of consolidated financial statements when a parent-subsidiary relationship exists is an example of the
a. economic entity assumption.
b. relevance characteristic.
c. comparability characteristic.
d. neutrality characteristic.

80. During the lifetime of an entity, accountants produce financial statements at arbitrary points in time in accordance with which basic accounting concept?
a. Cost constraint
b. Periodicity assumption
c. Conservatism constraint
d. Expense recognition principle

81. What accounting concept justifies the usage of depreciation and amortization policies?
a. Going concern assumption
b. Fair value principle
c. Full disclosure principle
d. Monetary unit assumption

82. The assumption that a company will not be sold or liquidated in the near future is known as the
a. economic entity assumption.
b. monetary unit assumption.
c. periodicity assumption.
d. none of these.

83. Which of the following is an implication of the going concern assumption?
a. The historical cost principle is credible.
b. Depreciation and amortization policies are justifiable and appropriate.
c. The current-noncurrent classification of assets and liabilities is justifiable and signify-cant.
d. All of these.

84. Proponents of historical cost ordinarily maintain that in comparison with all other valuation alternatives for general purpose financial reporting, statements prepared using historical costs are more
a. faithfully representative.
b. relevant.
c. indicative of the entity’s purchasing power.
d. conservative.

85. Valuing assets at their liquidation values rather than their cost is inconsistent with the
a. periodicity assumption.
b. expense recognition principle.
c. materiality constraint.
d. historical cost principle.

86. Revenue is generally recognized when realized or realizable and earned. This statement describes the
a. consistency characteristic.
b. expense recognition principle.
c. revenue recognition principle.
d. relevance characteristic.

87. Generally, revenue from sales should be recognized at a point when
a. management decides it is appropriate to do so.
b. the product is available for sale to the ultimate consumer.
c. the entire amount receivable has been collected from the customer and there remains no further warranty liability.
d. none of these.

88. Revenue generally should be recognized
a. at the end of production.
b. at the time of cash collection.
c. when realized.
d. when realized or realizable and earned.

89. Which of the following is not a time when revenue may be recognized?
a. At time of sale
b. At receipt of cash
c. During production
d. All of these are possible times of revenue recognition.

90. Which of the following is the process of converting assets received or held into cash or claims to cash?
a. Recognition
b. Measurement
c. Realization
d. Allocation

91. “When products (goods or services), merchandise, or other assets are exchanged for cash or claims to cash” is a definition of
a. allocated.
b. realized.
c. realizable.
d. earned.

92. The allowance for doubtful accounts, which appears as a deduction from accounts receivable on a balance sheet and which is based on an estimate of bad debts, is an application of the
a. consistency characteristic.
b. expense recognition principle.
c. materiality constraint.
d. revenue recognition principle.

93. The accounting principle of expense recognition is best demonstrated by
a. not recognizing any expense unless some revenue is realized.
b. associating effort (expense) with accomplishment (revenue).
c. recognizing prepaid rent received as revenue.
d. establishing an Appropriation for Contingencies account.

94. Which of the following serves as the justification for the periodic recording of depreciation expense?
a. Association of efforts (expense) with accomplishments (revenue)
b. Systematic and rational allocation of cost over the periods benefited
c. Immediate recognition of an expense
d. Minimization of income tax liability

95. Application of the full disclosure principle
a. is theoretically desirable but not practical because the costs of complete disclosure exceed the benefits.
b. is violated when important financial information is buried in the notes to the financial statements.
c. is demonstrated by the use of supplementary information presenting the effects of changing prices.
d. requires that the financial statements be consistent and comparable.

96. Which of the following is an argument against using historical cost in accounting?
a. Fair values are more relevant.
b. Historical costs are based on an exchange transaction.
c. Historical costs are reliable.
d. Fair values are subjective.

97. When is revenue generally recognized?
a. When cash is received.
b. When the warranty expires.
c. When production is completed.
d. When the sale occurs.

98. Which of the following are the two components of the revenue recognition principle?
a. Cash is received and the amount is material.
b. Recognition occurs when and earned realized or realizable.
c. Production is complete and there is an active market for the product.
d. Cash is realized or realizable and production is complete.

99. Which of the following practices may not be an acceptable deviation from recognizing revenue at the point of sale?
a. Upon receipt of cash.
b. During production.
c. Upon receipt of order.
d. End of production.

100. Which of the following is not a required component of financial statements prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles?
a. President’s letter to shareholders.
b. Balance sheet.
c. Income statement.
d. Notes to financial statements.

101. What is the general approach as to when product costs are recognized as expenses?
a. In the period when the expenses are paid.
b. In the period when the expenses are incurred.
c. In the period when the vendor invoice is received.
d. In the period when the related revenue is recognized.

102. Not adjusting the amounts reported in the financial statements for inflation is an example of which basic principle of accounting?
a. Economic entity.
b. Going concern.
c. Historical cost.
d. Full disclosure.

103. Recognition of expense related to amortization of an intangible asset illustrates which principle of accounting?
a. Expense recognition.
b. Full disclosure.
c. Revenue recognition.
d. Historical cost.

104. When should an expenditure be recorded as an asset rather than an expense?
a. Never.
b. Always.
c. If the amount is material.
d. When future benefit exits.

105. Which accounting assumption or principle is being violated if a company reports its corporate headquarter building at its fair value on the balance sheet?
a. Going concern.
b. Monetary unit.
c. Historical cost.
d. Full disclosure.

106. Which accounting assumption or principle is being violated if a company is a party to major litigation that it may lose and decides not to include the information in the financial statements because it may have a negative impact on the company’s stock price?
a. Full disclosure.
b. Going concern.
c. Historical cost.
d. Expense recognition.

107. Which assumption or principle requires that all information significant enough to affect a decision of reasonably informed users should be reported in the financial statements?
a. Matching.
b. Going concern.
c. Historical cost.
d. Full disclosure.

108. A company has a factory building that originally cost the company $250,000. The current fair value of the factory building is $3 million. The president would like to report the difference as a gain. The write-up would represent a violation of which accounting assumption or principle?
a. Revenue recognition.
b. Going concern.
c. Historical cost.
d. Monetary unit.

109. Which of the following is a constraint in presenting financial information?
a. Industry practice.
b. Full disclosure.
c. Relevance.
d. Consistency.

110. All of the following represent costs of providing financial information except
a. preparing.
b. disseminating.
c. accessing capital.
d. auditing.

111. Which of the following are benefits of providing financial information?
a. Potential litigation.
b. Auditing.
c. Disclosure to competition.
d. Improved allocation of resources.

112. Where is materiality not used in providing financial information?
a. Applying the revenue recognition principle.
b. Determining what items to include in the financial statements.
c. Applying the going concern assumption.
d. Determining the level of disclosure.

113. What is prudence or conservatism?
a. Understating assets and net income.
b. When in doubt, recognizing the option that is least likely to overstate assets and income.
c. Recognizing the option that is least likely to overstate assets and income.
d. Recognizing revenue when earned and realized.

114. Expensing the cost of copy paper when the paper is acquired is an example of which constraint?
a. Materiality.
b. Cost.
c. Conservatism.
d. Industry practices.

115. Which of the following statements concerning the cost-benefit relationship is not true?
a. Business reporting should exclude information outside of management’s expertise.
b. Management should not be required to report information that would significantly harm the company’s competitive position.
c. Management should not be required to provide forecasted financial information.
d. If needed by financial statement users, management should gather information not included in the financial statements that would not otherwise be gathered for internal use.

116. Which of the following relates to both relevance and faithful representation?
a. Cost constraint
b. Predictive value
c. Verifiability
d. Neutrality

117. Charging off the cost of a wastebasket with an estimated useful life of 10 years as an expense of the period when purchased is an example of the application of the
a. consistency characteristic.
b. expense recognition principle.
c. materiality characteristic.
d. historical cost principle.

118. Which of the following statements about materiality is not correct?
a. An item must make a difference or it need not be disclosed.
b. Materiality is a matter of relative size or importance.
c. An item is material if its inclusion or omission would influence or change the judgment of a reasonable person.
d. All of these are correct statements about materiality.

119. Which of the following are considered pervasive constraints by Statement of Financial Accounting Concepts No. 2?
a. Cost-constraint relationship and conservatism
b. Timeliness and feedback value
c. Conservatism and verifiability
d. Materiality and cost-constraint relationship

120. The basic accounting concept that refers to the tendency of accountants to resolve uncertainty in favor of understating assets and revenues and overstating liabilities and expenses is known as
a. prudence or conservatism.
b. the materiality constraint.
c. the substance over form principle.
d. the industry practices constraint.

121. Following the peculiar nature of some business concerns, which sometimes requires departure from basic theory is known as
a. the economic entity assumption.
b. industry practices.
c. the cost constraint.
d. the going concern assumption.

122. Trade-offs between the characteristics that make information useful may be necessary or beneficial. Issuance of interim financial statements is an example of a trade-off between
a. relevance and faithful representation.
b. faithful representation and periodicity.
c. timeliness and materiality.
d. understandability and timeliness.

123. Allowing firms to estimate rather than physically count inventory at interim (quarterly) periods is an example of a trade-off between
a. verifiability and faithful representation.
b. faithful representation and comparability.
c. timeliness and verifiability.
d. neutrality and consistency.

P124. In matters of doubt and great uncertainty, accounting issues should be resolved by choosing the alternative that has the least favorable effect on net income, assets, and owners’ equity. This guidance comes from
a. the cost constraint.
b. the industry practices constraint.
c. prudence or conservatism.
d. the full disclosure principle.

Multiple Choice Answers—Conceptual

Solutions to those Multiple Choice questions for which the answer is “none of these.”
55. a company changes its inventory method every few years in order to maximize reported income (other answers are possible).
58. comparability.
62. change in equity of an entity during a period from transactions and other events and circumstances from nonowner sources.
82. going concern assumption.
87. an exchange has taken place and the earnings process is virtually complete.

MULTIPLE CHOICE—CPA Adapted

125. According to the FASB’s conceptual framework, predictive value is an ingredient of
Relevance Faithful Representation
a. Yes No
b. Yes Yes
c. No Yes
d. No No

126. According to the FASB’s conceptual framework, which of the following relates to both relevance and faithful representation?
Comparability Neutrality
a. Yes Yes
b. Yes No
c. No Yes
d. No No

127. The FASB’s conceptual framework classifies gains and losses based on whether they are related to an entity’s major ongoing or central operations. These gains or losses may be classified as
Nonoperating Operating
a. Yes No
b. Yes Yes
c. No Yes
d. No No

128. According to the FASB’s conceptual framework, earnings
a. is the same as comprehensive income.
b. excludes certain gains and losses that are included in comprehensive income.
c. includes certain gains and losses that are excluded from comprehensive income.
d. includes certain losses that are excluded from comprehensive income.

129. According to the FASB’s conceptual framework, comprehensive income includes which of the following?
Operating Income Investments by Owners
a. Yes No
b. Yes Yes
c. No Yes
d. No No

130. According to the FASB’s conceptual framework, the calculation of comprehensive income includes which of the following?
Income from Distributions
Continuing Operations to Owners
a. No No
b. Yes No
c. Yes Yes
d. No Yes

131. According to the FASB’s conceptual framework, comprehensive income includes which of the following?
Gross Margin Operating Income
a. No Yes
b. No No
c. Yes No
d. Yes Yes

132. Under Statements of Financial Accounting Concepts, comprehensive income includes which of the following?
Gains Gross Margin
a. No No
b. No Yes
c. Yes No
d. Yes Yes

133. According to the FASB’s conceptual framework, the process of reporting an item in the financial statements of an entity is
a. recognition.
b. realization.
c. allocation.
d. matching.

Multiple Choice Answers—CPA Adapted

IFRS QUESTIONS

True / False

1. The conceptual framework underlying U.S. GAAP is similar to that underlying IFRS.

2. The FASB conceptual framework specifically identifies accrual basis accounting as one of its fundamental assumptions.

3. One of two assumptions made by the IASB conceptual framework is that the reporting entity is a going concern.

4. One of the challenges in developing a common conceptual framework will be to agree on how the framework should be organized since the FASB and IASB conceptual frameworks are organized in very different ways.

5. One issue that the IASB and FASB must resolve in developing a common conceptual framework is how control should be defined with regard to the definition of an asset.
Answers to True / False questions:

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Which of the following statements regarding the IASB and FASB conceptual frameworks is not correct?
a. The existing IASB and FASB conceptual frameworks are organized in similar ways.
b. The two assumptions of the IASB framework are that the financial statements are prepared on an accrual basis and that the reporting entity is a going concern.
c. The FASB and IASB agree that the sole objective of financial reporting is to provide users with information that is useful for decision-making.
d. The FASB conceptual framework discusses the concept of accrual basis accounting in detail, but does not specifically identity it as an assumption.

2. The issues which the FASB and IASB must address in developing a common conceptual framework include all of the following except:
a. Should the common framework lead to standards that are principles-based or rules-based?
b. Should the role of financial reporting focus on stewardship as well as providing information to assist users in decision making?
c. Should the characteristic of reliability be traded-off in favor of information that is verifiable?
d. Should a single measurement method such as historical cost be used?
Answers to Multiple Choice:

Short Answer:
1. What two assumptions are central to the IFRS conceptual framework?
2. Do the IFRS and U.S. GAAP conceptual frameworks differ in terms of the role of financial reporting? Explain.