BUS 335 Staffing Organizations Week 6 Quiz – Strayer

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Chapter 7

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. Measures are methods or techniques for describing and assessing attributes of objects that are of concern to us.
True False

2. When developing measures, it is a good idea to give each rater some license to interpret the meaning of scores as fits the specific situation. True False

3. To achieve standardization the content of job application tests should be the same for all applicants. True False

4. Scoring keys for tests should be developed immediately after the test has been administered. True False

5. Most staffing measures can be best described as being on a ratio scale. True False

6. A rank ordering of five job candidates in terms of overall qualification for the job is an example of an ordinal scale. True False

7. Research shows that when an attribute is measured by both objective and subjective means, there is often relatively low agreement between scores from the two types of measures. True False

8. The standard deviation is a measure of the central tendency of a scale. True False

9. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal scale data is the median. True False

10. Standard scores are also useful for determining how a person performed, in a relative sense, on two or more tests. This is helpful for comparing relative standing across several tests. True False

11. If an individual has a z-score of 2.0 on a performance test, this indicates this person’s score is twice as high as the average test score. True False

12. A correlation coefficient ranges from 0 to +1. True False

13. A correlation between two variables does not necessarily that one causes the other. True False

14. A standard level for statistical significance is p< .50. True False

15. With very large samples, it is possible for a fairly weak relationship to still be statistically significant. True False

16. Measurement standardization applies to measurement content, not the administration of measurements. True False

17. When numbers are assigned by category, this reflects an ordinal scale of measurement. True False

18. If scores are classified as “low”, “medium”, and high”, the scale of measurement is nominal. True False

19. Human body weight is an example of a variable measured on a ratio scale of measure. True False

20. Numerical employment interview ratings represent objective measures. True False

21. Performance appraisal ratings are subjective measures. True False

22. The research literature indicates a high correlation between subjective and objective measures of performance. True False

23. A correlation score of minus one between two sets of scores indicates an exceptionally low association or relationship between the two sets. True False

24. If the correlation coefficient between variables X and Y is .90, this means that the proportion of common variance shared by the two variables is ninety percent. True False

25. A correlation coefficient of 1.0 between variables X and Y indicates that there is a perfect linear relationship between these two variables. True False

26. The correlation coefficient does not measure the change in one variable caused by another variable. True False

27. While correlation is valuable as an indicator of the degree of association between variables, it is generally not used as a tool for prediction. True False

28. Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement? A. choosing an attribute of concern B. assessing the attribute’s acceptability to applicants C. using the measure to gauge the attribute D. constructing a measure of the attribute

29. The process of ensuring that all test takers receive the same tests in the same context, as a way to eliminate extraneous influences on test performance is called ____________________. A. standardization B. optimization C. rationalization D. inflation

30. Which of the following statements about measurement is not correct? A. It assigns numbers to objects. B. It is based on rules determined in advance. C. It measures the object not the attribute. D. It measures constructs.

31. A nominal scale of measurement has ________. A. rank order B. an absolute true zero point C. classification by categories D. equal differences between points on a scale of measurement

32. A scale in which objects are rank ordered according to how much of the attribute they possess. A. nominal B. ordinal C. interval D. ratio

33. A scale in which objects are rank ordered according to how much of the attribute they possess, with equal space between objects. A. nominal B. ordinal C. interval D. ratio

34. A scale in which a given attribute is categorized, and numbers are assigned to the categories, but there is no order or level implied among the categories. A. nominal B. ordinal C. interval D. ratio

35. Rankings of the finishes of competitors in a foot race is an example of a(n) _______. A. ratio scale B. ordinal scale C. interval scale D. none of the above

36. Length in inches is an example of a(n) _________. A. ratio scale B. nominal scale C. ordinal scale D. interval scale

37. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal data is the ______. A. mean B. median C. standard deviation D. mode

38. The variability of a measure is best captured by the _____________. A. mean and standard deviation B. range and standard deviation C. range and median D. mode and mean

39. The likelihood that a correlation exists in a population, based on knowledge of the actual value of r in a sample from that population is the ____________. A. practical significance B. likelihood ratio C. functional statistic D. statistical significance

40. Which of the following results represents statistically significance as it is commonly understood? A. r = .30 B. p < .05 C. r > .10 D. all of the above

41. A z score of 3.0 for a job applicant’s score on an aptitude test indicates the applicant ______. A. achieved a score 3 points higher than the average score B. received a score 3 standard deviations above the mean score C. had a score 3 percent higher than the average score D. had a score plus or minus 3 points relative to the mean score

42. The correlation coefficient expresses _________. A. causality B. variance C. strength of the relationship between two variables D. the range between two variables

43. A complete lack of correlation between two variables is expressed by a correlation coefficient of _________. A. .50 B. 1.00 C. -1.00 D. zero

44. The larger the correlation coefficient, _________. A. the greater the practical significance B. the smaller its practical significance C. the larger its range D. the smaller its statistical significance

45. The proper test to determine that a given sample correlation is statistically significant as an estimate of a correlation in a population is the __________. A. z score B. standard deviation C. squared correlation coefficient D. the t test

46. Which of the following levels of statistical significance would provide the most confidence that a sample correlation coefficient would not be interpreted as having a relationship in the population, when, in fact, there is no such relationship? A. .10 B. .50 C. .01 D. .05

47. In staffing the scores of individuals are treated as if they were the attribute itself, rather than merely indicators of the attribute. True False

48. The consistency of measurement of an attribute refers to its validity. True False

49. Perfect reliability is virtually impossible to achieve because of the presence of measurement error. True False

50. Calculation of the test-retest reliability of scores between time periods is done for objective measures, not subjective measures. True False

51. Comparing scores of objective measures within the same time period is a measure of internal consistency. True False

52. If all the members of a panel interview reach the same conclusion regarding a person who is being interviewed, it could be said that the interview ratings are reliable. True False

53. Even when measurement error is present, true scores can be measured with perfect precision. True False

54. Error caused by failing to measure a key aspect of the attribute of interest (i.e., the attribute we wish to measure), is known as contamination error. True False

55. Asking different questions of job applicants during comparisons of interview ratings between these same job applicants is an example of contamination error. True False

56. If an attribute of job performance is “planning and setting work priorities,” and the raters fail to rate people on that dimension during their performance appraisal, then the performance measure is contaminated. True False

57. A measure with a coefficient alpha of .55 should generally be regarding as having adequate reliability. True False

58. The standard error of measurement is a useful indicator of how accurate actual scores of applicants are in assessing the true scores of a given measure. True False

59. Reliability sets the lower limit on validity. True False

60. The extent to which scores on a knowledge test truly reflect a job applicant’s knowledge is a measure of the test’s validity. True False

61. Measuring the accuracy of a mechanical ability test in predicting the job performance of current employees involves a predictive validity design. True False

62. Criterion measures are not used in the calculation of content validity. True False

63. Even if methodological and statistical differences across criterion-related validation studies are not controlled for statistically, it is still probable that validity can be generalized from one specific situation to another. True False

64. Organizations that collect assessment data need to attend to professional standards that govern their use. True False

65. The process of criterion-related validation begins with the identification of criterion measures. True False

66. The assessment of concurrent validity is more convenient and more efficient than the assessment of predictive validity. True False

67. One guideline for effective staffing practice is that all predictors should be routinely subjected to content validation. True False

68. Reliability of measurement is defined as __________. A. frequency of measurement B. magnitude of measurement C. accuracy of measurement D. consistency of measurement

69. Which of the following is a true statement? A. true score divided by error equals actual score B. actual score equals true score plus error C. actual score plus error equals true score D. true score equals variance plus error

70. Coefficient alpha assesses ____________. A. reliability within a single time period B. reliability between time periods C. reliability between samples D. test-retest reliability E. A and B are correct

71. Comparing objective scores from T1 to T2 is a method for assessing _____ reliability. A. maximal asymptotic B. internal consistency C. test-retest D. interrater

72. Comparing the same supervisor’s rating of an employee’s performance at T1 to T2 is a method for assessing ______ reliability. A. intrarater B. fixed-point C. test-retest D. interrater

73. Reliability of a measure places ________. A. no limit on the validity of a measure B. a lower limit on the validity of a measure C. an average limit on the validity of a measure D. an upper limit on the validity of a measure

74. Deficiency error would not indicate a failure to _________. A. measure some portion of the attribute of interest B. adequately define the attribute of interest C. construct a proper measure of the totality of the attribute D. calculate the standard deviation

75. Contamination error _________. A. is easy to minimize and control B. is the same as deficiency error C. represents unwanted sources of influence on a measure D. shows a lack of an acceptable coefficient alpha

76. Which of the following is an example of contamination error? A. irrelevant material on the test B. guessing by the test taker C. different time limits for the same test D. all of the above

77. The standard error of measurement allows ________. A. calculation of confidence intervals for true scores B. estimates of content validity C. calculation of confidence intervals for actual scores D. calculation of confidence intervals for error

78. Validity of a measure is best defined as ________. A. the upper limit of reliability B. the degree to which the measure does indeed measure what it is intended to measure C. the lower limit of reliability D. the consistency of measurement

79. Which of the following is a type of validity? A. test-retest B. coefficient alpha C. criterion D. parallel forms

80. When predictor and criterion scores have been obtained, the predictor can be considered valid if __________. A. the correlation coefficient has the desired practical and statistical significance B. the correlation coefficient has statistical significance alone C. the correlation coefficient is insignificant D. the correlation coefficient has practical significance alone

81. Content validation is most appropriate when ____________. A. reliability is too high B. sample size is large C. criterion measures are readily available D. sample size is too small for criterion validity calculation

82. The case for validity generalization across situations becomes stronger if ___. A. correlation coefficients are negative B. the standard error of measurement is large C. differences in method and statistical differences are controlled D. reliability is low

83. Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement? A. choosing an attribute of concern B. assessing the attribute’s acceptability to applicants C. using the measure to gauge the attribute D. constructing a measure of the attribute

84. Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of selection rates for groups and the subsequent comparison of those rates to determine if they are significantly different from each other. True False

85. According to the Uniform Guidelines for Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP), comparisons of selection rates among groups should be based on the 70% rule. True False

86. When assessing adverse impact, the law prohibits taking sample size into account. True False

87. Investigation of applicant stock statistics is also known as “utilization analysis.” True False

88. Adverse impact statistics are very stable sample estimates of the amount of true adverse impact occurring in an organization. True False

89. The use of standardized measurement eliminates the possibility of adverse impact occurring. True False

90. The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures indicates that when a selection procedure shows adverse impact, the organization must either eliminate it or justify it through presentation of validity evidence. True False

91. The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures require the calculation of selection rates for ________. A. every disability category currently assessed B. each job category C. the population at large D. all of the above

92. Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of ________. A. selection rates for the groups under analysis B. interview rates for the groups under analysis C. rejection rates for the groups under analysis D. range scores for the groups under analysis

93. Applicant stock statistics for groups under analysis require calculation of percentages for _________. A. unemployed workers B. measures of content validity C. availability in the population D. the reliability of a measure