BUS 300 Test Bank Solution All Possible Questions With Answers

BUS 300 Complete Test Bank Chapter 1 Through 15 – Strayer – A+ Graded

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Chapter 1 What is Public Relations, Anyway?

1) In March 2012, the Public Relations Society of America reached a common definition for public relations. Which of the following represents the winning definition?
A) “Like beauty, the definition of ‘public relations’ is in the eye of the beholder.”
B) “Public relations is a strategic communication process that builds mutually beneficial relationships between organizations and their publics.”
C) “Public relations is a planned process to influence public opinion, through sound character and proper performance, based on mutually satisfactory two-way communication.”
D) “Public relations revolutionizes the way organizations and individuals communicate to their key constituent publics around the world.”

2) Letters unearthed at Al Qaeda terrorist-in-chief Osama bin Laden’s last stand were a testimony to the accepted notion that public relations has become one of society’s most potent forces. Which of the following were among his most pressing concerns?
A) Ways to improve news media coverage
B) His place in history
C) Al Qaeda’s image and a possible name change to give the group a more religious ring
D) All of the above

3) The strength of the public relations field stems from
A) its roots in democracy.
B) its significance in enhancing democracy.
C) its significance in altering the ranks of management.
D) its significance in protecting management from encroachment by unqualified leaders.

4) As society is overwhelmed by communications, what is the challenge for the communicator?
A) To bombard the target audience with messages of every variety (traditional and nontraditional) at the same time
B) To make billions of dollars when there are 320,000 public relations professionals
C) To convince people that public relations is important
D) To cut through communications that come from many sources to deliver an argument that is persuasive, believable and actionable.

5) How many communications professionals are employed by the Department of Defense?
A) 1,000
B) 4,500
C) 7,000
D) 9,250

6) The fundamental mandate of public relations is
A) strategy
B) communications
C) relationships
D) character

7) In John Marston’s R-A-C-E process, the key step is
A) solid strategy.
B) reasoned research.
C) proper action.
D) careful evaluation.

8) Which of the following distinguishes the R-O-S-I-E formula from other formulae that summarize the PR process?
A) encompasses more clear objectives
B) encompasses a more managerial approach
C) encompasses more implementation of a predetermined plan
D) encompasses more scientific evaluation

9) Applying the widely repeated definition of public relations developed by the late Denny Griswold to serve an organization properly, practitioners ought to serve as
A) counsels to chief legal officers.
B) honest brokers to top management.
C) advisers to human resources directors.
D) consultants to directors of marketing.

10) Which process emphasizes planning as a necessary step preceding the activation of a communications initiative?
A) R-P-I-E
B) P-P-I-E
C) R-A-C-E
D) P-A-C-E

11) Which of the following are among the five actions Professor Melvin Sharpe indicates can “harmonize” relations between individuals and organizations?
A) measured remarks that foster credibility
B) environmental research and evaluation that help determine actions or adjustments
C) continuous one-way communication
D) credible actions favoring only the organization

12) Professional practitioners who understand the management “interpreter” perspective of public relations
A) recognize the value of insights from Leon Hess on this perspective.
B) recognize that management takes precedence over public attitudes and beliefs.
C) recognize the need to be able to create management policy.
D) recognize the importance of communicating organizational policy accurately and candidly.

13) GM’s handling of charges by Ralph Nader that their Corvair was “unsafe at any speed” is an example of corporate public relations professionals failure to
A) interpret and convey to management what the public really thinks.
B) interpret and convey to the public why management feels the way is does.
C) interpret how corporate influence can change public opinion.
D) interpret how public influence can be ignored if it is in the best interest of shareowners.

14) Savvy individuals and institutions must recognize the importance
A) of appropriate use of modern technology in communicating with one another.
B) of recognizing the role each plays in modern society.
C) of effectively interpreting the institution’s philosophies, policies, practices, and views to the public.
D) of hiring professional communicators to act as mouthpieces.

15) John Galliano, creative director of the Dior fashion house, was fired because
A) he revealed Dior’s history serving the wives of Nazi officers
B) he was not as talented as he used to be
C) his talent was less important than the credibility and reputation of the House of Dior
D) he got into a fight with someone who made anti-Semitic remarks

16) To effectively communicate with a public, it is important to recognize that
A) all publics have the same needs.
B) all publics are most interested in the technology you use.
C) all publics have their own special needs and require different types of communication.
D) all publics have overlapping organizational needs.

17) Which of the following has increased the interdependence between people and organizations and the concern in organizations for managing extensive webs of interrelationships?
A) organizational changes
B) technology changes
C) priority changes
D) subordinate changes

18) For a group of people to become a public, which of the following does NOT occur?
A) confront a similar indeterminate situation
B) recognize what is problematic and indeterminate in a situation
C) decide to organize to confront a problem
D) seek outside counsel on whether to unite

19) Publics that are classified as internal publics include
A) stockholders and the board of directors
B) customers and suppliers
C) legislators and the general public
D) senior citizens and homosexuals

20) Public relations consultants for politicians should point out the importance of the uncommitted public because
A) that public rarely decides to vote.
B) that public can swing a vote.
C) that public is the most difficult to persuade.
D) that public needs to have their beliefs reinforced.

21) A major difference between public relations and marketing/advertising is
A) marketing and advertising promote an organization
B) public relations promotes an entire organization, including its people, products, and services
C) marketing and advertising promote an organization’s individuals rather than its products or services
D) public relations promotes only a product or a service

22) A function related to public relations that includes creating sales literature, meeting displays and promotions is
A) media relations.
B) publicity.
C) marketing communications.
D) investor relations.

23) The government affairs function of public relations
A) deals with customers who want sales information.
B) deals with officials at the local, state, and federal levels.
C) deals with investors who want information about the annual meeting.
D) deals with behavioral beliefs.

24) Twisting messages to create the impression of performance is
A) an agreed-upon ethical practice in public relations.
B) how to preserve hard-earned credibility.
C) how to provide reporters with balanced information.
D) a manifestation of spin.

25) What is the cardinal rule for public relations practitioners?
A) never, ever lie
B) don’t get caught
C) spin the issue to sway public opinion
D) be considerate of how your words will influence the public

22) In a 2004 study by the search firm Heyman Associates, which of the following was NOT a characteristic of successful PR leaders?
A) inner strength
B) teamliness
C) proactivity and passion
D) relationship building

23) Which is NOT a key technical skill a public relations professional should possess?
A) knowledge of communications, including how media work
B) knowledge of what’s happening around you
C) knowledge of how management shapes policy
D) knowledge of what the public’s “right to know” is

24) To be successful, a public relations professional should have the predisposition to
A) disclose rather than withhold information.
B) avoid responding to false accusations from an irate consumer.
C) avoid confronting situations before they escalate.
D) disclose how business works.

25) Which of the following is NOT among six requisite “attitudes” an effective public relations practitioner should have?
A) to have a counseling orientation
B) to project an aura of skepticism
C) to do the right thing
D) to be risk averse

26) Public relations is an industry that is growing in numbers as well as respect.

27) Annual revenue for the PR industry is estimated at well under $1 billion dollars.

28) An indication of the heightened stature of public relations is the increased desire of companies, nonprofits, governments, religious institutions, sports teams and leagues, arts organizations to communicate their stories.

29) The American Management Association adapted the following definition for the function: “Public Relations is a strategic communication process that builds mutually beneficial relationships between organizations and their publics.”

30) Some might say PR should really stand for performance recognition because positive action communicated straightforwardly will yield positive results.

31) Regardless of what definition you choose for public relations, Fraser Seitel contends that in order to be successful, professionals must always have a planned process to influence attitudes and actions of the targeted public

32) Despite the model of success established by Leon Hess as CEO of an oil company and the NFL’s Jets, today’s CEOs and their companies cannot ignore the need for public relations.

33) How effective a public relations department is depends on the level of access it has to management.

34) As interpreters of the public for management, public relations professionals need to learn what the public senses about the organization and alert management to those findings.

35) Presidents Clinton and Bush, and CEOs of Citigroup, AIG, Washington Mutual, Bear Stearns, Lehman Brothers, Countrywide Financial, Goldman Sachs and Bank of America all tested the limits of public relations by not being candid with their publics.

36) Recent technological changes, including satellite links for TV, social media, blogs and mobile devices, drive home the importance of recognizing the interrelationships of publics.

37) Because there are so many different publics, public relations professionals often serve as mediators between management and these constituent groups upon whom organizations depend.

38) External publics for publicly traded companies include the board of directors and shareowners.

39) Media relations is the fundamental public relations skills, because dealing with the press is more important than writing.

40) One of the more recent functions practitioners have is the social media interface for an organization.

41) Spin boils down to outright lying in order to cover up what actually happened in a situation.

42) Counter the claim that public relations is a dying industry.

43) Define or describe what public relations is.

44) To develop a public relations program, which process approach would you choose for a client, and why?

45) Describe what the role of interpreter in public relations entails.

46) List and describe various ways you might categorize publics.

47) List and briefly describe five of the functions of public relations that were mentioned in your book.

48) Describe spin and explain why its most virulent form is not part of public relations.

49) In the 2004 study of agency, corporate, and nonprofit public relations leaders sponsored by search firm Heyman Associates, what seven areas characterized a successful public relations career?
50) List and briefly describe the technical skills that are important to the practice of public relations.

Chapter 2 The Growth of Public Relations

1) Which major trend below is contributing to the evolution of the practice of public relations in the U.S.?
A) increasing numbers of mom-and-pop retail, startup companies
B) increasing pressure to become a profession like law or accounting
C) increasing public awareness and media sophistication
D) increasing numbers of institutes of higher learning on the Internet

2) John D. Rockefeller Jr. was widely attacked when
A) a dozen women and small children were killed in the Ludlow massacre
B) Johnson & Johnson’s products were sabotaged, resulting in the murder of company customers
C) the Creel Committee was formed to channel patriotic sentiments of Americans in support of the U.S. role in the war
D) he spoke out against the marriage of Khloe Kardashian and Lamar Odom

3) Professor Marshall McLuhan has become known for
A) predicting unimaginable growth in computer-related equipment.
B) predicting the world would become a “global village.”
C) predicting the death of the newspaper.
D) predicting the emergence of mass communication.

4) Which of the following is NOT a major trend contributing to the evolution of the practice of public relations?
A) growth in use of traditional distribution systems, including cars, trucks, and airlines
B) growth of big institutions
C) growth in public awareness and media sophistication
D) growth in consumer use of the Internet and social media

5) Which of the following is NOT among the incidences of societal change, conflict or confrontation that have had an impact on the growth of public relations in the U.S.?
A) unhappiness with large institutions
B) minority and women’s rights movements
C) consumerism
D) passage of the Social Security Act

6) Archaeologists inform us that public relations has roots in
A) Iraq, where bulletins informed farmers how to grow more food.
B) England, where 18th century bulletins hailed the coming of the British Industrial Revolution.
C) Rome, where tablets paid tribute to new rulers
D) China, where during the Ming Dynasty, peasants wrote messages on the Great Wall.

7) Which of the following is NOT true of the Sophists?
A) They were masters of rhetoric and reasoning.
B) They established a model for today’s lobbyists.
C) They gathered in the amphitheaters to extol the virtues of political candidates.
D) They were not elected to leadership positions because they were good speakers.

8) The word “propaganda” originated with
A) the Creel Committee during World War II.
B) Pope Gregory XV, who established a College in 17th Century Rome to spread the word about Catholicism.
C) Sophists, who walked around telling citizens of Rome who to vote for.
D) the farmers who grew grapes in ancient Italy.

9) American flirtations with public relations techniques began around the founding of the ________ when ________.
A) Massachusetts Bay Colony; George Washington set the Pilgrims free
B) republic; colonists disgraced themselves by reminding loyalists that: “Taxation without representation is tyranny”
C) republic; colonists tried to persuade King George III that they deserved the same rights as subjects in England
D) Associated Press; the Committees of Correspondence disseminated pro-British information

10) Thomas Paine, an early practitioner of public relations, wrote periodic essays that urged colonists to band together, including those contained in
A) the Crisis papers
B) The Federalist Papers
C) Publius
D) the Globe

11) Using a variety of persuasive techniques and even a pseudonym, Publius, ________ advocated for ratification of the Constitution.
A) the Committee of Correspondents
B) Alexander Hamilton, John Jay, and James Madison
C) the Adams Tea Company
D) Thomas Paine

12) Some scholars consider ________ the forerunner to today’s White House press secretary because of the duties he performed for Andrew Jackson.
A) Phineas T. Bluster
B) Larry Speakes
C) Lindsay Trump
D) Amos Kendall

13) The growth of public relations as an accepted business-like practice in the United States of America stems from
A) the British Industrial Revolution.
B) the American Industrial Revolution.
C) the efforts of people like Samuel Adams and Amos Kendall.
D) the hype of P.T. Barnum.

14) Known as the ________ they were a group of ________ who tackled the abuses of American industrialists, exposing deplorable and unsafe conditions.
A) Barnumites; press agents
B) muckrakers; journalists
C) publicity bureau; press agents
D) lobbyists; sophists

15) A principal contribution to the field of public relations made by Ivy Ledbetter Lee was
A) recognition that the public needed to be informed.
B) devotion to assisting “robber barons” in damning the public.
C) support for techniques employed by Barnum.
D) an enduring belief in muckraking.

16) Principles developed by Ivy Lee in working with the press on behalf of business included
A) recognition that any publicity was good as long as a client’s name was spelled correctly.
B) commitment to present his client’s point of view honestly, accurately, and forcefully.
C) formation of third-front organizations.
D) creation of “people in the street” interviews.

17) Ivy Lee faced public criticism in the late 1920s for
A) advising John D. Rockefeller Jr. to humanize his family by presenting them in real-life situations
B) advocating in favor of Barnum’s public-be-fooled approach
C) advocating in favor of Vanderbilt’s public-be-damned philosophy
D) advising the Dye Trust, which was an agent for Adolf Hitler’s policies

18) During World War I and World War II, public relations techniques to help mobilize United States citizens to support war efforts were used by the
A) Committees on Correspondence and the Associated Press.
B) Creel Committee and Office of War Information.
C) Central Intelligence Agency and the United States Information Agency.
D) Truman and Nixon administrations.

19) Perhaps one reason publicity and press agentry are too often considered synonymous stems from
A) formation of the first public relations firm called the Publicity Bureau that specialized in general press agentry.
B) launching of the firm led by Ivy Lee that specialized in counseling top management in the value of building public confidence and trust.
C) development of corporate guidelines set down by Arthur Page and Paul Garrett.
D) efforts by Edward Bernays and Doris Fleischman to introduce social psychology techniques in developing strategic communications advice.

20) Which of the following is NOT a significant contribution by Edward L. Bernays to the field of public relations?
A) “recruiting” the first distinguished female practitioner, Doris E. Fleischman
B) teaching the first course in public relations
C) publishing the landmark consumerism book Unsafe at Any Speed
D) introducing the importance of seeking public relations counsel

21) ________, one of the earliest African American counselors, wrote two books on African American consumerism and advised companies on multicultural relations.
A) Knowlton Hill
B) D. Parke Gibson
C) Carl Byoir
D) George Creel

22) Among the earliest public relations counselors to emphasize marketing-oriented public relations was
A) Carl Byoir.
B) Harold Burson.
C) D. Parke Gibson.
D) Arthur W. Page.

23) Which of the following major public relations counseling firms did Omicom Group purchase?
A) Young & Rubican
B) J. Walter Thompson
C) Fleishman-Hillard
D) Burson-Marsteller

24) The era right after World War II can be described as an era when the public held corporations and their leaders in
A) high esteem.
B) low esteem.
C) virtual esteem.
D) none of the above

25) Which of the following is NOT a principle developed by Arthur W. Page for successful corporate public relations?
A) to create a system that draws questions and criticism from employees and outside publics up through the organization to management
B) to make sure management softens bad news, especially for employees
C) to prepare “contact employees” with knowledge needed to be reasonable and polite with the public
D) to create a system that informs all employees about an organization’s policies and practices

26) Paul Garrett was an early corporate public relations luminary in his role as
A) CEO of General Motors
B) the first director of public relations for General Motors
C) CEO of Lehman Brothers
D) the first director of public relations for Lehman Brothers

27) Which of the following is a factor that shaped how Public Relations came of age?
A) growth of large institutions
B) heightened public awareness and media sophistication
C) societal change, conflict and confrontation
D) All of the above

28) Which of the following has made knowledge of and facility with the Internet a front-burner necessity for practitioners?
A) cable
B) social media participation
C) mobile phones
D) videodisk technology

29) In the 21st century, recognition of the value of knowing what public relations is about comes from
A) more than 200 journalism or communications programs offering a public relations concentration.
B) business schools making public relations education an essential part of their curriculum.
C) managing editors of print media admitting that more than 70 percent of what is reported as news comes from public-relations generated information.
D) practitioners acknowledging their foundation in the art and skills needed was derived from their public relations courses.

30) What devastating public relations problem did Johnson & Johnson face on September 30, 1982?
A) management learned extra-strength Tylenol had been used as a murder weapon to kill three people in Chicago.
B) people did not like their new packaging so they lost market share.
C) people did not like their shift from capsules to caplets so they lost market share.
D) management learned extra-strength Tylenol had been used as a murder weapon to kill a woman in Yonkers.

31) What did Johnson & Johnson do in response to the product tampering crisis in 1982?
A) recalled a lot of 93,000 bottles of extra-strength Tylenol associated with the reported Chicago murders.
B) recalled 31 million bottles of extra-strength Tylenol capsules
C) welcomed investigative news program 60 Minutes
D) all of the above

32) The practice of public relations began long before fields like law, accounting, and medicine were recognized.

33) Sophistication in technology and the media’s use of it have led to fulfillment of Marshall McLuhan’s prediction that the world would become a “global village.”

34) A key trend contributing to the evolution of public relations is the growing power of public opinion to act as a positive force in shaping democratic societies.

33) The stage for today’s lobbyist was set by the Sophists hired to fight verbal battles for politicians in ancient Rome.

34) Some critics say the most horrific scandal in the history of the Roman Catholic Church is their handling of reports about priests accused of sexually abusing parishioners.

35) Samuel Adams combined weaponry of sword and pen by organizing the Associated Press to do battle with King George.

36) Pamphlets, a strategic vehicle used today in public relations, were used by Thomas Paine to rally support for unity among American colonists.

37) A 1791 document fittingly in its first order of business safeguarded, among other things, the principle that provides public relations practitioners certain inalienable rights, including freedom of speech and press.

38) Much of what Amos Kendall did in the “kitchen cabinet” of President Andrew Jackson is similar to what a presidential press secretary does today.

39) Techniques to attract press coverage used by Phineas T. Barnum are representative of the “public be informed” era that contributed to a positive image of the practice of public relations.

40) Today, press-agent techniques are employed to hype a range of headline seekers.

41) The adversarial relationship between so-called “robber barons” and “muckrakers” led to the need for hired professionals to explain what industrialists had been unable to convey.

42) Ida Tarbell and Upton Sinclair were among early pioneers in the field of public relations.

43) Some observers of the public relations field call Ivy Ledbetter Lee the “real father of modern public relations” despite the significant pioneering efforts of Edward Bernays in the field.

44) OWI was a government-sanctioned agency during the Civil War that mobilized the citizens of the South to support war efforts of the North against the British.

45) Growth in numbers of people utilizing techniques associated with public relations for World War II led to a growth in numbers of people practicing public relations in peacetime.

46) While in the 1990s public relations counseling businesses grew and merged into international superagencies, today the public relations counseling business has a diverse mix of huge national agencies, medium-sized regional firms, and one-person local agencies.

47) Despite how effective and visionary Paul Garrett was as a General Motors public relations practitioner, he suffered from the universal complaint of corporate PR people, he felt like “an outsider.”

48) The impact of the Internet on helping public relations come to age has been phenomenal.

49) List the major trends that have helped the practice of public relations come of age in the United States of America.

50) In what ways has technology fostered evolution of modern-day public relations practice?

51) List and explain principles and techniques still used by today’s public relations practitioners that have roots in ancient times.

52) Describe some of the functions performed by Amos Kendall that are currently practiced by communications assistants of the President of the United States.

53) Discuss contributions made by Ivy Ledbetter Lee to the field of public relations.

54) Discuss contributions by Edward L. Bernays to making the practice of public relations more professional.

55) What events or indications are there that challenge leaders and governments to recognize the growing power of global media, public opinion, and democracy?

Chapter 3 Communication

1) The “father of the communication satellite” is
A) Sir Jimmy Wales.
B) Sir Lawrence Essjay.
C) Sir Arthur C. Clarke.
D) Sir Larry Sanger.

2) Which of the following does NOT pertain to Wikipedia?
A) launched by Jimmy Wales and Larry Sanger.
B) least popular general reference site on the Internet.
C) fastest-growing general reference site on the Internet.
D) depends on “correctors” to edit its copy.

3) First and foremost, the public relations practitioner is
A) a professional communicator.
B) respected management.
C) a supervisor who depends on e-mail to communicate.
D) a trusted adviser.

4) Which of the following is critical to the communication process?
A) to send as many messages as time will allow
B) to make oneself understood
C) to exchange information
D) to impart ideas

5) Which of the following describes communication?
A) one person has to send a message to another and the message is not read or regarded.
B) one person has to send a message to another and the message is not understood.
C) One person sends a message to another and the message is regarded and understood.
D) All of the above

6) Before public relations practitioners can earn the respect of management and become trusted advisors, they must:
A) be adept at accounting.
B) be the best communicator in the organization.
C) be competent at one of the following: writing, speaking, listening, promoting or counseling.
D) be able to convert personal thoughts into words.

7) Typical goals for communication include
A) to command.
B) to challenge accepted precepts.
C) to persuade, inform, and motivate.
D) to seek understanding.

8) The communication goal that relates to understanding a group in opposition idea is:
A) to build mutual understanding.
B) to motivate.
C) to persuade.
D) to inform.

9) The communication goal that relates to educating a particular public is:
A) to build mutual understanding.
B) to motivate.
C) to persuade.
D) to inform.

10) ________ is a typical goal of communication when someone seeks to explain benefits the opposition can gain from reconsidering an idea.
A) To inform
B) To manipulate
C) To build mutual understanding
D) To strategize

11) The theory of communication that states an organization beams a message first to mass media outlets that deliver the message to mass receivers (readers, listeners and viewers) for their response is:
A) dissonance theory
B) SEMDR theory
C) concentric-circle theory
D) two-step flow theory

12) Pat Jackson’s models of communication for public relations emphasized
A) building awareness.
B) triggering an event.
C) adapting to new behaviors.
D) setting clear strategic goals and identifying key stakeholders.

13) The theory of communication that states people seek out massages that they agree with and avoid messages they disagree with is:
A) dissonance theory
B) SEMDR theory
C) concentric-circle theory
D) two-step flow theory

14) In the S-E-M-D-R and S-M-R models, the S and M, respectively, stand for
A) sender; mode.
B) source; medium.
C) source; message.
D) sender; message.

15) The spiral of silence suggests:
A) communications that work well depend on silence and nonparticipation of a huge, silent majority
B) people seek out messages that are consonant to their own attitudes and avoid messages that are dissonant to their own attitudes
C) public relations comes into play in the encoding and decoding stage of the communications process
D) ideas evolve gradually to the public at large by moving in concentric circles from great thinkers to great disciples to great disseminators to lesser disseminators to politically active to politically inert.

16) The overall study of how communication is used to direct and control is called
A) cybernetics.
B) two-step flow.
C) mass targeting.
D) concentric-circle adaptation.

17) Which of the following does NOT pertain to the spiral of silence theory of communication?
A) originated with Elisabeth Noelle-Neumann
B) the “silent majority” can isolate others from communicating
C) a “silent majority” may go along with ideas they otherwise might not have believed
D) how well communication works depends on nonparticipation of a huge majority

18) Professor Everett Rogers predicted the unprecedented ________________ of the Internet as a communications vehicle that spans cultures and geographies.
A) constructivism
B) coordinated management of meaning
C) diffusion
D) convergence

19) Which of the following is true about public relations models introduced by Grunig & Hunt?
A) the press agent/publicity model focuses on two-way communication.
B) the public information model focuses on two-way communication.
C) the asymmetric and symmetric models focus on one-way communication.
D) the asymmetric and symmetric models focus on two-way communication.

20) Constructivism suggests that knowledge is constructed. Which of the following statements is NOT true under constructivism?
A) the cognitive process that precedes communication is more important than the communication
B) it is important to have knowledge of the receiver and his or her beliefs
C) the sender should transmit or dispense information and expect receivers to act on it
D) the sender should challenge preconceived notions to convert audience members by altering their views.

21) Which of the following describes the coordinated management of meaning theory?
A) communication is the simple transmission of ideas
B) communication is a complex, interconnected series of events with each participant affected by the other
C) communication is beamed one-way from a source to a receiver with the express intention of winning favorable media attention
D) communication is propaganda that is used to inform the receivers

22) The study of what words really mean is called
A) dictionation.
B) semantics.
C) transmission.
D) adaptation.

23) Public relations professionals who encode a client’s message must understand
A) the significance of words on the message conveyed to the ultimate receiver.
B) words and phrases quickly change meaning and drop out of favor.
C) the true meaning of words that make up the message.
D) all of the above.

24) The “content is the message”
A) says the content is most important.
B) says the medium chosen to convey the message is more important than the content of the message or the person delivering the message.
C) is associated with the communication theorist Marshall McLuhan.
D) says the speaker’s words, face, body, eyes, attitude, timing, wit and presence form a composite that influences the listener.

25) The “medium is the message”
A) says the content is most important.
B) says the medium chosen to convey the message is more important than the content of the message or the person delivering the message.
C) is associated with the communication theorist Elmo Roper.
D) is why public relations people insist on accuracy and truthfulness.

26) Believing the smooth, confident speaking style of Barack Obama helped him win the presidency is acknowledgement of the theory that
A) the “medium is the message.”
B) the “content is the message.”
C) the “person is the message.”
D) “political correctness is the message.”

27) How a receiver decodes a message depends greatly on the receiver’s
A) precognitions, predilections and perceptions.
B) use of social media.
C) charisma.
D) credibility.

28) In decoding, which of the following does NOT influence translation of a message?
A) stereotypes
B) semantics
C) symbols
D) symmetry

29) When the media use terms, such as Gen-Xers, policy wonks, bankers, and feminist, they are resorting to using
A) semantics.
B) stereotypes.
C) peer pressure.
D) symbols.

30) Andy picked up a brochure at the checkout counter in a sporting goods store because the cover had what appeared to be a logo for his favorite team. Upon a closer look, he realized the logo was for a team in a different sport, a sport he did not follow. He interpreted the message incorrectly because of
A) a stereotype.
B) a symbol.
C) peer pressure.
D) media.

31) The two basic assumptions that underlie most research on ____________________ include: (1) the press and the media do not reflect reality; they filter and shape it; and (2) media concentration on a few issues and subjects leads the public to perceive those issues as more important than other issues.
A) agenda setting
B) trend setting
C) peer pressure
D) media

32) Feedback is critical to communication because from it
A) the source can learn whether a receiver understands a message.
B) the receiver can learn how to avoid future messages.
C) the source learns how to avoid messages from the receiver.
D) the source and the receiver learn what type noise to include in a message

33) Which of the following occurs if a message is clearly understood?
A) A public changes its attitude.
B) A public does nothing.
C) A public crystallizes its attitude.
D) Any of the above.

34) Rajiv kept forgetting to e-mail his family back home, even though he felt he should when he was on his computer every evening. Finally, his wife scanned in a photograph of his mother and father. Now, the photo will pop up every time he boots up. The first time Rajiv sees the photo, he goes right to his e-mail and sends his folks a quick message. The photo
A) created a wedge of doubt.
B) crystallized an attitude.
C) changed an attitude.
D) did nothing.

35) The professor listened to the student’s explanation why the paper was late. The student claimed that the campus-wide computer system crashed overnight. Upon checking, the professor confirmed what the student had said, illustrating that a message initially
A) can create a wedge of doubt.
B) can change an attitude.
C) may do nothing.
D) motivates someone to take a desired action.

36) Public relations practitioners’ knowledge, training, and ability to communicate well should set them apart from other employees in an organization.

37) Planned communication requires a goal, objective, and purpose.

38) To achieve the various goals associated with communication, Pat Jackson emphasized the need to have an integrated, strategically planned approach.

39) The only communication goal in public relations is to inform.

40) The two-step flow theory in communication credited the mass media with being the dominant influence on public opinion.

41) Pollster Elmo Roper developed the concentric-circle theory of communication.

42) How communication is used for direction and control is called cybernetics.

43) From the S-E-M-D-R communication process, practitioners should realize the critical role encoding and decoding have in their efforts to communicate a message to a public.

44) To understand semantics, you should know the difference between words that connote and words that denote.

45) The proponent most often associated with the “medium of the message” is Fraser Seitel.

46) Charisma is a key component that helps give credence to the idea that “the person is the message.”

47) Stereotyping, symbols, semantics, peer groups, and the media influence personal biases.

48) Most people are susceptible to stereotypes, which can influence communication.

49) If used properly, symbols can effectively help persuade.

50) If a word you choose in a presentation has a contrasting meaning for different people in the audience, your problem is one of semantics.

51) You’re communicating even when there is no receiver who might hear and understand your message.

52) Communication that changes attitudes is very difficult to achieve and rarely occurs.

53) Amount of sales, number of letters to editors, or number of votes obtained are ways to determine whether communication objectives have been met.

54) Describe why knowing about and how to communicate is critical for public relation practitioners.

55) List the typical goals public relations professionals see for communication.

56) Define and discuss what semantics is and how it can affect a message.

57) Communication theorists say there are explanations for what constitutes a message. Name the most popular and describe them.

58) Name and describe three factors that nurture personal biases.

59. Name four different effects that may occur is communication is clearly understood.

Chapter 4 Public Opinion

1) Which of the following does NOT describe public opinion?
A) elusive and fragile
B) combustible and changing
C) fleeting and vulnerable
D) staid and immutable

2) As a general rule, those who examine public opinion recognize that
A) it is easy to move people toward a strong opinion.
B) it is difficult to move people toward a strong opinion.
C) it is easy to move people toward a weak opinion.
D) it is difficult to move them away from a weak opinion.

3) Which is NOT a description of public opinion?
A) a term describing an ill-defined, mercurial and changeable group of individual judgments
B) not the name of something, but the classification of a number of somethings
C) the aggregate of many individual opinions on a particular issue that affects a group of people
D) trying to influence what an individual thinks about a topic

4) Which of the following does NOT describe public opinion?
A) a predisposition to think a particular way about a particular topic
B) the aggregate of many individual opinions on a particular subject that affects a group of people
C) a representative consensus
D) expression of an attitude on a particular subject

5) The primary focus of the practice of public relations is:
A) trying to influence an individual’s attitude – how he or she thinks on a given topic
B) tracking public opinion
C) burning incense to the unknown god of public opinion
D) detecting vulnerabilities of culture driven by media, fueled by the Internet and dominated by celebrity

6) For a long time, scholars believed attitudes were
A) actions people take based on an opinion.
B) predispositions to think a certain way about a certain topic.
C) judgments people make after people take action.
D) responses people have to strong opinions.

7) Research indicates that an attitude is likely
A) a bias toward something.
B) an evaluation made about a specific problem or issue.
C) a bias against something.
D) an aggregate opinion.

8) Experiences that influence attitudes include
A) religion.
B) social class.
C) educational.
D) all of the above

9) If your parents have owned only SUVs since you can recall, when you go to purchase your first vehicle as a new parent, it is likely that you will first consider buying an SUV because your attitude has been influenced most by the ________ characteristic.
A) cultural
B) familial
C) personal
D) race

10) Former Vice President Spiro T. Agnew called ________ the “silent majority.”
A) people who are strongly committed
B) people who are strongly uncommitted
C) people who are in the middle
D) people who have cognitive dissonance

11) We credit ________ with developing the theory of cognitive dissonance.
A) Leon Festinger
B) Harwood Childs
C) Joseph Kraft
D) Herman C. Boyle

12) The theory of cognitive dissonance indicates that people
A) tend to seek information contrary to their opinions.
B) tend to seek information that supports their points of view.
C) tend to avoid information that crystallizes their points of view.
D) tend to avoid information that reinforces their opinions.

13) Social judgment theory suggests
A) people don’t have a range of opinions on a specific topic.
B) people have a range of opinions on a specific topic that is not anchored by a clear attitude.
C) people don’t have a “latitude of acceptance” within which they may change their opinion.
D) people have a “latitude of acceptance” within which they may change their opinion.

14) Persuading a person to move from a latent state of attitude formation to a more aware state and, finally, to an active state is a matter of ________.
A) personality
B) dissonance
C) motivation
D) chance
15) In the hierarchy of needs theory, the second level focuses on
A) love needs.
B) self-aggrandizement.
C) self-actualization.
D) safety needs.

16) “Being all you can be” is what Abraham Maslow would likely describe as fulfilling the ________ need.
A) self-actualization
B) self-esteem
C) safety
D) physiological

17) The ________ model tackles what motivates people to change their attitude..
A) cognitive consonance
B) persuasion
C) elaboration likelihood
D) “muddled middle”

18) Classic persuasion theory indicates that a person who carefully considers an argument alertly, actively, and creatively is
A) in a heuristic mode.
B) in a cognitive dissonant mode.
C) in a systematic mode.
D) in a differentiation mode.

19) From classic persuasion theory, we learn that a person who skims the surface and doesn’t focus on the intricacies of an argument is
A) in a heuristic mode.
B) in a cognitive dissonant mode.
C) in a systematic mode.
D) In a differentiation mode.

20) Which of the following is NOT one of the types of “evidence” that will persuade?
A) facts
B) emotions
C) personalizing
D) activity

20) Which of the “Laws of Public Opinion” is described by the following: “Events of unusual magnitude are likely to swing public opinion temporarily from one extreme to another. Opinion doesn’t become stabilized until the implications of events are seen in some perspective.”
A) Opinion is highly sensitive to important events
B) Opinion is generally determined more by events than by words – unless those words are themselves interpreted as an event
C) At critical times, people become more sensitive to the adequacy of their leadership. If they have confidence it in, they are willing to assign more than usual responsibility to it; if they lack confidence in it, they are less tolerant than usual.
D) Once self-interest is involved, opinions are slow to change.

21) A President trying to gain support for an assault on terrorism would likely use an ________ appeal.
A) economic
B) efficient
C) emotional
D) evidential

22) Using your experiences, especially when they reflect how you’ve overcome obstacles, is an appeal based largely on
A) logic.
B) personalizing.
C) incontrovertible facts and statistics.
D) the “you” factor.

23) The so-called “Laws of Public Opinion” were developed by
A) Hadley Cantrill.
B) Harwood Childs.
C) Abraham Maslow.
D) Leon Festinger.

24) Among the “Laws of Public Opinion,” one places emphasis on
A) the power of words alone.
B) the power of hardheaded common sense.
C) the power of unusual events to create stable opinions in the moment they occur.
D) the power of methods to achieve goals.

25) What was one of the reasons Occupy Wall Street had mixed results?
A) quickly issuing news releases about too many issues
B) partnerships with local residents and merchants
C) people were unaware of their slogan, “the other 99 percent”
D) they were not concerned enough about publicity

26) Which of the following is NOT true regarding what organizations have come to realize?
A) Improving their image often means operating without implicit trust of the public.
B) A favorable image can disappear in an instant when there are negative perceptions about the organization.
C) Touting good works is critically important.
D) Improving their image means operating with implicit trust of the public.

27) Apple, Google, and The Coca-Cola Company have
A) been vilified for ignoring their social responsibilities.
B) been exonerated for telling the truth to the media.
C) been judged to have the highest reputation among 60 well-known companies.
D) been role models for knowing how to present financial information.

28) ________ aligns communications with an organization’s character and action.
A) Litigation publicity
B) Reputation management
C) Systematic argumentation
D) Relationship management

29) ________ is a front-line responsibility of public relations.
A) Litigation publicity
B) Motivation management
C) Reputation management
D) Heuristic argumentation

30) Which of the following is NOT a prediction made by futurist John Naisbitt?
A) There will be shift from public housing to more home ownership.
B) There will be a downward trend in population growth in Asia.
C) Inflation and interest rates will be held in check.
D) There will be a shift from welfare to workfare.

31) Positive public opinion about high-profile people diminishes when their words don’t align with their actions.

32) Generally, it’s easy to move people toward a strong opinion on almost anything.

33) If an opinion becomes strong enough, it can lead people to behavioral or verbal actions.

34) Public opinion is the aggregate of many individual opinions on a particular issue that affects a group of people.

35) Research suggests attitudes may more likely be evaluations people make about specific problems or issues.

36) Social class is no longer a major characteristic in the U.S.A. that influences attitudes.

37) On a given issue, the “muddled middle” is either positive, nonexistent, or negative.

38) On a political issue, people may be strongly for, strongly against, passive, neutral, or indifferent toward it.

39) Based on the theory that Leon Festinger developed in a campaign, individuals likely would seek information that supports their own points of view.

40) According to social judgment theory, people may have a range of opinions on a certain subject, anchored by a clear attitude.

41) Abraham Maslow developed a theory that indicates each of us is moved by different drives and needs.

42) According to the elaboration likelihood model of motivation, if we’re interested and focused enough on a message, we take a “peripheral” route to a decision.

43) Persuasion can include advising, reasoning, and even arm-twisting.

44) The goal of most public relations efforts is to influence people to take a desired action regardless of whether they are “systematic” or “heuristic” thinkers.

45) Business leaders are quite comfortable using emotion in attempts to persuade.

46) Words have more influence on opinions than events.

47) People in a society that provides educational opportunities and easy access to information develop “hardheaded commonsense.”

48) Most organizations today and the people who manage them have adopted the philosophy “The public be damned!”

49) Public opinion can seriously affect the success of enormous, well-established organizations when the public decides they or their executives have violated the public’s trust.

50) During the past decade, both managing relationships and reputations have become front-line responsibilities of public relations.

51) Why must public relations professionals understand public opinion?

52) Based on Hadley Cantril’s “Laws of Public Opinion,” explain the role of events in helping to form opinions.

53) Discuss the importance of image to an organization.

54) What is relationship management and why is it so important?

Chapter 5 Management

1) Which of the following CEO responsibilities does NOT correspond with those of public relations professionals?
A) sets overarching strategy and policies
B) boosts the reputation of the organization
C) focuses on developing key messages to be communicated to various publics
D) defends reputation of the organization

2) Similar to other top-level managers, public relations managers need to
A) plan
B) budget
C) set objectives
D) all of the above

3) Which of the following is NOT a “coveted ability” in the practice of public relations?
A) to be glib
B) to plan methodically
C) to think “on your feet”
D) to think strategically

4) The “boundary role”
A) is an example of an upper management theory.
B) shows how public relations practitioners have one foot inside and one foot outside the organization.
C) does not show how important the public relations function can be in building relationships inside and outside an organization.
D) does not show how public relations practitioners have one foot inside and one foot outside the organization.

5) Professors James Grunig and Todd Hunt said public relations practitioners perform what organizational theorists call a(n) ________ role.
A) communications
B) strategic
C) boundary
D) environmental

6) To truly be the “interpreter” for management philosophy, policy and programs, who should the public relations director report to?
A) The Chief Marketing Officer
B) The Chief Executive Officer
C) The Chief Operating Officer
D) The Chief Financial Officer

7) If public relations is to be the “interpreter” for management philosophy, policy, and programs, then the director for the function should report to the
A) vice-president of human relations.
B) vice-president of philanthropy.
D) vice-president of marketing.

8) For public relations to be the “conscience of the corporation,” practitioners must
A) have enough autonomy to deal openly and honestly with management.
B) have a CEO like Dave Dinesan.
C) ignore goals and objectives of advertising and marketing managers.
D) put the demand on advertising and marketing managers to promote a product that ignores demands of publics to act in a socially responsible way.

9) Which of the following dictates overall business objectives?
A) the broad environment in which the business operates
B) public relations strategies
C) public relations programs
D) marketing and advertising strategies

10) Which of the following dictates public relations objectives and strategies?
A) public relations programs
B) the broad environment in which the business operates
C) the overall objectives of the business
D) the advertising and marketing strategies above all else

11) For the public relations function to be equal in stature to other management functions, which of the following is essential?
A) knowledge of budget planning
B) commitment to set realizable objectives
C) control of a multi-million dollar budget
D) acceptance of accountability

12) Among the most essential steps in the public relations management process is
A) the ability to set overall organizational objectives.
B) the ability to set overall organizational strategies.
C) the ability to define a public relations problem or an opportunity.
D) the ability to research overall organizational problems.

13) The section of a public relations plan that provides an overview is referred to as
A) the management briefing.
B) the executive summary.
C) the situation analysis.
D) the message statement.

14) Which of the following would NOT be in a four-part skeleton of a typical public relations plan?
A) admission standards
B) situation analysis
C) proposal
D) implementation

15) Planning for a public relations program is important, but principally a program is assessed in terms of its
A) publicity value and practice.
B) performance and publicity value.
C) actions and performance.
D) programming and publicity value.

16) Procedures for implementing MBO programs differ in all of the following ways EXCEPT
A) conferring between subordinates and superiors in order to agree on achievable goals
B) determining the operational budget in order to achieve organizational objectives.
C) assessing periodically the progress toward achieving goals
D) specifying the organization’s goals using objectives that measure the organization’s performance

17) For agencies, budgeting relies on which of the following?
A) estimating extent of management expectations
B) estimating extent of cost and availability of resources
C) estimating the response from staff members
D) estimating its impact on the targeted publics

18) Key steps in budgeting do NOT involve which of the following?
A) estimating cost and availability of personnel needed to achieve each required activity
B) estimating cost and availability of purchases to achieve each required activity
C) estimating the extent of necessary resources essential to achieving objectives
D) allowing for open bidding

19) When an agency pays in advance for larger expense items like printing, photography, graphics and design, it is standard industry practice to markup such expenses by a factor of approximately
A) 12.5%
B) 15%
C) 17.65%
D) 19%

20) Most agencies frown on pay-for-performance contracts because
A) it is difficult to measure the depth of coverage
B) there are no guarantees that their efforts will be successful
C) it is difficult to measure circulation or audience rating of the venue
D) it is harder to charge a retainer and bill for staff time than it is to waive fees if no coverage is achieved

21) The overriding rule when it comes to agency budgeting is to
A) keep confidential the exact price of services.
B) keep billing the clients until they pay, or charge them a premium of 2 percent.
C) keep only the vendors who agree to provide you a percent of the billable expense.
D) keep the client aware of how charges are being applied.

22) Which of the following is NOT among the broad categories of tasks performed by public relations professionals?
A) providing communication services to external and internal audiences
B) identifying and analyzing public issues
C) setting corporate policy
D) coordinating graphic services and web design

23) Which of the following are among various internal communication duties performed by public relations professionals?
A) coordinating relationships with media for news coverage
B) reaching personnel through the intranet, newsletters, and meetings to explain company policies and benefits
C) coordinating relationships with outside specialty groups such as graphic services
D) coordinating activities with regulatory agencies concerned about employee safety

24) Among various public relations duties, which of the following would likely be done by investor relations people?
A) maintaining contact with security analysts
B) supporting activities with customers and potential customers
C) coordinating relationships with suppliers
D) contacting member of legislature to lobby for better health care insurance policies

25) Among various duties, which of the following would likely be done by public affairs people?
A) coordinating relationships with suppliers
B) managing gift-giving policies
C) coordinating activities with legislators on local, state, and federal levels
D) supporting activities to convince prospective customers to try the organization’s products

26) PERT and Gantt are tools that can help public relations practitioners use to
A) visualize tasks to be performed in a campaign or project.
B) designate who’s responsible for each task in a campaign.
C) chart costs of various tasks.
D) determine whether all goals and objectives are being met.

27) Public relations professionals who support the primary business of the organization are in ________ positions.
A) management
B) staff
C) line
D) supervisory

28) Today, about ________ of the practitioners in corporate public relations departments report to the chairman, president, and/or CEO.
A) 10 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 50 percent
D) 75 percent

29) Agencies can be characterized as having which of the following?
A) an outside looking-in perspective
B) an inside looking-out perspective
C) a tunnel vision perspective
D) a mindfulness perspective

30) Advantages agencies often have over in-house public relations talent include
A) their detached, inside-out focus.
B) the higher regard management has for them over inside practitioners.
C) their familiarity with the culture of an organization.
D) their opportunity to stay above the politics of the organization.

31) Agencies generally organize based on
A) amount the client is willing to pay
B) industry functions
C) resource management
D) synergies with advertising agencies

32) Which of the following is NOT an objective of reputation management?
A) persuading publics to support an organization when it is attacked
B) persuading consumers to buy and recommend that others buy an organization’s services, products, and policies
C) persuading competent job seekers to enlist others as employees
D) persuading competent job seekers to become employees

33) Public relations counseling opportunities are likely to grow in which of the following nonprofit areas?
A) child-protective services
B) law enforcement agencies, particularly city police departments
C) hospitals, educational institutions, and museums
D) high-tech think tanks

34) According to a 2010 report by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, annual “median annual salary” in major categories of public relations
A) stayed about the same as in a previous survey.
B) ranged from about $75,000 to under $120,000.
C) increased about 35 percent over what was recorded in a previous survey.
D) were best in Victoria, Texas; San Jose, California; and Washington, D.C..

35) According to a 2012 survey of 148 “chief communications officers (CCO)”, which of the following is true today about the salaries of senior-most communication executives at Fortune 500 companies?
A) The percentage of people from diverse cultures in the population are employed at about the same percentage figure in the public relations field.
B) Two-thirds of those polled earned $175,000 and $349,000 a year.
C) Fewer women than men are entering the field.
D) The number of men enrolled in public relations programs in higher learning institutions continues to increase at a higher rate now than in the 1990s.

36) PRSA’s “2010 Work, Life & Gender Survey” indicated that the average income for men in public relations was about $120,000, while the figure for women was about ________________.
A) $50,000
B) $72,000
C) $89,000
D) $122,000

37) The goal of staff public relations professionals working inside an organization is different than the goal of professionals working in a public relations agency.

38) Quick response to crises is important, but the ability to think strategically and to plan are just as important in the practice of public relations.

39) Grunig and Hunt developed the “boundary role” that helps explain key functions public relations people perform inside and outside an organization.

40) When a public relations department reports to the director of marketing or advertising, the department’s focus is still on the entire organization and not just on promoting or selling a particular product or service.

41) If one of the functions of public relations is that of “interpreter” for management policies and programs, in order to perform that function effectively, the public relations director ought to report to the CEO.

42) In order to fulfill the role of corporate conscience, public relations professionals should have enough autonomy to deal honestly and openly with management.

43) The overriding charge of the public relations function is to enhance an organization’s credibility by ensuring that corporate actions are in the public interest.

44) Overall business objectives should not dictate specific public relations objectives and strategies.

45) To at least have equal stature to other management processes, public relations practitioners should set objectives, formulate strategies and plan for effectiveness.

46) A comprehensive public relations plan clearly states tactics against which objectives can be measured and evaluated.

47) Regardless of how important planning a public relations campaign is, the public relations function is assessed primarily in terms of actions, performance, and practice.

48) One way to think about objectives is that they are to goals what tactics are to strategy.

49) Gilbert Gottfried was fired as a spokesperson for Aflac insurance company after he made jokes about September 11th.

50) Administrative budgeting appears to be the rule in public relations agencies.

51) Pay-for-performance budgeting means clients, for example, pay just for what is delivered in terms of depth of media coverage and the audience rating or circulation of the media..

52) The range of duties and responsibilities for practitioners is as diverse as the different publics and institutions with whom it deals.

53) Planning, coordinating, and staffing open houses, tours, and volunteer efforts traditionally fall in the realm of community relations.

54) PERT and Gantt were an agency which discovered the value of visualization in setting budgets.

55) Typically, public relations professionals either work in a staff or line position.

56) In a government organization, subordinates in the equivalent of what a non-governmental organization would call a public relations department typically report to the secretary of that government agency.

57) Omnicom, Weber-Shandwick Worldwide, and Burson-Marsteller are among the largest communications holding companies that have bought up some of the world’s largest public relations firms since 1990.

58) A major criticism leveled at an outside public relations agency versus an organization’s internal department is that an agency typically suffers from “tunnel vision” and will often have a difficult time presenting management with an objective viewpoint.

59) In recent years, the most difficult part of public relations work has shifted from retaining clients to attracting clients.

60) While reputation management has been declared a new approach to public relations, in truth, for about a century that has been the mandate of most public relations professionals.

61) One of the public relations skills that is likely to be in demand is in the employee communications area because so many organizations have broken promises made to their personnel.

62) Specialists in reputation management and crisis management earn high salaries.

63) The profession continues to do an outstanding job to recruit and hire people who are African American, Hispanic, or Asian and to pay them and women as much as their male Caucasian counterparts.

64) Elaborate on the knowledge and skills public relations practitioners need to qualify them as members of management.

65) Describe and discuss the “boundary role” theory of public relations management.

66) The skeleton for a typical public relations campaign plan requires the practitioner to address essential elements. Note at least four and explain what they are about.

67) Discuss the type of budgeting approach typically followed by most corporate public relations departments and the key steps to effective, efficient budgeting.

Chapter 6 Ethics

1) Which of the following is at the heart of the ethical practice of public relations?
A) brokering agreements with media to refrain from reporting news
B) stonewalling when it is in the best interest of a client
C) doing the right thing
D) avoiding telling the truth

2) The cardinal rule of public relations is
A) to lie when it is in the best interest of the client.
B) to write a tell-all book revealing why your CEO lied.
C) to seek special media coverage based on revealing “confidential” information.
D) to never lie.

3) Which of the following is NOT a factor in a person’s ethical construct and approach?
A) professional background
B) educational background
C) religious background
D) cultural background

4) Mill’s approach to ethics recommended
A) doing that which is between two extremes.
B) doing that which brings the greatest happiness for the greatest number.
C) doing that which could become accepted practice.
D) doing that which demonstrates loving your neighbor as yourself.

5) The “golden rule” prescribes
A) doing that which demonstrates loving your neighbor as yourself.
B) doing that which brings the greatest happiness for the greatest number.
C) doing that which does the least harm to the least number.
D) doing that which could become accepted practice.

6) The “golden mean” of moral virtue advocates
A) doing that which does the least harm to the greatest number.
B) doing that which brings the greatest happiness for the greatest number.
C) doing that which is found between two extremes.
D) doing that which you deem to be the societal standard.

7) Which of the following is NOT a basic value that the PRSA code of ethics addresses?
A) honesty
B) loyalty
C) fairness
D) authenticity

8) Professional ethics
A) is often called “applied ethics.”
B) suggests that distinctly different professional conduct is acceptable.
C) precludes the need for a formal code of ethics.
D) is another name for business ethics.

9) As the “conscience” of an organization, public relations practitioners
A) should advocate to divulge “everything” about the organizations for which they work.
B) should remember to ask, “Are we doing the right thing?”
C) should advocate to impose rigorous regulations against corporate criminals.
D) should ignore criticism that business ethics are non-existent.

10) Which of the following does NOT appear to apply to the state of ethics in business?
A) summer 2012 was characterized as a “summer of shame”
B) doing what is in the best long-term interest of the organization
C) confidence in business has deteriorated
D) is a classic oxymoron

11) A 2011 survey by the Ethics Resource Center found that although employees seemed more ethical in their own jobs
A) only 2 percent said CEOs were “very trustworthy.”
B) about two thirds said wrongdoing was not widespread in industry.
C) one-third of U.S. employees said their own managers “didn’t exercise ethical behavior”
D) about half said CEOs deserve what others may call “exorbitant” compensation.

12) Which of the following is a reason to have a corporate code of ethics?
A) to avoid having to respond to media inquiries about transgressions
B) to increase profits for publicly-owned businesses
C) to increase public confidence
D) to influence legislators to pass more up-to-date reform bills

13) Who said that “an organization is the lengthened shadow of a …” person?
A) Kenneth Lay
B) Ralph Waldo Emerson
C) Martha Stewart
D) Henry Paulson

14) The essence of corporate social responsibility is
A) to increase profitability so the tax rate can be lowered.
B) to manage business processes so there is a positive impact on society.
C) to act only if it is worth the time to enhance the social image of an organization.
D) to avoid having to respond to being asked about transgressions.

15) Which of the following would NOT be a socially responsible activity of a business?
A) providing a healthy and safe working environment
B) avoiding discrimination in hiring, promoting, and retaining the best people available
C) ignoring outlandish claims about “global warming” by delivering ergonomically correct products and services
D) manufacturing safe products that perform well and do not negatively impact the environment

16) Which of the following indicates the degree to which an organization is socially responsible?
A) adhering to standards for a safe, clean environment
B) following social investing advice suggested only by certified financial planners
C) supporting not-for-profit organizations that advocate only foreign investments
D) making efforts to hire only people who have been underrepresented in your organization

17) Which of the following is NOT identified as part of being socially responsible?
A) providing opportunities for physically challenged people
B) establishing work/life standards
C) practicing fair pricing
D) practicing cooperative government relations

18) An organization’s social responsibility image is often determined by
A) its desire to earn a profit above all else.
B) its focus on being the number one patron of the arts.
C) its attention to be ethical and to improve the quality of life for people.
D) its focus on looking good rather than doing the right thing.

19) Which of the following is NOT true about the state of ethics in government?
A) repeated instances of conflicts of interest
B) a record two years, from 2006-2008, when no politicians were exposed for unethical practices
C) questions about former Vice President Dick Cheney’s connections to energy corporations
D) polls indicating “low trust” of Congress

20) If journalists were to follow the Code of Ethics published by the Society of Professional Journalists, they would
A) fulfill their readers’ morbid curiosity for details about people with various addictions.
B) fight for the right to publish unofficial charges affecting a person’s reputation or moral character.
C) guard against invading a person’s right to privacy.
D) reveal everything about officials accused of malpractices without giving them a chance to rebut.

21) Standards of practice in the SPJ Code of Ethics for journalists include everything EXCEPT
A) concern for anonymity.
B) concern for objectivity.
C) concern for fairness.
D) concern for accuracy.

22) What impacts the ethical state of electronic journalism?
A) respect for the well-being of persons reported on
B) drive to quickly announce information rather than to accurately report news
C) devotion to balanced, fair reporting
D) drive to avoid playing hardball just for ratings

23) Which of the following is NOT an indication of the sorry state of ethical practices in TV reporting?
A) curious criticism by The New York Times for Judith Miller’s “cozy” relationship with news sources at the White House
B) network news organizations paying news sources
C) coverage of national issues that intensify the heat but shed little light
D) late-night comedians’ ability to land newsworthy people whom TV journalists can’t

24) Which of the following is a characteristic of the attorney/adversary model of ethics?
A) the only obligation of practitioners is to do what is in the public interest
B) the emphasis on collaboration regardless of the record of other parties
C) there is an obligation to consider any outside view beyond that of a client
D) recognizes the advocacy perspective in adversarial climates

25) The two-way communication model for ethics
A) was developed by Barney and Black.
B) was developed by Hunt.
C) is based on collaboration and allows for listening and give-and-take.
D) assumes counterbalancing messages will be provided by the sender and receiver.

26) The enlightened self-interest model for ethical practice is based on the principle of
A) balancing the role of department advocate with the needs of the organization.
B) realizing that an organization does well by doing good.
C) advocating for society is more important than advocating for the organization.
D) assuming counterbalancing messages are in the best interest of an organization.

27) The responsible advocacy model of ethics
A) is not based on ideals of professional responsibility.
B) fails to reconcile the the practitioner’s role of being the “interpreter” with the role of being the “social conscience.”
C) states that practitioners’ first loyalty may be to stockholders, but they also must voice opinions of the organization.
D) was developed by Kathy Fitzpatrick and Candace Gauthier.

28) Which of the various ethical models in your text does PRSA endorse?
A) responsible advocacy
B) attorney/adversary
C) enlightened self-interest
D) two-way communication

29) Which ethical core value would practitioners demonstrate if they sought information even for a rude reporter?
A) honesty
B) fairness
C) expertise
D) loyalty

30) Which core value do professionals demonstrate when they reason against “rock-headed” policy ideas presented by, for example, human resources personnel on behalf of the CEO?
A) fairness
B) advocacy
C) independence
D) honesty

31) Walmart cut its ties with Mercury Public Relations after a junior staff member at the L.A. public relations firm showed up at an anti-Walmart union news conference, posing as a reporter.

32) The deontological approach to ethics means doing what is proper even if the world might perish.

33) Ethical scandals continue to occur in fields from government to business to education to public relations.

34) Aristotle said that the golden rule of moral virtue is found between two extremes.

35) Following utilitarianism means considering the “greater good” rather than what may be best for the individual.

36) The code of conduct for the Public Relations Society of America indicates that honesty and fairness are at the heart of the practice of public relations.

37) By posing the critical question “Are we doing the right thing?” to management, public relations practitioners become the “conscience” of an organization.

38) The bottom line for public relations professionals is to counsel and do what is in the long-term best interest of an organization.

39) CEOs in handcuffs and others exiting mismanaged businesses but with exorbitant payouts have spoiled the ethical landscape of business in the early 21st century.

40) A corporate code of conduct formally states the values and business practices to be followed by employees and agents of an organization.

41) Reasons corporations have adopted codes of conduct range from trying to increase public confidence to having a means to respond to transgressions.

42) A socially responsible organization strives to deliver quality products and services that have a positive impact on society.

43) Republican and Democratic Congressmen and governors are among the poster boys for the “sleaze factor in government”.

44) At the heart of the Code of Ethics for the Society of Professional Journalists is demonstration of respect for the dignity, privacy, rights, and well-being of people whom they encounter while seeking and presenting news.

45) Among newspapers that have been embarrassed by plagiarism are the Washington Post, Boston Globe, and even the New York Times.

46) Jim Grunig created the enlightened self-interest model for ethical behavior in public relations to advocate that for business to do well, it must do good.

47) The responsible advocacy model for ethical behavior advocates practitioners must remember their first loyalty is to stakeholders, but they must also voice the perspectives of their clients.

48) From the new PRSA code of ethics, we realize that advocacy means protecting the confidentiality of client information unless the client advises otherwise.

49) Among the great challenges in the 21st century for the public relations profession is to alter the mind set that public relations specialists are not “transparent.”

50) After examining various breaches in ethical conduct in business, government, media, and in the practice of public relations, a fair conclusion is that responsibility for acting ethically rests ultimately on individuals not organizations.

51) Describe the classic schools of ethics that you typically follow as you go about your day-to-day business, indicating why that works for you.

52) Briefly describe what the Public Relations Society of America’s Member Code of Ethics introduced in 2000 is and some of its principles.

53) Discuss briefly the state of business ethics in recent times, including 2012, the “summer of shame”.

54) List and explain at least three challenges journalists working in various media face today.

55) Explain what encompasses the values of honesty and loyalty in the code of ethics developed and published in 2000 for members of the PRSA.

Chapter 7 The Law

1) How did Taco Bell respond to a lawsuit that claimed its taco mixture had more fiber than meat?
A) It ignored the claims and asked for a private hearing
B) It made a video thanking the people for suing them
C) They decreased the amount of fiber in their taco mixture
D) They sued Facebook and YouTube

2) How does advice to clients from lawyers differ from advice given clients by public relations practitioners?
A) Lawyers advise clients what they should do, within the letter of legal requirements, to defend themselves in the court of public opinion.
B) Public relations practitioners advise clients what they must do to defend themselves in a court of law.
C) Lawyers advise clients what they should do, within the letter of legal requirements, to defend themselves in a court of law.
D) Public relations practitioners advise clients what they should do to defend themselves in the court of public opinion.

3) Which principle established in the U.S. Constitution often leads to conflicts between lawyers and public relations practitioners?
A) freedom to own firearms
B) freedom of speech
C) freedom to own property
D) freedom to use the employer’s Internet connection

4) Careful analysis of law and ethics leads to the conclusion that
A) many illegal activities are also unethical.
B) ethics lays the foundation for laws.
C) lawyers are at heart ethicists.
D) legal advice and ethical advice are essentially the same.

5) Which of the following is NOT true about the First Amendment?
A) Discussions about law and public relations should start with it.
B) A court did not follow it in the Judith Miller case.
C) Public relations practitioners should disregard it as they go about their business.
D) Even the U.S. government must act responsibly under it.

6) One person’s definition of obscenity
A) may force the media to disregard deep-held beliefs.
B) may force a defendant to use “no comment” as a legitimate response to media inquiries.
C) may force courts to suppress information.
D) may force another person to claim there is a violation in freedom of expression.

7) In 2006, cartoons about the prophet Muhammad run by an obscure Danish newspaper were
A) for much of the Western world, a violation of the First amendment.
B) for much of the Western world, an example of “freedom of expression.”
C) for most Muslims, an example of public relations at its worst.
D) for most Muslims, an example of “freedom of expression.”

8) The umbrella term to describe slander and libel is
A) “freedom of expression.”
B) obscenity.
C) defamation.
D) tastelessness.

9) Which of the following may NOT constitute defamation of character in the U.S.?
A) A falsehood about someone is communicated through print, broadcast, or other electronic means.
B) Media libel or slander a celebrity who is identified, or who could easily be identified.
C) An ordinary citizen experiences injury – in the form of losses in money, reputation or mental stability – based on what was written or said.
D) Media libel or slander an ordinary citizen who is identified, or who could easily be identified.

10) The $50 million case of Israeli General Ariel Sharon against Time magazine
A) was about obscenity.
B) was a slander case challenging the right of people to bear arms.
C) was a case in which the jury felt Time was negligent but had not acted with “malice.”
D) was about a paper covering an attempt of a police officer to cover up what had transpired.

11) In the 21st century, with more and more cable and radio talk shows and hosts and guests saying what they want,
A) defamation has become more complex but less devastating.
B) defamation is less complex and more global.
C) defamation is more devastating and more complex.
D) defamation is no longer an issue.

12) Assume an employee is fired for committing an illegal act. The employer announces the cause for the firing in an accurately written e-mail. The court agrees the content of the e-mail is true; yet, it rules that the employee was libeled. The ruling challenges the long-standing belief that
A) written statements about people on behalf of the client are private.
B) be aware of the power of an e-mail.
C) the power of an e-mail should not doubted.
D) truth is a defense against libel.

13) A passerby filmed for the movie “Borat” sued the producer Sacha Baron Cohen for defamation, but lost because
A) ironic commentary can be a defense against alleged defamation.
B) proof of vulgarity can be used to win a defamation case.
C) freedom to mock an ordinary citizen is not a legitimate defense against alleged defamation.
D) ordinary citizens can win defamation suits against movie producers.

14) Every public company has an obligation to deal frankly, comprehensively, and immediately with any information that is considered ________ for a decision to buy, sell, or even hold the organization’s stock.
A) inside information
B) material
C) immaterial
D) a mandate

15) The overriding concern the SEC has is that
A) all companies have the right to know as soon as possible whether they will be hauled into court.
B) all public relations practitioners should be the first to receive material information.
C) all investors have an opportunity to learn about material information as promptly as possible.
D) management, then public relations practitioners, then other employee are guaranteed access to material information before outside investors.

16) To comply with the SEC’s overriding concern for investors, public relations practitioners
A) can trade on insider information in unusual circumstances.
B) can act only on public information when trading securities.
C) must be very selective in providing historic stock information to investors.
D) can provide material information to celebrities before the general public.

17) Which among the following did NOT force the SEC to reexamine and intensify its focus on disclosure?
A) realities of the “Great Depression” of the 21st century
B) extended securities trading times
C) instantaneous online trading
D) mergers, takeovers, and consolidations

18) The SEC in 2000 adopted Regulation FD that
A) is designed to increase selective disclosure.
B) requires companies to pull back on wide dissemination of any material announcement.
C) requires issuance of a news release within 48 hours of any information that may have slipped out to an analyst.
D) requires companies to widely disseminate any material announcement.

19) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act, passed in 2002,
A) has been well received by companies willing to communicate financial information.
B) bolstered Regulation FD.
C) nullified Regulation FD.
D) mandated that publicly traded companies make full financial disclosure by submitting a semi-annual report on the effectiveness of their internal accounting controls.

20) In 2012, Governor Nikki R. Haley of South Carolina was cleared of charges that she violated ethics rules when she
A) Spoke out against Casey Anthony
B) Lobbied on behalf of two businesses she worked for when she was a state representative
C) Perjured herself during lobbying activities
D) Conspired to bribe public officials

21) A body of law that is particularly relevant to public relations writers centers around
A) licensing.
B) professional accreditation.
C) copyright.
D) rules for timely disclosure.

22) According to the Copyright Act of 1976, an “original work of authorship” has protection from the moment the work is in which of the following “fixed forms”?
A) a musical work
B) antiques
C) a short slogan
D) a symbol

23) Under copyright laws, owners of copyright have the
A) exclusive right to determine fair use.
B) exclusive right to authorize what is fair use.
C) exclusive right to authorize others to prepare derivative works based on the copyrighted material.
D) exclusive right to reproduce and authorize others to reproduce their work.

24) A word, symbol, or slogan – used alone or in combination – to identify a product or sponsor is
A) protected under copyright law.
B) covered under trademark law.
C) not protected under trademark law.
D) eligible for copyright after 17 years.

25) When copyrighted material is used for purposes of criticism, news reporting, teaching, scholarship, and research, that constitutes
A) fair use.
B) infringement.
C) commissioned work.
D) publicity.

26) Understanding and following the letter of copyright laws is critical to practitioners, especially in dealing with ______________________, because some of these professionals retain the right to copyright their work.
A) a printer
B) their employer
C) freelance writers
D) the Associated Press

27) A major premise in American law is that
A) all speech is created equal.
B) there is no degree of differences in types of speech.
C) all speech must be measured.
D) all speech is not created equal

28) Despite various efforts, in which of the following areas of speech and the Internet has legislation NOT been successful?
A) full disclosure
B) “indecent”speech
C) copyrighted music
D) e-fraud

29) A complex legal issue in Internet law is cybersquatting, which
A) is a technique used by Wendy’s to shakedown other fast-food vendors.
B) is a technique to grab domain names in bad faith.
C) is used to “shake down” illegal registrants of domain names.
D) is a technique that amazon.com introduced when it went online.

30) One type of e-fraud is “click fraud”, in which
A) an effort is made to register multiple clicks to get a higher search engine ranking.
B) companies strip logos or promise inheritances via email.
C) companies sue employees who anonymously post on blogs.
D) amazon.com sells more products.

31) Social media has introduced an issue with employee relations, which has increased the number of companies
A) encouraging employees to criticize the company on Facebook.
B) asking for access to social media to monitor activities.
C) deliberately using their social media policies to limit discussions about wages and unionization
D) refusing to discuss employment matters.

32) Litigation public relations is an outgrowth of all the media attention given to legal proceedings and requires intelligent use of acceptable, ethical public relations practices, including
A) developing a message strategy for use only at the beginning of a case.
B) advocating for lengthening the time a case is in court.
C) trying for settlement after the case is decided.
D) keeping a positive focus and battling “nicely” because the less combative, the better.

33) One of the ways supporters of people who are being prosecuted help influence public opinion is
A) setting up a blog to provide information to the public.
B) trying to make the litigation as invisible as possible.
C) come up with positive things to say about the prosecutor.
D) ignoring the internet and cable to focus on network television.

34) Public relations practitioners advise clients what they must do to defend themselves in the court of public opinion.

35) Normally, lawyers suggest that the less said by an organization prior to its day in court, the better.

36) While legal and public relations advice may differ, an effective manager today considers both before making a decision.

37) As the Kobe Bryant case demonstrated, when an organization or individual’s integrity is being challenged, there is value in going public early on.

38) Among the frontline responsibilities for public relations is defense of the First Amendment.

39) WikiLeaks worked with international newspapers to publish secret U.S. State Department diplomatic cables because, according to Julian Assange, the public had a right to know.

40) Laws regarding rights to privacy are similar for people in the limelight as they are for the ordinary citizen.

41) With growing numbers of blogs, podcasts, and cable and talk radio shows, the nature of defamation is more complex, more global.

42) Rule 10b-5 of the Securities and Exchange Act is an antifraud statute that, among many things, prohibits investor relations people from disseminating false information.

43) Regulation FD requires any publicly traded organization to widely disseminate any material announcement.

44) Whether or not writers register their manuscript with the Copyright Office or even publish, the law of copyright provides basic, automatic protection for writers.

44) Copyright laws cover a symbol or slogan, used alone or in combination, that identifies a product or its sponsor.

45) Under copyright laws, what constitutes “fair use” is not subject to interpretation..

46) The Supreme Court ruled in favor of the Child Online Protection Act of 1998 which made it a federal crime to “knowingly communicate” on the Internet “for commercial purposes material considered harmful to minors.”

47) Metallica, backed by large music companies, defeated Napster in its legal battle to allow users free exchange of music files via a central Internet server.

48) Cybersquatting and “click fraud” are just two examples of legal issues surrounding the World Wide Web.

49) Cybersquatting boils down to tormenting or “shaking down” rightful registrants of names for a Web domain.

50) Because of the proliferation of news coverage, especially over cable, it is more difficult for a jury to be objective in a high-profile legal case.

51) Knowledge of litigation public relations is essential for trial lawyers hoping to provide a client every advantage.

52) Why should public relations practitioners be aware of various laws?

53) Discuss and distinguish libel from slander as it pertains to ordinary citizens.

54) What are some regulations mandated by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) that a practitioner should know?

55) Discuss Supreme Court rulings on censorship of material on the Internet targeted at persons under 18 years old.

56) Especially with the media incessantly jabbering, what have lawyers learned from public relations?

Chapter 8 Research

1) From plotting a political campaign to promoting a product to confronting a crisis, the first step in solving any public relations challenge is _____________________.
A) to conduct research
B) to plan a programmatic initiative
C) to go with your gut
D) to ask your team what their intuition is

2) Which of the following does NOT pertain to research?
A) what public relations programs should start with
B) a foundation for public relations solutions
C) what several four-step processes to solve problems start with
D) what budgeting for public relations ends with

3) If public relations practitioners expect to receive support from management for a proposed program, they should expect to share which of the following?
A) their intuition about the desired market segment
B) their instincts about the likes and dislikes of a target audience
C) their data that helps pinpoint which messages are most effective with targeted audiences
D) their positive attitude indicating a proposed message strategy will work

4) In professional work, research should be applied
A) only during the initial phase.
B) at all phases of a program.
C) only prior to programming.
D) only at the end.

5) The word research commonly conjures up methods, including all EXCEPT
A) interviews.
B) intuitive information.
C) test scores.
D) questionnaires.

6) Which of the following is NOT a guiding principle in setting standards for public relations research?
A) to distinguish short-term outcomes from long-term outputs
B) to use various evaluation techniques to determine effectiveness
C) to distinguish between public relations effectiveness and advertising effectiveness
D) to establish clear program objectives directly to business goals

7) Characteristics related to applied research include all of the following EXCEPT
A) to solve practical problems.
B) to develop message strategies.
C) to help build theories.
D) to determine whether a program has achieved its objectives.

8) From theoretical research in communications, we have learned that
A) the most persuasive communication comes from multiple sources of moderate credibility.
B) the most persuasive communication comes from multiple sources of high credibility.
C) the less complex a persuasive message is, the less credible it is.
D) the more complex a persuasive message is, the more credible it is.

9) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of secondary research?
A) It is very expensive.
B) It focuses on someone else’s primary research.
C) It is referred to as “desk research.”
D) It includes online databases.

10) Among the primary forms of public relations research, ________ tend to reveal differences in the ways management and target audiences view communications materials, media, messages, and methods.
A) surveys
B) communication audits
C) published company accounts
D) unobtrusive audits

11) Elements in a survey include
A) a sample.
B) a snapshot of a current condition.
C) an analysis of the hypothesis.
D) a cause and effect.

12) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a sample?
A) It can only be formal.
B) It ought to be representative of the total population.
C) It must be representative of the total public whose views are sought.
D) It must be scientific.

13) Two essential properties of a random sample are that
A) its selection must be formal and scientific.
B) its selection is based on equality and independence.
C) its selection must be unobtrusive and results-oriented.
D) its selection must be representative of the population and specific target audience.

14) Of the types of random sampling used, ________ sampling is a procedure that surveys different segments of the targeted population.
A) cluster
B) systemic random
C) stratified random
D) simple random

15) A type of random sample that journalists use to elicit ideas and points of views from persons on the street is a
A) convenience sample.
B) volunteer sample.
C) quota sample.
D) cluster sample.

16) Suggestions for an effective questionnaire include
A) avoid pre-testing.
B) ask loaded, double-barreled questions.
C) keep it short.
D) use only open-ended rather than closed-ended questions.

17) In public relations research, the most frequently used type of convenience sample is a
A) cluster sample.
B) quota sample.
C) stratified sample.
D) focus group.


18) Which of the following techniques does NOT help lead to a higher response rate for a questionnaire?
A) Attach a letter explaining how important the respondents’ answers are.
B) Avoid sending out reminders to respond.
C) Hand stamp rather than meter envelopes.
D) Send a follow-up reminder postcard three days after the original questionnaire.

19) Interviews are a type of
A) personal, firsthand research.
B) unobtrusive measure.
C) communications audit.
D) secondhand research.

20) Types of interviews include all of the following EXCEPT
A) focus groups.
B) Delphi panels.
C) communications audits.
D) drop-off.

21) Which of the following involves researchers delivering short questionnaires to people they approach in shopping malls or retail outlets?
A) Drop Off Interviews.
B) Delphi Panels.
C) Intercept Interviews.
D) Focus Groups.

22) Who provided research for an article in The New York Times titled “America’s 10 Most Sleep-Deprived Jobs”?
A) Home health aides
B) Sleepy’s mattress chain
C) Teachers
D) Lawyers

23) The type of interview where opinion leaders are asked repeated waves of questions is a
A) Delphi panel.
B) drop-off interview.
C) intercept interview.
D) telephone interview.

24) Which is NOT a problem to be considered in order to do a results analysis?
A) reliability
B) validity
C) the questionnaire
D) statistically significant margins of sampling error

25) A communications audit is designed to help an organization
A) determine the validity of findings from a telephone interview.
B) determine the reliability of findings from TV interviews.
C) determine communications needs, policies, practices, and capabilities.
D) determine the statistical significance of the margins of sampling error

26) Which of the following is a type of unobtrusive method of data collection?
A) content analysis
B) intercept interview
C) Delphi panel
D) Internet interview

27) Characteristics of evaluation do NOT include
A) using techniques that measure results against established objectives.
B) selecting outcomes randomly.
C) providing data that answers the “accountability questions.”
D) reinforcing promises made to management to secure their “buy-in.”

28) Which of the following are NOT among the four most common techniques to measure public relations outcomes?
A) retention and recall measurement
B) awareness and comprehension measurement
C) analysis and synthesis measurement
D) behavior measurements

29) In terms of consumer-generated media, Web analytics measure
A) costs per contact.
B) where visitors are from.
C) how often they move beyond the homepage.
D) what portions of sites are ignored.

30) Which of the following is NOT one of the targets for Search Engine Optimization?
A) image search
B) cost per click search
C) local search
D) video search

32) When Janice and her team answer questions like “Why are we on the Web?” and “What are we attempting to communicate?”, which factor associated with web research are they considering?
A) Establishing objectives
B) Determining criteria
C) Determining benchmarks
D) Selecting the right measurement tool

33) When Janice and her team project the hits the website will receive based on competitive data, which factor associated with web research are they considering?
A) Establishing objectives
B) Determining criteria
C) Determining benchmarks
D) Selecting the right measurement tool

34) To be certain public relations advice for management is headed in the right direction, it must be based on hard data.

35) Managements prefer public relations professionals demonstrate only how their efforts contribute to overall organizational goals rather than to the bottom line.

36) Research is the systematic collection and interpretation of information that increases understanding.

37) Credit for establishing guidelines for setting standards of research in the field of public relations goes to the Public Relations Society of America.

38) Applied research is neither strategic nor evaluative but instead is theoretical.

39) Theoretical research solves practical problems in public relations.

40) Because of limited budgets, secondary research makes sense when launching a research effort.

41) Content analysis and readability studies are among the unobtrusive research methods used by public relations practitioners.

42) Descriptive surveys are concerned with cause and effect.

43) Cross-sectional sampling is either random or nonrandom.

44) To increase the likelihood that a person responds to a questionnaire, attach a letter explaining how important the respondents’ answers are, plus let them know they will remain anonymous.

45) One of the least frequently used interview types in public relations is the focus group.

46) An intercept interview is a popular approach used to capture consumers’ attitudes, perceptions, preferences and behavior.

47) Copy testing is an obtrusive method of data collection.

48) “Outcome” evaluation includes measurement of messages received by target audiences.

49) The ultimate test of measuring the effectiveness of a public relations effort is attitude measurement.

50) Hits and eyeballs are the most popular terms discussed in assessing the impact of the Web for research.

51) Why is research even more important today to public relations practitioners than it was just a decade ago?

52) Describe and differentiate between output and outcome elements in public relations research.

53) What is a sample? What are the two cross-sectional approaches used, and how many people would you need to sample in a population of 500,000 to arrive at a 5 percent margin of error?

54) Describe a communications audit and explain how it is used.

55) What factors should a public relations firm take into consideration when preparing for Internet evaluation?

Chapter 9 Media Relations

1) Which of the following does NOT characterize News on the Internet?
A) More pervasive
B) Less intrusive
C) More accessible to the masses
D) More likely to cause problems for public relations professionals

2) Which of the following characterize the media that today’s public relations practitioners must deal with?
A) They have qualms about using anonymous sources.
B) They are less aggressive, less opinionated, less willing to throw themselves into story coverage.
C) They are aggressive, opinionated and throw themselves into story coverage.
D) They are truth-minded.

3) Before the 21st century, most public relations practitioners came from the world of
A) business.
B) politics.
C) journalism.
D) law.

4) Ari Fleischer, first press secretary to President George W. Bush, viewed the press as
A) having gone well beyond their role as devil’s advocate.
B) being so negative that they only look for “bad news.”
C) trying to fix “broken eggs.”
D) being concerned with “informing” the public about all the news.

5) In pursuing their “freedom” under the First Amendment,” media have increasingly done all the following EXCEPT
A) played “devils advocate.”
B) regularly challenged authority with pointed, nasty, even hostile questions.
C) avoided “breaking eggs” in their pursuit
D) independently ferreted out the truth.

6) Objectivity, a goal journalists presumably strive for and public relations practitioners should help media professionals achieve, is ideally
A) an attempt at pure and complete neutrality.
B) an attempt to be fair, to remain neutral.
C) an attempt to include enough biased notions so a story is believable.
D) an attempt to satisfy conservative critics of the so-called “liberal media.”

7) One Washington Post columnist blamed the American public for the fact that the relationship between the media and public relations people is comparable to that of bitter enemies, saying:
A) the public wants the truth
B) the public wants trash
C) the public wants friendly adversaries
D) the public wants reciprocity

8) Reasons why print media are an important medium for public relations professionals include
A) limited opportunities for original use of news releases on network and cable TV.
B) online databases, blogs and other Web-based media use organization-originate material destined for print usage.
C) many journalists at newspapers and magazines still use news releases.
D) all of the above.

9) Which of the following is NOT true about newspapers?
A) by the summer of 2012, print circulation was stabilizing and newspaper reading on the Internet climbed
B) They are sources of news for electronic news directors and bloggers.
C) About ten percent of the nation’s daily newspapers have implemented some form of paid digital content.
D) They attract about 66 million daily visitors to the Web.

10) In the United States, there are roughly ________ daily newspapers and ________ magazines.
A) 1,000; 10,000
B) 1,350; 21,000
C) 19,000; 1,500
D) 6,000; 15,000

11) Which of the following is NOT an accurate characterization of electronic media?
A) In the first decade of the 21st century, there was a dramatic increase in numbers of Americans turning to broadcast network newscasts.
B) On-demand viewing services resulted in a drop of daily cable watchers in 2010.
C) 24/7 cable news means Americans are being bombarded with televising of unrelated events.
D) Talk radio has become an enormous social and political force.

12) Among the factors the Internet has NOT added to complicate relationships between practitioners and journalists is
A) “new-age news sources.”
B) expansion of the online edition of many newspapers.
C) the collapse of longstanding standards and ascendancy of rumor mongering.
D) improvement in longstanding standards of objectivity.

13) Which of the following is good advice for public relations people who want to know how to deal effectively and ethically with people representing the various types of media?
A) Treat them first and foremost professionally.
B) Treat them like all other journalists in any medium.
C) Treat their skepticism with skepticism, realizing that doesn’t come with the territory.
D) Treat them with respect because you and they understand what news is.

14) The cardinal rule for dealing professionally and ethically with media is
A) to cop an attitude.
B) to never lie.
C) to make them realize if the story is good, the company will continue to advertise with them.
D) to remind them that you promised your management a placement.

15) Which of the following is NOT among the guaranteed benefits of paid advertising?
A) control over content as submitted
B) location where the content will appear
C) credibility of what does appear in print media
D) frequency

16) Which of the following is a benefit publicity has over guarantees associated with advertising?
A) reach
B) third-party endorsement
C) placement of information provided to media
D) frequency

17) Publicity can be very useful especially in
A) explaining how easy it is to use a simple product or service.
B) minimizing the effect of a big budget.
C) announcing a new product or service and re-energizing an old product or service.
D) responding to praise from adversaries.

18) The activity of trying to place positive publicity in media, of convincing an editor to consider the publicity as newsworthy, is called
A) selling.
B) advocating.
C) pitching.
D) positioning.

19) In order to achieve placement of a written release, which of the following should you avoid?
A) directing a release to a specific beat reporter
B) frequently using “exclusives”
C) determining how best to contact a reporter or editor by asking them for their preference
D) calling a reporter or editor yourself, rather than have an assistant make the call

20) If you are seeking online publicity,
A) Change how you deliver and format a news release.
B) Take advantage of the nature of the medium and write a long announcement.
C) Virtually ignore the importance of a site’s library.
D) Bypass whenever possible use of news wires.

21) Which of the following is NOT true of online news releases?
A) Paid wires guarantee the use of your material.
B) They have a shorter life than offline releases.
C) Web events need to be big to attract publicity.
D) The closer you are to online reporters, the more fairly they will treat you.

22) Which of the following activities are likely to attract online publicity?
A) promotion of members in your organization
B) television appearances or book tours
C) long, well-written product announcements
D) “big” events like concerts broadcast online

23) Which of the following wire services does NOT guarantee use of your materials?
A) Internet Wire
B) Associated
C) Business Wire
D) PR Newswire

24) A task that may be seen as the most essential task of public relations people in the eyes of those for who public relations people work is
A) easing discomfort with their personal appearance.
B) placating executives with easy practice questions.
C) to coordinate interviews for their executives with the media.
D) setting an agenda for meetings.

25) A reason executives tend to be uncomfortable about interviews is due to their
A) discomfort with their personal appearance.
B) distrust of liberals.
C) inexperience of being put on the spot.
D) failure of public relations professionals to help prepare them.

26) The first question before engaging in a media interview is:
A) What purpose will this serve the organization?
B) How many questions will s/he ask me?
C) What should I wear?
D) Will it put me on the spot?

27) In interviews, the interviewers seek
A) someone with whom they can have an intellectual conversation.
B) someone who can provide material for a “good story.”
C) someone with whom they can develop a lasting friendship.
D) someone who will make them look good.

28) In interviews, the interviewee seeks
A) to have an intellectual conversation with the interviewer.
B) to intelligently respond to all questions on any topic.
C) to convey the key message.
D) to provide material for a “good story.”

29) What should the interviewee know about the interviewer before the interview?
A) his/her point of view.
B) his/her interests.
C) his/her likely questions.
D) all of the above

30) A key point to remember when dealing with reporters, especially in interviews, is
A) saying “no comment” is an indication that you may be hiding something.
B) debating a reporter if you disagree with their premise establishes respect.
C) even if you don’t know the correct answer to a question, provide them something.
D) answer hypothetical questions to indicate just how well-informed you are.

31) For a successful a media interview,
A) bluff if you don’t know an answer.
B) welcome naïve questions.
C) look to go off the record.
D) provide promised information whenever you have time to.

32) Because of the prominence of 24/7 cable news, talk radio, and the blogosphere, it’s never been easier to develop solid media relations.

33) The “devil’s advocate” role is the key to why many people don’t like the press.

34) If the fact that the “acceptable rate of accuracy” is 70 percent among Internet journalists is an indication, then dealing with some media has become risky.

35) In the old days, print reporters wouldn’t risk their “objectivity” to voice their opinions on television while today, reporters and news organizations like getting attention for their opinions.

36) The role a journalist fulfills in working with or dealing with officials is that of a skeptic.

37) Spokespersons who effectively substantiate the official organizational view and demonstrate its merits should reasonably expect media to avoid editorial distortion in presenting the information.

38) Public relations people still consider print media important because they still typically use more material presented them than do network or cable TV.

39) Jon Stewart showed up fourth on a national poll of “most admired journalists.”

40) New-age news sources include the Drudge Report and Salon.

41) Manipulating the media is a goal of effective media relations.

42) Good media relations require a formal media relations policy and following sound principles of dealing fairly, honestly, and intelligently with their representatives.

43) The cardinal rule in dealing with the media is to make sure they know who is in charge.

44) A major and distinct advantage advertising has over publicity is its frequency.

45) Publicity differs dramatically from advertising but typically costs dramatically more than advertising.

46) The reason publicity is considered more credible than advertising is that it has passed the standards of a third party, the media.

47) Pitching in public relations is similar to throwing a curveball in baseball: The idea is to trick the recipient into accepting whatever you throw at them.

48) The downside to promising one paper an exclusive is how that might affect your relationships with other newspapers.

49) When all is said and done about the Internet, for public relations practitioners it is still about building relationships.

50) For online publicity placement, public relations practitioners ought to make good use of paid news wires because they guarantee the use of your material and then provide newsrooms with content.

51) Since the Internet has become a more commonplace communication medium, the bar for what qualifies as a Web-worthy event has been lowered.

52) Coordinating media interviews for their management is a key role that public relations practitioners have.

53) Two keys to effective interviews – interviews that help further good media relations – are to bluff and go off the record.

54) How does online media affect public relations?

55) What is the role of media that public relations practitioners need to understand?

56) Why is targeting newspapers and magazines in a public relations campaign still worthwhile?

57) Discuss how advertising differs from publicity.

58) Discuss steps you should take to insure a successful interview.

Chapter 10 Social Media

1) Indications of the significance of social media include all the following EXCEPT
A) appointment of the first White House Director of New Media.
B) appointment of blogger Karen Hughes as chief communications officer by President George W. Bush.
C) Facebook was valued at $104 billion after one trading day.
D) role of Twitter in reporting the death of Osama Bin Laden.

2) Despite all the clamor about social media, public relations practitioners must seriously bear in mind, social media is only
A) a fad.
B) a trend.
C) a strategy.
D) a tool.

3) Technically, the ________ is a cooperatively run, globally distributed collection of computer networks that exchange information via a common set of rules.
B) World Wide Web
C) Internet
D) Hypertext Markup Language

4) The worldwide growth in Internet users from 2007 to 2012 was 2.27 billion. Which area dominated the growth?
A) Asia
B) The Middle East
C) Europe
D) Oceania

5) Among the giant survivors of the “great high-tech s” of the 1990s is
A) eBay.
B) Google.
C) Twitter.
D) YouTube.

6) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Internet and the practice of public relations?
A) The number of Internet-oriented agencies continues to grow dramatically.
B) The Internet is a great potential repository of education-based information.
C) Many agencies have interactive specialists and groups.
D) A handful of firms specialize in Internet-related communications.

7) For public relations professionals, journalists
A) are no longer the most important source for helping their messages be heard.
B) are the primary source for research.
C) are still their primary “customers.”
D) are online but prefer receiving correspondence via “snail mail.”

8) Which of the following is NOT a reason to expect growth in the use of the Internet by public relations professionals?
A) need for customization
B) quest for conversation
C) need for real-time performance
D) demand by consumers to be sold rather than educated

9) Because today’s consumers are more media-savvy, better-educated, and generally smarter, they expect the Internet to provide
A) more hype.
B) more self-promotions.
C) more education-based information.
D) more self-promotion.

10) The Website serves as an organization’s “first face” to the public. Which of the following is NOT important on a Website?
A) make Websites as navigable as possible
B) make Website information “static”
C) create a clearly identifiable “Media” icon and organized subsections.
D) speak in the organization’s own voice

11) How is stickiness measured?
A) by asking people about their goals
B) amount of time visitors spend at a site and how many pages they visit
C) by how many times a visitor goes to a competitive site
D) by which locations on a site visitors click first

12) Which of the following is NOT a strategic question one would want answered in order to prepare a winning Website?
A) How far back should we list our chronological press releases?
B) How will we track use?
C) How interactive will it be?
D) How will it enhance design?

13) Which of the following is the principal benefit from having a Web site?
A) access to the oldest social media tool
B) ability to offer information to the public in an organized, consolidated manner
C) elimination of roadblocks to reaching potential or current customers
D) elimination of way to monitor what others are saying about your organization

14) What is SEO?
A) sales employment opportunities
B) search engine options
C) search engine optimization
D) sales enjoyment optimization

15) If public relations professionals expect to benefit from their Web site, they
A) should strive to make it as easily navigable as possible.
B) should strive to make it “static.”
C) should strive to make it less available to media members.
D) should strive to make vehicles such as news clips and publications unavailable.

16) How much time visitors spend and how many pages they view on a Web site is a characteristic of
A) interactivity.
B) stickiness.
C) static.
D) linkedness.

17) Which of the following are among strategic questions to answer in order to create a winning Web site?
A) Should we allow access by the mass media?
B) Should we make it interactive?
C) Should we measure site performance?
D) Should we know our ultimate goals?

18) Which of the following do NOT pertain to e-mail?
A) pervasive tool for internal organizational communication
B) viable alternative to face-to-face communication in organizations
C) most popular form of social communication among teenagers
D) least popular form of social communication among teenagers

19) Which of the following do NOT pertain to how e-mail has affected employee communication?
A) managers can deliver concerns quickly with less effort
B) managers can deliver praise quickly with less effort
C) interferes with workflow
D) tends to help lead to more honest and immediate feedback than previous traditional approaches

20) Characteristics to make an e-mail newsletter useful for customers would include
A) keep them lengthy.
B) disseminate them at regular intervals.
C) avoid having links to product offers.
D) block access to links for even more extensive articles.

21) Which of the following pertain generally to IM?
A) a form of information management used in business
B) is an offline, linear form of communication
C) especially popular among Generation Next
D) limits accessibility to one other person

22) Which of the following pertains generally to texting?
A) allows for sending messages of 160 or more characters
B) common in business-to-business communication
C) least common is person-to-person messaging
D) is the most widely used mobile data service

23) Which of the following does NOT pertain generally to blogs?
A) sometimes called Weblog
B) gains respect through support of geezers
C) embraced by professional communicators, including those from broadcast and print media
D) is an online diary

24) Which of the following do NOT pertain to blogs and public relations?
A) need to identify, monitor, and build relationships with the influential bloggers
B) need to understand principles that make it a distinct type of social media
C) those that have earned credibility are as important as traditional reporters
D) is a no-risk communications vehicle

25) Which of the following pertain to CEO blogs?
A) has received rave reviews from various publics
B) typically turns negative public relations positive almost instantly
C) among the newest phenomena in the blogosphere
D) the vehicle of choice among most public relations practitioners for disseminating news

26) The theoretical of social networks stemmed from?
A) an article by the CEO of Sun Microsytems
B) an article by a telecommunications professor at MIT Media Labs
C) the CEO of Marriott International
D) an article by a former employee at AT&T Labs Research

27) The early description of what is now generally referred to as “social networking” sites include
A) “dumb transport”
B) “stupid network”
C) “intelligent transport”
D) “intelligent network”

28) Which of the following does NOT represent a social media network that has stood the test of time?
A) Facebook
B) LinkedIn
C) Friendster
D) YouTube

29) Which of the following is among the most well-known social networking sites?
A) SpaceMan
B) Twitter
C) BookFace
D) InLink

30) Which of the is the biggest social networking service, with 900 members around the world, one-quarter of everyone on the Internet, and growing by 5% every month?
A) Facebook
B) Twitter
C) LinkedIn
D) YouTube

31) Which of the following is NOT one of the functions Facebook serves for public relations?
A) attract attention.
B) static information.
C) two-way communication.
D) conversation monitor.

32) Public relations practitioners have found that Twitter can be
A) a vehicle to direct Twitters to Web sites.
B) a vehicle to direct Twitters to products.
C) a means to do some cybersquatting.
D) a way to tap into conversations about particular subjects.

33) Which of the following is described as “Facebook for the professional set”?
A) Picasa
B) Zoomer
C) LinkedIn
D) RevvedUp

34) Which of the following is NOT one of the services LinkedIn provides for public relations professionals?
A) Notes
B) Groups
C) Polls
D) Carb Lunch

35) Which of the following is an example of how YouTube helped public relations professionals?
A) Domino’s CEO quick response to a video
B) the positive response to U.S. General Services Administration’s rap about their junket
C) Lady Gaga’s video about not eating
D) Ketchum public relations vice president’s response to Memphis

36) Which of the following is NOT an up-and-coming social networking site?
A) Instagram.
B) Foursquare.
C) Yikes.
D) Pinterest.

37) Which of the following is one the priority areas to track in social media analytics?
A) Reach and impressions.
B) Number of social media outlets.
C) Social media inputs.
D) Amount of printed matter.

38) Which of the following is an easy way to distribute content on the Internet, similar to a newsgroup?
A) QR Code
C) RSS Feed
D) Podcast.

39) Which of the following is NOT an example of the dark side of social media for public relations professionals?
A) blog usage by discontented shareholders, stock manipulators, and angry customers
B) secure, unedited sites where employees can discuss corporate policies and strategies
C) urban legends about corporate horror stories spread by email
D) rogue websites that confront organizations with negative information

40) Because of its immediacy and pervasiveness, the Internet has replaced human relationships as the essence of societal communication, and as the essence of public relations practice.

41) The Internet is a cooperatively run, globally distributed collection of computer networks that exchanges information via a common set of rules.

42) Many Internet businesses rose in the 1990s only to flame out in the early 21st century.

43) A major reason Internet uses by public relations practitioners will grow relates to the “quest for conversation.”

44) In the Internet Age, if public relations practitioners strive to be effective they will NOT give into customizing their communications.

45) A Web site is an organization’s “first face.”

46) A Web site permits an organization to speak in its own voice.

47) A “media friendly” Web site should have a clearly identifiable “media” icon and organized subsections.

48) An organization’s Web site provides the most important interface for various publics.

49) After first contacting a public relations professional, the second place journalists turn for background information about an organization is their Web site.

50) “What’s the purpose of a Web site” and “Who should be responsible for it” are among significant questions a single proprietor public relations operation needs to answer before entering that aspect of cyberspace.

51) Because evaluation is a critical question in the public relations process, a practitioner ought to determine how usage of the Web site will be tracked.

52) E-mail has become a pervasive internal communications vehicle largely replacing traditional print and fax technology as a method for rapid delivery of information.

53) Instant messaging is the most pervasive of communications vehicles used in business communication.

54) Like instant messaging, texting has become an important employee communications vehicle.

55) Blogs have continued to be a tool of so-called fringe media.

56) Audiences see through a company’s “traditional ‘ad speak'” and have begun to consider blogs as a type of third-party “endorser” of products and services.

57) A blog gains respect through the support of “sneezers” or early adopters within a social group.

58) While the verdict on the effectiveness of CEO blogs is still out, it is apparent that they can serve as a public relations vehicle for disseminating news.

59) YouTube is the biggest social networking service.

60) One of the community-building purposes of Facebook is to network with the media.

61) In 2012, Twitter broke the news about singer Whitney Houston’s death 27 minutes before mainstream media reported the story.

62) Social media engagement includes sales, blog posts, comment, and retweets.

63) With the various sites and practices that the Internet permits, good advice for public relations people regarding the Internet is to stay alert and monitor their own and the various sites on the Net.

64) Rogue websites like Walmartsucks.com are put up by the companies so people have a place to vent their frustrations.

65) Do the Internet and social media hold promises for the future of public relations? If so, why?

66) Summarize some of the overall benefits public relations practitioners have already derived from their ventures into cyberspace.

67) If public relations practitioners are considering establishing a Web presence for themselves as well as their clients, list some major questions that should be answered.

68) Distinguish instant messaging from texting.

69) Discuss the evolution of blogging and its impact and prospect to affect the practice of public relations.

70) Define social networks, social networking, and social media, and discuss their relevancy to the practice of public relations.

71) Name and briefly describe the dark side of online communications for public relations professionals.

Chapter 11 Employee Relations

1) During the past 20 years, surveys about workforce contentment indicate
A) employees have never been more satisfied.
B) employees are increasingly disenchanted with their jobs and employers.
C) higher paid employees have never been more satisfied with their jobs.
D) nearly half of surveyed employees “trusted management to communicate honestly.”

2) In the first six months of 2012, nearly __________________ people lost their jobs.
A) 2,200
B) 77,000
C) 770,000
D) 1 million

3) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of what American workers have faced recently?
A) waves of downsizings and layoffs
B) widened gap between executive compensation and pay of common workers
C) actions by management that increase loyalty
D) corporate emphasis on globalization

4) According to a well-regarded survey, what percentage of corporate CEOs reported spending more of their time communicating with employees.
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%

5) Because of what has happened to American workers in the first decade of the 21st century, which of the following is NOT true?
A) There is increased value placed on “intellectual capital.”
B) There is need for employee empowerment.
C) There is “trust gap” between management and workers.
D) There is less need than ever for meaningful, effective employee communication.

6) There is no “general public,” but there is an “employee public” that
A) has numerous subgroups.
B) has indistinguishable concerns.
C) has similar interests.
D) has concern only for a fair day’s pay for a fair day’s work.

7) Which of the following is NOT a trait of today’s employees?
A) they are younger
B) they are said to be more diverse, ambitious and career-oriented
C) they have more loyalty than their predecessors
D) they are less complacent

8) Which of the following traits in today’s employees require smart managements to strive for candor?
A) their younger age
B) their being hard-nosed
C) their ambition
D) their increased complacency

9) Which of the following leads employees to think “the grass is greener elsewhere”?
A) knowing what it takes to move ahead
B) understanding how compensation programs work
C) not knowing where they stand in the eyes of management
D) sensitivity to their peers’ problems

10) If communication is to reinforce a consistent management message, it
A) must be complex.
B) must be credible.
C) must spell out in every detail the purpose behind the message.
D) must have a friendly tone.

11) One of the six criteria that shape the best companies to work for in America was:
A) attention to clarity.
B) keeping upper management distant and behind the scenes.
C) prioritizing external over internal communication.
D) keeping a stern tone.

12) The hands-down most effective method of employee communications is:
A) text messaging.
B) company newsletter.
C) face-to-face communication.
D) evaluations.

13) Suggestions to improve employee relations include
A) involving employees in the process by asking for their ideas and opinions.
B) ways to demonstrate what a great workplace workers are in.
C) covering up any negative comments about an employee’s performance.
D) advocating for employees who want anti-activist communication.

14) In S-H-O-C, a four-step communications approach, what does the S stand for?
A) Strategic
B) Straight
C) Service
D) Separate

15) In S-H-O-C, a four-step communications approach, what does the H stand for?
A) Hear
B) Honest
C) Hidden
D) Held

16) In S-H-O-C, a four-step communications approach, what does the C stand for?
A) Communication
B) Confidence
C) Consistent
D) Celebrations

17) Voice is a principle of good communications that can enhance “getting through” to employees. It refers to
A) speaking neither too loudly nor too softly when conveying negative news.
B) giving those with divergent opinions as much recognition as possible.
C) allowing those who wish to share their opinions to be heard and to be part of decision making.
D) recognizing that money and benefits are the ultimate motivator.

18) One overriding principle for good internal communication is to
A) be truthful.
B) soften the blow of bad news.
C) use human resources jargon in explaining benefits .
D) squash dissent.

19) Employees would trust management more if they
A) were less visible.
B) didn’t seek to empower the workforce.
C) communicated more frequently and earlier.
D) avoided sharing bad news.

20) Which of the following acronyms is indicative of how management can build trust through communication?
A) R-H-R-V
B) S-H-O-C
C) E-V-P-A
D) H-V-A-C

21) For a well-conceived and well-designed employee communications program to work, it must
A) promise lots.
B) evoke passion.
C) be well-financed.
D) be steadily consistent.

22) Critical questions to answer before doing an internal communications audit include
A) When was the last time we did one of these?
B) Why should we do one of these now?
C) How responsive are internal communications efforts to employee needs and concerns?
D) Do we have enough money in the budget?

23) Online communications vehicles include all of the following EXCEPT
A) blogs.
B) intranet.
C) printed newsletters sent to employees’ homes.
D) Instant messaging.

24) Which of the following would NOT be an advantage to online communications vehicles?
A) more immediate than earlier print vehicles
B) more likely to be listened to, read, and acted on
C) adds to increased loss of employees’ “voice” for people without a computer
D) reach employees where they are

25) An intranet is
A) an external vehicle that allows for exchange of information via a cooperatively run and globally distributed collection of computer networks.
B) an external vehicle that integrates communication with outsiders so they have more insight about workflow, process management, and infrastructure.
C) an internal vehicle that integrates communication with workflow, process management, and infrastructure.
D) a dynamic Web site to which all employees can add information.

26) Defenders of print vehicles suggest
A) they are valuable as a link to the Internet.
B) they help create the “climate” management endorses.
C) they not be used to convey comprehensive information.
D) they be used to sell, sell, sell.

27) The organization originally devoted just to internal communications was the
A) Public Relations Society of America.
B) International Associations of Business Communicators.
C) American Marketing Association.
D) American Advertising Federation.

28) Traditional staples of employee communications have included all the following EXCEPT
A) bulletin boards.
B) suggestion boxes.
C) “town hall” meetings.
D) Delta lunches.

29) Which of the following is considered the most “ancient” of employee communications vehicles?
A) town hall meetings
B) bulletin boards
C) suggestion boxes
D) internal videos

30) Which of the following are among the traditional staples of employee communications programs?
A) bulletin boards.
B) Delta breakfasts.
C) suggestion boxes.
D) internal videos

31) Despite all the emphasis on social media, ________ communications, preferably from a supervisor, is considered the best communication vehicle to reach employees.
A) intranet
B) town hall
C) face-to-face
D) grapevine

32) Which of the following is NOT required if social media are to be effective in a work environment?
A) They must adapt to the business culture.
B) They must be entertaining.
C) They must be informative.
D) They must have a business purpose.

33) Although it may be treacherous at times, the ________ can be a valuable communications vehicle.
A) face-to-face communications
B) intranet communications
C) town hall meetings
D) grapevine

34) An environmental scan of the workplace in the U.S. would lead to this conclusion: Overwhelmingly, employees are content with what they do for a living and with their employers.

35) A well-regarded survey indicates that more than half of CEOs are spending more time communicating with their employees.

36) Rapid changes in technology and globalization require that even more attention be paid to communicating honestly and openly with employees in order to gain their respect and loyalty.

37) Once considered less important, glamorous, or critical, employee communications has become increasingly more important.

38) Despite all the negative phenomena that have affected employees, there still isn’t enough value placed on “intellectual capital.”

39) Because the new business environment is so complex, staff members are calling for less of a voice in decision making, less empowerment.

40) Employees, especially in times of high unemployment, indicate their biggest concern is: knowing where they stand.

41) Management’s giving priority to internal communication is NOT among the six criteria discussed in 100 Best Companies to Work For in America that have stood the test of time.

42) The overriding challenge that confronts today’s internal communicators is to convince employees that management not only wants to communicate with them, but also wants to do it in a truthful, frank, and direct manner.

43) Employees might be shocked if more managements took the S-H-O-C approach as a first step to rebuild employee trust.

44) An intranet is a dynamic Web site to which employees add pages, modify content, and comment on what’s already on the site.

45) To have any hope for a successful intranet, you must set clearly defined objectives yet allow for growth and evolution as new needs appear.

46) Despite the growing use of online vehicles for internal communications, defenders of print argue that it helps create a “climate” that has the stamp of management.

47) Because they were such an old type of employee communications vehicles, bulletin boards have virtually disappeared.

48) A suggestion box system still can provide employees a way to receive feedback from management.

49) For internal video to be accepted by employees today, it must be of broadcast quality.

50) Hands down, the most effective method of employee communications is face-to-face communication between supervisors and their subordinates.

51) Procter & Gamble blocked Netflix and Pandora because movie watching and song downloads were slowing down Internet service.

52) The best social media policies are based on common sense.

53) Despite the diabolical image of the grapevine, the reality is that it can be a helpful vehicle in an effective employee communications program.

54) Why is there currently an even greater need for effective employee communications?

55) The 100 Best Companies to Work For in America had six criteria that have stood the test of time. What are they?

56) Describe some ways management can increase trust among its employees.

57) Describe the S-H-O-C approach to management communication.

58) Name the growing online, internal communications vehicles and briefly describe how each is used.

59) Name and briefly describe some things intranet creators should keep in mind.

60) What is the “grapevine,” and how is it used in employee communications?

Chapter 12 Government Relations

1) Which of the following was not one of the gaffes that occurred during the Romney campaign’s summer 2012 overseas trip?
A) he told an interviewer that the British were rightfully concerned about security preparations for the summer Olympics.
B) he complimented Israel on their successful culture, which the Palestinians did not like.
C) he criticized President Obama while on foreign soil
D) his press secretary told a New York Times reporter to kiss his posterior

2) In which was social media used effectively by Barack Obama in the 2008 race for the presidency?
A) to stop news coverage by the media
B) to announce his choice for Vice President
C) to censor China
D) to circulate the results of the Edelman Trust Barometer

3) The reason the practice of “public relations” has been virtually barred from the federal government?
A) a remark made by President Dwight D. Eisenhower
B) the 1913 Gillette Amendment
C) the Congressional gag law
D) handling of the media by Press Secretary Ari Fleisher

4) Indications that there has been growth in public relations-type jobs in government include all the following EXCEPT?
A) number of new federal regulatory agencies that have sprung up since the 1970s
B) repeal of the Gillette Amendment
C) number of government agencies or programs that regulate business
D) increased opportunities in Department of Defense

5) Titles used at the federal government level to describe public relations-related activities include all EXCEPT
A) public affairs officer.
B) public relations practitioner.
C) press secretary.
D) communications specialist.

6) In 2005, a GAO report revealed that the Bush administration paid _______________ on advertising and public relations contracts over a two-and-a-half-year period.
A) $1 million
B) $1.6 million
C) $1 billion
D) $1.6 billion

7) Public affairs functions for the State Department do NOT include
A) responsibility for press briefings.
B) advertising and recruiting volunteers for the armed services.
C) maintaining content for the Department homepage.
D) operating foreign press centers around the nation .

8) The United States Information Agency
A) is part of the Department of Defense.
B) was part of the General Accounting Office.
C) was created by President Dwight D. Eisenhower.
D) has been an arm of the Central Intelligence Agency.

9) In the 21st century, challenges for the USIA include all EXCEPT
A) maintaining its position in the executive branch.
B) developing worldwide information programs to address environmental issues.
C) supporting the war on drugs in producer and consumer countries.
D) building intellectual and institutional foundations of democracy in societies around the globe.

10) Which of the following is NOT a communication initiative of the State Department?
A) TV Marti
B) maintaining the Armed Forces Radio and Television Service
C) Voice of America
D) libraries and books

11) AFIS is responsible for
A) coordinating public affairs operations for each of the various branches of the military.
B) periodically auditing and refining operations in each branch of the military.
C) making sure to select the best representatives of the media for embedding.
D) maintaining Stars and Stripes.

12) What is the name of the newspaper AFIS is responsible for maintaining?
A) Stars and Stripes
B) Armed Forces News
C) Defense Information
D) DOD News

13) Despite the Gillette Amendment, the public relations clout of the president includes all the following EXCEPT
A) traveling with his own media entourage.
B) exerting influence on the nation’s agenda by controlling the “bully pulpit.”
C) stifling the media’s search for truth.
D) his every statement or move intriguing the media.

14) Key principles used by President Ronald Reagan and his communications advisers to “manage the news” did NOT include
A) repeating the same message often.
B) going with the flow
C) staying on the offensive.
D) controlling the flow of information.

15) Which of the following is NOT an example of a situation that made a president’s relationship with the media sour.
A) September 11th
B) Monica Lewinsky
C) “Mission Accomplished”
D) Hurricane Katrina

16) Despite a number of embarrassing events during his administration, President Bill Clinton remained quite popular because he
A) had a professorial manner.
B) had an easygoing, “just plain folks” demeanor.
C) like Joe/Jane Six Pack he was unable to grasp issues easily.
D) displayed confidence by uttering, “You Betcha!”

17) The event that helped awaken good communications instincts in President George W. Bush was
A) Iran-Contra.
B) Desert Storm.
C) September 11, 2001.
D) Hurricane Katrina.

18) Which of the following events led to “sour” media relations for George W. Bush?
A) firing Press Secretary Ari Fleisher
B) premature announcement of “Mission Accomplished” in Iraq as well as mishandling the impact of Hurricane Katrina
C) frequent press conferences at the Texas White in Crawford
D) hiring the likeable Tony Snow as press secretary

19) Observers say the second-most difficult position in any president’s administration is
A) Vice President.
B) Federal Reserve Chairman.
C) Secretary of State.
D) Press Secretary.

20) Chief among the responsibilities of the president’s press secretary is
A) covering up for the administration’s errors.
B) communicating accurately the policies and practices of the President.
C) reporting what the President says without really knowing that is what he had said or would say.
D) making a decision about a policy when cornered by media.

21) The White House press secretary who resigned because his convictions differed with President Gerald Ford was
A) Jerald ter Horst.
B) Ron Nessen.
C) Spiro Agnew.
D) George Stephanopoulos.

22) The columnist who viewed the responsibilities of the press secretary as two-way, similar to the interpreter-advocate role performed by corporate public relations people, was
A) Larry Speakes.
B) Jody Powell.
C) William Safire.
D) Marlin Fitzwater.

23) Which of the following press secretaries who served President Clinton had a refreshing perspective and went on to be a cable talk show host, magazine editor, and political analyst?
A) Richard Morris
B) Dee Dee Myers
C) Marvin Fitzwalters
D) Joe Lockhart

24) The former press secretary who said, “I may be crazy, but I like working with reporters” was
A) Scott McClellan.
B) Ron Nessen.
C) Ari Fleischer.
D) Mike McCurry.

25) Who was President Barack Obama’s first Press Secretary?
A) Robert Gibbs
B) Jay Carney
C) Scott McClellan
D) Tony Snow

26) What happens in government is so significant to an organization that the number of corporations and trade associations with ________ units has grown steadily in recent years.
A) media relations
B) government relations
C) employee relations
D) not-for-profit

27) Which of the following is NOT true about just how big a business lobbying is?
A) About $8 million a day is spent lobbying federal government.
B) State lobbyists are far and away lots less active than federal lobbyists.
C) About $3 billion a year is spent lobbying the federal government.
D) the number of federal registered lobbyists totals 11,268.

28) The Lobbying Disclosure Act of 1995 reformed earlier lobbying laws and focused on
A) broadening activities that constitute lobbying.
B) redefining a lobbying contact as any contact made via the Internet.
C) prohibiting former employees of the federal government from registering as lobbyists.
D) mandating that anyone who speaks to a federal official about legislation must register.

29) Under the 1995 disclosure rules, a “lobbyist” is
A) anyone who pays for meals for Congressional aides.
B) anyone who is paid by a third party to make more than one “lobbying contact.”
C) anyone who does research or provides background for lobbying purposes.
D) anyone who asks a government official to recognize a client in the Congressional Record.

30) The task of a lobbyist is ultimately rooted in the ________, which provides citizens the right to petition the government.
A) Fifth Amendment
B) Twenty-third Amendment
C) First Amendment
D) Sixth Amendment

31) Which of the following is NOT among activities lobbyists engage in?
A) acting as a lead or link – a conduit – for a client’s sales staff
B) advocating for or against pending legislation with members of Congress
C) interpreting government actions for a client and client actions for a legislator
D) repealing the rights of only lawyers to be lobbyists

32) The dramatic impact the ________ can have on a presidential race was verified by the political campaign put together by candidate Barack Obama.
A) trial by news releases
B) foreign governments
C) Internet

33) Which of the following Web sites has been called “one of the most . . . influential organizations in U. S. politics”?
A) SorosOff.com
B) GOPAC.gov
C) MoveOn.org
D) MyVote.com

34) Which of the following is NOT among the largest PACS in the nation campaigning to have their candidates elected??
A) American Management Association
B) National Rifle Association
C) American Medical Association
D) American Federation of Teachers

35) Which of the following presidents deserves credit for New Federalism or the shift of political power from the federal to the state and local levels?
A) George H. W. Bush
B) Ronald Reagan
C) Bill Clinton
D) George W. Bush

36) President George W. Bush indicated his belief in the importance of coordinating his administration’s foreign policy message and image abroad by creating a permanent Office of Global Communications.

37) Because Congress feared that then-President, Theodore Roosevelt, would win public support for his programs through use of a network of people who practice “public relations,” they passed the Gillett Amendment in 1913 that barred use of the “practice” in federal government.

38) While Congress passed a law that did not allow government people engaged in the “practice of public relations,” in fact, there are thousands of public relations-related jobs at the federal level.

39) According to various government reports, billions of dollars were spent on advertising and public relations contracts by the Bush Administration during his first term.

40) The Department of Defense communications include 3,727 communicators in the Army.

41) As of 1999, the USIA became an important function of the Department of Defense.

42) Among the major vehicles that the USIA employs to spread the “gospel of America” are Radio Marti, beamed into Cuba, and the Voice of America, directed at other international audiences.

43) Despite early 20th century efforts by Congress to limit the persuasive powers of the President of the United States, the nation’s chief executive today wields unbridled public relations clout and controls the “bully pulpit.”

44) President Ronald Reagan’s approach to communications was so effective that he is still called the “Great Communicator.”

45) The main role the presidential press secretary serves is to be the chief public relations spokesperson for a President’s administration.

46) The press secretary who was universally hailed by media for his professionalism during most of his tenure was Larry Speakes, who had been a Hill & Knowlton executive.

47) The first woman to serve as presidential press secretary to President Clinton was Mary Matlin.

48) Today, there are 300 members of “the imperial press corps” looking to the presidential press secretary for news.

49) The number of registered lobbyists in Washington has increased to 11,268.

50) One of the functions lobbyists service is a publicity springboard.

51) Informing and persuading are at the heart of what lobbyists do.

52) The campaign Al Gore ran against George W. Bush established him as the first “digital presidential candidate.”

53) Among the most controversial political developments in recent years is the rise of PACs and their role in elections.

54) As a result of 9/11, President Ronald Reagan initiated New Federalism – calling for a shift of political debate and public policy decisions to be made at state and local levels.

55) Among frontline responsibilities for a public relations practitioner at the local government level are to inform constituents about legislative and regulatory changes as well as about various government procedures.

56) How did September 11, 2001, change the communications approach of the Bush Administration?

57) What is the USIA, when was it created and by whom? What is its role, and which government department today has responsibility for it?

58) If the Office of the President has any chance to maintain a solid image with media and the public, it must “manage the news” by following the principles used by President Ronald Reagan’s communications advisers. They include

59) The essence of a lobbyist’s job is to inform and persuade. List the specific activities most lobbyists take part in to do their jobs.

Chapter 13 Community Relations

1) The result of the Susan G. Komen Race for the Cure’s policy barring grants to organizations that were under investigation by local, state or federal authorities was:
A) the resignation of Vice President Karen Handel
B) the resignation of CEO Nancy Brinker
C) the loss of support from charitable donors
D) all of the above

2) What percentage of the U.S. population was represented by Hispanics in 2010?
A) 5%
B) 12%
C) 16%
D) 21%

3) What is the fastest-growing racial or ethnic group in the United States?
A) Hispanics
B) Asians
C) American Indians/Alaska Natives
D) White, Non-Hispanic

4) Which of the following does NOT describe aspects of the U.S. population?
A) More than half of the children born in 2012 were of “minority” racial or ethnic heritage.
B) Hispanics comprised about 16 percent of the US population in 2010.
C) Multiracial Americans are the fastest growing US demographic group.
D) Asians comprised 15 percent of the US population in 2010.

5) The majority of immigrants to the U.S. flock to which states listed below?
A) Rhode Island, Massachusetts, and New York
B) Florida, California, and New Hampshire.
C) California, New York, and Texas.
D) Colorado, California, and Nevada

6) Which of the following is an indication of the economic impact of ethnic minority populations on the U.S.?
A) They own 20 percent of the small business firms.
B) They own more than 25 percent of the small business firms.
C) They spend nearly one trillion of the $4 trillion spent
D) Their buying power has dramatically decreased.

7) Which of the following do NOT pertain to minority populations and the media in the U.S.?
A) Hispanic buying power in the top 20 US markets approximates $850 billion out of total US consumer spending of $10 trillion.
B) Procter & Gamble spent $150 million on ads targeting African Americans in 2009.
C) DirectTV spent $133 million on ads in Hispanic media during 2009.
D) The Asian population is the only race or ethnic market that is both rapidly growing and affluent.

8) As arbiters of communications in organizations, it’s been the charge of public relations people to
A) deal in an enlightened manner with the realities of a multicultural society.
B) sensitize the rest of the world to multicultural needs of Americans.
C) make an impact on renewing the energies of various ethnic communities.
D) enhance the power of the disenfranchised.

9) During the 1980s, corporations prided themselves on their commitment to
A) recognize diversity.
B) forego making larger profits.
C) social responsibility.
D) sponsor major artists’ endeavors.

10) Which “front-burner mandate” of corporations in the 1990s and early 2000s negatively affected their commitments to social responsibility?
A) a shift in attention to making as much money as possible
B) meeting only demands of the Board of Directors
C) being responsible only to diverse, multicultural communities
D) recognizing only needs of shareowners

11) Indications that corporate social responsibility has become broadly accepted among enlightened organizations include their:
A) funding clean water and air projects
B) enforcing policies in the interest of all employees
C) searching for more jobs for more minorities
D) enhancing the quality of life for the poor and hungry

12) In 2012, 13 companies donated more than $100 million in cash. How much did Walmart donate?
A) $242 million.
B) $337 million.
C) $342 million.
D) $420 million.

13) The commitment corporations have to make financial contributions in a community’s interest very much depend on
A) profits.
B) voluntarism.
C) enlightened self-interest.
D) the CSR policy.

14) One major aspect of “giving back” is support for
A) enlightened self-interest.
B) voluntarism.
C) “bringing a child to work” days.
D) expanding the number of philharmonic orchestras nationwide.

15) Peaceful coexistence between organizations and communities where they operate requires which of the following skills?
A) negotiating or mediating if there’s a significant problem between organizations, communities, and their members
B) taking for granted what communities likely know and think about a specific organization
C) keeping confidential what the organizations’ points of view are on public matters
D) protecting confidentialities the organization has disclosed

16) Enlightened community relations are hinged upon which of the following?
A) researching, analyzing, and understanding the power structure of communities
B) understanding the makeup and expectations of communities and vice versa
C) organizations communicating their points of view in an authoritarian fashion
D) each power base making sure it demonstrates who is in charge

17) Tangible commodities that communities expect from resident organizations include all of the following EXCEPT
A) taxes.
B) employment.
C) wages.
D) participation.

18) Which of the following is NOT a intangible commodity communities expect from neighborly organizations?
A) employment
B) stability
C) pride
D) appearance

19) Which of the following DON’T businesses require or expect of a community where they operate?
A) adequate municipal services
B) tax laws that stymie expansion
C) good labor supply
D) reasonable degree of support for the business and its products

21) Research indicates that winning community support for organizations is
A) quite easy.
B) somewhat easy.
C) no easy matter.
D) very difficult

22) Which of the following is a typical community relations objective?
A) tell the community about the firm’s operations.
B) correct misunderstandings, reply to criticism, remove disaffection that may exist.
C) gain favorable opinion of the community.
D) all of the above.

23) The Web has the ability to further human relations and progress across communities and for the larger society because
A) it is anonymous and acrimonious
B) it expands educational and commercial opportunities
C) it is heartless
D) Websites like GreaterGood.com are thriving

24) Which of the following qualify as typical objectives of a community relations program?
A) to promote better local and county government
B) to avoid collaboration with other businesses on beneficial community projects because of potential conflicts of interest
C) to discourage employees from serving on administrative boards of various community-based human service providers because of potential conflicts of interest
D) to strive to gain favorable opinion from the community, particularly during difficult times

25) Which of the following would NOT qualify as typical objectives of a community relations program?
A) to make every effort to always share confidential matters to community leaders
B) to cooperate with other businesses on beneficial community projects
C) to correct misunderstandings
D) to support health programs with money and human resources

26) Which of the following do NOT pertain to the role the Internet can have concerning community relations?
A) The Internet is inherently a community.
B) The Internet links like-minded interests in virtual communities.
C) The Internet actually has limited value in furthering potential for socially responsible actions.
D) The Internet can do much for social good based on the idea that community members may live continents away.

27) Some efforts indicating the immense potential the Internet can bring to further human relations and progress across communities include all EXCEPT which of the following?
A) the effort made by Black Entertainment Television through its Web site to bring “connectivity, content, and commerce” to the African-American community
B) AOL’s joining with various musical artists to present Live 8
C) Time Warner’s efforts to attract more African Americans to use AOL.
D) the efforts of GreaterGood.com

28) Indications that minorities are heading toward becoming the majority in the U.S. include
A) dramatic growth in the Asian.
B) dramatic growth in the African-American community.
C) dramatic growth in the Hispanic community.
D) dramatic growth in the Pacific Islander community.

29) Once “considered a minority,” women have made great strides in all the following ways EXCEPT
A) leveling the playing field between their roles and compensation for them.
B) gaining equal pay for the same jobs
C) being a CEO at large corporations.
D) serving as advisors to presidential candidates and even the President.

30) Which of the following depicts the Hispanic population in the U.S.?
A) There are currently 60 million Hispanics in the United States.
B) By 2050, they will likely comprise about 33 percent of the U.S. population.
C) They tend to ignore the media, especially radio and television.
D) They recently have not exercised their voting rights.

31) To stay informed, the Hispanic population in the U.S. depends most on
A) magazines.
B) newspapers.
C) radio and TV.
D) the Internet and its Web sites.

32) Characteristics attributable to the black population in the U.S. include
A) their disposable income has decreased considerably in recent years.
B) their socioeconomic status has increased primarily because of large increases in women’s incomes.
C) nearly one-third of the growth in their population comes from foreign born people.
D) median family income is 78 percent of white families of the same age.

33) Regarding the black population, the public relations field
A) needs to attract sufficient numbers to it.
B) needs to discontinue its current outreach efforts.
C) needs to remind representatives from this community about the value of public relations.
D) needs to establish a an award that recognizes the efforts of D. Parke Gibson.

34) The main purpose of Bridges TV was
A) to emphasize the importance of Asian careers and material success
B) to employ American journalists
C) to build “bridges of understanding between American Muslims and mainstream America.”
D) to serve Asian immigrants from mainland China.

35) Which of the following would NOT apply to the Muslim population in the U.S.?
A) estimated that 2.6 million live in the U.S.
B) least misunderstood and put-upon public here
C) can access their information from Al Jazeera or PTV
D) Bridges TV serves to help bring understanding between American Muslims and mainstream America.

36) Which of the following is a characteristic of the gay population in the U.S.?
A) are no longer a target of opprobrium and opportunity
B) average household income is three times higher than the national average
C) estimated at 15 million members
D) are rarely included in TV network scripted programs

37) Public relations practitioners continue to build relationships and are targeting communications at
A) members of Automobile Association of America.
B) senior citizens and retired people.
C) members of MENSA.
D) members of the American Retired Persons Organization.

38) Which of the following does NOT characterize nonprofit organizations?
A) champion multiculturalism in their respective communities
B) are the principal source of employment for the majority of people in their community
C) serve cultural, educational, religious, and social needs in their communities
D) serve as the primary source for employment of recent public relations graduates

39) Which of the following is a public relations practice in the nonprofit sector?
A) avoid using media advocacy to raise public awareness
B) has abundant financial resources for key activities
C) has limited funding for key activities
D) they use controversial communication tactics to raise public awareness

40) Positioning, especially for a nonprofit organization, means
A) valuing advertising.
B) knowing what position you own.
C) ignoring the competition and their positions.
D) being all things to all people.

41) In nonprofit public relations campaigns, strategic planning encompasses all EXCEPT which of the following?
A) defining issues
B) framing issues
C) using bluster
D) targeting messages

42) The buying power of the minority population has decreased despite its growth in numbers.

43) The dramatic growth in Spanish-language media in the U.S. during the past 25 years reflects the dramatic growth in the Hispanic population.

44) Because they are arbiters of communications, public relations people need to be sensitive to the new realities of multiculturalism.

45) Enforcing policies in the interests of all employees and enhancing the quality of life for everyone are examples of social responsibility.

46) In 2007, for the first time, charitable giving exceeded $300 billion.

47) Voluntarism is an important element of “giving back.”

48) Fostering positive reactions in its community is a goal of a community affairs program.

49) An organization’s ability to negotiate an agreement between itself and the community and its constituents is a fundamental for achieving peaceful coexistence.

50) Appropriately participating as a “citizen” and being economically stable are among tangible commodities a community expects from resident organizations.

51) Bringing pride to a city or region is an intangible contribution an organization makes.

52) When an organization doesn’t receive a reasonable level of support for its business and its products, that is a clear indication there are community relations problems.

53) Immigration has been, and will continue to be, the main factor in population growth of minorities in the U.S.

54) The “mommy track” and “mommy wars,” and glass ceilings and pink-collar ghettos still affect employment of women as much as they used to, especially in the public relations field.

55) Based on current projections, people of Spanish heritage will comprise at least 33 percent of the U.S. population in 2050.

56) One of the major challenges for the field of public relations has been how to attract more African Americans.

57) Building bridges of understanding between mainstream America and the American Muslim population is among the major community relations challenges.

58) Based on various demographics, the gay community is a very attractive target for all kinds of marketers.

59) Senior citizens – the over-50 crowd – are among the important diverse communities to whom public relations professionals must be sensitive.

60) A major difference between the corporate sector and nonprofits is the willingness to use media advocacy or provocative techniques to be noticed.

61) The need to position one nonprofit from among other nonprofit organizations indicates the days of being “all things to all people” are over.

62) Since 1976, which group of immigrants has grown dramatically, and how has that growth manifested itself in the U.S.?

63) Identify three trends that characterize corporate giving in the second decade of the 21st century.

64) List some of the typical objectives for an effective community relations effort.

65) There are many differences and similarities in the public relations field as they pertain to for-profit and not-for-profit organizations. Pinpoint and discuss one major area that differentiates them.

Chapter 14 International Consumer Relations

1) In 2012, U.S. online shoppers were expected to spend upwards of ____________ on books, apparel, computers, etc.
A) $120 billion
B) $224 billion
C) $320 billion
D) $400 billion

2) At the core of international consumer relations lies an attitude of delivering dependable products in a manner that is _______________________________________.
A) service-oriented and ethical
B) the minimum quality people are willing to pay for
C) obscure so it is difficult for consumers to know how to complain
D) highly processed

3) How many people worldwide now belong to the consumer class?
A) 240 million
B) 120 million
C) nearly 2 billion
D) nearly 3 billion

4) A reason public relations has become an international phenomenon is the
A) ease in smoothing out conflicts over trade across international boundaries.
B) communications power of the Internet.
C) ease in translatability of different languages.
D) rise in civility between people of different cultures and religions.

5) A typical goal of consumer relations is to keep former customers because
A) most product complaints are made by new customers.
B) most service complaints come from new customers.
C) most requests for product upgrades come from prospective customers.
D) most sales are made to established customers.

6) Which of the following is NOT a typical goal of a customer relations professional?
A) Keeping old customers
B) Attracting new customers
C) Marketing new items or services
D) Increasing costs to the organization

7) Another name for consumer-generated media is
A) online consumer word-of-mouth.
B) blogs.
C) Usenet newsgroups.
D) message boards.

8) Which is NOT one of the sources from which consumer generated media originates:
A) message boards and forums.
B) blogs.
C) public discussions.
D) town hall meetings.

9) The term “bedbug letter” refers to
A) a type of response that landlords provide to complaining tenants.
B) a response to consumer complaints, dating back to the heyday of railroads.
C) a pro-forma response to complaints used by the pest control industry.
D) a vehicle ombudsmen use to respond to repeat complaints.

10) The risk of consumer complaints in greater in the present environment because
A) complaints can go viral.
B) 80% of people complain
C) consumers have more confidence in call center employees
D) there are more performance deficiencies

11) Ombudsman is a
A) government official in Sweden and also New Zealand appointed to investigate abuses made by public officials.
B) person in some organizations charged with superficially investigating complaints made against the firm and its managers.
C) category of difficulties customers are having with products or services.
D) service provided by a service center on a first-come, first-served basis.

12) Consumerism in the U.S. first emerged when
A) Congress established the Interstate Commerce Commission (ICC) in 1928.
B) Ralph Nader wrote the 1964 best-seller, Unsafe at Any Speed.
C) Congress enacted the Criminal Fraud Statute in 1872.
D) President Harry S. Truman in 1948 laid down the Bill of Rights as part of a consumer constitution.

13) Consumer rights spelled out by President John F. Kennedy in the early 1960s included
A) the right to protection from goods that are hazardous to health, to life.
B) the right to a sympathetic response from an organization that provides a faulty product.
C) the right to sue a company for its shoddy advertising for its goods and services.
D) the right to a full response from a company regarding its return policy.

14) Government officials who are concerned about consumer rights and protection focus on product
A) variety and pricing.
B) labeling and packaging.
C) litigation time limits.
D) registration of letters of complaint.

15) The Consumer Financial Protection Bureau was created in the wake of the 2011 Wall Street scandals to
A) reduce the federal budget deficit
B) make consumer financial products and services more transparent
C) oversee international interests
D) protect stock holder rights

16) The Internet has
A) become a medium for consumer activism.
B) become a medium where consumers can take legal action against manufacturers who abuse consumer rights.
C) become a medium that screens so-called “wildfire e-mail campaigns.”
D) become a medium where manufacturers who have abused consumer rights can seek recourse.

17) Which of the following is NOT a consumer relations function in companies?
A) to develop guidelines to evaluate services and products for management
B) to develop field-training programs
C) to develop methods to counter consumer activists’ efforts for boycotts
D) to develop consumer programs that meet consumer needs while helping to increase sales

18) Ways to mollify customer criticism can include all the following EXCEPT
A) providing prompt replies.
B) providing consumer training in proper use of products.
C) providing personalized replies.
D) providing free samples.

19) American companies have ________ of the 10 most powerful brands in the world.
A) nine
B) five
C) ten
D) eight

20) To avert troubles and reinforce the idea that they are responsible and concerned local residents, all foreign companies operating internationally should
A) focus on communicating just how responsible they are as concerned local companies.
B) continue to lead by example that they think and act globally.
C) publicize how they are the single-most important standard bearer for their host countries.
D) take proper actions first followed by appropriate communication.

21) According to Interbrand’s annual list of the 100 most valuable global brands, how many of the top 10 were not American?
A) half
B) one
C) two
D) all

22) The most striking example of Internet activism stemmed from
A) consumers who traveled via Alaska Airlines
B) political activists throughout the Middle East who brought down dictators
C) Ralph Nader’s Unsafe at Any Speed
D) Chinese anger about Coca-Cola translating to “bite the wax tadpole”

23) Spread of Web capabilities and globalization have introduced news pressures on consumer relations, making companies even more aware that they must walk a fine line between behaving “responsibly” and marketing their products.

24) After all is said and done, the primary purpose of consumer relations is to build sales.

25) Today, expeditious complaint handling is done more by ombudspersons than people at remote call centers.

26) Consumers apparently place much trust in consumer-generated media, making that a source consumer relations people must understand and try to manage.

27) Research indicates that about 40 percent of dissatisfied customers lodge complaints.

28) Today, it is more likely that the “ombudsperson” is someone at a call center.

29) Consumerism began with passage by Congress in 1972 of the Criminal Fraud Statute.

30) People and nations worldwide becoming more closely connected is a major reason for increased emphasis on international public relations.

31) Repairing rifts between Westerners and people from other cultures is a key challenge for practitioners of public relations.

32) Companies that are responsible and concerned about local residents should lead by doing what’s appropriate and then communicate what they did, and not the other way around.

33) “What’s in a name?” is a mantra public relations people ought to help marketing people answer whenever they begin planning a major product introduction around the globe.

34) Jet Blue Airways’ “Customer Bill of Rights” is typical of the enlightened attitude companies have toward customers today.

35) In the second decade of the 21st century, in spite of heightened competition, scarcer resources and more immediate and public ways to complain, the consumer is no longer “king”.

36) Briefly describe how General Mills utilized burnouts Cheech and Chong to promote their Fiber One brownies.

37) Describe the “consumer class” and note the implications for public relations professionals.

38) Provide an example of how multinational companies have used public relations techniques to help distinguish its products from the competition.

39) How do public relations solutions help organizations cut through the clutter?

40) What are some typical goals of consumer relations professionals?

41) What are some of the sources of consumer-generated media (CGM)?

42) Briefly describe the history of consumerism in the United States.

43) If you had the opportunity to devise a consumer’s bill of rights, what would you include?

44. Why do multinational corporations, in particular, have to be sensitive to how their actions might affect people of different cultures in different geographies?

45. How do smart multinational corporations reinforce the notion that they are responsible and concerned residents of local communities?

46. Describe the history and the role of Consumers Union.

47. How has consumer relations evolved at companies?


48. Why did JetBlue initiate its Customer Bill of Rights?

49. What was Linsanity?

50. What is the difference between global PR and execution of PR in local markets around the world?

Chapter 15 Public Relations Writing

1) The key to the practice of public relations remains
A) knowing protocol in international relations.
B) navigating the politics of bureaucracies.
C) communicating effectively in writing and speaking.
D) setting goals and objectives.

2) Which of the following is NOT an objective of public relations writing?
A) to motivate
B) to inform
C) to persuade
D) to differentiate

3) A hallmark of the practice of public relations is
A) knowing protocol in international relations.
B) navigating the politics of bureaucracies.
C) communicating effectively in writing for the ear and eye.
D) understanding the power of “cat and mouse disclosure.”

4) Like public relations teachers, supervisors and executive recruiters indicate that
A) public relations people excel at writing well.
B) public relations people, largely, are horrible writers.
C) public relations people ignore opportunities to improve their writing skills.
D) public relations people fail to recognize the added value knowing how to write will have for their career.

5) Which of the following is NOT true about public relations and “writing for the eye”?
A) Most public relations people today have been trained in it.
B) It traditionally was among the strongest public relations skills.
C) Most practitioners had come from print journalism.
D) A background in print is a necessary prerequisite for the field.

6) Among the most important bits of advice about writing for the ear is
A) use passive verbs.
B) be brief.
C) avoid using contractions.
D) use complex sentence structure.

7) Which of the following is a main trait needed to be an effective public relations writer?
A) knowledge of basic writing principles
B) good eye-hand coordination for keyboarding
C) skill at surfing the Internet
D) ability to multitask

8) Which of the following is NOT an advantage a reader has over a listener?
A) opportunity to scan material
B) opportunity to study specific words and phrases
C) opportunity to see something only once
D) opportunity to dart ahead

9) Which of the following is a major challenge of writing for a listener?
A) to provide lots of statistics
B) to grab the attention of the listener quickly
C) to provide information that is easily reviewed
D) to present lots of incidentals

10) Which of the following is NOT a fundamental for effective writing?
A) to think before writing
B) to draft and redraft till you have a polished, finished product
C) to write your material for all audiences rather than one specific audience
D) to write tightly

11) The four-part formula for writers includes which of the following:
A) start with an idea before you start writing
B) avoid making drafts
C) add fancy words and abstract ideas
D) target as many people as possible

12) Which of the following was NOT part of Sir Winston Churchill’s writing formula?
A) He got straight to the point
B) He used complex words
C) He painted pictures
D) He told the truth

13) According to Rudolf Flesch, keys to making writing more readable include all EXCEPT
A) use language readers understand.
B) use brief, clear sentences.
C) use words that demonstrate your knowledge of languages other than English.
D) cover only one item per paragraph.

14) Which of the following does NOT pertain to the inverted pyramid?
A) an exercise in creative writing
B) where to put the Flesch formula into action
C) the climax of a story is at the beginning
D) provides details to key questions in descending order

15) A lead is
A) what graphic artists call space between type-set words.
B) another name for the inverted pyramid.
C) the first one or two sentences, or first paragraph in a news story.
D) the dramatic close in a news release

16) In public relations writing, ________ is often maligned but valuable and earns the “granddaddy” award.
A) a backgrounder
B) a photo opportunity
C) a news release
D) a media alert

17) The overriding purpose of a news release is
A) to stimulate editors to consider covering the story.
B) to inform a targeted public rather than the media about what your organization is doing.
C) to have a document of record about what an organization is doing.
D) to justify the public relations function in an organization.

18) A major element that helps media editors decide whether to even read a news release is
A) how closely public relations writers follow accepted news release format.
B) how much attention is given to localizing the material.
C) a clear indication of the release date.
D) who to contact if there are questions.

19) A research scientist working for your company finds a cure for cancer, and you’re asked to write the release. The newsworthy element inherent in the story is
A) oddity.
B) impact.
C) prominence.
D) conflict.

20) A new chief executive for your organization has been named, so the news release depends on the ________ factor for its news value.
A) impact
B) oddity
C) known principal
D) conflict

21) A story that touches on an emotional experience is using the ________ angle.
A) oddity
B) crisis
C) impact
D) human interest

22) Of the following items, which one should a professional news release NOT include?
A) clear focus on one central subject
B) proven news value items
C) hyperbole
D) a “boilerplate”

23) A news release that has news value must
A) be newsworthy in the context of the organization.
B) must be subjective.
C) must be void of attribution
D) must include hyperbole

24) Public relations and journalism students are taught that the lead should include
A) all elements indicated in the subhead.
B) the 5 Ws and occasionally the H.
C) a well-written quote above all else.
D) extensive details.

25) Which of the following is a time-honored essential that will help news releases get considered for inclusion in print?
A) Relevance to the readers of the target media
B) Include as many different subjects as possible
C) Use buzzwords and hyperbole
D) Use inflated superlatives in quotes

26) Which of the following characterizes “style” in writing?
A) must be flexible
B) is more critical than content
C) uses language that hasn’t changed over time
D) can be overlooked in the interest putting out the story

27) The news style that most public relations writers follow has been established by the
A) American Psychology Association.
B) New York Times.
C) Associated Press.
D) B & C

28) The style for capitalization writers in public relations follow for publication is
A) up style.
B) down style.
C) mid-English style
D) abbreviated style

29) The rule to follow regarding numbers indicates that numbers till ________ should be spelled out.
A) 11
B) nine
C) 10
D) eight

30) An absolute way to avoid misspellings,
A) always find an alternative word.
B) verify words in a dictionary.
C) use a spell checker on your software.
D) always use the second spelling offered in a dictionary.

31) Social media news releases do all the following EXCEPT
A) satisfy traditionalist professors of public relations.
B) bypass traditional journalists.
C) directly reach key constituents.
D) reach bloggers and podcasters.

32) Which of the following pertain to Internet news releases?
A) should not be sent via e-mail
B) succinctness and brevity are essential
C) should be sent via “snail mail”
D) can ignore newsworthiness criteria

33) Which of the following do NOT conform to the rule for writing Internet news releases?
A) list only one reporter on the “to” line
B) link attachments to only the URL
C) remember readability rules
D) list several reporters on the “to” line

34) Which of the following rules about editing do not apply to Internet newswriting?
A) follow the A’s and B’s of writing
B) carefully self-edit
C) remember to throw in passive verbs whenever possible
D) avoid redundancies

35) The ability to write clearly, easily, coherently, and quickly distinguishes practitioners of public relations from other functionaries in an organization.

36) Not knowing how to communicate well, especially how to write – how to express ideas on paper – can reduce advancement opportunities for people in public relations.

37) A frequent complaint from prospective employers about candidates for their public relations department is that they are “horrible writers.”

38) Knowing differences in writing for the eye and for the eye and ear are critical if you expect to be an effective public relations writer.

39) An advantage readers have over listeners pertains to the fact that they have time to ponder the words they encounter.

40) An advantage listeners have over readers pertains to the ease with which they can concentrate on what they heard.

41) Whether you’re a novelist or public relations writer, essentials or basics for effective writing include having an idea you want to express and stating it simply and clearly for a particular audience.

42) One of the critical basics to remember about writing effectively is to know your audience.

43) Rudolf Flesch suggested that readability comes down to writing that is easily understood by a targeted audience.

44) Flesch believed that leaving out the word “that” can make writing even more readable.

45) Use of the inverted pyramid makes journalists and public relations writers similar to novelists because it forces them to reveal the so-called climax early in their materials.

46) The lead is the most critical component in the structure of a news release.

47) Newsworthy, localized news releases stand a better chance of being considered by editors.

48) A news release that makes an announcement that affects society depends on impact for its newsworthiness.

49) A solid news release should eschew jargon and hyperbole.

50) “Boiler plate” in a news release provides the date and place from which a news release is written.

51) Proper use of style indicates the leveCl of competency and professionalism of writers and organizations submitting material to a media editor.

52) “Nourishing quotes” are quotes that count or that advance a story.

53) Issuing a release that had no news to announce would have led to a loss of credibility, but the Internet has changed that.

54) Trying to stimulate a “conversation” is a legitimate reason to send a social media release to a Web site.

55) Hammering home the headline and following the W format are among requisites for an Internet news release.

56) Careful self-editing is critical to presenting a professionally developed piece of writing.

57) When you’re asked to write for a reader versus for a listener, what should you remember?

58) If you were a disciple of Rudolf Flesch advising a recent college graduate about how to succeed in public relations writing by really trying, what advice would you offer?

59) If you expect to have success issuing news releases that are likely to be considered for placement, what should you remember?

60) What would you tell a student aspiring to enter the world of public relations to know about social media and writing for it?

Chapter 17 Integrated Marketing Communications

1) Which of the following techniques have been used to promote companies?
A) advertising in space
B) product placement in television shows
C) product placement in books
D) all of the above

2) Which of the following is NOT a technique used in integrated marketing communications?
A) product placement in movies and TV shows
B) celebrity spokespersons
C) third-party sponsorship
D) sponsorship of sporting events

3) When public relations and publicity, advertising, sales promotion and marketing intersect, that’s referred to as
A) database marketing.
B) integrated marketing.
C) cross promotion.
D) sales promotion.

4) Motivating prospective customers to action describes what ________ is effective at doing.
A) sales promotion
B) traditional marketing
C) traditional advertising
D) public relations

5) If public relations practitioners see themselves as key players in IMC, they must
A) touch consumers one on one.
B) establish credibility.
C) motivate prospective customers.
D) build brand awareness.

6) A major difference between public relations and marketing is that
A) the focus in marketing is on selling the organization’s image; in public relations the focus is on selling an organization’s service above all else.
B) there virtually is no difference between the two.
C) the focus in public relations is on marketing an organization; in marketing it’s on selling a service or product.
D) the focus on value rather than price is the province of marketing; in public relations it’s on price rather than value.

7) A major difference between public relations and advertising is
A) advertising is about selling an organization; in public relations it’s about selling products and services.
B) public relations strives for unbiased, objective, third-party messengers to relay information about an organization as well as its products and services; in advertising the choice of media helps accomplish that.
C) there virtually is no difference between the two.
D) advertising focuses on paying for time or space that allows them to put across their organization’s messages about its products and services; in public relations credibility helps to earn media recognition.

8) Which of the following is NOT and should NOT be part of what public relations practitioners do in an IMC project or campaign?
A) write product publicity
B) create paid spots for radio and TV featuring products and services
C) use appropriate celebrity spokespersons to gain media attention
D) use special events to create buzz

9) Which of the following attitudes of marketing people have changed?
A) treating public relations as merely an ancillary part of the marketing mix
B) making sure products and services meet the desires and needs of customers
C) pricing products and services competitively
D) assuring products are distributed widely

10) Which of the following does NOT pertain to Philip Kotler?
A) premier thinker in the marketing world
B) advocate of the 4 Ps
C) dismisses the value of public relations in the marketing mix
D) believes public relations is a fifth P in the marketing mix

11) Which of the following statements about product publicity is FALSE?
A) It’s what public relations is all about.
B) It’s the essence of the value of integrating public relations and marketing.
C) It’s an important adjunct to advertising.
D) It’s the basis for much of what consumers know or believe about products.

12) In which of the following areas is product publicity NOT very effective?
A) tying a product to a unique representative
B) explaining a complicated product
C) competing against better funded products
D) meeting sales quotas

13) If the effectiveness of publicity is exemplified by how long a company can tie its product to an iconic figure, then ________ appears to hold a record.
A) Burger King’s “King”
B) The Muppet’s Miss Piggy
C) Ronald McDonald
D) Morris the Cat

14) A sign of just how significant tying mascots to products can be is
A) the well-known, annual kennel show in New York City.
B) Snapple and Balloons Over Broadway.
C) General Mills creating Green Giant Food Company and a related Web site.
D) Morris the Cat as a spokesperson for PETA.

15) Third-party endorsement is essentially
A) what media give to a company, its products, and services by mentioning them as news.
B) what advertisers earn the minute they pay and place their ads and spots.
C) what the King brings to the product he advertises.
D) what the late Michael Jackson brought to Pepsi and other products he endorsed.

16) Advertising is NOT held in as high esteem as marketing people would hope because
A) it rarely is as creative today as it was 25 years ago.
B) there’s a stigma about the message being created and paid for by the sender.
C) it is not written or talked about as much in media as publicity items.
D) it is perceived as news.

17) A practice among some news editors because of the proliferating raft of product placements in the media is to
A) mention brands or companies in news columns.
B) delete mention of brands or companies in news columns.
C) flip a coin whether or not to mention a brand or company in a news column.
D) ignore their publisher and treat well those who treat news reporters professionally.

18) A public relations practice that media scorn is
A) finding legitimate news angles that earn product or company mentions in media.
B) creating a differentiable identity for a client.
C) placing well-known people on TV but failing to disclose they are representing a particular company.
D) pitching features that have a promotional angle.

19) Branding is about
A) creation of a position or differentiable identity for a company or product.
B) what public relations is all about.
C) what advertising is all about.
D) what marketing is all about.

20) To establish a unique brand, IMC must do all the following EXCEPT
A) be aggressive.
B) create an urban legend on the Internet.
C) be early.
D) create a distinct personality.

21) The “law of primacy” is essential in
A) establishing the impression that you were first in a product category.
B) establishing credibility.
C) gaining credibility with media.
D) earning prime placement in media.

22) Showing Beanie Babies and Cabbage Patch Dolls with a client’s new product for a photograph is an example of which principle of building a brand?
A) being early.
B) being memorable.
C) using heritage.
D) being aggressive.

23) Types of subjects associated with public relations include all EXCEPT which of the following?
A) those that focus solely on selling the product or service
B) those that trumpet why people should think about an issue
C) those that reinforce a company’s reputation by showing the company’s core values without focusing on selling a product or service
D) those that support causes in the public’s interest

24) Which of the following companies initiated nonproduct advertising that is associated with the term public relations advertising?
A) Mobil Corporation
B) Warner & Swasey
C) Friendly’s Ice Cream Corporation
D) Pepsi-Cola

25) Issue advertising was spearheaded by which of the following?
A) Warner & Swasey
B) Mobil Corporation
C) Friendly’s Ice Cream Corporation
D) Pepsi-Cola

26) Typical topics of traditional public relations advertising focus on all the following EXCEPT
A) organizational resources.
B) growth of the firm.
C) product advertising.
D) organization name changes.

27) If you’ve received publicity in a magazine or newspaper, what can you produce to extend the impact from that coverage?
A) a brochure
B) an article reprint
C) a PSA
D) a backgrounder

28) If you expected to receive maximum value from an article reprint you would do all of the following EXCEPT
A) integrate it with other information on similar or related subjects.
B) select target publics and send it to specific people.
C) seek permission months after the article appeared to have a press run of the article for use by the sales staff as a “door opener” with targeted sales prospects.
D) plan ahead by ordering it before the publication goes to press.

29) One of the principal forums for generating solid publicity can be a trade show because
A) it provides an opportunity to showcase what’s new to a captive, interested audience, including trade book reporters.
B) it generates information about your company that is sure to gain attention from media based where the show is held.
C) it’s always worth more than the cost in time, money, and human resources.
D) it generates sales leads for the public relations department.

30) Which of the following is NOT among criteria that celebrity spokespersons should meet?
A) being articulate
B) being a college graduate
C) being of high moral character
D) being thoroughly knowledgeable about the subject or product

31) A reason cause-related marketing is likely to continue to grow in this century is
A) the high cost of advertising.
B) so many middle-aged baby boomers are more concerned about issues.
C) the natural and apparent connections between causes and companies.
D) the high cost of sales promotions.

32) Which of the following is NOT an example of an in-kind promotion?
A) providing samples and gifts of products and services with sales literature
B) providing posters of products or services for well-trafficked venues
C) one that anonymously supports causes in the public’s interest
D) providing services or products as prizes for a charity for mention in promotional materials

33) Which of the following is NOT an example of 21st century promotional innovation associated with integrated marketing?
A) infomercials
B) brand integration in the action on a television program
C) buzz marketing
D) news releases

34) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of buzz marketing?
A) began with teens
B) can be anywhere from 10 seconds to 60 minutes
C) enlists “trend setters”
D) another name for word-of-mouth

35) Which of the following is NOT a “venue” for integrated marketing?
A) sports teams
B) airsickness bags
C) a house of worship
D) songs

36) Integrated marketing communications (IMC) is no longer where advertising, sales promotion, and marketing intersect with publicity to promote organizations, their services and products.

37) Neither advertising nor marketing is dead, but integrating them with public relations and publicity is very much the rule in many organizations.

38) Public relations focuses on selling an organization while advertising focuses on marketing an organization.

39) Clutter or noise interferes with whether organizations actually make customers aware of their products through marketing and advertising.

40) Marketing guru Philip Kotler advocated for expanding the traditional 4 Ps of marketing, indicating public relations is the fifth P.

41) For many people, the essence of the value of integrating marketing with public relations comes from product publicity.

42) The public is well aware that much of what it has come to know and believe about a wide variety of products and services comes via publicity covered in the media.

43) Publicity can be used to explain a complicated product.

44) Publicity is not valuable in tying a unique representative to a product.

45) Media avoid mention of a company or its brand in a news story to create the impression that they generated the facts, ideas, and photo situations, but so very often, practitioners plant the seeds for many stories.

46) Branding is differentiating the identity of the position of a company and/or its products and services.

47) Using heritage is not a key to branding because it is so difficult to capitalize on traditions and history associated with a product or organization.

48) Image advertising, institutional advertising, and issues advertising are all variations of public relations advertising.

49) Public relations advertising can be used by an organization to effectively convey messages about mergers and diversification.

50) Article reprints can be strategically used in efforts to add maximum sales punch for the marketing organization.

51) One essential aspect regarding participation in a trade show comes when the show is concluded, evaluating the merits of that participation.

52) In addition to spokespersons being articulate, fast on their feet, and thoroughly knowledgeable about an organization, they must be upfront about their being paid advocates for an organization.

53) Cause-related marketing ties together fund-raising efforts of nonprofit groups with objectives of corporate sponsors.

54) An in-kind promotion occurs when a company provides a service, product, or other consideration in exchange for publicity.

55) Despite infomercials being considered the Rodney Dangerfield of marketing, they are effective.

56) Another term for word-of-mouth marketing is buzz marketing.

57) Some 21st century venues for integrated marketing include blogs and even parts of people’s anatomy.

58) Provide some evidence that today sure ain’t “your mother’s marketing” environment.

59) Who is Philip Kotler, and how significant is he to the practice of public relations?

60) Indicate ways publicity can be quite effective in the marketing mix.

61) Discuss how trade shows provide opportunities for public relations people to shine and demonstrate just how integral the public relations function is to marketing.

62) What does cause-related marketing offer public relations people that other items in the promotion part of the marketing mix don’t usually offer?

Chapter 17 Crisis Management

1) The speed of the Internet, pervasiveness of social media and viral communications mean people and companies are
A) more visible.
B) a blink away from real or faux crisis.
C) less vulnerable.
D) more glamorous.

2) What Warner Brothers movie’s public relations team hand to manage a crisis after a gunman opened fire at its premiere in Aurora, CO?
A) The Dark Knight Rises
B) Gangster Squad
C) Argo
D) The Great Gatsby

3) To ________, crisis is “unplanned visibility.”
A) Lance Armstrong
B) Edward Bernays
C) W. Howard Chase
D) James Lukaszewaski

4) In the 21st century, among the highest-paid, most well-regarded public relations practitioners are those who attempt to manage
A) investor relations.
B) community relations.
C) crises.
D) media relations.

5) Exponential expansion of the number and depth of crises affecting various institutions and prominent people in American society has occurred because of all the following EXCEPT
A) talk radio.
B) balanced and objective journalism.
C) 24/7 cable news and commentary.
D) instantaneous Internet communication.

6) Which element of society was NOT listed as having endured a poorly-handled crisis in the 21st Century?
A) government
B) journalism
C) Hollywood
D) religion

7) Who is credited with coining the term issues management?
A) W. Howard Chase
B) James Lukaszewski
C) Richard Scrushy
D) Hillard Fleishman

8) Which of the following is NOT an element of issues management?
A) anticipate emerging issues
B) deal with opportunities and vulnerabilities
C) implementation of a costs-benefits analysis
D) plan from the outside in

9) In a summary of the goals of issues management which of the following would NOT be included?
A) to help reduce risk
B) to help reduce organizational assets
C) to help manage image
D) to help preserve markets

10) Issues management does NOT encompass which of the following?
A) anticipating emerging issues
B) identifying issue selectively
C) bottom-line orientation
D) assault of the dominant coalition

11) Which of the following is NOT key to effective issues management?
A) evaluating costs solely in dollars without recognizing impact on reputation
B) anticipating issues before they arise
C) operating with consent of top management
D) dealing with vulnerabilities and opportunities

12) Research findings that are important to consider in developing a risk communication strategy include all the following EXCEPT
A) when stressed, a person’s ability to hear, understand, and remember decreases.
B) when stressed, people miss up to 80 percent of message content.
C) of the 20 percent that people hear, most content is negative.
D) when stressed, a person’s ability to hear, understand, and remember increases.

13) To better manage what must be conveyed as part of risk communication, the person charged with responding ought to follow a seven-step process called
A) message ideation.
B) message assessment.
C) message mapping.
D) message management.

14) Which of the following is NOT a standard requirement for message maps?
A) three key messages
B) seven to 12 words in a message
C) twelve to 17 words in a message
D) three supporting facts for each key message

15) Message maps generally adhere to all of the following standard requirements EXCEPT:
A) three key messages
B) seven to 12 words per message
C) three supporting facts for each key message
D) three media outlets per message

16) Which of the following is NOT a warning sign of a crisis?
A) surprise
B) insufficient information
C) escalating events
D) decreased outside scrutiny

17) Which of the following is one of the five planning issues associated with heightened crisis preparedness?
A) Define the risk for each potentially impacted audience
B) Describe the actions that might mitigate the risk for each risk defined
C) Identify the cause of the risk
D) All of the above

18) Which of the following does most public relations professionals consider the cardinal rule for communications during a crisis?
A) apologize
B) say no comment
C) tell it all and tell it fast
D) use an inexperience spokesperson

19) Based on the definition of a crisis provided in the Harvard Business Review, when one occurs, you should
A) provide dramatic, even extraordinary, intervention.
B) identify the stakeholders.
C) analyze concerns.
D) ask outside experts to assist you.

20) If a crisis occurs, typically you will have to handle
A) a siege mentality, especially amplified by your legal advisors.
B) a sense of calm heretofore unknown.
C) masses of information.
D) increased internal scrutiny.

21) In a crisis, which of the following is NOT likely to be a behavior of most reporters?
A) to point a finger
B) to be empathetic
C) to ascribe blame
D) to fulfill their role as a guardian of the public trust

22) The first planning issue in preparing how to handle a crisis is to
A) describe the actions that mitigate the risk.
B) identify the cause of the risk.
C) define the risk for each likely affected audience.
D) demonstrate responsible management action.

23) The most essential step in planning how to handle a crisis is to
A) identify the cause of the risk.
B) describe actions that mitigate the risk.
C) create a consistent message.
D) demonstrate responsible management action.

24) In contrast to advice lawyers typically offer about a crisis, public relations people would advise that you
A) tell as little as possible as often as possible.
B) simply say nothing, especially why you are saying nothing.
C) provide prompt, frank, and full information.
D) speculate so the media have something substantive for their deadline.

25) Research by the public relations agency Porter Novelli about communicating in a crisis indicates that
A) like fish that’s a day old, a delayed response is likely to disturb media.
B) upwards of 65 percent of people hear “no comment” in a crisis and figure the person or organization is guilty.
C) most public relations people advise management to wait until things simmer down before responding.
D) adding a little emotion to your response is okay.

26) In the heat of a crisis, public relations professionals must remember the cold truth about their goals, which include all of the following EXCEPT
A) terminate the crisis quickly.
B) limit damage.
C) build a case for who or what was to blame.
D) restore credibility.

27) A crisis means that in dealing with media, you must establish “battlefield rules” that include all EXCEPT which of the following?
A) Establish gatekeeper headquarters.
B) Speculate even if it hurts.
C) Feed the media beast with verifiable numbers and information.
D) Try to find something that allows them to advance the story.

28) Paramount in all advice offered about handling media in a crisis, above all else
A) never, never lie.
B) softly make your point once and move on.
C) engage the media in a battle, even war, so they know who’s in charge.
D) go off the record.

29) In no small measure the Internet and social media force people and organizations to have savvy crisis management counsel.

30) Changes in technology and attitudes among traditional and nontraditional journalists and commentators have exponentially expanded the communications challenges facing people and institutions.

31) Given the numbers and depth of scandals in government, politics, business, education, religion, and even in charitable institutions, the issues management domain is more important.

32) Analyzing and delimiting the impact identified issues may have on a person or organization is one of the five steps in the issues management process.

33) The term issues management is another term for image management.

34) Anticipating emerging issues is really part of pre-crisis planning more than of crisis planning itself.

35) To do risk management well, you must have empathy for peoples’ intense emotions that typically arise because they don’t fully know or understand the science that underlies the potential impact of your organization’s actions.

36) The term crisis is associated with a major accident or disaster.

37) Responsible management of a crisis can pay either dividends or be quite costly for years to come as the commissioner of Major League Baseball, and CEOs of Johnson & Johnson and Exxon would attest.

38) Despite all the preparation, there still is an element of surprise and even a loss of control that practitioners will likely encounter as they try to manage a crisis.

39) Heightened preparedness for a crisis includes defining of and describing actions to mitigate risks.

40) Because lawyers operate primarily in a court of public opinion, they have learned that in a crisis it is best to quietly say as little as possible as soon as possible.

41) Generally, in a crisis, when public relations people respond intelligently and quickly with honest information, rumors usually stop.

42) In a crisis, public relations practitioners may like to think of media as friendly adversaries, but they must anticipate a “feeding frenzy” and adopt “battlefield rules.”

43) Even though media may have a “box score” mentality in covering a crisis, a public relations practitioner should avoid speculation.

44) In simple terms, successful communications tactics in a crisis revolve around keeping to the facts, being open and concerned but not defensive, and maintaining credibility.

45) During a crisis, it is important to create a vacuum of information. If you feed the media beast, it will last longer.

46) Being defensive is a good way to set boundaries for the media.

47) The rule of thumb during a crisis is to communicate well with mainstream media and monitor social media 24/7.

48) Some companies use a dark website which becomes live and contained relevant information for the outside world when a crisis strikes.

49) Name some of the communications phenomena that currently affect the need to manage crisis.

50) What, according to W. Howard Chase who coined the term, is issues management?

51) By following the definition for a crisis provided in the Harvard Business Review, what should you expect or do?

52) When lawyers provide you advice for how to communicate a crisis, what will they likely advise?

53) To be prepared for a crisis, what five planning issues would you consider?

54) What are the goals of crisis management?

55) What is the point of a dark website? How is it used?

Chapter 18 Launching a Career

1) To land a job in public relations today, savvy applicants will likely find which of the following effective?
A) networking in the traditional way
B) emailing a resume
C) networking using social media
D) mailing a cover letter and resume

2) When economic times have been rough, the “first jobs to go” were traditionally in
A) finance.
B) accounting.
C) public relations.
D) media.

3) After the recent debacles, especially in banking and investment, and with the penetration of social media, what does the public expect from all corporations?
A) more happy talk
B) more silence
C) more arrogance
D) more candid communications

4) During these difficult economic times, corporations and their leaders ought to follow which of following pieces of advice?
A) the public will be damned.
B) the public must be informed.
C) the public will be silenced.
D) the public must be fooled.

5) In a recent study conducted by the University of South Carolina about the recession and its impact on public relations and communication functions, all the following were true EXCEPT
A) compensation was frozen.
B) compensation was reduced.
C) headcount was not reduced.
D) recruiting for those positions was postponed.

6) Which of the following can help college students get a jump on the competition?
A) Improve your communication skills
B) Start networking
C) Focus
D) all of the above

7) Which is NOT a way to get a jump on the competition?
A) Start networking
B) Look at companies you like
C) See what’s available after graduation
D) Intern

8) The key to organizing a job search, in bad or good times, is
A) honesty.
B) candor.
C) organization.
D) transparency.

9) The main problem for job seekers is to
A) have a successful interview.
B) find a way through the door.
C) remember to market themselves.
D) show their portfolio.

10) What qualifies Martin Arnold to offer job search advice to public relations students?
A) a director of human resources
B) a CEO
C) a director of IMC
D) an experienced public relations executive and teacher

11) Which of the following is the first step in an effective job search, according to Martin Arnold?
A) Find the name of the person to whom you should talk.
B) Remember to take charge of the interview.
C) Determine what your interests are.
D) Dispatch a personal letter.

12) Which of the following bits of advice from Martin Arnold pertain to the first step in his suggested job search process?
A) Avoid wearing bling to the first interview.
B) Determine where you would like to work.
C) Prepare and practice a two-minute “elevator speech.”
D) Send a “bread-and-butter” letter after the interview.

13) Simple advice for the second step in the job search process suggested by Arnold boils down to
A) get a name.
B) mail a cover letter and resume.
C) call, call, call.
D) use e-mail to the Human Resources Department.

14) Which of the following techniques would NOT, according to Arnold, help you avoid the “dead letter response” in a job search?
A) network to find the name of the person to address your job pitch to
B) use a “professionals on staff” directory
C) failing to use a specific name to address correspondence to
D) call the reception desk and ask how to spell the name of the director in the department you want to work in

15) You found the name of the person to address in correspondence, following the Arnold process, next you would do all the following EXCEPT
A) introduce yourself, your reason for choosing the company, and why you would appreciate the opportunity to speak with her/him.
B) ask the correspondent to call you.
C) request a time to discuss the person’s experiences and outlook about the field of public relations.
D) indicate you will follow up to set a mutually convenient time for a discussion.

16) Sadly, which of the key steps in Arnold’s suggested job search process is too often not actually done?
A) the 30-second elevator “speech”
B) making that follow-up “call” to set up an interview
C) taking control of the interview
D) the search for a specific name of the person to contact

17) Which of the following is a resume “DON’T” according to resume consultant Paulette Barrett?
A) Identify three impressions you want to create immediately
B) Identify achievements that will make someone say “tell me more”
C) Include an objective statement
D) List your professional awards, educational achievements and community service

18) Your author indicates that only 10 percent of the time do job seekers
A) even have the good fortune to secure a job interview.
B) have the opportunity to set the agenda.
C) receive a job offer after an interview.
D) realize they are responsible for controlling the interview agenda.

19) In the game plan for an effective interview experience, which should you NOT do?
A) Ask questions and provide answers that demonstrate you prepared.
B) Avoid asking for names of other contacts who might be helpful.
C) Follow up as you indicated at the end of the interview.
D) Wait for the interviewer to lead.

20) All the following are true regarding the hiring process EXCEPT
A) people want to work with people they like.
B) it is important to know about the company.
C) expect speedy responses to inquiries.
D) it is important to keep in touch

21) Which of the following is NOT a key to a successful public relations career?
A) gain diversity of experience.
B) the right first job.
C) relationship building.
D) intangibles.

22) Which of the following was NOT indicated as a key factor in a successful public relations career described in a survey of 97 highest-level public relations leaders?
A) communications skills
B) compassion
C) diversity of experience
D) performance

23) In a survey of 97 highest-level public relations leaders, they said public relations people must be: “self-starters, go getters, risk-takers, opportunity seekers with boundless energy, great curiosity.” They were actually describing which of the seven key factors?
A) timeliness
B) diversity of experience
C) proactivity and passion
D) intangibles

24) In a survey of 97 highest level public relations leaders, nearly half of those interviewed indicated
A) positive personal character traits were the most desired characteristic among job candidates.
B) diversity of experience was the second most sought-after qualification.
C) the most significant limitation candidates have is their inability to describe the value of public relations for an organization.
D) the major challenge for all people in the field boils down to just doing their job well in these difficult times.

25) According to Bill Heyman, founder, president and CEO of Heyman Associates, what is the best preparation for public relations employment?
A) Become a strong writer
B) Be prepared to accept a low starting salary
C) Focus on perks
D) Learn about health care

26) If you are trying to launch a career in public relations, traditional networking and other skills have given way to social media networking.

27) Instead of cutting staffs, most companies chose to freeze or reduce public relations compensation rather than cutting headcount.

28) Public relations agencies are good at understanding the changing dynamics of the market place and earned media like social media.

29) During the current economic downturn, public relations people still are among “the first to go”.

30) One of the questions employers may ask themselves about a candidate is “Can he or she help my company adapt by not only doing the job today but also reinventing the job for tomorrow?”

31) A study conducted by the University of Southern California indicates that as the current recession has worn on, most U.S. companies have chosen to cut the number of public relations professionals.

32) It is no longer important to network when you are trying to get a jump on the competition for a job.

33) Internships are an important way to get your foot in the door.

34) “Organization” is the principal requirement in organizing a job search.

35) Getting through the door is the main problem in finding a job with a targeted prospective employer.

36) The field of public relations has become less competitive because it no longer is enticing lawyers and journalists.

37) Former public relations executive and teacher Martin Arnold tells students who aspire to work in public relations to investigate organizations that have job possibilities in their keenest areas of interest.

38) Martin Arnold indicates that despite job applicants writing in letters of , they rarely call, even though they plan to do so.

39) In a 30-second elevator speech, job candidates must introduce themselves, and explain what they are doing and what they are trying to achieve.

40) It is important to have an anecdote about each post on your resume.

41) Employers like to see an objective statement because they care what you want more than they care what you are going to do for them.

42) Notable achievements should be at the end of your resume.

43) If applicants land an interview, they should not try to control the agenda.

44) A second suggested step in the script or plan for an effective interview is to lead with your knowledge, your strengths, which comes down to demonstrating you’ve done your homework.

45) Periodically check back with the appropriate person after the interview to see where you stand in the job hiring process.

46) After you land a job, it is not too early to map your career advancement path.

47) Recruiter William C. Herman and Professor Bruce Berger conducted a study to define what it takes to make it to the top of the public relations ladder.

48) In the Heyman-Berger study, the subjects indicated that building a track record of results was a key to being successful.

49) Describe some major differences, today, that apply to launching a career in public relations. In fact, describe how social media might be used.

50) Is there any “good news” for people either in or aspiring to be in public relations even during these “bad news” economic times?

51) List some essential aspects for organizing an effective job search.

52) What are some valuable tips to remember regarding job interviews?

53) Describe the Heyman-Berger Study.

54) List the seven keys pinpointed in the Heyman-Berger study and provide some commentary about each.