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BUS 335 Week 11 Quiz

BUS 335 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 10 Chapter 14
1. There are several positive, functional outcomes of employee turnover. 
True False

2. Avoidable turnover is that which could have been prevented by actions like a pay raise or a new job assignment. 
True False

3. An employee’s perceived desirability of movement can depend on reasons that have little or nothing to do with the job. 
True False

4. An employee’s overall intention to quit depends on the desirability of leaving, ease of leaving, and alternatives available to the employee. 
True False

5. Employees who have a high intention to quit necessarily end up quitting their jobs. 
True False

6. Desirability of movement is a weak predictor of voluntary employee turnover. 
True False

7. Availability of promotions or transfers may lessen or eliminate any intentions to quit, even though the employee is very dissatisfied with the current job. 
True False

8. Discharge turnover is primarily due to extremely poor person/organization matches. 
True False

9. Downsizing turnover is a reflection of a staffing level mismatch in which the organization actually is, or is projected to be, overstaffed. 
True False

10. Of the three types of employee turnover, discharges are the most prevalent. 
True False

11. The types of employee turnover include ___________. 
A. voluntary
B. discharge
C. downsizing
D. all of the above

12. Discharge turnover is usually due to ___________. 
A. a site or plant closing
B. permanent layoff
C. poor employee performance
D. none of the above

13. Turnover due to organizational downsizing is classified as ______. 
A. voluntary
B. involuntary
C. supplemental
D. it depends on the circumstances of the downsizing

14. The desirability of leaving an organization is often an outgrowth of _________. 
A. poor person/organization match
B. favorable labor market conditions
C. general, transferable KSAOs
D. none of the above

15. An employee’s intention to leave an organization is influenced by __________. 
A. perceived desirability of movement
B. perceived ease of movement
C. alternatives available to the employee
D. all of the above

16. Ease of leaving is greater when ____. 
A. employees are highly embedded
B. employees possess ample employer-specific KSAOs
C. labor markets are loose
D. all of the above

17. Downsizing is typically a reflection of __________. 
A. overstaffing
B. understaffing
C. an appropriate staffing level
D. none of the above

18. Data are seldom available regarding when or where employee turnover is occurring in most organizations. 
True False

19. Research suggests that there are differences between the reasons for turnover that employees provide in exit interviews and the reasons employees provide in anonymous surveys. 
True False

20. Because it is typically very easy to collect and analyze job satisfaction data meaningfully, most organizations make this a cornerstone of their retention strategy. 
True False

21. Exit interviews should be conducted by exiting employee’s immediate supervisor whenever possible. 
True False

22. The interviewee in an exit interview should be told that the comments that he/she makes will be confidential and that only aggregate results will be used by the organization. 
True False

23. Postexit surveys should ask be mailed quite some time after the employee’s last day of work so the individual has sufficient time to reflect on his or her experiences. 
True False

24. Economic costs associated with voluntary turnover include accrued paid time off and temporary coverage. 
True False

25. Material and equipment costs are likely to be the most prevalent in replacement and training costs. 
True False

26. The primary immediate benefit of turnover for employers is hiring inducements. 
True False

27. Compared to discharge turnover, voluntary turnover is usually more costly. 
True False

28. Turnover cost estimates are very precise and accurate in most cases. 
True False

29. Many turnover costs are hidden in the time demands placed on the many employees who must handle the separation, replacement, and training activities. 
True False

30. One potential benefit of employee discharges is the development of improved performance management and disciplinary skills. 
True False

31. Downsizing costs are concentrated in separation costs for permanent reductions in force. 
True False

32. Exit interviews can be used to explain _________ to departing employees. 
A. rehiring rights
B. benefits
C. confidentiality agreements
D. all of the above

33. Which of the following is a suggestion for conducting an appropriate exit interview? 
A. The interviewer should be the employee’s immediate supervisor.
B. There should be an unstructured interview format.
C. The interviewer should prepare for each interview by reviewing the interview format and the interviewee’s personnel file.
D. None of the above

34. Which of the following is a common tool to assess employee reasons for leaving? 
A. Position analysis
B. Job rotation
C. Exit interview
D. Discharge notification

35. Economic separation costs associated with voluntary turnover include ________. 
A. hiring inducements
B. rehiring costs
C. manager’s time
D. more than one of the above

36. Replacement costs associated with voluntary turnover include __________. 
A. HR staff induction costs
B. mentoring
C. severance pay
D. contagion

37. Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with voluntary employee turnover? 
A. lowered replacement costs
B. savings from not replacing an employee
C. vacancy creates an open job that must be staffed
D. all of the above

38. Which of the following makes involuntary turnover potentially more costly than a similar level of voluntary turnover? 
A. Accrued paid time off
B. Possibility of a lawsuit
C. Staffing costs for a new hire
D. Formal training

39. Economic costs associated with downsizing include ___________. 
A. threat to harmonious labor-management relations
B. decreased employee morale
C. higher unemployment insurance premiums
D. difficulty in attracting new employees

40. Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with downsizing? 
A. focus on core businesses, eliminating peripheral ones
B. spreading risk by outsourcing activities to other organizations
C. lower payroll and benefit costs
D. all of the above

41. A recent Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM) survey found that the most effective organizational strategy for retaining employees is the provision of concierge services. 
True False

42. Surveys suggest that HR managers believe that a totally different set of factors lead to turnover compared to regular employees. 
True False

43. To have the power to attract and retain employees, rewards must be unique and unlikely to be offered by competitors. 
True False

44. In general, most employees report that the opportunity for higher compensation is a more powerful predictor of turnover than conflict with supervisors. 
True False

45. Research has shown that the best performers are least likely to quit when an organization either rewards performance with higher compensation or widely communicates its compensation practices; doing both adds little to these independent effects. 
True False

46. Of the factors that influence an employee’s desirability of leaving, job satisfaction is the one that cannot be influenced to a significant degree by organizations. 
True False

47. Providing employees increased autonomy and requiring them to learn a variety of skills increases stress significantly, which leads to greater turnover rates. 
True False

48. One guideline for increasing job satisfaction and retention is to ensure that fairness and justice exist in the workplace. 
True False

49. Employee perceptions of injustice are often rooted in misunderstanding or ignorance of company policies that could be resolved with increased communication. 
True False

50. Employees may not like a supervisor who speaks in a derogatory way towards them, but evidence suggests they seldom actually turnover as a result of these feelings. 
True False

51. Some employees who do not take advantage of work-life balance options resent their coworkers who are more likely to use work-life programs. 
True False

52. Evidence suggests that personality dispositions have little or no impact on employee tendencies to turnover. 
True False

53. Because employees quit companies, not jobs, internal staffing systems are usually seen as a poor substitute for a job at another company. As such, they do little to reduce intentions to leave. 
True False

54. The first strategy for improving employee retention is to _____________. 
A. redesign employee jobs
B. increase pay
C. improve job satisfaction
D. none of the above

55. Guidelines for increasing job satisfaction and retention include ___________. 
A. establish a lag pay policy for all employees
B. link rewards to retention behaviors
C. keeping core operations information secret
D. none of the above

56. Which of the following is an attribute of a high value employee that an organization would want to prevent from leaving? 
A. low training investment
B. strong KSAOs
C. retirement
D. low seniority

57. Which of the following is an attribute of a low value employee that an organization would not want to prevent from leaving? 
A. little intellectual capital
B. high seniority
C. high performance
D. all of the above

58. Research most clearly suggests that when organizations wish to increase retention they need to _____. 
A. provide team-building
B. convince employees that there are few alternatives
C. offer “bundles” of HR practices that complement one another
D. demonstrate executive commitment to outreach

59. Which of the following factors leading to turnover cannot usually be addressed by the organization? 
A. Poor social environment at work
B. Low levels of job satisfaction
C. Employee shocks
D. All of these can be addressed by organizational policy

60. Organizations can use compensation to reduce turnover by _____. 
A. providing deferred compensation
B. giving specific rewards for seniority
C. increasing pay levels to surpass the market
D. all of the above

61. Organizations that link extrinsic rewards to employee performance (i.e. that use incentive compensation plans) find that _____. 
A. turnover of high performers decreases and turnover of low performers increases
B. turnover is increased across the board
C. turnover is decreased across the board
D. turnover rates are largely unaffected

62. Work-life balance programs are an example of _____. 
A. communal distribution
B. intrinsic rewards
C. instrumentality
D. a completely ineffective retention strategy

63. Research on organizational justice suggests that ____. 
A. justice only influences turnover in highly industrialized Western countries
B. communication has little impact on employee attitudes or turnover intentions
C. employees are typically well-informed about organizational policies
D. none of the above

64. To increase the cost of leaving, employers ____. 
A. reduce headcount
B. provide deferred compensation
C. increase workloads
D. provide free stock to employees

65. Performance management systems enable organizations to ensure that an initial person/job match yields an effectively performing employee. 
True False

66. One recommendation for an effective performance appraisal or management system is that appraisal criteria should be job-related, specific, and communicated in advance to the employee. 
True False

67. Performance management systems are used primarily to detect individuals whose performance is unsatisfactory and should be terminated. 
True False

68. Poor task performance is the result of insufficient ability, knowledge, skills, or motivation. 
True False

69. In progressive discipline, termination is seen as a viable early option to avoid having to work through a potentially fruitless cycle of improving a low-ability worker. 
True False

70. Employee termination is the final step in progressive discipline, and ideally it would never be necessary. 
True False

71. As assessment of employee success in reaching goals, ratings of competencies, and suggestions for improvement are all part of _____. 
A. performance planning
B. performance appraisal
C. performance execution
D. progressive discipline

72. Recommendations for the effective design and use of a performance appraisal or management system include that ____________. 
A. evaluations should be in writing
B. the employee should receive timely feedback about the evaluation and an explanation for any outcome decision
C. there should be agreement among different raters in their evaluation of the employee’s performance
D. all of the above

73. ______ includes the completion of job tasks that are specifically included in the job description. 
A. Citizenship
B. Task performance
C. (Low) Counterproductivity
D. All of the above

74. Which of the following is not a part of normal progressive discipline? 
A. Give employees notice of the rules of conduct
B. Provide employees with alternative employment if performance problems persist
C. Allow for full investigation of alleged employee misconduct
D. Give employees the right to appeal a decision

75. Which of the following is an example of a major employee offense? 
A. sabotage
B. theft
C. drug/alcohol abuse at work
D. all of the above

76. The typical penalty for a first major offense by an employee is _____________. 
A. suspension or discharge
B. written reprimand
C. verbal reprimand
D. none of the above

77. Discharge turnover targets groups of employees and is also known as reduction in force. (RIF). 
True False

78. Data shows dramatic decreases in organizational stock price following a downsizing, especially if the downsizing organization restructures assets during downsizing. 
True False

79. Research shows that downsizing has negative impacts on employee morale and health, workgroup creativity and communication, and workforce quality. 
True False

80. No-layoff policies cannot be implemented effectively by organizations. 
True False

81. One problem that has been shown to accompany downsizing is _____. 
A. increased payroll costs
B. decreases in employee health and motivation
C. most companies fail to downsize sufficiently
D. insufficient attention to issues of seniority

82. Which of the following is the most commonly pursued alternative to layoffs for reducing staffing levels? 
A. Attrition
B. Retraining
C. Benefits reductions
D. Job sharing

83. In many cases, the post-layoff environment for those who remain is marked by _____. 
A. reductions in trust of management
B. stress among those who remain
C. reductions in workforce quality
D. all of the above

84. Legal experts usually advise organizations to avoid documenting performance problems because the “paper trail” is likely to just lead to problems in court. 
True False

85. From a legal standpoint, if performance appraisal information is to be used in the retention management and termination process for an organization, the organization needs to ensure that the information is _____. 
A. organizationally relevant
B. sufficiently general to cover a variety of situations
C. communicated in advance to the employee
D. all of the above

BUS 335 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer University New

BUS/335 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-335-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-328.htm

 

Quiz 10 Chapter 14
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. There are several positive, functional outcomes of employee turnover. 
True False

2. Avoidable turnover is that which could have been prevented by actions like a pay raise or a new job assignment. 
True False

3. An employee’s perceived desirability of movement can depend on reasons that have little or nothing to do with the job. 
True False

4. An employee’s overall intention to quit depends on the desirability of leaving, ease of leaving, and alternatives available to the employee. 
True False

5. Employees who have a high intention to quit necessarily end up quitting their jobs. 
True False

6. Desirability of movement is a weak predictor of voluntary employee turnover. 
True False

7. Availability of promotions or transfers may lessen or eliminate any intentions to quit, even though the employee is very dissatisfied with the current job. 
True False

8. Discharge turnover is primarily due to extremely poor person/organization matches. 
True False

9. Downsizing turnover is a reflection of a staffing level mismatch in which the organization actually is, or is projected to be, overstaffed. 
True False

10. Of the three types of employee turnover, discharges are the most prevalent. 
True False

11. The types of employee turnover include ___________. 
A. voluntary
B. discharge
C. downsizing
D. all of the above

12. Discharge turnover is usually due to ___________. 
A. a site or plant closing
B. permanent layoff
C. poor employee performance
D. none of the above

13. Turnover due to organizational downsizing is classified as ______. 
A. voluntary
B. involuntary
C. supplemental
D. it depends on the circumstances of the downsizing

14. The desirability of leaving an organization is often an outgrowth of _________. 
A. poor person/organization match
B. favorable labor market conditions
C. general, transferable KSAOs
D. none of the above

15. An employee’s intention to leave an organization is influenced by __________. 
A. perceived desirability of movement
B. perceived ease of movement
C. alternatives available to the employee
D. all of the above

16. Ease of leaving is greater when ____. 
A. employees are highly embedded
B. employees possess ample employer-specific KSAOs
C. labor markets are loose
D. all of the above

17. Downsizing is typically a reflection of __________. 
A. overstaffing
B. understaffing
C. an appropriate staffing level
D. none of the above

18. Data are seldom available regarding when or where employee turnover is occurring in most organizations. 
True False

19. Research suggests that there are differences between the reasons for turnover that employees provide in exit interviews and the reasons employees provide in anonymous surveys. 
True False

20. Because it is typically very easy to collect and analyze job satisfaction data meaningfully, most organizations make this a cornerstone of their retention strategy. 
True False

21. Exit interviews should be conducted by exiting employee’s immediate supervisor whenever possible. 
True False

22. The interviewee in an exit interview should be told that the comments that he/she makes will be confidential and that only aggregate results will be used by the organization. 
True False

23. Postexit surveys should ask be mailed quite some time after the employee’s last day of work so the individual has sufficient time to reflect on his or her experiences. 
True False

24. Economic costs associated with voluntary turnover include accrued paid time off and temporary coverage. 
True False

25. Material and equipment costs are likely to be the most prevalent in replacement and training costs. 
True False

26. The primary immediate benefit of turnover for employers is hiring inducements. 
True False

27. Compared to discharge turnover, voluntary turnover is usually more costly. 
True False

28. Turnover cost estimates are very precise and accurate in most cases. 
True False

29. Many turnover costs are hidden in the time demands placed on the many employees who must handle the separation, replacement, and training activities. 
True False

30. One potential benefit of employee discharges is the development of improved performance management and disciplinary skills. 
True False

31. Downsizing costs are concentrated in separation costs for permanent reductions in force. 
True False

32. Exit interviews can be used to explain _________ to departing employees. 
A. rehiring rights
B. benefits
C. confidentiality agreements
D. all of the above

33. Which of the following is a suggestion for conducting an appropriate exit interview? 
A. The interviewer should be the employee’s immediate supervisor.
B. There should be an unstructured interview format.
C. The interviewer should prepare for each interview by reviewing the interview format and the interviewee’s personnel file.
D. None of the above

34. Which of the following is a common tool to assess employee reasons for leaving? 
A. Position analysis
B. Job rotation
C. Exit interview
D. Discharge notification

35. Economic separation costs associated with voluntary turnover include ________. 
A. hiring inducements
B. rehiring costs
C. manager’s time
D. more than one of the above

36. Replacement costs associated with voluntary turnover include __________. 
A. HR staff induction costs
B. mentoring
C. severance pay
D. contagion

37. Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with voluntary employee turnover? 
A. lowered replacement costs
B. savings from not replacing an employee
C. vacancy creates an open job that must be staffed
D. all of the above

38. Which of the following makes involuntary turnover potentially more costly than a similar level of voluntary turnover? 
A. Accrued paid time off
B. Possibility of a lawsuit
C. Staffing costs for a new hire
D. Formal training

39. Economic costs associated with downsizing include ___________. 
A. threat to harmonious labor-management relations
B. decreased employee morale
C. higher unemployment insurance premiums
D. difficulty in attracting new employees

40. Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with downsizing? 
A. focus on core businesses, eliminating peripheral ones
B. spreading risk by outsourcing activities to other organizations
C. lower payroll and benefit costs
D. all of the above

41. A recent Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM) survey found that the most effective organizational strategy for retaining employees is the provision of concierge services. 
True False

42. Surveys suggest that HR managers believe that a totally different set of factors lead to turnover compared to regular employees. 
True False

43. To have the power to attract and retain employees, rewards must be unique and unlikely to be offered by competitors. 
True False

44. In general, most employees report that the opportunity for higher compensation is a more powerful predictor of turnover than conflict with supervisors. 
True False

45. Research has shown that the best performers are least likely to quit when an organization either rewards performance with higher compensation or widely communicates its compensation practices; doing both adds little to these independent effects. 
True False

46. Of the factors that influence an employee’s desirability of leaving, job satisfaction is the one that cannot be influenced to a significant degree by organizations. 
True False

47. Providing employees increased autonomy and requiring them to learn a variety of skills increases stress significantly, which leads to greater turnover rates. 
True False

48. One guideline for increasing job satisfaction and retention is to ensure that fairness and justice exist in the workplace. 
True False

49. Employee perceptions of injustice are often rooted in misunderstanding or ignorance of company policies that could be resolved with increased communication. 
True False

50. Employees may not like a supervisor who speaks in a derogatory way towards them, but evidence suggests they seldom actually turnover as a result of these feelings. 
True False

51. Some employees who do not take advantage of work-life balance options resent their coworkers who are more likely to use work-life programs. 
True False

52. Evidence suggests that personality dispositions have little or no impact on employee tendencies to turnover. 
True False

53. Because employees quit companies, not jobs, internal staffing systems are usually seen as a poor substitute for a job at another company. As such, they do little to reduce intentions to leave. 
True False

54. The first strategy for improving employee retention is to _____________. 
A. redesign employee jobs
B. increase pay
C. improve job satisfaction
D. none of the above

55. Guidelines for increasing job satisfaction and retention include ___________. 
A. establish a lag pay policy for all employees
B. link rewards to retention behaviors
C. keeping core operations information secret
D. none of the above

56. Which of the following is an attribute of a high value employee that an organization would want to prevent from leaving? 
A. low training investment
B. strong KSAOs
C. retirement
D. low seniority

57. Which of the following is an attribute of a low value employee that an organization would not want to prevent from leaving? 
A. little intellectual capital
B. high seniority
C. high performance
D. all of the above

58. Research most clearly suggests that when organizations wish to increase retention they need to _____. 
A. provide team-building
B. convince employees that there are few alternatives
C. offer “bundles” of HR practices that complement one another
D. demonstrate executive commitment to outreach

59. Which of the following factors leading to turnover cannot usually be addressed by the organization? 
A. Poor social environment at work
B. Low levels of job satisfaction
C. Employee shocks
D. All of these can be addressed by organizational policy

60. Organizations can use compensation to reduce turnover by _____. 
A. providing deferred compensation
B. giving specific rewards for seniority
C. increasing pay levels to surpass the market
D. all of the above

61. Organizations that link extrinsic rewards to employee performance (i.e. that use incentive compensation plans) find that _____. 
A. turnover of high performers decreases and turnover of low performers increases
B. turnover is increased across the board
C. turnover is decreased across the board
D. turnover rates are largely unaffected

62. Work-life balance programs are an example of _____. 
A. communal distribution
B. intrinsic rewards
C. instrumentality
D. a completely ineffective retention strategy

63. Research on organizational justice suggests that ____. 
A. justice only influences turnover in highly industrialized Western countries
B. communication has little impact on employee attitudes or turnover intentions
C. employees are typically well-informed about organizational policies
D. none of the above

64. To increase the cost of leaving, employers ____. 
A. reduce headcount
B. provide deferred compensation
C. increase workloads
D. provide free stock to employees

65. Performance management systems enable organizations to ensure that an initial person/job match yields an effectively performing employee. 
True False

66. One recommendation for an effective performance appraisal or management system is that appraisal criteria should be job-related, specific, and communicated in advance to the employee. 
True False

67. Performance management systems are used primarily to detect individuals whose performance is unsatisfactory and should be terminated. 
True False

68. Poor task performance is the result of insufficient ability, knowledge, skills, or motivation. 
True False

69. In progressive discipline, termination is seen as a viable early option to avoid having to work through a potentially fruitless cycle of improving a low-ability worker. 
True False

70. Employee termination is the final step in progressive discipline, and ideally it would never be necessary. 
True False

71. As assessment of employee success in reaching goals, ratings of competencies, and suggestions for improvement are all part of _____. 
A. performance planning
B. performance appraisal
C. performance execution
D. progressive discipline

72. Recommendations for the effective design and use of a performance appraisal or management system include that ____________. 
A. evaluations should be in writing
B. the employee should receive timely feedback about the evaluation and an explanation for any outcome decision
C. there should be agreement among different raters in their evaluation of the employee’s performance
D. all of the above

73. ______ includes the completion of job tasks that are specifically included in the job description. 
A. Citizenship
B. Task performance
C. (Low) Counterproductivity
D. All of the above

74. Which of the following is not a part of normal progressive discipline? 
A. Give employees notice of the rules of conduct
B. Provide employees with alternative employment if performance problems persist
C. Allow for full investigation of alleged employee misconduct
D. Give employees the right to appeal a decision

75. Which of the following is an example of a major employee offense? 
A. sabotage
B. theft
C. drug/alcohol abuse at work
D. all of the above

76. The typical penalty for a first major offense by an employee is _____________. 
A. suspension or discharge
B. written reprimand
C. verbal reprimand
D. none of the above

77. Discharge turnover targets groups of employees and is also known as reduction in force. (RIF). 
True False

78. Data shows dramatic decreases in organizational stock price following a downsizing, especially if the downsizing organization restructures assets during downsizing. 
True False

79. Research shows that downsizing has negative impacts on employee morale and health, workgroup creativity and communication, and workforce quality. 
True False

80. No-layoff policies cannot be implemented effectively by organizations. 
True False

81. One problem that has been shown to accompany downsizing is _____. 
A. increased payroll costs
B. decreases in employee health and motivation
C. most companies fail to downsize sufficiently
D. insufficient attention to issues of seniority

82. Which of the following is the most commonly pursued alternative to layoffs for reducing staffing levels? 
A. Attrition
B. Retraining
C. Benefits reductions
D. Job sharing

83. In many cases, the post-layoff environment for those who remain is marked by _____. 
A. reductions in trust of management
B. stress among those who remain
C. reductions in workforce quality
D. all of the above

84. Legal experts usually advise organizations to avoid documenting performance problems because the “paper trail” is likely to just lead to problems in court. 
True False

85. From a legal standpoint, if performance appraisal information is to be used in the retention management and termination process for an organization, the organization needs to ensure that the information is _____. 
A. organizationally relevant
B. sufficiently general to cover a variety of situations
C. communicated in advance to the employee
D. all of the above

BUS 335 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer University New

BUS/335 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-335-Week-9-Quiz-Strayer-326.htm

 

Quiz 8 Chapter 11 and 12
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Practical significance is the sign of a correlation coefficient. 
True False

2. Validity refers to the relationship between predictor and criterion scores. 
True False

3. A useful predictor is one where the sign of the relationship is consistent with the logic or theory behind the predictor. 
True False

4. Statistical significance is stated as a probability and indicates a given predictor’s chances of yielding similar validity coefficients with different sets of applicants. 
True False

5. A significance level of p

6. In general, the greater the correlation of a given predictor with other predictors of a criterion, the more useful the predictor will be. 
True False

7. The usefulness of a predictor is determined by the value it adds to the prediction of job success above and beyond the forecasting powers of other available predictors. 
True False

8. There are no cases in which a predictor has high validity and high adverse impact. 
True False

9. All other things being equal, if a selection specialist must decide between two predictors, the one that causes the least adverse impact would be the best choice. 
True False

10. Utility refers to the expected gains to be derived from using a predictor. 
True False

11. The selection ratio is the number of people hired divided by the number of applicants, and it is desirable that this ratio be high. 
True False

12. It is desirable that the denominator of a selection ratio be small. 
True False

13. The base rate is the number of hirees divided by the number of employees. 
True False

14. When deciding whether or not to use a new predictor, the validity coefficient, the base rate, and the selection ratio should be considered in combination, not independently. 
True False

15. The most fundamental concern regarding utility analysis is that it lacks realism. 
True False

16. If you are using the “economic gains formula,” and you have just increased the validity of your selection procedures with no change in cost, your economic gain value should increase. 
True False

17. The most difficult factor in the economic gain formula to estimate is “cost per applicant”. 
True False

18. Utility analysis models do not take factors like EEO/AA concerns into account. 
True False

19. Research suggests that managers prefer the results of utility analysis to the presentation of simple validity coefficients. 
True False

20. Utility decreases as the number of valid predictors used in the selection process increases. 
True False

21. If you are evaluating the usefulness of a given predictor in predicting job success, and you are interested in the value the predictor adds to the prediction of job success, you want to know the predictor’s ________. 
A. validity coefficient
B. practical significance
C. sign
D. statistical significance

22. When HR specialists state that a new predictor “adds value” to the prediction of job success, they mean that _____. 
A. the predictor provides economic benefit to prediction
B. the predictor has a high validity coefficient
C. the predictor adds to the prediction of job success over and beyond the forecasting powers of current predictors
D. the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, thus increasing efficiency

23. A significance level of p

24. Validity refers to __________. 
A. the number of individuals hired by a predictor
B. the number of individuals hired divided by the number of applicants
C. the relationship between predictor and criterion scores
D. the inverse of the adverse impact ratio

25. If an HR specialist is assessing the usefulness of predictors in forecasting job success, and it is noted that a given predictor has both high validity and high adverse impact, the HR specialist should conclude ___________. 
A. this can never happen and the method of calculating validity must be incorrect
B. this is a common circumstance and the predictor should be used
C. if the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, this will compensate for adverse impact
D. legal problems could result and alternative predictors should be sought

26. Under which circumstances is “hiring success gain” likely to be optimal? 
A. Low selection ratio, low base rate, high validity
B. High selection ratio, high base rate, high validity
C. High selection ratio, low base rate, high validity
D. High selection ratio, low base rate, low validity

27. Which of the following is the most difficult to estimate term in the economic gain formula? 
A. Average tenure of employees.
B. Number of applicants.
C. Dollar value of job performance.
D. Cost per applicant.

28. Taylor-Russell tables are an effective decision making tool in that they ________. 
A. allow for calculating selection ratios
B. enable HR specialists to calculate utility ratios
C. allow simultaneous consideration of a predictor’s base rate, selection ratio, and validity
D. help to increase validity coefficients to more acceptable levels

29. Economic gain formulas provide the HR specialist with an estimate of ______. 
A. the economic gain derived from using a predictor versus random selection
B. the economic gain from using random selection
C. the economic gain of the standard deviation of job performance
D. the economic gain of the validity coefficient

30. A compensatory approach to selection decisions means that applicants must earn a passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection process. 
True False

31. The clinical prediction method of determining an applicant’s score on a job assessment instrument relies on adding the individual predictor scores together to arrive at the applicant’s total score. 
True False

32. The “unit weighting” method of determining the score of a job applicant on an assessment instrument considers the relative importance of each predictor. 
True False

33. Multiple regression will be more precise than unit weighting if there is a small number of predictors, low correlations between predictors, and a large sample. 
True False

34. The multiple hurdles method of setting a passing score for a job predictor would be a cost efficient method for making decisions about hiring. 
True False

35. The _________ approach means that selection decisions means that scores on one predictor can make up for low scores on another. 
A. multiple hurdles
B. Markov process
C. compensatory model
D. none of the above

36. The _________ method of determining an applicant’s score is based on the expert judgment of the manager. 
A. multiple regression
B. clinical prediction
C. unit weighting
D. none of the above

37. The _________ method of determining an applicant’s score is based on assigning weights by statistical procedures and then adding predictor scores together. 
A. multiple regression
B. clinical prediction
C. unit weighting
D. none of the above

38. The _________ approach means that an applicant must earn a passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection process. 
A. multiple hurdles
B. Markov process
C. compensatory model
D. none of the above

39. In establishing procedures for setting cutoff scores, organizations should stress the job-relatedness of the assessment procedure and de-emphasize validity. 
True False

40. In assessing cutoff scores, a “false negative” is an applicant who is assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if hired. 
True False

41. In assessing cutoff scores, a “false positive” is an applicant who is assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if hired. 
True False

42. The minimum competency method involves setting the cut score on the basis of the minimum qualifications deemed necessary to perform a job. 
True False

43. In top down hiring, all individuals who are above a minimum competency point are hired. 
True False

44. There is little evidence that individuals who perceive themselves to be overqualified are less satisfied or have higher intentions to turnover. 
True False

45. The law prohibits using different norms for test scores of minority and majority groups. 
True False

46. Banding is a procedure whereby applicants who score in different score ranges or bands are considered to have scored equivalently. 
True False

47. Applicants react positively when banding is associated with affirmative action. 
True False

48. An applicant who is hired but does not perform successfully is a ______________. 
A. true positive
B. false positive
C. true negative
D. false negative

49. An applicant who is not hired but who would have performed successfully if hired is a ______________. 
A. true positive
B. false positive
C. true negative
D. false negative

50. If a cutoff score is lowered, the effect of this on hiring results is likely to be ______________. 
A. fewer false negatives only
B. both fewer false negatives and more true positives
C. fewer false negatives and fewer false positives
D. more false negatives and more false positives

51. If a cutoff scores is set based on the qualifications deemed necessary to perform a job, it is most likely the ______ method of determining cut scores. 
A. top-down
B. criterion-related
C. minimum competency
D. banding

52. When applicants who score within a certain score range are considered to have scored equivalently ________. 
A. top-down
B. criterion-related
C. minimum competency
D. banding

53. Which of the following statements is a useful guideline for setting cutoff scores? 
A. Cutoff scores should be consistent with normal expectations of acceptable proficiency within the workforce.
B. The job relatedness of assessment procedures should not be correlated with validity.
C. A single “best” method of setting cutoff scores should be identified.
D. Cutoff scores should be set to maximize true positives.

54. When random selection is used to select the finalist to whom a job offer will be made, discretionary assessment methods should be used. 
True False

55. In ranking finalists are ordered from the most desirable to the least desirable based on the results of discretionary assessments. 
True False

56. One disadvantage of ranking is that it doesn’t provide a clear suggestion of the order in which candidates should be offered jobs. 
True False

57. Ongoing hiring is most common in organizations with very high turnover rates. 
True False

58. When using ___________, each finalist has an equal chance of being selected. 
A. ranking
B. random selection
C. clinical prediction
D. grouping

59. When using ___________, finalists are ordered from the most desirable to the least desirable based on results of discretionary assessments. 
A. ranking
B. random selection
C. clinical prediction
D. grouping

60. When using ___________, finalists are banded together into rank-ordered categories. 
A. ranking
B. random selection
C. clinical prediction
D. grouping

61. In general, HR specialists should orchestrate the development of staffing policies and procedures for all departments, but play a secondary, or supporting role in the ultimate decision to hire in areas outside of the HR department. 
True False

62. Since line managers are not usually technical experts in staffing processes, their input comes to play only in regard to hiring decisions. 
True False

63. In terms of who should participate in selection decision making (i.e., HR professionals vs. line managers), HR professionals would be least likely to ________. 
A. make the hiring decision
B. establish selection procedures
C. ensure relevant laws and regulations are being followed
D. represent the interests of employees to management

64. In which of the following assessment procedures is the participation of line managers most needed? 
A. initial assessment
B. substantive methods
C. discretionary methods
D. background investigations

65. Employees are most likely to be involved in hiring decision making if they are organized in __________. 
A. solo work
B. functional harmony
C. teams
D. none of the above

66. If adverse impact occurs because of certain selection procedures, these procedures may be justified under UGESP through validity studies. 
True False

67. The two options the UGESP recommends for minimizing adverse impact are use of within-group norming and banding. 
True False

68. The law suggests that unless the organization is under a formal AAP, protected characteristics should not be considered in selection decision making. 
True False

69. If an organization wishes to comply with the law and still increase the diversity of its workforce, it should ___________. 
A. de-emphasize selection based on KSAOs
B. use recruitment as a tool for attracting a more diverse and qualified applicant pool
C. use clinical and other subjective prediction methods
D. all of the above

70. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures establish guidelines for record-keeping ___________. 
A. of applicants’ sex
B. of applicants’ race
C. for major job categories
D. all of the above

Chapter 12
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The three elements required for a contract to be legally binding are: offer, acceptance, and written documentation. 
True False

2. It is very important for an organization to know, in advance, whether an individual will be classified as either an employee or an independent contractor. 
True False

3. A third party is someone other than the employer or the offer receiver who speaks on their behalf in the establishment or modification of employment contracts. 
True False

4. The law is relatively indifferent between the use of written contracts and the use of oral contracts. 
True False

5. Statements in employee handbooks can be construed as employment contracts. 
True False

6. The “one year rule” ensures that oral agreements for time intervals greater than one year are legally enforceable. 
True False

7. If a letter of acceptance says an employee needs to work on weekends, but the employer makes an oral promise that the employee will not have to work on weekends, the oral statement could be legally binding. 
True False

8. If a co-worker promises a prospective employee overtime hours while visiting the prospective employee in his/her home, this promised “term” of the employment would likely be legally enforceable. 
True False

9. A disclaimer on an employment application blank stating that the employee can be terminated “with or without cause” and “with or without notice” is legally enforceable. 
True False

10. It is extremely important for organizations to be sure to keep promises that they make to job applicants in order to avoid subsequent lawsuits. 
True False

11. In order for “promissory estoppel” claim to apply when a job offer is made, the offer recipient must suffer a detrimental effect. 
True False

12. Which of the following elements are required for a contract to be legally binding and enforceable? 
A. offer
B. acceptance
C. consideration
D. all of the above

13. Consideration in a contract entails __________. 
A. evidence that both parties agree to the terms as offered
B. a polite exchange of information
C. the exchange of something of value between the parties to the contract
D. none of the above

14. Which of the following statements about written contracts is false? 
A. The law favors written contracts over oral contracts.
B. A statement on a job application blank could be construed as a written contract.
C. Written statements in employee handbooks that are unintended as contracts cannot be construed as contracts.
D. Internal job posting notices can be construed as written job contracts.

15. Which of the following circumstances makes it less likely an oral statement about weekend work would be legally enforceable as a contract term? 
A. The statement was made in the workplace.
B. The statement is not supported by a written policy.
C. The statement was made by an organizational manager.
D. The statement was a specific one.

16. Which of the following statements about disclaimers is false? 
A. They can appear in almost any written documents made available to job applicants or employees.
B. They can be used to limit employee rights.
C. They are never oral.
D. Their receipt by employees should be acknowledged in some formal way.

17. In order to improve the chances of winning a law suit based on “promissory estoppel,” the most important point the plaintiff must demonstrate is that ____. 
A. the promise was accurate
B. the promise was made in good faith
C. the defendant reneged on the promise
D. the promise was withdrawn, resulting in a detrimental effect

18. Upon acceptance, a formal job offer in which consideration is provided to employees becomes a contract. 
True False

19. Terms and conditions of employment offered by employers unintentionally are not legally enforceable. 
True False

20. With a tight labor market, the organization will be in a position to provide lower cost offers. 
True False

21. The strategic approach to job offers involves considering the total package of extrinsic and intrinsic rewards that the offered job will provide to the finalist. 
True False

22. An organization should provide a definite starting date for an offer, or else the acceptance and consideration of the offer occur whenever the new hire actually begins to work. 
True False

23. Most organizations provide some form of specific “just cause” guarantee regarding terminations during their job offers. 
True False

24. One reason organizations often opt out of flat pay rates in favor of differential pay rates, is because job applicants are similar in KSAO quality. 
True False

25. The use of short-term incentive pay, like commissions or production bonuses, is common among private sector organizations. 
True False

26. Hiring bonuses tend to enhance employee performance motivation. 
True False

27. The least common form of long-term variable pay in the private sector is the cost of living adjustment. 
True False

28. Hiring bonuses can be problematic because recipients of these bonuses might take the bonus and then quit soon after. 
True False

29. A hot skill premium is a permanent pay premium added to the regular base pay to account for market escalation in pay for certain skills in extreme shortage. 
True False

30. Non-compete agreements that would keep employees from indefinitely practicing their trade or profession are not enforceable. 
True False

31. A non-compete agreement restricts a departing employee from competing against the organization. 
True False

32. Golden handcuff agreements legally bar employees from quitting a job for a specific period of time. 
True False

33. Written job offers should normally contain terms of acceptance that require acceptance without revision. 
 
True False

34. Which of the following is likely to be a contingency related to a job offer? 
A. satisfactory reference checks
B. job salary
C. job benefits
D. job vacation privileges

35. Which of the following is not a choice involved in a strategic approach to job offers? 
A. determining a compelling offer the finalists will find difficult to turn down
B. deciding which short and long term pressures to respond to in an offer
C. deciding on specific pay levels that will apply to all individuals
D. determine whether there will be a “standard offer” for all finalists or whether “enhanced offers” will be possible for some finalists

36. A _____ contract provides certainty to both the new hire and the organization regarding the length of the employment relationship. 
A. variable premium
B. fixed annuity
C. fixed-term
D. latent variable

37. Flat pay rate job offers are least appropriate for _______. 
A. situations where applicants have very dissimilar KSAOs
B. jobs with a plentiful supply of applicants
C. situations where management desires to avoid inequities in starting pay among new employees
D. jobs where applicants have KSAOs of similar quality

38. Terms and conditions that the organization states the employee is entitled to upon departure from the organization constitute _________. 
A. pay rates
B. health benefits
C. severance packages
D. life insurance

39. Long-term variable pay plans provide employees ownership opportunities as the value of the organization increases are applicable only in the ____. 
A. public sector
B. private sector
C. technology sector
D. none of the above

40. Which of the following is true regarding long-term variable pay? 
A. Stock options qualify for special tax treatment for employees.
B. Small public organizations are more likely to provide stock options than large public organizations.
C. Stock options guarantee a fixed rate of return on investment.
D. None of the above

41. Studies of job seekers graduating from hotel administration and engineering programs showed that job offers involving _____ are seen more favorably. 
A. pay contingent on performance
B. pay raises based on group performance
C. a flexible benefits package
D. pay pegged to skills

42. A _____ is a right to purchase a share of stock for a predetermined price at a later date. 
A. stock option
B. profit share
C. realized dividend
D. mutual fund

43. A temporary pay premium added to the regular base pay of an employee to account for a temporary market escalation in pay for certain skills in extreme shortage is called a(n) ____________. 
A. hot skill premium
B. tight labor market adjustment
C. key skill premium
D. none of the above

44. ______ prohibit current or departing employees from the unauthorized use or disclosure of information during or after employment. 
A. Non-compete agreements
B. Retainers
C. Confidentiality clauses
D. Mixed-motive contracts

45. Non-compete agreements should be drafted in such a way that they cover ____. 
A. high-value employees
B. experienced employees
C. all employees
D. only managerial, technical, and scientific staff

46. Organizations can gauge the likely reactions of job applicants to job offers not only by conducting formal research, but also by gathering information about various preferences from the offer recipient during the actual recruitment/selection process. 
True False

47. Access to typical salary information for various occupations or job titles is very hard to come by, especially for job seekers. 
True False

48. Applicant dishonesty is a common problem as relates to the reporting of the applicant’s current salary. 
True False

49. A currently employed offer receiver normally incurs costs for leaving and will expect a “make whole” offer amounting to 20-30% of the offer receiver’s current base pay. 
True False

50. The lowball strategy will be especially effective for desperate or unknowledgeable employees. 
True False

51. An advantage of the “competitive strategy” for negotiating initial job offers is that this strategy repeatedly yields acceptances from the highest quality (KSAOs) applicants. 
True False

52. When job offer negotiating strategies are to be used as part of an aggressive EEO/AA recruitment program, the strategy most appropriate to be used in such a situation is the “competitive strategy.” 
True False

53. When rejecting job applicants, most organizations do so with a rejection message to the applicant that is short and vague in content. 
 
True False

54. In using information about competitors to structure job offers, which of the following statements is not useful as a general guideline? 
A. It makes a difference who the competitors are.
B. Competitive offers should always be matched to ensure acceptance.
C. Analysis of competitive advertisements should be performed in order to have the “market information” needed to prepare effective job offers.
D. Trade associations should be consulted for competitive information whenever possible.

55. The most sensible approach for addressing the issue of applicant truthfulness would be to ________. 
A. receive applicant information in good faith since the majority of applicants will be honest and it is not fair to inconvenience everyone with more verification because of a few “bad apples”
B. treat applicants with trust and they will respond with honesty in most cases
C. have applicants provide independent, third-party documentation of all job information provided on application blanks
D. verify the applicant information provided that is deemed most vital

56. The most commonly negotiated element of a job offer is ___. 
A. severance packages
B. educational assistance
C. salary
D. paid time off

57. As a general rule concerning job offers, it can be said that __________. 
A. “low ball” job offers are expensive to the organization
B. “competitive” job offers have no important drawbacks
C. “competitive” job offers tend to leave room to negotiate
D. “competitive” offers usually stimulate the most positive reactions on the part of offer recipients

58. The sales approach to presenting a job offer has been adopted by many organizations because ________. 
A. mechanical presentations of job offers have been proven not to work
B. they apply to all situations
C. they cost less than mechanical presentations
D. they may increase the likelihood of bringing job offers to closure

59. Most rejection messages sent to applicants are _________. 
A. specific in terms of the reason for the rejection
B. not conveyed by formal means
C. vague in content
D. designed carefully to “soften the blow” of the rejection

60. Which of the following statements about reneging on job offers is false? 
A. reneging is often caused by sudden changes in circumstances, such as a change in health status
B. there are substantial legal concerns about reneging
C. most employers feel the level of reneging has increased dramatically in recent years
D. solid evidence on reneging and why it occurs is lacking

61. Orientation is likely to be more effective when newcomers have realistic information about job requirements and rewards before the job begins. 
True False

62. Orientation should focus on the person/job match exclusively. 
True False

63. Whereas orientation focuses on the initial and immediate aspects of newcomer adaptation, socialization emphasizes helping the newcomer fit into the job and organization over time. 
True False

64. One way to improve employee socialization outcomes is to provide realistic requirement information regarding job requirements and rewards. 
True False

65. Clarifying job requirements and knowledge of skills are the only demonstrated methods for consistently improving employee socialization. 
True False

66. Research suggests that socialization programs are equally effective when conducted online relative to person-to-person. 
True False

67. Effective orientation training should include __________. 
A. sources of influence in the organization
B. integrating the newcomer into the work unit and team
C. conducting active mentoring for the newcomer
D. all of the above

68. What is the relationship between orientation and socialization activities? 
A. Orientation covers job content, socialization covers social content.
B. Orientation is usually a small group activity, socialization is one on one.
C. Orientation is typically an immediate activity for new hires, which overlaps with more long-term socialization.
D. Orientation is formal, socialization is informal.

69. The goal(s) of the socialization process is(are) ___________. 
A. to achieve an effective person/job match
B. to achieve an effective person/organization match
C. to help the newcomer fit into the job in the long-term
D. all of the above are true

70. From the newcomer’s perspective, likely components for inclusion in the socialization process include addressing _________. 
A. performance proficiency
B. organization goals and values
C. politics
D. all of the above are correct

71. Research has shown that ____ facilitates employee socialization to a new job. 
A. clarifying job requirements and knowledge and skills to be acquired
B. minimizing biasing contact from current co-workers
C. providing a highly positive recruitment message regarding job requirements at rewards
D. all of the above

72. The delivery of newcomer socialization should be the responsibility of __________. 
A. his/her supervisor
B. a mentor or sponsor
C. the HR department
D. all of the above

73. Although organizations are strongly encouraged to check the authorization to work of all employees, they cannot discriminate against applicants on the basis of country of origin. 
True False

74. It is best to ask for proof of employment eligibility prior to making a job offer. 
True False

75. Negligent hiring claims are made when an employer fails to provide adequate compensation and benefits to a new hire. 
True False

76. Having applicants sign release statements so the employer can do background investigations is a legal means for minimizing the possibility of negligent hiring. 
True False

77. In general, the employment relationship is an at-will one. 
True False

78. Under the requirements of the Immigration Reform and Control Act, employers must ___________. 
A. adjust pay scales for alien status
B. verify employability status for aliens only
C. verify employability status for all potential employees
D. verify employability status for applicants before an offer is extended

79. Which of the following statements about negligent hiring lawsuits against employers is accurate? 
A. monetary damages are usually leveled against the employee found to be at fault
B. the plaintiff must present evidence the injury or harm was a foreseeable consequence of hiring the unfit employee
C. the employer has the initial burden to present evidence of proper hiring practice in such cases
D. suits of this kind are decreasing as companies in the private sector recognize the liabilities involved

80. To reduce the likelihood of negligent hiring lawsuits organizations should _____. 
A. emphasize characteristics like licensure requirements, criminal records, and references
B. avoid gathering too much KSAO information because it can be used to demonstrate that an organization “should have known” an employee would be a problem
C. refuse to fire individuals with a history of mental illnesses
D. none of the above are useful to prevent negligent hiring suits

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Chapter 10
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Internal selection is virtually identical to external selection both in terms of the applicability of the logic of the prediction principle, and in terms of the relevance of data about past job experiences. 
True False

2. In comparison with external selection, internal selection places greater emphasis on predictor signs than samples. 
True False

3. In internal selection, managers tend to overemphasize subjective opinions about job candidates, with a consequent increase in decisions with low validity. 
True False

4. Organizations typically have better data with which to make choices on internal than external candidates. 
True False

5. Depth of information and relevance are the only advantages that internal selection has over external selection. 
True False

6. Sometimes individuals who have excellent skills in engineering and scientific positions do not have good managerial skills. 
True False

7. In comparing internal selection with external selection, an advantage of internal selection is that ________. 
A. internal selection requires few procedures to locate and screen viable job candidates
B. internal selection presents fewer dangers of incurring legal liability than external selection
C. information about internal candidates tends to be more verifiable than information about external candidates
D. there is less need to use multiple predictors in assessing internal candidates than with external candidates

8. Within the context of internal selection, an accurate statement about the logic of prediction would be that _____________. 
A. the logic of prediction can be applied more precisely for internal selection than for external selection
B. the logic of prediction has identical application for internal and external selection
C. the logic of prediction works better for external selection than for internal selection
D. this concept does not apply to internal selection

9. While information from internal selection can be better because multiple point of view can be combined, there are concerns that _____________. 
A. bribery for promotions is widespread
B. impression management and politics can play a role in who gets promoted
C. internal candidates with poor technical skills are likely to be promoted
D. instincts and intuition are not given enough weight

10. Problems with using others’ “feelings” about a job applicant include _____________. 
A. lowered hiring standards for some employees
B. discrimination on the basis of protected class status
C. decisions with low validity
D. all of the above

11. Talent management systems keep an ongoing organizational record of the skills, talents, and capabilities of an organization’s employees. 
True False

12. Organizations find that talent management systems are low cost and require little expertise. 
True False

13. A virtue of peer assessments is that they rely on raters who are very knowledgeable of applicants’ KSAOs. 
True False

14. A different set of criteria are used to evaluate the effectiveness of internal assessment methods, since concepts like validity and adverse impact are unimportant for internal hiring. 
True False

15. Where peer assessments are concerned, it would be accurate to say that _____________. 
A. peer ratings rely on voting to select the most promotable applicants
B. peer assessments are used for both internal and external applicants
C. peer rankings rely on ordering of peers being assessed
D. peer rankings rely on assessments of each applicant using scores on a continuous numerical scale

16. An important advantage of peer assessments is __________. 
A. lower probability of bias in the assessment
B. greater clarity in the criteria for assessment
C. enhanced employee morale through the fostering of a competitive spirit
D. greater knowledge of the applicants’ KSAOs

17. Which of the following statements about various methods of managerial sponsorship is false? 
A. A coach is available to the person being assisted on and off the job.
B. A coach provides day-to-day feedback.
C. A mentor becomes personally responsible for the success of the person being assisted.
D. A sponsor actively promotes the person being assisted for advancement opportunities.

18. Experience refers to length of service or tenure with a job, department or organization. 
True False

19. Seniority and experience are among the most prevalent methods of internal selection. 
True False

20. Seniority is a highly valid method for internal selection. 
True False

21. The validity of experience is higher than seniority for internal selection. 
True False

22. Experience is better suited to predict long-term rather than short-term potential. 
True False

23. Job knowledge tests hold great promise as a predictor of job performance. 
True False

24. One advance over the simple use of performance ratings is to review past performance records more thoroughly, including an evaluation of various dimensions of performance that are particularly relevant to job performance. 
True False

25. The argument behind the Peter Principle is that individuals who are good performers in one job will probably be good performers in the next job up the promotion ladder. 
True False

26. In using performance appraisals to predict the performance of an individual being considered for promotion from a junior to a senior level position, it would be appropriate to use the results of performance appraisals for a junior-level technical position to make a selection decision concerning a promotion to a senior level managerial position. 
True False

27. One potential problem with promotability ratings is that they may yield results that are different from results of performance appraisals and evaluations for pay increases. 
True False

28. The incremental validity of assessment centers in predicting performance is relatively small. 
True False

29. A substantive assessment method often used in the selection of production workers and staff technicians is the assessment center. 
True False

30. An “in-basket” exercise involves a timed exercise that requires a job candidate to respond to simulated memoranda, reports, and other items requiring responses. 
True False

31. When using assessment centers to predict job performance, available research has shown an average validity coefficient of .37, which should be considered a low level of validity. 
True False

32. Where assessment centers are concerned, research has shown that the inclusion of peer evaluations and the use of psychologists as job candidate assessors rather than managers causes validity to increase. 
True False

33. Assessment centers tend to generate positive reactions from participants. 
True False

34. If, during an interview simulation, a job candidate is required to solicit information from the interviewer in order to solve a problem, this is most likely a “role play” type interview simulation. 
True False

35. One advantage of using review boards representing various constituencies for hiring is that it means constituents will be less likely to voice objections once the candidate is hired. 
True False

36. In-basket exercises are the most commonly used exercises in assessment centers. 
True False

37. Assessment centers have no validity in predicting performance and promotability beyond personality traits and cognitive ability tests. 
True False

38. One of the biggest limitations of assessment centers is their cost. 
True False

39. Personality tests are used to predict the success of employees in overseas assignments. 
True False

40. Which of the following is examples of substantive methods for internal selection? 
A. Skills inventories
B. Managerial sponsorship
C. Career concepts
D. Performance appraisals

41. Which of the following is true regarding performance appraisals and internal selection? 
A. It is illegal for organizations to use performance appraisals as a basis for internal selection decisions.
B. Performance appraisals have no validity.
C. Performance appraisals have no reliability.
D. Performance appraisals are readily available in most organizations.

42. Which of the following factors is the most relevant to the theory behind assessment centers? 
A. Prediction of the individual’s behavior in critical roles through assessment by multiple methods.
B. Matching applicants to KSAOs required by the job.
C. Shortening the period of time needed to complete an assessment for a managerial position.
D. Substituting HR assessors for line management assessors.

43. A job candidate responding to an “in-basket exercise” would most likely be asked to _________. 
A. make a simulated visit to a customer location
B. participate in an interview simulation
C. complete a written test to assess KSAOs
D. draft memos to respond to letters received

44. The use of the case analysis method of assessment is most appropriate for assessing ____________. 
A. ability to perform a technical task
B. problem-solving abilities
C. leadership skills
D. social-interactive skills

45. The validity of assessment centers as a method for internal selection is approximately ___________. 
A. .00
B. .05-.15
C. .25-.35
D. .50-.60

46. If the selection objective is to assess a candidate’s ability to make a coherent persuasive report about the organization’s annual results before a group of top managers, the best interview simulation to make this assessment would be a(n) ________. 
A. assessment center
B. in-basket exercise
C. role play
D. oral presentation

47. Which of the following assessment methods does not have at least moderately high validity? 
A. assessment centers
B. job knowledge tests
C. seniority
D. work experience

48. The type of selection methods which are used to narrow down a list of finalists to those who will receive job offers is called _________ methods. 
A. discretionary
B. initial
C. substantive
D. sequential
E. compensatory

49. Which of the following is true regarding seniority? 
A. It refers to length of service or tenure.
B. It is closely related to the type of job experience.
C. It is closely related to the quality of job experience.
D. It is a highly valid selection method.

50. Research on the use of selection and experience as internal selection methods indicates that ___________. 
A. seniority is a more valid method of internal selection than experience
B. seniority is better suited to predict short-term rather than long-term potential
C. experience is less likely to be content valid if the past or present jobs are similar to the future job
D. experience is unlikely to remedy initial performance difficulties of low ability employees

51. The concept which refers to the idea that individuals rise to their lowest level of incompetence is the _______. 
A. Peter Principle
B. Promotability Principle
C. Career Concept Principle
D. 4/5 Principle

52. Security is of even greater importance in the administration of internal selection predictors than it might be in the external selection process. 
True False

53. One step an organization can take to shatter the “glass ceiling” would be to have greater use of selection plans. 
True False

54. Which of the following is an advantage of external recruiting? 
A. they ensure consistency from opening to closing
B. they are useful for companies too small to have dedicated recruiters
C. they are very inexpensive
D. all of the above

55. An organization which is committed to shattering the “glass ceiling” should ___________. 
A. decrease its use of selection plans
B. emphasize the use of traditional assessment methods
C. pay attention to the types of KSAOs needed for advancement
D. undertake programs to raise employees’ awareness of general career issues

BUS 335 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer University New

BUS/335 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

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Chapter 5
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Most organizational recruiting is done in-house. 
True False

2. Organizations with low turnover rates will probably prefer to use internal recruitment agencies. 
True False

3. Some organizations cooperate with one another during recruitment drives to minimize individual recruitment costs. 
True False

4. A centralized approach to recruiting can ensure that policy is being interpreted consistently across business units. 
True False

5. One advantage to centralized recruitment is that recruitment efforts may be undertaken in a more timely manner. 
True False

6. It is typically easy to determine the number of contacts with applicants needed to fill a vacancy. 
True False

7. One consistent finding in the research is that job seekers are more likely to find out about jobs through friends and family than they are through employment agencies. 
True False

8. Research has shown that greater employer involvement with prospective applicants does little to improve the image of the organization. 
True False

9. The practice of not charging the business unit may result in the business unit users not being concerned about minimizing recruitment costs. 
True False

10. Applicant tracking systems make it possible to assess how many individuals are attracted and hired through each recruiting source. 
True False

11. A recruitment guide is an informal set of principles suggesting, but not proscribing, how recruiting might proceed. 
True False

12. Most recruiters receive a great deal of training. 
True False

13. Research consistently shows that HR department employees make better recruiters than line managers. 
True False

14. Which of the following is an advantage of using an external recruiting agency? 
A. it ensures consistency from opening to closing
B. it is useful for companies too small to have dedicated recruiters
C. it is very inexpensive
D. all of the above

15. Which of the following are advantages of centralized recruitment? 
A. duplications of effort are reduced
B. increased responsiveness to immediate needs
C. closer links to day-to-day operations
D. decreased costs in the centralized HR function

16. Which of the following are components of a well-developed recruiting requisition? 
A. quantity of labor to be hired
B. affirmative action compliance methods
C. list of selection methods to be used
D. all of the above

17. Which of the following is not one of the major areas written into recruiting budgets? 
A. website development and administration
B. costs of signing bonuses
C. time spent making personal contacts and following up with candidates
D. bringing candidates onsite

18. A recruiting requisition is ________________________. 
A. a formal document that authorizes the filling of a job opening
B. a flowchart that enumerates costs of each selection tool
C. a formal document that details the process to be followed to attract applicants to a job
D. a description of the costs and benefits of various methods of selection

19. A recruitment guide is ________________________. 
A. a formal document that authorizes the filling of a job opening
B. a flowchart that enumerates costs of each selection tool
C. a document that details the process to be followed to attract applicants to a job
D. a description of the costs and benefits of various methods of selection

20. Research suggests that an ideal recruiter has ________________________. 
A. strong interpersonal skills
B. knowledge about the organization
C. extensive knowledge about the job
D. all of the above

21. With an open recruitment approach, organizations cast a wide net to identify potential applicants for specific job openings. 
True False

22. The growth of Web-based recruiting means that many employers have found that open recruiting yields too few applicants. 
True False

23. Targeted recruiting is done to find applicants with specific characteristics pertinent to person/job or person/organization match. 
True False

24. Targeted recruiting is a poor choice for diversity-conscious firms. 
True False

25. Targeted recruitment can achieve the same ends of inclusion as open recruitment, though by a different mechanism. 
True False

26. It is usually advised that a company either adopt open or targeted recruitment across the board for all employees. 
True False

27. One shortcoming of targeted recruitment is that by seeking out one group, one may exclude another from the same consideration. 
True False

28. Research indicates that recruits are bored by overly simple web-based recruiting systems and they prefer a more elaborate design. 
True False

29. Research shows that candidates prefer organizational Web sites that allow them to customize the information that they receive. 
True False

30. Most estimates suggest that employee referrals are one of the least commonly used recruiting methods. 
True False

31. Organizations sometimes use social networking sites like LinkedIn and Facebook to find job candidates. 
True False

32. One major problem with Internet-based recruiting is that there are too few applications for most jobs. 
True False

33. Niche employment websites are a popular method for finding recruits with a specific set of skills. 
True False

34. Research has shown that organization websites and electronic bulletin boards are seen as more informative and credible than campus recruiting. 
True False

35. Executive search firms are usually extremely expensive. 
True False

36. In a small number of states, there are employment or job service options to help employers find candidates for jobs. 
True False

37. Outplacement firms offer employees who are losing their jobs assistance finding new jobs in the form of counseling and training to help facilitate a good person/job match. 
True False

38. If a recruiting search is too narrow, the organization will likely be engaged in a long-term process of looking. 
True False

39. There has not been any research on the effectiveness of various recruitment sources. 
True False

40. What are the two major strategies for recruiting? 
A. open or shut
B. proactive or pensive
C. open or targeted
D. general or targeted

41. Which of the following is an advantage of open recruiting? 
A. it is seen as more fair
B. it ensures a diverse set of applicants
C. a small set of qualified applicants is considered
D. both a and b

42. Which of the following is an advantage of targeted recruiting? 
A. it is seen as more fair
B. it ensures a diverse set of applicants
C. a small set of qualified applicants is considered
D. both a and b

43. Which situation most strongly calls for open recruitment? 
A. a small number of applicants are required
B. specific skill sets are needed
C. pre-entry qualifications are not important
D. the organization is downsizing

44. Which situation most strongly calls for targeted recruitment? 
A. a small number of applicants are required
B. specific skill sets are needed
C. pre-entry qualifications are not important
D. the organization is downsizing

45. The recruitment approach in which an organization identifies those segments of the labor market where qualified candidates are likely to be is called __________. 
A. targeted recruitment
B. job requirements matrix recruitment
C. geographic area recruitment
D. strategic recruitment

46. Which of the following is an appropriate use of targeted recruiting? 
A. Using non-traditional sources to enhance minority hiring.
B. Broadening the geographical recruitment area to control selection costs.
C. Eliminating recruitment sources to minimize yield ratios.
D. Using demographics to avoid certain classes of potential applicants.

47. Which of the following are not components of a strong corporate recruiting website? 
A. exciting flash graphics presentations of opportunities
B. detailed information on career opportunities
C. résumé builders
D. self-assessment inventories

48. A study of the best practices of the Web sites of 140 high-profile organizations indicates that one of the features of a high-impact Web site is ____________. 
A. a job cart function
B. personal search engines
C. self-assessment inventories
D. all of the above

49. Which of the following statements about using employee referrals is true? 
A. those recruited by employee referrals tend to be less committed
B. those recruited by referrals are more qualified and committed
C. referral programs may be effective, but few are hired in this way
D. over 80% of organizations provide incentives for referrals

50. Which of the following statements is false? 
A. many employment sites now offer the ability to create and approve job requisitions online
B. employment sites sometimes cross-list jobs with local newspapers
C. at any given time there are millions of résumés available on employment websites
D. none of these statements is false

51. College placement offices are used because ___________. 
A. they reach individuals with diverse levels of skills for all job types
B. it really doesn’t matter which college you recruit from because they’re all the same
C. it’s fast and easy to establish relationships with campus recruiting offices
D. campus recruiting efforts are seen as more credible than websites or bulletin boards

52. The more broadly transmitted the organization’s search methods, the more likely that a ____________ will be attracted to apply. 
A. highly eager group of applicants
B. relatively homogenous population of individuals
C. uniformly high quality of individuals
D. large number of individuals

53. A high cost method of search may be worth the cost to the organization if ___________. 
A. the job is not crucial to the organization’s success
B. KSAOs are in short supply
C. only a small number of individuals are needed
D. none of the above

54. Evidence suggests that, overall, ___________ are likely to attract employees who have a better understanding of the organization and its culture. 
A. referrals and job trials
B. websites
C. newspaper advertising
D. employment agencies

55. A realistic recruitment message portrays the organization and the job as they really are, rather than describing what the organization thinks job applicants want to hear. 
True False

56. Research suggests that realistic job previews lead to massive reductions in turnover. 
True False

57. The hope with realistic job previews is that job applicants will self-select into and out of the organization. 
True False

58. There is some evidence that realistic job previews might scare away the most promising job candidates. 
True False

59. Realistic job previews should be part of the initial exposure of the organization to applicants because that is when they are most effective at increasing satisfaction and reducing turnover intentions. 
True False

60. Written or videotaped RJPs are more effective than verbal RJPs. 
True False

61. Realistic recruiting messages are less effective for those with considerable previous job experience. 
True False

62. Research shows that having an employment brand can attract applicants to an organization, even beyond job and organizational attributes. 
True False

63. An organization’s employment brand is completely different than its product market image. 
True False

64. A targeted recruiting message is designed to appeal to a particular audience. 
True False

65. A realistic job preview strategy is best for tight labor markets or higher-value jobs. 
True False

66. Word of mouth is one of the most powerful methods for communicating about job opportunities, and it is also a method that organizations cannot directly control. 
True False

67. Advertising is an ideal method for providing rich information to job candidates. 
True False

68. It doesn’t make a difference if recruiting information is seen as coming from the employees personally or from the organization’s recruiting offices. 
True False

69. Sending mass e-mails advertising positions may be an ineffective strategy because many applicants will regard these messages as junk mail or spam. 
True False

70. A realistic job preview is _________________________. 
A. a description of a job that integrates both positive and negative information
B. a method of recruiting that involves putting candidates in sink-or-swim opportunities to learn on the job
C. a series of structured video exercises showing a job’s task characteristics
D. a largely negative recruiting approach

71. Research suggests __________ realistic job previews lead to reduce turnover most. 
A. verbal
B. videotaped
C. written
D. computerized

72. What is the main reason for taking a realistic job preview approach to developing a job communication message? 
A. The approach aids applicants in self-selecting out of the organization.
B. The method enhances AA compliance.
C. The approach results in lower advertising costs.
D. The approach presents potential job applicants with the most attractive description of the job attributes.

73. Which method of recruiting is most effective at reducing turnover? 
A. realistic
B. targeted
C. considerate
D. branded

74. Which method of recruiting is most effective for tight labor markets and highly valued jobs? 
A. realistic
B. targeted
C. considerate
D. branded

75. Which method of recruiting is designed to be used when an organization is seeking a specific set of KSAOs? 
A. realistic
B. targeted
C. considerate
D. branded

76. Which of the following statements regarding the development of recruiting strategies is false? 
A. recruiting information coming from employees is seen as especially credible
B. the most effective messages also allow employees to find more information and customize their experience
C. recruiting advertisements in publications with large circulations will usually be more expensive
D. organizations need to be careful about over-promoting their brand because repetition of a message tends to decrease its persuasive appeal

77. Which communication medium refers to the informal information regarding an organization’s reputation, employment practices, and policies? 
A. recruitment brochures
B. word of mouth
C. advertising
D. organizational websites

78. Which of the following communication media is marked by low richness and high cost, but also with an especially broad audience of potential applicants? 
A. recruitment brochures
B. word of mouth
C. advertising
D. organizational websites

79. Most research shows that recruiters are even more important than job characteristics in attracting applicants to an organization. 
True False

80. Applicants have a strong preference for recruiters who are the same gender and race as they are. 
True False

81. Personal warmth and knowledge of the job are the two most important recruiter characteristics for attracting applicants. 
True False

82. Applicants also see recruiting processes as more fair if they have an opportunity to perform or demonstrate their ability to do the job. 
True False

83. Although delays in the recruiting process should not be ignored, in general, they don’t have much effect on applicant attraction to an organization. 
True False

84. The influence of the recruiter on the applicant is more likely to occur in the initial rather than the latter stages of the recruitment process. 
True False

85. Surveys suggest that only 25% of college students actually use Internet sources as an important part of making their decision to find and apply for jobs. 
True False

86. Women and minorities are especially interested in working for employers that endorse diversity through policy statements and in recruiting materials. 
True False

87. Traditional recruiting methods like campus recruiting and job fairs are an ideal method for increasing the age diversity of the workforce. 
True False

88. It is a bad idea to share too much information with applicants about the selection system during the later parts of the recruiting process because it’s likely that applicants will just learn how to game the system. 
True False

89. Applicants typically prefer recruiters who are ________________. 
A. well-informed about the job
B. in an HR-related function
C. the same gender
D. brusque

90. Recruiter characteristics are ________________. 
A. important in every stage of the selection process
B. not at all related to employee interested in a company
C. not as important as the actual job characteristics
D. equally related to applicant attitudes and behaviors

91. Recruiters should not _______________. 
A. be knowledgeable of the job rewards
B. be knowledgeable of job characteristics
C. show enthusiasm during recruiting interviews
D. try to avoid showing too much interest in candidates

92. Research suggests that an ideal recruiter possesses ________________. 
A. strong interpersonal skills
B. knowledge about the organization, jobs, and career issues
C. enthusiasm about the organization and job candidates
D. all of the above

93. Which of the following statements is false? 
A. applicants are very concerned about the fairness of recruiting processes
B. delay times in the recruiting process can reduce applicant interest
C. increasing expenditures on recruiting increases yields
D. none of the above

94. Which of the following techniques is helpful in improving diversity of applicants obtained through the recruiting process? 
A. advertisements showing women and minorities in positions of leadership
B. advertisements showing a relatively homogeneous workforce
C. advertising in publications that aim for a general audience
D. none of the above

95. Legally, an applicant is a person who has indicated an interest in being considered for hiring, promotion, or other employment opportunities. 
True False

96. Only those who fill out paperwork for employment need be considered applicants, for legal purposes. 
True False

97. If an organization does not define a policy for recruiting, virtually anyone who contacts the organization or expresses interest by any means could be considered an applicant. 
True False

98. According to the OFCCP, to be considered an Internet applicant the person has to submit an expression of interest, the employer has to consider the person, and the person has basic qualifications for the position. 
True False

99. The OFCCP provides very specific, strict guidelines for recruitment activities for organizations with affirmative action programs. 
True False

100. Electronic recruiting may lead to adverse impact because certain demographic groups are less likely to own and regularly use computers. 
True False

101. Making organizational websites compatible with screen readers is a very expensive proposition, but it is required for compliance with the ADA. 
True False

102. The EEOC bans the use of explicit age- or sex-based preferences in recruitment advertising. 
True False

103. It is quite difficult for applicants to successfully make a case that there has been fraud or misrepresentation in recruitment advertising. 
True False

104. Which of the following is not a good way to manage the recruiting process for optimal legal defense? 
A. require a formal application from all who seek to be considered
B. require that the applicant indicate the precise position applied for
C. keep applications on hold or on file for future consideration
D. keep track of applicants who drop out of the process

105. Which of the following is not required for someone to be considered an Internet applicant? 
A. the individual submits an expression of an interest in employment
B. the employer considers the individual for employment in a particular position
C. the individual possesses the basic qualifications for the position
D. evidence of a visit to the physical employment site

106. Employers need to keep track of which of the following for adverse impact calculations? 
A. demographic profiles of all who visit organizational websites
B. all expressions of interest submitted through the Internet
C. only applications backed up by paper files
D. none of the above

107. Which of the following statements is true regarding the OFCCP’s regulation of affirmative action plans? 
A. organizations may find that recruiting at secondary schools and community colleges with large minority enrollments may facilitate AAP success
B. language specifically encouraging women and minorities to apply is banned
C. ratios of applicants by race and gender categories must be adhered to strictly
D. none of the above

108. OFCCP suggested actions for the recruitment process include _____________. 
A. encourage white male employees to refer job applicants
B. carefully select and train all personnel included in staffing
C. eliminate the use of job descriptions
D. none of the above

109. What is the legal status of video résumés? 
A. they are considered a very low risk recruiting tool
B. they can lead to lawsuits related to “lookism”
C. they have been banned outright in most states
D. they reveal protected class characteristics that may form the basis of a lawsuit

110. Which of the following does not have to be shown by a plaintiff in fraud and misrepresentation lawsuit related to recruiting? 
A. that a misrepresentation occurred
B. that the plaintiff relied on the information to make a decision
C. that the plaintiff had perfect knowledge regarding the misrepresentation
D. that the plaintiff was injured because of reliance on the information

111. Which of the following statements, when placed in a job message, would not be likely to create problems with the EEOC? 
A. “Applicants must be enthusiastic and willing to take risks.”
B. “Applicants should be recent college graduates.”
C. “Applicants should be healthy and athletic.”
D. “Applicants should be gentlemen of outstanding character.”

Chapter 6
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. As a result of rising recruiting, selection, training, and development costs, companies are increasingly looking externally to staff positions. 
True False

2. Hierarchical mobility paths make it very easy, from an administrative vantage point, to identify where to look for applicants in the organization. 
True False

3. Under a parallel track system, the job titles and salaries of technical specialists are treated as hierarchically arranged. 
True False

4. Alternative mobility paths tend to be very difficult to administer. 
True False

5. One hallmark of hierarchical mobility paths is an emphasis on pay for skill development and learning. 
True False

6. To maintain employee motivation, alternative mobility paths may need to be supplemented with pay for skill development and counseling sessions. 
True False

7. It is probably best to avoid listing who is eligible for open positions in a mobility policy, because it will just lock the organization in. 
True False

8. Research suggests that employees really don’t care if mobility policies are well-spelled out, because they only care if they personally get promoted. 
True False

9. If only an external recruitment search is conducted, the morale of existing employees may be reduced when they feel that they have been passed over for a promotion. 
True False

10. A major difference between internal and external recruitment is that external recruitment not only fills vacancies but also creates them. 
True False

11. Some of the features of hierarchical mobility paths include 
A. they are easier to administer
B. the prospect of promotions can motivate employees
C. they may not be useful in flat organizational structures
D. all of the above

12. Which of the following is true regarding mobility paths? 
A. Hierarchical mobility paths are primarily lateral in direction.
B. Hierarchical mobility paths make it easy to identify where to look for applicants in an organization.
C. Alternative mobility paths may move in any direction.
D. Parallel tracks allow a person to pursue one primary career track and a second career track of less importance.

13. Which of the following is a disadvantage of alternative mobility paths? 
A. they can discourage development of core disciplinary knowledge
B. they are seen as hostile to the advancement of women and minorities
C. they promote narrow skill sets
D. they often need to be supplemented with alternative reward systems to maintain motivation

14. A lattice mobility path is _________. 
A. characterized by upward, lateral, and downward movement
B. found mostly within the external recruitment process
C. used in conjunction with union contracts
D. concerned with management level recruitment only

15. Organizations have become interested in alternative mobility paths because ______________. 
A. they are extremely easy to administer
B. they allow employees to specialize in technical work or management work and advance within either
C. they promote healthy competition to obtain rewards
D. unions find them more acceptable

16. A well-defined mobility path should include all of the following except: ______________. 
A. clear communication of the intent of the policy
B. rules regarding compensation and advancement
C. encouragement for all individuals to apply
D. supervisors’ responsibilities for employee development

17. In developing career path policies, a good approach for promotion would not include which of the following? 
A. Communication of management’s intentions.
B. Reasons why external sources are preferred.
C. Rules regarding compensation.
D. Rules concerning fringe benefits.

18. Under a closed internal recruitment system, employees are not made aware of job vacancies. 
True False

19. Closed internal recruitment systems are very efficient to administer. 
True False

20. Under a hybrid system, neither open nor close steps are implemented. 
True False

21. Closed internal recruitment systems are an ideal choice if there are issues about perceived fairness and the organization want to make sure it isn’t missing out on hidden talent. 
True False

22. One problem with job postings is that employees may believe that someone has been selected before the job was posted and so will either not bother to apply or will believe the system is unfair. 
True False

23. A job posting may be announced through a bulletin board, newsletter, e-mail, or intranet. 
True False

24. Providing feedback to employees if they are not selected in a job posting system is a bad idea because it will just discourage them from responding in the future. 
True False

25. The first stage of developing a talent management system is identifying the KSAOs required for all jobs in the organization. 
True False

26. Most managers report that talent management systems have greatly simplified their work lives. 
True False

27. Self-nomination is an especially important consideration in the internal recruitment of minorities and women. 
True False

28. Internal temporary employees require more orientation to the organization than would external hires. 
True False

29. Succession planning techniques are important as the workforce increasingly approaches retirement. 
True False

30. Surveys demonstrate that employees are more satisfied when their employers provide them with ample communication and opportunities for internal advancement. 
True False

31. Career development centers are a low cost way to increase employee interest in internal career paths. 
True False

32. The degree to which an organization utilizes its own internal information on candidate qualifications and job performance will determine how qualified the applicants will be. 
True False

33. There is a great deal of research on the effectiveness of internal recruiting sources, so best practices can guide choice of the methods for internal recruiting. 
True False

34. Under a closed internal recruitment system, which of the following is not likely to occur? 
A. speed of decisions is faster than with open systems
B. contacted employees are immediately given preference under such a system
C. managers have less influence over the ultimate decision
D. overall effectiveness of the system in identifying qualified applicants will drop

35. An open system of internal recruitment can be expected to minimize ________. 
A. competition among employees
B. scrutiny of job qualifications
C. overlooking talent
D. low morale among those not advanced

36. Some of the advantages of a closed internal recruitment system include: 
A. helps minimize favoritism
B. it can uncover hidden talent
C. it helps employees evaluate their qualifications for advancement
D. none of the above

37. Which of the following is true regarding closed internal recruitment systems? 
A. Employees are made aware of all job openings.
B. They are very inefficient.
C. They are not costly to implement.
D. They are very time-consuming to implement.

38. Which of the following is true regarding an open internal recruitment system? 
A. Employees are made aware of all job openings.
B. They use a job posting and job bidding system.
C. They often lead to uncovering “hidden talent.”
D. All of the above are correct.

39. Job postings influence the recruitment process by ________. 
A. clarifying requirements of the job
B. reducing competition for the job
C. eliminating external sources from consideration
D. reducing the need for formal applications

40. Job postings are effective internal recruitment tools because they ________. 
A. resemble and support external messages
B. are efficient in matching employees to organizational needs
C. reduce record keeping
D. are far easier to prepare than external messages

41. An empirical study of the characteristics of a job posting system which lead to high user satisfaction found that _________ was(were) critical. 
A. the adequacy of job descriptions
B. the adequacy of job notification procedures
C. treatment during the interview
D. all of the above

42. KSAOs which are used in making advancement decisions are stored in _________. 
A. job descriptions
B. job specifications
C. talent management systems
D. ability inventories

43. Which of the following statements regarding talent management systems is(are) true? 
A. talent management systems are maintained by the employee
B. talent management systems simplify record keeping
C. talent management systems reduce the need for supervisory judgment in promotion decisions
D. talent management systems require a user-friendly data base for effective use

44. A company’s internal e-mail and internet capabilities ________________. 
A. make it easy and inexpensive to disseminate internal recruiting messages
B. tend to be very time-consuming ways to send messages about recruiting
C. cannot effectively complement internal recruiting methods
D. are used by 100% of organizations looking to recruit internally

45. Which of the following statements regarding talent management systems is true? 
A. they are usually based on paper files
B. they are seen as a historical tool that is not used much any more
C. they are increasingly integrated with all of an organization’s human resources information systems
D. they are almost always cheap and easy to maintain

46. Why might an organization use internal temporary pools? 
A. to decrease accountability for personnel errors
B. to avoid paying agency fees to temporary help agencies
C. to provide a buffer against lawsuits
D. both a and c

47. A ______________ provides employees with opportunities to fill out interest inventories, explore career options, and discuss plans with counselors. 
A. job-talk center
B. succession plan
C. lattice career path
D. career development center

48. Key metrics for evaluating an internal staffing system include: 
A. cost
B. quantity
C. quality
D. all of the above

49. Which of the following are important components of ensuring sufficient quality in an internal recruiting system? 
A. internal job posting systems
B. regular performance appraisals of all employees
C. systematic review of the employee value proposition
D. all of the above

50. Realistic job previews are potentially not necessary for internal recruiting because applicants may already be familiar with the jobs in question. 
True False

51. Targeted recruiting messages are especially appropriate for internal applicants when they move to an unknown job, a newly created job, or a new geographic area, including an international assignment. 
True False

52. A targeted message for internal recruits points out how the job matches the needs of the applicant. 
True False

53. Word of mouth regarding internal job openings usually serves to provide additional opportunities to women and minorities. 
True False

54. There is not much research concerning perceptions of fairness in internal recruiting processes. 
True False

55. Research suggests that procedures followed for internal recruiting and other personnel practices can be almost as important as the outcome of the decisions themselves. 
True False

56. It should not be assumed that just because job seekers come from inside the organization they will automatically know and understand the selection procedures. 
True False

57. Which of the following is true of realistic previews in internal recruiting? 
A. they are even more important than for external recruiting
B. research suggests they can increase turnover
C. they are more necessary for newly created jobs or jobs in new locations
D. they cannot really be used for internal selection

58. Which of the following is true of recruiting messages in internal recruiting? 
A. supervisors can describe mobility paths in detail to internal candidates
B. peers can give internal recruits a realistic idea of what happens in internal promotions and transfers
C. word of mouth among internal employees can lead to inaccurate information
D. all of the above are true

59. Formal policies for promotion and other internal recruiting activities can enhance: 
A. interpretive justice
B. procedural justice
C. psychological contract violations
D. extrinsic discouragement

60. The Affirmative Action Programs Regulations specifically address internal recruitment as part of the federal contractor’s AAP. 
True False

61. According to the Supreme Court, an ADA related-reassignment request must prevail over an organization’s seniority system. 
True False

62. In the absence of a discriminatory intent, virtually any seniority system is likely to be bona fide, even if it causes adverse impact. 
True False

63. The “glass ceiling” refers to strong but invisible barriers for women and minorities to promotion in organizations. 
True False

64. The Federal Glass Ceiling Commission study found that although men and women were nearly equally eager to move into management, women were much less optimistic about their chances of being promoted. 
True False

65. Research has shown that since the 1970’s there has been a radical shift in top management in most organizations, with nearly half of all top executive positions being held by women. 
True False

66. The “glass ceiling” refers to the prevalence of policies and procedures that have resulted in reverse discrimination. 
True False

67. Unequal access to development experiences and internal selection systems have both contributed to the glass ceiling. 
True False

68. Seniority-based systems may need to be eliminated as a means of reducing the prevalence of glass ceiling effects. 
True False

69. Informal promotion policies increase the ability of women and minorities to get ahead in most businesses. 
True False

70. Formal mentoring, training, and flexible work hours all may reduce the problems of the glass ceiling. 
True False

71. From a legal standpoint, it can be said that __________. 
A. the EEOC is more concerned about external recruitment procedures than internal ones
B. revised Order No. 4 does not deal with seniority
C. promotions based on subjective assessments of who is more senior are not likely to be supported in court
D. existence of “bona fide” seniority systems facilitates compliance on EEO/AA matters

72. A bona fide seniority system is _________________. 
A. typically banned by the EEOC
B. permitted in most cases under EEOC law even if it results in adverse impact
C. carefully defined by the law
D. based on a mix of factors that include perceived loyalty, commitment, and KSAO sets in the workforce

73. The combination of factors that tend to place women and minorities in fewer top management positions are collectively termed _________________. 
A. res ipsa loquitor
B. Jacob’s ladder
C. the broken elevator
D. the glass ceiling

74. Which of the following have contributed to the Glass Ceiling? 
A. rising interest rates
B. lack of outreach recruitment practices
C. frequent updating of organizational records
D. legal definition contradictions