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BUS 517 Midterm Exam – New

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Midterm Exam, Part 1: Chapters 1-3
Midterm Exam, Part 2: Chapters 4-5 and Chapter 15

ch1
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The advent of project management has been most profound in 
A. Automobile manufacturing
B. Construction
C. Information technology
D. The U.S. Department of Defense
E. Film making

2. A professional organization for project management specialists is the 
A. PMI
B. AMA
C. MIS
D. IPM
E. PMBOK

3. Which of the following is not considered to be a characteristic of a project? 
A. An established objective
B. A clear beginning and end
C. Complex tasks
D. Only for internal use
E. Never been done before

4. Which of the following activities is not considered a project? 
A. Developing a new software program
B. Designing a space station
C. Preparing the site for the Olympic Games
D. Production of automobile tires
E. Developing a new advertising program

5. From among the following activities, which is the best example of a project? 
A. Processing insurance claims
B. Producing automobiles
C. Writing a term paper
D. Completing a college degree
E. All of these are good examples of projects

6. Which of the following constraints is not typically found in managing projects? 
A. Time
B. People
C. Cost
D. Performance
E. Both B and D are not typical constraints

7. Which of the following choices is not one of the stages of a project life cycle? 
A. Conceptualizing
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Delivering

8. In which of the following stages are project objectives established, teams formed, and major responsibilities assigned? 
A. Conceptualizing
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Delivering

9. In which of the following stages is a major portion of the physical and mental project work performed? 
A. Conceptualizing
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Delivering

10. In which of the following stages are you more likely to find status reports, many changes, and the creation of forecasts? 
A. Conceptualizing
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Delivering

11. Which of the following characteristics is not typical of a project manager? 
A. Managing a temporary activity
B. Possesses in-depth technical knowledge
C. Managing a non-repetitive activity
D. Manages independently of the formal organization
E. Provides a direct link to the customer

12. Which of the following choices is not one of the driving forces behind the increasing demand for project management? 
A. Compression of the product life cycle
B. Knowledge explosion
C. Development of third world and closed economies
D. More emphasis on the product and less on the customer
E. Corporate downsizing

13. Which of the following statements is true? 
A. Project management is becoming a standard way of doing business
B. Project management is increasingly contributing to achieving organizational strategies
C. Project management is being used at a consistent percentage of a firm’s efforts
D. Both A and B are true
E. A, B, and C are all true

14. Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring all of the following except 
A. Accountability
B. Flexibility
C. Innovation
D. Speed
E. Repeatability

15. Which of the following is the number one characteristic that is looked for in management candidates? 
A. Overall intelligence
B. Works well with others
C. Experience
D. Past successes
E. Good references

16. A common rule of thumb in the world of high-tech product development is that a six-month project delay can result in a loss of product revenue share of ___ percent. The waste on failed projects and cost overruns is estimated in the neighborhood of 
A. 10
B. 20
C. 33
D. 45
E. 50

17. The waste on failed projects and cost overruns is estimated in the neighborhood of 
A. Under $100 Million
B. Over $150 Billon
C. Under $10 Billion
D. Between $90-$100 Billion
E. Between $125-$135 Billion

18. Which of the following is the first step in developing a set of strategies designed to best meet the needs of customers? 
A. Market Research
B. Define the Integrated Project Management System
C. Environmental Analysis
D. Project Selection
E. All of the above are correct

19. Integration of project management with the organization takes place with the 
A. Master budget
B. Strategy plan
C. Process of managing actual projects
D. Both b and c are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

20. Two dimensions within the project management process are 
A. Technical and sociocultural
B. Cost and time
C. Planned and unexpected
D. Established and new
E. Unique and reoccurring

21. Which of these is not part of the “technical dimension” of project management? 
A. WBS
B. Budgets
C. Problem solving
D. Schedules
E. Status reports

22. Which of these is not part of the “sociocultural dimension” of project management? 
A. Negotiation
B. Resource allocation
C. Customer expectations
D. Leadership
E. Politics

23. Corporate downsizing has increased the trend toward 
A. Reducing the number of projects a company initiates
B. Outsourcing significant segments of project work
C. Using dedicated project teams
D. Shorter project lead times
E. Longer project lead times

24. The importance of project management has increased due to 
A. The movement of manufacturing operations out of the U.S
B. Time to market
C. The movement toward flatter and leaner organizations
D. Both a and b are true
E. A, B, and C are all true

25. Which of the following is not typically the responsibility of a project manger? 
A. Meeting budget requirements
B. Meeting schedule requirements
C. Meeting performance specifications
D. Coordinates the actions of the team members
E. All of these are typical responsibilities

26. A series of coordinated, related, multiple projects that continue over extended time intended to achieve a goal is known as a 
A. Strategy
B. Program
C. Campaign
D. Crusade
E. Venture

27. In which of the following stages is it determined what the project will entail, when it will be scheduled, whom it will benefit, and what the budget will be? 
A. Conceptualizing
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Delivering

28. Competing in a global market is influenced by 
A. Rapid change
B. Innovation
C. Time to market
D. Politics
E. A, B, and C are all true

29. Integration of all project processes and practices to improve Project Management is due to 
A. Centralization
B. Environmental analysis
C. Customer Expectations
D. Project management system
E. The organization’s environment and culture

30. From 1994 to 2009 the trend for projects late or over budget was: 
A. Significantly better
B. Slightly better
C. About the same
D. Slightly worse
E. Significantly worse

31. Like most organizational effort, the major goal of a project is to __________. 
________________________________________

32. The initial stage in the Project Life Cycle is the __________ stage. 
________________________________________

33. The final stage in the Project Life Cycle is the __________ stage. 
________________________________________

34. The __________, a professional organization for project managers, has grown from 93,000 in 2002 to more than 230,000 currently. 
________________________________________

35. In the __________ stage of the Project Life Cycle a major part of the project work, both physical and mental, takes place. 
________________________________________

36. In the _________ stage of the Project Life Cycle what will be accomplished by the project is determined along with the project’s schedule and budget. 
________________________________________

37. A common rule of thumb in the world of high-tech product development is that a six-month project delay can result in a __________ percent loss in product revenue share. 
________________________________________

38. In today’s high-tech industries the product life cycle is averaging _________ years. 
________________________________________

39. The advent of many small projects has created the need for an organization that can support __________ management. 
________________________________________

40. Increased competition has placed a premium on customer satisfaction and the development of __________ products and services. 
________________________________________

41. In some organizations, selection and management of projects often fail to support the broad-based _________ of the organization. 
________________________________________

42. WBS, schedules, and budgets are examples of the _________ dimension of the project management process. 
________________________________________

43. Leadership, teamwork, and negotiation are examples of the _________ dimension of the project management process. 
________________________________________

44. The ________ is a professional organization for project management specialists. 
________________________________________

45. One of the defining characteristics of a project is that it has a singular purpose, i.e., an established ________. 
________________________________________

46. Because projects have a defined beginning and end, the ________ is frequently used to manage the transition of a project from start to completion. 
________________________________________

47. The development of schedules, budgets, and identifying risks are common elements to the ________ stage of the project life cycle. 
________________________________________

48. The establishment of project goals, specifications, and responsibilities usually occurs in the ________ stage of the project life cycle. 
________________________________________

49. Training the customer, reassigning staff, and releasing resources occurs in the ________ stage of the project life cycle. 
________________________________________

50. Project managers are expected to ensure that appropriate trade-offs are made between the time, cost, and __________ requirements of the project. 
________________________________________

51. The growth in ________ has increased the complexity of projects because projects typically include the latest advances. 
________________________________________

52. A _________ is a series of coordinated, related; multiple projects that continue over extended time intended to achieve a goal. 
________________________________________

53. In the __________ stage, it determined what the project will entail, when it will be scheduled, whom it will benefit, and what the budget will be. 
________________________________________

54. Because of the profitability motive, project management is nearly always limited to the private sector. 
True False

55. Ten years ago major universities offered only one or two classes in project management, primarily for engineers. 
True False

56. The professional certification for project managers is a Project Management Professional (PMP). 
True False

57. Because of its flexibility, project management is equally useful in ongoing, routine work as well as unique, one-time projects. 
True False

58. One of the defining characteristics of project management is that the projects are not confined to a single department but involve several departments and professionals. 
True False

59. One of the characteristics that separate project management from other endeavors of the organization is that there are specific time, cost, and performance requirements. 
True False

60. The singular purpose of a project is often lacking in daily organizational life in which workers perform repetitive operations each day. 
True False

61. Since a construction company builds many buildings the projects after the first building do not fit the definition of a project. 
True False

62. The first stage in the Project Life Cycle is the Concept stage. 
True False

63. A major portion of the project work, both physical and mental, takes place during the Production stage of the Project Life Cycle. 
True False

64. In practice, the amount of work accomplished in each stage of the Project Life Cycle will vary greatly depending on the department or work group. 
True False

65. Because of the requirement for in-depth expertise, project management is generally restricted to specialists. 
True False

66. On the project team, the Marketing manager is the primary, direct link with the customer. 
True False

67. One of the most significant driving forces behind the demand for project management is the ever increasing expansion of the product life cycle. 
True False

68. Unlike their functional counterparts, project managers generally possess only rudimentary technical knowledge to make trade-off decisions. 
True False

69. Because of the significant loss in potential product revenue, “time to market” has become one of the most critical factors in developing new products. 
True False

70. A common rule of thumb in the world of high-tech product development is that a six-month project delay can result in a 33 percent loss in product revenue share. 
True False

71. Project management integration necessitates combining all of the major dimensions of project management under one umbrella. 
True False

72. Due to corporate downsizing significant segments of project work have been outsourced to other organizations. 
True False

73. Smaller projects in larger organizations tend not to need project management skills. 
True False

74. In the current trends, Project managers are typically required to manage many diverse systems such as; networks, bar charts, job costing, task forces, partnering and schedule, to manage projects. 
True False

75. Project management is usually restricted to specialists. 
True False

76. Project management is becoming a standard way of doing business. 
True False

77. Compare and contrast the Product Life Cycle and the Project Life Cycle.

78. Identify the five major characteristics of a project.

79. Identify and briefly describe the four stages of the Project Life Cycle.

80. “Project managers perform the same functions as other managers.” Agree or Disagree and support your decision.

81. Identify and briefly describe the six factors that are increasing the demand for project management.

82. What is meant by an “Integrated Project Management Process”?

83. Identify and briefly discuss the two key areas where project management need to be integrated within the organization.

84. Identify and briefly discuss the two key dimensions of managing actual projects.

85. The success of individual projects is typically measured by performance compared to three constraints usually placed on all projects. Identify and briefly describe those three constraints.

86. Describe what it means that a Project Manager must work with a diverse troupe of characters?

87. What is the difference between a project and a program?

88. Describe the connection between Project Management and an organization’s Strategic Plan.

ch2
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Which of the follow is not one of the commonly heard comments of project managers? 
A. Where did this project come from?
B. Why are we doing this project?
C. How can all these projects be first priority?
D. Why is this project so strongly linked to the strategic plan?
E. Where are we going to get the resources to do this project?

2. Strategy considered to be under purview of senior management is 
A. Old school thinking
B. A new school of management thought
C. Necessary in a company structure
D. Beneficial to the Project Manager
E. Depended on company goals

3. A critical factor to ensure the success of integrating the strategic plan with projects lies in a process that 
A. Is open and published for all participants to review
B. Starts with top management’s directives
C. With projects first and integrates them with the strategic plan
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

4. The intended outcome of strategy/projects integration is 
A. Clear organization focus
B. Best use of scare organization resources
C. Improved communication across projects and departments
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

5. Which of the following is a main reason why project managers need to understand their organization’s mission and strategy? 
A. They can better focus on the immediate customer
B. They can make appropriate decisions and adjustments
C. So they can be effective project advocates
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

6. Project managers who do not understand the role that their project plays in accomplishing the organization’s strategy tend to make all the following mistakes except: 
A. Focusing on low priority problems
B. Overemphasizing technology as an end in and of itself
C. Focusing on the immediate customer
D. Trying to solve every customer issue
E. All the above are likely mistakes

7. In today’s business environment, project managers find it valuable to have a keen understanding of 
A. Strategic management
B. Technical issues
C. Project selection process
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

8. The textbook indicated that ________ is the major dimension of strategic management. 
A. Responding to changes in the external market
B. Allocating scarce resources of the organization
C. Beating competition to the market
D. Both a and b are correct
E. Both a and c are correct

9. Which of the following is not true for strategic management? 
A. It should be done once each year just before developing the operating plan
B. It supports consistency of action at every level of the organization
C. It develops an integrated and coordinated long-term plan of action
D. It positions the firm to meet the needs of its customers
E. All of these are true statements

10. Which of the following is the correct order for the strategic management process? 
A. Strategies, mission, goals, projects
B. Goals, projects, mission, strategies
C. Mission, goals, strategies, projects
D. Goals, mission, strategies, projects
E. Projects, mission, strategies, goals

11. Which of the following questions does the organization’s mission statement answer? 
A. What are our long-term strategies?
B. What are our long-term goals and objectives?
C. How do we operate in the existing environment?
D. What do we want to become?
E. All of these are answered by the mission statement

12. Which of the following is not one of the traditional components found in mission statements? 
A. Major products and services
B. Profitability
C. Target customers and markets
D. Geographic domain
E. Contribution to society

13. Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of effective objectives? 
A. Realistic
B. Assignable
C. Flexible
D. Specific
E. Measurable

14. Strategy formulation includes which of the following activities? 
A. Determining alternatives
B. Creating profitability targets
C. Evaluating alternatives
D. Both a and c are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

15. The assessment of the external and internal environments is called _______ analysis. 
A. SWOT analysis
B. Competitive
C. Industry
D. Market
E. Strategic

16. Which of the following would not be classified as an organizational threat? 
A. Slowing of the economy
B. A maturing life cycle
C. Poor product quality
D. Government regulations
E. All of these are organizational threats

17. Which of the following would not be classified as an organizational opportunity? 
A. Increasing product demand
B. Excellent employees
C. Emerging markets
D. demographics
E. All of these are organizational opportunities

18. Which of the following is not one of the requirements for successful implementation of strategies through projects? 
A. Allocation of resources
B. Prioritizing of projects
C. Motivation of project contributors
D. Adequate planning and control systems
E. All of these are requirements

19. Which of the following terms is often used to denote a project that a powerful, high-ranking official is advocating? 
A. Sacred cow
B. Pet project
C. Political necessity
D. Special undertaking
E. Strategic ploy

20. Susie’s department is implementing many projects. She finds herself starting and stopping work on one task to go and work on another task, and then return to the work on the original task. Susie is experiencing 
A. Poor scheduling
B. Excess work burden
C. Flexible tasking
D. Multitasking
E. Burnout

21. Project selection criteria are typically classified as: 
A. Financial and non-financial
B. Short-term and long-term
C. Strategic and tactical
D. Required and optional
E. Cost and schedule

22. Which of the following financial models are typically included in project selection? 
A. Payback
B. Net present value
C. Internal rate of return
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

23. Projects are usually classified into all but one of the following categories. Which one is not one of the typical classifications? 
A. Compliance and emergency
B. Operational
C. Strategic
D. Political necessity
E. All of these are typical classifications

24. Which of the following is not one of the classifications for assessing a project portfolio? 
A. Sacred cow
B. Bread-and-butter
C. Pearls
D. Oysters
E. White elephants

25. A project screening matrix typically contains all of the following except: 
A. The list of available projects
B. Specific criteria
C. Weights assigned to specific criteria
D. Costs to complete each project
E. All of the above are typically contained

26. Which of the following is the reason(s) why project managers need to understand their organization’s mission and strategy? 
A. To make appropriate decisions and adjustments
B. To be effective project advocates
C. To be able to get their job done
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

27. In the Snapshot from Practice, Intel’s CEO has concentrated Intel’s strategy toward? 
A. Creating chips to support the digital device market
B. Eliminating AMD as a competitor
C. Strengthening Intel’s position in the PC market
D. Expanding Intel’s international market
E. Expand efforts in the mainframe computer market

28. Which of the following is not true of multi-weighted scoring models? 
A. Will include quantitative criteria
B. Will include qualitative criteria
C. Each criterion is assigned a weight
D. Projects with higher scores are considered more desirable
E. All of the above are true

29. A major project proposal form will likely include all of the following except: 
A. Project Classification
B. Schedule objective
C. Major deliverables of the project
D. How success will be measured
E. All of these are likely to be included

30. Which of the following is a common multicriteria selection model? 
A. Checklist
B. Net Present Value
C. Weighted criteria model
D. Both A and C are correct
E. All of these are common multicriteria selection models

31. Successful ________ requires strong links among mission statements, goals, objectives, and strategies. 
________________________________________

32. ________ change infrequently and may require revision only when the nature of the business changes or shifts. 
________________________________________

33. ________ translate the organization’s mission statement into specific, concrete, and measurable terms. 
________________________________________

34. ________ answers the question of how strategies will be realized, given available resources. 
________________________________________

35. Project ________ are typically high-ranking managers who endorse and lend political support for the completion of a specific project. 
________________________________________

36. A weighted scoring model such as _________ typically uses several weighted selection criteria to evaluate project proposals. 
________________________________________

37. The __________ identifies what the organization wants to become and the scope of the firm in terms of its product or service. 
________________________________________

38. In a SWOT analysis, good product quality, low debt, and an established dealer network are examples of positive ________. 
________________________________________

39. In a SWOT analysis, strong competition, reduced product demand, and a maturing product life cycle are examples of ________. 
________________________________________

40. The assessment of the internal and external environments is known as a ________. 
________________________________________

41. Apple Computers has been successful in developing a turnaround strategy that has developed new markets and increased market share. This began with strict adherence to the ________. 
________________________________________

42. The term ________ is often used to denote a project that a powerful, high-ranking official is advocating. 
________________________________________

43. Xerox’s ALTO computer and the Ford Mustang are examples of the significance that ________ can play in project management. 
________________________________________

44. Capacity overload which inevitably leads to confusion and inefficient use of scarce resources is an __________. 
________________________________________

45. The _______ financial model measures the time it will take to recover the project investment. 
________________________________________

46. The ________ financial model measures the current value of all cash inflows and outflows using management’s minimum desired rate of return. 
________________________________________

47. In classifying the kinds of projects an organization has in its portfolio, ________ projects are typically those needed to meet regulatory conditions required to operate in a region. 
________________________________________

48. In classifying the kinds of projects an organization has in its portfolio, ________ projects are typically those needed to support current operations. 
________________________________________

49. In classifying the kinds of projects an organization has in its portfolio, ________ projects are typically those that directly support the organization’s long run mission. 
________________________________________

50. Using the Project Portfolio Matrix, software upgrades and manufacturing cost reduction projects are examples of ________ projects that involve evolutionary improvements to existing products. 
________________________________________

51. In some cases organizations will use a __________ to solicit ideas for projects when the knowledge requirements for the project are not available in the organization. 
________________________________________

52. A ___________ will typically include a list of potential projects, several criteria, weights for those criteria, and criteria scores for those projects. 
________________________________________

53. The most common approach to selecting project has been to use the __________ model. 
________________________________________

54. Project Management historically has been preoccupied solely with the planning and execution of projects while strategy was under the purview of senior management. 
True False

55. The problem in many organizations is not with formulating strategies but with implementing the strategies. 
True False

56. A written mission statement provides focus for decision making when shared by organizational managers and employees. 
True False

57. Effective objectives can be created to apply only at the department level and not relating to organizational objectives. 
True False

58. Organizational objectives set targets for all levels of the organization not just for top management. 
True False

59. Formulating strategy answers the questions who and when the tasks will be performed to reach objectives. 
True False

60. Strategy formulation ends with cascading objectives or projects assigned to lower divisions, departments, or individuals. 
True False

61. If a proposed project does not meet one of the designated “must” objectives it is immediately removed from consideration. 
True False

62. Using the Project Portfolio Matrix, revolutionary commercial advances using proven technical advances are classified as Oyster projects. 
True False

63. It is necessary to have exactly the same strategic and operations criteria for different projects 
True False

64. The two axes of the Project Portfolio Matrix are technical feasibility and commercial potential. 
True False

65. Many organizations find they have three different kinds of projects in their portfolio, compliance, operational, and sacred cows. 
Refer to 2.2 
True False

66. The first step in the Strategic Management Process is to set long-range goals and objectives. 
True False

67. Reviewing and revising the organization’s mission is best achieve through the use of a SWOT analysis. 
True False

68. Opportunities and threats are the flip sides of each other; that is, a threat can be viewed as an opportunity, and vice versa. 
True False

69. The information gap refers to the lack of understanding and consensus of organization strategy among top and middle-level managers. 
True False

70. One way to offset the influence of politics on project management within an organization is to have a well-defined project selection model. 
True False

71. Lee Iacocca’s career was built on successfully leading the design and development of the highly successful Ford Mustang. 
True False

72. Generally, people working on several projects at the same time are more efficient than having several people working part-time on the same projects. 
True False

73. The NPV financial model measures the time it will take to recover the project investment. 
True False

74. Intel’s CEO, Craig R. Barrett, is envisioning Intel’s future as being beyond computers and to include all digital products as Intel’s potential customers. 
True False

75. Multi-weighted scoring models include only quantitative criteria, not qualitative. 
True False

76. “Politics and project management should not mix.” Agree or Disagree and support your position.

77. Identify and briefly discuss the three intended outcomes of integrating and linking projects with the strategic plan.

78. What is strategic management?

79. Identify and briefly describe the four components of strategic management and why they must be strongly linked.

80. The typical Strategic Management Process includes four activities. Identify and briefly describe each of those four activities.

81. Identify and briefly describe the five characteristics of effective objectives.

82. What is a SWOT analysis and how does it relate to the Strategic Management Process?

83. What is the implementation gap and why is it important to project management?

84. Identify and briefly discuss the three classes of projects usually found in an organization’s project portfolio.

85. Draw the Project Portfolio Matrix identifying the major elements on the drawing.

86. Identify and briefly describe five of the benefits of Project Portfolio Management.

87. Why is profitability alone not an adequate measure of a project’s value to an organization?

88. What are the two major shortcomings of using the Checklist approach to project selection?

ch3
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Organizational culture is best explained as organizational 
A. Personality
B. Hierarchy
C. Reporting relationships
D. Background
E. Management style

2. A good project management system provides for defining the interface between the project team and the organization in all the following areas except 
A. Authority
B. Allocation of resources
C. Development of project team members
D. Integration of the project into the organization
E. All of these are provided

3. Organizations have difficulty in creating a system for managing projects because 
A. Contrary to typical operations, projects are one-time efforts
B. Projects are multidisciplinary while organizations are usually departmentalized by discipline
C. Projects are not focused on profits
D. Both a and b are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

4. The structure that manages projects within the existing organizational structure is __________ organization. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

5. Bill is working on a project involving the upgrading of a management information system. The project is being managed by the information systems department with coordination with other departments occurring through normal channels. He is working in a _________ organization. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

6. Which of the following is an advantage of a functional project management organization? 
A. Maximum flexibility in the use of staff
B. Good integration across functional units
C. Shorter project duration
D. Strong motivation of project team members
E. All of these are advantages

7. Which of the following is a disadvantage of functional project management organization? 
A. Lack of motivation of project team members
B. Longer project duration
C. Lack of focus on the project
D. Both b and c are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

8. Kim is reviewing a proposed project. The scope of the project is narrow with a lot of in-depth expertise required and it will take a short period of time to complete. The best choice for organizing the project is ________ organization. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

9. A project team that operates with a full-time project manager as a separate unit from the rest of the organization is structured as a ________ organization. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Projectized

10. Which of the following combinations represents the extremes of project organization? 
A. Strong matrix and balanced matrix organizations
B. Functional and dedicated project teams
C. Project and balanced matrix organizations
D. Project and strong matrix organizations
E. Strong matrix and functional organizations

11. MegaComputers, Inc. has assigned a project manager for each of the five new-product teams. The managers as well as the project team members work on the projects on a full-time basis. The structure being used is ________ organization. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

12. Which of the following structures is referred to in popular literature as a projectized form of organizations? 
A. Functional organization
B. Balanced matrix organization
C. Weak matrix organization
D. Strong matrix organization
E. Projectized organization

13. Elizabeth is considering how to structure a project team that will not directly disrupt ongoing operations. The project needs to be done quickly and a high level of motivation will be needed in order to do that. For this situation, the ______ organization would be the best choice. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

14. Projectitis is most likely to occur in the _______ organization structure. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

15. Computers R Us is concerned about keeping project costs low and wants to be sure that all pools of expertise are used. Additionally they want to minimize duplication of efforts across projects. Their best choice for project management structure is the _______ organization structure. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

16. _________ organization is a hybrid form in which a horizontal project management structure is overlaid in the normal functional hierarchy. 
A. Functional
B. Matrix
C. Project
D. Balanced
E. A, B, and C are all correct

17. A project management system provides a framework for launching and implementing project activities within a ______ organization. 
A. Matrix
B. Balanced
C. Weak
D. Sponsor
E. Parent

18. In which of the following is the balance of authority strongly in favor of the functional managers? 
A. Weak matrix
B. Balanced matrix
C. Strong matrix
D. Strong
E. Both C and D are correct

19. The project manager has the responsibility to answer which of the following questions? 
A. What task has to be done?
B. Who will do the task?
C. How will the task be done?
D. How well has the functional input been integrated?
E. Why will the task be done?

20. Matrix management violates the management principle of 
A. Span of control
B. Unity of command
C. Parity principle
D. Empowerment
E. All of these management principles

21. All are negotiated issues except: 
A. Who will do the task?
B. Where will the task be done?
C. Why will the task be done?
D. Is the task satisfactorily completed?
E. The total cost of the project

22. The project structure that is ranked as least effective is _______ organization. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

23. The project structure that is ranked as most effective for developing new products is ______ organization. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

24. From the list below, which is not a primary characteristic of organization culture? 
A. Control
B. Team emphasis
C. History
D. Conflict tolerance
E. Risk tolerance

25. Factors in identifying cultural characteristics include all the following except 
A. Norms.
B. Customs.
C. Values.
D. Both B and C are correct.
E. A, B, and C are all correct.

26. Who is responsible for determining how tasks will be done in a matrix project management structure? 
A. The functional manager
B. The project manager
C. Both are responsible
D. This is no pattern of who takes responsibility
E. None of these are true

27. Who is responsible for determining what tasks have to be done in a matrix project management structure? 
A. The functional manager
B. The project manager
C. Both are responsible
D. This is no pattern of who takes responsibility
E. None of these are true

28. The Macintosh development team at Apple is a good example of what kind of project structure? 
A. Project
B. Balanced Matrix
C. Project Matrix
D. Functional Matrix
E. Functional

29. The Organizational Culture Diagnosis Worksheet classifies cultural characteristics into all of the following except: 
A. Physical characteristics
B. Public documents
C. Behavior
D. Folklore
E. Ethics

30. Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which employees identify with the organization as a whole rather than with their type of job or field of professional expertise? 
A. Member identity
B. Team emphasis
C. Managerial focus
D. Unit integration
E. Control

31. Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which work activities are organized around groups rather than individuals? 
A. Member identity
B. Team emphasis
C. Managerial focus
D. Unit integration
E. Control

32. Which of the following is not one of the typical forms of a project management office? 
A. Command center
B. Control tower
C. Resource pool
D. Weather station
E. All of these are typical forms of a project management office

33. Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which groups within the organization are encouraged to operate in a coordinated or independent manner? 
A. Member identity
B. Team emphasis
C. Managerial focus
D. Unit integration
E. Control

34. Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve those results? 
A. Risk tolerance
B. Reward criteria
C. Conflict tolerance
D. Means versus end orientation
E. Open-systems focus

35. A simple explanation of ________ is that it reflects the personality of an organization. 
________________________________________

36. The ________ organizational approach to project management uses the existing hierarchy of the organization to manage projects. 
________________________________________

37. One of the major advantages of the ________ organizational approach to project management is that specialists in different departments can temporarily be assigned to work on the project and then return to their normal work. 
________________________________________

38. Two of the major disadvantages of the ________ organizational approach to project management are that projects may lack focus and it can take longer to complete projects. 
________________________________________

39. At Apple Computer, the Macintosh development team was isolated in a separate building and given the prime directive to develop a breakthrough computer as quickly as possible. This is an example of using the ________ organizational approach to project management. 
________________________________________

40. A high level of motivation and the tendency for projects to get done more quickly are benefits of using the ________ organizational approach to project management. 
________________________________________

41. ________, a strong feeling of we-they divisiveness, can undermine the integration of the eventual outcomes of the project into mainstream operations. 
________________________________________

42. In a ________ system, there are usually two chains of command, one along functional lines and the other along project lines. 
________________________________________

43. The ________ structure is designed to optimally utilize resources by having individuals work on multiple projects as well as being capable of performing normal functional duties. 
________________________________________

44. Strong, heavyweight, or ________ is used to describe a matrix in which the balance of authority is strongly on the side of the project manager. 
________________________________________

45. One key factor that determines the relative importance of project and functional managers is the determination of which and how _________ are to be performed. 
________________________________________

46. Matrix management violates the management principle of ________. 
________________________________________

47. The ________ matrix form of project organization is likely to enhance project integration, diminish internal power struggles, and ultimately improve control of project activities and costs. 
________________________________________

48. The ________ matrix form of project organization is likely to improve technical quality as well as provide a better system for managing conflict across projects because the functional manager assigns personnel to different projects. 
________________________________________

49. The ________ matrix form of project organization can achieve better equilibrium between technical and project requirements, but it is a very delicate system to create and manage. 
________________________________________

50. __________ were originally developed as a response to the poor track record many companies had in completing projects on time, within budget, and according to plan. 
________________________________________

51. As more and more companies embrace project management as a critical vehicle for realizing corporate objectives, they are creating centralized ________ to oversee and improve the management of projects. 
________________________________________

52. Research suggests that there is a strong connection between project management structure, organization ________, and project success. 
________________________________________

53. Organization ________ refers to a system of shared norms, beliefs, values, and assumptions which bind people together, thereby creating shared meanings. 
________________________________________

54. In a Snapshot from Practice, at ________ Corporation, employees put in the hours necessary to get a job done, even if it requires staying up all night; however, they also may stay home to tend to a sick child and do makeup work at some other time. 
________________________________________

55. In a __________ PO structure, the primary function of the PMO is to track and monitor project performance. 
________________________________________

56. In a __________ PO structure, the primary function of the PMO is to provide the organization with a cadre of trained project managers and professionals. 
________________________________________

57. In a __________ PO structure, the primary function of the PMO is to improve project execution. 
________________________________________

58. ____________ refers to the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment. 
________________________________________

59. ___________ refers to the degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking. 
________________________________________

60. While organization culture is important to the overall function of an organization, it has minor influence on its project management. 
True False

61. Many organizations have struggled with project management organization because projects contradict fundamental design principals associated with traditional organizations. 
True False

62. The project form of project management structure is commonly used when one functional area plays a dominant role in completing the project or has a dominant interest in the success of the project. 
True False

63. The matrix form of project management structure is a good choice when the scope of the project is narrow and maximum flexibility in staff usage is important. 
True False

64. A disadvantage of using the functional form of project management structure is that projects generally take longer to complete. 
True False

65. The functional project team is usually physically separated from the parent organization and given the primary directive of accomplishing the objectives of the project. 
True False

66. In the projectized form of company organization the main responsibility of traditional functional departments is to assist and support the project teams. 
True False

67. The project form of project management structure is a good choice when speed of completion of the project without directly disrupting ongoing operations is important. 
True False

68. One of the major disadvantages of the project form of project management structure is that it tends to be more expensive than other forms of organizing. 
True False

69. Creating teams using the project form of project management structure results in the maximum technological expertise being brought to bear on project problems. 
True False

70. Matrix management is a hybrid organizational form in which a horizontal project management structure is “overlaid” on the normal functional hierarchy. 
True False

71. “Silver bullets” and “Tiger Teams” are terms that are frequently given to functional project management teams. 
True False

72. The relationship between the Apple II and Mac teams at Apple Computer is a good example of projectitis. 
True False

73. In a matrix form of project management, the project managers report directly to a Director of projects, who supervises all projects. 
True False

74. The three forms of matrix project management are weak, mixed, and strong. 
True False

75. Whether a matrix is weak or strong is determined by the extent to which the project manager has direct authority over project participants. 
True False

76. In a balanced matrix form of project management, the project manager is responsible for defining what needs to be accomplished while the functional managers are concerned with how it will be accomplished. 
True False

77. The matrix form of project management is predicated on tension between functional managers and project managers who bring critical expertise and perspectives to the project. 
True False

78. Project management offices were originally developed to make optimal use of scarce project resources. 
True False

79. The functional form of project management has been rated as the most effective of the various forms of organizing project teams. 
True False

80. Organizational culture refers to a system of shared norms, beliefs, values, and assumptions which bind people together. 
True False

81. Probably the most important function of organization culture is to clarify and reinforce standards of behavior within the organization. 
True False

82. There is a strong connection between project management structure, organizational culture, and project success. 
True False

83. “Projects are a smaller version of the larger organization and thus have similar fundamental design principles.” Agree or Disagree and support your conclusion.

84. Identify and briefly describe the three basic project management structures.

85. Identify and briefly describe at least two advantages and two disadvantages of having project teams report directly to an existing functional area.

86. Identify and briefly describe at least two advantages and two disadvantages of organizing project teams as dedicated teams.

87. Identify and briefly describe at least two advantages and two disadvantages of organizing project teams using the matrix management approach.

88. Identify and briefly describe the three forms of organizing projects using the matrix management approach.

89. What are Project Management Offices? Identify the three most common forms.

90. Identify and briefly describe at least five of the ten primary characteristics of organization culture as discussed in the text.

91. Culture provides three major functions within today’s organizations. Identify and briefly describe those three functions.

92. The metaphor used to describe the relationship between organizational culture and project management was that of a riverboat trip. Briefly describe that metaphor.

93. Briefly describe the task decision making responsibilities under the three project management matrix structures.

94. What is an Organizational Culture Diagnosis Worksheet and what is its purpose?

ch4
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The method used to collect information to use through all phases of the project life cycle is called 
A. Responsibility matrix
B. Organization breakdown structure
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Priority matrix
E. Work package

2. Jose is looking at a document that outlines the specific tasks and subtasks required to complete the writing of a technical support manual. The method that was probably used to develop the document is most likely 
A. Responsibility matrix
B. Organization breakdown structure
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Priority matrix
E. Work package

3. The first step in creating the necessary information to manage a project is to 
A. Establish project priorities
B. Define the project scope
C. Verify the budget available
D. Assign team members to work on the project
E. Determine the required completion date

4. Linda has just been assigned a project to develop a new advertising campaign for an established product. Her first step should be to 
A. Establish project priorities
B. Define the project scope
C. Verify the budget available
D. Assign team members to work on the project
E. Determine the required completion date

5. Research shows the most frequently mentioned barrier to project success is 
A. Not enough budget resources
B. Poor performance by team members
C. Weak project leadership
D. Poorly defined scope or mission
E. Political in-fighting

6. An expected output over the life of a project would be classified as 
A. A deliverable
B. A product
C. An end object
D. An objective
E. A target

7. The first step of project scope definition is to 
A. Analyze the strategic plan
B. Analyze the current budget plan
C. Meet with team members
D. Select team members
E. Define the overall objective to meet the customer’s needs

8. In reviewing the project plan, Susan sees that the first prototype is due by October 12. This would be best classified as a 
A. Project target
B. Limit item
C. Milestone
D. Project objective
E. Critical goal

9. The ability of 911 emergency systems to identify the caller’s phone number and location are considered to be a 
A. Technical requirement
B. Milestone
C. Project limit
D. Project exclusion
E. Project deliverable

10. Which of the following is not one of the items that would appear on a project scope checklist? 
A. Deliverables
B. Technical requirements
C. Objectives
D. Work breakdown structure
E. Reviews with customer

11. “To construct a high-quality, custom home within five months at costs not to exceed $150,000” is best classified as 
A. A deliverable
B. A milestone
C. An objective
D. A limit
E. An exclusion

12. The second step in the defining of a project would be to 
A. Analyze the strategic plan
B. Analyze the current budget plan
C. Establish project priorities
D. Select team members
E. Define the major objectives to meet the customer’s needs

13. Which of the following is not one of the basic classifications of project priorities? 
A. Profit
B. Cost
C. Time
D. Performance
E. All of these are basic classifications

14. If a project criterion indicates that the project must meet a specific date, that criterion is classified as 
A. Constrained
B. Enhanced
C. Accepted
D. Limited
E. Fixed

15. Scott has just been given a project that has a specific target date. After discussion with top management he finds that while the date is important the cost is more important and a slip in delivery would be acceptable if required to meet the cost targets. The target date is best classified as 
A. Constrain
B. Enhance
C. Accept
D. Limit
E. Optional

16. The tool used to assist in making project trade-offs between schedule, budget, and performance objectives is called a 
A. Responsibility matrix
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Project priority matrix
D. Work package
E. Criterion matrix

17. The lowest element in the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS is 
A. A deliverable
B. A work package
C. A cost account
D. A lowest sub deliverable
E. An object

18. The highest element in the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS is 
A. A work package
B. Sub deliverables
C. A cost account
D. Major deliverables
E. The project

19. All of the following are true about work packages except 
A. Consume resources
B. Assigned to only one manager
C. Have medium to long duration
D. Definitive starts and stops dates
E. All of these are true

20. All of the following are usually included in a work package except 
A. What will be done?
B. The time needed to complete the work.
C. A single person who is responsible for its completion.
D. All the costs for the work package.
E. All of these are included in a work package.

21. The integration of project work packages within the organization’s management structure is known as 
A. Responsibility matrix
B. Organization breakdown structure
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Priority matrix
E. Process breakdown structure

22. The final step in the creation of a Work Breakdown Structure is to 
A. Code the WBS for tracking
B. Assign the cost account to a manager
C. Assign the work package to a manager
D. Develop the responsibility matrix
E. All of these are included in the final step

23. The intersection of the WBS and the OBS is called the 
A. Responsibility matrix
B. Priority matrix
C. Work package
D. Cost account
E. Project overlap

24. Creating an extranet website or an internal software database system would be most closely associated with the 
A. Responsibility matrix
B. Organization breakdown structure
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Priority matrix
E. Process breakdown structure

25. If a project is small or of narrow scope and does not require an elaborate system, which of the following is a good choice? 
A. Responsibility matrix
B. Organization breakdown structure
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Priority matrix
E. Process breakdown structure

26. The project scope statement indicates that the client is responsible for training the people who will be using the equipment and that the project team will train the client’s trainers. This is an example of: 
A. Project objectives
B. Deliverables
C. Limits and exclusions
D. Technical requirements
E. Milestones

27. The tendency for the project deliverables to expand over time—usually by changing requirements, specifications, and priorities—is called: 
A. Scope erosion
B. Scope creep
C. Project bloat
D. Scope enhancement
E. Project add-ons

28. Which of the following is a good example of a Process Breakdown Structure? 
A. New car prototype
B. New software program
C. New computer hardware
D. New sports stadium
E. New project management book

29. Which of the follow is least likely to be included in a Work Package? 
A. Materials
B. Labor
C. Overhead
D. Duration
E. Responsibilities

30. The Snapshot from Practice dealing with Big Bertha II illustrated how important a project’s __________ is to the successful completion of a project. 
A. Objective
B. Deliverables
C. Technical requirements
D. Milestones
E. Limits and exclusions

31. A selective outline of the project that ensures the identification of all tasks and an understanding of what is to be done is called a _______________. 
________________________________________

32. The first step in planning any project is to ________. 
________________________________________

33. The primary purpose of the first step of defining a project is to identify the ________ for the end user and to focus project plans. 
________________________________________

34. Significant events in a project that occur at a specific point in time, are natural control points, and are easily recognized by project participants are known as ___________. 
________________________________________

35. The need for a computer to function in countries having different electrical systems is an example of a ________. 
________________________________________

36. The agreement that training will be the responsibility of the customer is an example of a project ________. 
________________________________________

37. A project parameter such as completion date or cost is ________ if it is fixed and must be met. 
________________________________________

38. Taking advantage of opportunities to reduce costs or accelerate the schedule are examples of project criteria being classified as ________. 
________________________________________

39. In making project trade-offs, a criteria that is allowed to not meet the original target is classified as ________. 
________________________________________

40. Developing a ________ provides a forum for clearly establishing priorities with customers and top management so as to create shared expectations and avoid misunderstandings. 
________________________________________

41. The result of subdividing the work of a project into smaller and smaller work elements is called ________. 
________________________________________

42. The most detailed element in the hierarchical breakdown of the project work to be accomplished is known as the ________. 
________________________________________

43. A(n) ________ is a grouping of work packages for monitoring progress and responsibility. 
________________________________________

44. Practice suggests that a work package should not exceed ________ workdays or one reporting period. 
________________________________________

45. The process of assigning specific work packages to a particular group or person within the organization is called ________. 
________________________________________

46. The final step in the defining of a project is focused on assigning ________ to each of the work packages. 
________________________________________

47. In a work breakdown structure the ________ is the focal point because all budgets, work assignments, time, cost, and technical performance come together at that point. 
________________________________________

48. Once the __________ has been established, it is the basis for making trade-off decisions later in the project. 
________________________________________

49. In a ________ the project is organized around phases or groups of activities rather than the more conventional deliverables. 
________________________________________

50. The ________ summarizes, in graphic format, the tasks to be accomplished and who is responsible for what on a given project. 
________________________________________

51. The Work Breakdown Structure is an outline of the project with different levels of __________. 
________________________________________

52. The purposes of the ____________ are to provide a framework to summarize organization unit work performance, identify organization units responsible for work packages, and tie the organizational unit to cost control accounts. 
________________________________________

53. The most commonly used method for coding the WBS is __________. 
________________________________________

54. The gradual expansion of project requirements during the execution of project is known as __________. 
________________________________________

55. The development of a work breakdown structure with appropriate dates and budget is usually accomplished in a single iteration. 
True False

56. Studies suggest that there is a strong correlation between project success and clear project scope definition. 
True False

57. Project scope describes what you expect to deliver to your customers when the project is complete. 
True False

58. One of the items included on a project scope checklist is the reviews with the customer. 
True False

59. Quality and the ultimate success of a project are traditionally defined as meeting or exceeding the expectations of the customer or management. 
Refer to Figure 4.1 
True False

60. The criteria for project success include attaining objectives relating to cost, schedule, and revenue. 
Refer to Figure 4.1 
True False

61. Statements of project scope are sometimes referred to as Statements of Work or Project Charters. 
True False

62. If a project criterion should be optimized if at all possible, it is classified as being constrained. 
True False

63. Basically, the WBS is an outline of the project with different levels of detail. 
True False

64. In general, work packages should not exceed 10 work days. 
True False

65. In a Work Breakdown Structure for a software development project, the typical structure follows the major phases of software development. 
Refer to Figure 4.4 
True False

66. Integrating a project’s work packages within the organization’s management structure is known as work breakdown structure. 
True False

67. Scope definitions are usually brief with only one or two pages being typical for small projects. 
True False

68. A work breakdown structure is frequently used on projects such as software development where the project is focused on activities rather than deliverables. 
Refer to Snapshot from Practice on Page114 
True False

69. Responsibility matrices are used primarily with small and medium sized projects and have limited use in large projects. 
True False

70. In a work breakdown structure deliverables are ignored and replaced with activities or tasks that have been grouped in phases. 
True False

71. The intersection of the WBS and the OBS represents a control point, called a cost account. 
True False

72. The most commonly used scheme for coding the work breakdown structure is to use a department project number assigned by the accounting department. 
True False

73. For large companies, the organization breakdown structure is used rather than the work breakdown structure. 
True False

74. The hierarchical work breakdown structure can be used to represent the need for information at various levels of management. 
True False

75. The intersection of work packages and the organization unit creates a project control point called a cost account. 
True False

76. Reviews with customers only refers to projects with external customers who are paying for the project. 
True False

77. A typical responsibility matrix will include not only those responsible for a specific task but also those who supply support and assistance. 
Refer to Figure 4.6 
True False

78. Identify and briefly describe the five steps in defining a project.

79. Identify and briefly describe the six elements on the recommended project scope checklist.

80. In terms of project management, what is a deliverable and give an example.

81. Identify and briefly describe the three elements that are traditionally used to measure the ultimate success of a project.

82. In project management terms, what is meant by “managing the trade-offs?”

83. Identify and briefly describe the three categories used to classify the priority of major project parameters.

84. What is a Project Priority Matrix and how would you use one?

85. What is meant by a work breakdown structure and how does it help manage projects?

86. Identify in order from broadest to most specific, the six parts of the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS.

87. What is a Responsibility Matrix and how would it be used in project management?

88. What is meant by “Scope Creep” and why is it significant to project managers?

89. What is an OBS and how would you use it to plan a project?

ch5
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The process of forecasting or approximating the time and cost of completing project deliverables is called 
A. Budgeting
B. Predicting
C. Estimating
D. Planning
E. Guesstimating

2. In practice, estimating processes are frequently classified as 
A. Top down/bottom up
B. Rough/polished
C. Precise/order of magnitude
D. Draft/final
E. Both A and B are correct

3. A typical statement in actual practice is that estimates should have a probability of being met ______ of the time. 
A. 100%
B. 98%
C. 95%
D. 90%
E. 80%

4. A good starting point for developing time and cost estimates is 
A. Past experience
B. Work packages
C. Task analysis
D. Time and motion studies
E. Work breakdown structure

5. Which of the following is not one of the factors that need to be considered to improve quality of estimates for project times and costs? 
A. Planning horizon
B. People
C. Padding estimates
D. Profit
E. Project structure

6. Ed is looking over the actual results of projects and comparing them to what was estimated. He notices that projects that took six months or longer to complete were noticeably more off the estimates. Which of the following factors is he recognizing? 
A. Padding estimates
B. Planning horizon
C. Project structure
D. People
E. Organization culture

7. Janet is forecasting how much money her department needs to support a new project. She estimates that two people and $25,000 in expenses will cover her needs. Because management typically insists on reducing forecasts by 20 percent, she increases her estimates to allow for that reduction. Which of the following factors is illustrated in this situation? 
A. Padding estimates
B. Planning horizon
C. Project structure
D. People
E. Organization culture

8. Which of the following is a good condition for top-down estimating? 
A. Cost and time important
B. Fixed price contract
C. Customer wants details
D. Internal, small project
E. All of these are good conditions for top-down estimating

9. Which of the following is a good condition for bottom-up estimating? 
A. Strategic decision making
B. Internal, small project
C. Fixed price contract
D. High uncertainty
E. Both C and D are good conditions for bottom-up estimating

10. Top-down estimates are most likely to occur during the ______ phase. 
A. Concept
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Delivery
E. All of these are equally likely

11. ______ estimates are most likely to use low cost, efficient methods. 
A. Apportion
B. Ratio
C. Top-down
D. Bottom-up
E. All of these are equally likely

12. Which of the following methods is not considered a top-down approach to estimating project time and cost? 
A. Ratio
B. Template
C. Apportion
D. Function point
E. Learning curve

13. Jose is forecasting project time and cost for constructing a new building by multiplying the total square footage by a given dollar amount. Which of the following methods is he using? 
A. Ratio
B. Template
C. Apportion
D. Function point
E. Learning curve

14. Sean is forecasting the time and cost of developing a customized software program by looking at the number of inputs, outputs, inquires, files, and interfaces. Which of the following methods is he using? 
A. Ratio
B. Template
C. Apportion
D. Function point
E. Learning curve

15. Laura is forecasting the time and cost of developing an intranet for a new customer. Her department has completed six such intranets for customers during the last two years. Although the proposed system is about the same size as the others she estimates that it will take about 10 percent less time and money. Which of the following methods is she using? 
A. Ratio
B. Template
C. Apportion
D. Function point
E. Learning curve

16. Learning curves are more likely to apply in situations where most of the costs are 
A. Materials
B. Labor
C. Overhead
D. Evenly spread over materials, labor, and overhead
E. All of these are equally likely situations for learning curves

17. Which of the following is not one of the bottom-up approaches to estimating project time and cost? 
A. Parametric procedures applied to specific tasks
B. Estimates for the WBS work packages
C. Learning curve
D. Template method
E. All of these are bottom-up approaches

18. The approach that begins with a top-down estimate for the project and then refines estimates as the project is implemented is known as ______ method. 
A. Function point
B. Template
C. Learning curve
D. Phase estimating
E. Apportion

19. Which of the following would be the best method for projects where the final product is not known and the uncertainty is very large? 
A. Function point
B. Template
C. Learning curve
D. Phase estimating
E. Apportion

20. The accuracy of top-down estimates will typically be in the range of 
A. Minus 50% to plus 50%
B. Minus 0% to plus 75%
C. Minus 20% to plus 60%
D. Minus 35% to plus 35%
E. Minus 10% to plus 30%

21. The accuracy of bottom-up estimates will typically be in the range of 
A. Minus 50% to plus 50%
B. Minus 0% to plus 75%
C. Minus 20% to plus 60%
D. Minus 35% to plus 35%
E. Minus 10% to plus 30%

22. The cost to prepare bottom-up estimates will typically run how much more than the costs to prepare the top-down estimates? 
A. About the same
B. About twice as much
C. About three times as much
D. About four times as much
E. About five times as much

23. Typical kinds of costs found in a project include 
A. Direct costs
B. Project overhead costs
C. General and administrative costs
D. Only A and B are included
E. A, B, and C are all included

24. Project costs are typically viewed from all of the following except: 
A. Scheduled
B. Sunk
C. Actual
D. Committed
E. All of these are correct

25. Which of the following would be considered a direct project cost? 
A. Labor
B. Materials
C. Equipment
D. Both A and B are direct costs
E. A, B, and C are all considered direct costs

26. Which of the following is not one of the recommended guidelines for developing useful work package estimates? 
A. Estimates should be made by those responsible for the work
B. Use several people to estimate the same work
C. Estimates should be based on normal conditions
D. Estimates should include a normal level of contingency
E. Estimates should be independent of other projects

27. Companies like Boeing, Kodak, and IBM are using which of the following for improving the estimating process? 
A. Adjusting estimates based on individual forecasting abilities
B. Benchmarking using the experience of other companies
C. Using time and motion studies
D. Creating historical databases of previous projects
E. All of these are correct

28. Reasons why estimating time and cost are important include all of the following except: 
A. To schedule work
B. To determine how long the project should take and cost
C. To develop cash flow needs
D. To determine how well the project is progressing
E. All of the above are valid reasons

29. In a learning curve, the improvement ratio is applied to which of the following items? 
A. Direct materials
B. Direct labor
C. Overhead
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

30. The bottom-up approach for estimating times and costs that uses costs from past projects that were similar to the current project is known as: 
A. Detailed WBS work package estimates
B. Template method
C. Function point method
D. Time-phased cost estimates
E. Phase estimating

31. Which of the follow top-down methods is used when projects closely follow past projects in features and costs and result in costs being assigned by percentages to major segments of the project? 
A. Apportion
B. Function point
C. Phase estimating
D. Learning curve
E. Consensus

32. Resource shortages, in the form of people, equipment, or materials, is a good example of 
A. Hidden interaction costs
B. Things going wrong on a project
C. Normal conditions not applying
D. Changes in project scope
E. None of these are correct

33. People working on prototype development needing time to interact with the design engineers after the design is completed is an example of: 
A. Hidden interaction costs
B. Things going wrong on a project
C. Normal conditions not applying
D. Changes in project scope
E. None of these are correct

34. A manager getting further into a project and obtaining a better understanding of what needs to be done to accomplish a project is an example of: 
A. Hidden interaction costs
B. Things going wrong on a project
C. Normal conditions not applying
D. Changes in project scope
E. None of these are correct

35. Design flaws being revealed after the fact, extreme weather conditions, and accidents occurring are examples of: 
A. Hidden interaction costs
B. Things going wrong on a project
C. Normal conditions not applying
D. Changes in project scope
E. None of these are correct

36. Estimates that are typically based on estimates of elements found in the work breakdown structure are called ________ estimates. 
________________________________________

37. Estimates that are usually derived from analogy or mathematical relationships are called ________ estimates. 
________________________________________

38. The estimating factor known as ________ considers the decreasing accuracy of estimates as one forecasts activities that are further into the future. 
________________________________________

39. The ________ factor in estimating project times and costs can introduce errors due to staff turnover, the skills of the participants, and whether the team members have worked with each other on previous projects. 
________________________________________

40. The tendency to over-estimate project time and cost in order to improve the likelihood of meeting the estimates is known as the ________ factor. 
________________________________________

41. The prevailing belief in some firms that detailed estimating takes too much time and is not worth the effort or that it is impossible to predict the future is an example of the ________ factor. 
________________________________________

42. Using the _______ method of forecasting project time and costs is the preferred method for situations involving strategic decision-making, projects with a high degree of uncertainty, and projects with an unstable scope. 
________________________________________

43. Using the ________ method of forecasting project time and costs is the preferred method for situations where the cost and time estimates are important, in a fixed contract situation, and when the customer wants a lot of detail. 
________________________________________

44. The information necessary to conduct a bottom-up estimate of project time and costs starts with the ________. 
________________________________________

45. In the ________ method of top-down estimating, a quantitative relationship is established between the estimates and a project parameter. 
________________________________________

46. Given that a project closely follows past projects in features and costs, the ________ method of assigns costs and times to particular phases that a project will go through. 
________________________________________

47. The ________ method for estimating project time and cost uses weighted variables based on major parameters and is frequently used in the development of software. 
________________________________________

48. The ________ method of estimating project time and costs is useful for projects requiring the same task, group of tasks, or product repeated several times, especially if it is labor intensive. 
________________________________________

49. In the ________ method of estimating project time and costs past projects are used as a starting point with adjustments made based on differences in the new project. 
________________________________________

50. Probably the most reliable method for estimating time and cost is to use the _______ and to ask the people responsible for the work package to make the estimates. 
________________________________________

51. The ________ approach to estimating project time and cost begins with an overall estimate for the project and then refines estimates for various stages of the project as it is implemented. 
________________________________________

52. The cost to prepare a top-down budget will typically run ________ percent of the total project cost. 
________________________________________

53. The cost to prepare a bottom-up budget will typically run ________ percent of the total project cost. 
________________________________________

54. Project costs such as labor and materials are typically classified as ________ costs. 
________________________________________

55. The salary of the project manager and temporary rental space for the project team would be classified as ________ costs. 
________________________________________

56. Estimates should be made based on ________ conditions, efficient methods, and a normal level of resources. 
________________________________________

57. The __________ method is a top-down approach that uses the pooled experience of senior and/or middle managers to estimate the total project duration and cost. 
________________________________________

58. Costs that are not directly related to a specific project, such as advertising, accounting, and senior management, are classified as ____________. 
________________________________________

59. Project estimates should be broken down into as much detail than and with as much accuracy as possible. 
True False

60. Bottom-up-estimating is another name for overzealous top management estimates. 
True False

61. The use of past experience is almost always used primarily in the initial phases of a project. 
True False

62. Due to the averaging out of under-estimates and over-estimates, a long duration project is more likely to be on target than a short term, small project. 
Refer to Snapshot from Practice Page 140. 
True False

63. The project structure chosen to manage the project will have little impact on the actual project work to be accomplished. 
True False

64. As long as everyone in a project adds just a little padding to reduce risk, the project duration and costs are probably overstated by a small amount. 
True False

65. Organization culture can significantly influence project time and cost estimates. 
True False

66. If a project is internal to the company and relatively small, the bottom-up approach to estimating time and costs for the project is the best choice. 
Refer to Table 5.1 
True False

67. If time and costs are important to a project the top-down approach to estimating time and costs for the project is the best choice. 
True False

68. The ideal approach to estimating project time and costs is to use both the top-down and the bottom-up approach. 
True False

69. At the strategic level top-down estimating methods are used to evaluate a project proposal. 
Refer to Table 5.1 
True False

70. Top-down estimates usually are derived from someone who uses experience and/or information to determine the project duration and total cost. 
True False

71. Estimating the total cost of a house by multiplying the total square feet by a cost per square foot is an example of the apportion method of estimating costs. 
True False

72. Estimating the total cost of a project by multiplying each major function by a complexity factor is an example of the apportion method of estimating costs. 
True False

73. Phase estimating is used when a project cannot be rigorously defined because of the uncertainty of design or the final product. 
True False

74. Phase estimating uses both the bottom-up and top-down methods for estimating project time and costs. 
True False

75. Using a WBS permits the use of different levels of detail for different levels of management. 
True False

76. The Consensus method of estimating costs is a bottom-up technique. 
True False

77. The salary of the project manager and her administrative assistant is classified as direct labor costs. 
True False

78. General and Administrative costs are usually allocated as a percent of the total of a direct cost such as labor, materials, or equipment. 
True False

79. The apportion method is a top-down approach that uses the pooled experience of senior and/or middle managers to estimate the total project duration and cost. 
True False

80. The function point method of time and cost estimating is best applied to projects that have large, complex physical deliverables, such as a bridge or building. 
True False

81. Identify and briefly describe the two major categories of estimating project time and costs.

82. Why are the estimates for a project’s time and costs important for all phases of a project?

83. Identify the factors that should be considered to improve the quality of estimates for project times and costs.

84. Under what conditions would the top-down approach to estimating project times and costs be the best choice?

85. Under what conditions would the bottom-up approach to estimating project times and costs be the best choice?

86. Describe the ideal approach for a project manager to develop optimal estimates for a project’s time and costs.

87. Identify and briefly describe the five major methods of top-down estimating.

88. Identify and briefly describe the four major methods of bottom-up estimating.

89. Identify the drawbacks to an excessive level of detail in project times and costs.

90. Identify the three major categories of project costs and give an example of each.

91. “The best way to improve estimates is to collect and archive data on past project estimates and actuals.” Agree or disagree and support your answer.

ch15
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. If a construction company in Dallas builds a bridge in Houston, the project would be classified as 
A. Global
B. Overseas
C. Local
D. Domestic
E. Foreign

2. If the Lincoln Log Construction Co. (based in Chicago) built an assembly plant for General Motors in Nigeria, the project would be classified as 
A. Global
B. Overseas
C. Local
D. Domestic
E. Foreign

3. If IBM built a computer system for Outback Barbie Inc. (based in Australia) at their corporate headquarters in Sydney, the project would be classified as 
A. Global
B. Overseas
C. Local
D. Domestic
E. Foreign

4. McDonald’s is creating a multinational distribution system for all of its foreign and domestic subsidiaries. The project manager is from the corporate headquarters and he manages teams from each of the countries involved. The project would be classified as 
A. Global
B. Overseas
C. Local
D. Domestic
E. Foreign

5. Which of the following is not one of the potential results for the international project manager? 
A. Personal risk
B. Absence from home
C. Missed career opportunities
D. Adverse conditions
E. All of these are potential results

6. The major issues dealing with international project management include all of the following except: 
A. Selection and training of personnel for international projects
B. Foreign currency exchange rates
C. Location of international expansion
D. Environmental factors
E. Challenge of working in a foreign culture

7. Concern about the local restrictions on toxic waste is classified as which of the following environmental factors? 
A. Economic
B. Geographic
C. Legal/political
D. Infrastructure
E. Culture

8. The growing presence of the Russian Mafia has discouraged many foreign firms from setting up operations in the former Soviet Union. This is an example of which of the following environmental factors? 
A. Security
B. Economic
C. Cultural
D. Legal/political
E. Infrastructure

9. As a response to the events of September 11, 2001, the moving of personnel, materials, and equipment across international borders has created border congestion with increased costs and time. This is an example of which of the following environmental factors? 
A. Cultural
B. Infrastructure
C. Geographic
D. Security
E. Legal/political

10. An information systems specialist reported that his performance on a project in Northern Sweden declined due to sleep deprivation during the summer months in which there was 20 hours of daylight each day. This is an example of which of the following environmental factors? 
A. Cultural
B. Legal/political
C. Geographic
D. Economic
E. Infrastructure

11. Import quotas and tariffs, and education level of the workforce are examples of which of the following environmental factors? 
A. Legal/political
B. Security
C. Cultural
D. Infrastructure
E. Economic

12. Needs for a project could include telecommunications, transportation, power, and availability of technically skilled talent. This is an example of which of the following environmental factors? 
A. Geographic
B. Infrastructure
C. Economic
D. Legal/political
E. Cultural

13. Communications difficulties because of different languages are examples of which of the following environmental factors? 
A. Geographic
B. Security
C. Cultural
D. Legal/political
E. Infrastructure

14. Which of the following can help a project manager to digest, clarify, and understand the factors leading to the selection of a specific project? 
A. Risk matrix
B. Priority matrix
C. Responsibility matrix
D. Gantt chart
E. Contingency matrix

15. Culture is a concept that encompasses all of the following except: 
A. Shared norms
B. Beliefs
C. Values
D. Economic level
E. Customs

16. American project managers have earned a reputation abroad for being very good at understanding technology but not good at understanding: 
A. Cultures
B. People
C. Local traditions
D. Local business practices
E. Laws

17. The biggest adjustment Americans typically have to make in working abroad is: 
A. Language differences
B. Adapting to the general pace of life
C. Punctuality of people
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

18. Kluckhohn-Strodtbeck’s cross-cultural framework includes all of the following except: 
A. Perception of God
B. Relation to nature
C. Time orientation
D. Basic nature of people
E. Activity orientation

19. The Hofstede framework includes all of the following dimensions except: 
A. Masculinity-feminity
B. Uncertainty avoidance
C. Power distance
D. Individualism versus collectivism
E. All of these are included in the Hofstede framework

20. In the Snapshot from Practice “Project Management X-files,” a key success factor which is held in much higher regard by cultures outside the U.S. is: 
A. Family ties
B. Luck
C. Hard work
D. Social status
E. Patience

21. The significance of personal relationships has created a system in which Mexicans are obligated to give preference to relatives and friends when hiring, contracting, procuring, and sharing business opportunities. This system is referred to as: 
A. Manana
B. Gringo
C. Compadre
D. Quid pro quo
E. Nepotism

22. In France, which of the following factors is considered much more important than in the U.S? 
A. Social class
B. Agreement on issues
C. Professional accomplishments
D. Being open during negotiations
E. Dedication to project completion

23. Working in the Saudi Arabia culture would include major shifts in the area of: 
A. Bragging or calling attention to oneself
B. Importance of business connections
C. Increase in use of administrative channels
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

24. In dealing with the Chinese, it is important to realize that they 
A. Tend to be slow in formulating a plan
B. Will change decisions quickly
C. Value time and moving forward
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

25. The stages of culture shock include all of the following except: 
A. Gradual adjustment
B. Irritability and hostility
C. Honeymoon
D. Repatriation
E. Adaptation

26. Which of the following is not contained in the Assessment Matrix Project Site Selection? 
A. Political stability
B. Worker skill, supply
C. Infrastructure
D. Culture compatibility
E. Utilities

27. Which of the following is not contained in the Evaluation Matrix Breakdown for Infrastructure? 
A. Transportation
B. Government support
C. Educated workforce
D. Telecommunications
E. Vendor suppliers

28. A major difference between working in Mexico and working in the United States is the perception of deadlines. This is referred to as: 
A. Manana
B. Gringo
C. Compadre
D. Quid pro quo
E. Nepotism

29. Which of the following is not true for French values? 
A. They value punctuality
B. Great importance is placed on neatness and taste
C. The French is easy to negotiate with
D. French managers see work as an intellectual exercise
E. The French consider managers to be experts

30. Which of the following is not one of the forms that stress-related culture shock takes? 
A. Fatigue
B. Sleeplessness
C. Headaches
D. Hyperactivity
E. All of these are symptoms

31. A sense of frustration in not being understood is typical of which of the following stages of culture shock? 
A. Honeymoon
B. Gradual adjustment
C. Irritability and hostility
D. Repatriation
E. Adaptation

32. When you begin to lose confidence in your abilities to communicate and work effectively in the different culture, you are in which of the following stages of culture shock? 
A. Honeymoon
B. Gradual adjustment
C. Irritability and hostility
D. Repatriation
E. Adaptation

33. When you recover from your sense of psychological disorientation and begin to function and communicate, you are in which of the following stages of culture shock? 
A. Honeymoon
B. Gradual adjustment
C. Irritability and hostility
D. Repatriation
E. Adaptation

34. Which film project was reviewed in a Snapshot from Practice? 
A. The Godfather
B. Star Wars
C. Hearts of Darkness
D. Apocalypse Now
E. Rambo

35. A(n) ________ project consists of teams formed from professionals spanning multiple countries, continents, and cultures with their work integrated for the entire enterprise. 
________________________________________

36. A(n) ________ project is one executed in a foreign country for a native firm. 
________________________________________

37. A(n) ________ project is executed in a foreign country for a foreign firm. 
________________________________________

38. The degree to which local regulations favor local workers and suppliers is an example of the environmental factor termed ________. 
________________________________________

39. The need to hire tribal bodyguards in such places as Angola and Uzbekistan is an example of the environmental factor termed ________. 
________________________________________

40. Construction projects in Southeast Asia having to accommodate the monsoon season when rainfall can be as high as 50 inches per month is an example of the environmental factor termed ________. 
________________________________________

41. Bartering is a form of compensation that is still used by some countries and organizations and is an example of the ________ environmental factor. 
________________________________________

42. A project that depends upon a high ratio of vendor suppliers, good roads, and other transportation modes, such as air and seaports is an example of the ______ environmental factor. 
________________________________________

43. The requirement for women to cover head, arms, and legs and to be accompanied by another woman or man is an example of the environmental factor termed ________. 
________________________________________

44. ________ is a system of shared norms, beliefs, values, and customs that bind people together, creating shared meaning and a unique identity. 
________________________________________

45. In the Kluckhohn-Strodtbeck Cross-Cultural Framework, the cultural issue that is measured in terms of good, evil or mixed is nature of ________. 
________________________________________

46. In the Kluckhohn-Strodtbeck Cross-Cultural Framework, the cultural issue that is measured in terms of domination, harmony, and subjugation is relationship to ________. 
________________________________________

47. In the Hofstede Framework, ________ describes the degree to which the culture emphasizes competitive and achievement oriented behavior or displays concerns for relationships. 
________________________________________

48. In the Hofstede Framework, ________ identifies whether a culture holds individuals or the group responsible for each member’s welfare. 
________________________________________

49. The length of training required for an overseas stay of 1-3 years would be around ________. 
________________________________________

50. Americans tend to be impersonal and practical when making an argument; however, ________ can be very passionate and emotional when arguing because they enjoy a lively debate. 
________________________________________

51. The ________ place great importance upon neatness and taste; therefore, when interacting with them you should pay close attention to your appearance. 
________________________________________

52. When working with the ________, it is important never to display feelings of superiority because this makes the other party feel inferior. 
________________________________________

53. Although they may be slow to formulate a plan, once the ________ decide who and what is best, they tend to stick to their decisions and make good progress. 
________________________________________

54. Decision-making with ________ is results-oriented and tends to be based on facts and expected outcomes, not on social impact. 
________________________________________

55. ___________ have a reputation for not being able to work effectively in foreign cultures. 
________________________________________

56. In many ___________ cultures certain numbers are considered lucky, while others are considered unlucky. 
________________________________________

57. The natural psychological disorientation that most people suffer when they move into a different culture than their own is called ___________. 
________________________________________

58. It typically takes ____________ months before managers operate again at full effectiveness after a lengthy foreign assignment. 
________________________________________

59. In the Snapshot from Practice, the mapping of the “River of Doubt” occured in the country of __________. 
________________________________________

60. A local project is one performed in its native country for a resident firm. 
True False

61. The constraints imposed by national and local laws are part of the environmental factors termed infrastructure. 
True False

62. The environmental factor labeled security involves the capacity of a country’s military and police forces to prevent and respond to attacks. 
True False

63. One factor that is often underestimated until the project personnel actually arrive at a foreign destination is the culture environmental factor. 
True False

64. The example of one project in Africa being paid in goat skins is an example of the environmental factor of infrastructure. 
True False

65. Infrastructure refers to a country’s or community’s ability to provide services such as power, technology, communication, or transportation required for a project. 
True False

66. For most project managers, the biggest difference in managing an international project is operating in a national culture where projects are done differently, using different project management techniques and tools. 
True False

67. One approach for the project manager to digest, clarify, and understand the factors leading to the selection of a specific project is to use a risk matrix similar to those used to evaluate other types of risks. 
True False

68. Americans have a reputation for not being able to work effectively in foreign cultures. 
True False

69. Americans tend to underestimate the importance that relationship building plays in conducting business in other countries. 
True False

70. Two of the biggest adjustments Americans typically have to make in working abroad is adapting to the general pace of life and the punctuality of people. 
True False

71. The Kluckhohn-Strodtbeck Cross-Cultural Model includes a factor called Uncertainty Avoidance that is related to a culture’s willingness to accept uncertainty and ambiguity about the future. 
True False

72. The Hofstede framework includes a factor called Activity Orientation where cultures were classified as being, doing, or controlling. 
True False

73. Hong Kong is a place where business people often call Feng shui practitioners to construction sites to make sure that the building is aligned correctly on the site. 
True False

74. Mexicans tend to perceive Americans as being cold and that most Americans look down upon them. 
True False

75. Saudi Arabians can be difficult to negotiate with because they often ignore facts no matter how convincing they may be and they also tend to be quite secretive about their positions. 
True False

76. In dealing with the French, a lot of what get done is a result of going through administrative channels, which involves a lot of red tape and efforts to avoid sidestep this can be regarded as disrespect for legal and governmental institutions. 
True False

77. Many outsiders consider the Chinese system of guanxi to be like nepotism where decisions are made based on family ties instead of an objective assessment of ability. 
True False

78. The initial stage of culture shock is irritability and hostility. 
Refer to Figure 15.6 
True False

79. If the length of stay in another culture is to be in the range of 2 to 12 months, the experiential approach to training is advisable. 
Refer to Figure 15.7 
True False

80. Mexicans tend to be more cautious and want to spend more time discussing risks and potential problems that Americans might dismiss as improbable or irrelevant. 
True False

81. Saudis attach little importance to status and rank with the bypassing of legal channels and red tape a common occurrence. 
True False

82. The former U.S. President who got involved with the River of Doubt project was Teddy Roosevelt. 
True False

83. Identify and briefly describe the four possible classifications for international projects.

84. Identify and briefly describe the six environmental factors affecting international projects.

85. What is the Kluckhohn-Strodtbeck Cross-Cultural Framework and identify the five major cultural issues it addresses?

86. Identify and discuss three guidelines/cautions in working with Mexicans on projects.

87. Identify and discuss three guidelines/cautions in working with the French on projects.

88. Identify and discuss three guidelines/cautions in working with Saudi Arabians on projects.

89. Identify and discuss three guidelines/cautions in working with Chinese on projects.

90. Identify and discuss three guidelines/cautions in working with Americans on projects.

91. Identify and briefly describe the four stages of culture shock.

92. Identify and briefly describe the cross-cultural training approach to be taken as related to the length of stay in the foreign culture.

93. How would one use a risk matrix to aide in the site selection for an international operation?

94. Identify the major areas in which project professionals assigned to foreign countries should have a minimal understanding.

BUS 517 Final Exam – New

BUS 517 Final Exam – Strayer New

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Final Exam, Part 1: Chapters 6-8
Final Exam, Part 2, Chapters 9-12
Final Exam, Part 3: Chapters 13-14 and Chapter 16

Ch 6
1. Information to develop a project network is collected from the 
A. Organization breakdown structure
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Budget
D. Project proposal
E. Responsibility matrix

2. Which of the following represents an activity on an AON project network? 
A. An arrow
B. A line
C. A node
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

3. Arrows on an AON project network represent: 
A. An activity
B. Project flow
C. Dependency
D. Both B and C are correct
E. Both A and B are correct

4. When translated into a project network, a work package will become 
A. A single activity
B. One or more activities
C. A milestone
D. A critical path
E. An arrow

5. Which of the following is provided by a project network but not by the work breakdown structure? 
A. Dependencies
B. Sequencing
C. Interrelationships
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

6. On a project network, the activity times are derived from the 
A. Organization breakdown structure
B. Work packages
C. Budget
D. Project proposal
E. Responsibility matrix

7. Part of a project is to Develop Product Specifications. This is best classified as a(n) 
A. Event
B. Path
C. Activity
D. Node
E. Milestone

8. An activity that has more than one dependency arrow flowing into it is termed a(n) 
A. Parallel activity
B. Critical path
C. Burst activity
D. Merge activity
E. Independent activity

9. The critical path in a project network is the 
A. Shortest path through the network
B. Longest path through the network
C. Network path with the most difficult activities
D. Network path using the most resources
E. Network path with the most merge activities

10. A/an _________ activity has more than one dependency arrow flowing from it. 
A. Parallel
B. Critical path
C. Burst
D. Merge
E. Independent

11. An item on a project network is Design Software Completed. This is best described as a(n) 
A. Event
B. Path
C. Activity
D. Node
E. Milestone

12. Activities which can take place at the same time are termed 
A. Parallel activity
B. Critical path
C. Burst activity
D. Merge activity
E. Independent activity

13. A sequence of connected, dependent activities is termed a(n) 
A. Critical path
B. Parallel path
C. Activity chain
D. Path
E. Dependent chain

14. An AON project network uses which of the following basic building blocks? 
A. Arrows
B. Bars
C. Nodes
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

15. Which of the following is not one of the basic rules to follow when developing project networks? 
A. An activity cannot begin until all preceding activities have been completed
B. Each activity must have a unique identification number
C. Conditional statements are allowed but looping statements are not allowed
D. An activity identification number must be larger that that of any preceding activities
E. Networks flow from left to right

16. ________ activities must be completed immediately before a particular activity. 
A. Merge
B. Burst
C. Predecessor
D. Successor
E. Critical

17. ________ activities are to be completed immediately following a particular activity. 
A. Merge
B. Burst
C. Predecessor
D. Successor
E. Critical

18. The forward pass in project network calculations determines the 
A. Earliest time’s activities can begin
B. Earliest time’s activities can be finished
C. Duration of the project
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

19. The backward pass in project network calculations determines the 
A. Latest time’s activities can begin
B. Earliest time’s activities can be finished
C. Critical path
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

20. Which of the following correctly calculates the early finish for an activity? 
A. LS + DUR
B. ES + DUR
C. LF + DUR
D. ES + SL
E. LF + SL

21. Which of the following correctly calculates the late start for an activity? 
A. EF – DUR
B. ES – DUR
C. LF – DUR
D. ES – SL
E. LF – SLACK

22. The amount of time an activity can be delayed and yet not delay the project is termed 
A. Total slack
B. Free slack
C. Critical float
D. Float pad
E. Slip pad

23. Which of the following will correctly calculate the total slack in an activity? 
A. LS – ES
B. LF – EF
C. LS – LF
D. LF – ES
E. Both A and B are correct

24. The laying pipe example in the text illustrates the concept of 
A. Laddering
B. Hammock activities
C. Critical path
D. Concurrent engineering
E. Forward pass

25. Using a special color copy machine for a tradeshow publication illustrates the concept of 
A. Laddering
B. Hammock activities
C. Critical path
D. Concurrent engineering
E. Forward pass

26. If, for some reason, the project must be expedited to meet an earlier date, which of the following actions would the project manager take first? 
A. Check to see which activities cost the least
B. Check to see which activities have the longest duration
C. Check to see which activities are on the critical path
D. Check to see which activities have the most slack
E. Check to see which activities have the highest risk

27. Typically an activity on a project network represents 
A. A single work package
B. One or more tasks from a work package
C. Several work packages
D. A sub-deliverable
E. A cost account

28. Project network logic errors include which of the following? 
A. Activities with less than 1 day duration
B. Sequences such as “if test successful build prototype, if failure redesign”
C. A sequence such as B succeeds A, C succeeds B, A succeeds C
D. Both B and C are network logic errors
E. A, B, and C are all network logic errors

29. Which company utilized concurrent engineering to design a new line of cars and in the process completed its development six months ahead of schedule? 
A. General Motors
B. Chrysler
C. Ford
D. Nissan
E. Toyota

30. The minimum amount of time a dependent activity must be delayed to begin or end is referred to as: 
A. Hammock
B. Laddering
C. Lag
D. Cushion
E. Buffer

31. The requirement for a freshly poured foundation to cure before beginning construction is an example of which of the following type of lag? 
A. Start to Start
B. Start to Finish
C. Finish to Finish
D. Finish to Start
E. Any of these could be correct

32. Concurrent engineering is a good example of good use of 
A. Start to Start lags
B. Start to Finish lags
C. Finish to Finish lags
D. Finish to Start lags
E. Any of these could be correct

33. If testing cannot be completed any earlier than four days after the prototype is built, which of the following type of lag exists? 
A. Start to Start
B. Start to Finish
C. Finish to Finish
D. Finish to Start
E. Any of these could be correct

34. Which of the following represents an activity on an AOA project network? 
A. An arrow
B. A line
C. A node
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

35. Nodes on an AON project network represent: 
A. An activity
B. An event
C. Responsibility
D. Both B and C are correct
E. Both A and B are correct

36. A(n) ________ is an element in the project that consumes time. 
________________________________________

37. The activity time estimates used to build a project network are derived from ________. 
________________________________________

38. A ________ is an activity that has more than one predecessor. 
________________________________________

39. In a ________ the delaying of any activity will delay the completion of the project by the same amount. 
________________________________________

40. Activities that can take place at the same time if the manager wishes them to are called ________. 
________________________________________

41. A (n) ________ represents a point in time when an activity is started or completed and does not consume time. 
________________________________________

42. A (n) ________ has more than one successor activity. 
________________________________________

43. The ________ approach to creating project networks has come to dominate most projects. 
________________________________________

44. In a project network, ________ (recycling through a set of activities) is not permitted. 
________________________________________

45. In a project network, ________ indicate precedence and flow. 
________________________________________

46. The ________ method for creating project networks is sometimes called the Precedence Diagram Method. 
________________________________________

47. Activities that must occur immediately before a given activity are called ________ activities. 
________________________________________

48. Activities that must immediately follow a given activity are called ________ activities. 
________________________________________

49. Activities that can occur while an activity is taking place are called ________ activities. 
________________________________________

50. The ________ calculates the earliest times that activities can be started or finished. 
________________________________________

51. The ________ calculates the critical path and determines how long an activity can be delayed without delaying the project. 
________________________________________

52. An activity is on the critical path if its ________ is the lowest in the network. 
________________________________________

53. ________ can never be negative and applies only to the last activity in a single chain of activities. 
________________________________________

54. A(n) ________ is the minimum amount of time a dependent activity must be delayed to begin or end. 
________________________________________

55. In the ________ technique, an activity with a long duration is broken into smaller segments so that the following activities can begin sooner. 
________________________________________

56. ____________ is defined as the difference between the EF of an activity and the ES of the activity that follows it. 
________________________________________

57. ___________ reflects the likelihood the original critical path(s) will change once the project is initiated. 
________________________________________

58. A ____________ lag exists if debug cannot begin until two days after coding has started and that coding must be completed four days before debug can be completed. 
________________________________________

59. The _________ lag is the most typical type of lag that is encountered in developing networks. 
________________________________________

60. A __________ activity is frequently used to identify the use of fixed resources or costs over a segment of the project. 
________________________________________

61. An activity includes only one work package. 
True False

62. Project networks are built using nodes and arrows. 
True False

63. The WBS identifies dependencies, the sequencing of activities, and the timing of activities. 
True False

64. The critical path is the shortest path through a network and indicates activities that cannot be delayed without delaying the project. 
True False

65. An activity is an element of the project that always requires time but may or may not require resources. 
True False

66. The two approaches used to develop project networks are AOA and AON. 
True False

67. In an AOA network an activity is represented by a box. 
Refer to Appendix 6.1 
True False

68. In developing a project network, each activity should have a unique identification number that is smaller than the identification numbers of activities that follow it. 
True False

69. In developing a project network, neither looping statements nor conditional statements are permitted. 
True False

70. Experience suggests that when there are multiple starts, a common start node should not be used to indicate a clear project beginning on the network. Similarly, a single project end node can be used to indicate a clear ending. 
True False

71. Burst activities have more than one activity immediately following it (more than one dependency arrow flowing from it). 
True False

72. It is acceptable for arrows to cross one another in a network diagram. 
True False

73. The forward pass through a project network determines the critical path. 
True False

74. The backward pass though a project network determines how long an activity can be delayed without impacting the completion date of the project. 
True False

75. Different activities along the same path can have different total slack. 
True False

76. By definition, the critical path always has zero slack. 
True False

77. It is possible to have more than one critical path at the same time. 
True False

78. Free slack applies to an entire project network. 
True False

79. Gantt charts are popular because they represent an easy-to-understand, clear picture on a time-scaled horizon. 
Refer to Figure 6.12 
True False

80. Lags are used to break larger activities into smaller segments so that activities that follow can be started earlier. 
True False

81. Only activities that occur at the end of a chain of activities can have free slack. 
True False

82. Lags can be use to constrain the start and finish of an activity. 
True False

83. Identify and discuss the two major reasons for the integration of work packages into the project network failing in actual practice.

84. What are the two approaches used to develop project networks and identify the differences between them?

85. What are the eight rules to follow in developing project networks?

86. In the network computation process what is a forward pass and what three things does it determine?

87. In the network computation process what is a backward pass and what four things does it determine?

88. What is total slack and how do you determine it?

89. What is a Gantt chart and what advantages does it have over project networks?

90. What is the laddering approach to project networks and why would you use this approach?

91. What is a lag and why would you need to use one?

92. What is a hammock activity and give an example?

93. What is the Concurrent Engineering Approach and why should project managers be aware of it?

94. Identify and briefly describe the four types of lags giving an example for each type.

ch7
1. An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on a project objectives is termed. 
A. Random chance
B. A disaster
C. Risk
D. Hazard
E. Bad luck

2. The chances of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life cycle tends to 
A. Slowly rise
B. Drop sharply and then level out
C. Rise sharply and then level out
D. Remain about the same
E. Slowly drop

3. The cost impact of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life cycle tends to 
A. Slowly rise
B. Drop sharply and then level out
C. Rise sharply and then level out
D. Remain about the same
E. Slowly drop

4. The attempt to recognize and manage potential and unforeseen trouble spots that may occur when a project is implemented is known as 
A. Risk forecasting
B. Risk management
C. Contingency planning
D. Scenario analysis
E. Disaster protection

5. Which of the following is not one of the steps in the risk management process? 
A. Risk response development
B. Risk assessment
C. Risk identification
D. Risk tracking
E. Risk response control

6. The initial step in the risk management process is to 
A. Determine the level of acceptable risk
B. Assess the risk potential
C. Identify the risks
D. Set aside budget funds for managing the risks
E. Appoint a risk manager

7. One common mistake made early in the risk identification process is to 
A. Not all possibilities are considered
B. Participants are over-optimistic
C. Participants are over-pessimistic
D. Focus on objectives and not on the events that could produce consequences.
E. Too much attention is given to past events

8. In the beginning the focus of risk management should be on risks that 
A. Impact the whole project
B. Impact the critical path
C. Are known
D. Have the greatest cost impact
E. Have the greatest schedule impact

9. The 1999 NASA Mars Climate Orbiter is an example of 
A. Disaster avoidance through proactive risk management
B. Murphy’s Law
C. Proper use of critical thinking
D. Mismanaged risk control
E. Using historical records to assess risk

10. Which of the following would not be considered a threat? 
A. Inflation
B. Meeting the project schedule
C. International disruptions
D. Economic conditions
E. Competition

11. A list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project is termed a risk 
A. Risk profile
B. Questionnaire
C. Research
D. Query
E. Checklist

12. Which of the following is typically included in risk profiles? 
A. Management aspects
B. Market aspects
C. Technical aspects
D. Both A and C are included
E. A, B, and C are all included

13. All of the following are included in the risk identification process except 
A. Customers
B. Subcontractors
C. Competitors
D. Vendors
E. None of these are included

14. One of the keys to success in risk identification is 
A. Critical thinking
B. Optimism
C. Pessimism
D. A “can do” attitude
E. All of these are correct

15. The easiest and most commonly used technique for analyzing risks is _____ analysis. 
A. Probability
B. Scenario
C. Payback
D. Risk/reward
E. Impact

16. A risk profile is a list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project that answers developed from: 
A. When the event might occur in the project
B. Chances of the event occurring
C. Interaction with other parts of the project or with other projects
D. From previous, similar projects
E. Magnitude or severity of the event’s impact

17. The risk management tool that is divided into three color-coded zones representing major, moderate, and minor risks is the risk 
A. Assessment form
B. Responsibility matrix
C. Scenario assessment
D. Impact assessment
E. Risk severity matrix

18. The risk assessment form contains all of the following except 
A. Likelihood of the risk event occurring
B. Potential impact of the risk event
C. Who will detect the occurrence of the risk event.
D. Difficulty of detecting the occurrence of the risk event
E. When the risk event may occur

19. The two scales of a risk severity matrix measure 
A. Time, cost
B. Cost, schedule
C. Impact, cost
D. Time, impact
E. Likelihood, impact

20. Which of the following is not one of the probability analysis tools? 
A. Ratio/range analysis
B. Decision tree
C. PERT simulation
D. PERT
E. All of these are probability analysis tools

21. This risk assessment tool is a variation of the risk severity matrix that includes the ease of detection for each of the identified risks. 
A. PERT simulation
B. FMEA analysis
C. Ratio/range analysis
D. Probability analysis
E. Semi-quantitative analysis

22. Which of the following is not included in a Failure Mode and Effects Analysis? 
A. Impact
B. Probability
C. Detection
D. Risk value
E. All of these are included

23. Which of the following is used to review activity and project risk? 
A. NPV
B. S-curves
C. PERT
D. Decision trees
E. All of these can be used

24. Which of the following is not one of the potential responses to a specific risk event? 
A. Mitigating
B. Retaining
C. Ignoring
D. Transferring
E. Sharing

25. A Risk Response Matrix contains all of the following except 
A. Contingency plan
B. Trigger
C. Who is responsible?
D. Response
E. All of these are included in the matrix

26. The demolition of the Seattle Kingdome (Snapshot from Practice) is an example of which of the following? 
A. Mitigating
B. Retaining
C. Ignoring
D. Transferring
E. Sharing

27. The risk associated with one of the key members being stuck by lightning would most likely be handled by which of the following? 
A. Mitigating
B. Retaining
C. Ignoring
D. Transferring
E. Sharing

28. Funds that are for identified risks that have a low probability of occurring and that decrease as the project progresses are called ______ reserves. 
A. Management
B. Budget
C. Contingency
D. Padded
E. Just in case

29. Technical risks are: 
A. Can often be the kind that cause the project to be shut down.
B. Problematic
C. Imposed duration dates
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

30. Detailing all identified risks, including descriptions, category, and probability of occurring, impact, responses, contingency plans, owners and current status is called: 
A. Management reserves
B. Change control
C. Contingency reserves
D. Risk register
E. Risk profiles

31. Which of the following is identified to cover major unforeseen risks and, hence, are applied to the total project? 
A. Budget reserves
B. Management reserves
C. Time buffers
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

32. Change management systems are designed to accomplish all of the following except: 
A. Track all changes that are to be implemented
B. Review, evaluates, and approve/disapprove proposed changes formally
C. Identify expected effects of proposed changes on schedule and budget
D. Reflect scope changes in baseline and performance measures
E. All of the above are correct

33. The ________ impact of a risk event in a project is less if the event occurs earlier rather than later. 
________________________________________

34. The likelihood of a risk event occurring ________ as a project goes through its life cycle. 
________________________________________

35. The first step in the Risk Management process is ________. 
________________________________________

36. Risk events such as inflation, market acceptance, and government regulations are referred to as ________. 
________________________________________

37. A ________ is a list of questions that address traditional areas of uncertainty on a project. 
________________________________________

38. The easiest and most commonly used technique for analyzing risks is ________. 
________________________________________

39. The ________ form identifies each risk event, the likelihood of it occurring, the potential impact, when it may occur, and the degree of difficulty in detecting it. 
________________________________________

40. The ________ matrix is divided into red, yellow, and green zones representing major, moderate, and minor risks. 
________________________________________

41. The vertical scale on the Risk Severity Matrix measures the _________ of a potential risk event. 
________________________________________

42. The horizontal scale on the Risk Severity Matrix measures the _________ of a potential risk event. 
________________________________________

43. In __________ the Risk Severity Matrix is extended by including the ease of detecting a risk event occurring. 
________________________________________

44. In a ________, three different estimates of activity times are used to statistically predict the time an activity will take to complete. 
________________________________________

45. The “Snapshot from Practice” case where Ellipsus Systems developed parallel prototype systems (WAP and JAVA) is an example of _________ a risk. 
________________________________________

46. Testing a new project on a smaller isolated area prior to installing it for the entire organization is an example of ________ a risk. 
________________________________________

47. Performance bonds, warranties, and insurance are examples of ________ a risk. 
________________________________________

48. When the entertainment industry formed a consortium to define a common operating format for DVD it was ________ the risk. 
________________________________________

49. If a risk event is very unlikely to occur the project owner would probably ________ the risk. 
________________________________________

50. A ________ identifies what to do if a potential risk event actually occurs. 
________________________________________

51. ________ reserves are identified for specific work packages and cover risks that have a low probability of occurring. 
________________________________________

52. ________ reserves are controlled by the project manager and used to cover major unforeseen risks to the entire project. 
________________________________________

53. A ____________ is an alternative that will be used if a possible foreseen risk event becomes a reality. 
________________________________________

54. A ____________ is useful for summarizing how the project team plans to manage risks that have been identified. 
________________________________________

55. The probability that a risk event will occur is higher during the initial stages of a project. 
True False

56. Due to the impact over a long period of time, risk events that occur in the early stages of a project will have a greater cost impact than those that occur in later stages. 
True False

57. During risk identification the smaller risks should be identified first because they will naturally lead to identifying the larger risks. 
True False

58. One common mistake that is made early on in the risk identification process is to focus on consequences and not on the events that could produce consequences. 
True False

59. Risks such as inflation and monetary exchange rates are not usually included in a project’s risk assessment. 
True False

60. The first step in the risk management process is Risk Assessment. 
Refer to Figure 7.2 
True False

61. A risk profile is a list of questions that have been developed and refined from previous, similar projects. 
True False

62. The risk identification process should be limited to just the core project team. 
True False

63. Since the goal is to find problems before they happen, the project manager should encourage critical thinking when it comes to risk identification. 
True False

64. The Risk Severity Matrix rates risk events based upon schedule and cost. 
Refer to Figure 7.7 
True False

65. In a Risk Severity Matrix a green zone risk is considered inconsequential and ignored unless their status changes. 
True False

66. The quality and credibility of the risk analysis process requires that different levels of risk probabilities and impacts be defined. 
True False

67. Adopting proven technology instead of experimental technology is an example of mitigating a risk. 
True False

68. The FMEA method calculates a risk value by assigning ease of detection ratings to the key risk elements. 
True False

69. Performance bonds, warranties, and guarantees are financial instruments used to share risk. 
True False

70. Fixed price contracts are an example of transferring risk from an owner to a contractor. 
True False

71. Scheduling outdoor work in the summer, investing in up front safety training, and choosing high quality materials are examples of retaining a risk. 
True False

72. Budget reserves are setup to cover identified risks associated with specific segments of a project while management reserves are set up to cover unidentified risks associated with the total project. 
True False

73. Change management systems involve reporting, controlling, and recording changes to the project baseline. 
True False

74. Project managers need to establish an environment in which participants feel comfortable raising concerns and admitting mistakes. 
True False

75. Contingency funding is made up of budget reserves and management reserves. 
True False

76. Describe the relationship between the likelihood of a risk event occurring and the cost of fixing the risk event as a project proceeds through its life cycle.

77. Identify and briefly describe the four steps in risk management.

78. Describe the process for identifying project risks.

79. What is a risk profile and what benefits does it provide to risk management?

80. Identify at least six items that may be included on a Risk Profile.

81. How should a risk assessment be conducted?

82. What is a Risk Severity Matrix and what does it do?

83. Identify and briefly describe the five ways to respond to identified risks.

84. What is the difference between budget reserves and management reserves?

85. What is Change Control Management and what function does it perform?

86. Identify and briefly describe the parts of a Risk Response Matrix and explain how one would be used.

87. Compare and contrast budget reserves and management reserves.

ch8
1. Delaying noncritical activities to lower peak demand on resources is known as resource 
A. Shifting
B. Effectiveness
C. Manipulating
D. Resource smoothing
E. Allocation

2. If resources are not adequate to meet peak demands, the resulting reschedule is termed 
A. Resource-constrained scheduling
B. Time-constrained scheduling
C. Mandatory leveling
D. Project resource adjustment
E. Allocation

3. Which of the following is a potential consequence of failing to schedule limited resources? 
A. Costly activity delays
B. Costly project delays
C. Difficulty in taking quick corrective action
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

4. When developing a new software package, the software must be designed, the code must be written, and the code must be tested. This is an example of a ______ constraint. 
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Resource
D. Schedule
E. Time

5. Which of the following is not one of the types of project constraints? 
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Resource
D. Time
E. All of these are types of project constraints

6. Sam the project engineer has been scheduled to run the product system test at the same time he is to build a marketing prototype. This is an example of a ______ constraint. 
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Resource
D. Scheduling
E. Time

7. Susan is to conduct environmental testing but the chamber cannot hold all the equipment that she wants to test. This is an example of a _________ constraint. 
A. Physical
B. Technical
C. Resource
D. Scheduling
E. Time

8. All of the following are kinds of resource constraints except 
A. Materials
B. People
C. Equipment
D. Information
E. All of the above are resource constraints

9. Sam is trying to order the concrete needed to continue his project. However, the supplier won’t be able to deliver it until next week. This is an example of a _______ constraint. 
A. Working capital
B. People
C. Equipment
D. Information
E. Materials

10. A special truck that George needs on his project has been scheduled on another project. This is a ______ constraint. 
A. Working capital
B. People
C. Equipment
D. Information
E. Materials

11. Most of the scheduling methods available today require the project manager to classify the project as either _______ constrained or ______ constrained. 
A. Time, quality
B. Quality, resource
C. Cost, time
D. Quality, cost
E. Time, resource

12. Regina’s boss has told her that her project is very important. If the critical path is delayed, she will be given whatever she needs to get it back on schedule. Her project is ________ constrained. 
A. Time
B. Quality
C. Cost
D. Performance
E. Resource

13. In reviewing the status of her project with top management, Shirley was told that there only were two programmers that she could use for her project. Her project is __________ constrained. 
A. Time
B. Quality
C. Cost
D. Performance
E. Resource

14. All resource leveling techniques involve 
A. Delaying noncritical activities
B. Delaying critical activities
C. Using negative slack
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

15. Scheduling time-constrained projects focuses on resource 
A. Demands
B. Increases
C. Assumptions
D. Utilization
E. All are correct

16. The most widely used approach to apply heuristics, which have been found to consistently minimize project delay over a large variety of projects is the 
A. Parallel method
B. Resource method
C. Materials
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

17. Resource leveling can provide 
A. Lower peak demand
B. Reduced resource need over the life of the project
C. Reduced fluctuations in resource demand
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

18. Jan is trying to reallocate resources in a time-constrained project to create smoother resource utilization with a low level of risk. She should move to activities with the 
A. Smallest duration
B. Least slack
C. Most slack
D. Lowest identification number
E. Highest cost

19. In a resource-constrained project, which of the following is most likely to be changed? 
A. The completion date
B. The budget
C. Project quality
D. Both A and B are equally likely
E. A, B, and C are all equally likely

20. In a resource-constrained project, the first priority in assigning resources is usually given to activities with the 
A. Smallest duration
B. Least slack
C. Most slack
D. Lowest identification number
E. Highest cost

21. In a resource-constrained project the second priority in assigning resources is usually given to activities with the 
A. Smallest duration
B. Least slack
C. Most slack
D. Lowest identification number
E. Highest cost

22. The word Heuristics means 
A. Resource constraints
B. Flexibility
C. The critical path changed
D. Parallel activities become sequential
E. Rule of thumb

23. Splitting an activity creates the following situation: 
A. More people working on the same activity
B. There are possible startup and shutdown costs
C. A resource may be moved from one activity to another and then back
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

24. The U.S. Forest Service “snapshot from practice” illustrated the importance of 
A. Time constraints
B. Resource constraints
C. Cost constraints
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

25. More common problems associated with managing multiproject resources include all of the following except 
A. Inefficient resource utilization
B. Delays in one project cause delays in other projects
C. Reducing “downtime” created by lack of tasks to perform
D. Resource bottlenecks
E. All of these are common problems

26. When a company will reduce the number of projects they have to manage internally to only core projects and send noncritical projects to contractors and consulting firms this is called 
A. Outsourcing
B. Redistribution of projects
C. Project allocation
D. Task sharing
E. Both B and D are correct

27. Which of the following is not one of the more common problems associated with scheduling multiproject resources? 
A. Overall schedule slippage
B. Inefficient resource utilization
C. Resource bottlenecks
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

28. In a resource-constrained project the third priority in assigning resources is usually given to activities with the 
A. Smallest duration
B. Least slack
C. Most slack
D. Lowest identification number
E. Highest cost

29. In the Botanical Garden example, which of the following was used to solve the resource problem? 
A. Resource allocation
B. Smoothing resource demand
C. The parallel method
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

30. Project budgets are developed by time-phasing which of the following? 
A. Resource schedules
B. Work packages
C. The network diagram
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

31. A project budget report is showing our project as spending $35,000 against a budgeted amount of $40,000. Which of the following is true? 
A. We are spending less than we should for the project
B. We are doing a good job managing the project
C. We should check to see if all the bills have been paid
D. Both A and B are correct
E. We can’t be sure how the project is going

32. Delaying noncritical activities to lower peak demand and, thus, increase resource utilization is called _______ leveling. 
________________________________________

33. A(n) ________ constraint addresses the sequence in which project activities must occur. 
________________________________________

34. Having one person responsible for performing several activities, all due at the same time, is an example of a(n) ________ constraint. 
________________________________________

35. Trying to renovate a ship compartment that is too small for more than one person is an example of a(n) ________ constraint. 
________________________________________

36. A shortage of programmers to write software is an example of a(n) ________ type of resource constraint. 
________________________________________

37. The shortage of computer chips to produce a circuit board is an example of a(n) ________ type of resource constraint. 
________________________________________

38. If three copiers are needed to produce a final report on time and only two are available, the project is facing a(n) ________ type of resource constraint. 
________________________________________

39. Hector wants to bring on another programmer to work on the project but the company does not have anyone who has the needed skills. Hector’s project is facing a(n) ________ constraint. 
________________________________________

40. In order that the new product is on the shelf for the Christmas buying season, the development of the new product would be classified as a(n) ________ constrained project. 
________________________________________

41. Beth has two engineers assigned to her project and cannot get any more even if it means slipping the due date on her project. She is managing a(n) ________ constrained project. 
________________________________________

42. All leveling techniques delay noncritical activities by using ________ to reduce peak demand. 
________________________________________

43. Scheduling activities in a constrained project typically has ________ as the top heuristic rule. 
________________________________________

44. The ________ is the most widely used approach to apply heuristic rules to scheduling activities in a constrained project. 
________________________________________

45. When using the ________ scheduling technique, the work in an activity is interrupted to work on another activity and is then resumed at a later point in time. 
________________________________________

46. In scheduling resource-constrained projects, _________ are typically used rather than optimum mathematical solutions. 
________________________________________

47. In scheduling terms, ________ constrained means that project duration is fixed and resources are flexible. 
________________________________________

48. In scheduling terms, ________ constrained means that a specific resource is fixed and the duration of the project is flexible. 
________________________________________

49. Start-up and shutdown costs are major considerations when using the ________________ scheduling technique. 
________________________________________

50. To deal with problems related to having several concurrent projects, companies are creating ________ to oversee the scheduling of resources across multiple projects. 
________________________________________

51. Many companies are using ________ from contractors and consultants as a means of dealing with the peaks and valleys of resource allocation among projects. 
________________________________________

52. The ______________ is the most widely used approach to apply heuristics in resource-constrained projects. 
________________________________________

53. The ability to more efficiently manage the ebbs and flows of project work is one of the major driving forces behind ____________ today. 
________________________________________

54. Without a time-phased __________ good project schedule and cost control are impossible. 
________________________________________

55. A project cost baseline is also called __________. 
________________________________________

56. The sequence of (1) pour foundation, (2) build frame, and (3) cover roof is a type of physical constraint. 
True False

57. Too many parallel activities for one individual are an example of a resource constraint. 
True False

58. A project that is not resource-constrained is time-constrained. 
True False

59. Resource leveling is only used on projects which are resource-constrained. 
True False

60. Resource Bottlenecks are one of the three more common problems encountered in managing multiproject resource schedules. 
True False

61. The inability to get more than two earth movers on a construction site at the same time is an example of a physical constraint. 
True False

62. The most obvious and important kind of resource constraint is a lack of materials. 
True False

63. Having too few programmers and too many engineers is an example of a people resource constraint. 
True False

64. If a project needs one earth-mover six months from now and the organization has four such machines, there is no equipment resource constraint. 
True False

65. A lack of readily available engineers is a technical constraint. 
True False

66. All projects are usually either time-constrained or resource-constrained. 
True False

67. To determine if a project is time-constrained or resource-constrained you would consult the project priority matrix. 
True False

68. Scheduling time-constrained projects focuses on the optimal utilization of resources. 
True False

69. All leveling techniques delay noncritical activities by using positive slack to smooth out the resource requirements. 
True False

70. Scheduling time-constrained projects focuses on resource utilization. 
True False

71. Scheduling resource-constrained projects focuses on completing the project as soon as possible under the given constraints. 
True False

72. Heuristics are used in resource-constrained projects to develop the optimal schedule. 
True False

73. The top priority in using heuristics to allocate scare resources is those activities with the smallest duration. 
True False

74. The critical path in a resource-constrained schedule can be a group of disjointed, unconnected activities. 
True False

75. Splitting is a scheduling technique used to get a better schedule or better resource utilization. 
True False

76. Without a time-phased budget good project schedule and cost control are impossible. 
True False

77. Many companies are using outsourcing as a means for dealing with their resource allocation problems associated with managing multiproject resources. 
True False

78. Identify and briefly describe the three types of project constraints.

79. What is the difference in project goals when using resource leveling on time-constrained projects and using it on resource-constrained projects?

80. Identify the potential impacts of project constraints.

81. Identify and give an example of the three types of resource constraints.

82. Identify and briefly describe the two classifications of scheduling problems.

83. What are the disadvantages of resource leveling?

84. Why would a project manager use heuristics rather than a mathematical solution to level resources?

85. What are the three most common heuristics (in order of priority) used to allocate resources to project activities?

86. Describe the parallel method for applying heuristics to the allocation of project resources.

87. Why should project managers be cautious about using the splitting scheduling technique?

88. Identify and briefly discuss the three more common problems encountered in managing multiproject resource schedules.

89. Identify and briefly describe the potential impacts of resource-constrained scheduling.

90. If your project has spent $50,000 versus a budget of $45,000 and it is a week ahead of schedule, is it a certainty that your project is doing well?

ch9
1. The president of a software company remarks in a speech that new technologically advanced software will be available in one year. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by: 
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts

2. Intense global competition and rapid technological advances create pressure on developing projects rapidly. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by: 
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts

3. A contractor finished a bridge across a lake 18 months early and received more than $6 million for the early completion. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by: 
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts

4. Adverse weather, design flaws, and equipment breakdown can create negative slack. This is an example of reducing project duration caused by: 
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts

5. Total project costs include all of the following except: 
A. Supervision
B. Administration
C. Project manager’s salary
D. Interest
E. All of these are included in total project costs

6. Which of the following is not considered a project indirect cost? 
A. Supervision
B. Consultants
C. Equipment
D. Interest
E. All of these are considered project indirect costs

7. Project costs are generally classified as ____ costs. 
A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Overhead
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

8. Low-cost, realistic, efficient methods for completing an activity under normal conditions are supported by ____ time. 
A. Normal
B. Budget
C. Optimized
D. Expected
E. Target

9. The shortest possible time an activity can be completed realistically is called ___ time. 
A. Expedited
B. Accelerated
C. Crash
D. Optimistic
E. Optimal

10. The most common response for meeting unattainable deadlines is to 
A. Reduce or scale back the scope of the project.
B. Decrease the critical paths
C. Crash all elements of the project
D. Change the time to market statement
E. B, and C are correct

11. ____ costs are incurred when completing an activity in its realistically shortest time. 
A. Normal
B. Reserve
C. Crash
D. Accelerated
E. Expedited

12. An activity’s crash costs include ____ costs. 
A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Overhead
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct

13. Cost slope can be determined by dividing the 
A. Run by the rise
B. Rise by the run
C. Crash cost by the normal cost
D. Normal cost by the crash cost
E. Both B and C are correct

14. The less steep the cost slope of an activity, the 
A. Less it costs to shorten one time period
B. More it costs to shorten one time period
C. Smaller the crash time
D. Larger the crash time
E. Cannot be determined by the information given

15. Which of the following correctly calculates an activity’s cost slope? 
A. (normal cost-crash cost)/(normal time-crash time)
B. (crash cost-normal cost)/(normal time-crash time)
C. (normal time-crash time)/(crash cost-normal cost)
D. (normal time-crash time)/(normal cost-crash cost)
E. (crash cost-normal cost)/(crash time-normal time)

16. An activity’s cost slope represents an activity’s 
A. Total cost per unit of time
B. Cost per unit of time
C. Indirect cost per unit of time
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

17. In selecting the best activity to reduce you would first select the activity with the 
A. Earliest start time
B. Steepest slope
C. Least steep slope
D. Longest duration
E. Largest crash time

18. The optimum duration for a project is at the point where: 
A. Direct costs are the lowest
B. Indirect costs are the lowest
C. Direct costs equal indirect costs
D. Total project costs are the lowest
E. The project changes from time-constrained to resource-constrained

19. Creating a Project Cost-Duration graph is useful: 
A. During the pre-project planning phase
B. After the project has begun
C. After the completion of the project
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

20. Crashing a project should occur: 
A. As early as possible
B. As late as possible
C. Midway through the project
D. Both A and C are correct
E. Cannot be determined with the information given

21. If a network has several critical or near-critical paths it is deemed to be: 
A. Well planned
B. The lowest cost alternative
C. Resource-constrained
D. Sensitive
E. Insensitive

22. The project direct-cost line near the normal point is usually: 
A. Sloped steeply
B. Relatively flat
C. Rising
D. Falling
E. Gently sloped

23. The relationship between cost and time for various durations is assumed to be: 
A. Linear
B. Curvilinear
C. Variable
D. Conversely related
E. Exponentially related

24. A common method for shortening the project time is to: 
A. Adding resources
B. Schedule overtime
C. Subcontract an activity
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

25. A positive situation where moving toward the optimum time can result in very real, large savings—this occurs when the network is: 
A. Insensitive
B. Sensitive
C. Ahead of schedule
D. Shifting to the critical chain
E. Implementing a fast-tracking system

26. Which of the following is/are included in a Project Cost-Duration Graph? 
A. Total indirect cost
B. Total direct cost
C. Total project cost
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

27. One way of reducing project costs is identifying tasks that _________ can do themselves. 
A. Vendors
B. Suppliers
C. Customers
D. Company employees
E. Project teams

28. The most common method for shortening project time is to 
A. Subcontract activities
B. Compromise the quality
C. Add additional staff and equipment
D. Work overtime
E. Reduce the project scope

29. Which of the following is not one of the more commonly used options for cutting project costs? 
A. Reduce project scope
B. Have owner take more responsibility
C. Moving the completion date further out
D. Brainstorming cost savings options
E. Outsourcing project activities

30. Which of the following is the most common method for shortening project time? 
A. Assigning additional staff and equipment
B. Subcontract work
C. Schedule overtime
D. Reduce project scope
E. Reduce the quality

31. According to Brooks’ Law, adding more people to a late project is most likely to have which of the following impact? 
A. Keep the project from slipping any further
B. Get the project back on schedule
C. Make the project slips further
D. Both A and B are correct
E. None of these relate to Brooks’ Law

32. Which of the following is the easiest method for shortening project time? 
A. Assigning additional staff and equipment
B. Subcontract work
C. Schedule overtime
D. Reduce project scope
E. Reduce the quality

33. Which of the following is not one of the techniques for accelerating project completion? 
A. Assigning additional staff and equipment
B. Establish a core team
C. Do it twice—fast and correctly
D. Reduce project scope
E. All of these are acceptable techniques

34. When the project team is salaried, which of the following is the preferred choice for accelerating project completion? 
A. Assigning additional staff and equipment
B. Subcontract work
C. Schedule overtime
D. Work longer hours
E. Both C and D are preferred choices

35. The Snapshot from Practice “Cell-Phone Wars” is an excellent example of reducing project duration due to: 
A. Imposed project deadlines
B. Time to market
C. Unforeseen project delays
D. High overhead
E. Incentive contracts

36. When a politician makes a public statement that a new building will be available in two years, a(n) ________ duration has reduced the project duration. 
________________________________________

37. Intense global competition and rapid technological advances combine to create a(n) ________ imposed project duration date. 
________________________________________

38. The Snapshot from Practice which detailed the Northridge earthquake demonstrated the importance of reducing a project’s ______. 
________________________________________

39. Sometimes very high ________ costs are recognized before a project begins and reducing these costs through shorter project durations becomes a high priority. 
________________________________________

40. The ________ project cost is the sum of the indirect and direct costs. 
________________________________________

41. Costs such as supervision, administration, consultants, and interest are examples of ________ project costs. 
________________________________________

42. Costs such as labor, materials, equipment, or contractors are examples of ________ project costs. 
________________________________________

43. Direct costs are assignable directly to a project ________. 
________________________________________

44. Because direct costs are assumed to be developed from normal methods and time, any reduction in activity time should ________ the cost of the activity. 
________________________________________

45. To shorten the duration of a project the project manager should limit the choices of activities to just those which ________. 
________________________________________

46. The ________ time for an activity represents low-costs, realistic, efficient methods for completing the activity under typical conditions. 
________________________________________

47. Shortening an activity is called ________. 
________________________________________

48. The direct costs for completing an activity as early as possible is called its ________. 
________________________________________

49. An activity’s ________ is calculated by dividing the rise by the run. 
________________________________________

50. Subtracting an activity’s normal cost from the crash cost will calculate an activity’s ________. 
________________________________________

51. Subtracting an activity’s crash time from the normal time will calculate an activity’s ________. 
________________________________________

52. When considering whether to move the project to its optimum cost-time position, the manager should also consider ________. 
________________________________________

53. A network is considered to be ________ if it has a predominate critical path with no other path close in terms of slack. 
________________________________________

54. The easiest way to add more resources to a project is not to add more people, but to schedule ________. 
________________________________________

55. According to ________, adding more manpower to a late software project makes it later. 
________________________________________

56. The easiest way to add more labor to a project is not to add more people, but to add ___________. 
________________________________________

57. ____________ is the rearranging of the project network logic so that critical activities are done in parallel rather than sequentially. 
________________________________________

58. ___________ is probably the most common response for meeting unattainable deadlines. 
________________________________________

59. In the “I’ll Bet You…” Snapshot from Practice, the draftsman won ___________ for making a very difficult deadline. 
________________________________________

60. A rule of thumb for moderate- to high-technology firms is that a six-month delay in bringing a product to market can result in a gross profit loss of about 35 percent. 
True False

61. Imposed project durations almost always leads to a higher-cost project than one planned with detailed scheduling of all the project’s activities. 
True False

62. Managers have several effective methods for crashing specific project activities when resources are not constrained. 
True False

63. Indirect costs generally represent overhead costs such as supervision, administration, consultants, and interest. 
True False

64. The total cost for each possible duration of a project is the sum of labor, materials, and equipment. 
True False

65. Direct costs are so named because they can be assigned directly to a work package and activity. 
True False

66. Because direct costs are assumed to be developed from normal methods and time, any reduction in activity time should add to the costs of the activity. 
True False

67. The sum of the costs of all the work packages represents the total direct costs for the project. 
True False

68. Incentive contracts can make reduction of project time rewarding—usually for both the project contractor and owner. 
True False

69. Shortening an activity’s duration is termed crashing. 
True False

70. Expected time for an activity represents low-cost, realistic, efficient methods for completing the activity under anticipated conditions. 
True False

71. Crash cost is the incremental cost incurred when an activity is reduced in duration. 
True False

72. The cost slope of an activity is calculated by dividing the run by the rise. 
True False

73. Crash time is the greatest time reduction possible under realistic conditions. 
True False

74. The higher the slope of an activity the greater the cost to reduce its duration. 
True False

75. Creating a Project Cost-Duration Graph in the pre-project planning phase without an imposed duration is the best time to use this tool. 
True False

76. Crashing a more expensive activity may be wise if fewer inherent risks are involved. 
True False

77. A project network is classified as sensitive if it has a large number of interacting paths. 
True False

78. Collecting crash times for a moderate-size project is relatively easy. 
True False

79. While the relationship between normal and crash times is really curvilinear, the assumption that it is linear is seldom a concern for practicing managers. 
True False

80. The accuracy of crash times and costs is frequently rough at best, when compared with normal time and cost. 
True False

81. One of the advantages of using a Project Cost-Duration Graph is that it keeps the importance of indirect costs in the forefront of decision making. 
True False

82. Identify and briefly describe five reasons for attempting to reduce the duration of a project.

83. Identify and give an example for both of the major categories that make up project costs.

84. Draw a typical Project Cost-Duration Graph and label the key elements.

85. Why is the project duration with the lowest direct costs seldom the optimum duration for a project?

86. Given an equal level of risk and the need to reduce overall project duration, why would you not select the activity with the lowest slope in the entire project network to crash first?

87. What is crashing and include a discussion of crash time and crash cost?

88. How would you calculate an activity’s slope and what does it represent?

89. Given that an activity’s normal time and cost are ten days and $400, and its crash time is five days and $800, what is the activity’s slope?

90. What do we mean when we say that a project network is sensitive and why is that important to a project manager?

91. Identify options for accelerating a project schedule when resources are not constrained.

92. Identify options for accelerating a project schedule when resources are constrained or the budget is severely constrained.

93. What are the benefits to using a Project Cost-Duration Graph to assist in comparing any proposed alternative or change with the current baseline?

94. What is Critical-chain (C-C) project management and why can it be of benefit to project managers?

ch10
1. Project success or failure often depends upon the contributions of all of the following except: 
A. Customers
B. Suppliers
C. Contractors
D. Competitors
E. Top management

2. Project leadership is about coping with: 
A. Formulating plans and objectives
B. Monitoring results against plans
C. Change
D. Taking corrective action when necessary
E. All of these are part of leadership

3. The difference between project management and project leadership is that project management includes: 
A. Recognizing the need to alter direction
B. Aligning people to meet new directions
C. Monitoring results against plans
D. Motivating people to meet new objectives
E. All of these are leadership functions

4. Well-defined projects that encounter no significant surprises require little: 
A. Management
B. Leadership
C. Monitoring
D. Corrective action
E. All of these are only required to a minor extent

5. Which of the following requires more management rather than leadership? 
A. Taking corrective action
B. Changes in project scope
C. Technological stalemates
D. Breakdowns in coordination between people
E. All of these require the same level of management

6. In conducting meetings an effective project manager will take the role of a: 
A. Parliamentarian
B. Master of ceremonies
C. Conductor
D. Cattle herder
E. Teacher

7. Project managers often find themselves negotiating with all the following except: 
A. Vendors
B. Functional managers
C. Consultants
D. Competitors
E. All of these are correct

8. Groups such as human resources, information systems, purchasing agents, and maintenance are typically classified as: 
A. Project managers
B. Administrative support
C. Functional managers
D. Project sponsors
E. Customers

9. The closest relationships in a project network of relationships are with: 
A. Other project managers
B. Project sponsors
C. Top management
D. Customers
E. Project team members

10. The second ring in the network of relationships for project managers includes all of the following except: 
A. Other project managers
B. Customers
C. Functional managers
D. Top management
E. Project sponsors

11. The outer ring in the network of relationships for project managers includes all of the following except: 
A. Other organizations
B. Customers
C. Contractors
D. Government agencies
E. Administrative support

12. The old-fashion view of managing projects emphasized which of the following? 
A. Planning
B. Directing
C. Controlling
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

13. The new perspective of project management emphasizes which of the following? 
A. Financial control
B. Managing project stakeholders
C. Schedule/cost tradeoffs
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

14. Networks are mutually beneficial alliances that are generally governed by the law of: 
A. Supply-demand
B. Brooks’s law
C. Reciprocity
D. A squeaky wheel
E. Risk-reward

15. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, vision, excellence, and ethical correctness are part of ______ related currencies. 
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal

16. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, resources, assistance, cooperation, and information are part of ______ related currencies. 
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal

17. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, acceptance, personal support, and understanding are part of _______ related currencies. 
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal

18. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, advancement, recognition, visibility, and networks are part of ______ related currencies. 
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal

19. In terms of commonly traded organizational currencies, learning, ownership, and gratitude are part of ______ related currencies. 
A. Task
B. Position
C. Inspiration
D. Relationship
E. Personal

20. In mapping dependencies for a project, the project manager should: 
A. Overestimate
B. Underestimate
C. Precisely estimate
D. Either B or C are correct
E. None of these are correct

21. Which of the following is used at Hewlett-Packard for building relationships with key players that will determine a project’s success? 
A. MBO
B. MBA
C. GIGO
D. MBWA
E. PMI

22. In the Snapshot from Practice “Managing Expectations”, one of the key aspects to project success was stated to be the managing of stakeholder: 
A. Relations
B. Expectations
C. Involvement
D. Influence
E. Input

23. In the Research Highlight, Ancona and Caldwell identified key patterns of activity which contribute to creating a high performance team. Which of the following is not one of those? 
A. Negotiator
B. Ambassador
C. Task coordinator
D. Scouts
E. Guard

24. Which of the following is not one of the aspects of leading by example? 
A. Priorities
B. Ethics
C. Urgency
D. Cooperation
E. Power

25. The traits of successful project managers include all of the following except: 
A. Pessimist
B. Proactive
C. Skillful politician
D. Effective time management
E. Personal integrity

26. Unlike project leadership, project management is about coping with: 
A. Change
B. Aligning people to any new directions
C. Monitoring results against plans
D. Recognizing the need to alter plans
E. All of these are part of project management

27. In a survey of project managers, approximately what percentage reported that they encountered ethical issues in their work? 
A. 22 percent
B. 40 percent
C. 65 percent
D. 81 percent
E. 100 percent

28. The key to exercising influence is: 
A. To make few mistakes
B. To build trust
C. To build a network of top level people
D. To understand the political connections within the organization
E. To make friends with everyone

29. Which of the following is not one of the distinguishing traits of character? 
A. Openness
B. Consistency
C. Empathetic
D. Sense of purpose
E. Hard work

30. Which of the following would be defined as the ability or skill to perceive, assess and manage the emotions of one ‘s self and others? 
A. Emotional stability
B. Coolness under pressure
C. Emotional intelligence
D. Empathy
E. Management sensitivity

31. Management is about coping with complexity; ________ is about coping with change. 
________________________________________

32. A popular metaphor for the role of a project manager is that of ________. 
________________________________________

33. ________ naturally compete with each other for resources and the support of top management. 
________________________________________

34. ________ champion the project and uses their influence to gain approval of the project. 
________________________________________

35. ________ define the scope of the project, and ultimate project success rests in their satisfaction. 
________________________________________

36. Networks are mutually beneficial alliances that are generally governed by the law of ________. 
________________________________________

37. In the organizational currency of _______ related influence comes directly from the project manager’s ability to contribute to others accomplishing their work. 
________________________________________

38. In the organizational currency of _______ related influence comes directly from the project manager’s ability to enhance others’ positions within the organization. 
________________________________________

39. Perhaps the most powerful form of organization currency is based upon ________. 
________________________________________

40. The essence of the ________ related form of organization currency is forming a relationship that transcends normal professional boundaries and extends into the realm of friendship. 
________________________________________

41. The ______ related form of organization currency deals with individual needs and an overriding sense of self-esteem. 
________________________________________

42. In building a social network it is always better to ________ the dependencies on which the success of a project is based. 
________________________________________

43. In the ________ style of management, managers spend the majority of their time outside their offices. 
________________________________________

44. All stakeholders have ________ about the schedule, cost, and project benefits that the project manager needs to listen for, understand, and manage. 
________________________________________

45. Research consistently points out that project success is strongly affected by the degree to which a project has the support of ______. 
________________________________________

46. The Ancona and Caldwell research identified ________ activities as aimed at representing the team to others and protecting the team from interference. 
________________________________________

47. The Ancon and Caldwell research identified ________ activities as those where the manager goes out from the team to bring back information about what else is going on in the organization. 
________________________________________

48. In the ________ management style, the project manager’s behavior symbolizes how other people should work on the project. 
________________________________________

49. In a survey of project managers, 81 percent reported that they encounter ________ issues in their work. 
________________________________________

50. Successful project managers not only need to be influential, they also need to exercise influence in a manner that builds and sustains the ________ of others. 
________________________________________

51. We must have confidence in the ____________ of individuals before we really trust them. 
________________________________________

52. Project managers have to see _________________ and how their project fits within the larger strategy of their firm. 
________________________________________

53. The ability or skill to perceive, assess and manage the emotions of one ‘s self and others is called ____________. 
________________________________________

54. Strong leadership, while usually desirable, is not always necessary to successfully. 
True False

55. The higher the degree of uncertainty encountered on a project, the more management is required. 
True False

56. A popular metaphor for the role of a project manager is that of a sports coach. 
True False

57. Successful project managers tend to adopt a hands-on approach to managing projects. 
True False

58. One of the things that distinguish project management from regular management is the sheer breadth and complexity of the relationships that need to be managed. 
True False

59. In some projects contractors may do all the work with the project team merely coordinating their contributions. 
True False

60. One advantage of creating a dedicated project team is that it reduces dependencies, especially within the organization. 
True False

61. A successful project manager must build a cooperative, mutually beneficial network based on the age-old maxim: “Quid pro quo.” 
True False

62. Relationship-related currencies include: resources, cooperation, assistance, and information. 
Refer to Table 10.1 
True False

63. Position-related currencies include: vision, excellence, and ethical correctness. 
Refer to Table 10.1 
True False

64. Personal-related currencies include: challenge/learning, ownership/involvement, and gratitude. 
Refer to Table 10.1 
True False

65. Position-related currencies include: advancement, recognition, visibility, and network/contacts. 
Refer to Table 10.1 
True False

66. The first step to building a social network is identifying those on whom the project depends for success. 
True False

67. Many poor-performing project managers are guilty of management by wandering around. 
True False

68. Good time management for project managers includes initiating contact with key stakeholders only when there is a valid issue to deal with. 
True False

69. “Guard” activities, as defined by Ancona and Caldwell, are aimed at representing the project team to others and protecting the team from interference. 
Refer to Research Highlight Page 352 
True False

70. “Ambassador” activities, as defined by Ancona and Caldwell, are aimed at going out from the team to bring back information about what is going on elsewhere in the organization. 
Refer to Research Highlight on page 352 
True False

71. When giving a status report to superiors, project managers must present the most positive image possible including, if necessary, stretching the truth. 
True False

72. To be effective, project managers must “walk the talk”, i.e.; lead by example. 
True False

73. In a survey of project managers, more than 81 percent reported that they encounter ethical issues in their work. 
True False

74. Character alone will engender trust. 
True False

75. One problem new project managers experience is that it takes time to establish a sense of character and competency. 
True False

76. The ability or skill to perceive, assess and manage the emotions of one ‘s self and others is known as emotional intelligence. 
Refer to Research Highlight on page 361 
True False

77. “Managing a project and leading a project is essentially the same thing.” Agree or disagree and support your conclusion.

78. “Strong leadership is not always necessary to successfully complete a project.” Agree or disagree and support your conclusion.

79. Identify at least five of the typical group dependencies that project managers must manage.

80. Identify and briefly describe the five commonly traded organizational currencies.

81. What is “management by wandering around” and why would it be useful to project managers?

82. Identify and briefly describe the four patterns of activity identified by Ancona and Caldwell which lead to creating a high performance team.

83. Identify five of the six aspects of leading by example.

84. Identify and briefly discuss the key to exercising influence within an organization.

85. Identify five of the six contradictions that an effective project manger must face.

86. Identify five of the eight traits associated with being a successful project manager.

87. Identify and compare and contrast The old-fashioned view of managing projects and the new perspective of managing projects.

88. “All the eight traits of being a good project manager can be trained.” Agree or Disagree and support your conclusion.

ch11
1. The essence of positive synergy can be found in the phrase: 
A. Front of ship sink—back of ship sink
B. There is no “I” in team
C. Two heads are better than one
D. The whole is greater than the sum of the parts
E. If it doesn’t kill you, it makes you stronger

2. Which of the following is commonly associated with high-performing project teams? 
A. Risk taking is controlled and not allowed to jeopardize the overall project
B. Roles and specific responsibilities are well-defined
C. A degree of competition among team members is encouraged
D. Mistakes are viewed as opportunities for learning
E. All of these are associated with high-performing teams

3. During which stage of team development do members accept that they are part of a project group but resist the constraints that the project and the group put on their individuality? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

4. During which stage of team development do close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

5. During which stage of team development is the team fully functional and accepted? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

6. During which stage of team development is high performance not a top priority and team member emotions run from upbeat to depressed? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

7. During which stage of team development do team members try to find out what behaviors are acceptable and what performance expectations are? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

8. Sam is the coach of a high school soccer team and has noticed that some close relationships have formed as well as feelings of camaraderie and shared responsibilities for the team’s success. Which stage of development is the team in? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

9. Roger is new-product project manager for a retail company. Recently the team has exhibited a high degree of conflict over who will control the group and how decisions will be made. Which stage of development is the team in? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

10. Tom is managing a project team responsible for erecting a new office building. He notices that team members are trying out different behaviors to see what is acceptable to the project and personal relations. Which stage of development is the team in? 
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning
E. Forming

11. Experience and research indicate that high-performance project teams are much more likely to develop under all the following conditions except: 
A. Members are assigned to the project full time
B. Members report solely to the project manager
C. There are 10 or fewer members per team
D. Team members are selected by their managers
E. The project involves a compelling objective

12. In which of the following theories does the project group transition from a lower level to a higher level of performance about halfway through the project? 
A. Nominal Group Technique
B. Five Stage Team Development Model
C. Punctuated Equilibrium Model of Group Development
D. Dysfunctional Transition Model
E. Synergistic Transition Development Model

13. Which of the following are considered very important in the recruiting of project members? 
A. The budget available
B. The importance of the project
C. The management structure for the project team
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

14. Which of the following is not one of the considerations that need to be factored into the project team recruitment process? 
A. Political connections
B. Problem-solving ability
C. Ambition, initiative, and energy
D. High degree of technological expertise
E. Availability

15. Which of the following is an objective of the first project team meeting? 
A. Overview the project’s scope and objectives
B. Address interpersonal interaction concerns
C. Model how the team will work together
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

16. Which of the following is not one of the major issues that successful project managers must address in the early stages of a project? 
A. Relationship Decisions
B. Managing Change Decisions
C. Tracking Decisions
D. Planning Decisions
E. All of these need to be addressed

17. Researchers have found that high performance teams will have which of the following norms? 
A. Hard work does not get in the way of having fun
B. No information is shared outside the team unless all agree to it
C. It is acceptable to be in trouble, but not to surprise others
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

18. All of the following have been found to be good for running effective project meetings except: 
A. Start meetings on time regardless of whether everyone is present
B. Identify an adjournment time
C. Thoroughly document all decisions
D. Prepare and distribute an agenda prior to the meeting
E. All of these are good for effective meetings

19. Establishing a team identity is facilitated by: 
A. Team members working in a common space
B. Creation of a project team name
C. Effective use of meetings
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

20. The essential qualities of an effective vision include all of the following except: 
A. All team members have the same vision
B. The vision should be communicated to all
C. The vision has to make strategic sense
D. There should be a passion for the vision
E. The vision should be a source of inspiration to others

21. Which of the following would be considered the most effective project reward? 
A. Individual member rewards
B. Lump-sum cash award
C. All-expenses-paid trip for team members and their families
D. Using negative reinforcement to motivate adequate performance
E. All of these are equally effective

22. Individual rewards for outstanding work would not include: 
A. Letters of commendation
B. Public recognition
C. Desirable job assignments
D. Making exceptions to the rules
E. All of these can be used for individual rewards

23. The first step in facilitating group decision making is to: 
A. Call a meeting to discuss the problem
B. Identify the problem
C. Agree that there is a problem
D. Quantify the problem
E. Generate alternatives

24. Strategies to manage dysfunctional conflict do not include _____ the conflict. 
A. Control
B. Arbitrate
C. Mediate
D. Accept
E. Encourage

25. The biggest challenge to managing a virtual project team is: 
A. Getting reports and technical information communicated
B. Developing trust
C. Establishing effective patterns of communication
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

26. Which of the following is not one of the steps in facilitating group decision making? 
A. Identifying the problem
B. Analyzing the situation
C. Generating alternatives
D. Reaching a decision
E. Follow-up

27. During the delivery phase of a project’s life cycle, the most significant source of conflict is: 
A. Schedules
B. Priorities
C. Technical
D. Procedures
E. Costs

28. Two of the biggest challenges involved in managing a virtual project team are: 
A. The language barriers and time management
B. Time management and developing trust
C. The language barriers and developing effective patterns of communication
D. Developing trust and effective patterns of communication
E. Time management and developing effective patterns of communication

29. Symptoms of groupthink include: 
A. The team thinking it is invincible
B. Opinions of those outside the team are considered to be irrelevant
C. Critical thinking disappears
D. Pressure is applied to any dissenter
E. All of these are symptoms of groupthink

30. Which of the following are ways to improve the performance of low-priority projects? 
A. Creating a large time investment in the form of a lengthy meeting
B. Interject as much fun as possible into the project
C. Make the benefits of the project as real as possible to the team members
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

31. Which of the following is not one of the most significant sources of conflict during the project definition phase? 
A. Priorities
B. Administrative procedures
C. Schedule
D. Workforce
E. Costs

32. Which of the following is not one of the most significant sources of conflict during the project planning phase? 
A. Priorities
B. Procedures
C. Schedule
D. Technical requirements
E. Costs

33. Which of the following is not one of the most significant sources of conflict during the project execution phase? 
A. Priorities
B. Staff issues
C. Schedule slippage
D. Technical problems
E. All of these are significant sources of conflict

34. Which of the following is not one of the tips for alleviating communication problems of virtual teams? 
A. Include face-to-face time if at all possible
B. Keep team members informed on how well the overall project is going
C. Share the pain
D. Establish clear norms and protocols for surfacing assumptions and conflicts
E. Establish a code of conduct to avoid delays

35. ________ occurs when the whole is less than the sum of its parts. 
________________________________________

36. During the ________ stage of group development, there is conflict over who will control the group and how decisions will be made. 
________________________________________

37. During the ________ stage of group development, the members try to find out what behaviors are acceptable to the team and individual team members. 
________________________________________

38. During the ________ stage of group development, the team prepares for its own disbandment. 
________________________________________

39. During the ________ stage of group development, close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness. 
________________________________________

40. During the ________ stage of group development, the team is fully functional and working together to accomplishing the project goals. 
________________________________________

41. The ________ suggests that about midway through a project the team transitions into a different behavior pattern more focused on the successful completion of the project. 
________________________________________

42. Experienced project managers stress the importance of ________ rather than appointing team members. 
________________________________________

43. Too often when constrained by time, project managers try to accomplish too much during the first meeting, rather than use the ________ principle and not create information overload. 
________________________________________

44. _______ are often considered anathema to productivity, yet they are critical to the success of any project. 
________________________________________

45. Symbolic actions at the project level can contribute to a unique team subculture are called ________. 
________________________________________

46. In the Snapshot from Practice involving the Tallahassee Democrat newspaper, the key turning point was the handling of an advertisement, eventually known as the ________ that had been sent to the newspaper over a fax machine. 
________________________________________

47. The development of _________________ is a common device for making a team more tangible. 
________________________________________

48. Expressing the design concept of a new car as a “pocket rocket” (a sports car in the mid-price range) is an example of a simplified ________. 
________________________________________

49. Project managers are responsible for managing the ________ that encourage team performance and extra effort. 
________________________________________

50. The use of 6:30 A.M. meetings to get a project back on schedule is an example of ______ reinforcement to motivate project performance. 
________________________________________

51. ________ should be used when strong commitment to a decision is needed and there is a low probability of acceptance if the decision were to be made by one person. 
________________________________________

52. When the manager intervenes and tries to negotiate a resolution by using reasoning and persuasion, suggesting alternatives and the like the Project Manager is trying to ___________. 
________________________________________

53. In the ________ approach to managing conflict, the manager imposes a solution to the conflict after listening to each party. 
________________________________________

54. In a ________ project team the members are geographically situated so that they may seldom meet face-to-face as a team. 
________________________________________

55. ___________ refers to whether a team has direct influence over the problem that needs to be resolved. 
________________________________________

56. When a project team gets things done without having to go through normal protocols of the parent organization, it may fall into the ____________. 
________________________________________

57. Project managers should encourage ___________ conflict. 
________________________________________

58. Project managers should manage ___________ conflict. 
________________________________________

59. In order to match technology to the communication need, 3M developed guidelines to be used on __________ projects. 
________________________________________

60. Synergy can be both negative as well as positive. 
True False

61. There is a high degree of internal conflict in the forming stage of team development. 
True False

62. The storming stage of team development is completed once members begin to think of themselves as part of a group. 
True False

63. The performing stage of team development is characterized by the development of close relationships and group cohesiveness. 
True False

64. The norming stage of team development is complete when the group establishes a common set of expectations about how members should work together. 
True False

65. Regardless of the type of work group, the adjourning stage of team development is the final stage. 
True False

66. The Punctuated Equilibrium Model of group development has only two phases with a single transition joining them. 
True False

67. A project manager should always look for people with good problem-solving ability. 
True False

68. A project manager should be wary of people who know too much about a specific technology. 
True False

69. Co-location of team members, team names, and team rituals are common vehicles for establishing a team identity. 
True False

70. A project vision is an image a project team holds in common about how the project will look upon completion, how they will work together, and how customers will accept the project. 
True False

71. Everyone on the project team should have the same vision of the project. 
True False

72. Most project managers advocate the use of group rewards rather than individual rewards. 
True False

73. Lump-sum cash bonuses are the preferred group reward for project teams. 
True False

74. Letters of commendation, public recognition for outstanding work, and desirable job assignments are the preferred types of individual rewards. 
True False

75. Group decision making should be used when strong commitment to the decision is needed and there is a low probability of acceptance if only one person makes the decision. 
True False

76. A project manager should identify a problem in terms of its alternate solutions so that team members can more easily reach a decision on how to solve the problem. 
True False

77. Team members can be upset and dissatisfied with conflict, but as long as the disagreement furthers the objectives of the project, then the conflict is functional. 
True False

78. A project manager arbitrates conflict by intervening and attempting to negotiate a resolution by using reasoning and persuasion, suggesting alternatives and the like. 
True False

79. Groupthink refers to the tendency of members in highly cohesive groups to lose their critical evaluative capabilities resulting in quick decision making with little consideration of alternatives. 
True False

80. Two of the biggest challenges involved in managing a virtual project team are developing trust and effective patterns of communication. 
True False

81. “Going native” is the ability that some project teams have to bypass the normal policies and procedures that everyone in the organization is supposed to follow. 
True False

82. In order to match technology to the communication need, IBM developed a set of guidelines to be used on their virtual projects. 
True False

83. Identify the four major areas for establishing ground rules on how the project team will operate.

84. Identify and briefly discuss the four elements to establishing a team identity.

85. Identify the four requirements for an effective project vision.

86. Identify and briefly discuss the four types of individual rewards recommended for project team members.

87. Identify and briefly discuss the four major steps in facilitating the group decision making process.

88. What is functional conflict and why should it be encouraged?

89. Identify the five strategies to manage conflict.

90. What is a virtual project team?

91. What is meant by the term groupthink and identify four symptoms?

92. From the perspective of project management, what does the term going native reference?

93. What is the bureaucratic bypass syndrome and why is it to be avoided?

94. Identify and briefly describe the four common pitfalls that project teams may be subjected to.

ch12
1. Contracting project work has long been the norm in the _______ industry. 
A. Telecommunications
B. Financial
C. Insurance
D. Construction
E. Retail

2. The process for the transferring of business functions or processes to other, often foreign, companies has traditionally been known as: 
A. Subcontracting
B. Downsizing
C. Partnering
D. Joint venture
E. Outsourcing

3. When you call your Internet provider to solve a technical problem and you end up talking to a technician in India or Romania, you have just experienced: 
A. Telecommunications
B. Partnering
C. Outsourcing
D. Service shift
E. Bilingual customer service

4. Which of the following is not a potential part of the outsourcing concept? 
A. Computers
B. Faxes
C. Computer-aided design systems
D. Video teleconferencing
E. All the above are correct

5. Advantages of outsourcing project work may likely include all of the following except 
A. Shortened project completion
B. Reduced costs
C. Higher level of expertise
D. Reduced conflict
E. Increased flexibility

6. Disadvantages of outsourcing project work may likely include all of the following except 
A. Increased conflict
B. Coordination breakdowns
C. Increased costs
D. Loss of control
E. More internal morale issues

7. The driving motive for increasing the use of outsourcing on projects was: 
A. Reducing the trade deficit
B. Reducing costs
C. Improving international sales
D. Making products more international in design
E. Securing technology that was not available domestically

8. Recent outsourcing trends have shown an increasing emphasis on the suppliers for all of the following except: 
A. Further cost reductions
B. Increased quality of work performed
C. Increased ability to collaborate
D. Increased ability to work together
E. All of these are recent trends

9. Key practices in partnering relationships include: 
A. Single project contracting
B. Goals and objectives are similar
C. Access to each other’s organizational resources
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

10. In the “Competing against the Giants” Snapshot from Practice, SATT Control uses which of the following to successfully compete against much larger competitors? 
A. Excellent project management
B. Acts as a system integrator
C. Using the same subsystem vendors again and again
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

11. Which of the following is not a key to successful partnering relationships? 
A. Mutual trust
B. Jointly shared risk
C. Total company involvement
D. Independent project teams
E. Long-term commitment

12. Which of the following is part of the traditional project process? 
A. Structured communications
B. Long-term commitment
C. Total company involvement
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

13. The traditional project process includes all of the following except: 
A. Independent project teams
B. Shared goals and objectives
C. Single project teams
D. Risk is transferred to the other party
E. Limited objectivity

14. Which of the following did the state of Ohio do before starting a bond-financed school construction project? 
A. Create a specific RFP (request for proposal)
B. Have a dress rehearsal
C. Reviews the performance of contractors on past projects
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

15. Best practices in outsourcing project work include all the following except: 
A. Well defined requirements and procedures
B. Training and teambuilding activities
C. Well established conflict management processes
D. Frequent reviews and status updates
E. All of these are best practices

16. In the Snapshot from Practice “Strategies for Communicating with Outsourcers,” which of the following was not one of the suggested strategies? 
A. Recognize cultural differences
B. Use a translator to make sure everyone understands
C. Choose the right words
D. Confirm your requirements
E. Set deadlines

17. To make sure that an outsourcer thoroughly understands your requirements you should: 
A. Document your conversations in writing
B. Insist that the outsourcer write the requirements in their own words
C. Request they build a prototype
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

18. The result of teambuilding among the project’s participants is a: 
A. Signed contract
B. Legal partnership agreement
C. Project plan
D. Partnering charter
E. Responsibility matrix

19. To avoid problems with schedules and deadlines you should: 
A. Develop detailed schedules
B. Hold frequent status reviews
C. Add a penalty clause to the contract
D. Hold frequent conversations with the outsourcer
E. Build extra time into the schedules that the outsourcer is not aware of

20. Among the many advantages for establishing long-term partnerships are: 
A. Reduced administrative costs
B. Improved performance
C. Improved communication
D. B and C are both correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

21. Long-term partnerships will provide all the following except: 
A. Improved communication
B. More efficient utilization of resources
C. Reduced need for total number of partnerships
D. Lower administrative costs
E. Improved innovation

22. Teambuilding between partners should: 
A. Include engineers, architects, lawyers, specialists and other staff
B. Be facilitated by an outside consultant
C. Not take more than one day
D. A and B are both correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

23. Which of the following would be included in best practices in outsourcing project work? 
A. Establishing long-term relationships
B. Include financial incentives
C. Reduce costs by using tried and true methods
D. A and B are both correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

24. In the Snapshot from Practice dealing with the Value Engineering Awards program, which branch of the U.S. government was involved? 
A. Department of Defense
B. Department of Commerce
C. Department of Transportation
D. N.A.S.A
E. Department of Education

25. Which of the following is not one of the key points of principled negotiation? 
A. Use objective criteria when possible
B. Be honest and forthright
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Separate the people from the problem
E. Invent options for mutual gain

26. Customer satisfaction can be quantitified by: 
A. Perceived performance divided by actual performance
B. Actual performance divided by expected performance
C. Perceived performance divided by expected performance
D. Actual performance divided by perceived performance
E. Expected performance divided by actual performance

27. Which of the following is a part of the noncompetitive view of negotiation? 
A. Reaching an agreement
B. Implementation phase
C. Review of the completed project
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

28. Which of the following is suggested as the best target for a customer satisfaction ratio? 
A. 1.00
B. 1.05
C. 1.10
D. 1.20
E. 1.50

29. In the research highlight on IT project managers, which of the following was not one of the roles taken by project managers? 
A. Entrepreneur
B. Politician
C. Friend
D. Marketer
E. Auditor

30. Regarding customer relations, advice passed on by veteran project managers includes: 
A. Speak with one voice
B. Speak in precise terms
C. Speak the language of the customer
D. Both A and B are correct
E. Both A and C are correct

31. Which of the following is not one of the elements of good negotiation? 
A. Be hard on the problem, soft on the people
B. Conflict on a project can be good
C. Negotiation is not a contest
D. Seek first to understand, then to be understood
E. All of these are elements of good negotiation

32. Which of the following is reflected in the saying “Let anger fly out the window”? 
A. Separate people from the problem
B. Be honest
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Invent options for mutual gain
E. When possible, use objective criteria

33. Which of the following is reflected in the saying “Seek first to understand, then to be understood”? 
A. Separate people from the problem
B. Be honest
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Invent options for mutual gain
E. When possible, use objective criteria

34. The dovetailing technique is used in which of the following keys to good negotiation? 
A. Separate people from the problem
B. Be honest
C. Focus on interests, not positions
D. Invent options for mutual gain
E. When possible, use objective criteria

35. Contracting project work has long been the norm in the __________ industry. 
________________________________________

36. The __________ project, which created a transportation tunnel between France and England, involved more than 250 organizations. 
________________________________________

37. In a partnering relationship, ________ is shared jointly among the partners, which encourages innovation and continuous improvement. 
________________________________________

38. In a partnering relationship, ________ forms the basis for strong working relationships. 
________________________________________

39. In traditional project relationships, ________ is limited due to fear of reprisal and lack of continuous improvement opportunity. 
________________________________________

40. In traditional project relationships, ________ are structured and guarded. 
________________________________________

41. In Ohio before starting a bond-financed ____________, projects management consultants and the related parties get together to figure out how to talk to each others and how to handle problems. 
________________________________________

42. The term __________ has traditionally been applied to the transferring of business functions or processes to other, often foreign, companies. 
________________________________________

43. Many outsourced projects operate in a _________ environment in which people are linked by computers, faxes, computer-aided design systems, and video teleconferencing. 
________________________________________

44. __________ is a major advantage of outsourcing project work because companies can secure competitive prices for contracted services, especially if the work can be outsourced offshore. 
________________________________________

45. Not only can contracted project work be cheaper, it can also be done __________. 
________________________________________

46. High levels of __________ and technology can be brought to bear on a project by using contracted services. 
________________________________________

47. Contracting project services can increase a firm’s _________ by no longer being constrained by their own resources. 
________________________________________

48. Breakdowns in __________ of professionals from different organizations can occur if the project work requires close collaboration and mutual adjustment. 
________________________________________

49. In the Snapshot from Practice involving SATT Control, a Swedish electronics firm, the company referred to one of its competencies as being a ________ who subcontracts the subsystems to other firms. 
________________________________________

50. There is a potential loss of __________ over a project when the core team depends on other organizations that they do not have direct authority over. 
________________________________________

51. Projects are more prone to interpersonal _________ because the different participants do not share the same values, priorities, and culture. 
________________________________________

52. There is little disagreement that __________ was the primary motive behind outsourcing project work. 
________________________________________

53. Fisher and Ury champion the ________ approach to negotiation because it emphasizes win/win solutions while protecting yourself against those who would take advantage of your forthrightness. 
________________________________________

54. ________ satisfaction is measured by the ratio of perceived performance to expected performance. 
________________________________________

55. The best defense against unreasonable, win/lose negotiators is having what Fisher and Ury call a strong __________. 
________________________________________

56. As part of an effort to cut costs the United States Department of Defense issues annual __________. 
________________________________________

57. “Let anger fly out of the window” is an example of the ___________ key point of negotiation. 
________________________________________

58. Explaining why a critical task must be done by a specific time is an example of the ___________ key point of negotiation. 
________________________________________

59. Dividing perceived performance by expected performance will calculate __________. 
________________________________________

60. Toyota and Daimen-Chrysler collaborating with suppliers to develop new automobile platforms is an example of outsourcing. 
True False

61. Participants from different organizations working close together at the construction site or in shared office space is an example of a virtual team. 
True False

62. Working in outsourcing teams, projects can be completed faster and more cheaply. 
True False

63. Increased conflict and loss of coordination are typical disadvantages of outsourcing project work. 
True False

64. Trust can be difficult to forge when interactions are limited and people come from different organizations. 
True False

65. In partnering, access to each other’s organization resources is available. 
True False

66. In the traditional method of managing projects, total company involvement requires commitment from CEO to team members. 
True False

67. In partnering, each party’s goals and objectives are similar but geared to what is best for them. 
True False

68. As part of an effort to cut costs, the United States Department of Defense issues annual Value Engineering Awards. 
True False

69. In some countries, laws are considered to be guidelines that are not necessarily followed. 
True False

70. For people in some countries, a written, signed contract is merely a suggestion. 
True False

71. Because English is the language of business, it is not necessary to speak in a direct manner using short sentences made of basic, simple words as this may taken as an insult. 
True False

72. All conversations with outsourcers should be followed up with commitments documented in writing since they are likely to understand written English better than spoken English. 
True False

73. Experience indicates that co-location of project teams is not worth the extra costs. 
True False

74. A partnering charter states the common goals for the project as well as the procedures that will be used to achieve these goals. 
True False

75. It is a good idea to add a penalty clause to an outsourcing agreement because deadlines are often taken as a suggestion rather than a commitment. 
True False

76. A prime consideration in choosing outsourcing vendors is to assess the fit with their project management system. 
True False

77. Team-building workshops with outsourcing vendors is usually led by an outside consultant who is an expert in designing and facilitating such workshops. 
True False

78. In project negotiation each negotiator is out to win as much as he or she can for their side. 
True False

79. Principled Negotiation emphasizes developing win/win solutions while protecting yourself against those who would take advantage of your forthrightness. 
True False

80. By keeping the focus on the issues and not the personalities, negotiators are better able to let the other person blow off steam. 
True False

81. The best defense against unreasonable, win/lose negotiators is having what Fisher and Ury call a strong BATNA. 
True False

82. A value of 1.5 is the accepted target for the Met-Expectations model of customer satisfaction. 
True False

83. What is partnering and why has it become popular for managing projects?

84. Identify the four advantages to outsourcing project work.

85. Discuss how key practices in partnering relationships vary with those in traditional practice for 1. working relationships, 2. goals, and 3. communications.

86. Discuss how key practices in partnering relationships vary with those in traditional practice for 1. risk, 2. length of commitment, and 3. structure of project teams.

87. Identify the four strategies offered by Dr. Adam Kolawa for overcoming poor communication with outsourcers.

88. Identify the three steps you should take to confirm that the outsourcer thoroughly understands your requirements.

89. “Team-building is nice to have for a project, but we really need to concentrate on the planning and technical challenges—that is the make-or-break point for this project.” Agree or disagree? Support your answer.

90. What is principled negotiation and what are the four key points it is based upon?

91. What is negotiation jujitsu?

92. Describe the Met-Expectations Model of Customer Satisfaction including the formula to calculate it.

93. In the research highlight on IT project managers, different roles that are critical to the success of the project manager were discussed. Identify each of the five roles and briefly discuss them.

94. In terms of Fisher and Ury’s approach to negotiation, what is a BATNA and why is it important?

ch13
1. A project monitoring system involves all of the following except: 
A. Determining what date to collect
B. Determining how, when, and who will collect the data
C. Adjusting the data
D. Analysis of the data
E. Reporting current progress

2. Adequate project controls have the advantage(s) of: 
A. Holding people accountable
B. Prevents small problems from getting large
C. Keeping focus
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

3. A typical project progress report would contain all of the following sections except: 
A. Progress since last report
B. Problems and issues since last report
C. Current status of project
D. Corrective action planned
E. All of these are typical sections

4. The first step in the project control process of the measurement and evaluation of project performance is to 
A. Set a baseline plan
B. Determine the project objectives
C. Determine the project deliverables
D. Analyze the project budget
E. Review the project priority matrix

5. The second step in the project control process of the measurement and evaluation of project performance is to: 
A. Review the baseline plan with top management
B. Analyze inputs to control system
C. Compare plan against actual
D. Measure progress and performance
E. Review spending with team members

6. The third step in the project control process of the measurement and evaluation of project performance is to: 
A. Review the baseline plan with top management
B. Analyze inputs to the control system
C. Compare the plan against actual performance
D. Measure both progress and performance
E. Review spending with team members

7. The last step in the project control process of the measurement and evaluation of project performance is to: 
A. Take appropriate action
B. Prepare a report to top management
C. Follow up on corrective action
D. Measure progress and performance
E. Review spending with team members

8. In monitoring project time (schedule) performance actual performance should be compared to: 
A. Budgets for the current year
B. Top management’s targets
C. Project network schedule derived from the WBS/OBS
D. Progress on similar past projects
E. Previous status reports

9. A typical tool used to communicate project status is a: 
A. Project network diagram
B. Gantt Chart
C. A PERT chart
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

10. A tool used to monitor past project schedule performance, current performance, and to estimate future schedule trends is a simple line chart known as a: 
A. Project schedule control chart
B. Gantt chart
C. PERT chart
D. Network diagram
E. Milestone chart

11. An Earned Value System used to monitor project progress includes comparison of 
A. Actual costs versus budget
B. Schedule progress versus plan
C. Quality progress versus plan
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

12. The earned value of a project is the: 
A. Project cost to date adjusted for project scope changes
B. Total project cost to date
C. Cost incurred minus the planned cost
D. Percent of the original budget that has been earned by actual work
E. None of these are correct

13. The cost variance for a project is calculated by: 
A. EV-AC
B. AC-SV
C. PV-EV
D. CU-EV
E. EU-PV

14. The schedule variance for a project is calculated by: 
A. EV-AC
B. AC-SV
C. PV-EV
D. CU-EV
E. EV-PV

15. Baseline project budgets are derived from: 
A. The organization’s overall budget
B. Time-phasing the work packages
C. Top management directions
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

16. Of the following costs, which are not included in baseline? 
A. Materials
B. Equipment
C. Labor
D. A and C but not B
E. All of these are usually included

17. The method most frequently used in measuring project progress is the 
A. 0/100 percent rule
B. 75/25 percent rule
C. 50/50 percent rule
D. 25/75 percent rule
E. Percent complete rule

18. Generally the method for measuring accomplishments centers on comparing 
A. Earned value with the expected schedule value
B. Earned value with the actual costs
C. Actual costs with budgeted costs
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

19. Which of the following are required to assess the current status of a project using the earned-value cost/schedule system? 
A. BAC, EAC, and ETC
B. VAC, EAC, and BAC
C. CV, SU, and BAC
D. PV, EV, and AC
E. TCPI, EV, and PV

20. Which of the following methods of variance analysis is the best indicator of how far off the budget a project will be at completion? 
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. VAC
E. TCPI

21. Which of the following methods will measure the cost efficiency of the work accomplished to date? 
A. SV/CV
B. EV/PV
C. EV/AC
D. AC/SV
E. AC/CV

22. Which of the following methods will measure the scheduling efficiency of the work accomplished to date? 
A. SV/CV
B. EV/PV
C. EV/AC
D. AC/SV
E. AC/CV

23. An index value less than one indicates that the project is 
A. Under cost or behind schedule
B. Over cost or ahead of schedule
C. Under cost or ahead of schedule
D. Over cost or behind schedule
E. On cost or on schedule

24. Scope creep affects: 
A. The organization
B. The project team
C. The project suppliers
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

25. Small refinements that eventually build to be major changes are known as: 
A. Project erosion
B. Scope creep
C. Specification adjustments
D. Specification refinements
E. Continuous improvements

26. The percent complete index that looks at percent complete in terms of budgeted amounts is calculated by which of the following? 
A. EV/BAC
B. (EV-PV)/BAC
C. AC/EAC
D. (EV-AC)/BAC
E. (EV-PV)/EAC

27. The percent complete index that looks at percent complete in terms of actual amounts is calculated by which of the following? 
A. EV/BAC
B. (EV-PV)/BAC
C. AC/EAC
D. (EV-AC)/BAC
E. (EV-PV)/EAC

28. Which of the following will calculate the estimated cost to complete the project? 
A. (VAC-EV)/(PV/AC)
B. (BAC-EV)/(EV/AC)
C. (PV/AC)/(VAC-EV)
D. (EV/AC)/(BAC-EV)
E. (BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)

29. Which of the following will calculate the To Complete Performance Index? 
A. (VAC-EV)/(PV/AC)
B. (BAC-EV)/(EV/AC)
C. (PV/AC)/(VAC-EV)
D. (EV/AC)/(BAC-EV)
E. (BAC-EV)/(BAC-AC)

30. Which of the following is not true regarding scope creep? 
A. It is common late in projects
B. It is frequently unnoticed until time delays or cost overruns are observed
C. It wears down team motivation and cohesiveness
D. Project suppliers resent frequent changes
E. All of these are true

31. ________ holds people accountable, prevents small problems from mushrooming into large problems, and keeps focus. 
________________________________________

32. The first step in creating a project control system for measuring and evaluating project performance is to ________. 
________________________________________

33. A concept of ________ is necessary to get a realistic estimate of performance against a time-phased budget. 
________________________________________

34. Usually status reports should take place every ________ weeks to be useful and allow for proactive correction. 
________________________________________

35. Because of their easy-to-understand visual format, ________ are the most favored, used, and understandable tool used to report project status. 
________________________________________

36. Control charts are frequently used to monitor progress toward ________, which mark events and as such have zero duration. 
________________________________________

37. The ________ is a tool used to monitor past project schedule performance and current performance and to estimate future schedule trends. 
________________________________________

38. The ________ is the difference between the earned value and the actual costs for the work completed to date. 
________________________________________

39. The ________ is the difference between the earned value to date and the baseline schedule. 
________________________________________

40. ________ is simply the percent complete, times the original budget. 
________________________________________

41. The best method for assigning costs to the baseline is to establish frequent __________ over the duration of the work package. 
________________________________________

42. When measuring percent complete in the monitoring phase of the project, it is common to limit the amount earned to __________ until the work package is 100 percent complete. 
________________________________________

43. The ________ is the rule most frequently used by practicing project managers to both assign costs to the baseline and to measure progress using earned value. 
________________________________________

44. Cost variance tells us if the ________ costs are more or less than was planned at any point over the life of the project. 
________________________________________

45. A positive variance in SV or CV indicates a ________ condition. 
________________________________________

46. The units of measure for SV or CV is in terms of ________. 
________________________________________

47. CPI and SPI are two types of indexes that measure ________. 
________________________________________

48. The ________ indexes compare the to-date progress to the end of the project. 
________________________________________

49. An SPI index of 1.22 indicates that the project is ________ schedule. 
________________________________________

50. Although it is very difficult to measure, measuring ________ performance is as important as measuring schedule and cost performance. 
________________________________________

51. The best defense against scope creep is a __________. 
________________________________________

52. The PCIB index measures the project percent complete in relation to the resources that were budgeted. 
True False

53. The PCIC index measures the project percent complete in relation to the resources that have actually been used so far on the project. 
True False

54. Control is one of the most neglected areas of project management. 
True False

55. Measuring performance against budget is simply a case of comparing actual versus budget. 
True False

56. Earned value is defined as the budgeted cost of the work performed. 
True False

57. The baseline is derived from merging information from the work packages with the project network. 
True False

58. The network chart is the most favored, used, and understandable option for reporting project progress to upper management. 
True False

59. In a project control chart, four observations trending in one direction indicate there is a very high probability that there is an identifiable cause. 
True False

60. Milestones are significant project events that mark major accomplishments. 
True False

61. The best method for assigning costs to the baseline under this rule is to establish frequent checkpoints over the duration of the work package and assign completion percentages in dollar terms. 
True False

62. The original earned value cost/schedule system was pioneered by the U.S. Department of Defense in the 1960s. 
True False

63. Earned value is calculated by taking the percent complete times the original budget. 
True False

64. Baseline costs typically include labor, equipment, materials and direct overhead cost. 
True False

65. Overhead costs and profit are typically included in the project baseline. 
True False

66. The major reasons for creating a baseline are to monitor and report progress and to estimate cash flow. 
True False

67. In calculating schedule variance and cost variance, a negative variance indicates a desirable condition, and a positive variance suggests problems. 
True False

68. An undesirable schedule variance indicates that the project is running behind schedule. 
True False

69. Cost variance tells us the different estimates among vendors needed to complete the project over the life of the project. 
True False

70. A CPI index of 0.97 indicates that the project has spent less money than budgeted. 
True False

71. One method of estimating the costs to complete a project is to divide the work remaining by the CPI. 
True False

72. All scope changes that result in increased costs should be avoided. 
True False

73. Scope Creep refers to any significant changes made in the project once it is underway. 
True False

74. The key to managing scope creep is change management. 
True False

75. The best defense against scope creep is accepting only major changes. 
True False

76. The rule of using subjective estimated percent complete in combination with hard, tangible monitoring points works well on long-duration activities that can be broken into short discrete work packages. 
True False

77. Identify the steps in creating a control process that measure and evaluate project performance.

78. What is the difference between a baseline Gantt chart and a Tracking Gantt chart?

79. Identify and briefly describe the three percent complete rules for placing costs in baselines.

80. Conducting an earned value analysis requires three data elements. Identify the acronyms for each and describe what they are.

81. In reviewing the budget report of a project, you notice that spending on the project is running about ten percent over plan. Is the project in trouble? Why or why not?

82. Interpret the results of calculating the performance indexes based on a range of possible calculated values.

83. Identify the four indexes used in project management control and identify the formulas for calculating the indexes.

84. Identify and briefly discuss the two methods to revise estimates of future project costs.

85. What are Weighted Monitoring Gates and why would you need them?

86. What is scope creep and why should a project manager be concerned about it?

87. Typically, project progress reports are designed and communicated in written or oral form. Identify the common topic format for such progress reports.

88. Briefly describe the general structure of a project monitoring information system for control.

ch14
1. The most common circumstance for project closure is simply a ________ project. 
A. Completed
B. Overdue
C. Overbudget
D. Under achiveing
E. All the above are correct

2. What is not a wrap-up closure activity? 
A. Facilities
B. Vendors
C. Customer
D. Profit report
E. Report

3. __________ of lessons learned are designed to improve performance on current and future projects. 
A. Retrospectives
B. Corrective action plans
C. Introspective
D. Culmination
E. Evolution

4. The content of the final report typically includes the following topics: 
A. Lessons learned
B. Review and analysis
C. Recommendations
D. Executive summary
E. All the above are correct

5. When the project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated this is considered to be ___________ closure. 
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Changed Priority
E. Failed Project

6. This type of closure occurs when the project may never seem to end. This is considered to be ___________ closure. 
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Changed Priority
E. Failed Project

7. Many projects will fail because of circumstances beyond the control of the project team is called: 
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Failed Project
E. Changed Priority

8. When a project may start with a high priority but see its rank erode or crash during its project life cycle as conditions change this is an example of: 
A. Normal
B. Premature
C. Perpetual
D. Failed Project
E. Changed Priority

9. Implementing closedown includes the following major activities except: 
A. Getting delivery acceptance from the customer.
B. Shutting down resources and releasing to new uses.
C. Closing accounts and seeing all bills are paid.
D. E-mail the project team that the project is complete.
E. Creating a final report.

10. Which is not part of the team portion of the Wrap-up closure checklist? 
A. Has a schedule for reducing project staff been developed and accepted?
B. Has staff been offered outplacement services and career counseling activities?
C. Have performance reviews for team members been conducted?
D. Has staff been released or notified of new assignments?
E. All are included.

11. Under which heading of the Wrap-up closure checklist should the question “Has an in-depth project review and evaluation interview with the customer been conducted?” be answered. 
A. Team
B. Vendors/contractors
C. Customer/Users
D. Equipment and facilities
E. Profit and loss statement

12. Under which heading of the Wrap-up closure checklist should the question “Have project accounts been finalized and all billing closed?” be answered. 
A. Team
B. Vendors/contractors
C. Customer/Users
D. Equipment and facilities
E. Profit and loss statement

13. Releasing the project team typically occurs _________ during the closure phase. 
A. Gradually
B. Rarely
C. Without bombast
D. Rapidly
E. All at once

14. In the Snapshot from Practice, New Balls Goes Flat in NBA, is an example of a project gone wrong when the _______ is/are not consulted. 
A. Manufacture
B. Equipment and facilities managers
C. End-users
D. Project manager
E. The Fans

15. Closing out _________ is often messy and filled with untied ends. 
A. Project review meetings
B. Reports
C. Invoices
D. Teams
E. Contracts

16. Information on the project type, size, number of staff, and technology level would be included in which section of the audit report? 
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives

17. Project mission and objectives, procedures and systems used, and organization resources used typically appear in the _____ section of the final project report. 
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives

18. Items technical in nature and focus on solutions to problems that surfaced would typically appear in the _____ section of the final project report. 
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives

19. The section of the final project report that new project teams are likely to find most useful is the: 
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives

20. Corrective actions that should take place (such as shifting to more resilient building material) would typically appear in the _____ section of the final project report. 
A. Analysis
B. Recommendations
C. Classification of project
D. Lessons learned
E. Strategic objectives

21. In the Snapshot from Practice, the results of analyzing the Katrina hurricane resulted in a new evaluation plan from: 
A. The state legislature
B. The governor of Louisiana
C. The city of New Orleans
D. The Red Cross
E. The national guard

22. The most common circumstance for project closure is: 
A. Premature completion with some features eliminated
B. Project completion meeting costs, schedule, and quality
C. Project completion after modification of costs, schedule, or quality
D. Project termination due to technical difficulties
E. Perpetual projects that seem to go on and on before completion

23. Project closures can fall into all of the following categories except: 
A. Premature
B. Perpetual
C. Failed
D. Changed priority
E. All of these are categories for project closure

24. In the Research Highlight, Chaos: Software Projects, the criterion which was deemed the most important for project success was 
A. Realistic expectations
B. Hard-working, focused staff
C. User involvement
D. Proper planning
E. Clear vision and objectives

25. ____________ begins with a review of the strategic intent of the project, selection criteria, project charter, project objectives, project scope, and acceptance criteria. 
A. Process Review
B. Project Overview
C. Analysis
D. Recommendations
E. Directing

26. The typical mechanism for evaluation of teams is normally: 
A. A survey completed by the team members
B. A personal interview of each team member
C. An analysis by an outside consultant
D. A survey completed by members of top management
E. A survey completed by the internal or external customers

27. More and more companies are discarding the traditional superior-subordinate performance feedback process and replacing it with: 
A. Critical incidences review
B. Management by objectives
C. The 360-degree feedback
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

28. The project closure process includes all of the following except: 
A. Shutting down resources and releasing to new uses
B. Reassigning project team members
C. Conduct an audit
D. Getting delivery acceptance from the customer
E. Closing accounts and seeing all bills are paid

29. In organizations where projects are managed within a ____________, the team member’s area manager, not the project manager, is responsible for assessing performance. 
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Flat organization
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

30. Performance evaluations of project teams should: 
A. Provide the basis for individual development
B. Provide the basis for participation on future projects
C. Provide the basis for salary increases
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

31. ________ is the most common circumstance for project closure is simply a completed project. 
________________________________________

32. The project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated is known as _________. 
________________________________________

33. ____________ are usually easy to identify and easy for a review group to close down. 
________________________________________

34. Projects in process may need to be altered or canceled. Thus, a project may start with a high priority but see its rank erode or crash during its project life cycle as conditions change. This is called __________. 
________________________________________

35. A schedule for reducing project staff been developed and accepted is a question that is asked in the completion of the ___________. 
________________________________________

36. The summary simply highlights the key findings and facts relating to the project implementation is called the ___________. 
________________________________________

37. Some organizations have project closure checklists of over _____ wrap-up tasks! 
________________________________________

38. The ________ section of the final project report includes succinct, factual review statements of the project such as, project mission and objectives, procedures and systems used, and organizational resources used. 
________________________________________

39. Perhaps _________ are the most valuable contribution of the closure process. 
________________________________________

40. The ________ section of the final project report are often technical in nature and focus on solutions to problems that surfaced. 
________________________________________

41. A completed ___________ is a good example of the need to work out the details in advance. 
________________________________________

42. A project closure is considered ________ if it never seems to end due to constant “add-ons” in attempt to improve the project outcome. 
________________________________________

43. The purpose of ____________ is to assess how well the project team, team members, and project manager performed. 
________________________________________

44. The ________ feedback approach gathers anonymous feedback solicited from others is compared with the individual’s self-evaluations, the individual may form a more realistic picture of her strengths and weaknesses. 
________________________________________

45. In some ____________, project managers conduct the performance reviews, while area managers are responsible for pay reviews. 
________________________________________

46. Project managers should be ________ giving team members feedback throughout the project so that individual team members can have a pretty good idea how well they have performed and how the manager feels before the formal meeting. 
________________________________________

47. The _________ of projects by characteristics allows prospective readers, teams, and project managers to be selective in the search and use of report content. 
________________________________________

48. The most common reason given for not creating lessons learned is _________. 
________________________________________

49. A ________ is a methodology that analyzes a past project event to determine what worked and what didn’t, develops lessons learned, and creates an action plan that ensures lessons learned are used to improve management of future projects. 
________________________________________

50. _________ are binary; either you have reached requirements completion or you have not. 
________________________________________

51. The Standish Group International’s market research on software projects, called Chaos showed that ___ percent of all software projects are cancelled before completion. 
________________________________________

52. A __________ is a guide who leads the project team through an analysis of project activities that went well, what needs improvement, and development of a follow-up action plan with goals and accountability. 
________________________________________

53. __________ represent an analysis carried out during and shortly after the project life cycle; they attempt to capture positive and negative project learning. 
________________________________________

54. An upbeat, festive celebration brings closure to the enjoyable experiences everyone has had and the need to say good-bye is considered to be a ____________. 
________________________________________

55. In a Perpetual project the most common circumstance for project closure is simply a completed project. 
True False

56. In a Premature projects, the project may be completed early with some parts of the project eliminated. 
True False

57. Retrospectives of lessons learned are designed to improve performance on current and future projects. 
True False

58. When a project may start with a high priority but see its rank erode or crash during its project life cycle as conditions change this is an example of change changed priority. 
True False

59. Part of the content of the final report typically includes profit made on the project. 
True False

60. The project manager’s challenge is to keep the project team focused on the remaining project activities and delivery to the customer until the project is complete. 
True False

61. Implementing closedown includes getting delivery acceptance from the customer. 
True False

62. Project Summary is the summary that simply highlights the key findings and facts relating to the project implementation. 
True False

63. Analysis examines in detail the underlying causes of problems, issues, and successes. 
True False

64. The ideal scenario is to have the team member’s next assignment ready when project completion is announced. 
True False

65. The maximum items on a checklist for closing a project are 50. 
True False

66. Lessons learned from the Katrina disaster are not limited to the military. Almost every agency and support group, such as individuals, communities, churches, and other groups, has developed lessons learned from their project response experience. 
True False

67. Evaluation of individuals implies measurement against all team members. 
True False

68. Performance evaluations of project team members are typically well done because the evaluations are conducted by the team member’s home department. 
True False

69. The most common circumstance for project closure is simply a completed project such as building a new facility or creating a customized information system. 
True False

70. A project closure where the project is completed early with some parts of the project eliminated would be classified as project failure. 
True False

71. The key requirement in selection of the facilitator is one who is the end-user. 
True False

72. Performance appraisals generally fulfill five important functions. 
True False

73. Some organizations rely simply on an informal discussion between the project manager and the project member while other organizations require project managers to submit written evaluations that describe and assess an individual’s performance on a project. 
True False

74. A 360-degree performance evaluation includes feedback from peers, project managers, subordinates, and even customers. 
True False

75. Project managers should, when possible, draw comparisons to other team members when conducting individual team member reviews. 
True False

76. Retrospective methodology is one positive step toward ensuring lessons learned are developed and implemented. 
True False

77. What are the six major activities implementing project closedown?

78. Identify the four areas of the project closure checklist.

79. Identify the three major deliverables for project closure.

80. How does the project managers meet the challenge to keep the project team focused on the remaining project activities and delivery to the customer until the project is complete?

81. Identify the five common parts to the final project report.

82. Identify and briefly describe the five most common classifications for the way that projects end.

83. List the five, distinguishing characteristics to ensure Retrospectives methodology embedded effectiveness and value?

84. How does Norman Kerth define retrospective in his text Project Retrospectives?

85. What guidelines should a project manager follow in conducting performance reviews?

86. What is a 360-degree feedback and how is it used?

87. In the Research Highlight “Measures of Team Performance,” what was the major finding of the research survey?

88. Explain what Lessons learned represent.

ch16
1. The term that is used to reflect how organizations oversee their project management systems is: 
A. Project administration
B. Fiduciary responsibility
C. Management
D. Oversight
E. Project regulation

2. Which of the following is not one of the techniques to insure that projects meet the needs of the organization? 
A. Standards
B. Procedures
C. Accountability
D. Controls
E. All of these are correct

3. Which of the follow percentages is the authors’ estimate of project-driven organizations that have been implementing some form of oversight for several years? 
A. 95%
B. 90%
C. 85%
D. 80%
E. 75%

4. Typical activities of project oversight cover which of the following dimensions? 
A. Organization
B. Project
C. Customer
D. Both A and B are correct
E. All the above are correct

5. Organizational options to cover every aspect of managing projects in the organization are currently achieved by all of the following except: 
A. Executive committee
B. Oversight group
C. Project office
D. Both B and C are correct
E. All the above are correct

6. The importance of the increase in project oversight to today’s project manager includes all of the following except: 
A. Increase in expected profits from projects
B. Increased interest in supporting and helping the project manager
C. Impact on the environment in which the project will be implemented
D. Impact on how the project manager’s performance will be measured
E. The reporting of project progress to an oversight group

7. The centralized management of projects to ensure that the allocation of resources to projects is directed toward projects that contribute the greatest value to organization goals is known as: 
A. Portfolio Project Management
B. Project Office Management
C. Project Management Optimization
D. Project Priority Matrix Management
E. Resource Allocation Optimization

8. Which of the following is responsible for the continued support of consistent application of selection criteria, standards, processes, training, and general assistance to project managers and continued improvement and use of best practices? 
A. Portfolio Project Management
B. Project Office Management
C. Project Management Optimization
D. Project Priority Matrix Management
E. Resource Allocation Optimization

9. Which of the following firms use project offices to coordinate projects and to ensure best practices are being used to manage projects? 
A. Hewlett Packard
B. International Business Machines
C. Dell
D. Both A and B are correct
E. All the above are correct

10. Project Management Office functions typically include all of the following except: 
A. Create and maintain the internal project management information system
B. Recruit and select project managers
C. Train personnel in project management techniques
D. Develop risk management programs
E. All of these are typically included

11. Project Management Office functions typically include all of the following except: 
A. Establish standardized project planning and reporting methodologies
B. Audit ongoing and recently completed projects
C. Provide in-house project management consulting
D. Select which projects to undertake
E. All of these are typically included

12. Project offices are known to result in positive benefits such as: 
A. A bridge between senior management and project managers
B. Support integration of all project management processes
C. Training to support a higher level of project management maturity
D. Both A and B are correct
E. All of these are correct

13. The in-depth review of individual projects at specific phases in the project life cycle is known as: 
A. Project Assessment Checkpoint Reviews
B. Go/Kill Decision Review Methodology
C. Phase Gate Methodology
D. Stargate Review Methodology
E. None of these are correct

14. The original Stage-GateTM model included all the following stages except: 
A. Preliminary investigation
B. Detailed investigation
C. Testing and validation
D. Production and market launch
E. All of these were included

15. The abridged, generic phase gated process includes how many Go/Kill decision points? 
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
E. Seven

16. During which of the following phase gates would the question of “Does this project align with our strategic direction?” be answered? 
A. Proposal
B. Screening and selection
C. Implementation
D. Progress
E. Closure

17. During which of the following phase gates would the question of “What are the project’s ROI and/or non-financial benefits?” be answered? 
A. Proposal
B. Selection
C. Implementation
D. Progress
E. Closure

18. During which of the following phase gates would the question of “Are the resources needed identified and available?” be answered? 
A. Proposal
B. Screening and selection
C. Implementation
D. Progress
E. Closure

19. During which of the following phase gates would the question of “Are time, costs, and scope performances within acceptable limits?” be answered? 
A. Proposal
B. Screening and selection
C. Implementation
D. Progress evaluation
E. Closure

20. Which of the following is not one of the growth levels in the Organizational Project Maturity Model (OPM3TM)? 
A. Repeatable
B. Defined
C. Managed
D. Expanded
E. Optimized

21. The first appearance of standard approaches to managing projects including scope statements and WBS occurs in which of the following Maturity Model Levels? 
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System

22. Risk assessment derived from WBS and technical analyses and customer input is in place occurs in which of the following Maturity Model Levels? 
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System

23. Project audits are performed on all significant projects and lessons learned are recorded and used on subsequent projects occurs in which of the following Maturity Model Levels? 
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System

24. An informal culture that values improvement drives the organization, not policies and procedures occurs in which of the following Maturity Model Levels? 
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System

25. The use of an organization-wide project management system tailored to specific needs of the organization is established in which of the following Maturity Model Levels? 
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System

26. The development of a system for managing multiple projects that are aligned with strategic goals is established in which of the following Maturity Model Levels? 
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System

27. The focus is on continuous improvement through incremental advancements of existing practices and by innovations using new technologies and methods is established in which of the following Maturity Model Levels? 
A. Ad Hoc Project Management
B. Formal Application of Project Management
C. Institutionalization of Project Management
D. Management of Project Management System
E. Optimization of Project Management System

28. The balanced scorecard model differs from selection models by reviewing projects over 
A. 1-3 years
B. 2-4 years
C. 4-7 years
D. 5-10 years
E. e.10-15 years

29. Which of the following is not one of the four performance goals measures in the scorecard model? 
A. customer
B. internal
C. financial measures
D. industry standards
E. innovation and learning

30. __________ can be defined as a set of principles and processes to guide and improve the management of projects. 
________________________________________

31. Project selection and portfolio management are typical activities at the _________ level of project oversight. 
________________________________________

32. Reviewing project’s objectives and resolving project bottlenecks are typical activities at the _________ level of project oversight. 
________________________________________

33. The centralized management of projects to ensure that the allocation of resources to projects is directed toward projects that contribute the greatest value to organization goals is known as __________. 
________________________________________

34. The __________ is responsible for the continued support of consistent application of selection criteria, standards, processes, training, and general assistance to project managers. 
________________________________________

35. High tech firms such as HP, IBM, and Dell all use __________ to coordinate projects and to ensure best practices are being used to manage projects. 
________________________________________

36. The use of __________ provides an in-depth review of individual’s projects at specific phases in the project life cycle. 
________________________________________

37. The original __________ model was pioneered by Robert G. Cooper several decades ago to improve management of new product development.

38. “Go, Kill, Hold, or Recycle” decisions are made by the oversight team at each _________ of a project. 
________________________________________

39. The __________ process can be defined as a structured process to review, evaluate, and document outcomes in each project phase and to provide management with information to guide resource deployment toward strategic goals. 
________________________________________

40. Phase 1 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase. 
________________________________________

41. Phase 2 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase. 
________________________________________

42. Phase 3 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase. 
________________________________________

43. Phase 4 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase. 
________________________________________

44. Phase 5 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase. 
________________________________________

45. Phase 6 of the abridged, generic phase gated process is known as the _________ phase. 
________________________________________

46. __________ is used to identify opportunities for improvement. 
________________________________________

47. Level 1 of the authors’ Project Maturity Model is named __________. 
________________________________________

48. Level 2 of the authors’ Project Maturity Model is named __________. 
________________________________________

49. Level 3 of the authors’ Project Maturity Model is named __________. 
________________________________________

50. Level 4 of the authors’ Project Maturity Model is named __________. 
________________________________________

51. Level 5 of the authors’ Project Maturity Model is named __________. 
________________________________________

52. The ________ model limits measures of performance to goals in four main areas: customer, internal, innovation and learning, and financial measures. 
________________________________________

53. The balanced scorecard model differs from selection models by reviewing projects over _______. 
________________________________________

54. ___________ such as ROI, cash flow, and projects on budget reflect improvement and actions that contribute value to the bottom line. 
________________________________________

55. Project Management Control is the term that has emerged to reflect how organizations oversee their project management systems. 
True False

56. Project oversight can be defined as a set of principles and processes to. 
True False

57. The phase gate review process can be defined as a structured process to review, evaluate, and document outcomes in each project phase and to provide management with information to guide resource deployment toward strategic goals. 
True False

58. The phase gate review process is the centralized management of projects to ensure that the allocation of resources to projects is directed toward projects that contribute the greatest value to organization goals. 
True False

59. The appearance of a project office frequently follows the implementation of project portfolio management efforts. 
True False

60. When project effort moves from tactical to strategic, project selection, project process. 
True False

61. Portfolio Project Management is responsible for the continued support of consistent application of selection criteria, standards, processes, training, and general assistance to project managers. 
True False

62. The appearance of a project office frequently follows the implementation of project portfolio management efforts. 
True False

63. Project offices are known to result in positive benefits such as serving as a bridge between senior management and project managers. 
True False

64. Phase gate methodology was originally developed for the construction industry. 
True False

65. The phase gate methodology was developed before the emergence of the project office and project portfolios. 
True False

66. One study by Morris showed 45 percent of those surveyed use phase review gates. 
True False

67. The decision points at each phase gate are known as “Go, Kill, Hold, or Recycle” decisions. 
True False

68. The Portfolio Project Management methodology can be defined as a structured process to review, evaluate, and document outcomes in each project phase and to provide management with information to guide resource deployment toward strategic goals. 
True False

69. It is extremely rare that a project that is executing on time, on budget, and meeting project goals will be “killed”. 
True False

70. The first phase of the generic phase gated process in the text is called the Screening and Selection phase. 
True False

71. The last phase of the generic phase gated process in the text is called the Closure phase. 
True False

72. The Proposal phase answers the fundamental question: Is the project a good idea and does it solve a business problem or issue? 
True False

73. The Implementation Plan phase answers the question: What are the major risks for this project? 
True False

74. Gate 1 provides information at a minimal expenditure of cost and resources and in a short time, so the project can be reevaluated more thoroughly if it is perceived to have merits. 
True False

75. In the authors’ Project Maturity Model, the Ad Hoc Project Management level has no consistent project management process in place. 
True False

76. In the authors’ Project Maturity Model, the highest level is Management of Project Management System. 
True False

77. Briefly describe what “Project Oversight” is and why it is important to Project Management.

78. The typical activities of project oversight cover two dimensions. Identify those two dimensions and give two examples of activities for each of those dimensions.

79. What is Portfolio Project Management?

80. What is the Project Office and what is its relationship to oversight?

81. What is Phase Gate Methodology and what does it do?

82. Identify the six phases of the authors’ generic phase gated process.

83. What is an Organization Project Management Maturity model?

84. Identify the five growth levels contained in the Project Management Institute’s organizational project maturity model, OPM3.

85. Identify and briefly describe the five levels in the authors’ Project Maturity Model.

86. What is the Balanced Scorecard Model and how is it different from selection models?

BUS 517 Week 11 Discussion Questions

BUS 517 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

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Week 11 DQ 1
“Improved Project Management” Please respond to the following:
• Your final project for this course is now complete through Project Proposal, Project Charter, and Project Presentation. Share what you can utilize in your real-world projects to enhance project success.
• Describe the most important piece of knowledge that you gained during this course.

Week 11 DQ 2
“Career” Please respond to the following:
• Discuss what you have learned in this course that will help you in your current or future career.
• It is believed that those starting in project management should take advantage of every opportunity to develop and expand their project management skills. Determine at least four ways that this can be accomplished.

BUS 517 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer University NEW

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Week 11 DQ 1
“Improved Project Management” Please respond to the following:
• Your final project for this course is now complete through Project Proposal, Project Charter, and Project Presentation. Share what you can utilize in your real-world projects to enhance project success.
• Describe the most important piece of knowledge that you gained during this course.

Week 11 DQ 2
“Career” Please respond to the following:
• Discuss what you have learned in this course that will help you in your current or future career.
• It is believed that those starting in project management should take advantage of every opportunity to develop and expand their project management skills. Determine at least four ways that this can be accomplished.

BUS 517 Week 9 Discussion Questions – Strayer University NEW

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Week 9 DQ 1
“Outsourcing” Please respond to the following:
• Take a position on the following statement from Chapter 12 of the textbook: “Negotiating is an art.” Support your position with an example.
• Provide at least three reasons why organizations outsource project work. Next, determine the key advantages of outsourcing project work.

Week 9 DQ 2
“Performance Measurement” Please respond to the following:
• Analyze the key differences between Budget At Completion (BAC) and Estimate At Completion (EAC). Discuss at least three ways project managers use BAC and EAC to communicate project progress.
• Select a project on which you acted as the project manager, and evaluate the project schedule and cost status using the earned value as a performance measurement technique. Provide a rationale to support your response.

BUS 517 Week 8 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

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Week 8 DQ 1
“Being an Effective Project Manager” Please respond to the following:
• The PMBOK identifies some general management skills of project managers, including skills on communication, organization and planning, budgeting, conflict management, negotiation and influencing, leadership, and team building and motivation. Give your opinion as to why it is important for a project manager to build relationships before they are needed for project success. Provide an example to support your response.
• Take a position on whether project managers are generalists or specialists. Justify your response with at least one example.

Week 8 DQ 2
“Ethical Project Management” Please respond to the following:
• From the first e-Activity, in the role of a project manager for a midsized company, suggest three to five ways you would communicate the PMI Code of Ethics to your project team during your weekly status meetings.
• From the second e-Activity, determine at least four leadership skills that would enhance your team effectiveness. Provide a rationale to support your response.

BUS 517 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer University New

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BUS517 Week Midterm Exam Solved
ch1
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The advent of project management has been most profound in 
A. Automobile manufacturing
B. Construction
C. Information technology
D. The U.S. Department of Defense
E. Film making

2. A professional organization for project management specialists is the 
A. PMI
B. AMA
C. MIS
D. IPM
E. PMBOK

3. Which of the following is not considered to be a characteristic of a project? 
A. An established objective
B. A clear beginning and end
C. Complex tasks
D. Only for internal use
E. Never been done before

4. Which of the following activities is not considered a project? 
A. Developing a new software program
B. Designing a space station
C. Preparing the site for the Olympic Games
D. Production of automobile tires
E. Developing a new advertising program

5. From among the following activities, which is the best example of a project? 
A. Processing insurance claims
B. Producing automobiles
C. Writing a term paper
D. Completing a college degree
E. All of these are good examples of projects

6. Which of the following constraints is not typically found in managing projects? 
A. Time
B. People
C. Cost
D. Performance
E. Both B and D are not typical constraints

7. Which of the following choices is not one of the stages of a project life cycle? 
A. Conceptualizing
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Delivering

8. In which of the following stages are project objectives established, teams formed, and major responsibilities assigned? 
A. Conceptualizing
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Delivering

9. In which of the following stages is a major portion of the physical and mental project work performed? 
A. Conceptualizing
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Delivering

10. In which of the following stages are you more likely to find status reports, many changes, and the creation of forecasts? 
A. Conceptualizing
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Delivering

11. Which of the following characteristics is not typical of a project manager? 
A. Managing a temporary activity
B. Possesses in-depth technical knowledge
C. Managing a non-repetitive activity
D. Manages independently of the formal organization
E. Provides a direct link to the customer

12. Which of the following choices is not one of the driving forces behind the increasing demand for project management? 
A. Compression of the product life cycle
B. Knowledge explosion
C. Development of third world and closed economies
D. More emphasis on the product and less on the customer
E. Corporate downsizing

13. Which of the following statements is true? 
A. Project management is becoming a standard way of doing business
B. Project management is increasingly contributing to achieving organizational strategies
C. Project management is being used at a consistent percentage of a firm’s efforts
D. Both A and B are true
E. A, B, and C are all true

14. Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring all of the following except 
A. Accountability
B. Flexibility
C. Innovation
D. Speed
E. Repeatability

15. Which of the following is the number one characteristic that is looked for in management candidates? 
A. Overall intelligence
B. Works well with others
C. Experience
D. Past successes
E. Good references

16. A common rule of thumb in the world of high-tech product development is that a six-month project delay can result in a loss of product revenue share of ___ percent. The waste on failed projects and cost overruns is estimated in the neighborhood of 
A. 10
B. 20
C. 33
D. 45
E. 50

17. The waste on failed projects and cost overruns is estimated in the neighborhood of 
A. Under $100 Million
B. Over $150 Billon
C. Under $10 Billion
D. Between $90-$100 Billion
E. Between $125-$135 Billion

18. Which of the following is the first step in developing a set of strategies designed to best meet the needs of customers? 
A. Market Research
B. Define the Integrated Project Management System
C. Environmental Analysis
D. Project Selection
E. All of the above are correct

19. Integration of project management with the organization takes place with the 
A. Master budget
B. Strategy plan
C. Process of managing actual projects
D. Both b and c are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

20. Two dimensions within the project management process are 
A. Technical and sociocultural
B. Cost and time
C. Planned and unexpected
D. Established and new
E. Unique and reoccurring

21. Which of these is not part of the “technical dimension” of project management? 
A. WBS
B. Budgets
C. Problem solving
D. Schedules
E. Status reports

22. Which of these is not part of the “sociocultural dimension” of project management? 
A. Negotiation
B. Resource allocation
C. Customer expectations
D. Leadership
E. Politics

23. Corporate downsizing has increased the trend toward 
A. Reducing the number of projects a company initiates
B. Outsourcing significant segments of project work
C. Using dedicated project teams
D. Shorter project lead times
E. Longer project lead times

24. The importance of project management has increased due to 
A. The movement of manufacturing operations out of the U.S
B. Time to market
C. The movement toward flatter and leaner organizations
D. Both a and b are true
E. A, B, and C are all true

25. Which of the following is not typically the responsibility of a project manger? 
A. Meeting budget requirements
B. Meeting schedule requirements
C. Meeting performance specifications
D. Coordinates the actions of the team members
E. All of these are typical responsibilities

26. A series of coordinated, related, multiple projects that continue over extended time intended to achieve a goal is known as a 
A. Strategy
B. Program
C. Campaign
D. Crusade
E. Venture

27. In which of the following stages is it determined what the project will entail, when it will be scheduled, whom it will benefit, and what the budget will be? 
A. Conceptualizing
B. Defining
C. Planning
D. Executing
E. Delivering

28. Competing in a global market is influenced by 
A. Rapid change
B. Innovation
C. Time to market
D. Politics
E. A, B, and C are all true

29. Integration of all project processes and practices to improve Project Management is due to 
A. Centralization
B. Environmental analysis
C. Customer Expectations
D. Project management system
E. The organization’s environment and culture

30. From 1994 to 2009 the trend for projects late or over budget was: 
A. Significantly better
B. Slightly better
C. About the same
D. Slightly worse
E. Significantly worse

31. Like most organizational effort, the major goal of a project is to __________. 
________________________________________

32. The initial stage in the Project Life Cycle is the __________ stage. 
________________________________________

33. The final stage in the Project Life Cycle is the __________ stage. 
________________________________________

34. The __________, a professional organization for project managers, has grown from 93,000 in 2002 to more than 230,000 currently. 
________________________________________

35. In the __________ stage of the Project Life Cycle a major part of the project work, both physical and mental, takes place. 
________________________________________

36. In the _________ stage of the Project Life Cycle what will be accomplished by the project is determined along with the project’s schedule and budget. 
________________________________________

37. A common rule of thumb in the world of high-tech product development is that a six-month project delay can result in a __________ percent loss in product revenue share. 
________________________________________

38. In today’s high-tech industries the product life cycle is averaging _________ years. 
________________________________________

39. The advent of many small projects has created the need for an organization that can support __________ management. 
________________________________________

40. Increased competition has placed a premium on customer satisfaction and the development of __________ products and services. 
________________________________________

41. In some organizations, selection and management of projects often fail to support the broad-based _________ of the organization. 
________________________________________

42. WBS, schedules, and budgets are examples of the _________ dimension of the project management process. 
________________________________________

43. Leadership, teamwork, and negotiation are examples of the _________ dimension of the project management process. 
________________________________________

44. The ________ is a professional organization for project management specialists. 
________________________________________

45. One of the defining characteristics of a project is that it has a singular purpose, i.e., an established ________. 
________________________________________

46. Because projects have a defined beginning and end, the ________ is frequently used to manage the transition of a project from start to completion. 
________________________________________

47. The development of schedules, budgets, and identifying risks are common elements to the ________ stage of the project life cycle. 
________________________________________

48. The establishment of project goals, specifications, and responsibilities usually occurs in the ________ stage of the project life cycle. 
________________________________________

49. Training the customer, reassigning staff, and releasing resources occurs in the ________ stage of the project life cycle. 
________________________________________

50. Project managers are expected to ensure that appropriate trade-offs are made between the time, cost, and __________ requirements of the project. 
________________________________________

51. The growth in ________ has increased the complexity of projects because projects typically include the latest advances. 
________________________________________

52. A _________ is a series of coordinated, related; multiple projects that continue over extended time intended to achieve a goal. 
________________________________________

53. In the __________ stage, it determined what the project will entail, when it will be scheduled, whom it will benefit, and what the budget will be. 
________________________________________

54. Because of the profitability motive, project management is nearly always limited to the private sector. 
True False

55. Ten years ago major universities offered only one or two classes in project management, primarily for engineers. 
True False

56. The professional certification for project managers is a Project Management Professional (PMP). 
True False

57. Because of its flexibility, project management is equally useful in ongoing, routine work as well as unique, one-time projects. 
True False

58. One of the defining characteristics of project management is that the projects are not confined to a single department but involve several departments and professionals. 
True False

59. One of the characteristics that separate project management from other endeavors of the organization is that there are specific time, cost, and performance requirements. 
True False

60. The singular purpose of a project is often lacking in daily organizational life in which workers perform repetitive operations each day. 
True False

61. Since a construction company builds many buildings the projects after the first building do not fit the definition of a project. 
True False

62. The first stage in the Project Life Cycle is the Concept stage. 
True False

63. A major portion of the project work, both physical and mental, takes place during the Production stage of the Project Life Cycle. 
True False

64. In practice, the amount of work accomplished in each stage of the Project Life Cycle will vary greatly depending on the department or work group. 
True False

65. Because of the requirement for in-depth expertise, project management is generally restricted to specialists. 
True False

66. On the project team, the Marketing manager is the primary, direct link with the customer. 
True False

67. One of the most significant driving forces behind the demand for project management is the ever increasing expansion of the product life cycle. 
True False

68. Unlike their functional counterparts, project managers generally possess only rudimentary technical knowledge to make trade-off decisions. 
True False

69. Because of the significant loss in potential product revenue, “time to market” has become one of the most critical factors in developing new products. 
True False

70. A common rule of thumb in the world of high-tech product development is that a six-month project delay can result in a 33 percent loss in product revenue share. 
True False

71. Project management integration necessitates combining all of the major dimensions of project management under one umbrella. 
True False

72. Due to corporate downsizing significant segments of project work have been outsourced to other organizations. 
True False

73. Smaller projects in larger organizations tend not to need project management skills. 
True False

74. In the current trends, Project managers are typically required to manage many diverse systems such as; networks, bar charts, job costing, task forces, partnering and schedule, to manage projects. 
True False

75. Project management is usually restricted to specialists. 
True False

76. Project management is becoming a standard way of doing business. 
True False

77. Compare and contrast the Product Life Cycle and the Project Life Cycle.

78. Identify the five major characteristics of a project.

79. Identify and briefly describe the four stages of the Project Life Cycle.

80. “Project managers perform the same functions as other managers.” Agree or Disagree and support your decision.

81. Identify and briefly describe the six factors that are increasing the demand for project management.

82. What is meant by an “Integrated Project Management Process”?

83. Identify and briefly discuss the two key areas where project management need to be integrated within the organization.

84. Identify and briefly discuss the two key dimensions of managing actual projects.

85. The success of individual projects is typically measured by performance compared to three constraints usually placed on all projects. Identify and briefly describe those three constraints.

86. Describe what it means that a Project Manager must work with a diverse troupe of characters?

87. What is the difference between a project and a program?

88. Describe the connection between Project Management and an organization’s Strategic Plan.

Ch 2

1. Which of the follow is not one of the commonly heard comments of project managers? 
A. Where did this project come from?
B. Why are we doing this project?
C. How can all these projects be first priority?
D. Why is this project so strongly linked to the strategic plan?
E. Where are we going to get the resources to do this project?

2. Strategy considered to be under purview of senior management is 
A. Old school thinking
B. A new school of management thought
C. Necessary in a company structure
D. Beneficial to the Project Manager
E. Depended on company goals

3. A critical factor to ensure the success of integrating the strategic plan with projects lies in a process that 
A. Is open and published for all participants to review
B. Starts with top management’s directives
C. With projects first and integrates them with the strategic plan
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

4. The intended outcome of strategy/projects integration is 
A. Clear organization focus
B. Best use of scare organization resources
C. Improved communication across projects and departments
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

5. Which of the following is a main reason why project managers need to understand their organization’s mission and strategy? 
A. They can better focus on the immediate customer
B. They can make appropriate decisions and adjustments
C. So they can be effective project advocates
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

6. Project managers who do not understand the role that their project plays in accomplishing the organization’s strategy tend to make all the following mistakes except: 
A. Focusing on low priority problems
B. Overemphasizing technology as an end in and of itself
C. Focusing on the immediate customer
D. Trying to solve every customer issue
E. All the above are likely mistakes

7. In today’s business environment, project managers find it valuable to have a keen understanding of 
A. Strategic management
B. Technical issues
C. Project selection process
D. Both A and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

8. The textbook indicated that ________ is the major dimension of strategic management. 
A. Responding to changes in the external market
B. Allocating scarce resources of the organization
C. Beating competition to the market
D. Both a and b are correct
E. Both a and c are correct

9. Which of the following is not true for strategic management? 
A. It should be done once each year just before developing the operating plan
B. It supports consistency of action at every level of the organization
C. It develops an integrated and coordinated long-term plan of action
D. It positions the firm to meet the needs of its customers
E. All of these are true statements

10. Which of the following is the correct order for the strategic management process? 
A. Strategies, mission, goals, projects
B. Goals, projects, mission, strategies
C. Mission, goals, strategies, projects
D. Goals, mission, strategies, projects
E. Projects, mission, strategies, goals

11. Which of the following questions does the organization’s mission statement answer? 
A. What are our long-term strategies?
B. What are our long-term goals and objectives?
C. How do we operate in the existing environment?
D. What do we want to become?
E. All of these are answered by the mission statement

12. Which of the following is not one of the traditional components found in mission statements? 
A. Major products and services
B. Profitability
C. Target customers and markets
D. Geographic domain
E. Contribution to society

13. Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of effective objectives? 
A. Realistic
B. Assignable
C. Flexible
D. Specific
E. Measurable

14. Strategy formulation includes which of the following activities? 
A. Determining alternatives
B. Creating profitability targets
C. Evaluating alternatives
D. Both a and c are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

15. The assessment of the external and internal environments is called _______ analysis. 
A. SWOT analysis
B. Competitive
C. Industry
D. Market
E. Strategic

16. Which of the following would not be classified as an organizational threat? 
A. Slowing of the economy
B. A maturing life cycle
C. Poor product quality
D. Government regulations
E. All of these are organizational threats

17. Which of the following would not be classified as an organizational opportunity? 
A. Increasing product demand
B. Excellent employees
C. Emerging markets
D. demographics
E. All of these are organizational opportunities

18. Which of the following is not one of the requirements for successful implementation of strategies through projects? 
A. Allocation of resources
B. Prioritizing of projects
C. Motivation of project contributors
D. Adequate planning and control systems
E. All of these are requirements

19. Which of the following terms is often used to denote a project that a powerful, high-ranking official is advocating? 
A. Sacred cow
B. Pet project
C. Political necessity
D. Special undertaking
E. Strategic ploy

20. Susie’s department is implementing many projects. She finds herself starting and stopping work on one task to go and work on another task, and then return to the work on the original task. Susie is experiencing 
A. Poor scheduling
B. Excess work burden
C. Flexible tasking
D. Multitasking
E. Burnout

21. Project selection criteria are typically classified as: 
A. Financial and non-financial
B. Short-term and long-term
C. Strategic and tactical
D. Required and optional
E. Cost and schedule

22. Which of the following financial models are typically included in project selection? 
A. Payback
B. Net present value
C. Internal rate of return
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

23. Projects are usually classified into all but one of the following categories. Which one is not one of the typical classifications? 
A. Compliance and emergency
B. Operational
C. Strategic
D. Political necessity
E. All of these are typical classifications

24. Which of the following is not one of the classifications for assessing a project portfolio? 
A. Sacred cow
B. Bread-and-butter
C. Pearls
D. Oysters
E. White elephants

25. A project screening matrix typically contains all of the following except: 
A. The list of available projects
B. Specific criteria
C. Weights assigned to specific criteria
D. Costs to complete each project
E. All of the above are typically contained

26. Which of the following is the reason(s) why project managers need to understand their organization’s mission and strategy? 
A. To make appropriate decisions and adjustments
B. To be effective project advocates
C. To be able to get their job done
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

27. In the Snapshot from Practice, Intel’s CEO has concentrated Intel’s strategy toward? 
A. Creating chips to support the digital device market
B. Eliminating AMD as a competitor
C. Strengthening Intel’s position in the PC market
D. Expanding Intel’s international market
E. Expand efforts in the mainframe computer market

28. Which of the following is not true of multi-weighted scoring models? 
A. Will include quantitative criteria
B. Will include qualitative criteria
C. Each criterion is assigned a weight
D. Projects with higher scores are considered more desirable
E. All of the above are true

29. A major project proposal form will likely include all of the following except: 
A. Project Classification
B. Schedule objective
C. Major deliverables of the project
D. How success will be measured
E. All of these are likely to be included

30. Which of the following is a common multicriteria selection model? 
A. Checklist
B. Net Present Value
C. Weighted criteria model
D. Both A and C are correct
E. All of these are common multicriteria selection models

31. Successful ________ requires strong links among mission statements, goals, objectives, and strategies. 
________________________________________

32. ________ change infrequently and may require revision only when the nature of the business changes or shifts. 
________________________________________

33. ________ translate the organization’s mission statement into specific, concrete, and measurable terms. 
________________________________________

34. ________ answers the question of how strategies will be realized, given available resources. 
________________________________________

35. Project ________ are typically high-ranking managers who endorse and lend political support for the completion of a specific project. 
________________________________________

36. A weighted scoring model such as _________ typically uses several weighted selection criteria to evaluate project proposals. 
________________________________________

37. The __________ identifies what the organization wants to become and the scope of the firm in terms of its product or service. 
________________________________________

38. In a SWOT analysis, good product quality, low debt, and an established dealer network are examples of positive ________. 
________________________________________

39. In a SWOT analysis, strong competition, reduced product demand, and a maturing product life cycle are examples of ________. 
________________________________________

40. The assessment of the internal and external environments is known as a ________. 
________________________________________

41. Apple Computers has been successful in developing a turnaround strategy that has developed new markets and increased market share. This began with strict adherence to the ________. 
________________________________________

42. The term ________ is often used to denote a project that a powerful, high-ranking official is advocating. 
________________________________________

43. Xerox’s ALTO computer and the Ford Mustang are examples of the significance that ________ can play in project management. 
________________________________________

44. Capacity overload which inevitably leads to confusion and inefficient use of scarce resources is an __________. 
________________________________________

45. The _______ financial model measures the time it will take to recover the project investment. 
________________________________________

46. The ________ financial model measures the current value of all cash inflows and outflows using management’s minimum desired rate of return. 
________________________________________

47. In classifying the kinds of projects an organization has in its portfolio, ________ projects are typically those needed to meet regulatory conditions required to operate in a region. 
________________________________________

48. In classifying the kinds of projects an organization has in its portfolio, ________ projects are typically those needed to support current operations. 
________________________________________

49. In classifying the kinds of projects an organization has in its portfolio, ________ projects are typically those that directly support the organization’s long run mission. 
________________________________________

50. Using the Project Portfolio Matrix, software upgrades and manufacturing cost reduction projects are examples of ________ projects that involve evolutionary improvements to existing products. 
________________________________________

51. In some cases organizations will use a __________ to solicit ideas for projects when the knowledge requirements for the project are not available in the organization. 
________________________________________

52. A ___________ will typically include a list of potential projects, several criteria, weights for those criteria, and criteria scores for those projects. 
________________________________________

53. The most common approach to selecting project has been to use the __________ model. 
________________________________________

54. Project Management historically has been preoccupied solely with the planning and execution of projects while strategy was under the purview of senior management. 
True False

55. The problem in many organizations is not with formulating strategies but with implementing the strategies. 
True False

56. A written mission statement provides focus for decision making when shared by organizational managers and employees. 
True False

57. Effective objectives can be created to apply only at the department level and not relating to organizational objectives. 
True False

58. Organizational objectives set targets for all levels of the organization not just for top management. 
True False

59. Formulating strategy answers the questions who and when the tasks will be performed to reach objectives. 
True False

60. Strategy formulation ends with cascading objectives or projects assigned to lower divisions, departments, or individuals. 
True False

61. If a proposed project does not meet one of the designated “must” objectives it is immediately removed from consideration. 
True False

62. Using the Project Portfolio Matrix, revolutionary commercial advances using proven technical advances are classified as Oyster projects. 
True False

63. It is necessary to have exactly the same strategic and operations criteria for different projects 
True False

64. The two axes of the Project Portfolio Matrix are technical feasibility and commercial potential. 
True False

65. Many organizations find they have three different kinds of projects in their portfolio, compliance, operational, and sacred cows. 
Refer to 2.2 
True False

66. The first step in the Strategic Management Process is to set long-range goals and objectives. 
True False

67. Reviewing and revising the organization’s mission is best achieve through the use of a SWOT analysis. 
True False

68. Opportunities and threats are the flip sides of each other; that is, a threat can be viewed as an opportunity, and vice versa. 
True False

69. The information gap refers to the lack of understanding and consensus of organization strategy among top and middle-level managers. 
True False

70. One way to offset the influence of politics on project management within an organization is to have a well-defined project selection model. 
True False

71. Lee Iacocca’s career was built on successfully leading the design and development of the highly successful Ford Mustang. 
True False

72. Generally, people working on several projects at the same time are more efficient than having several people working part-time on the same projects. 
True False

73. The NPV financial model measures the time it will take to recover the project investment. 
True False

74. Intel’s CEO, Craig R. Barrett, is envisioning Intel’s future as being beyond computers and to include all digital products as Intel’s potential customers. 
True False

75. Multi-weighted scoring models include only quantitative criteria, not qualitative. 
True False

76. “Politics and project management should not mix.” Agree or Disagree and support your position.

77. Identify and briefly discuss the three intended outcomes of integrating and linking projects with the strategic plan.

78. What is strategic management?

79. Identify and briefly describe the four components of strategic management and why they must be strongly linked.

80. The typical Strategic Management Process includes four activities. Identify and briefly describe each of those four activities.

81. Identify and briefly describe the five characteristics of effective objectives.

82. What is a SWOT analysis and how does it relate to the Strategic Management Process?

83. What is the implementation gap and why is it important to project management?

84. Identify and briefly discuss the three classes of projects usually found in an organization’s project portfolio.

85. Draw the Project Portfolio Matrix identifying the major elements on the drawing.

86. Identify and briefly describe five of the benefits of Project Portfolio Management.

87. Why is profitability alone not an adequate measure of a project’s value to an organization?

88. What are the two major shortcomings of using the Checklist approach to project selection?

Ch 3
1. Organizational culture is best explained as organizational 
A. Personality
B. Hierarchy
C. Reporting relationships
D. Background
E. Management style

2. A good project management system provides for defining the interface between the project team and the organization in all the following areas except 
A. Authority
B. Allocation of resources
C. Development of project team members
D. Integration of the project into the organization
E. All of these are provided

3. Organizations have difficulty in creating a system for managing projects because 
A. Contrary to typical operations, projects are one-time efforts
B. Projects are multidisciplinary while organizations are usually departmentalized by discipline
C. Projects are not focused on profits
D. Both a and b are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

4. The structure that manages projects within the existing organizational structure is __________ organization. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

5. Bill is working on a project involving the upgrading of a management information system. The project is being managed by the information systems department with coordination with other departments occurring through normal channels. He is working in a _________ organization. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

6. Which of the following is an advantage of a functional project management organization? 
A. Maximum flexibility in the use of staff
B. Good integration across functional units
C. Shorter project duration
D. Strong motivation of project team members
E. All of these are advantages

7. Which of the following is a disadvantage of functional project management organization? 
A. Lack of motivation of project team members
B. Longer project duration
C. Lack of focus on the project
D. Both b and c are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

8. Kim is reviewing a proposed project. The scope of the project is narrow with a lot of in-depth expertise required and it will take a short period of time to complete. The best choice for organizing the project is ________ organization. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

9. A project team that operates with a full-time project manager as a separate unit from the rest of the organization is structured as a ________ organization. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Projectized

10. Which of the following combinations represents the extremes of project organization? 
A. Strong matrix and balanced matrix organizations
B. Functional and dedicated project teams
C. Project and balanced matrix organizations
D. Project and strong matrix organizations
E. Strong matrix and functional organizations

11. MegaComputers, Inc. has assigned a project manager for each of the five new-product teams. The managers as well as the project team members work on the projects on a full-time basis. The structure being used is ________ organization. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

12. Which of the following structures is referred to in popular literature as a projectized form of organizations? 
A. Functional organization
B. Balanced matrix organization
C. Weak matrix organization
D. Strong matrix organization
E. Projectized organization

13. Elizabeth is considering how to structure a project team that will not directly disrupt ongoing operations. The project needs to be done quickly and a high level of motivation will be needed in order to do that. For this situation, the ______ organization would be the best choice. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

14. Projectitis is most likely to occur in the _______ organization structure. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

15. Computers R Us is concerned about keeping project costs low and wants to be sure that all pools of expertise are used. Additionally they want to minimize duplication of efforts across projects. Their best choice for project management structure is the _______ organization structure. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

16. _________ organization is a hybrid form in which a horizontal project management structure is overlaid in the normal functional hierarchy. 
A. Functional
B. Matrix
C. Project
D. Balanced
E. A, B, and C are all correct

17. A project management system provides a framework for launching and implementing project activities within a ______ organization. 
A. Matrix
B. Balanced
C. Weak
D. Sponsor
E. Parent

18. In which of the following is the balance of authority strongly in favor of the functional managers? 
A. Weak matrix
B. Balanced matrix
C. Strong matrix
D. Strong
E. Both C and D are correct

19. The project manager has the responsibility to answer which of the following questions? 
A. What task has to be done?
B. Who will do the task?
C. How will the task be done?
D. How well has the functional input been integrated?
E. Why will the task be done?

20. Matrix management violates the management principle of 
A. Span of control
B. Unity of command
C. Parity principle
D. Empowerment
E. All of these management principles

21. All are negotiated issues except: 
A. Who will do the task?
B. Where will the task be done?
C. Why will the task be done?
D. Is the task satisfactorily completed?
E. The total cost of the project

22. The project structure that is ranked as least effective is _______ organization. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

23. The project structure that is ranked as most effective for developing new products is ______ organization. 
A. Functional
B. Balanced matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Project

24. From the list below, which is not a primary characteristic of organization culture? 
A. Control
B. Team emphasis
C. History
D. Conflict tolerance
E. Risk tolerance

25. Factors in identifying cultural characteristics include all the following except 
A. Norms.
B. Customs.
C. Values.
D. Both B and C are correct.
E. A, B, and C are all correct.

26. Who is responsible for determining how tasks will be done in a matrix project management structure? 
A. The functional manager
B. The project manager
C. Both are responsible
D. This is no pattern of who takes responsibility
E. None of these are true

27. Who is responsible for determining what tasks have to be done in a matrix project management structure? 
A. The functional manager
B. The project manager
C. Both are responsible
D. This is no pattern of who takes responsibility
E. None of these are true

28. The Macintosh development team at Apple is a good example of what kind of project structure? 
A. Project
B. Balanced Matrix
C. Project Matrix
D. Functional Matrix
E. Functional

29. The Organizational Culture Diagnosis Worksheet classifies cultural characteristics into all of the following except: 
A. Physical characteristics
B. Public documents
C. Behavior
D. Folklore
E. Ethics

30. Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which employees identify with the organization as a whole rather than with their type of job or field of professional expertise? 
A. Member identity
B. Team emphasis
C. Managerial focus
D. Unit integration
E. Control

31. Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which work activities are organized around groups rather than individuals? 
A. Member identity
B. Team emphasis
C. Managerial focus
D. Unit integration
E. Control

32. Which of the following is not one of the typical forms of a project management office? 
A. Command center
B. Control tower
C. Resource pool
D. Weather station
E. All of these are typical forms of a project management office

33. Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which groups within the organization are encouraged to operate in a coordinated or independent manner? 
A. Member identity
B. Team emphasis
C. Managerial focus
D. Unit integration
E. Control

34. Which of the following cultural characteristics relates to the degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve those results? 
A. Risk tolerance
B. Reward criteria
C. Conflict tolerance
D. Means versus end orientation
E. Open-systems focus

35. A simple explanation of ________ is that it reflects the personality of an organization. 
________________________________________

36. The ________ organizational approach to project management uses the existing hierarchy of the organization to manage projects. 
________________________________________

37. One of the major advantages of the ________ organizational approach to project management is that specialists in different departments can temporarily be assigned to work on the project and then return to their normal work. 
________________________________________

38. Two of the major disadvantages of the ________ organizational approach to project management are that projects may lack focus and it can take longer to complete projects. 
________________________________________

39. At Apple Computer, the Macintosh development team was isolated in a separate building and given the prime directive to develop a breakthrough computer as quickly as possible. This is an example of using the ________ organizational approach to project management. 
________________________________________

40. A high level of motivation and the tendency for projects to get done more quickly are benefits of using the ________ organizational approach to project management. 
________________________________________

41. ________, a strong feeling of we-they divisiveness, can undermine the integration of the eventual outcomes of the project into mainstream operations. 
________________________________________

42. In a ________ system, there are usually two chains of command, one along functional lines and the other along project lines. 
________________________________________

43. The ________ structure is designed to optimally utilize resources by having individuals work on multiple projects as well as being capable of performing normal functional duties. 
________________________________________

44. Strong, heavyweight, or ________ is used to describe a matrix in which the balance of authority is strongly on the side of the project manager. 
________________________________________

45. One key factor that determines the relative importance of project and functional managers is the determination of which and how _________ are to be performed. 
________________________________________

46. Matrix management violates the management principle of ________. 
________________________________________

47. The ________ matrix form of project organization is likely to enhance project integration, diminish internal power struggles, and ultimately improve control of project activities and costs. 
________________________________________

48. The ________ matrix form of project organization is likely to improve technical quality as well as provide a better system for managing conflict across projects because the functional manager assigns personnel to different projects. 
________________________________________

49. The ________ matrix form of project organization can achieve better equilibrium between technical and project requirements, but it is a very delicate system to create and manage. 
________________________________________

50. __________ were originally developed as a response to the poor track record many companies had in completing projects on time, within budget, and according to plan. 
________________________________________

51. As more and more companies embrace project management as a critical vehicle for realizing corporate objectives, they are creating centralized ________ to oversee and improve the management of projects. 
________________________________________

52. Research suggests that there is a strong connection between project management structure, organization ________, and project success. 
________________________________________

53. Organization ________ refers to a system of shared norms, beliefs, values, and assumptions which bind people together, thereby creating shared meanings. 
________________________________________

54. In a Snapshot from Practice, at ________ Corporation, employees put in the hours necessary to get a job done, even if it requires staying up all night; however, they also may stay home to tend to a sick child and do makeup work at some other time. 
________________________________________

55. In a __________ PO structure, the primary function of the PMO is to track and monitor project performance. 
________________________________________

56. In a __________ PO structure, the primary function of the PMO is to provide the organization with a cadre of trained project managers and professionals. 
________________________________________

57. In a __________ PO structure, the primary function of the PMO is to improve project execution. 
________________________________________

58. ____________ refers to the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment. 
________________________________________

59. ___________ refers to the degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking. 
________________________________________

60. While organization culture is important to the overall function of an organization, it has minor influence on its project management. 
True False

61. Many organizations have struggled with project management organization because projects contradict fundamental design principals associated with traditional organizations. 
True False

62. The project form of project management structure is commonly used when one functional area plays a dominant role in completing the project or has a dominant interest in the success of the project. 
True False

63. The matrix form of project management structure is a good choice when the scope of the project is narrow and maximum flexibility in staff usage is important. 
True False

64. A disadvantage of using the functional form of project management structure is that projects generally take longer to complete. 
True False

65. The functional project team is usually physically separated from the parent organization and given the primary directive of accomplishing the objectives of the project. 
True False

66. In the projectized form of company organization the main responsibility of traditional functional departments is to assist and support the project teams. 
True False

67. The project form of project management structure is a good choice when speed of completion of the project without directly disrupting ongoing operations is important. 
True False

68. One of the major disadvantages of the project form of project management structure is that it tends to be more expensive than other forms of organizing. 
True False

69. Creating teams using the project form of project management structure results in the maximum technological expertise being brought to bear on project problems. 
True False

70. Matrix management is a hybrid organizational form in which a horizontal project management structure is “overlaid” on the normal functional hierarchy. 
True False

71. “Silver bullets” and “Tiger Teams” are terms that are frequently given to functional project management teams. 
True False

72. The relationship between the Apple II and Mac teams at Apple Computer is a good example of projectitis. 
True False

73. In a matrix form of project management, the project managers report directly to a Director of projects, who supervises all projects. 
True False

74. The three forms of matrix project management are weak, mixed, and strong. 
True False

75. Whether a matrix is weak or strong is determined by the extent to which the project manager has direct authority over project participants. 
True False

76. In a balanced matrix form of project management, the project manager is responsible for defining what needs to be accomplished while the functional managers are concerned with how it will be accomplished. 
True False

77. The matrix form of project management is predicated on tension between functional managers and project managers who bring critical expertise and perspectives to the project. 
True False

78. Project management offices were originally developed to make optimal use of scarce project resources. 
True False

79. The functional form of project management has been rated as the most effective of the various forms of organizing project teams. 
True False

80. Organizational culture refers to a system of shared norms, beliefs, values, and assumptions which bind people together. 
True False

81. Probably the most important function of organization culture is to clarify and reinforce standards of behavior within the organization. 
True False

82. There is a strong connection between project management structure, organizational culture, and project success. 
True False

83. “Projects are a smaller version of the larger organization and thus have similar fundamental design principles.” Agree or Disagree and support your conclusion.

84. Identify and briefly describe the three basic project management structures.

85. Identify and briefly describe at least two advantages and two disadvantages of having project teams report directly to an existing functional area.

86. Identify and briefly describe at least two advantages and two disadvantages of organizing project teams as dedicated teams.

87. Identify and briefly describe at least two advantages and two disadvantages of organizing project teams using the matrix management approach.

88. Identify and briefly describe the three forms of organizing projects using the matrix management approach.

89. What are Project Management Offices? Identify the three most common forms.

90. Identify and briefly describe at least five of the ten primary characteristics of organization culture as discussed in the text.

91. Culture provides three major functions within today’s organizations. Identify and briefly describe those three functions.

92. The metaphor used to describe the relationship between organizational culture and project management was that of a riverboat trip. Briefly describe that metaphor.

93. Briefly describe the task decision making responsibilities under the three project management matrix structures.

94. What is an Organizational Culture Diagnosis Worksheet and what is its purpose?

Ch 4

1. The method used to collect information to use through all phases of the project life cycle is called 
A. Responsibility matrix
B. Organization breakdown structure
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Priority matrix
E. Work package

2. Jose is looking at a document that outlines the specific tasks and subtasks required to complete the writing of a technical support manual. The method that was probably used to develop the document is most likely 
A. Responsibility matrix
B. Organization breakdown structure
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Priority matrix
E. Work package

3. The first step in creating the necessary information to manage a project is to 
A. Establish project priorities
B. Define the project scope
C. Verify the budget available
D. Assign team members to work on the project
E. Determine the required completion date

4. Linda has just been assigned a project to develop a new advertising campaign for an established product. Her first step should be to 
A. Establish project priorities
B. Define the project scope
C. Verify the budget available
D. Assign team members to work on the project
E. Determine the required completion date

5. Research shows the most frequently mentioned barrier to project success is 
A. Not enough budget resources
B. Poor performance by team members
C. Weak project leadership
D. Poorly defined scope or mission
E. Political in-fighting

6. An expected output over the life of a project would be classified as 
A. A deliverable
B. A product
C. An end object
D. An objective
E. A target

7. The first step of project scope definition is to 
A. Analyze the strategic plan
B. Analyze the current budget plan
C. Meet with team members
D. Select team members
E. Define the overall objective to meet the customer’s needs

8. In reviewing the project plan, Susan sees that the first prototype is due by October 12. This would be best classified as a 
A. Project target
B. Limit item
C. Milestone
D. Project objective
E. Critical goal

9. The ability of 911 emergency systems to identify the caller’s phone number and location are considered to be a 
A. Technical requirement
B. Milestone
C. Project limit
D. Project exclusion
E. Project deliverable

10. Which of the following is not one of the items that would appear on a project scope checklist? 
A. Deliverables
B. Technical requirements
C. Objectives
D. Work breakdown structure
E. Reviews with customer

11. “To construct a high-quality, custom home within five months at costs not to exceed $150,000” is best classified as 
A. A deliverable
B. A milestone
C. An objective
D. A limit
E. An exclusion

12. The second step in the defining of a project would be to 
A. Analyze the strategic plan
B. Analyze the current budget plan
C. Establish project priorities
D. Select team members
E. Define the major objectives to meet the customer’s needs

13. Which of the following is not one of the basic classifications of project priorities? 
A. Profit
B. Cost
C. Time
D. Performance
E. All of these are basic classifications

14. If a project criterion indicates that the project must meet a specific date, that criterion is classified as 
A. Constrained
B. Enhanced
C. Accepted
D. Limited
E. Fixed

15. Scott has just been given a project that has a specific target date. After discussion with top management he finds that while the date is important the cost is more important and a slip in delivery would be acceptable if required to meet the cost targets. The target date is best classified as 
A. Constrain
B. Enhance
C. Accept
D. Limit
E. Optional

16. The tool used to assist in making project trade-offs between schedule, budget, and performance objectives is called a 
A. Responsibility matrix
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Project priority matrix
D. Work package
E. Criterion matrix

17. The lowest element in the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS is 
A. A deliverable
B. A work package
C. A cost account
D. A lowest sub deliverable
E. An object

18. The highest element in the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS is 
A. A work package
B. Sub deliverables
C. A cost account
D. Major deliverables
E. The project

19. All of the following are true about work packages except 
A. Consume resources
B. Assigned to only one manager
C. Have medium to long duration
D. Definitive starts and stops dates
E. All of these are true

20. All of the following are usually included in a work package except 
A. What will be done?
B. The time needed to complete the work.
C. A single person who is responsible for its completion.
D. All the costs for the work package.
E. All of these are included in a work package.

21. The integration of project work packages within the organization’s management structure is known as 
A. Responsibility matrix
B. Organization breakdown structure
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Priority matrix
E. Process breakdown structure

22. The final step in the creation of a Work Breakdown Structure is to 
A. Code the WBS for tracking
B. Assign the cost account to a manager
C. Assign the work package to a manager
D. Develop the responsibility matrix
E. All of these are included in the final step

23. The intersection of the WBS and the OBS is called the 
A. Responsibility matrix
B. Priority matrix
C. Work package
D. Cost account
E. Project overlap

24. Creating an extranet website or an internal software database system would be most closely associated with the 
A. Responsibility matrix
B. Organization breakdown structure
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Priority matrix
E. Process breakdown structure

25. If a project is small or of narrow scope and does not require an elaborate system, which of the following is a good choice? 
A. Responsibility matrix
B. Organization breakdown structure
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Priority matrix
E. Process breakdown structure

26. The project scope statement indicates that the client is responsible for training the people who will be using the equipment and that the project team will train the client’s trainers. This is an example of: 
A. Project objectives
B. Deliverables
C. Limits and exclusions
D. Technical requirements
E. Milestones

27. The tendency for the project deliverables to expand over time—usually by changing requirements, specifications, and priorities—is called: 
A. Scope erosion
B. Scope creep
C. Project bloat
D. Scope enhancement
E. Project add-ons

28. Which of the following is a good example of a Process Breakdown Structure? 
A. New car prototype
B. New software program
C. New computer hardware
D. New sports stadium
E. New project management book

29. Which of the follow is least likely to be included in a Work Package? 
A. Materials
B. Labor
C. Overhead
D. Duration
E. Responsibilities

30. The Snapshot from Practice dealing with Big Bertha II illustrated how important a project’s __________ is to the successful completion of a project. 
A. Objective
B. Deliverables
C. Technical requirements
D. Milestones
E. Limits and exclusions

31. A selective outline of the project that ensures the identification of all tasks and an understanding of what is to be done is called a _______________. 
________________________________________

32. The first step in planning any project is to ________. 
________________________________________

33. The primary purpose of the first step of defining a project is to identify the ________ for the end user and to focus project plans. 
________________________________________

34. Significant events in a project that occur at a specific point in time, are natural control points, and are easily recognized by project participants are known as ___________. 
________________________________________

35. The need for a computer to function in countries having different electrical systems is an example of a ________. 
________________________________________

36. The agreement that training will be the responsibility of the customer is an example of a project ________. 
________________________________________

37. A project parameter such as completion date or cost is ________ if it is fixed and must be met. 
________________________________________

38. Taking advantage of opportunities to reduce costs or accelerate the schedule are examples of project criteria being classified as ________. 
________________________________________

39. In making project trade-offs, a criteria that is allowed to not meet the original target is classified as ________. 
________________________________________

40. Developing a ________ provides a forum for clearly establishing priorities with customers and top management so as to create shared expectations and avoid misunderstandings. 
________________________________________

41. The result of subdividing the work of a project into smaller and smaller work elements is called ________. 
________________________________________

42. The most detailed element in the hierarchical breakdown of the project work to be accomplished is known as the ________. 
________________________________________

43. A(n) ________ is a grouping of work packages for monitoring progress and responsibility. 
________________________________________

44. Practice suggests that a work package should not exceed ________ workdays or one reporting period. 
________________________________________

45. The process of assigning specific work packages to a particular group or person within the organization is called ________. 
________________________________________

46. The final step in the defining of a project is focused on assigning ________ to each of the work packages. 
________________________________________

47. In a work breakdown structure the ________ is the focal point because all budgets, work assignments, time, cost, and technical performance come together at that point. 
________________________________________

48. Once the __________ has been established, it is the basis for making trade-off decisions later in the project. 
________________________________________

49. In a ________ the project is organized around phases or groups of activities rather than the more conventional deliverables. 
________________________________________

50. The ________ summarizes, in graphic format, the tasks to be accomplished and who is responsible for what on a given project. 
________________________________________

51. The Work Breakdown Structure is an outline of the project with different levels of __________. 
________________________________________

52. The purposes of the ____________ are to provide a framework to summarize organization unit work performance, identify organization units responsible for work packages, and tie the organizational unit to cost control accounts. 
________________________________________

53. The most commonly used method for coding the WBS is __________. 
________________________________________

54. The gradual expansion of project requirements during the execution of project is known as __________. 
________________________________________

55. The development of a work breakdown structure with appropriate dates and budget is usually accomplished in a single iteration. 
True False

56. Studies suggest that there is a strong correlation between project success and clear project scope definition. 
True False

57. Project scope describes what you expect to deliver to your customers when the project is complete. 
True False

58. One of the items included on a project scope checklist is the reviews with the customer. 
True False

59. Quality and the ultimate success of a project are traditionally defined as meeting or exceeding the expectations of the customer or management. 
Refer to Figure 4.1 
True False

60. The criteria for project success include attaining objectives relating to cost, schedule, and revenue. 
Refer to Figure 4.1 
True False

61. Statements of project scope are sometimes referred to as Statements of Work or Project Charters. 
True False

62. If a project criterion should be optimized if at all possible, it is classified as being constrained. 
True False

63. Basically, the WBS is an outline of the project with different levels of detail. 
True False

64. In general, work packages should not exceed 10 work days. 
True False

65. In a Work Breakdown Structure for a software development project, the typical structure follows the major phases of software development. 
Refer to Figure 4.4 
True False

66. Integrating a project’s work packages within the organization’s management structure is known as work breakdown structure. 
True False

67. Scope definitions are usually brief with only one or two pages being typical for small projects. 
True False

68. A work breakdown structure is frequently used on projects such as software development where the project is focused on activities rather than deliverables. 
Refer to Snapshot from Practice on Page114 
True False

69. Responsibility matrices are used primarily with small and medium sized projects and have limited use in large projects. 
True False

70. In a work breakdown structure deliverables are ignored and replaced with activities or tasks that have been grouped in phases. 
True False

71. The intersection of the WBS and the OBS represents a control point, called a cost account. 
True False

72. The most commonly used scheme for coding the work breakdown structure is to use a department project number assigned by the accounting department. 
True False

73. For large companies, the organization breakdown structure is used rather than the work breakdown structure. 
True False

74. The hierarchical work breakdown structure can be used to represent the need for information at various levels of management. 
True False

75. The intersection of work packages and the organization unit creates a project control point called a cost account. 
True False

76. Reviews with customers only refers to projects with external customers who are paying for the project. 
True False

77. A typical responsibility matrix will include not only those responsible for a specific task but also those who supply support and assistance. 
Refer to Figure 4.6 
True False

78. Identify and briefly describe the five steps in defining a project.

79. Identify and briefly describe the six elements on the recommended project scope checklist.

80. In terms of project management, what is a deliverable and give an example.

81. Identify and briefly describe the three elements that are traditionally used to measure the ultimate success of a project.

82. In project management terms, what is meant by “managing the trade-offs?”

83. Identify and briefly describe the three categories used to classify the priority of major project parameters.

84. What is a Project Priority Matrix and how would you use one?

85. What is meant by a work breakdown structure and how does it help manage projects?

86. Identify in order from broadest to most specific, the six parts of the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS.

87. What is a Responsibility Matrix and how would it be used in project management?

88. What is meant by “Scope Creep” and why is it significant to project managers?

89. What is an OBS and how would you use it to plan a project?

Ch 5

1. The process of forecasting or approximating the time and cost of completing project deliverables is called 
A. Budgeting
B. Predicting
C. Estimating
D. Planning
E. Guesstimating

2. In practice, estimating processes are frequently classified as 
A. Top down/bottom up
B. Rough/polished
C. Precise/order of magnitude
D. Draft/final
E. Both A and B are correct

3. A typical statement in actual practice is that estimates should have a probability of being met ______ of the time. 
A. 100%
B. 98%
C. 95%
D. 90%
E. 80%

4. A good starting point for developing time and cost estimates is 
A. Past experience
B. Work packages
C. Task analysis
D. Time and motion studies
E. Work breakdown structure

5. Which of the following is not one of the factors that need to be considered to improve quality of estimates for project times and costs? 
A. Planning horizon
B. People
C. Padding estimates
D. Profit
E. Project structure

6. Ed is looking over the actual results of projects and comparing them to what was estimated. He notices that projects that took six months or longer to complete were noticeably more off the estimates. Which of the following factors is he recognizing? 
A. Padding estimates
B. Planning horizon
C. Project structure
D. People
E. Organization culture

7. Janet is forecasting how much money her department needs to support a new project. She estimates that two people and $25,000 in expenses will cover her needs. Because management typically insists on reducing forecasts by 20 percent, she increases her estimates to allow for that reduction. Which of the following factors is illustrated in this situation? 
A. Padding estimates
B. Planning horizon
C. Project structure
D. People
E. Organization culture

8. Which of the following is a good condition for top-down estimating? 
A. Cost and time important
B. Fixed price contract
C. Customer wants details
D. Internal, small project
E. All of these are good conditions for top-down estimating

9. Which of the following is a good condition for bottom-up estimating? 
A. Strategic decision making
B. Internal, small project
C. Fixed price contract
D. High uncertainty
E. Both C and D are good conditions for bottom-up estimating

10. Top-down estimates are most likely to occur during the ______ phase. 
A. Concept
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Delivery
E. All of these are equally likely

11. ______ estimates are most likely to use low cost, efficient methods. 
A. Apportion
B. Ratio
C. Top-down
D. Bottom-up
E. All of these are equally likely

12. Which of the following methods is not considered a top-down approach to estimating project time and cost? 
A. Ratio
B. Template
C. Apportion
D. Function point
E. Learning curve

13. Jose is forecasting project time and cost for constructing a new building by multiplying the total square footage by a given dollar amount. Which of the following methods is he using? 
A. Ratio
B. Template
C. Apportion
D. Function point
E. Learning curve

14. Sean is forecasting the time and cost of developing a customized software program by looking at the number of inputs, outputs, inquires, files, and interfaces. Which of the following methods is he using? 
A. Ratio
B. Template
C. Apportion
D. Function point
E. Learning curve

15. Laura is forecasting the time and cost of developing an intranet for a new customer. Her department has completed six such intranets for customers during the last two years. Although the proposed system is about the same size as the others she estimates that it will take about 10 percent less time and money. Which of the following methods is she using? 
A. Ratio
B. Template
C. Apportion
D. Function point
E. Learning curve

16. Learning curves are more likely to apply in situations where most of the costs are 
A. Materials
B. Labor
C. Overhead
D. Evenly spread over materials, labor, and overhead
E. All of these are equally likely situations for learning curves

17. Which of the following is not one of the bottom-up approaches to estimating project time and cost? 
A. Parametric procedures applied to specific tasks
B. Estimates for the WBS work packages
C. Learning curve
D. Template method
E. All of these are bottom-up approaches

18. The approach that begins with a top-down estimate for the project and then refines estimates as the project is implemented is known as ______ method. 
A. Function point
B. Template
C. Learning curve
D. Phase estimating
E. Apportion

19. Which of the following would be the best method for projects where the final product is not known and the uncertainty is very large? 
A. Function point
B. Template
C. Learning curve
D. Phase estimating
E. Apportion

20. The accuracy of top-down estimates will typically be in the range of 
A. Minus 50% to plus 50%
B. Minus 0% to plus 75%
C. Minus 20% to plus 60%
D. Minus 35% to plus 35%
E. Minus 10% to plus 30%

21. The accuracy of bottom-up estimates will typically be in the range of 
A. Minus 50% to plus 50%
B. Minus 0% to plus 75%
C. Minus 20% to plus 60%
D. Minus 35% to plus 35%
E. Minus 10% to plus 30%

22. The cost to prepare bottom-up estimates will typically run how much more than the costs to prepare the top-down estimates? 
A. About the same
B. About twice as much
C. About three times as much
D. About four times as much
E. About five times as much

23. Typical kinds of costs found in a project include 
A. Direct costs
B. Project overhead costs
C. General and administrative costs
D. Only A and B are included
E. A, B, and C are all included

24. Project costs are typically viewed from all of the following except: 
A. Scheduled
B. Sunk
C. Actual
D. Committed
E. All of these are correct

25. Which of the following would be considered a direct project cost? 
A. Labor
B. Materials
C. Equipment
D. Both A and B are direct costs
E. A, B, and C are all considered direct costs

26. Which of the following is not one of the recommended guidelines for developing useful work package estimates? 
A. Estimates should be made by those responsible for the work
B. Use several people to estimate the same work
C. Estimates should be based on normal conditions
D. Estimates should include a normal level of contingency
E. Estimates should be independent of other projects

27. Companies like Boeing, Kodak, and IBM are using which of the following for improving the estimating process? 
A. Adjusting estimates based on individual forecasting abilities
B. Benchmarking using the experience of other companies
C. Using time and motion studies
D. Creating historical databases of previous projects
E. All of these are correct

28. Reasons why estimating time and cost are important include all of the following except: 
A. To schedule work
B. To determine how long the project should take and cost
C. To develop cash flow needs
D. To determine how well the project is progressing
E. All of the above are valid reasons

29. In a learning curve, the improvement ratio is applied to which of the following items? 
A. Direct materials
B. Direct labor
C. Overhead
D. Both A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

30. The bottom-up approach for estimating times and costs that uses costs from past projects that were similar to the current project is known as: 
A. Detailed WBS work package estimates
B. Template method
C. Function point method
D. Time-phased cost estimates
E. Phase estimating

31. Which of the follow top-down methods is used when projects closely follow past projects in features and costs and result in costs being assigned by percentages to major segments of the project? 
A. Apportion
B. Function point
C. Phase estimating
D. Learning curve
E. Consensus

32. Resource shortages, in the form of people, equipment, or materials, is a good example of 
A. Hidden interaction costs
B. Things going wrong on a project
C. Normal conditions not applying
D. Changes in project scope
E. None of these are correct

33. People working on prototype development needing time to interact with the design engineers after the design is completed is an example of: 
A. Hidden interaction costs
B. Things going wrong on a project
C. Normal conditions not applying
D. Changes in project scope
E. None of these are correct

34. A manager getting further into a project and obtaining a better understanding of what needs to be done to accomplish a project is an example of: 
A. Hidden interaction costs
B. Things going wrong on a project
C. Normal conditions not applying
D. Changes in project scope
E. None of these are correct

35. Design flaws being revealed after the fact, extreme weather conditions, and accidents occurring are examples of: 
A. Hidden interaction costs
B. Things going wrong on a project
C. Normal conditions not applying
D. Changes in project scope
E. None of these are correct

36. Estimates that are typically based on estimates of elements found in the work breakdown structure are called ________ estimates. 
________________________________________

37. Estimates that are usually derived from analogy or mathematical relationships are called ________ estimates. 
________________________________________

38. The estimating factor known as ________ considers the decreasing accuracy of estimates as one forecasts activities that are further into the future. 
________________________________________

39. The ________ factor in estimating project times and costs can introduce errors due to staff turnover, the skills of the participants, and whether the team members have worked with each other on previous projects. 
________________________________________

40. The tendency to over-estimate project time and cost in order to improve the likelihood of meeting the estimates is known as the ________ factor. 
________________________________________

41. The prevailing belief in some firms that detailed estimating takes too much time and is not worth the effort or that it is impossible to predict the future is an example of the ________ factor. 
________________________________________

42. Using the _______ method of forecasting project time and costs is the preferred method for situations involving strategic decision-making, projects with a high degree of uncertainty, and projects with an unstable scope. 
________________________________________

43. Using the ________ method of forecasting project time and costs is the preferred method for situations where the cost and time estimates are important, in a fixed contract situation, and when the customer wants a lot of detail. 
________________________________________

44. The information necessary to conduct a bottom-up estimate of project time and costs starts with the ________. 
________________________________________

45. In the ________ method of top-down estimating, a quantitative relationship is established between the estimates and a project parameter. 
________________________________________

46. Given that a project closely follows past projects in features and costs, the ________ method of assigns costs and times to particular phases that a project will go through. 
________________________________________

47. The ________ method for estimating project time and cost uses weighted variables based on major parameters and is frequently used in the development of software. 
________________________________________

48. The ________ method of estimating project time and costs is useful for projects requiring the same task, group of tasks, or product repeated several times, especially if it is labor intensive. 
________________________________________

49. In the ________ method of estimating project time and costs past projects are used as a starting point with adjustments made based on differences in the new project. 
________________________________________

50. Probably the most reliable method for estimating time and cost is to use the _______ and to ask the people responsible for the work package to make the estimates. 
________________________________________

51. The ________ approach to estimating project time and cost begins with an overall estimate for the project and then refines estimates for various stages of the project as it is implemented. 
________________________________________

52. The cost to prepare a top-down budget will typically run ________ percent of the total project cost. 
________________________________________

53. The cost to prepare a bottom-up budget will typically run ________ percent of the total project cost. 
________________________________________

54. Project costs such as labor and materials are typically classified as ________ costs. 
________________________________________

55. The salary of the project manager and temporary rental space for the project team would be classified as ________ costs. 
________________________________________

56. Estimates should be made based on ________ conditions, efficient methods, and a normal level of resources. 
________________________________________

57. The __________ method is a top-down approach that uses the pooled experience of senior and/or middle managers to estimate the total project duration and cost. 
________________________________________

58. Costs that are not directly related to a specific project, such as advertising, accounting, and senior management, are classified as ____________. 
________________________________________

59. Project estimates should be broken down into as much detail than and with as much accuracy as possible. 
True False

60. Bottom-up-estimating is another name for overzealous top management estimates. 
True False

61. The use of past experience is almost always used primarily in the initial phases of a project. 
True False

62. Due to the averaging out of under-estimates and over-estimates, a long duration project is more likely to be on target than a short term, small project. 
Refer to Snapshot from Practice Page 140. 
True False

63. The project structure chosen to manage the project will have little impact on the actual project work to be accomplished. 
True False

64. As long as everyone in a project adds just a little padding to reduce risk, the project duration and costs are probably overstated by a small amount. 
True False

65. Organization culture can significantly influence project time and cost estimates. 
True False

66. If a project is internal to the company and relatively small, the bottom-up approach to estimating time and costs for the project is the best choice. 
Refer to Table 5.1 
True False

67. If time and costs are important to a project the top-down approach to estimating time and costs for the project is the best choice. 
True False

68. The ideal approach to estimating project time and costs is to use both the top-down and the bottom-up approach. 
True False

69. At the strategic level top-down estimating methods are used to evaluate a project proposal. 
Refer to Table 5.1 
True False

70. Top-down estimates usually are derived from someone who uses experience and/or information to determine the project duration and total cost. 
True False

71. Estimating the total cost of a house by multiplying the total square feet by a cost per square foot is an example of the apportion method of estimating costs. 
True False

72. Estimating the total cost of a project by multiplying each major function by a complexity factor is an example of the apportion method of estimating costs. 
True False

73. Phase estimating is used when a project cannot be rigorously defined because of the uncertainty of design or the final product. 
True False

74. Phase estimating uses both the bottom-up and top-down methods for estimating project time and costs. 
True False

75. Using a WBS permits the use of different levels of detail for different levels of management. 
True False

76. The Consensus method of estimating costs is a bottom-up technique. 
True False

77. The salary of the project manager and her administrative assistant is classified as direct labor costs. 
True False

78. General and Administrative costs are usually allocated as a percent of the total of a direct cost such as labor, materials, or equipment. 
True False

79. The apportion method is a top-down approach that uses the pooled experience of senior and/or middle managers to estimate the total project duration and cost. 
True False

80. The function point method of time and cost estimating is best applied to projects that have large, complex physical deliverables, such as a bridge or building. 
True False

81. Identify and briefly describe the two major categories of estimating project time and costs.

82. Why are the estimates for a project’s time and costs important for all phases of a project?

83. Identify the factors that should be considered to improve the quality of estimates for project times and costs.

84. Under what conditions would the top-down approach to estimating project times and costs be the best choice?

85. Under what conditions would the bottom-up approach to estimating project times and costs be the best choice?

86. Describe the ideal approach for a project manager to develop optimal estimates for a project’s time and costs.

87. Identify and briefly describe the five major methods of top-down estimating.

88. Identify and briefly describe the four major methods of bottom-up estimating.

89. Identify the drawbacks to an excessive level of detail in project times and costs.

90. Identify the three major categories of project costs and give an example of each.

91. “The best way to improve estimates is to collect and archive data on past project estimates and actuals.” Agree or disagree and support your answer.

Ch 15

1. If a construction company in Dallas builds a bridge in Houston, the project would be classified as 
A. Global
B. Overseas
C. Local
D. Domestic
E. Foreign

2. If the Lincoln Log Construction Co. (based in Chicago) built an assembly plant for General Motors in Nigeria, the project would be classified as 
A. Global
B. Overseas
C. Local
D. Domestic
E. Foreign

3. If IBM built a computer system for Outback Barbie Inc. (based in Australia) at their corporate headquarters in Sydney, the project would be classified as 
A. Global
B. Overseas
C. Local
D. Domestic
E. Foreign

4. McDonald’s is creating a multinational distribution system for all of its foreign and domestic subsidiaries. The project manager is from the corporate headquarters and he manages teams from each of the countries involved. The project would be classified as 
A. Global
B. Overseas
C. Local
D. Domestic
E. Foreign

5. Which of the following is not one of the potential results for the international project manager? 
A. Personal risk
B. Absence from home
C. Missed career opportunities
D. Adverse conditions
E. All of these are potential results

6. The major issues dealing with international project management include all of the following except: 
A. Selection and training of personnel for international projects
B. Foreign currency exchange rates
C. Location of international expansion
D. Environmental factors
E. Challenge of working in a foreign culture

7. Concern about the local restrictions on toxic waste is classified as which of the following environmental factors? 
A. Economic
B. Geographic
C. Legal/political
D. Infrastructure
E. Culture

8. The growing presence of the Russian Mafia has discouraged many foreign firms from setting up operations in the former Soviet Union. This is an example of which of the following environmental factors? 
A. Security
B. Economic
C. Cultural
D. Legal/political
E. Infrastructure

9. As a response to the events of September 11, 2001, the moving of personnel, materials, and equipment across international borders has created border congestion with increased costs and time. This is an example of which of the following environmental factors? 
A. Cultural
B. Infrastructure
C. Geographic
D. Security
E. Legal/political

10. An information systems specialist reported that his performance on a project in Northern Sweden declined due to sleep deprivation during the summer months in which there was 20 hours of daylight each day. This is an example of which of the following environmental factors? 
A. Cultural
B. Legal/political
C. Geographic
D. Economic
E. Infrastructure

11. Import quotas and tariffs, and education level of the workforce are examples of which of the following environmental factors? 
A. Legal/political
B. Security
C. Cultural
D. Infrastructure
E. Economic

12. Needs for a project could include telecommunications, transportation, power, and availability of technically skilled talent. This is an example of which of the following environmental factors? 
A. Geographic
B. Infrastructure
C. Economic
D. Legal/political
E. Cultural

13. Communications difficulties because of different languages are examples of which of the following environmental factors? 
A. Geographic
B. Security
C. Cultural
D. Legal/political
E. Infrastructure

14. Which of the following can help a project manager to digest, clarify, and understand the factors leading to the selection of a specific project? 
A. Risk matrix
B. Priority matrix
C. Responsibility matrix
D. Gantt chart
E. Contingency matrix

15. Culture is a concept that encompasses all of the following except: 
A. Shared norms
B. Beliefs
C. Values
D. Economic level
E. Customs

16. American project managers have earned a reputation abroad for being very good at understanding technology but not good at understanding: 
A. Cultures
B. People
C. Local traditions
D. Local business practices
E. Laws

17. The biggest adjustment Americans typically have to make in working abroad is: 
A. Language differences
B. Adapting to the general pace of life
C. Punctuality of people
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

18. Kluckhohn-Strodtbeck’s cross-cultural framework includes all of the following except: 
A. Perception of God
B. Relation to nature
C. Time orientation
D. Basic nature of people
E. Activity orientation

19. The Hofstede framework includes all of the following dimensions except: 
A. Masculinity-feminity
B. Uncertainty avoidance
C. Power distance
D. Individualism versus collectivism
E. All of these are included in the Hofstede framework

20. In the Snapshot from Practice “Project Management X-files,” a key success factor which is held in much higher regard by cultures outside the U.S. is: 
A. Family ties
B. Luck
C. Hard work
D. Social status
E. Patience

21. The significance of personal relationships has created a system in which Mexicans are obligated to give preference to relatives and friends when hiring, contracting, procuring, and sharing business opportunities. This system is referred to as: 
A. Manana
B. Gringo
C. Compadre
D. Quid pro quo
E. Nepotism

22. In France, which of the following factors is considered much more important than in the U.S? 
A. Social class
B. Agreement on issues
C. Professional accomplishments
D. Being open during negotiations
E. Dedication to project completion

23. Working in the Saudi Arabia culture would include major shifts in the area of: 
A. Bragging or calling attention to oneself
B. Importance of business connections
C. Increase in use of administrative channels
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

24. In dealing with the Chinese, it is important to realize that they 
A. Tend to be slow in formulating a plan
B. Will change decisions quickly
C. Value time and moving forward
D. Both B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are all correct

25. The stages of culture shock include all of the following except: 
A. Gradual adjustment
B. Irritability and hostility
C. Honeymoon
D. Repatriation
E. Adaptation

26. Which of the following is not contained in the Assessment Matrix Project Site Selection? 
A. Political stability
B. Worker skill, supply
C. Infrastructure
D. Culture compatibility
E. Utilities

27. Which of the following is not contained in the Evaluation Matrix Breakdown for Infrastructure? 
A. Transportation
B. Government support
C. Educated workforce
D. Telecommunications
E. Vendor suppliers

28. A major difference between working in Mexico and working in the United States is the perception of deadlines. This is referred to as: 
A. Manana
B. Gringo
C. Compadre
D. Quid pro quo
E. Nepotism

29. Which of the following is not true for French values? 
A. They value punctuality
B. Great importance is placed on neatness and taste
C. The French is easy to negotiate with
D. French managers see work as an intellectual exercise
E. The French consider managers to be experts

30. Which of the following is not one of the forms that stress-related culture shock takes? 
A. Fatigue
B. Sleeplessness
C. Headaches
D. Hyperactivity
E. All of these are symptoms

31. A sense of frustration in not being understood is typical of which of the following stages of culture shock? 
A. Honeymoon
B. Gradual adjustment
C. Irritability and hostility
D. Repatriation
E. Adaptation

32. When you begin to lose confidence in your abilities to communicate and work effectively in the different culture, you are in which of the following stages of culture shock? 
A. Honeymoon
B. Gradual adjustment
C. Irritability and hostility
D. Repatriation
E. Adaptation

33. When you recover from your sense of psychological disorientation and begin to function and communicate, you are in which of the following stages of culture shock? 
A. Honeymoon
B. Gradual adjustment
C. Irritability and hostility
D. Repatriation
E. Adaptation

34. Which film project was reviewed in a Snapshot from Practice? 
A. The Godfather
B. Star Wars
C. Hearts of Darkness
D. Apocalypse Now
E. Rambo

35. A(n) ________ project consists of teams formed from professionals spanning multiple countries, continents, and cultures with their work integrated for the entire enterprise. 
________________________________________

36. A(n) ________ project is one executed in a foreign country for a native firm. 
________________________________________

37. A(n) ________ project is executed in a foreign country for a foreign firm. 
________________________________________

38. The degree to which local regulations favor local workers and suppliers is an example of the environmental factor termed ________. 
________________________________________

39. The need to hire tribal bodyguards in such places as Angola and Uzbekistan is an example of the environmental factor termed ________. 
________________________________________

40. Construction projects in Southeast Asia having to accommodate the monsoon season when rainfall can be as high as 50 inches per month is an example of the environmental factor termed ________. 
________________________________________

41. Bartering is a form of compensation that is still used by some countries and organizations and is an example of the ________ environmental factor. 
________________________________________

42. A project that depends upon a high ratio of vendor suppliers, good roads, and other transportation modes, such as air and seaports is an example of the ______ environmental factor. 
________________________________________

43. The requirement for women to cover head, arms, and legs and to be accompanied by another woman or man is an example of the environmental factor termed ________. 
________________________________________

44. ________ is a system of shared norms, beliefs, values, and customs that bind people together, creating shared meaning and a unique identity. 
________________________________________

45. In the Kluckhohn-Strodtbeck Cross-Cultural Framework, the cultural issue that is measured in terms of good, evil or mixed is nature of ________. 
________________________________________

46. In the Kluckhohn-Strodtbeck Cross-Cultural Framework, the cultural issue that is measured in terms of domination, harmony, and subjugation is relationship to ________. 
________________________________________

47. In the Hofstede Framework, ________ describes the degree to which the culture emphasizes competitive and achievement oriented behavior or displays concerns for relationships. 
________________________________________

48. In the Hofstede Framework, ________ identifies whether a culture holds individuals or the group responsible for each member’s welfare. 
________________________________________

49. The length of training required for an overseas stay of 1-3 years would be around ________. 
________________________________________

50. Americans tend to be impersonal and practical when making an argument; however, ________ can be very passionate and emotional when arguing because they enjoy a lively debate. 
________________________________________

51. The ________ place great importance upon neatness and taste; therefore, when interacting with them you should pay close attention to your appearance. 
________________________________________

52. When working with the ________, it is important never to display feelings of superiority because this makes the other party feel inferior. 
________________________________________

53. Although they may be slow to formulate a plan, once the ________ decide who and what is best, they tend to stick to their decisions and make good progress. 
________________________________________

54. Decision-making with ________ is results-oriented and tends to be based on facts and expected outcomes, not on social impact. 
________________________________________

55. ___________ have a reputation for not being able to work effectively in foreign cultures. 
________________________________________

56. In many ___________ cultures certain numbers are considered lucky, while others are considered unlucky. 
________________________________________

57. The natural psychological disorientation that most people suffer when they move into a different culture than their own is called ___________. 
________________________________________

58. It typically takes ____________ months before managers operate again at full effectiveness after a lengthy foreign assignment. 
________________________________________

59. In the Snapshot from Practice, the mapping of the “River of Doubt” occured in the country of __________. 
________________________________________

60. A local project is one performed in its native country for a resident firm. 
True False

61. The constraints imposed by national and local laws are part of the environmental factors termed infrastructure. 
True False

62. The environmental factor labeled security involves the capacity of a country’s military and police forces to prevent and respond to attacks. 
True False

63. One factor that is often underestimated until the project personnel actually arrive at a foreign destination is the culture environmental factor. 
True False

64. The example of one project in Africa being paid in goat skins is an example of the environmental factor of infrastructure. 
True False

65. Infrastructure refers to a country’s or community’s ability to provide services such as power, technology, communication, or transportation required for a project. 
True False

66. For most project managers, the biggest difference in managing an international project is operating in a national culture where projects are done differently, using different project management techniques and tools. 
True False

67. One approach for the project manager to digest, clarify, and understand the factors leading to the selection of a specific project is to use a risk matrix similar to those used to evaluate other types of risks. 
True False

68. Americans have a reputation for not being able to work effectively in foreign cultures. 
True False

69. Americans tend to underestimate the importance that relationship building plays in conducting business in other countries. 
True False

70. Two of the biggest adjustments Americans typically have to make in working abroad is adapting to the general pace of life and the punctuality of people. 
True False

71. The Kluckhohn-Strodtbeck Cross-Cultural Model includes a factor called Uncertainty Avoidance that is related to a culture’s willingness to accept uncertainty and ambiguity about the future. 
True False

72. The Hofstede framework includes a factor called Activity Orientation where cultures were classified as being, doing, or controlling. 
True False

73. Hong Kong is a place where business people often call Feng shui practitioners to construction sites to make sure that the building is aligned correctly on the site. 
True False

74. Mexicans tend to perceive Americans as being cold and that most Americans look down upon them. 
True False

75. Saudi Arabians can be difficult to negotiate with because they often ignore facts no matter how convincing they may be and they also tend to be quite secretive about their positions. 
True False

76. In dealing with the French, a lot of what get done is a result of going through administrative channels, which involves a lot of red tape and efforts to avoid sidestep this can be regarded as disrespect for legal and governmental institutions. 
True False

77. Many outsiders consider the Chinese system of guanxi to be like nepotism where decisions are made based on family ties instead of an objective assessment of ability. 
True False

78. The initial stage of culture shock is irritability and hostility. 
Refer to Figure 15.6 
True False

79. If the length of stay in another culture is to be in the range of 2 to 12 months, the experiential approach to training is advisable. 
Refer to Figure 15.7 
True False

80. Mexicans tend to be more cautious and want to spend more time discussing risks and potential problems that Americans might dismiss as improbable or irrelevant. 
True False

81. Saudis attach little importance to status and rank with the bypassing of legal channels and red tape a common occurrence. 
True False

82. The former U.S. President who got involved with the River of Doubt project was Teddy Roosevelt. 
True False

83. Identify and briefly describe the four possible classifications for international projects.

84. Identify and briefly describe the six environmental factors affecting international projects.

85. What is the Kluckhohn-Strodtbeck Cross-Cultural Framework and identify the five major cultural issues it addresses?

86. Identify and discuss three guidelines/cautions in working with Mexicans on projects.

87. Identify and discuss three guidelines/cautions in working with the French on projects.

88. Identify and discuss three guidelines/cautions in working with Saudi Arabians on projects.

89. Identify and discuss three guidelines/cautions in working with Chinese on projects.

90. Identify and discuss three guidelines/cautions in working with Americans on projects.

91. Identify and briefly describe the four stages of culture shock.

92. Identify and briefly describe the cross-cultural training approach to be taken as related to the length of stay in the foreign culture.

93. How would one use a risk matrix to aide in the site selection for an international operation?

94. Identify the major areas in which project professionals assigned to foreign countries should have a minimal understanding.

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BUS 517 Week 1 – 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer University New

BUS/517 Discussion Questions Week 1-11 (A Graded Work)
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BUS 517 Discussion Questions

Week 1 DQ 1
“Definition of a Project” Please respond to the following:
Analyze how project management supports the concept of strategic planning.
According to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK), explain one of the major knowledge areas and why it is important to project management. Evaluate the role of this knowledge area in management of a project.

Week 1 DQ 2
“Project Selection” Please respond to the following:
For the purpose of completing the requirements of this course, select an actual business or personal project that assumes duration of 15 months and a functionally allocated project team. If using a real-life business project, adhere to confidentiality standards. Post your selection in the Discussion area to receive instructor approval and helpful suggestions from your classmates about the nature of your project selection. If you are using a project from a volunteer role or past employment, indicate that feature and specifically request feedback on the viability of your selection from your classmates.
Determine the importance of the project to the organization’s strategy. Justify how the project life cycle will benefit the organization.

Week 2 DQ 1
“Elements of Projects” Please respond to the following:
Devise a mission statement that includes cultural implications for a nationwide online university.
As a manager, your responsibility is to create strategies for the functions of your department. Determine two challenges you might face as you create cost-reduction strategies for the nationwide online university.

Week 2 DQ 2

“Project Organization” Please respond to the following:
Take a position on the following: “The culture of the parent organization is the most important consideration when organizing a project.” Support your position.
Assume you work for Barbata Electronics. Your R&D people believe they have come up with an affordable technology that will double the capacity of existing MP3 players and uses audio format that is superior to MP3. The project is code named Knock Your Socks Off (KYSO).
Recommend the type of project management structure that would yield the best outcomes for the KYSO project.
Establish the types of information that you would need in order to make this recommendation and why you would need it.

Week 3 DQ 1
“Project Scope and WBS” Please respond to the following:
Analyze the elements of a typical scope statement and the significance of each element. As a project leader, determine how you would communicate the scope of a project to the project team. Support your approach.
Develop a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) for a project in which you are going to build a bicycle and identify two major components with three levels of details for each component.

Week 3 DQ 2
“Case Study: AMEX, Hungary” Please respond to the following:
Analyze the three primary concerns confronting Thomas regarding the management of this project. Suggest a method of addressing each of the three concerns.
Recommend one specific way that Thomas can adequately staff the office in light of the many problems he has already experienced. Be sure to keep in mind the cultural issues that play a part in this problem.

Week 4 DQ 1
“Cost Control” Please respond to the following:
Document three types of cost and determine which is the most difficult to control. Support your response and identify a method(s) that would enable you to overcome the difficulty.
Differentiate between top-down and bottom-up estimating approaches and the conditions under which you prefer one over the other.

Week 4 DQ 2
“Case Study: Sharp, AG” Please respond to the following:
Assess the significance of the brainstorming suggestions and determine how you might use this information to improve the chances of the project’s success.
Recommend the most effective approach to formulating a WBS for this project.

Week 5 DQ 1
“Unscheduled Project Time” Please respond to the following:
• Assess the importance of “slack” to the project manager.
• In terms of developing the project plan, identify which, if any, of the project steps are more integral to the project plan than any others. Support your response.

Week 5 DQ 2
“Project Management Resources” Please respond to the following:
From the e-Activity, identify the resource that caught your interest and estimate its usefulness to the project management profession.
In terms of developing a project plan, specifically recommend how this resource could expedite that process.

Week 6 DQ 1
“Risk Management” Please respond to the following:
Differentiate between avoiding a risk and accepting a risk. Indicate the implications to your project that each might have.
Evaluate the use of statistical analysis in determining project risk and how it might be applied to the human factors of a project.

Week 6 DQ 2
“The 10 Golden Rules” Please respond to the following:
From the e-Activity, develop another golden rule and explain your reasoning.
Consider how these 10 Golden Rules apply to all projects and apply three of them to your project.

Week 7 DQ 1
“Resource Scheduling” Please respond to the following:
Of the six reasons that scheduling resources is important, select which one of the six reasons appears to be the top priority and justify your position.
Create a worst-case scenario for a project lacking a time-phrase baseline. Also discuss if you were ever in such a situation, the outcomes of the situation and what you learned. The situation can be professional or personal.

Week 7 DQ 2
“Reducing Project Duration” Please respond to the following:
Discuss two of the five common reasons that projects crash. Relate your response to a project failure that you have experienced or witnessed.
Take a position on the following statement from the textbook author: “Reducing the project duration increases the risk of being late.” Support your position.

Week 8 DQ 1
“Being an Effective Project Manager” Please respond to the following:
Determine which of the eight traits or skills associated with being an effective project manager would be the most effective when managing a group of newly hired engineers. Justify your position.
In terms of project leadership, describe a project leader or instructor under whom you have served in some capacity and why that leader’s style appealed to you.

Week 8 DQ 2
“Ethical Project Management” Please respond to the following:
From the e-Activity, PMI has outlined the ethical standards of the profession. Determine how this code might challenge a project manager’s decisions and behavior. Discuss how it affects your decisions and behavior.
Assume you were having a project kickoff meeting. In preparation for this meeting, you devised a brief communication plan to introduce the concept of ethical behavior to govern the project. Develop that communication plan and post it. Discuss the considerations you focused on to develop this brief communication plan.

Week 9 DQ 1
“Outsourcing” Please respond to the following:
Evaluate the list of best practices in outsourcing project work found in your textbook to determine the single most important one that should be implemented with every outsourcing project. State your rationale.
Determine how a project manager can influence customer expectations and perceptions to ensure the expectations are met.

Week 9 DQ 2
Discuss how a project manager would use the Cost Performance Index (CPI).

Analyze why it is important for project managers to resist changes to the project baseline. If changes were to be made to a baseline, determine what conditions would prevail.

Week 10 DQ 1
“Project Audit” Please respond to the following:
Indicate the major categories of information you would expect to find in a project review.
Imagine that you will interview a project manager who works for an organization that implements multiple projects. Prepare a list of four questions that you would ask the project manager to determine project milestones and how the progress of the multiple projects are tracked.

Week 10 DQ 2
“Project Completion” Please respond to the following:
From the e-Activity, create a list of three benefits for using these worksheets as you prepare to complete the project. Describe the impact these worksheets may have on assessing project effectiveness.
Explain to a new project manager how you ensure that all steps in project completion have been finalized.

Answer:
“Project Completion”Please respond to the following:

From the e-Activity, create a list of three benefits for using these worksheets as you prepare to complete the project. Describe the impact these worksheets may have on assessing project effectiveness.

Week 11 DQ 1
“Improved Project Management” Please respond to the following:
Now that you have finished your formal study of project management in this course, when you are assigned projects, determine how you will integrate the major concepts of this course into your project.
Of all the discussions and assignments provided in this course, evaluate how three of them might specifically support your ability to handle projects.

Week 11 DQ 2
“Careers” Please respond to the following:
State specifically one method you have learned that you will apply to your career path.
Explain how project management knowledge and skills can be transferable across industries and professions.

BUS 517 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer University NEW

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Week 5 DQ 1
“Unscheduled Project Time” Please respond to the following:
• Define “slack” in the project management environment. Next, as project manager, refer to Assignment 1 and give your opinion on why “slack” is important to your project. Justify your response.
• Determine the key differences between free slack and total slack in the project management environment. Provide an example or scenario of each type of slack to further justify your response.

Week 5 DQ 2
“Project Management Resourses” Please respond to the following:
• From the e-Activity, interpret the network computation process, and discuss the key terminologies and examples that helped you understand the network computation process.
• From the case study, determine the critical path for the project, and indicate whether you recommend that G&E pursue the contact in question. Justify your response.

BUS 517 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer University NEW

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Week 11 DQ 1
“Improved Project Management” Please respond to the following:
• Your final project for this course is now complete through Project Proposal, Project Charter, and Project Presentation. Share what you can utilize in your real-world projects to enhance project success.
• Describe the most important piece of knowledge that you gained during this course.

Week 11 DQ 2
“Career” Please respond to the following:
• Discuss what you have learned in this course that will help you in your current or future career.
• It is believed that those starting in project management should take advantage of every opportunity to develop and expand their project management skills. Determine at least four ways that this can be accomplished.