BUS 517 Final Exam – New

BUS 517 Final Exam – Strayer New

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Final Exam, Part 1: Chapters 6-8
Final Exam, Part 2, Chapters 9-12
Final Exam, Part 3: Chapters 13-14 and Chapter 16

Ch 6
1. Information to develop a project network is collected from the 
A. Organization breakdown structure
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Budget
D. Project proposal
E. Responsibility matrix

2. Which of the following represents an activity on an AON project network? 
A. An arrow
B. A line
C. A node
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

3. Arrows on an AON project network represent: 
A. An activity
B. Project flow
C. Dependency
D. Both B and C are correct
E. Both A and B are correct

4. When translated into a project network, a work package will become 
A. A single activity
B. One or more activities
C. A milestone
D. A critical path
E. An arrow

5. Which of the following is provided by a project network but not by the work breakdown structure? 
A. Dependencies
B. Sequencing
C. Interrelationships
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

6. On a project network, the activity times are derived from the 
A. Organization breakdown structure
B. Work packages
C. Budget
D. Project proposal
E. Responsibility matrix

7. Part of a project is to Develop Product Specifications. This is best classified as a(n) 
A. Event
B. Path
C. Activity
D. Node
E. Milestone

8. An activity that has more than one dependency arrow flowing into it is termed a(n) 
A. Parallel activity
B. Critical path
C. Burst activity
D. Merge activity
E. Independent activity

9. The critical path in a project network is the 
A. Shortest path through the network
B. Longest path through the network
C. Network path with the most difficult activities
D. Network path using the most resources
E. Network path with the most merge activities

10. A/an _________ activity has more than one dependency arrow flowing from it. 
A. Parallel
B. Critical path
C. Burst
D. Merge
E. Independent

11. An item on a project network is Design Software Completed. This is best described as a(n) 
A. Event
B. Path
C. Activity
D. Node
E. Milestone

12. Activities which can take place at the same time are termed 
A. Parallel activity
B. Critical path
C. Burst activity
D. Merge activity
E. Independent activity

13. A sequence of connected, dependent activities is termed a(n) 
A. Critical path
B. Parallel path
C. Activity chain
D. Path
E. Dependent chain

14. An AON project network uses which of the following basic building blocks? 
A. Arrows
B. Bars
C. Nodes
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

15. Which of the following is not one of the basic rules to follow when developing project networks? 
A. An activity cannot begin until all preceding activities have been completed
B. Each activity must have a unique identification number
C. Conditional statements are allowed but looping statements are not allowed
D. An activity identification number must be larger that that of any preceding activities
E. Networks flow from left to right

16. ________ activities must be completed immediately before a particular activity. 
A. Merge
B. Burst
C. Predecessor
D. Successor
E. Critical

17. ________ activities are to be completed immediately following a particular activity. 
A. Merge
B. Burst
C. Predecessor
D. Successor
E. Critical

18. The forward pass in project network calculations determines the 
A. Earliest time’s activities can begin
B. Earliest time’s activities can be finished
C. Duration of the project
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

19. The backward pass in project network calculations determines the 
A. Latest time’s activities can begin
B. Earliest time’s activities can be finished
C. Critical path
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

20. Which of the following correctly calculates the early finish for an activity? 
A. LS + DUR
B. ES + DUR
C. LF + DUR
D. ES + SL
E. LF + SL

21. Which of the following correctly calculates the late start for an activity? 
A. EF – DUR
B. ES – DUR
C. LF – DUR
D. ES – SL
E. LF – SLACK

22. The amount of time an activity can be delayed and yet not delay the project is termed 
A. Total slack
B. Free slack
C. Critical float
D. Float pad
E. Slip pad

23. Which of the following will correctly calculate the total slack in an activity? 
A. LS – ES
B. LF – EF
C. LS – LF
D. LF – ES
E. Both A and B are correct

24. The laying pipe example in the text illustrates the concept of 
A. Laddering
B. Hammock activities
C. Critical path
D. Concurrent engineering
E. Forward pass

25. Using a special color copy machine for a tradeshow publication illustrates the concept of 
A. Laddering
B. Hammock activities
C. Critical path
D. Concurrent engineering
E. Forward pass

26. If, for some reason, the project must be expedited to meet an earlier date, which of the following actions would the project manager take first? 
A. Check to see which activities cost the least
B. Check to see which activities have the longest duration
C. Check to see which activities are on the critical path
D. Check to see which activities have the most slack
E. Check to see which activities have the highest risk

27. Typically an activity on a project network represents 
A. A single work package
B. One or more tasks from a work package
C. Several work packages
D. A sub-deliverable
E. A cost account

28. Project network logic errors include which of the following? 
A. Activities with less than 1 day duration
B. Sequences such as “if test successful build prototype, if failure redesign”
C. A sequence such as B succeeds A, C succeeds B, A succeeds C
D. Both B and C are network logic errors
E. A, B, and C are all network logic errors

29. Which company utilized concurrent engineering to design a new line of cars and in the process completed its development six months ahead of schedule? 
A. General Motors
B. Chrysler
C. Ford
D. Nissan
E. Toyota

30. The minimum amount of time a dependent activity must be delayed to begin or end is referred to as: 
A. Hammock
B. Laddering
C. Lag
D. Cushion
E. Buffer

31. The requirement for a freshly poured foundation to cure before beginning construction is an example of which of the following type of lag? 
A. Start to Start
B. Start to Finish
C. Finish to Finish
D. Finish to Start
E. Any of these could be correct

32. Concurrent engineering is a good example of good use of 
A. Start to Start lags
B. Start to Finish lags
C. Finish to Finish lags
D. Finish to Start lags
E. Any of these could be correct

33. If testing cannot be completed any earlier than four days after the prototype is built, which of the following type of lag exists? 
A. Start to Start
B. Start to Finish
C. Finish to Finish
D. Finish to Start
E. Any of these could be correct

34. Which of the following represents an activity on an AOA project network? 
A. An arrow
B. A line
C. A node
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

35. Nodes on an AON project network represent: 
A. An activity
B. An event
C. Responsibility
D. Both B and C are correct
E. Both A and B are correct

36. A(n) ________ is an element in the project that consumes time. 
________________________________________

37. The activity time estimates used to build a project network are derived from ________. 
________________________________________

38. A ________ is an activity that has more than one predecessor. 
________________________________________

39. In a ________ the delaying of any activity will delay the completion of the project by the same amount. 
________________________________________

40. Activities that can take place at the same time if the manager wishes them to are called ________. 
________________________________________

41. A (n) ________ represents a point in time when an activity is started or completed and does not consume time. 
________________________________________

42. A (n) ________ has more than one successor activity. 
________________________________________

43. The ________ approach to creating project networks has come to dominate most projects. 
________________________________________

44. In a project network, ________ (recycling through a set of activities) is not permitted. 
________________________________________

45. In a project network, ________ indicate precedence and flow. 
________________________________________

46. The ________ method for creating project networks is sometimes called the Precedence Diagram Method. 
________________________________________

47. Activities that must occur immediately before a given activity are called ________ activities. 
________________________________________

48. Activities that must immediately follow a given activity are called ________ activities. 
________________________________________

49. Activities that can occur while an activity is taking place are called ________ activities. 
________________________________________

50. The ________ calculates the earliest times that activities can be started or finished. 
________________________________________

51. The ________ calculates the critical path and determines how long an activity can be delayed without delaying the project. 
________________________________________

52. An activity is on the critical path if its ________ is the lowest in the network. 
________________________________________

53. ________ can never be negative and applies only to the last activity in a single chain of activities. 
________________________________________

54. A(n) ________ is the minimum amount of time a dependent activity must be delayed to begin or end. 
________________________________________

55. In the ________ technique, an activity with a long duration is broken into smaller segments so that the following activities can begin sooner. 
________________________________________

56. ____________ is defined as the difference between the EF of an activity and the ES of the activity that follows it. 
________________________________________

57. ___________ reflects the likelihood the original critical path(s) will change once the project is initiated. 
________________________________________

58. A ____________ lag exists if debug cannot begin until two days after coding has started and that coding must be completed four days before debug can be completed. 
________________________________________

59. The _________ lag is the most typical type of lag that is encountered in developing networks. 
________________________________________

60. A __________ activity is frequently used to identify the use of fixed resources or costs over a segment of the project. 
________________________________________

61. An activity includes only one work package. 
True False

62. Project networks are built using nodes and arrows. 
True False

63. The WBS identifies dependencies, the sequencing of activities, and the timing of activities. 
True False

64. The critical path is the shortest path through a network and indicates activities that cannot be delayed without delaying the project. 
True False

65. An activity is an element of the project that always requires time but may or may not require resources. 
True False

66. The two approaches used to develop project networks are AOA and AON. 
True False

67. In an AOA network an activity is represented by a box. 
Refer to Appendix 6.1 
True False

68. In developing a project network, each activity should have a unique identification number that is smaller than the identification numbers of activities that follow it. 
True False

69. In developing a project network, neither looping statements nor conditional statements are permitted. 
True False

70. Experience suggests that when there are multiple starts, a common start node should not be used to indicate a clear project beginning on the network. Similarly, a single project end node can be used to indicate a clear ending. 
True False

71. Burst activities have more than one activity immediately following it (more than one dependency arrow flowing from it). 
True False

72. It is acceptable for arrows to cross one another in a network diagram. 
True False

73. The forward pass through a project network determines the critical path. 
True False

74. The backward pass though a project network determines how long an activity can be delayed without impacting the completion date of the project. 
True False

75. Different activities along the same path can have different total slack. 
True False

76. By definition, the critical path always has zero slack. 
True False

77. It is possible to have more than one critical path at the same time. 
True False

78. Free slack applies to an entire project network. 
True False

79. Gantt charts are popular because they represent an easy-to-understand, clear picture on a time-scaled horizon. 
Refer to Figure 6.12 
True False

80. Lags are used to break larger activities into smaller segments so that activities that follow can be started earlier. 
True False

81. Only activities that occur at the end of a chain of activities can have free slack. 
True False

82. Lags can be use to constrain the start and finish of an activity. 
True False

83. Identify and discuss the two major reasons for the integration of work packages into the project network failing in actual practice.

84. What are the two approaches used to develop project networks and identify the differences between them?

85. What are the eight rules to follow in developing project networks?

86. In the network computation process what is a forward pass and what three things does it determine?

87. In the network computation process what is a backward pass and what four things does it determine?

88. What is total slack and how do you determine it?

89. What is a Gantt chart and what advantages does it have over project networks?

90. What is the laddering approach to project networks and why would you use this approach?

91. What is a lag and why would you need to use one?

92. What is a hammock activity and give an example?

93. What is the Concurrent Engineering Approach and why should project managers be aware of it?

94. Identify and briefly describe the four types of lags giving an example for each type.

ch7
1. An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on a project objectives is termed. 
A. Random chance
B. A disaster
C. Risk
D. Hazard
E. Bad luck

2. The chances of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life cycle tends to 
A. Slowly rise
B. Drop sharply and then level out
C. Rise sharply and then level out
D. Remain about the same
E. Slowly drop

3. The cost impact of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life cycle tends to 
A. Slowly rise
B. Drop sharply and then level out
C. Rise sharply and then level out
D. Remain about the same
E. Slowly drop

4. The attempt to recognize and manage potential and unforeseen trouble spots that may occur when a project is implemented is known as 
A. Risk forecasting
B. Risk management
C. Contingency planning
D. Scenario analysis
E. Disaster protection

5. Which of the following is not one of the steps in the risk management process? 
A. Risk response development
B. Risk assessment
C. Risk identification
D. Risk tracking
E. Risk response control

6. The initial step in the risk management process is to 
A. Determine the level of acceptable risk
B. Assess the risk potential
C. Identify the risks
D. Set aside budget funds for managing the risks
E. Appoint a risk manager

7. One common mistake made early in the risk identification process is to 
A. Not all possibilities are considered
B. Participants are over-optimistic
C. Participants are over-pessimistic
D. Focus on objectives and not on the events that could produce consequences.
E. Too much attention is given to past events

8. In the beginning the focus of risk management should be on risks that 
A. Impact the whole project
B. Impact the critical path
C. Are known
D. Have the greatest cost impact
E. Have the greatest schedule impact

9. The 1999 NASA Mars Climate Orbiter is an example of 
A. Disaster avoidance through proactive risk management
B. Murphy’s Law
C. Proper use of critical thinking
D. Mismanaged risk control
E. Using historical records to assess risk

10. Which of the following would not be considered a threat? 
A. Inflation
B. Meeting the project schedule
C. International disruptions
D. Economic conditions
E. Competition

11. A list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project is termed a risk 
A. Risk profile
B. Questionnaire
C. Research
D. Query
E. Checklist

12. Which of the following is typically included in risk profiles? 
A. Management aspects
B. Market aspects
C. Technical aspects
D. Both A and C are included
E. A, B, and C are all included

13. All of the following are included in the risk identification process except 
A. Customers
B. Subcontractors
C. Competitors
D. Vendors
E. None of these are included

14. One of the keys to success in risk identification is 
A. Critical thinking
B. Optimism
C. Pessimism
D. A “can do” attitude
E. All of these are correct

15. The easiest and most commonly used technique for analyzing risks is _____ analysis. 
A. Probability
B. Scenario
C. Payback
D. Risk/reward
E. Impact

16. A risk profile is a list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project that answers developed from: 
A. When the event might occur in the project
B. Chances of the event occurring
C. Interaction with other parts of the project or with other projects
D. From previous, similar projects
E. Magnitude or severity of the event’s impact

17. The risk management tool that is divided into three color-coded zones representing major, moderate, and minor risks is the risk 
A. Assessment form
B. Responsibility matrix
C. Scenario assessment
D. Impact assessment
E. Risk severity matrix

18. The risk assessment form contains all of the following except 
A. Likelihood of the risk event occurring
B. Potential impact of the risk event
C. Who will detect the occurrence of the risk event.
D. Difficulty of detecting the occurrence of the risk event
E. When the risk event may occur

19. The two scales of a risk severity matrix measure 
A. Time, cost
B. Cost, schedule
C. Impact, cost
D. Time, impact
E. Likelihood, impact

20. Which of the following is not one of the probability analysis tools? 
A. Ratio/range analysis
B. Decision tree
C. PERT simulation
D. PERT
E. All of these are probability analysis tools

21. This risk assessment tool is a variation of the risk severity matrix that includes the ease of detection for each of the identified risks. 
A. PERT simulation
B. FMEA analysis
C. Ratio/range analysis
D. Probability analysis
E. Semi-quantitative analysis

22. Which of the following is not included in a Failure Mode and Effects Analysis? 
A. Impact
B. Probability
C. Detection
D. Risk value
E. All of these are included

23. Which of the following is used to review activity and project risk? 
A. NPV
B. S-curves
C. PERT
D. Decision trees
E. All of these can be used

24. Which of the following is not one of the potential responses to a specific risk event? 
A. Mitigating
B. Retaining
C. Ignoring
D. Transferring
E. Sharing

25. A Risk Response Matrix contains all of the following except 
A. Contingency plan
B. Trigger
C. Who is responsible?
D. Response
E. All of these are included in the matrix

26. The demolition of the Seattle Kingdome (Snapshot from Practice) is an example of which of the following? 
A. Mitigating
B. Retaining
C. Ignoring
D. Transferring
E. Sharing

27. The risk associated with one of the key members being stuck by lightning would most likely be handled by which of the following? 
A. Mitigating
B. Retaining
C. Ignoring
D. Transferring
E. Sharing

28. Funds that are for identified risks that have a low probability of occurring and that decrease as the project progresses are called ______ reserves. 
A. Management
B. Budget
C. Contingency
D. Padded
E. Just in case

29. Technical risks are: 
A. Can often be the kind that cause the project to be shut down.
B. Problematic
C. Imposed duration dates
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

30. Detailing all identified risks, including descriptions, category, and probability of occurring, impact, responses, contingency plans, owners and current status is called: 
A. Management reserves
B. Change control
C. Contingency reserves
D. Risk register
E. Risk profiles

31. Which of the following is identified to cover major unforeseen risks and, hence, are applied to the total project? 
A. Budget reserves
B. Management reserves
C. Time buffers
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

32. Change management systems are designed to accomplish all of the following except: 
A. Track all changes that are to be implemented
B. Review, evaluates, and approve/disapprove proposed changes formally
C. Identify expected effects of proposed changes on schedule and budget
D. Reflect scope changes in baseline and performance measures
E. All of the above are correct

33. The ________ impact of a risk event in a project is less if the event occurs earlier rather than later. 
________________________________________

34. The likelihood of a risk event occurring ________ as a project goes through its life cycle. 
________________________________________

35. The first step in the Risk Management process is ________. 
________________________________________

36. Risk events such as inflation, market acceptance, and government regulations are referred to as ________. 
________________________________________

37. A ________ is a list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project. 
________________________________________

38. The easiest and most commonly used technique for analyzing risks is ________. 
________________________________________

39. The ________ form identifies each risk event, the likelihood of it occurring, the potential impact, when it may occur, and the degree of difficulty in detecting it. 
________________________________________

40. The ________ matrix is divided into red, yellow, and green zones representing major, moderate, and minor risks. 
________________________________________

41. The vertical scale on the Risk Severity Matrix measures the _________ of a potential risk event. 
________________________________________

42. The horizontal scale on the Risk Severity Matrix measures the _________ of a potential risk event. 
________________________________________

43. In __________ the Risk Severity Matrix is extended by including the ease of detecting a risk event occurring. 
________________________________________

44. In a ________, three different estimates of activity times are used to statistically predict the time an activity will take to complete. 
________________________________________

45. The “Snapshot from Practice” case where Ellipsus Systems developed parallel prototype systems (WAP and JAVA) is an example of _________ a risk. 
________________________________________

46. Testing a new project on a smaller isolated area prior to installing it for the entire organization is an example of ________ a risk. 
________________________________________

47. Performance bonds, warranties, and insurance are examples of ________ a risk. 
________________________________________

48. When the entertainment industry formed a consortium to define a common operating format for DVD it was ________ the risk. 
________________________________________

49. If a risk event is very unlikely to occur the project owner would probably ________ the risk. 
________________________________________

50. A ________ identifies what to do if a potential risk event actually occurs. 
________________________________________

51. ________ reserves are identified for specific work packages and cover risks that have a low probability of occurring. 
________________________________________

52. ________ reserves are controlled by the project manager and used to cover major unforeseen risks to the entire project. 
________________________________________

53. A ____________ is an alternative that will be used if a possible foreseen risk event becomes a reality. 
________________________________________

54. A ____________ is useful for summarizing how the project team plans to manage risks that have been identified. 
________________________________________

55. The probability that a risk event will occur is higher during the initial stages of a project. 
True False

56. Due to the impact over a long period of time, risk events that occur in the early stages of a project will have a greater cost impact than those that occur in later stages. 
True False

57. During risk identification the smaller risks should be identified first because they will naturally lead to identifying the larger risks. 
True False

58. One common mistake that is made early on in the risk identification process is to focus on consequences and not on the events that could produce consequences. 
True False

59. Risks such as inflation and monetary exchange rates are not usually included in a project’s risk assessment. 
True False

60. The first step in the risk management process is Risk Assessment. 
Refer to Figure 7.2 
True False

61. A risk profile is a list of questions that have been developed and refined from previous, similar projects. 
True False

62. The risk identification process should be limited to just the core project team. 
True False

63. Since the goal is to find problems before they happen, the project manager should encourage critical thinking when it comes to risk identification. 
True False

64. The Risk Severity Matrix rates risk events based upon schedule and cost. 
Refer to Figure 7.7 
True False

65. In a Risk Severity Matrix a green zone risk is considered inconsequential and ignored unless their status changes. 
True False

66. The quality and credibility of the risk analysis process requires that different levels of risk probabilities and impacts be defined. 
True False

67. Adopting proven technology instead of experimental technology is an example of mitigating a risk. 
True False

68. The FMEA method calculates a risk value by assigning ease of detection ratings to the key risk elements. 
True False

69. Performance bonds, warranties, and guarantees are financial instruments used to share risk. 
True False

70. Fixed price contracts are an example of transferring risk from an owner to a contractor. 
True False

71. Scheduling outdoor work in the summer, investing in up front safety training, and choosing high quality materials are examples of retaining a risk. 
True False

72. Budget reserves are setup to cover identified risks associated with specific segments of a project while management reserves are set up to cover unidentified risks associated with the total project. 
True False

73. Change management systems involve reporting, controlling, and recording changes to the project baseline. 
True False

74. Project managers need to establish an environment in which participants feel comfortable raising concerns and admitting mistakes. 
True False

75. Contingency funding is made up of budget reserves and management reserves. 
True False

76. Describe the relationship between the likelihood of a risk event occurring and the cost of fixing the risk event as a project proceeds through its life cycle.

77. Identify and briefly describe the four steps in risk management.

78. Describe the process for identifying project risks.

79. What is a risk profile and what benefits does it provide to risk management?

80. Identify at least six items that may be included on a Risk Profile.

81. How should a risk assessment be conducted?

82. What is a Risk Severity Matrix and what does it do?

83. Identify and briefly describe the five ways to respond to identified risks.

84. What is the difference between budget reserves and management reserves?

85. What is Change Control Management and what function does it perform?

86. Identify and briefly describe the parts of a Risk Response Matrix and explain how one would be used.

87. Compare and contrast budget reserves and management reserves.

ch8
1. Delaying noncritical activities to lower peak demand on resources is known as resource 
A. Shifting
B. Effectiveness
C. Manipulating
D. Resource smoothing
E. Allocation

2. If resources are not adequate to meet peak demands, the resulting reschedule is termed 
A. Resource-constrained scheduling
B. Time-constrained scheduling
C. Mandatory leveling
D. Project resource adjustment
E. Allocation

3. Which of the following is a potential consequence of failing to schedule limited resources? 
A. Costly activity delays
B. Costly project delays
C. Difficulty in taking quick corrective action
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

4. When developing a new software package, the software must be designed, the code must be written, and the code must be tested. This is an example of a ______ constraint. 
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Resource
D. Schedule
E. Time

5. Which of the following is not one of the types of project constraints? 
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Resource
D. Time
E. All of these are types of project constraints

6. Sam the project engineer has been scheduled to run the product system test at the same time he is to build a marketing prototype. This is an example of a ______ constraint. 
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Resource
D. Scheduling
E. Time

7. Susan is to conduct environmental testing but the chamber cannot hold all the equipment that she wants to test. This is an example of a _________ constraint. 
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Resource
D. Scheduling
E. Time

8. All of the following are kinds of resource constraints except 
A. Materials
B. People
C. Equipment
D. Information
E. All of the above are resource constraints

9. Sam is trying to order the concrete needed to continue his project. However, the supplier won’t be able to deliver it until next week. This is an example of a _______ constraint. 
A. Working capital
B. People
C. Equipment
D. Information
E. Materials

10. A special truck that George needs on his project has been scheduled on another project. This is a ______ constraint. 
A. Working capital
B. People
C. Equipment
D. Information
E. Materials

11. Most of the scheduling methods available today require the project manager to classify the project as either _______ constrained or ______ constrained. 
A. Time, quality
B. Quality, resource
C. Cost, time
D. Quality, cost
E. Time, resource

12. Regina’s boss has told her that her project is very important. If the critical path is delayed, she will be given whatever she needs to get it back on schedule. Her project is ________ constrained. 
A. Time
B. Quality
C. Cost
D. Performance
E. Resource

13. In reviewing the status of her project with top management, Shirley was told that there only were two programmers that she could use for her project. Her project is __________ constrained. 
A. Time
B. Quality
C. Cost
D. Performance
E. Resource

14. All resource leveling techniques involve 
A. Delaying noncritical activities
B. Delaying critical activities
C. Using negative slack
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

15. Scheduling time-constrained projects focuses on resource 
A. Demands
B. Increases
C. Assumptions
D. Utilization
E. All are correct

16. The most widely used approach to apply heuristics, which have been found to consistently minimize project delay over a large variety of projects is the 
A. Parallel method
B. Resource method
C. Materials
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

17. Resource leveling can provide 
A. Lower peak demand
B. Reduced resource need over the life of the project
C. Reduced fluctuations in resource demand
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

18. Jan is trying to reallocate resources in a time-constrained project to create smoother resource utilization with a low level of risk. She should move to activities with the 
A. Smallest duration
B. Least slack
C. Most slack
D. Lowest identification number
E. Highest cost

19. In a resource-constrained project, which of the following is most likely to be changed? 
A. The completion date
B. The budget
C. Project quality
D. Both A and B are equally likely
E. A, B, and C are all equally likely

20. In a resource-constrained project, the first priority in assigning resources is usually given to activities with the 
A. Smallest duration
B. Least slack
C. Most slack
D. Lowest identification number
E. Highest cost

21. In a resource-constrained project the second priority in assigning resources is usually given to activities with the 
A. Smallest duration
B. Least slack
C. Most slack
D. Lowest identification number
E. Highest cost

22. The word Heuristics means 
A. Resource constraints
B. Flexibility
C. The critical path changed
D. Parallel activities become sequential
E. Rule of thumb

23. Splitting an activity creates the following situation: 
A. More people working on the same activity
B. There are possible startup and shutdown costs
C. A resource may be moved from one activity to another and then back
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

24. The U.S. Forest Service “snapshot from practice” illustrated the importance of 
A. Time constraints
B. Resource constraints
C. Cost constraints
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

25. More common problems associated with managing multiproject resources include all of the following except 
A. Inefficient resource utilization
B. Delays in one project cause delays in other projects
C. Reducing “downtime” created by lack of tasks to perform
D. Resource bottlenecks
E. All of these are common problems

26. When a company will reduce the number of projects they have to manage internally to only core projects and send noncritical projects to contractors and consulting firms this is called 
A. Outsourcing
B. Redistribution of projects
C. Project allocation
D. Task sharing
E. Both B and D are correct

27. Which of the following is not one of the more common problems associated with scheduling multiproject resources? 
A. Overall schedule slippage
B. Inefficient resource utilization
C. Resource bottlenecks
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

28. In a resource-constrained project the third priority in assigning resources is usually given to activities with the 
A. Smallest duration
B. Least slack
C. Most slack
D. Lowest identification number
E. Highest cost

29. In the Botanical Garden example, which of the following was used to solve the resource problem? 
A. Resource allocation
B. Smoothing resource demand
C. The parallel method
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

30. Project budgets are developed by time-phasing which of the following? 
A. Resource schedules
B. Work packages
C. The network diagram
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

31. A project budget report is showing our project as spending $35,000 against a budgeted amount of $40,000. Which of the following is true? 
A. We are spending less than we should for the project
B. We are doing a good job managing the project
C. We should check to see if all the bills have been paid
D. Both A and B are correct
E. We can’t be sure how the project is going

32. Delaying noncritical activities to lower peak demand and, thus, increase resource utilization is called _______ leveling. 
________________________________________

33. A(n) ________ constraint addresses the sequence in which project activities must occur. 
________________________________________

34. Having one person responsible for performing several activities, all due at the same time, is an example of a(n) ________ constraint. 
________________________________________

35. Trying to renovate a ship compartment that is too small for more than one person is an example of a(n) ________ constraint. 
________________________________________

36. A shortage of programmers to write software is an example of a(n) ________ type of resource constraint. 
________________________________________

37. The shortage of computer chips to produce a circuit board is an example of a(n) ________ type of resource constraint. 
________________________________________

38. If three copiers are needed to produce a final report on time and only two are available, the project is facing a(n) ________ type of resource constraint. 
________________________________________

39. Hector wants to bring on another programmer to work on the project but the company does not have anyone who has the needed skills. Hector’s project is facing a(n) ________ constraint. 
________________________________________

40. In order that the new product is on the shelf for the Christmas buying season, the development of the new product would be classified as a(n) ________ constrained project. 
________________________________________

41. Beth has two engineers assigned to her project and cannot get any more even if it means slipping the due date on her project. She is managing a(n) ________ constrained project. 
________________________________________

42. All leveling techniques delay noncritical activities by using ________ to reduce peak demand. 
________________________________________

43. Scheduling activities in a constrained project typically has ________ as the top heuristic rule. 
________________________________________

44. The ________ is the most widely used approach to apply heuristic rules to scheduling activities in a constrained project. 
________________________________________

45. When using the ________ scheduling technique, the work in an activity is interrupted to work on another activity and is then resumed at a later point in time. 
________________________________________

46. In scheduling resource-constrained projects, _________ are typically used rather than optimum mathematical solutions. 
________________________________________

47. In scheduling terms, ________ constrained means that project duration is fixed and resources are flexible. 
________________________________________

48. In scheduling terms, ________ constrained means that a specific resource is fixed and the duration of the project is flexible. 
________________________________________

49. Start-up and shutdown costs are major considerations when using the ________________ scheduling technique. 
________________________________________

50. To deal with problems related to having several concurrent projects, companies are creating ________ to oversee the scheduling of resources across multiple projects. 
________________________________________

51. Many companies are using ________ from contractors and consultants as a means of dealing with the peaks and valleys of resource allocation among projects. 
________________________________________

52. The ______________ is the most widely used approach to apply heuristics in resource-constrained projects. 
________________________________________

53. The ability to more efficiently manage the ebbs and flows of project work is one of the major driving forces behind ____________ today. 
________________________________________

54. Without a time-phased __________ good project schedule and cost control are impossible. 
________________________________________

55. A project cost baseline is also called __________. 
________________________________________

56. The sequence of (1) pour foundation, (2) build frame, and (3) cover roof is a type of physical constraint. 
True False

57. Too many parallel activities for one individual are an example of a resource constraint. 
True False

58. A project that is not resource-constrained is time-constrained. 
True False

59. Resource leveling is only used on projects which are resource-constrained. 
True False

60. Resource Bottlenecks are one of the three more common problems encountered in managing multiproject resource schedules. 
True False

61. The inability to get more than two earth movers on a construction site at the same time is an example of a physical constraint. 
True False

62. The most obvious and important kind of resource constraint is a lack of materials. 
True False

63. Having too few programmers and too many engineers is an example of a people resource constraint. 
True False

64. If a project needs one earth-mover six months from now and the organization has four such machines, there is no equipment resource constraint. 
True False

65. A lack of readily available engineers is a technical constraint. 
True False

66. All projects are usually either time-constrained or resource-constrained. 
True False

67. To determine if a project is time-constrained or resource-constrained you would consult the project priority matrix. 
True False

68. Scheduling time-constrained projects focuses on the optimal utilization of resources. 
True False

69. All leveling techniques delay noncritical activities by using positive slack to smooth out the resource requirements. 
True False

70. Scheduling time-constrained projects focuses on resource utilization. 
True False

71. Scheduling resource-constrained projects focuses on completing the project as soon as possible under the given constraints. 
True False

72. Heuristics are used in resource-constrained projects to develop the optimal schedule. 
True False

73. The top priority in using heuristics to allocate scare resources is those activities with the smallest duration. 
True False

74. The critical path in a resource-constrained schedule can be a group of disjointed, unconnected activities. 
True False

75. Splitting is a scheduling technique used to get a better schedule or better resource utilization. 
True False

76. Without a time-phased budget good project schedule and cost control are impossible. 
True False

77. Many companies are using outsourcing as a means for dealing with their resource allocation problems associated with managing multiproject resources. 
True False

78. Identify and briefly describe the three types of project constraints.

79. What is the difference in project goals when using resource leveling on time-constrained projects and using it on resource-constrained projects?

80. Identify the potential impacts of project constraints.

81. Identify and give an example of the three types of resource constraints.

82. Identify and briefly describe the two classifications of scheduling problems.

83. What are the disadvantages of resource leveling?

84. Why would a project manager use heuristics rather than a mathematical solution to level resources?

85. What are the three most common heuristics (in order of priority) used to allocate resources to project activities?

86. Describe the parallel method for applying heuristics to the allocation of project resources.

87. Why should project managers be cautious about using the splitting scheduling technique?

88. Identify and briefly discuss the three more common problems encountered in managing multiproject resource schedules.

89. Identify and briefly describe the potential impacts of resource-constrained scheduling.

90. If your project has spent $50,000 versus a budget of $45,000 and it is a week ahead of schedule, is it a certainty that your project is doing well?

ch9
1. The president of a software company remarks in a speech that new technologically advanced software will be available in one year. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by: 
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts

2. Intense global competition and rapid technological advances create pressure on developing projects rapidly. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by: 
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts

3. A contractor finished a bridge across a lake 18 months early and received more than $6 million for the early completion. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by: 
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts

4. Adverse weather, design flaws, and equipment breakdown can create negative slack. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by: 
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts

5. Total project costs include all of the following except: 
A. Supervision
B. Administration
C. Project manager’s salary
D. Interest
E. All of these are included in total project costs

6. Which of the following is not considered a project indirect cost? 
A. Supervision
B. Consultants
C. Equipment
D. Interest
E. All of these are considered project indirect costs

7. Project costs are generally classified as ____ costs. 
A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Overhead
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

8. Low-cost, realistic, efficient methods for completing an activity under normal conditions are supported by ____ time. 
A. Normal
B. Budget
C. Optimized
D. Expected
E. Target

9. The shortest possible time an activity can be completed realistically is called ___ time. 
A. Expedited
B. Accelerated
C. Crash
D. Optimistic
E. Optimal

10. The most common response for meeting unattainable deadlines is to 
A. Reduce or scale back the scope of the project.
B. Decrease the critical paths
C. Crash all elements of the project
D. Change the time to market statement
E. B, and C are correct

11. ____ costs are incurred when completing an activity in its realistically shortest time. 
A. Normal
B. Reserve
C. Crash
D. Accelerated
E. Expedited

12. An activity’s crash costs include ____ costs. 
A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Overhead
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct

13. Cost slope can be determined by dividing the 
A. Run by the rise
B. Rise by the run
C. Crash cost by the normal cost
D. Normal cost by the crash cost
E. Both B and C are correct

14. The less steep the cost slope of an activity, the 
A. Less it costs to shorten one time period
B. More it costs to shorten one time period
C. Smaller the crash time
D. Larger the crash time
E. Cannot be determined by the information given

15. Which of the following correctly calculates an activity’s cost slope? 
A. (normal cost-crash cost)/(normal time-crash time)
B. (crash cost-normal cost)/(normal time-crash time)
C. (normal time-crash time)/(crash cost-normal cost)
D. (normal time-crash time)/(normal cost-crash cost)
E. (crash cost-normal cost)/(crash time-normal time)

16. An activity’s cost slope represents an activity’s 
A. Total cost per unit of time
B. Cost per unit of time
C. Indirect cost per unit of time
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

17. In selecting the best activity to reduce you would first select the activity with the 
A. Earliest start time
B. Steepest slope
C. Least steep slope
D. Longest duration
E. Largest crash time

18. The optimum duration for a project is at the point where: 
A. Direct costs are the lowest
B. Indirect costs are the lowest
C. Direct costs equal indirect costs
D. Total project costs are the lowest
E. The project changes from time-constrained to resource-constrained

19. Creating a Project Cost-Duration graph is useful: 
A. During the pre-project planning phase
B. After the project has begun
C. After the completion of the project
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

20. Crashing a project should occur: 
A. As early as possible
B. As late as possible
C. Midway through the project
D. Both A and C are correct
E. Cannot be determined with the information given

21. If a network has several critical or near-critical paths it is deemed to be: 
A. Well planned
B. The lowest cost alternative
C. Resource-constrained
D. Sensitive
E. Insensitive

22. The project direct-cost line near the normal point is usually: 
A. Sloped steeply
B. Relatively flat
C. Rising
D. Falling
E. Gently sloped

23. The relationship between cost and time for various durations is assumed to be: 
A. Linear
B. Curvilinear
C. Variable
D. Conversely related
E. Exponentially related

24. A common method for shortening the project time is to: 
A. Adding resources
B. Schedule overtime
C. Subcontract an activity
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

25. A positive situation where moving toward the optimum time can result in very real, large savings—this occurs when the network is: 
A. Insensitive
B. Sensitive
C. Ahead of schedule
D. Shifting to the critical chain
E. Implementing a fast-tracking system

26. Which of the following is/are included in a Project Cost-Duration Graph? 
A. Total indirect cost
B. Total direct cost
C. Total project cost
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

27. One way of reducing project costs is identifying tasks that _________ can do themselves. 
A. Vendors
B. Suppliers
C. Customers
D. Company employees
E. Project teams

28. The most common method for shortening project time is to 
A. Subcontract activities
B. Compromise the quality
C. Add additional staff and equipment
D. Work overtime
E. Reduce the project scope

29. Which of the following is not one of the more commonly used options for cutting project costs? 
A. Reduce project scope
B. Have owner take more responsibility
C. Moving the completion date further out
D. Brainstorming cost savings options
E. Outsourcing project activities

30. Which of the following is the most common method for shortening project time? 
A. Assigning additional staff and equipment
B. Subcontract work
C. Schedule overtime
D. Reduce project scope
E. Reduce the quality

31. According to Brooks’ Law, adding more people to a late project is most likely to have which of the following impact? 
A. Keep the project from slipping any further
B. Get the project back on schedule
C. Make the project slips further
D. Both A and B are correct
E. None of these relate to Brooks’ Law

32. Which of the following is the easiest method for shortening project time? 
A. Assigning additional staff and equipment
B. Subcontract work
C. Schedule overtime
D. Reduce project scope
E. Reduce the quality

33. Which of the following is not one of the techniques for accelerating project completion? 
A. Assigning additional staff and equipment
B. Establish a core team
C. Do it twice—fast and correctly
D. Reduce project scope
E. All of these are acceptable techniques

34. When the project team is salaried, which of the following is the preferred choice for accelerating project completion? 
A. Assigning additional staff and equipment
B. Subcontract work
C. Schedule overtime
D. Work longer hours
E. Both C and D are preferred choices

35. The Snapshot from Practice “Cell-Phone Wars” is an excellent example of reducing project duration due to: 
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts

36. When a politician makes a public statement that a new building will be available in two years, a(n) ________ duration has reduced the project duration. 
________________________________________

37. Intense global competition and rapid technological advances combine to create a(n) ________ imposed project duration date. 
________________________________________

38. The Snapshot from Practice which detailed the Northridge earthquake demonstrated the importance of reducing a project’s ______. 
________________________________________

39. Sometimes very high ________ costs are recognized before a project begins and reducing these costs through shorter project durations becomes a high priority. 
________________________________________

40. The ________ project cost is the sum of the indirect and direct costs. 
________________________________________

41. Costs such as supervision, administration, consultants, and interest are examples of ________ project costs. 
________________________________________

42. Costs such as labor, materials, equipment, or contractors are examples of ________ project costs. 
________________________________________

43. Direct costs are assignable directly to a project ________. 
________________________________________

44. Because direct costs are assumed to be developed from normal methods and time, any reduction in activity time should ________ the cost of the activity. 
________________________________________

45. To shorten the duration of a project the project manager should limit the choices of activities to just those which ________. 
________________________________________

46. The ________ time for an activity represents low-costs, realistic, efficient methods for completing the activity under typical conditions. 
________________________________________

47. Shortening an activity is called ________. 
________________________________________

48. The direct costs for completing an activity as early as possible is called its ________. 
________________________________________

49. An activity’s ________ is calculated by dividing the rise by the run. 
________________________________________

50. Subtracting an activity’s normal cost from the crash cost will calculate an activity’s ________. 
________________________________________

51. Subtracting an activity’s crash time from the normal time will calculate an activity’s ________. 
________________________________________

52. When considering whether to move the project to its optimum cost-time position, the manager should also consider ________. 
________________________________________

53. A network is considered to be ________ if it has a predominate critical path with no other path close in terms of slack. 
________________________________________

54. The easiest way to add more resources to a project is not to add more people, but to schedule ________. 
________________________________________

55. According to ________, adding more manpower to a late software project makes it later. 
________________________________________

56. The easiest way to add more labor to a project is not to add more people, but to add ___________. 
________________________________________

57. ____________ is the rearranging of the project network logic so that critical activities are done in parallel rather than sequentially. 
________________________________________

58. ___________ is probably the most common response for meeting unattainable deadlines. 
________________________________________

59. In the “I’ll Bet You…” Snapshot from Practice, the draftsman won ___________ for making a very difficult deadline. 
________________________________________

60. A rule of thumb for moderate- to high-technology firms is that a six-month delay in bringing a product to market can result in a gross profit loss of about 35 percent. 
True False

61. Imposed project durations almost always leads to a higher-cost project than one planned with detailed scheduling of all the project’s activities. 
True False

62. Managers have several effective methods for crashing specific project activities when resources are not constrained. 
True False

63. Indirect costs generally represent overhead costs such as supervision, administration, consultants, and interest. 
True False

64. The total cost for each possible duration of a project is the sum of labor, materials, and equipment. 
True False

65. Direct costs are so named because they can be assigned directly to a work package and activity. 
True False

66. Because direct costs are assumed to be developed from normal methods and time, any reduction in activity time should add to the costs of the activity. 
True False

67. The sum of the costs of all the work packages represents the total direct costs for the project. 
True False

68. Incentive contracts can make reduction of project time rewarding—usually for both the project contractor and owner. 
True False

69. Shortening an activity’s duration is termed crashing. 
True False

70. Expected time for an activity represents low-cost, realistic, efficient methods for completing the activity under anticipated conditions. 
True False

71. Crash cost is the incremental cost incurred when an activity is reduced in duration. 
True False

72. The cost slope of an activity is calculated by dividing the run by the rise. 
True False

73. Crash time is the greatest time reduction possible under realistic conditions. 
True False

74. The higher the slope of an activity the greater the cost to reduce its duration. 
True False

75. Creating a Project Cost-Duration Graph in the pre-project planning phase without an imposed duration is the best time to use this tool. 
True False

76. Crashing a more expensive activity may be wise if fewer inherent risks are involved. 
True False

77. A project network is classified as sensitive if it has a large number of interacting paths. 
True False

78. Collecting crash times for a moderate-size project is relatively easy. 
True False

79. While the relationship between normal and crash times is really curvilinear, the assumption that it is linear is seldom a concern for practicing managers. 
True False

80. The accuracy of crash times and costs is frequently rough at best, when compared with normal time and cost. 
True False

81. One of the advantages of using a Project Cost-Duration Graph is that it keeps the importance of indirect costs in the forefront of decision making. 
True False

82. Identify and briefly describe five reasons for attempting to reduce the duration of a project.

83. Identify and give an example for both of the major categories that make up project costs.

84. Draw a typical Project Cost-Duration Graph and label the key elements.

85. Why is the project duration with the lowest direct costs seldom the optimum duration for a project?

86. Given an equal level of risk and the need to reduce overall project duration, why would you not select the activity with the lowest slope in the entire project network to crash first?

87. What is crashing and include a discussion of crash time and crash cost?

88. How would you calculate an activity’s slope and what does it represent?

89. Given that an activity’s normal time and cost are ten days and $400, and its crash time is five days and $800, what is the activity’s slope?

90. What do we mean when we say that a project network is sensitive and why is that important to a project manager?

91. Identify options for accelerating a project schedule when resources are not constrained.

92. Identify options for accelerating a project schedule when resources are constrained or the budget is severely constrained.

93. What are the benefits to using a Project Cost-Duration Graph to assist in comparing any proposed alternative or change with the current baseline?

94. What is Critical-chain (C-C) project management and why can it be of benefit to project managers?

ch10
1. Project success or failure often depends upon the contributions of all of the following except: 
A. Customers
B. Suppliers
C. Contractors
D. Competitors
E. Top management

2. Project leadership is about coping with: 
A. Formulating plans and objectives
B. Monitoring results against plans
C. Change
D. Taking corrective action when necessary
E. All of these are part of leadership

3. The difference between project management and project leadership is that project management includes: 
A. Recognizing the need to alter direction
B. Aligning people to meet new directions
C. Monitoring results against plans
D. Motivating people to meet new objectives
E. All of these are leadership functions

4. Well-defined projects that encounter no significant surprises require little: 
A. Management
B. Leadership
C. Monitoring
D. Corrective action
E. All of these are only required to a minor extent

5. Which of the following requires more management rather than leadership? 
A. Taking corrective action
B. Changes in project scope
C. Technological stalemates
D. Breakdowns in coordination between people
E. All of these require the same level of management

6. In conducting meetings an effective project manager will take the role of a: 
A. Parliamentarian
B. Master of ceremonies
C. Conductor
D. Cattle herder
E. Teacher

7. Project managers often find themselves negotiating with all the following except: 
A. Vendors
B. Functional managers
C. Consultants
D. Competitors
E. All of these are correct

8. Groups such as human resources, information systems, purchasing agents, and maintenance are typically classified as: 
A. Project managers
B. Administrative support
C. Functional managers
D. Project sponsors
E. Customers

9. The closest relationships in a project network of relationships are with: 
A. Other project managers
B. Project sponsors
C. Top management
D. Customers
E. Project team members

10. The second ring in the network of relationships for project managers includes all of the following except: 
A. Other project managers
B. Customers
C. Functional managers
D. Top management
E. Project sponsors

11. The outer ring in the network of relationships for project managers includes all of the following except: 
A. Other organizations
B. Customers
C. Contractors
D. Government agencies
E. Administrative support

12. The old-fashion view of managing projects emphasized which of the following? 
A. Planning
B. Directing
C. Controlling
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

13. The new perspective of project management emphasizes which of the following? 
A. Financial control
B. Managing project stakeholders
C. Schedule/cost tradeoffs
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

14. Networks are mutually beneficial alliances that are generally governed by the law of: 
A. Supply-demand
B. Brooks’s law
C. Reciprocity
D. A squeaky wheel
E. Risk-reward

15. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, vision, excellence, and ethical correctness are part of ______ related currencies. 
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal

16. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, resources, assistance, cooperation, and information are part of ______ related currencies. 
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal

17. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, acceptance, personal support, and understanding are part of _______ related currencies. 
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal

18. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, advancement, recognition, visibility, and networks are part of ______ related currencies. 
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal

19. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, learning, ownership, and gratitude are part of ______ related currencies. 
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal

20. In mapping dependencies for a project, the project manager should: 
A. Overestimate
B. Underestimate
C. Precisely estimate
D. Either B or C are correct
E. None of these are correct

21. Which of the following is used at Hewlett-Packard for building relationships with key players that will determine a project’s success? 
A. MBO
B. MBA
C. GIGO
D. MBWA
E. PMI

22. In the Snapshot from Practice “Managing Expectations”, one of the key aspects to project success was stated to be the managing of stakeholder: 
A. Relations
B. Expectations
C. Involvement
D. Influence
E. Input

23. In the Research Highlight, Ancona and Caldwell identified key patterns of activity which contribute to creating a high performance team. Which of the following is not one of those? 
A. Negotiator
B. Ambassador
C. Task coordinator
D. Scouts
E. Guard

24. Which of the following is not one of the aspects of leading by example? 
A. Priorities
B. Ethics
C. Urgency
D. Cooperation
E. Power

25. The traits of successful project managers include all of the following except: 
A. Pessimist
B. Proactive
C. Skillful politician
D. Effective time management
E. Personal integrity

26. Unlike project leadership, project management is about coping with: 
A. Change
B. Aligning people to any new directions
C. Monitoring results against plans
D. Recognizing the need to alter plans
E. All of these are part of project management

27. In a survey of project managers, approximately what percentage reported that they encountered ethical issues in their work? 
A. 22 percent
B. 40 percent
C. 65 percent
D. 81 percent
E. 100 percent

28. The key to exercising influence is: 
A. To make few mistakes
B. To build trust
C. To build a network of top level people
D. To understand the political connections within the organization
E. To make friends with everyone

29. Which of the following is not one of the distinguishing traits of character? 
A. Openness
B. Consistency
C. Empathetic
D. Sense of purpose
E. Hard work

30. Which of the following would be defined as the ability or skill to perceive, assess and manage the emotions of one ‘s self and others? 
A. Emotional stability
B. Coolness under pressure
C. Emotional intelligence
D. Empathy
E. Management sensitivity

31. Management is about coping with complexity; ________ is about coping with change. 
________________________________________

32. A popular metaphor for the role of a project manager is that of ________. 
________________________________________

33. ________ naturally compete with each other for resources and the support of top management. 
________________________________________

34. ________ champion the project and uses their influence to gain approval of the project. 
________________________________________

35. ________ define the scope of the project, and ultimate project success rests in their satisfaction. 
________________________________________

36. Networks are mutually beneficial alliances that are generally governed by the law of ________. 
________________________________________

37. In the organizational currency of _______ related influence comes directly from the project manager’s ability to contribute to others accomplishing their work. 
________________________________________

38. In the organizational currency of _______ related influence comes directly from the project manager’s ability to enhance others’ positions within the organization. 
________________________________________

39. Perhaps the most powerful form of organization currency is based upon ________. 
________________________________________

40. The essence of the ________ related form of organization currency is forming a relationship that transcends normal professional boundaries and extends into the realm of friendship. 
________________________________________

41. The ______ related form of organization currency deals with individual needs and an overriding sense of self-esteem. 
________________________________________

42. In building a social network it is always better to ________ the dependencies on which the success of a project is based. 
________________________________________

43. In the ________ style of management, managers spend the majority of their time outside their offices. 
________________________________________

44. All stakeholders have ________ about the schedule, cost, and project benefits that the project manager needs to listen for, understand, and manage. 
________________________________________

45. Research consistently points out that project success is strongly affected by the degree to which a project has the support of ______. 
________________________________________

46. The Ancona and Caldwell research identified ________ activities as aimed at representing the team to others and protecting the team from interference. 
________________________________________

47. The Ancon and Caldwell research identified ________ activities as those where the manager goes out from the team to bring back information about what else is going on in the organization. 
________________________________________

48. In the ________ management style, the project manager’s behavior symbolizes how other people should work on the project. 
________________________________________

49. In a survey of project managers, 81 percent reported that they encounter ________ issues in their work. 
________________________________________

50. Successful project managers not only need to be influential, they also need to exercise influence in a manner that builds and sustains the ________ of others. 
________________________________________

51. We must have confidence in the ____________ of individuals before we really trust them. 
________________________________________

52. Project managers have to see _________________ and how their project fits within the larger strategy of their firm. 
________________________________________

53. The ability or skill to perceive, assess and manage the emotions of one ‘s self and others is called ____________. 
________________________________________

54. Strong leadership, while usually desirable, is not always necessary to successfully. 
True False

55. The higher the degree of uncertainty encountered on a project, the more management is required. 
True False

56. A popular metaphor for the role of a project manager is that of a sports coach. 
True False

57. Successful project managers tend to adopt a hands-on approach to managing projects. 
True False

58. One of the things that distinguish project management from regular management is the sheer breadth and complexity of the relationships that need to be managed. 
True False

59. In some projects contractors may do all the work with the project team merely coordinating their contributions. 
True False

60. One advantage of creating a dedicated project team is that it reduces dependencies, especially within the organization. 
True False

61. A successful project manager must build a cooperative, mutually beneficial network based on the age-old maxim: “Quid pro quo.” 
True False

62. Relationship-related currencies include: resources, cooperation, assistance, and information. 
Refer to Table 10.1 
True False

63. Position-related currencies include: vision, excellence, and ethical correctness. 
Refer to Table 10.1 
True False

64. Personal-related currencies include: challenge/learning, ownership/involvement, and gratitude. 
Refer to Table 10.1 
True False

65. Position-related currencies include: advancement, recognition, visibility, and network/contacts. 
Refer to Table 10.1 
True False

66. The first step to building a social network is identifying those on whom the project depends for success. 
True False

67. Many poor-performing project managers are guilty of management by wandering around. 
True False

68. Good time management for project managers includes initiating contact with key stakeholders only when there is a valid issue to deal with. 
True False

69. “Guard” activities, as defined by Ancona and Caldwell, are aimed at representing the project team to others and protecting the team from interference. 
Refer to Research Highlight Page 352 
True False

70. “Ambassador” activities, as defined by Ancona and Caldwell, are aimed at going out from the team to bring back information about what is going on elsewhere in the organization. 
Refer to Research Highlight on page 352 
True False

71. When giving a status report to superiors, project managers must present the most positive image possible including, if necessary, stretching the truth. 
True False

72. To be effective, project managers must “walk the talk”, i.e.; lead by example. 
True False

73. In a survey of project managers, more than 81 percent reported that they encounter ethical issues in their work. 
True False

74. Character alone will engender trust. 
True False

75. One problem new project managers experience is that it takes time to establish a sense of character and competency. 
True False

76. The ability or skill to perceive, assess and manage the emotions of one ‘s self and others is known as emotional intelligence. 
Refer to Research Highlight on page 361 
True False

77. “Managing a project and leading a project is essentially the same thing.” Agree or disagree and support your conclusion.

78. “Strong leadership is not always necessary to successfully complete a project.” Agree or disagree and support your conclusion.

79. Identify at least five of the typical group dependencies that project managers must manage.

80. Identify and briefly describe the five commonly traded organizational currencies.

81. What is “management by wandering around” and why would it be useful to project managers?

82. Identify and briefly describe the four patterns of activity identified by Ancona and Caldwell which lead to creating a high performance team.

83. Identify five of the six aspects of leading by example.

84. Identify and briefly discuss the key to exercising influence within an organization.

85. Identify five of the six contradictions that an effective project manger must face.

86. Identify five of the eight traits associated with being a successful project manager.

87. Identify and compare and contrast The old-fashioned view of managing projects and the new perspective of managing projects.

88. “All the eight traits of being a good project manager can be trained.” Agree or Disagree and support your conclusion.

ch11
1. The essence of positive synergy can be found in the phrase: 
A. Front of ship sink—back of ship sink
B. There is no “I” in team
C. Two heads are better than one
D. The whole is greater than the sum of the parts
E. If it doesn’t kill you, it makes you stronger

2. Which of the following is commonly associated with high-performing project teams? 
A. Risk taking is controlled and not allowed to jeopardize the overall project
B. Roles and specific responsibilities are well-defined
C. A degree of competition among team members is encouraged
D. Mistakes are viewed as opportunities for learning
E. All of these are associated with high-performing teams

3. During which stage of team development do members accept that they are part of a project group but resist the constraints that the project and the group put on their individuality? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

4. During which stage of team development do close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

5. During which stage of team development is the team fully functional and accepted? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

6. During which stage of team development is high performance not a top priority and team member emotions run from upbeat to depressed? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

7. During which stage of team development do team members try to find out what behaviors are acceptable and what performance expectations are? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

8. Sam is the coach of a high school soccer team and has noticed that some close relationships have formed as well as feelings of camaraderie and shared responsibilities for the team’s success. Which stage of development is the team in? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

9. Roger is new-product project manager for a retail company. Recently the team has exhibited a high degree of conflict over who will control the group and how decisions will be made. Which stage of development is the team in? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

10. Tom is managing a project team responsible for erecting a new office building. He notices that team members are trying out different behaviors to see what is acceptable to the project and personal relations. Which stage of development is the team in? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

11. Experience and research indicate that high-performance project teams are much more likely to develop under all the following conditions except: 
A. Members are assigned to the project full time
B. Members report solely to the project manager
C. There are 10 or fewer members per team
D. Team members are selected by their managers
E. The project involves a compelling objective

12. In which of the following theories does the project group transition from a lower level to a higher level of performance about halfway through the project? 
A. Nominal Group Technique
B. Five Stage Team Development Model
C. Punctuated Equilibrium Model of Group Development
D. Dysfunctional Transition Model
E. Synergistic Transition Development Model

13. Which of the following are considered very important in the recruiting of project members? 
A. The budget available
B. The importance of the project
C. The management structure for the project team
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

14. Which of the following is not one of the considerations that need to be factored into the project team recruitment process? 
A. Political connections
B. Problem-solving ability
C. Ambition, initiative, and energy
D. High degree of technological expertise
E. Availability

15. Which of the following is an objective of the first project team meeting? 
A. Overview the project’s scope and objectives
B. Address interpersonal interaction concerns
C. Model how the team will work together
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

16. Which of the following is not one of the major issues that successful project managers must address in the early stages of a project? 
A. Relationship Decisions
B. Managing Change Decisions
C. Tracking Decisions
D. Planning Decisions
E. All of these need to be addressed

17. Researchers have found that high performance teams will have which of the following norms? 
A. Hard work does not get in the way of having fun
B. No information is shared outside the team unless all agree to it
C. It is acceptable to be in trouble, but not to surprise others
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

18. All of the following have been found to be good for running effective project meetings except: 
A. Start meetings on time regardless of whether everyone is present
B. Identify an adjournment time
C. Thoroughly document all decisions
D. Prepare and distribute an agenda prior to the meeting
E. All of these are good for effective meetings

19. Establishing a team identity is facilitated by: 
A. Team members working in a common space
B. Creation of a project team name
C. Effective use of meetings
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

20. The essential qualities of an effective vision include all of the following except: 
A. All team members have the same vision
B. The vision should be communicated to all
C. The vision has to make strategic sense
D. There should be a passion for the vision
E. The vision should be a source of inspiration to others

21. Which of the following would be considered the most effective project reward? 
A. Individual member rewards
B. Lump-sum cash award
C. All-expenses-paid trip for team members and their families
D. Using negative reinforcement to motivate adequate performance
E. All of these are equally effective

22. Individual rewards for outstanding work would not include: 
A. Letters of commendation
B. Public recognition
C. Desirable job assignments
D. Making exceptions to the rules
E. All of these can be used for individual rewards

23. The first step in facilitating group decision making is to: 
A. Call a meeting to discuss the problem
B. Identify the problem
C. Agree that there is a problem
D. Quantify the problem
E. Generate alternatives

24. Strategies to manage dysfunctional conflict do not include _____ the conflict. 
A. Control
B. Arbitrate
C. Mediate
D. Accept
E. Encourage

25. The biggest challenge to managing a virtual project team is: 
A. Getting reports and technical information communicated
B. Developing trust
C. Establishing effective patterns of communication
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

26. Which of the following is not one of the steps in facilitating group decision making? 
A. Identifying the problem
B. Analyzing the situation
C. Generating alternatives
D. Reaching a decision
E. Follow-up

27. During the delivery phase of a project’s life cycle, the most significant source of conflict is: 
A. Schedules
B. Priorities
C. Technical
D. Procedures
E. Costs

28. Two of the biggest challenges involved in managing a virtual project team are: 
A. The language barriers and time management
B. Time management and developing trust
C. The language barriers and developing effective patterns of communication
D. Developing trust and effective patterns of communication
E. Time management and developing effective patterns of communication

29. Symptoms of groupthink include: 
A. The team thinking it is invincible
B. Opinions of those outside the team are considered to be irrelevant
C. Critical thinking disappears
D. Pressure is applied to any dissenter
E. All of these are symptoms of groupthink

30. Which of the following are ways to improve the performance of low-priority projects? 
A. Creating a large time investment in the form of a lengthy meeting
B. Interject as much fun as possible into the project
C. Make the benefits of the project as real as possible to the team members
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

31. Which of the following is not one of the most significant sources of conflict during the project definition phase? 
A. Priorities
B. Administrative procedures
C. Schedule
D. Workforce
E. Costs

32. Which of the following is not one of the most significant sources of conflict during the project planning phase? 
A. Priorities
B. Procedures
C. Schedule
D. Technical requirements
E. Costs

33. Which of the following is not one of the most significant sources of conflict during the project execution phase? 
A. Priorities
B. Staff issues
C. Schedule slippage
D. Technical problems
E. All of these are significant sources of conflict

34. Which of the following is not one of the tips for alleviating communication problems of virtual teams? 
A. Include face-to-face time if at all possible
B. Keep team members informed on how well the overall project is going
C. Share the pain
D. Establish clear norms and protocols for surfacing assumptions and conflicts
E. Establish a code of conduct to avoid delays

35. ________ occurs when the whole is less than the sum of its parts. 
________________________________________

36. During the ________ stage of group development, there is conflict over who will control the group and how decisions will be made. 
________________________________________

37. During the ________ stage of group development, the members try to find out what behaviors are acceptable to the team and individual team members. 
________________________________________

38. During the ________ stage of group development, the team prepares for its own disbandment. 
________________________________________

39. During the ________ stage of group development, close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness. 
________________________________________

40. During the ________ stage of group development, the team is fully functional and working together to accomplishing the project goals. 
________________________________________

41. The ________ suggests that about midway through a project the team transitions into a different behavior pattern more focused on the successful completion of the project. 
________________________________________

42. Experienced project managers stress the importance of ________ rather than appointing team members. 
________________________________________

43. Too often when constrained by time, project managers try to accomplish too much during the first meeting, rather than use the ________ principle and not create information overload. 
________________________________________

44. _______ are often considered anathema to productivity, yet they are critical to the success of any project. 
________________________________________

45. Symbolic actions at the project level can contribute to a unique team subculture are called ________. 
________________________________________

46. In the Snapshot from Practice involving the Tallahassee Democrat newspaper, the key turning point was the handling of an advertisement, eventually known as the ________ that had been sent to the newspaper over a fax machine. 
________________________________________

47. The development of _________________ is a common device for making a team more tangible. 
________________________________________

48. Expressing the design concept of a new car as a “pocket rocket” (a sports car in the mid-price range) is an example of a simplified ________. 
________________________________________

49. Project managers are responsible for managing the ________ that encourage team performance and extra effort. 
________________________________________

50. The use of 6:30 A.M. meetings to get a project back on schedule is an example of ______ reinforcement to motivate project performance. 
________________________________________

51. ________ should be used when strong commitment to a decision is needed and there is a low probability of acceptance if the decision were to be made by one person. 
________________________________________

52. When the manager intervenes and tries to negotiate a resolution by using reasoning and persuasion, suggesting alternatives and the like the Project Manager is trying to ___________. 
________________________________________

53. In the ________ approach to managing conflict, the manager imposes a solution to the conflict after listening to each party. 
________________________________________

54. In a ________ project team the members are geographically situated so that they may seldom meet face-to-face as a team. 
________________________________________

55. ___________ refers to whether a team has direct influence over the problem that needs to be resolved. 
________________________________________

56. When a project team gets things done without having to go through normal protocols of the parent organization, it may fall into the ____________. 
________________________________________

57. Project managers should encourage ___________ conflict. 
________________________________________

58. Project managers should manage ___________ conflict. 
________________________________________

59. In order to match technology to the communication need, 3M developed guidelines to be used on __________ projects. 
________________________________________

60. Synergy can be both negative as well as positive. 
True False

61. There is a high degree of internal conflict in the forming stage of team development. 
True False

62. The storming stage of team development is completed once members begin to think of themselves as part of a group. 
True False

63. The performing stage of team development is characterized by the development of close relationships and group cohesiveness. 
True False

64. The norming stage of team development is complete when the group establishes a common set of expectations about how members should work together. 
True False

65. Regardless of the type of work group, the adjourning stage of team development is the final stage. 
True False

66. The Punctuated Equilibrium Model of group development has only two phases with a single transition joining them. 
True False

67. A project manager should always look for people with good problem-solving ability. 
True False

68. A project manager should be wary of people who know too much about a specific technology. 
True False

69. Co-location of team members, team names, and team rituals are common vehicles for establishing a team identity. 
True False

70. A project vision is an image a project team holds in common about how the project will look upon completion, how they will work together, and how customers will accept the project. 
True False

71. Everyone on the project team should have the same vision of the project. 
True False

72. Most project managers advocate the use of group rewards rather than individual rewards. 
True False

73. Lump-sum cash bonuses are the preferred group reward for project teams. 
True False

74. Letters of commendation, public recognition for outstanding work, and desirable job assignments are the preferred types of individual rewards. 
True False

75. Group decision making should be used when strong commitment to the decision is needed and there is a low probability of acceptance if only one person makes the decision. 
True False

76. A project manager should identify a problem in terms of its alternate solutions so that team members can more easily reach a decision on how to solve the problem. 
True False

77. Team members can be upset and dissatisfied with conflict, but as long as the disagreement furthers the objectives of the project, then the conflict is functional. 
True False

78. A project manager arbitrates conflict by intervening and attempting to negotiate a resolution by using reasoning and persuasion, suggesting alternatives and the like. 
True False

79. Groupthink refers to the tendency of members in highly cohesive groups to lose their critical evaluative capabilities resulting in quick decision making with little consideration of alternatives. 
True False

80. Two of the biggest challenges involved in managing a virtual project team are developing trust and effective patterns of communication. 
True False

81. “Going native” is the ability that some project teams have to bypass the normal policies and procedures that everyone in the organization is supposed to follow. 
True False

82. In order to match technology to the communication need, IBM developed a set of guidelines to be used on their virtual projects. 
True False

83. Identify the four major areas for establishing ground rules on how the project team will operate.

84. Identify and briefly discuss the four elements to establishing a team identity.

85. Identify the four requirements for an effective project vision.

86. Identify and briefly discuss the four types of individual rewards recommended for project team members.

87. Identify and briefly discuss the four major steps in facilitating the group decision making process.

88. What is functional conflict and why should it be encouraged?

89. Identify the five strategies to manage conflict.

90. What is a virtual project team?

91. What is meant by the term groupthink and identify four symptoms?

92. From the perspective of project management, what does the term going native reference?

93. What is the bureaucratic bypass syndrome and why is it to be avoided?

94. Identify and briefly describe the four common pitfalls that project teams may be subjected to.

ch12
1. Contracting project work has long been the norm in the _______ industry. 
A. Telecommunications
B. Financial
C. Insurance
D. Construction
E. Retail

2. The process for the transferring of business functions or processes to other, often foreign, companies has traditionally been known as: 
A. Subcontracting
B. Downsizing
C. Partnering
D. Joint venture
E. Outsourcing

3. When you call your Internet provider to solve a technical problem and you end up talking to a technician in India or Romania, you have just experienced: 
A. Telecommunications
B. Partnering
C. Outsourcing
D. Service shift
E. Bilingual customer service

4. Which of the following is not a potential part of the outsourcing concept? 
A. Computers
B. Faxes
C. Computer-aided design systems
D. Video teleconferencing
E. All the above are correct

5. Advantages of outsourcing project work may likely include all of the following except 
A. Shortened project completion
B. Reduced costs
C. Higher level of expertise
D. Reduced conflict
E. Increased flexibility

6. Disadvantages of outsourcing project work may likely include all of the following except 
A. Increased conflict
B. Coordination breakdowns
C. Increased costs
D. Loss of control
E. More internal morale issues

7. The driving motive for increasing the use of outsourcing on projects was: 
A. Reducing the trade deficit
B. Reducing costs
C. Improving international sales
D. Making products more international in design
E. Securing technology that was not available domestically

8. Recent outsourcing trends have shown an increasing emphasis on the suppliers for all of the following except: 
A. Further cost reductions
B. Increased quality of work performed
C. Increased ability to collaborate
D. Increased ability to work together
E. All of these are recent trends

9. Key practices in partnering relationships include: 
A. Single project contracting
B. Goals and objectives are similar
C. Access to each other’s organizational resources
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

10. In the “Competing against the Giants” Snapshot from Practice, SATT Control uses which of the following to successfully compete against much larger competitors? 
A. Excellent project management
B. Acts as a system integrator
C. Using the same subsystem vendors again and again
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

11. Which of the following is not a key to successful partnering relationships? 
A. Mutual trust
B. Jointly shared risk
C. Total company involvement
D. Independent project teams
E. Long-term commitment

12. Which of the following is part of the traditional project process? 
A. Structured communications
B. Long-term commitment
C. Total company involvement
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

13. The traditional project process includes all of the following except: 
A. Independent project teams
B. Shared goals and objectives
C. Single project teams
D. Risk is transferred to the other party
E. Limited objectivity

14. Which of the following did the state of Ohio do before starting a bond-financed school construction project? 
A. Create a specific RFP (request for proposal)
B. Have a dress rehearsal
C. Reviews the performance of contractors on past projects
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

15. Best practices in outsourcing project work include all the following except: 
A. Well defined requirements and procedures
B. Training and teambuilding activities
C. Well established conflict management processes
D. Frequent reviews and status updates
E. All of these are best practices

16. In the Snapshot from Practice “Strategies for Communicating with Outsourcers,” which of the following was not one of the suggested strategies? 
A. Recognize cultural differences
B. Use a translator to make sure everyone understands
C. Choose the right words
D. Confirm your requirements
E. Set deadlines

17. To make sure that an outsourcer thoroughly understands your requirements you should: 
A. Document your conversations in writing
B. Insist that the outsourcer write the requirements in their own words
C. Request they build a prototype
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

18. The result of teambuilding among the project’s participants is a: 
A. Signed contract
B. Legal partnership agreement
C. Project plan
D. Partnering charter
E. Responsibility matrix

19. To avoid problems with schedules and deadlines you should: 
A. Develop detailed schedules
B. Hold frequent status reviews
C. Add a penalty clause to the contract
D. Hold frequent conversations with the outsourcer
E. Build extra time into the schedules that the outsourcer is not aware of

20. Among the many advantages for establishing long-term partnerships are: 
A. Reduced administrative costs
B. Improved performance
C. Improved communication
D. B and C are both correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

21. Long-term partnerships will provide all the following except: 
A. Improved communication
B. More efficient utilization of resources
C. Reduced need for total number of partnerships
D. Lower administrative costs
E. Improved innovation

22. Teambuilding between partners should: 
A. Include engineers, architects, lawyers, specialists and other staff
B. Be facilitated by an outside consultant
C. Not take more than one day
D. A and B are both correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

23. Which of the following would be included in best practices in outsourcing project work? 
A. Establishing long-term relationships
B. Include financial incentives
C. Reduce costs by using tried and true methods
D. A and B are both correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

24. In the Snapshot from Practice dealing with the Value Engineering Awards program, which branch of the U.S. government was involved? 
A. Department of Defense
B. Department of Commerce
C. Department of Transportation
D. N.A.S.A
E. Department of Education

25. Which of the following is not one of the key points of principled negotiation? 
A. Use objective criteria when possible
B. Be honest and forthright
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Separate the people from the problem
E. Invent options for mutual gain

26. Customer satisfaction can be quantitified by: 
A. Perceived performance divided by actual performance
B. Actual performance divided by expected performance
C. Perceived performance divided by expected performance
D. Actual performance divided by perceived performance
E. Expected performance divided by actual performance

27. Which of the following is a part of the noncompetitive view of negotiation? 
A. Reaching an agreement
B. Implementation phase
C. Review of the completed project
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

28. Which of the following is suggested as the best target for a customer satisfaction ratio? 
A. 1.00
B. 1.05
C. 1.10
D. 1.20
E. 1.50

29. In the research highlight on IT project managers, which of the following was not one of the roles taken by project managers? 
A. Entrepreneur
B. Politician
C. Friend
D. Marketer
E. Auditor

30. Regarding customer relations, advice passed on by veteran project managers includes: 
A. Speak with one voice
B. Speak in precise terms
C. Speak the language of the customer
D. Both A and B are correct
E. Both A and C are correct

31. Which of the following is not one of the elements of good negotiation? 
A. Be hard on the problem, soft on the people
B. Conflict on a project can be good
C. Negotiation is not a contest
D. Seek first to understand, then to be understood
E. All of these are elements of good negotiation

32. Which of the following is reflected in the saying “Let anger fly out the window”? 
A. Separate people from the problem
B. Be honest
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Invent options for mutual gain
E. When possible, use objective criteria

33. Which of the following is reflected in the saying “Seek first to understand, then to be understood”? 
A. Separate people from the problem
B. Be honest
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Invent options for mutual gain
E. When possible, use objective criteria

34. The dovetailing technique is used in which of the following keys to good negotiation? 
A. Separate people from the problem
B. Be honest
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Invent options for mutual gain
E. When possible, use objective criteria

35. Contracting project work has long been the norm in the __________ industry. 
________________________________________

36. The __________ project, which created a transportation tunnel between France and England, involved more than 250 organizations. 
________________________________________

37. In a partnering relationship, ________ is shared jointly among the partners, which encourages innovation and continuous improvement. 
________________________________________

38. In a partnering relationship, ________ forms the basis for strong working relationships. 
________________________________________

39. In traditional project relationships, ________ is limited due to fear of reprisal and lack of continuous improvement opportunity. 
________________________________________

40. In traditional project relationships, ________ are structured and guarded. 
________________________________________

41. In Ohio before starting a bond-financed ____________, projects management consultants and the related parties get together to figure out how to talk to each others and how to handle problems. 
________________________________________

42. The term __________ has traditionally been applied to the transferring of business functions or processes to other, often foreign, companies. 
________________________________________

43. Many outsourced projects operate in a _________ environment in which people are linked by computers, faxes, computer-aided design systems, and video teleconferencing. 
________________________________________

44. __________ is a major advantage of outsourcing project work because companies can secure competitive prices for contracted services, especially if the work can be outsourced offshore. 
________________________________________

45. Not only can contracted project work be cheaper, it can also be done __________. 
________________________________________

46. High levels of __________ and technology can be brought to bear on a project by using contracted services. 
________________________________________

47. Contracting project services can increase a firm’s _________ by no longer being constrained by their own resources. 
________________________________________

48. Breakdowns in __________ of professionals from different organizations can occur if the project work requires close collaboration and mutual adjustment. 
________________________________________

49. In the Snapshot from Practice involving SATT Control, a Swedish electronics firm, the company referred to one of its competencies as being a ________ who subcontracts the subsystems to other firms. 
________________________________________

50. There is a potential loss of __________ over a project when the core team depends on other organizations that they do not have direct authority over. 
________________________________________

51. Projects are more prone to interpersonal _________ because the different participants do not share the same values, priorities, and culture. 
________________________________________

52. There is little disagreement that __________ was the primary motive behind outsourcing project work. 
________________________________________

53. Fisher and Ury champion the ________ approach to negotiation because it emphasizes win/win solutions while protecting yourself against those who would take advantage of your forthrightness. 
________________________________________

54. ________ satisfaction is measured by the ratio of perceived performance to expected performance. 
________________________________________

55. The best defense against unreasonable, win/lose negotiators is having what Fisher and Ury call a strong __________. 
________________________________________

56. As part of an effort to cut costs the United States Department of Defense issues annual __________. 
________________________________________

57. “Let anger fly out of the window” is an example of the ___________ key point of negotiation. 
________________________________________

58. Explaining why a critical task must be done by a specific time is an example of the ___________ key point of negotiation. 
________________________________________

59. Dividing perceived performance by expected performance will calculate __________. 
________________________________________

60. Toyota and Daimen-Chrysler collaborating with suppliers to develop new automobile platforms is an example of outsourcing. 
True False

61. Participants from different organizations working close together at the construction site or in shared office space is an example of a virtual team. 
True False

62. Working in outsourcing teams, projects can be completed faster and more cheaply. 
True False

63. Increased conflict and loss of coordination are typical disadvantages of outsourcing project work. 
True False

64. Trust can be difficult to forge when interactions are limited and people come from different organizations. 
True False

65. In partnering, access to each other’s organization resources is available. 
True False

66. In the traditional method of managing projects, total company involvement requires commitment from CEO to team members. 
True False

67. In partnering, each party’s goals and objectives are similar but geared to what is best for them. 
True False

68. As part of an effort to cut costs, the United States Department of Defense issues annual Value Engineering Awards. 
True False

69. In some countries, laws are considered to be guidelines that are not necessarily followed. 
True False

70. For people in some countries, a written, signed contract is merely a suggestion. 
True False

71. Because English is the language of business, it is not necessary to speak in a direct manner using short sentences made of basic, simple words as this may taken as an insult. 
True False

72. All conversations with outsourcers should be followed up with commitments documented in writing since they are likely to understand written English better than spoken English. 
True False

73. Experience indicates that co-location of project teams is not worth the extra costs. 
True False

74. A partnering charter states the common goals for the project as well as the procedures that will be used to achieve these goals. 
True False

75. It is a good idea to add a penalty clause to an outsourcing agreement because deadlines are often taken as a suggestion rather than a commitment. 
True False

76. A prime consideration in choosing outsourcing vendors is to assess the fit with their project management system. 
True False

77. Team-building workshops with outsourcing vendors is usually led by an outside consultant who is an expert in designing and facilitating such workshops. 
True False

78. In project negotiation each negotiator is out to win as much as he or she can for their side. 
True False

79. Principled Negotiation emphasizes developing win/win solutions while protecting yourself against those who would take advantage of your forthrightness. 
True False

80. By keeping the focus on the issues and not the personalities, negotiators are better able to let the other person blow off steam. 
True False

81. The best defense against unreasonable, win/lose negotiators is having what Fisher and Ury call a strong BATNA. 
True False

82. A value of 1.5 is the accepted target for the Met-Expectations model of customer satisfaction. 
True False

83. What is partnering and why has it become popular for managing projects?

84. Identify the four advantages to outsourcing project work.

85. Discuss how key practices in partnering relationships vary with those in traditional practice for 1. working relationships, 2. goals, and 3. communications.

86. Discuss how key practices in partnering relationships vary with those in traditional practice for 1. risk, 2. length of commitment, and 3. structure of project teams.

87. Identify the four strategies offered by Dr. Adam Kolawa for overcoming poor communication with outsourcers.

88. Identify the three steps you should take to confirm that the outsourcer thoroughly understands your requirements.

89. “Team-building is nice to have for a project, but we really need to concentrate on the planning and technical challenges—that is the make-or-break point for this project.” Agree or disagree? Support your answer.

90. What is principled negotiation and what are the four key points it is based upon?

91. What is negotiation jujitsu?

92. Describe the Met-Expectations Model of Customer Satisfaction including the formula to calculate it.

93. In the research highlight on IT project managers, different roles that are critical to the success of the project manager were discussed. Identify each of the five roles and briefly discuss them.

94. In terms of Fisher and Ury’s approach to negotiation, what is a BATNA and why is it important?

ch13
1. A project monitoring system involves all of the following except: 
A. Determining what date to collect
B. Determining how, when, and who will collect the data
C. Adjusting the data
D. Analysis of the data
E. Reporting current progress

2. Adequate project controls have the advantage(s) of: 
A. Holding people accountable
B. Prevents small problems from getting large
C. Keeping focus
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

3. A typical project progress report would contain all of the following sections except: 
A. Progress since last report
B. Problems and issues since last report
C. Current status of project
D. Corrective action planned
E. All of these are typical sections

4. The first step in the project control process of the measurement and evaluation of project performance is to 
A. Set a baseline plan
B. Determine the project objectives
C. Determine the project deliverables
D. Analyze the project budget
E. Review the project priority matrix

5. The second step in the project control process of the measurement and evaluation of project performance is to: 
A. Review the baseline plan with top management
B. Analyze inputs to control system
C. Compare plan against actual
D. Measure progress and performance
E. Review spending with team members

6. The third step in the project control process of the measurement and evaluation of project performance is to: 
A. Review the baseline plan with top management
B. Analyze inputs to the control system
C. Compare the plan against actual performance
D. Measure both progress and performance
E. Review spending with team members

7. The last step in the project control process of the measurement and evaluation of project performance is to: 
A. Take appropriate action
B. Prepare a report to top management
C. Follow up on corrective action
D. Measure progress and performance
E. Review spending with team members

8. In monitoring project time (schedule) performance actual performance should be compared to: 
A. Budgets for the current year
B. Top management’s targets
C. Project network schedule derived from the WBS/OBS
D. Progress on similar past projects
E. Previous status reports

9. A typical tool used to communicate project status is a: 
A. Project network diagram
B. Gantt Chart
C. A PERT chart
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

10. A tool used to monitor past project schedule performance, current performance, and to estimate future schedule trends is a simple line chart known as a: 
A. Project schedule control chart
B. Gantt chart
C. PERT chart
D. Network diagram
E. Milestone chart

11. An Earned Value System used to monitor project progress includes comparison of 
A. Actual costs versus budget
B. Schedule progress versus plan
C. Quality progress versus plan
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

12. The earned value of a project is the: 
A. Project cost to date adjusted for project scope changes
B. Total project cost to date
C. Cost incurred minus the planned cost
D. Percent of the original budget that has been earned by actual work
E. None of these are correct

13. The cost variance for a project is calculated by: 
A. EV-AC
B. AC-SV
C. PV-EV
D. CU-EV
E. EU-PV

14. The schedule variance for a project is calculated by: 
A. EV-AC
B. AC-SV
C. PV-EV
D. CU-EV
E. EV-PV

15. Baseline project budgets are derived from: 
A. The organization’s overall budget
B. Time-phasing the work packages
C. Top management directions
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

16. Of the following costs, which are not included in baseline? 
A. Materials
B. Equipment
C. Labor
D. A and C but not B
E. All of these are usually included

17. The method most frequently used in measuring project progress is the 
A. 0/100 percent rule
B. 75/25 percent rule
C. 50/50 percent rule
D. 25/75 percent rule
E. Percent complete rule

18. Generally the method for measuring accomplishments centers on comparing 
A. Earned value with the expected schedule value
B. Earned value with the actual costs
C. Actual costs with budgeted costs
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

19. Which of the following are required to assess the current status of a project using the earned-value cost/schedule system? 
A. BAC, EAC, and ETC
B. VAC, EAC, and BAC
C. CV, SU, and BAC
D. PV, EV, and AC
E. TCPI, EV, and PV

20. Which of the following methods of variance analysis is the best indicator of how far off the budget a project will be at completion? 
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. VAC
E. TCPI

21. Which of the following methods will measure the cost efficiency of the work accomplished to date? 
A. SV/CV
B. EV/PV
C. EV/AC
D. AC/SV
E. AC/CV

22. Which of the following methods will measure the scheduling efficiency of the work accomplished to date? 
A. SV/CV
B. EV/PV
C. EV/AC
D. AC/SV
E. AC/CV

23. An index value less than one indicates that the project is 
A. Under cost or behind schedule
B. Over cost or ahead of schedule
C. Under cost or ahead of schedule
D. Over cost or behind schedule
E. On cost or on schedule

24. Scope creep affects: 
A. The organization
B. The project team
C. The project suppliers
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

25. Small refinements that eventually build to be major changes are known as: 
A. Project erosion
B. Scope creep
C. Specification adjustments
D. Specification refinements
E. Continuous improvements

26. The percent complete index that looks at percent complete in terms of budgeted amounts is calculated by which of the following? 
A. EV/BAC
B. (EV-PV)/BAC
C. AC/EAC
D. (EV-AC)/BAC
E. (EV-PV)/EAC

27. The percent complete index that looks at percent complete in terms of actual amounts is calculated by which of the following? 
A. EV/BAC
B. (EV-PV)/BAC
C. AC/EAC
D. (EV-AC)/BAC
E. (EV-PV)/EAC

28. Which of the following will calculate the estimated cost to complete the project? 
A. (VAC-EV)/(PV/AC)
B. (BAC-EV)/(EV/AC)
C. (PV/AC)/(VAC-EV)
D. (EV/AC)/(BAC-EV)
E. (BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)

29. Which of the following will calculate the To Complete Performance Index? 
A. (VAC-EV)/(PV/AC)
B. (BAC-EV)/(EV/AC)
C. (PV/AC)/(VAC-EV)
D. (EV/AC)/(BAC-EV)
E. (BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)

30. Which of the following is not true regarding scope creep? 
A. It is common late in projects
B. It is frequently unnoticed until time delays or cost overruns are observed
C. It wears down team motivation and cohesiveness
D. Project suppliers resent frequent changes
E. All of these are true

31. ________ holds people accountable, prevents small problems from mushrooming into large problems, and keeps focus. 
________________________________________

32. The first step in creating a project control system for measuring and evaluating project performance is to ________. 
________________________________________

33. A concept of ________ is necessary to get a realistic estimate of performance against a time-phased budget. 
________________________________________

34. Usually status reports should take place every ________ weeks to be useful and allow for proactive correction. 
________________________________________

35. Because of their easy-to-understand visual format, ________ are the most favored, used, and understandable tool used to report project status. 
________________________________________

36. Control charts are frequently used to monitor progress toward ________, which mark events and as such have zero duration. 
________________________________________

37. The ________ is a tool used to monitor past project schedule performance and current performance and to estimate future schedule trends. 
________________________________________

38. The ________ is the difference between the earned value and the actual costs for the work completed to date. 
________________________________________

39. The ________ is the difference between the earned value to date and the baseline schedule. 
________________________________________

40. ________ is simply the percent complete, times the original budget. 
________________________________________

41. The best method for assigning costs to the baseline is to establish frequent __________ over the duration of the work package. 
________________________________________

42. When measuring percent complete in the monitoring phase of the project, it is common to limit the amount earned to __________ until the work package is 100 percent complete. 
________________________________________

43. The ________ is the rule most frequently used by practicing project managers to both assign costs to the baseline and to measure progress using earned value. 
________________________________________

44. Cost variance tells us if the ________ costs are more or less than was planned at any point over the life of the project. 
________________________________________

45. A positive variance in SV or CV indicates a ________ condition. 
________________________________________

46. The units of measure for SV or CV is in terms of ________. 
________________________________________

47. CPI and SPI are two types of indexes that measure ________. 
________________________________________

48. The ________ indexes compare the to-date progress to the end of the project. 
________________________________________

49. An SPI index of 1.22 indicates that the project is ________ schedule. 
________________________________________

50. Although it is very difficult to measure, measuring ________ performance is as important as measuring schedule and cost performance. 
________________________________________

51. The best defense against scope creep is a __________. 
________________________________________

52. The PCIB index measures the project percent complete in relation to the resources that were budgeted. 
True False

53. The PCIC index measures the project percent complete in relation to the resources that have actually been used so far on the project. 
True False

54. Control is one of the most neglected areas of project management. 
True False

55. Measuring performance against budget is simply a case of comparing actual versus budget. 
True False

56. Earned value is defined as the budgeted cost of the work performed. 
True False

57. The baseline is derived from merging information from the work packages with the project network. 
True False

58. The network chart is the most favored, used, and understandable option for reporting project progress to upper management. 
True False

59. In a project control chart, four observations trending in one direction indicate there is a very high probability that there is an identifiable cause. 
True False

60. Milestones are significant project events that mark major accomplishments. 
True False

61. The best method for assigning costs to the baseline under this rule is to establish frequent checkpoints over the duration of the work package and assign completion percentages in dollar terms. 
True False

62. The original earned value cost/schedule system was pioneered by the U.S. Department of Defense in the 1960s. 
True False

63. Earned value is calculated by taking the percent complete times the original budget. 
True False

64. Baseline costs typically include labor, equipment, materials and direct overhead cost. 
True False

65. Overhead costs and profit are typically included in the project baseline. 
True False

66. The major reasons for creating a baseline are to monitor and report progress and to estimate cash flow. 
True False

67. In calculating schedule variance and cost variance, a negative variance indicates a desirable condition, and a positive variance suggests problems. 
True False

68. An undesirable schedule variance indicates that the project is running behind schedule. 
True False

69. Cost variance tells us the different estimates among vendors needed to complete the project over the life of the project. 
True False

70. A CPI index of 0.97 indicates that the project has spent less money than budgeted. 
True False

71. One method of estimating the costs to complete a project is to divide the work remaining by the CPI. 
True False

72. All scope changes that result in increased costs should be avoided. 
True False

73. Scope Creep refers to any significant changes made in the project once it is underway. 
True False

74. The key to managing scope creep is change management. 
True False

75. The best defense against scope creep is accepting only major changes. 
True False

76. The rule of using subjective estimated percent complete in combination with hard, tangible monitoring points works well on long-duration activities that can be broken into short discrete work packages. 
True False

77. Identify the steps in creating a control process that measure and evaluate project performance.

78. What is the difference between a baseline Gantt chart and a Tracking Gantt chart?

79. Identify and briefly describe the three percent complete rules for placing costs in baselines.

80. Conducting an earned value analysis requires three data elements. Identify the acronyms for each and describe what they are.

81. In reviewing the budget report of a project, you notice that spending on the project is running about ten percent over plan. Is the project in trouble? Why or why not?

82. Interpret the results of calculating the performance indexes based on a range of possible calculated values.

83. Identify the four indexes used in project management control and identify the formulas for calculating the indexes.

84. Identify and briefly discuss the two methods to revise estimates of future project costs.

85. What are Weighted Monitoring Gates and why would you need them?

86. What is scope creep and why should a project manager be concerned about it?

87. Typically, project progress reports are designed and communicated in written or oral form. Identify the common topic format for such progress reports.

88. Briefly describe the general structure of a project monitoring information system for control.

ch14
1. The most common circumstance for project closure is simply a ________ project. 
A. Completed
B. Overdue
C. Overbudget
D. Under achiveing
E. All the above are correct

2. What is not a wrap-up closure activity? 
A. Facilities
B. Vendors
C. Customer
D. Profit report
E. Report

3. __________ of lessons learned are designed to improve performance on current and future projects. 
A. Retrospectives
B. Corrective action plans
C. Introspective
D. Culmination
E. Evolution

4. The content of the final report typically includes the following topics: 
A. Lessons learned
B. Review and analysis
C. Recommendations
D. Executive summary
E. All the above are correct

5. When the project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated this is considered to be ___________ closure. 
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Changed Priority
E. Failed Project

6. This type of closure occurs when the project may never seem to end. This is considered to be ___________ closure. 
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Changed Priority
E. Failed Project

7. Many projects will fail because of circumstances beyond the control of the project team is called: 
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Failed Project
E. Changed Priority

8. When a project may start with a high priority but see its rank erode or crash during its project life cycle as conditions change this is an example of: 
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Failed Project
E. Changed Priority

9. Implementing closedown includes the following major activities except: 
A. Getting delivery acceptance from the customer.
B. Shutting down resources and releasing to new uses.
C. Closing accounts and seeing all bills are paid.
D. E-mail the project team that the project is complete.
E. Creating a final report.

10. Which is not part of the team portion of the Wrap-up closure checklist? 
A. Has a schedule for reducing project staff been developed and accepted?
B. Has staff been offered outplacement services and career counseling activities?
C. Have performance reviews for team members been conducted?
D. Has staff been released or notified of new assignments?
E. All are included.

11. Under which heading of the Wrap-up closure checklist should the question “Has an in-depth project review and evaluation interview with the customer been conducted?” be answered. 
A. Team
B. Vendors/contractors
C. Customer/Users
D. Equipment and facilities
E. Profit and loss statement

12. Under which heading of the Wrap-up closure checklist should the question “Have project accounts been finalized and all billing closed?” be answered. 
A. Team
B. Vendors/contractors
C. Customer/Users
D. Equipment and facilities
E. Profit and loss statement

13. Releasing the project team typically occurs _________ during the closure phase. 
A. Gradually
B. Rarely
C. Without bombast
D. Rapidly
E. All at once

14. In the Snapshot from Practice, New Balls Goes Flat in NBA, is an example of a project gone wrong when the _______ is/are not consulted. 
A. Manufacture
B. Equipment and facilities managers
C. End-users
D. Project manager
E. The Fans

15. Closing out _________ is often messy and filled with untied ends. 
A. Project review meetings
B. Reports
C. Invoices
D. Teams
E. Contracts

16. Information on the project type, size, number of staff, and technology level would be included in which section of the audit report? 
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives

17. Project mission and objectives, procedures and systems used, and organization resources used typically appear in the _____ section of the final project report. 
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives

18. Items technical in nature and focus on solutions to problems that surfaced would typically appear in the _____ section of the final project report. 
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives

19. The section of the final project report that new project teams are likely to find most useful is the: 
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives

20. Corrective actions that should take place (such as shifting to more resilient building material) would typically appear in the _____ section of the final project report. 
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives

21. In the Snapshot from Practice, the results of analyzing the Katrina hurricane resulted in a new evaluation plan from: 
A. The state legislature
B. The governor of Louisiana
C. The city of New Orleans
D. The Red Cross
E. The national guard

22. The most common circumstance for project closure is: 
A. Premature completion with some features eliminated
B. Project completion meeting costs, schedule, and quality
C. Project completion after modification of costs, schedule, or quality
D. Project termination due to technical difficulties
E. Perpetual projects that seem to go on and on before completion

23. Project closures can fall into all of the following categories except: 
A. Premature
B. Perpetual
C. Failed
D. Changed priority
E. All of these are categories for project closure

24. In the Research Highlight, Chaos: Software Projects, the criterion which was deemed the most important for project success was 
A. Realistic expectations
B. Hard-working, focused staff
C. User involvement
D. Proper planning
E. Clear vision and objectives

25. ____________ begins with a review of the strategic intent of the project, selection criteria, project charter, project objectives, project scope, and acceptance criteria. 
A. Process Review
B. Project Overview
C. Analysis
D. Recommendations
E. Directing

26. The typical mechanism for evaluation of teams is normally: 
A. A survey completed by the team members
B. A personal interview of each team member
C. An analysis by an outside consultant
D. A survey completed by members of top management
E. A survey completed by the internal or external customers

27. More and more companies are discarding the traditional superior-subordinate performance feedback process and replacing it with: 
A. Critical incidences review
B. Management by objectives
C. The 360-degree feedback
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

28. The project closure process includes all of the following except: 
A. Shutting down resources and releasing to new uses
B. Reassigning project team members
C. Conduct an audit
D. Getting delivery acceptance from the customer
E. Closing accounts and seeing all bills are paid

29. In organizations where projects are managed within a ____________, the team member’s area manager, not the project manager, is responsible for assessing performance. 
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Flat organization
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

30. Performance evaluations of project teams should: 
A. Provide the basis for individual development
B. Provide the basis for participation on future projects
C. Provide the basis for salary increases
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

31. ________ is the most common circumstance for project closure is simply a completed project. 
________________________________________

32. The project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated is known as _________. 
________________________________________

33. ____________ are usually easy to identify and easy for a review group to close down. 
________________________________________

34. Projects in process may need to be altered or canceled. Thus, a project may start with a high priority but see its rank erode or crash during its project life cycle as conditions change. This is called __________. 
________________________________________

35. A schedule for reducing project staff been developed and accepted is a question that is asked in the completion of the ___________. 
________________________________________

36. The summary simply highlights the key findings and facts relating to the project implementation is called the ___________. 
________________________________________

37. Some organizations have project closure checklists of over _____ wrap-up tasks! 
________________________________________

38. The ________ section of the final project report includes succinct, factual review statements of the project such as, project mission and objectives, procedures and systems used, and organizational resources used. 
________________________________________

39. Perhaps _________ are the most valuable contribution of the closure process. 
________________________________________

40. The ________ section of the final project report are often technical in nature and focus on solutions to problems that surfaced. 
________________________________________

41. A completed ___________ is a good example of the need to work out the details in advance. 
________________________________________

42. A project closure is considered ________ if it never seems to end due to constant “add-ons” in attempt to improve the project outcome. 
________________________________________

43. The purpose of ____________ is to assess how well the project team, team members, and project manager performed. 
________________________________________

44. The ________ feedback approach gathers anonymous feedback solicited from others is compared with the individual’s self-evaluations, the individual may form a more realistic picture of her strengths and weaknesses. 
________________________________________

45. In some ____________, project managers conduct the performance reviews, while area managers are responsible for pay reviews. 
________________________________________

46. Project managers should be ________ giving team members feedback throughout the project so that individual team members can have a pretty good idea how well they have performed and how the manager feels before the formal meeting. 
________________________________________

47. The _________ of projects by characteristics allows prospective readers, teams, and project managers to be selective in the search and use of report content. 
________________________________________

48. The most common reason given for not creating lessons learned is _________. 
________________________________________

49. A ________ is a methodology that analyzes a past project event to determine what worked and what didn’t, develops lessons learned, and creates an action plan that ensures lessons learned are used to improve management of future projects. 
________________________________________

50. _________ are binary; either you have reached requirements completion or you have not. 
________________________________________

51. The Standish Group International’s market research on software projects, called Chaos showed that ___ percent of all software projects are cancelled before completion. 
________________________________________

52. A __________ is a guide who leads the project team through an analysis of project activities that went well, what needs improvement, and development of a follow-up action plan with goals and accountability. 
________________________________________

53. __________ represent an analysis carried out during and shortly after the project life cycle; they attempt to capture positive and negative project learning. 
________________________________________

54. An upbeat, festive celebration brings closure to the enjoyable experiences everyone has had and the need to say good-bye is considered to be a ____________. 
________________________________________

55. In a Perpetual project the most common circumstance for project closure is simply a completed project. 
True False

56. In a Premature projects, the project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated. 
True False

57. Retrospectives of lessons learned are designed to improve performance on current and future projects. 
True False

58. When a project may start with a high priority but see its rank erode or crash during its project life cycle as conditions change this is an example of change changed priority. 
True False

59. Part of the content of the final report typically includes profit made on the project. 
True False

60. The project manager’s challenge is to keep the project team focused on the remaining project activities and delivery to the customer until the project is complete. 
True False

61. Implementing closedown includes getting delivery acceptance from the customer. 
True False

62. Project Summary is the summary that simply highlights the key findings and facts relating to the project implementation. 
True False

63. Analysis examines in detail the underlying causes of problems, issues, and successes. 
True False

64. The ideal scenario is to have the team member’s next assignment ready when project completion is announced. 
True False

65. The maximum items on a checklist for closing a project are 50. 
True False

66. Lessons learned from the Katrina disaster are not limited to the military. Almost every agency and support group, such as individuals, communities, churches, and other groups, has developed lessons learned from their project response experience. 
True False

67. Evaluation of individuals implies measurement against all team members. 
True False

68. Performance evaluations of project team members are typically well done because the evaluations are conducted by the team member’s home department. 
True False

69. The most common circumstance for project closure is simply a completed project such as building a new facility or creating a customized information system. 
True False

70. A project closure where the project is completed early with some parts of the project eliminated would be classified as project failure. 
True False

71. The key requirement in selection of the facilitator is one who is the end-user. 
True False

72. Performance appraisals generally fulfill five important functions. 
True False

73. Some organizations rely simply on an informal discussion between the project manager and the project member while other organizations require project managers to submit written evaluations that describe and assess an individual’s performance on a project. 
True False

74. A 360-degree performance evaluation includes feedback from peers, project managers, subordinates, and even customers. 
True False

75. Project managers should, when possible, draw comparisons to other team members when conducting individual team member reviews. 
True False

76. Retrospective methodology is one positive step toward ensuring lessons learned are developed and implemented. 
True False

77. What are the six major activities implementing project closedown?

78. Identify the four areas of the project closure checklist.

79. Identify the three major deliverables for project closure.

80. How does the project managers meet the challenge to keep the project team focused on the remaining project activities and delivery to the customer until the project is complete?

81. Identify the five common parts to the final project report.

82. Identify and briefly describe the five most common classifications for the way that projects end.

83. List the five, distinguishing characteristics to ensure Retrospectives methodology embedded effectiveness and value?

84. How does Norman Kerth define retrospective in his text Project Retrospectives?

85. What guidelines should a project manager follow in conducting performance reviews?

86. What is a 360-degree feedback and how is it used?

87. In the Research Highlight “Measures of Team Performance,” what was the major finding of the research survey?

88. Explain what Lessons learned represent.

ch16
1. The term that is used to reflect how organizations oversee their project management systems is: 
A. Project administration
B. Fiduciary responsibility
C. Management
D. Oversight
E. Project regulation

2. Which of the following is not one of the techniques to insure that projects meet the needs of the organization? 
A. Standards
B. Procedures
C. Accountability
D. Controls
E. All of these are correct

3. Which of the follow percentages is the authors’ estimate of project-driven organizations that have been implementing some form of oversight for several years? 
A. 95%
B. 90%
C. 85%
D. 80%
E. 75%

4. Typical activities of project oversight cover which of the following dimensions? 
A. Organization
B. Project
C. Customer
D. Both A and B are correct
E. All the above are correct

5. Organizational options to cover every aspect of managing projects in the organization are currently achieved by all of the following except: 
A. Executive committee
B. Oversight group
C. Project office
D. Both B and C are correct
E. All the above are correct

6. The importance of the increase in project oversight to today’s project manager includes all of the following except: 
A. Increase in expected profits from projects
B. Increased interest in supporting and helping the project manager
C. Impact on the environment in which the project will be implemented
D. Impact on how the project manager’s performance will be measured
E. The reporting of project progress to an oversight group

7. The centralized management of projects to ensure that the allocation of resources to projects is directed toward projects that contribute the greatest value to organization goals is known as: 
A. Portfolio Project Management
B. Project Office Management
C. Project Management Optimization
D. Project Priority Matrix Management
E. Resource Allocation Optimization

8. Which of the following is responsible for the continued support of consistent application of selection criteria, standards, processes, training, and general assistance to project managers and continued improvement and use of best practices? 
A. Portfolio Project Management
B. Project Office Management
C. Project Management Optimization
D. Project Priority Matrix Management
E. Resource Allocation Optimization

9. Which of the following firms use project offices to coordinate projects and to ensure best practices are being used to manage projects? 
A. Hewlett Packard
B. International Business Machines
C. Dell
D. Both A and B are correct
E. All the above are correct

10. Project Management Office functions typically include all of the following except: 
A. Create and maintain the internal project management information system
B. Recruit and select project managers
C. Train personnel in project management techniques
D. Develop risk management programs
E. All of these are typically included

11. Project Management Office functions typically include all of the following except: 
A. Establish standardized project planning and reporting methodologies
B. Audit ongoing and recently completed projects
C. Provide in-house project management consulting
D. Select which projects to undertake
E. All of these are typically included

12. Project offices are known to result in positive benefits such as: 
A. A bridge between senior management and project managers
B. Support integration of all project management processes
C. Training to support a higher level of project management maturity
D. Both A and B are correct
E. All of these are correct

13. The in-depth review of individual projects at specific phases in the project life cycle is known as: 
A. Project Assessment Checkpoint Reviews
B. Go/Kill Decision Review Methodology
C. Phase Gate Methodology
D. Stargate Review Methodology
E. None of these are correct

14. The original Stage-GateTM model included all the following stages except: 
A. Preliminary investigation
B. Detailed investigation
C. Testing and validation
D. Production and market launch
E. All of these were included

15. The abridged, generic phase gated process includes how many Go/Kill decision points? 
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
E. Seven

16. During which of the following phase gates would the question of “Does this project align with our strategic direction?” be answered? 
A. Proposal
B. Screening and selection
C. Implementation
D. Progress
E. Closure

17. During which of the following phase gates would the question of “What are the project’s ROI and/or non-financial benefits?” be answered? 
A. Proposal
B. Selection
C. Implementation
D. Progress
E. Closure

18. During which of the following phase gates would the question of “Are the resources needed identified and available?” be answered? 
A. Proposal
B. Screening and selection
C. Implementation
D. Progress
E. Closure

19. During which of the following phase gates would the question of “Are time, costs, and scope performances within acceptable limits?” be answered? 
A. Proposal
B. Screening and selection
C. Implementation
D. Progress evaluation
E. Closure

20. Which of the following is not one of the growth levels in the Organizational Project Maturity Model (OPM3TM)? 
A. Repeatable
B. Defined
C. Managed
D. Expanded
E. Optimized

21. The first appearance of standard approaches to managing projects including scope statements and WBS occurs in which of the following Maturity Model Levels? 
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System

22. Risk assessment derived from WBS and technical analyses and customer input is in place occurs in which of the following Maturity Model Levels? 
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System

23. Project audits are performed on all significant projects and lessons learned are recorded and used on subsequent projects occurs in which of the following Maturity Model Levels? 
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System

24. An informal culture that values improvement drives the organization, not policies and procedures occurs in which of the following Maturity Model Levels? 
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System

25. The use of an organization-wide project management system tailored to specific needs of the organization is established in which of the following Maturity Model Levels? 
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System

26. The development of a system for managing multiple projects that are aligned with strategic goals is established in which of the following Maturity Model Levels? 
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System

27. The focus is on continuous improvement through incremental advancements of existing practices and by innovations using new technologies and methods is established in which of the following Maturity Model Levels? 
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System

28. The balanced scorecard model differs from selection models by reviewing projects over 
A. 1-3 years
B. 2-4 years
C. 4-7 years
D. 5-10 years
E. e.10-15 years

29. Which of the following is not one of the four performance goals measures in the scorecard model? 
A. customer
B. internal
C. financial measures
D. industry standards
E. innovation and learning

30. __________ can be defined as a set of principles and processes to guide and improve the management of projects. 
________________________________________

31. Project selection and portfolio management are typical activities at the _________ level of project oversight. 
________________________________________

32. Reviewing project’s objectives and resolving project bottlenecks are typical activities at the _________ level of project oversight. 
________________________________________

33. The centralized management of projects to ensure that the allocation of resources to projects is directed toward projects that contribute the greatest value to organization goals is known as __________. 
________________________________________

34. The __________ is responsible for the continued support of consistent application of selection criteria, standards, processes, training, and general assistance to project managers. 
________________________________________

35. High tech firms such as HP, IBM, and Dell all use __________ to coordinate projects and to ensure best practices are being used to manage projects. 
________________________________________

36. The use of __________ provides an in-depth review of individual’s projects at specific phases in the project life cycle. 
________________________________________

37. The original __________ model was pioneered by Robert G. Cooper several decades ago to improve management of new product development.

38. “Go, Kill, Hold, or Recycle” decisions are made by the oversight team at each _________ of a project. 
________________________________________

39. The __________ process can be defined as a structured process to review, evaluate, and document outcomes in each project phase and to provide management with information to guide resource deployment toward strategic goals. 
________________________________________

40. Phase 1 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase. 
________________________________________

41. Phase 2 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase. 
________________________________________

42. Phase 3 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase. 
________________________________________

43. Phase 4 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase. 
________________________________________

44. Phase 5 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase. 
________________________________________

45. Phase 6 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase. 
________________________________________

46. __________ is used to identify opportunities for improvement. 
________________________________________

47. Level 1 of the authors’ Project Maturity Model is named __________. 
________________________________________

48. Level 2 of the authors’ Project Maturity Model is named __________. 
________________________________________

49. Level 3 of the authors’ Project Maturity Model is named __________. 
________________________________________

50. Level 4 of the authors’ Project Maturity Model is named __________. 
________________________________________

51. Level 5 of the authors’ Project Maturity Model is named __________. 
________________________________________

52. The ________ model limits measures of performance to goals in four main areas: customer, internal, innovation and learning, and financial measures. 
________________________________________

53. The balanced scorecard model differs from selection models by reviewing projects over _______. 
________________________________________

54. ___________ such as ROI, cash flow, and projects on budget reflect improvement and actions that contribute value to the bottom line. 
________________________________________

55. Project Management Control is the term that has emerged to reflect how organizations oversee their project management systems. 
True False

56. Project oversight can be defined as a set of principles and processes to. 
True False

57. The phase gate review process can be defined as a structured process to review, evaluate, and document outcomes in each project phase and to provide management with information to guide resource deployment toward strategic goals. 
True False

58. The phase gate review process is the centralized management of projects to ensure that the allocation of resources to projects is directed toward projects that contribute the greatest value to organization goals. 
True False

59. The appearance of a project office frequently follows the implementation of project portfolio management efforts. 
True False

60. When project effort moves from tactical to strategic, project selection, project process. 
True False

61. Portfolio Project Management is responsible for the continued support of consistent application of selection criteria, standards, processes, training, and general assistance to project managers. 
True False

62. The appearance of a project office frequently follows the implementation of project portfolio management efforts. 
True False

63. Project offices are known to result in positive benefits such as serving as a bridge between senior management and project managers. 
True False

64. Phase gate methodology was originally developed for the construction industry. 
True False

65. The phase gate methodology was developed before the emergence of the project office and project portfolios. 
True False

66. One study by Morris showed 45 percent of those surveyed use phase review gates. 
True False

67. The decision points at each phase gate are known as “Go, Kill, Hold, or Recycle” decisions. 
True False

68. The Portfolio Project Management methodology can be defined as a structured process to review, evaluate, and document outcomes in each project phase and to provide management with information to guide resource deployment toward strategic goals. 
True False

69. It is extremely rare that a project that is executing on time, on budget, and meeting project goals will be “killed”. 
True False

70. The first phase of the generic phase gated process in the text is called the Screening and Selection phase. 
True False

71. The last phase of the generic phase gated process in the text is called the Closure phase. 
True False

72. The Proposal phase answers the fundamental question: Is the project a good idea and does it solve a business problem or issue? 
True False

73. The Implementation Plan phase answers the question: What are the major risks for this project? 
True False

74. Gate 1 provides information at a minimal expenditure of cost and resources and in a short time, so the project can be reevaluated more thoroughly if it is perceived to have merits. 
True False

75. In the authors’ Project Maturity Model, the Ad Hoc Project Management level has no consistent project management process in place. 
True False

76. In the authors’ Project Maturity Model, the highest level is Management of Project Management System. 
True False

77. Briefly describe what “Project Oversight” is and why it is important to Project Management.

78. The typical activities of project oversight cover two dimensions. Identify those two dimensions and give two examples of activities for each of those dimensions.

79. What is Portfolio Project Management?

80. What is the Project Office and what is its relationship to oversight?

81. What is Phase Gate Methodology and what does it do?

82. Identify the six phases of the authors’ generic phase gated process.

83. What is an Organization Project Management Maturity model?

84. Identify the five growth levels contained in the Project Management Institute’s organizational project maturity model, OPM3.

85. Identify and briefly describe the five levels in the authors’ Project Maturity Model.

86. What is the Balanced Scorecard Model and how is it different from selection models?