BUS 335 Week 3 Quiz – Strayer

BUS/335 Week 3 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material



Chapter 2
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The employer-employee relationship is the most prevalent type of employment relationship. 
True False

2. Employment contracts may be written but not in oral form. 
True False

3. The specificity of the language used in an employment contract must be very extensive. 
True False

4. The formal agreement which specifies the employment terms and conditions for the employee and employer is called an employment contract. 
True False

5. An employer does not incur any legal responsibilities or liabilities regarding its employees. 
True False

6. The common law principle of employment-at-will says that, in the absence of any contract language to the contrary, either the employer or employee may terminate the employment relationship at any time, but only for certain reasons. 
True False

7. There are some restrictions on employment-at-will, such as statutory requirements for nondiscriminatory termination. 
True False

8. An independent contractor is legally considered an employee of the employer who hired him/her. 
True False

9. If an employer hires an independent contractor, it may reduce the employer’s exposure to laws and regulations governing the employment relationship. 
True False

10. A person is more likely to be considered an independent contractor if they work without supervision or oversight from the employer. 
True False

11. Temporary employees are considered to be employees of the temporary help agency that obtained them through its own staffing process. 
True False

12. Court cases suggest that permatemps (employees from a staffing agency who have been with the employer for extended period of time) are still exclusively considered employees of the staffing agency. 
True False

13. Regarding employment contracts, ________. 
A. both written and oral contracts are enforceable
B. employment-at-will is defined under set-term contracts
C. most employees have a contractual right to be discharged only for cause
D. all of the above are correct

14. The most prevalent form of the employment relationship is _________. 
A. independent contractor
B. employer-employee
C. temporary employee
D. employer-employer

15. The common law principle which states that, in the absence of any contract language to the contrary, either the employer or employee may terminate the employment relationship at any time is called _________. 
A. employment-at-will
B. affirmative action
C. equal employment opportunity
D. a consent decree

16. An example of an exception to the principle of employment-at-will would be _________. 
A. employers cannot discharge employees on the basis of poor performance
B. employers cannot discharge employees on the basis of race
C. employers cannot discharge employees for stealing from the company
D. none of the above

17. Which of the following statements is true regarding independent contractors? 
A. An independent contractor is a legal employee of the company which hired him/her.
B. Using an independent contractor increases the employer’s exposure to laws and regulations governing the employment relationship.
C. Using an independent contractor frees an employer from the tax withholding and tax payment obligations it has for its employees.
D. Using an independent contractor substantially increases the right of the employer to control the contractor.

18. Which of the following factors increase the likelihood that a worker will be considered an independent contractor? 
A. The independent contractor works without supervision or oversight from the employer.
B. The independent contractor sets his or her own work hours.
C. The independent contractor is paid by the project rather than by the time spent.
D. All of the above.

19. Which of the following is true regarding temporary employees? 
A. Temporary employees are considered to be employees of the organization which is using their services, not the temporary help agency.
B. During job assignments, temporary workers are on the payroll of the organization using their services.
C. Use of temporary workers can often raise issues of “co-employment.”
D. All of the above are correct.

20. What can employers do to ensure that permatemps, that is, individuals from staffing firms who have long-term relationships with an employer, are not considered employees of their firm? 
A. Never exercise direct control over these people and treat them separate from regular employees.
B. Ensure they provide sufficient training and supervision.
C. Provide permatemps with special hats indicating their status as temporary.
D. None of the above are correct.

21. Employment laws and regulations exist, in part, to reduce or limit the employer’s power in the employment relationship. 
True False

22. Laws and regulations provide protections to employees that they could not possibly acquire individually in an employment contract. 
True False

23. The Civil Rights Act specifically mentions employment practices that are permitted for employers. 
True False

24. The majority of common law decisions are made at the federal level. 
True False

25. Constitutional law supersedes any other source of law or regulation. 
True False

26. Examples of common law include the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments to the Constitution. 
True False

27. The Civil Rights Act is a statutory source of law/regulations. 
True False

28. Agencies that enforce staffing laws typically do not rely on written documents to perform their functions. 
True False

29. Which of the following statements is true regarding the laws and regulations which govern the employment relationship? 
A. Their purpose is to create a reasonable balance of power between the employer and employee.
B. Their purpose is to create a reasonable power advantage for employees.
C. Their purpose is to create a reasonable power advantage for employers.
D. Their purpose is to provide protections for employees only.

30. The primary source of common law is ________. 
A. the Constitution
B. federal statutes
C. past court decisions
D. federal agency guidelines

31. Due process rights have their primary source in _________. 
A. EEOC guidelines
B. federal statutes
C. state statutes
D. the U.S. Constitution Amendments

32. A _________ is a civil wrong that occurs when the employer violates a duty owed to its employees or customers that results in harm or damages. 
A. tort
B. crime
C. constitutional law violation
D. failure of due process

33. Statutory law is derived from ________. 
A. court cases
B. the US constitution and its amendments
C. written documents passed by legislative bodies
D. agencies at the federal, state and local levels

34. Agencies that regulate fair employment practice exist at which level? 
A. federal
B. state
C. local
D. all of the above

35. The role of federal agencies is to __________. 
A. develop, create, and implement the law
B. interpret, administer, and enforce the law
C. facilitate greater communication between courts
D. render decisions in court cases regarding employment law

36. Whether an organization is covered by the Civil Rights Act, Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA), and Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) depends on its number of employees. 
True False

37. When determining if an organization large enough to be covered by ADA law, only full-time employees should be included in the employee count. 
True False

38. Company officials and individual managers can be held personally liable for discrimination under the Civil Rights Act, the ADA, or the ADEA. 
True False

39. The Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination on the basis of age or disability status. 
True False

40. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act covers individuals over the age of 40. 
True False

41. Employers are required to post notices to all employees advising them of their rights under the laws EEOC enforces and their right to be free from retaliation. 
True False

42. Claims of disparate treatment focus on the effect of employment practices, rather than on the motive or intent underlying them. 
True False

43. Claims of disparate impact focus on the effect of employment practices, rather than on the motive or intent underlying them. 
True False

44. Applicant flow statistics look at differences in selection rates (proportion of applicants hired) among different groups for a particular job. 
True False

45. The EEOC’s preferred method of settlement for employment discrimination claims is a lawsuit. 
True False

46. In disparate treatment cases, the employee attempts to demonstrate that the defendant’s stated reasons for a practice are a pretext, or smoke screen, for the discriminatory intent of practice. 
True False

47. The consent decree usually contains only an agreement to halt certain practices, and seldom extends to providing monetary relief or AA programs. 
True False

48. Enforcement mechanisms used by the OFCCP closely mirror those used by the EEOC. 
True False

49. Which of the following is(are) true regarding federal EEO/AA laws? 
A. They are very narrow in their coverage of employers.
B. Specific agencies exist which regulate administration and enforcement.
C. They cover only women, minorities, and certain religious groups.
D. None of the above are true.

50. Which of the following is not covered by the Civil Rights Act ________? 
A. race
B. sex
C. disability status
D. all of the above are covered by the Civil Rights Act

51. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act focuses on individuals over the age of ________. 
A. 40
B. 30
C. 20
D. 50

52. Disparate treatment focuses on _________. 
A. allegations and evidence about the effects of discriminatory actions
B. allegations and evidence about intentions to discriminate
C. adverse impact
D. quotas

53. The initial burden of proof in discrimination claims lies ______. 
A. with the defendant
B. with the court
C. equally with the court and the federal agency
D. with the plaintiff

54. When using stock statistics in job selection discrimination cases, the comparison being made is __________. 
A. differences in proportions of groups hired
B. percentages of groups concentrated in certain job categories
C. percentages of groups in job categories relative to their availability in the population
D. percentages of union versus non-unionized employees

55. The key to a successful rebuttal in a disparate treatment case is _________. 
A. to prove adverse impact
B. to provide nondiscriminatory reasons for the practice(s) in question
C. to show the presence of a “mixed motive”
D. to prove discrimination

56. In EEOC cases, a consent decree is ________. 
A. mandated by law
B. court approved
C. limited to non-monetary relief
D. limited to affirmative action remedies

57. Enforcement mechanisms used by the OFCCP ________. 
A. rarely involve employer site visits
B. are identical to those used by the EEOC
C. are unrelated to specific AA plans
D. may involve conciliation agreements

58. It is unlawful to discriminate in hiring, firing, compensation, or classification of employees on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. 
True False

59. Staffing practices that may seem unfair, outrageous, or of dubious value to the employer, but that do not cause adverse impact, are legal. 
True False

60. If an employer has a selection system in which applicants first take a written test and those who pass it are interviewed, the plaintiff must show adverse impact for the two components combined. 
True False

61. A prison with mostly male inmates might successfully use the concept of BFOQ to argue that it is a business necessity to hire only male prison guards on the grounds that by doing so it ensures the safety, security, and privacy of inmates. 
True False

62. Although civil rights legislation does not explicitly mention the use of tests in staffing, most courts have found that the use of such tests is permissible. 
True False

63. Employers can adjust the scores of employment-related tests on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. 
True False

64. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 explicitly permits the use of seniority and merit systems as a basis for applying different terms and conditions to employees. 
True False

65. The Age Discrimination Act of 1967 prohibits all discrimination on the basis of age. 
True False

66. It is permissible to use terms or phrases that express a preference for older workers, such as “over age 60,” “retirees,” or “supplement your pension” in employment advertising. 
True False

67. Recovering former drug users and recovering alcoholics are covered by the Americans with Disabilities Act. 
True False

68. A broken arm or leg would be considered a covered, short-disability for ADA coverage purposes. 
True False

69. The Americans with Disabilities Act does not cover individuals with psychiatric disorders, such as depression or schizophrenia. 
True False

70. Examples of reasonable accommodations under the Americans with Disabilities Act include work schedule changes, modifications to company policy, adjusting supervisory methods, and medication monitoring. 
True False

71. Accommodations such as job restructuring, telework, changes in work schedules, or purchase of adaptive devices for those with disabilities are considered undue hardships. 
True False

72. Employers may refuse to hire an individual who poses a direct threat to him/herself or the health and safety of others. 
True False

73. The law prohibits the use of genetic information in employment. 
True False

74. Which of the following is prohibited discrimination under civil rights law? 
A. discrimination in hiring
B. discrimination in compensation
C. discrimination in classification
D. all of the above

75. The essence of a BFOQ is that _________. 
A. it is always illegal
B. it reduces discrimination
C. it justifies discrimination based on reasonable necessity of the job
D. it prohibits selection through use of a protected characteristic (e.g., gender)

76. Regarding the use of tests in staffing, it can be said that ______. 
A. they are permitted by law
B. they are illegal
C. they should be adjusted by protected characteristics to be fair
D. they should be “race normed” for fairness

77. The legal status of seniority and merit systems is that _______. 
A. seniority is legal
B. merit systems are legal
C. both are legal
D. both are illegal

78. The Age Discrimination In Employment Act (1967) prohibits discrimination against individuals who are ____ years or older. 
A. 40
B. 50
C. 60
D. 65

79. Employers can use which of the following techniques without violating the Age Discrimination in Employment Act. 
A. using reasonable factors other than age in making employment decisions
B. using seniority systems
C. using terms or phrases that express a preference for older workers
D. all of the above

80. Where the Americans with Disabilities Act is concerned, ______? 
A. the law only applies to disabled individuals who are otherwise qualified
B. the law requires the hiring of all disabled people
C. the law prohibits refusal to hire a disabled person
D. the law provides advantages to disabled people

81. Where reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals are concerned, it can be said that _______? 
A. accommodation is always required for an otherwise qualified individual
B. specific examples of accommodations are rarely indicated in laws and regulations
C. the issue of “undue hardship” to the employer is not addressed by the law
D. the need to accommodate often hinges on whether or not a given job function is necessary or essential

82. Which of the following is not prohibited by the ADA? 
A. medical exams of job applicants
B. asking a job applicant if he/she is disabled
C. asking a job applicant to undergo a medical exam after a job offer has been made
D. refusing to interview a person who is disabled

83. Executive Order 11246 covers _________. 
A. local government employers
B. private employers with under 15 employees
C. federal contractors with contracts in excess of $10,000
D. private employers with 20 or more employees
E. Other Staffing Laws

84. Substantive assessment methods are used to reduce the applicant pool to candidates. 
True False

85. It is unlawful to recruit an unauthorized alien for employment in the United States. 
True False

86. The Immigration Reform and Control Act prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of national origin or citizenship status. 
True False

87. Nearly everyone who wishes to work in the United States is eligible for an H-1B visa. 
True False

88. Those who get an H-1B are typically employed in occupations such as architect, engineer, computer programmer, accountant, doctor, and professor. 
True False

89. Most private employers cannot legally require applicants or employees to take a polygraph test, except in special circumstances. 
True False

90. Polygraphs cannot be used to investigate theft, embezzlement, or sabotage that causes economic loss to the employer. 
True False

91. Employers are allowed to take actions like terminating or demoting members of the uniformed services if they have to serve for an extended period of time overseas. 
True False

92. Some state laws prohibit discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation and gender identity or expression. 
True False

93. Both private and public employers have a legal mandate to test applicants only for KSAOs that are directly job related. 
True False

94. Applicants for jobs covered by civil service laws and regulations often have rights to appeal hiring decisions, testing processes, or test contents and methods. 
True False

95. Noncompliance with the Immigration Reform and Control Act (1986) could result in __________. 
A. imprisonment for up to six months
B. fines equal to $50,000 for each unauthorized alien employed
C. summary closing of a business
D. imprisonment of the alien for up to five years

96. Which of the following is true regarding EEO laws? 
A. State (but not local) government employees are immune from lawsuits by employees who allege violation of ADA or ADEA.
B. States must pursue age and disability discrimination claims under applicable state laws.
C. A foreign company which is owned or controlled by an American employer and is doing business overseas generally also must comply with Title VII, the ADA, and the ADEA.
D. All of the above

97. Which of the following is true regarding discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation? 
A. there are no laws covering sexual orientation discrimination
B. federal law prohibits all discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation
C. although such discrimination is not covered by federal law, it is covered by some state and local laws
D. some state and local laws encourage discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation

98. Which of the following is true regarding H-1B visas? 
A. Employers may apply for permanent H-1B visas for foreign workers.
B. There is a cap of 50,000 workers per year who can obtain such visas.
C. H-1B visa holders may not change jobs as soon as their employer files an approval petition and they are restricted to their current geographic area.
D. None of the above

Chapter 3
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The four major source of external influence on HR and planning are economic conditions, labor markets, technology, and labor unions. 
True False

2. Job creation and growth is largely independent of the overall economic climate. 
True False

3. Most data suggest that there will be job growth in the service sector, the education sector, and in business/professional services. 
True False

4. Data collected by the Bureau of Labor Statistics suggest the demand for individuals with college degrees or more peaked a while back, and will decrease in the near future. 
True False

5. There is a trend toward increasingly fewer new entrants to the labor force. 
True False

6. The American workforce is increasingly made up of young people. 
True False

7. HR professionals generally report that high school graduates have sufficient basic skills in reading comprehension, writing, and math for entry-level jobs. 
True False

8. The apparent skills gap in the American workforce appears to be arising because of an increase in demand for highly skilled workers. 
True False

9. Very few people prefer part-time work, as surveys suggest 88% of part-time workers are seeking full-time employment. 
True False

10. Technology can serve to create new jobs and eliminate old jobs. 
True False

11. There has been a major workforce trend in reduced costs of health care for employers. 
True False

12. Human resource managers are concerned that as the workforce ages, increases in retirement, will lead to shortage of skilled workers in some fields. 
True False

13. Federal laws prohibit labor unions from bargaining regarding any practices related to human resources planning. 
True False

14. Which of the following are likely to occur during job expansion periods? 
A. New hire rates increase for entry level jobs, but decrease for higher level jobs
B. Departure of some employees to take opportunities at other firms
C. Stagnation of movement through internal labor markets
D. Reductions in turnover rates

15. Projections suggest that there will be growth in which of the following sectors of the economy? 
A. Manufacturing
B. Education
C. Health services
D. Both B and C

16. In general, the labor force is becoming ____. 
A. younger
B. older
C. less skilled
D. less diverse

17. What percentage of employers believe high school graduates are deficient in work habits such as professionalism, critical thinking, personal accountability, and time management? 
A. 70%
B. 15%
C. 40%
D. 95%

18. Which of the following are likely responses to labor shortages? 
A. Decreased pay and benefits packages
B. Hiring bonuses and stock options
C. Decreased use of temporary employees
D. Higher hiring standards

19. Which of the following is a likely effect of technology on employment demand? 
A. Changes in the skill requirements of the workforce
B. Elimination of some jobs
C. Creation of new jobs
D. All of the above

20. What proportion of the workforce is unionized? 
A. About 7% of the private sector and about 36% of the public sector
B. About 36% of the private sector and about 7% of the public sector
C. About 12% of the private sector and about 12% of the public sector
D. About 30% of the private sector and about 30% of the public sector

21. In human resources planning, a comparison is made between labor force requirements and labor availability. 
True False

22. The gap between current workforce size and available workforce size is a critical part of the reconciliation process. 
True False

23. In plan-based HR planning, the organization’s representatives set up a system that is integrally related to the organization’s strategic planning process. 
True False

24. In project based HR planning, the organization’s representatives set up a system that looks far into the future and tries to avoid consideration of short term perturbations in the market. 
True False

25. Planning based on a specific group of employees, such as faculty in specialized areas of a university or nursing employees, is called population-based HRP. 
True False

26. The unit of human resource planning and analysis is the KSAO. 
True False

27. Counting the number of employees on payroll may be a misleading indicator of the workforce because it ignores the amount of scheduled time worked by each employee relative to a full workweek. 
True False

28. Statistical techniques are of little importance to HR managers and should usually be rejected as methods for evaluating HRP needs. 
True False

29. In regression analysis, historical predictors of workforce size, like sales or new customers, are used to predict staffing levels. 
True False

30. Trend analysis directly takes into account external factors that might change trends. 
True False

31. Manager judgment is an ideal method for forecasting workforce availabilities for companies with large numbers of employees in many job categories. 
True False

32. Markov Analysis is used to assess a previous period’s workforce demands on the basis of historical patterns of external applications. 
True False

33. When conducting Markov analysis, it is desirable to have 20 or more employees in each job category/level. 
True False

34. The key to ratio analysis is assessing each promotable employee for KSAO or competency gaps, and where there are gaps, creating employee training and development plans that will close the gap. 
True False

35. Through replacement and succession planning the organization constructs internal talent pipelines. 
True False

36. Succession planning precedes replacement planning. 
True False

37. Replacement and succession planning are conducted primarily for managerial jobs. 
True False

38. The quality of a replacement or succession plan is largely independent of the quality of an organization’s performance appraisal systems. 
True False

39. Human resource planning activities most directly involve _____. 
A. assessing external environmental factors
B. forecasting labor requirements and availabilities
C. generating technological replacements for labor
D. all of the above

40. The process of determining reconciliation and gaps tells managers _____. 
A. how many employees will be needed for jobs in the coming period
B. why employees are leaving the organization
C. which activities should be performed to place new employees in appropriate positions
D. when employees are most likely to quit

41. Plan-based HRP consists of _________. 
A. organizational responses to sudden changes in the environment
B. planning focused on a specific employee group
C. planning that is part of the organization’s strategic planning process
D. planning based on best practices of competitors

42. Project-based HRP consists of _________. 
A. organizational responses to sudden changes in the environment
B. planning focused on a specific employee group
C. planning that is part of the organization’s strategic planning process
D. planning based on best practices of competitors

43. Population-based HRP consists of _________. 
A. organizational responses to sudden changes in the environment
B. planning focused on a specific employee group
C. planning that is part of the organization’s strategic planning process
D. planning based on best practices of competitors

44. A manager has gathered data on staffing levels over time, and then predicts future requirements based on the pattern of demand, taking seasonal variations in demand into account. This equation is used to predict future staffing levels. This is an example of _______________. 
A. regression analysis
B. ratio analysis
C. trend analysis
D. Markov analysis

45. A manager has collected data on the dollar value of sales and has divided this by the number of FTE. Assuming this relationship will hold in the future, and using projected sales, the manager estimates the number of employees required. This is an example of _______________. 
A. regression analysis
B. ratio analysis
C. trend analysis
D. Markov analysis

46. A manager has collected data on sales, the economy, and taxes over a number of years, and statistically estimates an equation that describes how each of these predictors has affected staffing levels in the past. This equation is used to predict future staffing levels. This is an example of _______________. 
A. regression analysis
B. ratio analysis
C. trend analysis
D. Markov analysis

47. Which of the following would not be addressed in forecasting HR availabilities? 
A. Promotions
B. Transfers
C. Exits
D. Motivation level

48. Markov analysis is a technique for __________. 
A. job analysis
B. availability forecasting
C. HR requirement forecasting
D. seniority estimation

49. A transition matrix would appear in a _________. 
A. regression analysis
B. stochastic analysis
C. Markov analysis
D. time series analysis

50. In Markov analysis for staffing, __________ is used to forecast future workforce availabilities. 
A. cost data
B. product demand
C. transition probabilities
D. Bayesian inference

51. Which of the following creates a problem for Markov analysis? 
A. large sample sizes
B. lack of employee moves
C. poor economic conditions
D. small sample sizes

52. Manager judgment is an important method for staffing in _________. 
A. organizations with extensive records on human resources outcomes
B. smaller organizations
C. organizations with lateral diffusion of responsibility
D. organizations in the manufacturing sector

53. Which of the following is not a shortcoming of using manager judgment for forecasting availability? 
A. managers may not know employee intentions
B. the complexity of forecasting may overwhelm the manager
C. managers are always overly aggressive in making estimates of hiring requirements
D. none of the above are shortcomings of manager judgment

54. Employment reconciliation analyzes gaps between ________. 
A. AA requirements and the external labor force
B. future HR requirements and AA requirements
C. future HR requirements and HR availability
D. all of the above

55. For succession planning to work, organizations must also have _____. 
A. historical data on product demand
B. training and development systems in place
C. reimbursable expenditure accounts
D. none of the above

56. Human resource information systems provide which of the following functions for succession planning? 
A. Creating lists of employees who are ready to move into specific positions
B. Seeking out passive candidates within the organization
C. Tracking candidates across a variety of locations
D. all of the above

57. Staffing objectives are derived from identified gaps between requirements and availabilities. 
True False

58. Long term options for dealing with an employee shortage include hires, transfers into the position, retraining workers, or transferring the work out of the firm. 
True False

59. If an organization faces a surplus of workers, it is likely that they will have to either downsize or encourage voluntary retirement, because there aren’t many alternatives to these actions. 
True False

60. One advantage of a core workforce is that the organization maintains the legal right to control employees working in its behalf, in terms of both work process and expected results. 
True False

61. A core workforce is nearly always less expensive than a flexible workforce because the core workforce will accept lower pay and benefits. 
True False

62. A core workforce is an excellent technique for acquiring new technical and administrative knowledge. 
True False

63. A flexible workforce can bring in new technical and administrative knowledge that isn’t available from the core workforce. 
True False

64. Sometimes members of the internal workforce will resent external hires, which can limit the effectiveness of external hiring. 
True False

65. Internal hiring methods are often less expensive than external hiring methods. 
True False

66. Companies often prefer internal hiring because it gives them a large labor market to recruit from. 
True False

67. Employing organizations usually have a lot of control over the quality of the flexible workforce. 
True False

68. A flexible workforce can be obtained by using staffing firms or independent contractors. 
True False

69. Outsourcing is a more drastic step than using independent contractors or temporary employees. 
True False

70. Outsourcing is confined almost exclusively to manufacturing work. 
True False

71. One reason organizations outsource is because specialized vendors can achieve economies of scale for routine tasks that would be performed across many organizations. 
True False

72. A key advantage of having a core work force is that it provides _________. 
A. greater predictability
B. increased ability to rapidly modify organizational plans
C. greater organizational profitability
D. lower costs

73. A major disadvantage of a flexible work force is that ________. 
A. it leads to loss of some control over workers
B. it can lead to conflict between core and flexible workers
C. flexible workers are often less familiar with equipment
D. all of the above

74. Advantages of a core workforce include ______________. 
A. stability, continuity, and predictability
B. a sense of commitment and shared purpose toward the organization’s purpose
C. an organization can directly control how it acquires its workforce
D. all of the above

75. Which of the following are advantages of external staffing? 
A. bringing in employees with new KSAOs
B. quick method to identify job applicants
C. it’s less expensive than internal staffing
D. all of the above

76. Which of the following services is not provided by staffing firms? 
A. Advance screening of job candidates
B. They may provide on-site managers to help with training
C. They absorb full legal liability for temporary workers
D. None of the above

77. A(n) ______ provides specific task and project assistance to the organization, such as maintenance, bookkeeping, advertising, programming, and consulting, with payment contingent on completion of the project (rather than time worked or methods of completing the task). 
A. external service provider
B. independent contractor
C. temporary worker
D. offshore site

78. Firms offshore work because ______________. 
A. wages are often lower overseas
B. there is a growing pool of highly qualified workers overseas
C. overseas manufacturing always has strict quality control
D. both A and B

79. Organizations need to take diversity into account because the workforce has become more diverse. 
True False

80. Despite popular press to the contrary, there hasn’t really been an increase in the number of Latinos and Asians in the American workforce. 
True False

81. Active diversity planning occurs when the organization encourages underrepresented minorities to apply for positions, actively recruits from a variety of sources, and provides additional training and mentoring to underrepresented groups. 
True False

82. Evidence suggests that demographically diverse teams are far more effective than homogeneous teams. 
True False

83. Studies show that women and minorities are largely indifferent to whether an organization has a commitment to diversity in their recruiting efforts. 
True False

84. Many organizations do not take demographic shifts in the workplace into account when developing staffing plans. 
True False

85. Targeted recruitment, inclusion of women and African-Americans on top management teams, work family accommodations, and affirmative action plans increase the racial and gender diversity of the organization’s managerial workforce. 
True False

86. In recent years there has been an increase in the number of _________ in the workforce. 
A. women
B. Latinos
C. individuals with disabilities
D. all of the above

87. Managers are especially concerned about all of the following issues because of the aging workforce except _______. 
A. loss of skills due to retirement
B. decreased ability to learn new material
C. increases in medical expenses
D. employee elder-care responsibilities

88. Passive diversity planning means _______. 
A. reviewing policies and practices to ensure there is no discrimination
B. encouraging underrepresented groups to apply
C. actively recruiting from a variety of sources that are likely to be seen by underrepresented groups
D. providing additional training for underrepresented groups

89. AAPs are organization-specific plans that have a legal origin and basis. 
True False

90. The components of AAPs are enforced by the Department of Workforce Diversity (DWD). 
True False

91. Federal contractors are legally required to have AAPs in place. 
True False

92. A general rule of thumb is that if the ratio of incumbency percentage for a group to their availability is less than 80%, the organization should establish a placement goal to increase minority representation. 
True False

93. Replacement goals from AAPs are often legally termed “quotas” for minorities and women in an organization. 
True False

94. Some states have banned the use of AAPs for government contractors and educational institutions. 
True False

95. The major legal issue for HR strategy and planning is _______. 
A. affirmative action plans
B. disparate treatment
C. disparate impact
D. sexual harassment

96. Affirmative action plans and programs do not originate from _______. 
A. voluntary employer efforts
B. court-imposed remedies for discriminatory practices
C. consent agreements
D. international treaties

97. To have a high probability of being acceptable in the eyes of the Supreme Court, an organization’s AAP should _________. 
A. not necessarily interfere with the job status of non-minority and male employees
B. concentrate on future, rather than past discrimination
C. not focus on underutilization
D. be a permanent feature of organizational structure