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BUS 365 Week 11 Quiz

BUS 365 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 10 Chapter 13 and 14

Business Process Management and Systems Development

Multiple Choice

1. __________ are the building blocks of each functional area, e.g., accounts receivable (A/R) and accounts payable (A/P)
a) IT procedures
b) Business processes
c) Business strategies
d) Competitive forces

3

2. __________ is a technology approach to implementing a business process, but it’s only part of the technology required to implement business processes.
a) MIS
b) BPM
c) SaaS
d) SOA

3

3. Microsoft International’s lack of standardized business processes and process documentation had a number of adverse impacts on the HR team. Which is not one of those adverse impacts?
a) Decrease in errors by new hires
b) Increased the time and cost to train new employees
c) Limited ability to review their business processes
d) Decreased business process efficiency

4. Which is not one of the benefits that Microsoft International achieved through the use of Visio and business process modeling?
a) Significant savings in labor hours through increased process efficiency
b) Decrease in the training time of newly hired employees
c) Improved decision making through visual process analysis
d) Improved relationships with supply chain partners

5. When you break it down, you see that a business process is actually __________.
a) a project of known scope with an assigned budget
b) a loosely defined approach to solving an unstructured problem
c) a series of individual tasks executed in a specific order
d) clearly defined and automated by software

6. A process has inputs and outputs that are __________, which is necessary so it can be managed.
a) qualitative
b) measurable
c) visual
d) summary metrics

7. Business processes integrate __________.
a) software and hardware
b) ISs and people
c) data and models
d) dashboards and scoreboards

8. The __________ spec, also called the technical spec, is important to managers because it identifies how the business process will be implemented in as much detail as possible.
a) evaluation
b) implementation
c) project
d) design

9. During the implementation stage, __________ tests are critical because they determine whether the process is designed well from users’ perspective.
a) user acceptance
b) functional acceptance
c) system acceptance
d) integration

10. A(n) __________ is a set of technologies used for exchanging data between applications and for connecting processes with other systems across the organization, and with business partners.
a) ERP
b) mashup
c) SOA
d) Web service

11. During the implementation stage, __________ tests are critical because that is when analysts test whether the process performs its functions.
a) user acceptance
b) functional acceptance
c) system acceptance
d) technical acceptance

12. During the implementation stage, __________ tests are conducted by technical experts who attest that the process is integrated correctly with inputs and outputs of other processes and data sources and data stores
a) user acceptance
b) functional acceptance
c) system acceptance
d) integration acceptance

13. In the short term, business process management (BPM) helps companies __________.
a) improve profitability by reducing waste and costs
b) become more responsive to business changes
c) increase sales revenues and profit margins
d) all of the above

14. In the long term, business process management (BPM) helps companies __________.
a) improve profitability by reducing waste and costs
b) become more responsive to business changes
c) increase sales revenues and profit margins
d) all of the above

15. After decades of business process reengineering attempts, organizations still have problems with their business operations. What are those problems?
a) They duplicate processes
b) They perform hundreds of non-core tasks that should be outsourced
c) They spend vast amounts on proprietary process-management software that’s difficult to update
d) All of the above

16. British Telecom, United Airlines, and other companies that focused their BPM initiatives on process automation and cost savings had achieved significant operational efficiencies __________.
a) and higher market share
b) but lost their competitive edge and fell short of their performance targets
c) but only for a short time as competitors copied their efforts
d) because they were linked to their business strategies.

17. Changes to business apps that were needed prior to year 2000 were tedious and time-consuming because they were tightly coupled programs written in __________.
a) COBOL
b) Java
c) Visio
d) Flash

18. __________ components have minimal dependence on each other, which simplifies testing, maintenance and troubleshooting because problems are easy to isolate and unlikely to spread.
a) Tightly coupled
b) Hardwired
c) Loosely connected
d) COBOL

19. The advantage of the __________ is that any tier can be upgraded or replaced independently as business requirements or technology change.
a) tightly coupled architecture
b) middleware and graphical user-interface
c) three-tier software architecture
d) four-module tiered architecture

20. What was the underlying reason for the failure of the 2010 U.S. Census Bureau’s Handheld Project?
a) Failure of top management in the bureau to assess and mitigate risks of such a major project
b) Technical and database failures
c) Poor project management approach
d) Insufficient training of the census takers on how to use the handheld devices

21. Options for the acquisition of complex IT applications are all of the following except:
a) Built in-house
b) Custom-made by a vendor
c) Leased from an application service provider (ASP)
d) Out-of-the-box

22. For in-house development, the __________ option should be considered only for specialized IT apps for which components are not available because this option is expensive and slow.
a) build from components
b) build from scratch
c) integrating applications
d) prototyping

23. End-user development has risks and limitations, which include each of the following except:
a) End users may not be skilled enough in computers, so quality and cost may be jeopardized.
b) End users may not take time to document their work
c) End users may neglect proper security measures.
d) There may be an endless loop of prototype revisions.

24. Projects are managed by managing the triple constraints. Which is not one of those constraints?
a) approval
b) scope
c) time
d) budget

25. A project plan is specified in a __________.
a) resource pool
b) Gantt chart
c) work breakdown structure (WBS)
d) critical path

26. Project managers need to recognize the risk of __________, which is the piling up of small changes that by themselves are manageable, but collectively can cause significant project growth.
a) over allocation
b) critical path
c) triple constraints
d) scope creep

27. Project management includes three basic operations. Which is not one of those operations?
a) planning
b) budgeting
c) organizing
d) controlling

28. Project managers must manage the __________, which consists of tasks that must start and finish on schedule or the project will be delayed unless corrective action is taken.
a) over allocation
b) critical path
c) triple constraints
d) scope creep

29. The success of a project manager depends on all of the following except:
a) use of the critical path method and Gantt charts
b) clear, open, and timely communication
c) accurate, timely, and complete information
d) commitment from team members

30. The __________ is the traditional systems development method used by organizations for large IT projects such as IT infrastructure.
a) prototyping method
b) systems development life cycle (SDLC)
c) critical path method
d) sourcing method

31. Systems development involves __________, which is the revising of results of any development process when new information makes revision the smart thing to do.
a) iteration
b) scope creep
c) constraints
d) prototyping

32. The first stage of the SDLC is __________ to understand the business problem or opportunity.
a) systems analysis
b) systems investigation
c) prototyping
d) systems design

33. During the systems investigation stage, __________ studies are done to determine if the hardware, software, and communications components can be developed and/or acquired to solve the business problem.
a) economic feasibility
b) technical feasibility
c) ROI
d) NPV

34. During the systems investigation stage, __________ studies are done to assess the skills and the training needed to use the new IS.
a) economic feasibility
b) technical feasibility
c) organizational feasibility
d) behavioral feasibility

35. Covert resistance to a new IS from employees may take the form of __________.
a) sabotaging the new system by entering data incorrectly
b) continuing to do their jobs using their old methods
c) complaining about the new system for extended time
d) All of the above

36. __________ specifications include the design of outputs, inputs, processing, databases, telecommunications, controls, security, and IS jobs.
a) Physical design
b) Logical design
c) End-user
d) Systems analysis

37. When the system’s logical and physical designs specifications are agreed upon and approved by all participants, they __________.
a) should not be changed
b) should be flexible to changes
c) are used to develop the prototype
d) determine the budget and timeline for development

38. To add rigor to the programming process, programmers use __________ that improve the flow of the program by decomposing the computer code into modules.
a) GOTO statements
b) flowcharts
c) structured programming techniques
d) All of the above

39. Which is not a characteristic of program testing?
a) Testing verifies that computer code works correctly under various conditions.
b) Syntax errors are easier to find than logic errors because they prevent the program from running.
c) Logic errors are difficult to detect because they permit the program to run but result in incorrect output.
d) Proper testing can be done quickly and with little effort.

40. __________ conversion is the least expensive and highest risk IS conversion strategy because the old system is cut off and the new system is turned on at a certain point in time.
a) Parallel
b) Direct
c) Pilot
d) Phased

True/False

41. A business process, such as the credit approval process, accomplishes or produces something of value to the organization.

42. In order to manage a process, the process needs to have outputs that are measurable.

43. Process design is typically mapped and documented using a modeling tool, such as Microsoft Excel.

44. Not only is the development of the process important, the testing is equally as critical.

45. The BPM approach has its roots in just-in-time (JIT), which is the radical redesign of an organization’s business processes.

46. The BPR and JIT approaches were both based on assumptions. And if those assumptions are not met, then they will fail to achieve the great expected results.

47. Many JIT implementations in the U.S. actually increased inventory costs because JIT is based on the assumption that warehousing costs are extremely high, as they were in Japan where JIT was initiated by Toyota.

48. When applying business process reengineering (BPR), managers first attempt to automate or semi-automate an organization’s business processes.

49. An advantage of JIT is that it significantly decreases transportation and ordering costs.

50. In the 1990s, most organizations failed to achieve fundamental business process improvements because they attended a BPR seminar and then made mistakes in the implementation.

51. After decades of reengineering attempts, organizations no longer duplicate processes or perform non-core tasks that should be outsourced.

52. If organizations focus exclusively on automation and cost savings, they might achieve significant operational efficiencies but lose their competitive edge.

53. SOA is a confusing concept, even for practitioners, because SOA is mistakenly described like BPM or the definition is incomprehensible.

54. . An important aspect of SOA is the separation of the service interface (the what) from its implementation (the how).

55. SOA and BPM both focus on creating a more flexible IT architecture and optimizing the way actual work gets done.

56. Web services can connect processes with other systems across the organization, and with business partners. The resulting integrated BPM systems are BPM mashups.

57. The goal of loose coupling of apps is to reduce dependencies between systems to improve flexibility and agility.

58. Project resources must be managed according to the Gantt chart.

59. The SDLC is a structured framework that consists of sequential processes by which information systems are developed.

60. For many organizations, custom software is more expensive than packaged applications. However, if a package does not closely fit the company‘s needs, the savings are often diluted when the information systems staff or consultants must extend the functionality of the purchased packages.

Short Answer

61. A __________ is the smallest unit of work and management accountability that is not split into more detailed steps.

62. __________ are pre-configured, ready-to-go integrations between different business software packages. They streamline information sharing among systems.

63. __________ refers to a broad range of software or services that enable communication or data exchange between applications across networks.

64. __________ testing is important because it determines whether the app meets the original business objectives and vision.

65. Large IT projects, especially ones that involve infrastructure, are developed according to the __________ methodology using several tools.

66. A __________ is a type of bar chart that shows a project schedule.

67. __________ is the growth of the project after the scope has been defined and is a serious issue because it can cause the project to fail.

68. The purpose of the __________ is to recognize which activities are on the critical path so that managers know where to focus their efforts.

69. __________ are information systems professionals who specialize in analyzing and designing information systems.

70. In a __________ conversion, the old system and the new system operate simultaneously for a period of time, which is the most expensive, but also the least risky approach.

Essay

71. Sketch or list the four stages of the business process lifecycle.

72. List and briefly describe the four tests performed on modules that have been installed before going live.

73. Identify the tiers of the Three-tier architecture. Describe or give an example of each tier.

74. List and describe the triple constraints of project management.

75. Select a standard business process, such as payroll. Draw a flowchart of an app for that business process.

Chapter 14 Global Ecology, Ethics, and Social Responsibility

Multiple Choice

1. Carbon footprint refers to the amount of __________ emitted by a particular activity, industry, or value chain.
a) CO
b) CO2
c) CO2 and other GHGs
d) coal and biofuels

2. Carbon footprint is typically measured in __________.
a) metric tonne (ton) carbon dioxide equivalent
b) carbon dioxide equivalent per year
c) GHG
d) carbon monoxide emissions

3. The IT sector is responsible for an estimated __________ of the global carbon footprint as a result of emissions from the energy used to run servers, computers, and other hardware.
a) 0.10 to 0.20 percent
b) 0.50 percent
c) 2 to 3 percent
d) 10 percent

4. The IT sector can cut its carbon footprint cut in half by _____.
a) switching to low emission data centers
b) buying eco-friendly hard drives with considerably reduced power consumption
c) placing data center in cold climates
d) all of the above

5. What is global warming?
a) The buildup of CO2.
b) The upward trend in the Earth atmosphere’s global mean temperature (GMT).
c) The holding of heat within Earth’s atmosphere by certain GHGs that absorb infrared radiation.
d) The sea level rise and melting of polar caps.

6. What is the greenhouse effect?
a) The buildup of CO2.
b) The upward trend in the Earth atmosphere’s global mean temperature (GMT).
c) The holding of heat within Earth’s atmosphere by certain GHGs that absorb infrared radiation.
d) The sea level rise and melting of polar caps.

7. Better use of IT to shift away from energy-intensive work habits and lifestyles to low carbon habits and lifestyles depends on _____.
a) mobile technologies
b) commitment of senior managers
c) government policy, incentives for companies, and active participation of consumers
d) cloud computing

8. In environmental terms, a process or industry is __________ when it uses up natural resources faster than they can be replenished.
a) low carbon
b) unsustainable
c) green
d) renewable

9. The GSMA’s Green Power for Mobile (GPM) program has the goal of helping the mobile industry use renewable energy sources, such as __________ to power over 100,000 off-grid base stations in developing countries by 2012.
a) solar, wind, and sustainable biofuels
b) nuclear and solar
c) hydro, coal and wind
d) diesel and solar

10. MTN Group is the mobile telecom company operating in Africa and the Middle East. MTN has reduced GHG emissions and costs by using __________ to run mobile base stations.
a) diesel
b) soybean biofuel
c) wind energy
d) hydro power

11. Routers, switches, and modems operated by end users have been inefficient power guzzling machines mostly because __________.
a) they are built at the lowest possible cost
b) eco-friendly manufacturing did not exist
c) performance speeds were higher than green ones
d) such machines were more reliable than green ones

12. Why are mobile handsets a threat to the environment?
a) They consume a lot of electric power.
b) They emit infrared radiation.
c) The renewal rates of mobiles tend to be very slow.
d) Millions of phones are disposed of, but recycling practices are very poor.

13. The Internet is composed of huge numbers of power-consuming, heat-generating __________ running 24x7x365 worldwide and __________ that direct data packets over networks to their destination.
a) servers; routers
b) firewalls; switches
c) Web sites; databases
d) proxies; wireless access points

14. Which is not one of the characteristics or challenges associated with green IT?
a) Trying to quantify the cost savings of green IT may be impossible or non-applicable if cloud computing is used because the beneficiary of energy-efficient servers is not the company, but their outsourcer.
b) The Society for Information Management (SIM) surveyed CIOs and IT executives about their top IT and business priorities for 2010. Green IT was their top concern.
c) Green IT is a continuous process and requires long-term operating policies.
d) Green IT initiatives should be described in terms of reducing waste and inefficiency to get management’s attention.

15. Industry standards __________ change. Those standards keep ramping up and will again.
a) EPEAT and ENERGY STAR
b) Green STAR
c) SIM
d) EPA

16. The “Next Generation Data Center” strategy is based on the ability to deliver and support secure IT applications through __________.
a) mobile devices
b) wireless networks
c) green IT
d) virtualization

17. Data center virtualization means that servers are __________.
a) integrated so that they can be shared
b) condensed to increase processing power
c) consolidated so they are more secure
d) distributed to reduce cost

18. As part of RoHS sustainability regulations, EU members agreed that new __________ put on the market cannot contain six banned substances—including lead, mercury, and hexavalent chromium—in quantities exceeding maximum concentration values.
a) automobile parts
b) packaging and building materials
c) electrical and electronic equipment
d) computers

19. Opponents of social media monitoring define it as __________.
a) an unfair advantage or exploitation
b) environmentally harmful
c) spying and intolerable invasions of privacy
d) a business security risk

20. Despite the challenges and lack of clear answers, ethics is important because it has become clear that relying on __________ alone to safeguard the community is insufficient.
a) corporate policy
b) the law
c) audit trails
d) moral behavior

21. Blogging to influence financial markets may be deemed by the FTC or SEC as a(n) __________, particularly when done by the CEO hiding his identity.
a) federal crime
b) invasion of privacy
c) insider trading
d) money laundering

22. IT’s capability to introduce ever-growing amounts of data into our lives can exceed our capacity to keep up with the data, leading to __________.
a) digital divide
b) Net neutrality
c) large carbon footprint
d) information overload

23. Bloomberg BusinessWeek (2008) reported that knowledge workers are distracted __________ at work—answering the phone, checking e-mail, responding to a text, or checking YouTube or Facebook.
a) every three minutes
b) every 15 minutes
c) every hour
d) at least twice a day

24. Which does not describe issues or characteristics of information quality?
a) Information quality is mandated by several legislations.
b) Information quality is a subjective measure of the utility, objectivity, and integrity of gathered information.
c) The most common problem that plagues online information sources is aged or outdated content.
d) Millions of individuals face information quality issues on a daily basis as they try to find information online.

25. Reduction in the total number of employees, reengineering of business processes, and the ability of lower-level employees to perform higher-level jobs may result in __________.
a) an increase in the number of special units
b) increased spans of control
c) centralization of authority
d) flatter organizational hierarchies

26. There is a trend toward __________ because the adaptable IT framework makes it much easier to manage issues of cost, scale and agility.
a) cloud computing
b) social media
c) fluid collaboration
d) service oriented architecture

27. New capabilities that are paving the way for new classes of Web apps include each of the following except:
a) location-awareness
b) online/offline modes
c) green IT
d) social connectivity

28. Which is not one of the trends in the future of IT in organizations?
a) Move into cloud computing
b) The new Web as a turning point
c) Devices become more specialized in the content they deliver
d) Conversation economy

29. As analytics become a commodity, the real differentiators are __________ and the ability to make productive decisions.
a) data quality
b) location-based services
c) social media
d) fluid collaboration

30. Technological and economic forces are prompting fresh approaches to systems development using __________ for competitive advantage.
a) in-house development
b) proprietary apps
c) open source software
d) fourth-generation languages or software

True/False

31. Tackling global warming by reducing emissions of greenhouse gases is high on the list of global challenges.

32. Carbon footprint refers to the amount of infrared, CO2 and other GHGs emitted per day by a computing or mobile device.

33. Global warming is typically measured in MtCO2e, which stands for metric tonne carbon dioxide equivalent.

34. Annual emissions are generally measured in gigatonnes (billions of tonnes) of carbon dioxide equivalent per year (GtCO2e/y).

35. All carbon emissions worldwide make up the global carbon footprint.

36. The IT sector, including computing and telecommunications, is responsible for an estimated 10 percent of the global carbon footprint as a result of emissions from the energy used to run servers, computers, and other hardware.

37. IT can play a significant role in reducing GtCO2e/y in the transportation industries.

38. Innovative IT solutions can provide both a better quality of life and contribute to dramatically reduced emissions. That is, quality of life and reduced emissions do not require a tradeoff.

39. Business associations continue to fight against initiatives to reduce energy consumption and carbon emissions.

40. Warnings from the scientific community point to dangers from the ongoing buildup of CO2 and greenhouse gases mostly from the burning of fossil fuels and forests.

41. The greenhouse effect refers to the holding of heat within Earth’s atmosphere by certain GHGs such as CO2, methane, and nitrous oxide that absorb infrared radiation.

42. Scientists predict that the increased temperature and sea level rise from global warming adversely affect the Earth’s biodiversity.

43. Scientists have determined that we should aim to stabilize the concentration of GHGs in the atmosphere in the range 450 to 550 parts per million (ppm), which is much lower than our present level.

44. The Keeling Curve tracks changes in the concentration of CO2 in the Earth’s atmosphere at a Mauna Loa research station.

45. The Keeling curve has become the symbol of the ever-changing chemistry of the earth’s atmosphere and the associated global warming.

46. In 2008, The Climate Group found that the information and communications technology (ICT) is a minor sector in the struggle to reduce climate warming.

47. Transforming the way people and businesses use IT could reduce annual human-caused global emissions by 15 per cent by 2020.

48. IT sector’s own footprint of 10 per cent of global emissions could decrease by 2020 despite increased demand for smartphones and other hardware, software, and services.

49. IT has the unique ability to monitor and maximize energy efficiency both within and outside of its own industry sector to cut CO2 emissions.

50. From smart meters to smart grids, the Climate Group is working with members and partners, such as Google and Cisco, to build on the enormous potential and economic opportunities of IT in the low carbon economy.

51. The role of IT includes emission reduction and energy savings only in the IT sector itself.

52. “Smart” as in smart buildings means that wasted-energy and materials are minimized; and procurement, manufacturing, distribution, service, and recycling are done in an environmentally friendly manner.

53. Green, whether applied to energy, technology, or consumption of resources in general, refers to the concept of using things at a rate that does not deplete its availability in future generations.

54. Sustainability, the study and practice of eco-friendly computing resources, may be in companies’ best financial interests.

55. Questions about data access and capture, tracking and monitoring, privacy and profiling are examples of IT capabilities that have ethical considerations. And there are no easy or agreed to answers to these dilemmas.

56. Globalization, the Internet, and connectivity have the power to undermine moral responsibility because it becomes relatively easy to ignore the harm that might be done to others.

57. IT decreases span of control, increases productivity, and increases the need for technical experts.

58. The trend toward cloud computing allows any part of the IT to be sourced from the Internet, ultimately offering a more flexible model that aligns better with business objectives.

59. Collaboration across time zones and geographies cannot become a business norm until language and cultural differences are minimized.

60. With IT creating organizations that have the characteristics of elasticity—scalable, infinitely flexible, and adaptive—companies and your job will be defined by IT.

Short Answer

61. __________ refers to the concept of using things at a rate that does not deplete its availability in future generations.

62. __________ technology optimizes the capacity and processing power of servers so that fewer servers are needed to provide the necessary processing power.

63. __________ qualified products use less energy.

64. __________ or virtual work, offers many green benefits, including reducing rush-hour traffic, improving air quality, improving highway safety, and even improving healthcare.

65. __________ may be considered an integral component of social media strategies because it gives marketers the ability to discover public conversations about their brands and, if necessary, respond to posters directly or to their posts.

66. Free speech and __________ collide in a world populated by anonymous critics, vengeful people, those with personal agendas, and malcontents.

67. IT’s capability to introduce ever-growing amounts of data into our lives can exceed our capacity to keep up with the data, leading to __________.

68. The Web is undergoing its most significant overhaul since the emergence of __________, and will emerge as an increasingly attractive enterprise platform.

69. __________ are emerging as a rich source of information about consumer sentiment, preferences and desires.

70. As analytics become a commodity, data and decision quality will provide the real competitive __________ .

Essay

71. List two financial benefits associated with becoming a sustainable company, including green IT.

72. Identify and explain two myths about green IT.

73. What are the benefits of telework to individuals, organizations, and the community/society? Give two benefits to each.

74. Discuss the competing interests and tradeoffs at work when the issue is privacy.

75. Discuss the impacts of IT on each of the following: organizational structure, authority, power, and job content.

BUS 365 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer University New

BUS/365 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 10 Chapter 13 and 14

Business Process Management and Systems Development

Multiple Choice

1. __________ are the building blocks of each functional area, e.g., accounts receivable (A/R) and accounts payable (A/P)
a) IT procedures
b) Business processes
c) Business strategies
d) Competitive forces

3

2. __________ is a technology approach to implementing a business process, but it’s only part of the technology required to implement business processes.
a) MIS
b) BPM
c) SaaS
d) SOA

3

3. Microsoft International’s lack of standardized business processes and process documentation had a number of adverse impacts on the HR team. Which is not one of those adverse impacts?
a) Decrease in errors by new hires
b) Increased the time and cost to train new employees
c) Limited ability to review their business processes
d) Decreased business process efficiency

4. Which is not one of the benefits that Microsoft International achieved through the use of Visio and business process modeling?
a) Significant savings in labor hours through increased process efficiency
b) Decrease in the training time of newly hired employees
c) Improved decision making through visual process analysis
d) Improved relationships with supply chain partners

5. When you break it down, you see that a business process is actually __________.
a) a project of known scope with an assigned budget
b) a loosely defined approach to solving an unstructured problem
c) a series of individual tasks executed in a specific order
d) clearly defined and automated by software

6. A process has inputs and outputs that are __________, which is necessary so it can be managed.
a) qualitative
b) measurable
c) visual
d) summary metrics

7. Business processes integrate __________.
a) software and hardware
b) ISs and people
c) data and models
d) dashboards and scoreboards

8. The __________ spec, also called the technical spec, is important to managers because it identifies how the business process will be implemented in as much detail as possible.
a) evaluation
b) implementation
c) project
d) design

9. During the implementation stage, __________ tests are critical because they determine whether the process is designed well from users’ perspective.
a) user acceptance
b) functional acceptance
c) system acceptance
d) integration

10. A(n) __________ is a set of technologies used for exchanging data between applications and for connecting processes with other systems across the organization, and with business partners.
a) ERP
b) mashup
c) SOA
d) Web service

11. During the implementation stage, __________ tests are critical because that is when analysts test whether the process performs its functions.
a) user acceptance
b) functional acceptance
c) system acceptance
d) technical acceptance

12. During the implementation stage, __________ tests are conducted by technical experts who attest that the process is integrated correctly with inputs and outputs of other processes and data sources and data stores
a) user acceptance
b) functional acceptance
c) system acceptance
d) integration acceptance

13. In the short term, business process management (BPM) helps companies __________.
a) improve profitability by reducing waste and costs
b) become more responsive to business changes
c) increase sales revenues and profit margins
d) all of the above

14. In the long term, business process management (BPM) helps companies __________.
a) improve profitability by reducing waste and costs
b) become more responsive to business changes
c) increase sales revenues and profit margins
d) all of the above

15. After decades of business process reengineering attempts, organizations still have problems with their business operations. What are those problems?
a) They duplicate processes
b) They perform hundreds of non-core tasks that should be outsourced
c) They spend vast amounts on proprietary process-management software that’s difficult to update
d) All of the above

16. British Telecom, United Airlines, and other companies that focused their BPM initiatives on process automation and cost savings had achieved significant operational efficiencies __________.
a) and higher market share
b) but lost their competitive edge and fell short of their performance targets
c) but only for a short time as competitors copied their efforts
d) because they were linked to their business strategies.

17. Changes to business apps that were needed prior to year 2000 were tedious and time-consuming because they were tightly coupled programs written in __________.
a) COBOL
b) Java
c) Visio
d) Flash

18. __________ components have minimal dependence on each other, which simplifies testing, maintenance and troubleshooting because problems are easy to isolate and unlikely to spread.
a) Tightly coupled
b) Hardwired
c) Loosely connected
d) COBOL

19. The advantage of the __________ is that any tier can be upgraded or replaced independently as business requirements or technology change.
a) tightly coupled architecture
b) middleware and graphical user-interface
c) three-tier software architecture
d) four-module tiered architecture

20. What was the underlying reason for the failure of the 2010 U.S. Census Bureau’s Handheld Project?
a) Failure of top management in the bureau to assess and mitigate risks of such a major project
b) Technical and database failures
c) Poor project management approach
d) Insufficient training of the census takers on how to use the handheld devices

21. Options for the acquisition of complex IT applications are all of the following except:
a) Built in-house
b) Custom-made by a vendor
c) Leased from an application service provider (ASP)
d) Out-of-the-box

22. For in-house development, the __________ option should be considered only for specialized IT apps for which components are not available because this option is expensive and slow.
a) build from components
b) build from scratch
c) integrating applications
d) prototyping

23. End-user development has risks and limitations, which include each of the following except:
a) End users may not be skilled enough in computers, so quality and cost may be jeopardized.
b) End users may not take time to document their work
c) End users may neglect proper security measures.
d) There may be an endless loop of prototype revisions.

24. Projects are managed by managing the triple constraints. Which is not one of those constraints?
a) approval
b) scope
c) time
d) budget

25. A project plan is specified in a __________.
a) resource pool
b) Gantt chart
c) work breakdown structure (WBS)
d) critical path

26. Project managers need to recognize the risk of __________, which is the piling up of small changes that by themselves are manageable, but collectively can cause significant project growth.
a) over allocation
b) critical path
c) triple constraints
d) scope creep

27. Project management includes three basic operations. Which is not one of those operations?
a) planning
b) budgeting
c) organizing
d) controlling

28. Project managers must manage the __________, which consists of tasks that must start and finish on schedule or the project will be delayed unless corrective action is taken.
a) over allocation
b) critical path
c) triple constraints
d) scope creep

29. The success of a project manager depends on all of the following except:
a) use of the critical path method and Gantt charts
b) clear, open, and timely communication
c) accurate, timely, and complete information
d) commitment from team members

30. The __________ is the traditional systems development method used by organizations for large IT projects such as IT infrastructure.
a) prototyping method
b) systems development life cycle (SDLC)
c) critical path method
d) sourcing method

31. Systems development involves __________, which is the revising of results of any development process when new information makes revision the smart thing to do.
a) iteration
b) scope creep
c) constraints
d) prototyping

32. The first stage of the SDLC is __________ to understand the business problem or opportunity.
a) systems analysis
b) systems investigation
c) prototyping
d) systems design

33. During the systems investigation stage, __________ studies are done to determine if the hardware, software, and communications components can be developed and/or acquired to solve the business problem.
a) economic feasibility
b) technical feasibility
c) ROI
d) NPV

34. During the systems investigation stage, __________ studies are done to assess the skills and the training needed to use the new IS.
a) economic feasibility
b) technical feasibility
c) organizational feasibility
d) behavioral feasibility

35. Covert resistance to a new IS from employees may take the form of __________.
a) sabotaging the new system by entering data incorrectly
b) continuing to do their jobs using their old methods
c) complaining about the new system for extended time
d) All of the above

36. __________ specifications include the design of outputs, inputs, processing, databases, telecommunications, controls, security, and IS jobs.
a) Physical design
b) Logical design
c) End-user
d) Systems analysis

37. When the system’s logical and physical designs specifications are agreed upon and approved by all participants, they __________.
a) should not be changed
b) should be flexible to changes
c) are used to develop the prototype
d) determine the budget and timeline for development

38. To add rigor to the programming process, programmers use __________ that improve the flow of the program by decomposing the computer code into modules.
a) GOTO statements
b) flowcharts
c) structured programming techniques
d) All of the above

39. Which is not a characteristic of program testing?
a) Testing verifies that computer code works correctly under various conditions.
b) Syntax errors are easier to find than logic errors because they prevent the program from running.
c) Logic errors are difficult to detect because they permit the program to run but result in incorrect output.
d) Proper testing can be done quickly and with little effort.

40. __________ conversion is the least expensive and highest risk IS conversion strategy because the old system is cut off and the new system is turned on at a certain point in time.
a) Parallel
b) Direct
c) Pilot
d) Phased

True/False

41. A business process, such as the credit approval process, accomplishes or produces something of value to the organization.

42. In order to manage a process, the process needs to have outputs that are measurable.

43. Process design is typically mapped and documented using a modeling tool, such as Microsoft Excel.

44. Not only is the development of the process important, the testing is equally as critical.

45. The BPM approach has its roots in just-in-time (JIT), which is the radical redesign of an organization’s business processes.

46. The BPR and JIT approaches were both based on assumptions. And if those assumptions are not met, then they will fail to achieve the great expected results.

47. Many JIT implementations in the U.S. actually increased inventory costs because JIT is based on the assumption that warehousing costs are extremely high, as they were in Japan where JIT was initiated by Toyota.

48. When applying business process reengineering (BPR), managers first attempt to automate or semi-automate an organization’s business processes.

49. An advantage of JIT is that it significantly decreases transportation and ordering costs.

50. In the 1990s, most organizations failed to achieve fundamental business process improvements because they attended a BPR seminar and then made mistakes in the implementation.

51. After decades of reengineering attempts, organizations no longer duplicate processes or perform non-core tasks that should be outsourced.

52. If organizations focus exclusively on automation and cost savings, they might achieve significant operational efficiencies but lose their competitive edge.

53. SOA is a confusing concept, even for practitioners, because SOA is mistakenly described like BPM or the definition is incomprehensible.

54. . An important aspect of SOA is the separation of the service interface (the what) from its implementation (the how).

55. SOA and BPM both focus on creating a more flexible IT architecture and optimizing the way actual work gets done.

56. Web services can connect processes with other systems across the organization, and with business partners. The resulting integrated BPM systems are BPM mashups.

57. The goal of loose coupling of apps is to reduce dependencies between systems to improve flexibility and agility.

58. Project resources must be managed according to the Gantt chart.

59. The SDLC is a structured framework that consists of sequential processes by which information systems are developed.

60. For many organizations, custom software is more expensive than packaged applications. However, if a package does not closely fit the company‘s needs, the savings are often diluted when the information systems staff or consultants must extend the functionality of the purchased packages.

Short Answer

61. A __________ is the smallest unit of work and management accountability that is not split into more detailed steps.

62. __________ are pre-configured, ready-to-go integrations between different business software packages. They streamline information sharing among systems.

63. __________ refers to a broad range of software or services that enable communication or data exchange between applications across networks.

64. __________ testing is important because it determines whether the app meets the original business objectives and vision.

65. Large IT projects, especially ones that involve infrastructure, are developed according to the __________ methodology using several tools.

66. A __________ is a type of bar chart that shows a project schedule.

67. __________ is the growth of the project after the scope has been defined and is a serious issue because it can cause the project to fail.

68. The purpose of the __________ is to recognize which activities are on the critical path so that managers know where to focus their efforts.

69. __________ are information systems professionals who specialize in analyzing and designing information systems.

70. In a __________ conversion, the old system and the new system operate simultaneously for a period of time, which is the most expensive, but also the least risky approach.

Essay

71. Sketch or list the four stages of the business process lifecycle.

72. List and briefly describe the four tests performed on modules that have been installed before going live.

73. Identify the tiers of the Three-tier architecture. Describe or give an example of each tier.

74. List and describe the triple constraints of project management.

75. Select a standard business process, such as payroll. Draw a flowchart of an app for that business process.

Chapter 14 Global Ecology, Ethics, and Social Responsibility

Multiple Choice

1. Carbon footprint refers to the amount of __________ emitted by a particular activity, industry, or value chain.
a) CO
b) CO2
c) CO2 and other GHGs
d) coal and biofuels

2. Carbon footprint is typically measured in __________.
a) metric tonne (ton) carbon dioxide equivalent
b) carbon dioxide equivalent per year
c) GHG
d) carbon monoxide emissions

3. The IT sector is responsible for an estimated __________ of the global carbon footprint as a result of emissions from the energy used to run servers, computers, and other hardware.
a) 0.10 to 0.20 percent
b) 0.50 percent
c) 2 to 3 percent
d) 10 percent

4. The IT sector can cut its carbon footprint cut in half by _____.
a) switching to low emission data centers
b) buying eco-friendly hard drives with considerably reduced power consumption
c) placing data center in cold climates
d) all of the above

5. What is global warming?
a) The buildup of CO2.
b) The upward trend in the Earth atmosphere’s global mean temperature (GMT).
c) The holding of heat within Earth’s atmosphere by certain GHGs that absorb infrared radiation.
d) The sea level rise and melting of polar caps.

6. What is the greenhouse effect?
a) The buildup of CO2.
b) The upward trend in the Earth atmosphere’s global mean temperature (GMT).
c) The holding of heat within Earth’s atmosphere by certain GHGs that absorb infrared radiation.
d) The sea level rise and melting of polar caps.

7. Better use of IT to shift away from energy-intensive work habits and lifestyles to low carbon habits and lifestyles depends on _____.
a) mobile technologies
b) commitment of senior managers
c) government policy, incentives for companies, and active participation of consumers
d) cloud computing

8. In environmental terms, a process or industry is __________ when it uses up natural resources faster than they can be replenished.
a) low carbon
b) unsustainable
c) green
d) renewable

9. The GSMA’s Green Power for Mobile (GPM) program has the goal of helping the mobile industry use renewable energy sources, such as __________ to power over 100,000 off-grid base stations in developing countries by 2012.
a) solar, wind, and sustainable biofuels
b) nuclear and solar
c) hydro, coal and wind
d) diesel and solar

10. MTN Group is the mobile telecom company operating in Africa and the Middle East. MTN has reduced GHG emissions and costs by using __________ to run mobile base stations.
a) diesel
b) soybean biofuel
c) wind energy
d) hydro power

11. Routers, switches, and modems operated by end users have been inefficient power guzzling machines mostly because __________.
a) they are built at the lowest possible cost
b) eco-friendly manufacturing did not exist
c) performance speeds were higher than green ones
d) such machines were more reliable than green ones

12. Why are mobile handsets a threat to the environment?
a) They consume a lot of electric power.
b) They emit infrared radiation.
c) The renewal rates of mobiles tend to be very slow.
d) Millions of phones are disposed of, but recycling practices are very poor.

13. The Internet is composed of huge numbers of power-consuming, heat-generating __________ running 24x7x365 worldwide and __________ that direct data packets over networks to their destination.
a) servers; routers
b) firewalls; switches
c) Web sites; databases
d) proxies; wireless access points

14. Which is not one of the characteristics or challenges associated with green IT?
a) Trying to quantify the cost savings of green IT may be impossible or non-applicable if cloud computing is used because the beneficiary of energy-efficient servers is not the company, but their outsourcer.
b) The Society for Information Management (SIM) surveyed CIOs and IT executives about their top IT and business priorities for 2010. Green IT was their top concern.
c) Green IT is a continuous process and requires long-term operating policies.
d) Green IT initiatives should be described in terms of reducing waste and inefficiency to get management’s attention.

15. Industry standards __________ change. Those standards keep ramping up and will again.
a) EPEAT and ENERGY STAR
b) Green STAR
c) SIM
d) EPA

16. The “Next Generation Data Center” strategy is based on the ability to deliver and support secure IT applications through __________.
a) mobile devices
b) wireless networks
c) green IT
d) virtualization

17. Data center virtualization means that servers are __________.
a) integrated so that they can be shared
b) condensed to increase processing power
c) consolidated so they are more secure
d) distributed to reduce cost

18. As part of RoHS sustainability regulations, EU members agreed that new __________ put on the market cannot contain six banned substances—including lead, mercury, and hexavalent chromium—in quantities exceeding maximum concentration values.
a) automobile parts
b) packaging and building materials
c) electrical and electronic equipment
d) computers

19. Opponents of social media monitoring define it as __________.
a) an unfair advantage or exploitation
b) environmentally harmful
c) spying and intolerable invasions of privacy
d) a business security risk

20. Despite the challenges and lack of clear answers, ethics is important because it has become clear that relying on __________ alone to safeguard the community is insufficient.
a) corporate policy
b) the law
c) audit trails
d) moral behavior

21. Blogging to influence financial markets may be deemed by the FTC or SEC as a(n) __________, particularly when done by the CEO hiding his identity.
a) federal crime
b) invasion of privacy
c) insider trading
d) money laundering

22. IT’s capability to introduce ever-growing amounts of data into our lives can exceed our capacity to keep up with the data, leading to __________.
a) digital divide
b) Net neutrality
c) large carbon footprint
d) information overload

23. Bloomberg BusinessWeek (2008) reported that knowledge workers are distracted __________ at work—answering the phone, checking e-mail, responding to a text, or checking YouTube or Facebook.
a) every three minutes
b) every 15 minutes
c) every hour
d) at least twice a day

24. Which does not describe issues or characteristics of information quality?
a) Information quality is mandated by several legislations.
b) Information quality is a subjective measure of the utility, objectivity, and integrity of gathered information.
c) The most common problem that plagues online information sources is aged or outdated content.
d) Millions of individuals face information quality issues on a daily basis as they try to find information online.

25. Reduction in the total number of employees, reengineering of business processes, and the ability of lower-level employees to perform higher-level jobs may result in __________.
a) an increase in the number of special units
b) increased spans of control
c) centralization of authority
d) flatter organizational hierarchies

26. There is a trend toward __________ because the adaptable IT framework makes it much easier to manage issues of cost, scale and agility.
a) cloud computing
b) social media
c) fluid collaboration
d) service oriented architecture

27. New capabilities that are paving the way for new classes of Web apps include each of the following except:
a) location-awareness
b) online/offline modes
c) green IT
d) social connectivity

28. Which is not one of the trends in the future of IT in organizations?
a) Move into cloud computing
b) The new Web as a turning point
c) Devices become more specialized in the content they deliver
d) Conversation economy

29. As analytics become a commodity, the real differentiators are __________ and the ability to make productive decisions.
a) data quality
b) location-based services
c) social media
d) fluid collaboration

30. Technological and economic forces are prompting fresh approaches to systems development using __________ for competitive advantage.
a) in-house development
b) proprietary apps
c) open source software
d) fourth-generation languages or software

True/False

31. Tackling global warming by reducing emissions of greenhouse gases is high on the list of global challenges.

32. Carbon footprint refers to the amount of infrared, CO2 and other GHGs emitted per day by a computing or mobile device.

33. Global warming is typically measured in MtCO2e, which stands for metric tonne carbon dioxide equivalent.

34. Annual emissions are generally measured in gigatonnes (billions of tonnes) of carbon dioxide equivalent per year (GtCO2e/y).

35. All carbon emissions worldwide make up the global carbon footprint.

36. The IT sector, including computing and telecommunications, is responsible for an estimated 10 percent of the global carbon footprint as a result of emissions from the energy used to run servers, computers, and other hardware.

37. IT can play a significant role in reducing GtCO2e/y in the transportation industries.

38. Innovative IT solutions can provide both a better quality of life and contribute to dramatically reduced emissions. That is, quality of life and reduced emissions do not require a tradeoff.

39. Business associations continue to fight against initiatives to reduce energy consumption and carbon emissions.

40. Warnings from the scientific community point to dangers from the ongoing buildup of CO2 and greenhouse gases mostly from the burning of fossil fuels and forests.

41. The greenhouse effect refers to the holding of heat within Earth’s atmosphere by certain GHGs such as CO2, methane, and nitrous oxide that absorb infrared radiation.

42. Scientists predict that the increased temperature and sea level rise from global warming adversely affect the Earth’s biodiversity.

43. Scientists have determined that we should aim to stabilize the concentration of GHGs in the atmosphere in the range 450 to 550 parts per million (ppm), which is much lower than our present level.

44. The Keeling Curve tracks changes in the concentration of CO2 in the Earth’s atmosphere at a Mauna Loa research station.

45. The Keeling curve has become the symbol of the ever-changing chemistry of the earth’s atmosphere and the associated global warming.

46. In 2008, The Climate Group found that the information and communications technology (ICT) is a minor sector in the struggle to reduce climate warming.

47. Transforming the way people and businesses use IT could reduce annual human-caused global emissions by 15 per cent by 2020.

48. IT sector’s own footprint of 10 per cent of global emissions could decrease by 2020 despite increased demand for smartphones and other hardware, software, and services.

49. IT has the unique ability to monitor and maximize energy efficiency both within and outside of its own industry sector to cut CO2 emissions.

50. From smart meters to smart grids, the Climate Group is working with members and partners, such as Google and Cisco, to build on the enormous potential and economic opportunities of IT in the low carbon economy.

51. The role of IT includes emission reduction and energy savings only in the IT sector itself.

52. “Smart” as in smart buildings means that wasted-energy and materials are minimized; and procurement, manufacturing, distribution, service, and recycling are done in an environmentally friendly manner.

53. Green, whether applied to energy, technology, or consumption of resources in general, refers to the concept of using things at a rate that does not deplete its availability in future generations.

54. Sustainability, the study and practice of eco-friendly computing resources, may be in companies’ best financial interests.

55. Questions about data access and capture, tracking and monitoring, privacy and profiling are examples of IT capabilities that have ethical considerations. And there are no easy or agreed to answers to these dilemmas.

56. Globalization, the Internet, and connectivity have the power to undermine moral responsibility because it becomes relatively easy to ignore the harm that might be done to others.

57. IT decreases span of control, increases productivity, and increases the need for technical experts.

58. The trend toward cloud computing allows any part of the IT to be sourced from the Internet, ultimately offering a more flexible model that aligns better with business objectives.

59. Collaboration across time zones and geographies cannot become a business norm until language and cultural differences are minimized.

60. With IT creating organizations that have the characteristics of elasticity—scalable, infinitely flexible, and adaptive—companies and your job will be defined by IT.

Short Answer

61. __________ refers to the concept of using things at a rate that does not deplete its availability in future generations.

62. __________ technology optimizes the capacity and processing power of servers so that fewer servers are needed to provide the necessary processing power.

63. __________ qualified products use less energy.

64. __________ or virtual work, offers many green benefits, including reducing rush-hour traffic, improving air quality, improving highway safety, and even improving healthcare.

65. __________ may be considered an integral component of social media strategies because it gives marketers the ability to discover public conversations about their brands and, if necessary, respond to posters directly or to their posts.

66. Free speech and __________ collide in a world populated by anonymous critics, vengeful people, those with personal agendas, and malcontents.

67. IT’s capability to introduce ever-growing amounts of data into our lives can exceed our capacity to keep up with the data, leading to __________.

68. The Web is undergoing its most significant overhaul since the emergence of __________, and will emerge as an increasingly attractive enterprise platform.

69. __________ are emerging as a rich source of information about consumer sentiment, preferences and desires.

70. As analytics become a commodity, data and decision quality will provide the real competitive __________ .

Essay

71. List two financial benefits associated with becoming a sustainable company, including green IT.

72. Identify and explain two myths about green IT.

73. What are the benefits of telework to individuals, organizations, and the community/society? Give two benefits to each.

74. Discuss the competing interests and tradeoffs at work when the issue is privacy.

75. Discuss the impacts of IT on each of the following: organizational structure, authority, power, and job content.

BUS 365 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer University New

BUS/365 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 8 Chapter 11

Business Intelligence and Decision Support

Multiple Choice

1. Managers rely on business intelligence, data mining, and the decision support systems in order to minimize __________.
a) business processes
b) inventory loss
c) customer dissatisfaction
d) uncertainty

2. What levels of management can today’s BI vendors’ products and software-as-a-service (SaaS) packages support?
a) tactical or operational
b) strategic, tactical, or operational
c) strategic or operational
d) entry and middle

3. What types or sizes of organization can afford today’s BI packages?
a) Fortune 500 and national government agencies only
b) major global corporations only
c) major global and large corporations only
d) all sizes including small and medium enterprises

4. The latest BI tools provide __________, which are reducing managers’ dependence on analysts and tech staff.
a) a high degree of self-sufficiency
b) complex interfaces
c) programming languages
d) query languages

5. DIRECTV’s business model is based on great customer service, attracting new customers, and preventing __________, in which customers switch to a competitor’s service.
a) SCM
b) CRM
c) customer churn
d) customer downsizing

6. As a manager, what type of problems would indicate that you could benefit from a BI solution?
a) Not having the right data
b) Low demand products
c) Slow network speeds
d) High fixed costs

7. From an IT perspective, which of the following best describes BI and BI apps?
a) Stand-alone
b) Support a specific objective
c) A collection of ISs and technologies
d) Web-based systems designed for for-profits

8. The value of __________ to managers is that these apps pull data from a data warehouse or other data store and then graphically depict the data in meaningful displays.
a) analytics
b) mashups
c) decision support systems
d) dashboards

9. The term __________ started in the music world, but has been adopted by IT to mean an application that combines data from different sources into a new application.
a) analytics
b) mashup
c) visualization
d) dashboard

10. WildTrack is using a BI data analysis solution from SAS to track and monitor their constantly changing __________, which are endangered African rhinos.
a) accounts
b) inventory
c) raw materials
d) supply chain

11. At Jamba Juice, poor quality data was damaging profits so traditional BI was deployed at the __________ level; and operational BI was deployed at the __________ level.
a) corporate; store
b) transaction; product
c) accounting; marketing
d) strategic; regional

12. __________ BI apps use real-time or near real-time data in order to support line managers who need to monitor performance of his or her business processes.
a) Strategic
b) Operational
c) Tactical
d) Traditional

13. In a tight economy with high interest and unemployment rates, any business project requiring a large financial investment needs to __________.
a) be economically justified
b) be approved by all senior managers
c) provide a competitive edge
d) improve operational efficiency

14. When you need to justify an IT investment, a(n) __________ is required to document your initiative and to move it through the approval and funding process.
a) budget
b) business case
c) ROI
d) payback analysis

15. Which of the following is not one of the three key business goals used to sell management on the need for a BI consolidation program?
a) Lowering total cost of ownership
b) Enabling businesspeople to analyze information
c) Increasing productivity
d) Improving consistency of and trust in information and analytics

16. Which is not a characteristic or benefit of BI?
a) helps eliminate blindspots
b) integrates data silos
c) presents data in visual displays
d) implemented by end-users

17. An advantage of __________ is that they are a way to access a particular view of data or to analyze what’s happening.
a) OLAP
b) data mining
c) predictive analytics
d) queries

18. Three core functions of __________ are query, reporting, and analytics.
a) BI
b) OLTP
c) data warehousing
d) OLAP

19. Data mining and __________ tools are used to find relationships that are not obvious, or to predict what is going to happen.
a) DSS
b) reporting
c) predictive analytic
d) queries

20. After data has been loaded into a data warehouse, data tables can be linked to form __________, which is another term for multidimensional databases.
a) data cubes
b) relational databases
c) OLAP
d) ETL

21. Why does UPS use data analysis and visualization as part of its tactical and strategic planning process?
a) Delivery time is mission-critical
b) Workers need to quickly adjust operations as new information is received
c) To build a single version of the truth
d) a and b

22. The IT architecture that is needed for BI depends on each of the following factors except:
a) the number of event-driven alerts
b) the number and type of data sources or ISs
c) how much data extraction and transformation needs to be done
d) the reporting timeliness that’s needed

23. Planning a BI implementation is a complex project and includes typical project management steps. Therefore, the first step in the BI planning process is to _____.
a) define the scope
b) define the budget
c) identify the resources needed
d) define the timeline

24. Extracted data, particularly when it’s extracted from multiple sources, is not in usable format. Because of this problem, __________ tools have to map the field names of the same data types; and then reformat the data itself into a standard format.
a) data transformation and loading
b) data extraction and transformation
c) data query and reporting
d) data visualization

25. __________ is the ability to get to data details at several levels, which can be done by a series of menus or by query.
a) Ad hoc analysis
b) Key performance indicator
c) Critical success factor
d) Drill down

26. An advantage of more advanced dashboards is that they present KPIs, trends, and exceptions using __________.
a) Adobe Flash animation
b) Excel
c) Powerpoint
d) PDF

27. The strategic objective of __________ is to optimize the overall performance of an enterprise.
a) analytics
b) business performance management (BPM)
c) dashboards
d) reporting

28. Today, BI ranks near the top of many companies’ IT purchase plans. What is the underlying reason for this interest in BI?
a) Costs and complexity of BI software have dropped significantly.
b) Managers are more IT and database literate.
c) Inflation and energy prices are cutting into profit margins and consumers’ disposable income.
d) All of the above

29. Text from documents, electronic communications, and e-commerce activities needs to be codified, which is typically done with __________.
a) HTML (Hypertext Markup Language)
b) Java
c) C++
d) XML (eXtensible Markup Language)

30. In a __________, you are trying to find what others have prepared. With __________, you are trying to discover new patterns that may not be obvious or known.
a) query; Web mining
b) query; data mining
c) search; text mining
d) search: reporting

31. __________ is used to understand customer online behavior, evaluate a Web site’s effectiveness, and quantify the success of a marketing campaign.
a) Text analytics
b) Visualization
c) Clickstream
d) Web mining

32. Which is not one of the characteristics or objectives of data mining?
a) The miner is often an end user.
b) Business sections that most extensively use data mining are manufacturing.
c) Data mining tools are readily combined with spreadsheets.
d) Sophisticated tools help to remove the information buried in corporate files.

33. Data mining is important in detecting __________, especially in insurance claims and credit card use.
a) fraudulent behavior
b) errors
c) prospective customers
d) alerts

34. Managers’ roles can be put into three categories based on Mintzberg. Which is not one of those categories?
a) Interpersonal role
b) Informational role
c) Strategic role
d) Decisional role

35. Decision makers go through four systematic phases. Which is the first phase?
a) choice
b) design
c) intelligence
d) knowledge

36. Managers rely on decision models because they __________ the situation or problem.
a) simplify
b) detail
c) solve
d) explain

37. Planning new services to be offered, hiring an executive, predicting markets, or choosing a set of research and development projects for next year are examples of __________ decisions.
a) structured
b) semistructured
c) unstructured
d) operational

38. Formal business procedures, cost minimization, profit maximization and algorithms, such as those used by eHarmony to match its members, are example of __________ decisions.
a) structured
b) semistructured
c) unstructured
d) operational

39. A properly designed __________ is an interactive application to help decision makers compile data and then analyze the data using business models.
a) TPS
b) MIS
c) SOP
d) DSS

40. A key benefit of DSSs is that they make it easy for manager to perform __________, which is the study of the impact that changes in one or more parts of a model have on the outcome.
a) sensitivity analysis
b) comparisons
c) pivots
d) goal seeking

41. Basic components of a DSS include each of the following except:
a) database
b) model base
c) user interface and users
d) network

42. Since the 1960s, there have been five major generations, or cycles, of computing. Which represents those generations in order?
a) mainframes, miniframes, PCs, desktop Internet computing, mobile computing
b) minicomputers, servers, PCs, wired computing, wireless computing
c) mainframes, supercomputers, PCs, mobile computing, Internet computing
d) PCs, laptops, netbooks, mobiles, embedded processors

43. According to Morgan Stanley’s Global Mobile Internet Report (2009), __________ may be the fastest growing and most disruptive technology we have ever seen.
a) PCs
b) client/server
c) mobile computing
d) Google

44. The __________ is the infrastructure for new generations of Web and mobile apps.
a) cloud
b) broadband network
c) 3G network
d) 4G network

45. Regarding mobile intelligence, __________ are locations such as the commuter train, aisle in a store, line in a factory, or retail floor where business people can make decisions without delay.
a) data centers
b) decision sweet spots
c) RFID
d) Wi-Fi

True/False

46. Twitter, Foursquare, and other real-time media add to or leverage capabilities of smartphones–improving your ability to be well-informed in real-time.

47. BI systems have eliminated a common organizational problem, which is simultaneously having too much data but somehow not enough.

48. It’s tough for managers to fully understand BI because BI apps are not stand-alone systems nor do they support a specific objective, as do SCM systems.

49. For-profit and nonprofit enterprises are getting more value from BI and existing data by extending information to all managerial levels and to employees.

50. Knowing how to interpret and act on the results from queries, reports, or analytics depends on BI capabilities.

51. Customer satisfaction, profitability, and sales per employee are examples of CSFs.

52. The BI capabilities of TRAC2ES include integrating data to give military decision makers a clear view of all the paths leading toward resolving resource allocation problems in order to save lives.

53. Integrating data for BI apps is complex because when data is extracted from multiple sources, the data are not in usable format.

54. Managers can better meet demands from customers, shareholders, and policymakers for environmentally-friendly business practices by using BI dashboards.

55. Given that approximately 20 percent of all collected/stored information is in text or nonnumeric format, text mining and Web mining are major growth areas.

56. Data mining techniques are well-suited to analyze financial time series data to find patterns, detect anomalies and outliers, recognize situations of chance and risk, and predict future demand, prices, and rates.

57. When you search for a certain book on Amazon.com, the site uses predictive and visualization tools to cross-sell by presenting to you a list of books purchased by customers who had bought that book.

58. Sensitivity analysis is extremely valuable in DSSs because it makes the system flexible and adaptable to changing conditions and to the varying requirements of different decision-making situations.

59. The speed with which Apple’s iPhone and iTouch have sold is an indicator that MI (mobile intelligence) apps will be in high demand.

60. Powerful devices using 3G IP-based networks combined with easy-to-use software are unifying communications.

Short Answer

61. __________ refers to a collection of ISs and technologies that support managerial decision making or operational control by providing information on internal and external operations.

62. __________ tools, e.g., dashboards and mashups, are the user-interfaces that help people understand the numbers.

63. Justifying an IT investment is also known as making a __________ for it.

64. __________ are areas in which managers fail to notice or to understand important information—and as a result make bad decisions or do nothing when action is needed.

65. Multidimensional (3D) views of data, such as sales revenue data, are referred to as __________.

66. __________ techniques are well-suited to analyze financial time series data to find patterns, detect anomalies and outliers, recognize situations of chance and risk, and predict future demand, prices, and rates.

67. A decision __________ is a simplified representation, or abstraction of reality.

68. __________ decisions are so well-defined that they can be automated or become standard operating procedures (SOPs) and do not require a DSS to solve.

69. __________ devices are becoming the world’s dominant computing platform.

70. In the __________ era, businesses that don’t yet exist may evolve into industry leaders as did Facebook, YouTube, and Twitter.

Essay

71. Identify three data-related business problems, or difficult situations, which indicate that an organization could benefit from improved intelligence from BI tools.

72. Identify and explain the three major types of BI.

73. Explain data mining. List three characteristics or objectives of data mining.

74. What are DSSs? What types of decisions are best suited for support by a DSS? List and briefly explain the 4 basic components of a DSS.

75. Describe the mobile intelligence infrastructure. What factors are driving MI? Describe a MI app that you would find valuable as a manager.

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Chapter 10: Enterprise Information Systems

Multiple Choice

1. Typically, as business strategies and technologies changed, older legacy systems were:
a) modified repeatedly and patched to the point where they just could not be modified anymore.
b) immediately replaced with the latest software, hardware, and network technologies
c) gradually replaced with cloud computing solutions.
d) interfaced with newer information technologies so they could exchange data without limitations.

2. Enterprise systems are integrated ISs that support core business processes and functions. How is integration achieved?
a) Integration is achieved by connecting wired and wireless computer networks so they can share applications.
b) Integration is achieved by outsourcing to vendors that replace stand-alone ISs with a single IS.
c) Integration is achieved by linking databases and data warehouses so they can share data.
d) Integration is achieved by using cloud computing.

3. The greatest challenges when implementing enterprise systems are due to _____.
a) the technologies
b) vendors
c) process and change management
d) end-users

4. Under Armour Inc., the originator of performance apparel, was having had sharp spikes in orders. The company reduced the cost and effort of their order fulfillment process by replacing manual processes with __________ that provide data about resource availability and delivery dates.
a) available-to-promise (ATP) capabilities
b) enterprise systems
c) information silos
d) customer relationship management (CRM) capabilities

5. Enterprise systems help managers and companies improve their performance by enabling them to __________.
a) distribute data and periodic reports via e-mail internally to authorized users.
b) seamlessly share real-time data internally among departments and with external business partners.
c) consolidate data stores into a central data repository.
d) outsource business processes to SaaS vendors and eliminate waste.

6. Prior to selecting and implementing an ERP or other enterprise system, it’s essential that a company identify the _____.
a) problems to be solved
b) goals to be achieved and type of support the IS is to provide
c) problems to be solved, goals to be achieved, and type of support the IS is to provide
d) cost of implementation and maintenance

7. __________ is the ability to thrive in a changing environment, which can be achieved by streamlining processes for quick response.
a) Agility
b) Scalability
c) Reengineering
d) Collaborative planning

8. __________ are commercial software packages that integrate business processes, including supply chains, manufacturing, financial, human resources, budgeting, sales, and customer service.
a) CPFR systems
b) ERP systems
c) KM systems
d) SCM software

9. __________ help organizations identify, select, organize, disseminate, preserve, and share information and expertise.
a) CPFR systems
b) ERP systems
c) KM systems
d) SCM software

10. With __________, suppliers and retailers collaborate in planning and demand forecasting in order to ensure that members of the supply chain will have the right amount of raw materials and finished goods when they need them.
a) CPFR systems
b) ERP systems
c) KM systems
d) SCM software

11. Which is not one of the reasons why companies might need to migrate from legacy systems to enterprise systems?
a) Legacy systems have high maintenance costs.
b) Monolithic legacy architectures are inflexible.
c) Legacy systems are hardwired by predefined process flows making integration with Internet-based apps difficult or impossible.
d) Enterprise systems require retraining of end users whose productivity will slow initially as they adjust to a new way of doing their jobs.

12. Characteristics of enterprise systems include all of the following except:
a) Because of their complexity, enterprise systems are leased or licensed from vendors and customized with support from IT personnel who are familiar with their company’s business processes.
b) There is a trend toward ERP as a service, which is increasing.
c) Enterprise systems automated existing business processes to minimize disruption and training costs.
d) To simplify and reduce the high cost of the ERP software selection process, there is an annual ERP Vendor Shootout to help ERP selection teams at companies with manufacturing, distribution, or project-oriented requirements.

13. Each of the following describes ERP systems except:
a) ERP apps interface with business partners through a B2B gateway, but cannot interface with legacy apps.
b) From a technology perspective, ERP is the software infrastructure that links an enterprise’s internal apps and supports its external business processes.
c) ERP apps are modular, and the modules are integrated with each other to expand capabilities.
d) Departments can easily stay informed of what’s going on in other departments that impact its operations or performance.

14. Business-to-business integration (B2Bi) is vital for efficient and accurate flow of data across internal ISs and external business partners. B2Bi and secure data exchange over the Internet is done through __________.
a) wireless routers
b) B2B gateways
c) data sources
d) enterprise application integration (EAI) middleware

15. Why are ERP systems strategic weapons for food manufacturers?
a) The threats and potential costs associated with food safety have decreased because of data transparency.
b) ERP systems have lowered global barriers to entry into the food industry.
c) ERP systems are needed for controlling costs, managing inventory, and meeting government regulations given the food industry’s margin pressures.
d) ERP systems are needed to monitor competitors’ business practices and quickly respond to them.

16. Typically, how are ERP systems acquired?
a) By purchasing or leasing packaged software
b) Built in-house
c) Built with proprietary software
d) Custom built by consulting companies and vendors

17. What is the first step toward becoming an agile manufacturer?
a) Reengineer financial business processes
b) Develop the means to monitor the marketplace
c) Develop new products and services for current and prospective customers
d) Implement inventory tracking systems

18. Lessons learned from ERP failures include each of the following except:
a) Several of the best companies have suffered devastating consequences from ERP failures that had led to multi-million dollar losses, bankruptcy, or lawsuits.
b) Most often, ERP failures are eventually fixed and remain in use, which gives the false impression that the ERP was successful from the start.
c) The success—as well as failure—of ERP depends on organizational and technological factors that occur prior to, during, and after the implementation.
d) Vendor blogs, white papers, and YouTube posts are good sources of objective data for selecting a compatible ERP solution.

19. Despite potential benefits, not all companies invest in ERP if they cannot meet requirements or overcome the challenges. Which of the following is not one of those requirements or challenges?
a) Applications must be tightly aligned with well-defined and designed business processes.
b) Initial costs to purchase or lease and set up the ERP are very low, but maintenance might be extremely high.
c) Selecting the appropriate ERP is time-consuming, complex, and expensive.
d) Apps may be too complex for employees to use correctly to improve efficiency and ROI.

20. Consumer product and retail industries lose about $40 billion annually, or 3.5 percent of their sales, due to __________.
a) fraud
b) compliance failures
c) supply chain inefficiencies
d) quality control failures

21. Supply chains involve three main flows. Which of the following is not one of those main flows?
a) financial flow
b) resource flow
c) information flow
d) material or product flow

22. Products that are returned make up what is called the __________.
a) reverse supply chain
b) return logistics
c) backflow
d) reorder fulfillment

23. Accounting, inventory management, and shipping are part of order fulfillment and referred to as __________ operations.
a) back-office
b) customer-facing
c) front-office
d) logistics

24. Efficient, effective supply chains are fully dependent on SCM software, which depends on __________.
a) EFT
b) ERP
c) up-to-date and accurate data
d) RFID

25. The concept of an on-demand enterprise is based on the premise that manufacturing or service fulfillment operations will start only after an order is received. This approach is referred to as__________.
a) produce-to-stock
b) build-to-order
c) JIT
d) safety stock

26. The most common solution to supply chain uncertainties is to build inventories or __________ as insurance.
a) safety stock
b) stockouts
c) continuous replenishment
d) restocking

27. __________ is a supply chain relationship in which a vendor continuously monitors the inventory of a retailer or distributor and automatically replenishes their inventory when levels hit the re-order point.
a) Safety stock
b) Stockouts
c) Continuous replenishment
d) Bullwhip effect

28. Variability in demand in the supply chain is amplified as orders move up the supply chain. This phenomenon is called __________.
a) market shifts
b) the bullwhip effect
c) continuous replenishment
d) demand forecasting

29. Supply chain collaboration can increase profit margins by as much as __________ percent for supply chain partners, which is a significant improvement.
a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12

30. __________ is a set of data-driven business processes designed to improve the ability to predict and coordinate with supply chain partners.
a) B2B e-commerce
b) Continuous replenishment
c) Collaborative planning, forecasting, and replenishment (CPFR)
d) Vendor managed inventory (VMI)

31. Data transfer between companies is done using __________, which is a communication standard that enables the electronic transfer of routine documents, such as purchase orders, between business partners.
a) RFID
b) collaborative planning, forecasting, and replenishment (CPFR)
c) vendor managed inventory (VMI)
d) electronic data interchange (EDI)

32. Attracting and acquiring new customers is estimated to costs banks roughly __________ per new customer.
a) $10
b) $25
c) $50
d) $100

33. Retaining customers that generate revenues in excess of the costs of customer service, returns, promotional items, and the like are critical; and are the underlying reason for __________.
a) EDI
b) ERP
c) CRM
d) SCM

34. What is the purpose of frequent purchase programs offered by airlines, supermarkets, credit card issuers, retailers, casinos, and other companies?
a) To track customers for CRM purposes
b) To build customer loyalty to improve financial performance
c) To deter customer attrition
d) All of the above

35. According to the loyalty effect, a five percent reduction in customer attrition can improve profits by as much as __________ percent.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20

36. Apple’s iPhone and iPod are best examples of __________ business strategies because demand was so high that many customers were even willing to camp out on sidewalks to guarantee getting one on the day of their releases.
a) customer-centric
b) product-centric
c) upselling
d) cross-selling

37. Which is not a characteristic of CRM?
a) CRM is an enterprisewide effort to acquire and retain profitable customers.
b) An objective of CRM is to retain all customers through excellent and personalized customer service and perks.
c) CRM focuses on building long-term, sustainable customer relationships for the purpose of increasing the company’s profitability.
d) CRM is basically a simple idea, which is to treat different customers differently according to the current or potential value to the company.

38. There have been many CRM failures reported in the media. Major issues relating to CRM failures include each of the following except:
a) Customers rejecting loyalty programs or attempts to build loyalty.
b) Failure to identify and focus on specific business problems that the CRM can solve.
c) Lack of active senior management sponsorship.
d) Trying to automate a poorly defined business process in the CRM implementation.

39. Harrah’s Entertainment Inc. treats its customers differently. The more a customer spends in a casino, the more rewards the customer gets. Harrah’s analyses customer data and assigns a value to each customer based on the results of __________.
a) customer segmentation
b) payoff ratios
c) NPV
d) data mining

40. Knowledge management is an important enterprise system for each of the following reasons except:
a) Forrester Research and IBM estimated that up to 85 percent of a company’s knowledge is not stored in databases.
b) Knowledge is dispersed in social media, e-mail, texts, intranets, and on individual computers and mobile devices.
c) Knowledge typically is highly structured and needs to be shared.
d) Knowledge is much more valuable than data and information, but it’s more ephemeral.

41. Which of the following statements about knowledge management systems (KMS) is false?
a) KMSs help an organization cope with rapid change and downsizing by making expertise of the organization’s human capital widely accessible.
b) KMS are being built, in part, from increased pressure to maintain a well-informed, productive workforce.
c) With a KMS, an organization is able to capitalize on the knowledge and experience of employees worldwide.
d) Knowledge is structured to increase its

42. __________ are interactive systems used by employees to find and connect with colleagues who possess the expertise needed to solve specific, critical business problems quickly.
a) Knowledge systems
b) Expert location systems (ELSs)
c) Expert systems
d) Electronic document management systems

43. __________ systems support the search for and sharing of organizational expertise, decision making, and collaboration at the organization level regardless of location.
a) KM
b) ERP
c) CRM
d) SCM

44. Which is an example of knowledge?
a) A map giving detailed driving directions from one location to another.
b) An up-to-the-minute traffic bulletin along the freeway that indicates a traffic slowdown due to construction.
c) Awareness of an alternative, back-roads route to avoid traffic and construction in order to reach a destination as quickly as possible.
d) All of the above.

45. Why does a functioning KMS have a cyclical life cycle?
a) Knowledge is continually being created and that new knowledge must be placed in context and stored so that it is actionable.
b) Knowledge has a short useful life span and needs to be replaced.
c) As knowledge bases increase in size, they become less useful because the knowledge cannot be disseminated effectively.
d) Knowledge tends to be categorized incorrectly initially, and needs to be refined to become useful.

True/False

46. The payoff from the implementation of an SAP ERP at Under Armour was an increase in its top line–growth in sales–and bottom line–growth in net income.

47. Enterprise systems allow workers to access and analyze real-time information and transaction processes across the entire organization.

48. A limitation of enterprise systems is that finance processes cannot be totally automated.

49. SCM is the software infrastructure that links an enterprise’s internal applications and supports its external business processes.

50. CPFR is a set of data-driven business processes designed to improve the ability to predict and coordinate with supply chain partners.

51. In a survey conducted by Food Engineering magazine, the top concern of the agri-food industry was food safety in large part because worldwide distribution systems have increased the risk and range of contaminated food entering the food supply.

52. Organizations are implementing CRM systems to meet requirements of the Bioterrorism Act and other regulations for accurate record keeping.

53. Database vendors such as Oracle and IBM are also enterprise system vendors.

54. The journey that a product travels starting with raw material suppliers onto manufacturers or assemblers, then forward to distributors and retail sales shelves and ultimately to customers is its product life cycle.

55. The most common solution to supply chain uncertainties is to build inventories or safety stock as insurance, but that can cause the bullwhip effect in the supply chain.

56. CPFR systems generate demand forecasts for a planning period, such as a quarter, month, or week.

57. According to management guru Peter Drucker, “Those companies who know their customers, understand their needs, and communicate intelligently with them will always have a competitive advantage over those that don’t.”

58. CRM software enabled Travelocity to analyze clickstream data and discover how customers use their Web site. This information is leveraged to provide meaningful personalized messages in real-time, that is, while customers are using the site.

59. Having knowledge implies that it can be used to solve a problem, whereas having information does not.

60. KM systems are developed using communication and collaboration, and storage and retrieval technologies.

Short Answer

61. Older information systems (IS), called __________, have been built with various outdated technologies.

62. With __________ systems, suppliers and retailers collaborate in planning and demand forecasting in order to ensure that members of the supply chain will have the right amount of raw materials and finished goods when they need them.

63. __________ systems help organizations identify, select, organize, disseminate, and share information and expertise.

64. An ERP interfaces with legacy applications through a(n) __________ layer.

65. __________ connect the ERP in the enterprise to external business partners.

66. The __________ occurs when companies significantly cut or add inventories because even small increases in demand can cause a big increase in the need for parts and materials further down the supply chain.

67. The transfer of data and document between supply chain partners is done using __________, which is a communication standard.

68. CRM is an enterprisewide effort to acquire and retain __________ customers.

69. __________ is unstructured, and has strong experiential and reflective elements that distinguish it from information.

70. __________ are interactive and help employees find and connect with colleagues who possess the expertise required for specific problems—whether they are across the country or across the room— to solve specific, critical business problems quickly.

Essay

71. List and describe three types of enterprise systems.

72. Why do companies migrate to enterprise systems from their existing legacy systems? List and briefly describe three reasons.

73. Why are ERP systems worth their cost? That is, how do companies justify ERP investments?

74. Identify and briefly describe the three types of flows in supply chains.

75. Identify and discuss four of the steps in the order fulfillment process.

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Chapter 6: E-Business and E-Commerce

Multiple Choice

1. When a user clicks on a malvertisement on a Web site, the ad will __________.
a) release the latest malware to launch attacks on government agencies
b) redirect to and load a malicious Web site, which is a replica of the site the user was expecting
c) download a cookie that tracks the user’s purchases and credit cards
d) all of the above

2. A service level agreement (SLA) is a legal written contract between a vendor and client in which the vendor guarantees __________.
a) a maximum service charge
b) free upgrades for the length of the contract
c) no defects and/or no risk
d) a minimal level of service

3. Effective e-business models and competitive strategies are developed by __________.
a) vendors and service providers
b) senior marketing managers
c) managers from various functional areas, including marketing, IT, operations, logistics, and accounting
d) Web site designers

4. Online channels and connectivity support __________, which minimizes the limitations of having to be physically present in a single location to collaborate or train.
a) the e-business process
b) telepresence
c) community
d) self-service

5. Over 85 percent of e-commerce dollar volume is __________ commerce.
a) B2B
b) B2C
c) G2G
d) G2B

6. Priceline.com is an example of __________ commerce because the customer names a product or service and the desired price, and then Priceline tries to find a supplier to fulfill that need.
a) business-to-consumers
b) consumers-to-business
c) mobile
d) business-to-business

7. A benefit of hosting an e-commerce Web site on a third-party’s server is __________, which is being able to add-on additional capacity incrementally, quickly, and as needed.
a) scalability
b) maintenance
c) accuracy
d) security

8. In order to accept credit card payments for purchases, American Express, Visa and other credit card companies require that e-commerce Web sites be PCI DSS compliant and certified to __________.
a) help prevent credit card fraud
b) support Web site analytics
c) manage customer relationships
d) verify that the products are in-stock.

9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of competitive innovation?
a) No competitive innovation remains unique for long.
b) Leading companies are always looking for next-generation capabilities to develop new competitive advantage.
c) Most innovations cannot be duplicated by other companies.
d) A current approach is to integrate social networks.

10. In the e-commerce business model __________, a vendor asks its partners to place logos or banner ads on their sites. If customers click the logo, go to vendor’s site, and buy; then the vendor pays a commission to partners.
a) affiliate marketing
b) B2B commerce
c) relationship marketing
d) viral marketing

11. Sears uses __________ as a selling channel to liquidate (get rid of) its excess or discontinued inventory.
a) C2C commerce
b) forward auctions
c) reverse auctions
d) affiliate marketing

12. Which of the following is not one of Amazon.com’s success factors?
a) Patented IT developments
b) Personalized service
c) Physical warehouses designed for shipping small packages to hundreds of thousands of customers
d) Maintaining a constant business model

13. For banks, one benefit from implementing online banking is __________.
a) it offers an inexpensive alternative to branch banking
b) transaction costs are about 40% lower than at a physical branch
c) margins are higher because interest rates offered to customers are lower
d) all of the above

14. Characteristics of ING Direct’s competitive strategy include all of the following except:
a) paid the highest rates on savings accounts
b) invested heavily in marketing campaigns
c) could not be copied by competitors
d) had almost no bricks and mortar

15. Which of the following is not one of the challenges facing many e-tailers that can interfere with the growth of its e-tailing efforts?
a) channel conflict
b) reaching customers
c) conflict within their own offline operations
d) tough order fulfillment and logistics problems

16. When managers are planning and managing their online business, they should do all of the following except _____.
a) make data-driven, fact-based plans
b) identify all key assumptions in the marketing plan
c) monitor progress to identify when adjustments are needed, and then be agile enough to respond
d) build the marketing plan around the products, rather than on customer

17. E-sourcing refers to the many __________ methods.
a) B2C e-commerce
b) procurement
c) sell-side
d) C2C auction

18. E-procurement strategies and solutions have two basic goals, which are _____.
a) to control costs and simplify processes
b) collaboration and negotiation
c) supplier selection and product selection
d) RFQ processing and exchanges

19. The benefits of streamlining the e-procurement process within an organization’s value chain include all of the following except:
a) maximizes the number of suppliers
b) reduces the number of employees needed to process purchasing
c) reduces the time to order and receive items
d) helps employees make intelligent decisions when procuring items

20. Public and private __________ are sites where many sellers and many buyers buy and sell.
a) networks
b) exchanges
c) sources
d) value chains

21. ChemConnect.com and iSteelAsia.com are examples of vertical exchanges in which the prices of products __________.
a) change continuously based on the matching of supply and demand
b) are fixed based on contracts
c) change based on quantity purchased
d) are negotiated annually

22. The purchase of indirect materials on an as-needed basis is referred to as __________ sourcing.
a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) spot
d) systematic

23. __________ are e-marketplaces that serve one industry, e.g., automotive, chemical, along the entire supply chain.
a) Vertical exchanges
b) Supply hubs
c) Horizontal exchanges
d) Collaboration hubs

24. American Express developed tools that improved compliance with procurement rules on indirect purchases, or MRO supplies. One of the major performance improvements was the __________.
a) increase in spot buying
b) elimination of maverick buying
c) reduction in billing errors
d) increase in purchases from local vendors

25. Why does maverick buying increase the costs of products?
a) Vendor’s prices may be high.
b) It can keep the company from getting volume discounts.
c) It makes the procurement process too complicated.
d) a and b

26. Electronic benefits transfer (EBT), in which governments distribute benefit payments, such as Social Security payments, directly to recipients’ bank accounts or their smart cards is an example of __________.
a) G2B
b) G2C
c) G2G
d) G2S

27. __________ systems using reverse auctions are often mandatory to ensure the best price and quality for government procurement of goods and services.
a) Electronic tendering
b) Cloud computing
c) Spot sourcing
d) Maverick buying

28. A survey conducted by the nonprofit Public Technology Institute (PTI) found 45 percent of local governments are using some form of __________ for applications or services because of budget pressures to reduce costs.
a) electronic tendering
b) cloud computing
c) spot sourcing
d) maverick buying

29. With __________, users log in once and then have access to all software and data sources that they are authorized to access.
a) cloud computing
b) data centers
c) servers
d) single sign-on

30. California’s Office of Traffic Safety (OTS) partnered with the Taxi Magic app team to __________.
a) reduce DUI
b) sponsor contests
c) interface with Facebook
d) reduce poverty

31. One of the major e-commerce services is __________, which consists of technology consultants, system developers, integrators, hosting, security, wireless, and networks.
a) e-process
b) e-infrastructure
c) e-markets
d) e-content

32. The goal of __________ is to find information and knowledge that describe the relationships among consumers, products, marketing methods, and marketers.
a) social marketing
b) surveys
c) market research
d) directory services

33. One of the problems with __________ advertising is that advertisers knew very little about the recipients.
a) direct mail
b) Web
c) interactive
d) social media

34. __________ is a revenue model by which an organization refers consumers to the selling company’s Web site.
a) Affiliate marketing
b) Customizing ads
c) Sourcing
d) Viral marketing

35. __________ refers to word-of-mouth marketing in which customers promote a product or service by telling others about it.
a) Affiliate marketing
b) Customizing ads
c) Sourcing
d) Viral marketing

36. __________ is the filtering out of irrelevant information for consumers in order to reduce their information overload.
a) Affiliate marketing
b) Customizing ads
c) Sourcing
d) Viral marketing

37. PayPal is an example of __________.
a) e-cash
b) electronic payment systems
c) ATM
d) micropayments

38. Credit card data is secured through __________ by using the SSL protocol in the browser of the buyer’s computer.
a) steganography
b) PKI
c) encryption
d) routers

39. Security requirements for conducting e-commerce are each of the following except:
a) authentication
b) integrity
c) privacy
d) e-money

40. Which of the following is not a characteristic of order fulfillment in B2C e-commerce?
a) It is very difficult to accomplish order fulfillment both effectively and efficiently since a company may need to ship small packages to many customers quickly.
b) Order fulfillment processes are basically the same regardless of the type and size of the products and the vendor.
c) Because of difficulties in B2C supply chains, companies outsource deliveries and sometimes also the packaging.
d) Order fulfillment includes not only providing customers with what they ordered and doing it on time, but also providing all related customer service.

41. Ethical standards and laws frequently __________ technological innovation.
a) lag behind
b) keep pace
c) conflict with
d) lead ahead of

42. __________ are the principal resources used to track visitors’ Web activities and from which e-businesses draw information about how visitors use a site.
a) Cookies
b) Firewalls
c) Log files
d) Flash files

43. Car insurance companies, manufacturers, and airlines are able to sell their products and services directly to customers via B2C sites and eliminate agents and retailers. This phenomenon is referred to as __________.
a) nonrepudiation
b) order fulfillment
c) intermediation
d) disintermediation

44. The legal and ethical issues related to e-commerce include all of the following except:
a) PCI
b) fraud
c) Web tracking
d) privacy

45. Privacy Guardian, MyPrivacy, and Tracks Eraser Pro are examples of software that can protect users’ online privacy by erasing _____.
a) a browser’s cache
b) surfing histories
c) cookies
d) all of the above

True/False

46. The online explosion has given today’s consumers less control over where and how they interact with a business or a brand through a mix of online channels and media.

47. In B2C, the sellers are organizations, and the buyers are individuals. B2C is also called e-tailing.

48. Web sites need to be hosted on large capacity servers that are capable of supporting the volume of requests for access, or traffic.

49. Hosting an e-business Web site on a third-party’s server is done if the company lacks infrastructure to host it themselves, does not have the IT expertise to manage it, or needs scalability.

50. Unlike brick-and-mortar merchants, all e-commerce merchants need to be PCI DSS compliant to accept, hold, process, or exchange credit cardholder information of the major credit cards.

51. Early on, managers at Amazon.com recognized the importance of order fulfillment and made minor investments in building physical warehouses designed for shipping small packages to customers.

52. Hong Kong and Shanghai Bank developed a special system called HSBCnet to provide online banking in 60 countries. Using this system, the bank rapidly became a major international bank without developing an extensive new branch network.

53. Sellers that are click-and-mortar companies, such as Levi’s or GM, face channel conflict with their regular distributors when they circumvent those distributors by selling online directly to customers.

54. Only a few purely online e-tailers went bankrupt in the dot-com era because of problems with cash flow, customer acquisition, order fulfillment, and demand forecasting.

55. By using B2B, organizations can restructure their supply chains and partner relationships.

56. In the sell-side marketplace model, organizations sell their products or services to other organizations from their own private e-marketplace or from a third-party site.

57. Local governments implemented a public cloud, private cloud, regional cloud, government-operated cloud, or a cloud operated by a vendor despite the higher costs of cloud computing solutions.

58. One of the problems with direct mail advertising is that advertisers knew very little about the recipients. The problem is solved by using Internet-based interactive marketing.

59. Payments are an integral part of doing business in both traditional and online business. Traditional payment systems are effective for e-commerce, especially for B2B.

60. Order fulfillment includes providing customers with what they ordered and doing it on time, and providing all customer services, such as instructions, exchanges, and returns.

Short Answer

61. __________ are ads, that when clicked, will redirect to a malicious Web site that is a replica of the site the user was expecting to see.

62. A __________ is a legal written contract between a vendor or other service provider and the client wherein the service provider guarantees a minimal level of service.

63. In __________ transactions, both the sellers and the buyers are business organizations.

64. A benefit of hosting an e-commerce site on a third-party’s server is __________, which refers to the capability to add-on additional capacity incrementally, quickly, and as needed.

65. The PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of information security requirements to help prevent __________.

66. Toy manufacturers such a Fisher Price or Lego would face __________ with their regular distributors by circumventing those distributors and selling online directly to customers.

67. The return process is referred to as __________.

68. Corporate __________, also called corporate purchasing, deals with the buying of products and services by an organization for its operational and functional needs.

69. __________ refers to word-of-mouth marketing in which customers promote a product or service by telling others about it.

70. __________ is a part of a company’s back-office operations, which include inventory control, shipment, and billing.

Essay

71. List and define 4 of the basic types of e-business transactions.

72. What are reverse auctions and RFQs? Explain how they work and their purpose.
Why do governments and corporations frequently mandate the RFQ approach for procurements?

73. What are the two basic goals of e-procurement? Explain each goal.

74. List and explain two benefits of e-government.

75. Identify and briefly discuss two of the ethical issues related to e-business.