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CIS 505 Week 11 Discussion Questions

CIS 505 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

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Week 11 DQ 1
Future Outlook. Please respond to the following:

• Of the numerous forms of communication technologies presented in this course, predict the first form of technology to be phased out by a newer and improved technology. Explain the limitations of this technology and the reason for its speculated obsolesce.
• Speculate the technology that will replace the previously mentioned technology above. Describe the features, capabilities, or basic advantages this technology will have over its predecessor.

Week 11 DQ 2
Course Wrap-Up. Please respond to the following:

• Discuss how you can apply at least four of the weekly course learning outcomes throughout this course to your professional or personal life.
• Select your favorite technology discussed in this course. Imagine today’s world without that technology. Explain the issues and impact this change would make.

CIS 505 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer University New

CIS/505 Week 11 Discussion Questions

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Week 11 DQ 1
Future Outlook. Please respond to the following:

• Of the numerous forms of communication technologies presented in this course, predict the first form of technology to be phased out by a newer and improved technology. Explain the limitations of this technology and the reason for its speculated obsolesce.
• Speculate the technology that will replace the previously mentioned technology above. Describe the features, capabilities, or basic advantages this technology will have over its predecessor.

Week 11 DQ 2
Course Wrap-Up. Please respond to the following:

• Discuss how you can apply at least four of the weekly course learning outcomes throughout this course to your professional or personal life.
• Select your favorite technology discussed in this course. Imagine today’s world without that technology. Explain the issues and impact this change would make.

CIS 505 Week 9 Discussion Questions – Strayer University New

CIS/505 Week 9 Discussion Questions – Strayer

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Week 9 DQ 1
Digital Transmission. Please respond to the following:

• Compare and contrast the data communication technologies of guided media and unguided media. This should include transmission media, data link control protocols, and multiplexing.
• Compare digital transmission to analog transmission to determine the advantages of digital transmission. Provide at least one example to support your response.

Week 9 DQ 2
T-1 Lines. Please respond to the following:

• From the e-Activity, analyze the multiplexing techniques of DSL and cable modem Internet and suggest the one you prefer. Explain your decision.
• Compare and contrast the use of leased lines in a WAN or LAN setting. Then recommend what you would use if you were a CIO. Support your response with evidence or examples.

CIS 505 Week 9 Assignment 5 – Strayer University New

CIS/505 Assignment 5: Wireless Technology
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Due Week 9 and worth 60 points
There are a number of cellular phone companies each serving their own unique geographical areas. Likewise, they each may use a different technology to transfer communication. Research the pros and cons 3G and 4G technologies and its role in today’s applications.
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
1. Compare the pros and cons of 3G and 4G technology to determine the best uses of 3G and 4G technology in today’s applications.
2. Describe how an enterprise would use 3G, 4G, WWAN, and WIAMX to improve business. Explain why they would use one (1) solution over the remaining three (3).
3. Analyze the changes in 4G technology since the printing of the textbook in 2009 and identify those of importance for a user of 4G technology.
4. Take a position on the following statement, “Wireless application protocol is a necessity for wireless communication organizations and their users.” Then, explain your position with supporting evidence.
5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.

CIS 505 Week 8 Discussion Questions – Strayer University New

CIS/505 Week 8 Discussion Questions – Strayer

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Week 8 DQ 1
Satellite Communication. Please respond to the following:

• Justify the circumstances in a business situation in which you would use GEOS, LEOS, and MEOS.
• Discuss the business applications currently being used to support VSAT.

Week 8 DQ 2
Data Transmission. Please respond to the following:

• Compare the four items related to channel capacity: data rate, bandwidth, noise, and error rate. Determine the most important and justify its significance over the remaining items.
Describe real-world examples of attenuation and white noise. Examine the effect on the information-carrying capacity of the link and present a way to avoid these types of interruptions.

CIS 505 Week 8 Assignment 4 – Strayer University New

CIS/505 Assignment 4: Services in Your Area – Strayer
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Due Week 8 and worth 60 points
Research DSL and cable modem services available closest to your community. You may use neighboring communities or regions if your community does not have access to DSL or cable modem services. Researched material must be focused on the technical aspects of DSL and cable modem services. Marketed documents, white papers, or other advertisements may not be used for the completion of this assignment.
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
1. Identify the DSL and cable modem services referenced in this assignment and the region(s) in which they operate.
2. Create a diagram of the DSL and Cable Modem connections to your ISP, cable organization, and telecom to your home router using Visio or its open source alternative software. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
3. Compare and evaluate the speeds of DSL and cable modem that you researched.
4. Compare and evaluate the cost of DSL and cable modem that you researched.
5. Compare and evaluate the reliability of DSL and cable modem that you researched.
6. Recommend DSL or cable modem based on the previous comparison and evaluation of services available closest to your region. Explain your recommendation.
7. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.
Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or Dia. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

Communication Technologies by Stallings, Quizzes, Exam, Test Bank

Communication Technologies by Stallings Test Bank

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Stallings Chapter 01 Exam

1. The four forms of information used by modern information systems are voice, data, image, and video.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. The number of computers and terminals at work in the world today is over 100 million.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. Communications technologies using data networks have essentially replaced telephone networks in today’s business settings.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. Computerization has enhanced the range of features available to businesses for voice communication.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. The need to store and transmit images has been a driving force in the development of networking technology.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. Video networks in business are used primarily to deliver programming.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

7. Data compression is used to minimize the amount of information that must be transmitted in networks.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. The major cost component for communications is the resource needed to transmit data across distance.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. Wireless networks have the advantage of mobility, but the disadvantage of difficult implementation.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. The basic building block of any communications facility is the transmission line.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

11. The two media technologies currently driving the evolution of data communications networks are local area networks and cable television networks

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

12. The most common example of packet switched technology is the modern telephone network.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

13. The three forces that have driven the architecture and evolution of data communications and networking facilities are

a. Traffic growth, advances in technology, and legal considerations.
b. Traffic growth, development of services, and advances in technology.
c. Development of services advances in technology, and legal considerations.
d. Advances in technology, lower costs, and greater capacities.
e. Voice applications, the advent of the Internet, and increased mobility of users.

Answer: _____

14. Which of the following is NOT one of the four types of information found on networks?

a. data
b. voice
c. video
d. image
e. control

Answer: _____

15. Which of the following is NOT one of the stated trends in technology identified as contributing to increasing traffic and services in networks?

a. The emergence of the Internet.
b. More and more people are discovering the World Wide Web as a valuable resource.
c. The ever-increasing use of mobile devices and applications.
d. Increasing quality and variety of services in both voice and data networks.
e. The fact the both computing and communication technologies are getting faster and cheaper.

Answer: _____

16. Among the application services lists given below, which lists the services in order such that the desired throughput rates are increasing?

a. Still image transfers, large file transfers, transaction processing, and voice.
b. Voice, transaction processing, still image transfers, and large file transfers.
c. Large file transfers, voice, transaction processing, and still image transfers.
d. Transaction processing, voice, still image transfers, and large file transfers.
e. Transaction processing, still image transfers, voice, and large file transfers.

Answer: _____

17. Which of the following is NOT one of the main application areas that serve as one of the drivers in determining the design and makeup of enterprise networks?

a. Transaction processing
b. IP telephony
c. Multimedia messaging
d. E-business
e. Customer relationship management

Answer: _____

18. The concept that describes the merger of previously distinct telephony and information technologies and markets is called

a. unification.
b. bundling.
c. outsourcing.
d. merger.
e. convergence.

Answer: _____

19. Which of the following is NOT one of the four layers in the model of business-driven convergence?

a. Networks
b. Infrastructure
c. Management
d. Services
e. Applications

Answer: _____

20. The types of networks commonly used in businesses today include

a. Local area networks, wide-area networks, and telephone networks.
b. Local area networks, telephone networks, and voice mail networks.
c. Wide area networks, voice mail networks, and email networks.
d. Voice mail networks, email networks, and local area networks.
e. Television networks, voice networks, and data networks.

Answer: _____

21. Which of the following is the most commonly used standard for computer communications?

a. SLA
b. TCP/IP
c. ISO
d. USD
e. DLINK

Answer: _____

22. In the past, the data processing function was organized around a single computer. Today, it is much more common to find many computers linked by networks. This approach to data processing is called

a. Decentralized computing.
b. Disconnected computing.
c. Distributed computing.
d. Client computing.
e. Connected computing.

Answer: _____

23. Two types of transmission media recently gaining in popularity in business communications are _____ connections and _____ cables.

Answer:

24. Types of networks commonly used at business premises are called _____.

Answer:

25. Types of networks commonly used with multiple premises in businesses are called _________.

Answer:

26. An architecture where multiple computers provide database functions, file services, printing services, and other specialized functions on a shared basis for many users is called a ___________ architecture.

Answer:

27. Explain why networks have become so important to businesses today?

Answer:

28. Explain how local area networks differ from wide area networks.

Answer:

29. Contrast how circuit-switched networks and how packet-switched work.

Answer:

Stallings Chapter 02 Exam BUSINESS INFORMATION

1. Today, all networked information is sent using digital formats.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. A single bit of information represents two states or values.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. The terms byte and octet describe the same amount of information.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. Voice communication can only be done using an analog signal.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. PBX and Centrex systems provide similar functionality from the users point-of-view.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. Services transmitting video information use a series of vector images to represent moving images.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

7. System response time and system cost are closely related to each other.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. Response time is extremely important when implementing email systems.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. When transmitting video information, compression ratios can range as high as 100:1 with little loss of perceived quality.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. Interlacing is a method of reducing the bandwidth requirements for video transmissions.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

11. When using analog communications, channel capacity is measure in hertz (Hz) where 1 Hz equals 1000 oscillations per second.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

12. The United States national version of IRA is referred to as the American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII).

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

13. For each of the following binary values, indicate which decimal value is equivalent.

___ 1. 10
___ 2. 1010
___ 3. 11
___ 4. 1111
___ 5. 101

a. 3
b. 10
c. 15
d. 5
e. 2

14. Select all of the following which represent digital forms of information.

a. A watch with two hands
b. A mechanical odometer on a car
c. A watch that displays time as HH:MM
d. A gas gauge
e. A page filled with English prose
f. A fax transmission

Answers: ____________________

15. Which of the following represents the most basic unit of digital information?

a. Byte
b. Nibble
c. Pixel
d. Bit
e. Octet

Answer: _____

16. Standard voice telephone lines, such as those found in residences, limit bandwidth to

a. 300 Hz
b. 3,400 Hz
c. 8,000 Hz
d. 20,000 Hz
e. 1,410,000 Hz

Answer: _____

17. A stereo compact disc typically requires the bandwidth for each channel to be

a. 300 Hz
b. 3,400 Hz
c. 8,000 Hz
d. 20,000 Hz
e. 1,410,000 Hz

Answer: _____

18. When using data communications with 8-bit codes, the number of alphabetic symbols

a. must be exactly 256.
b. must be greater than 8.
c. can be greater than 1024 bytes.
d. must be less than 256.
e. determines the number of octets.

Answer: _____

19. Which of the following is the binary representation of the decimal value 22?

a. 10110
b. 11000
c. 10010
d. 10110
e. 10101

Answer: _____

20. Which of the following is the binary representation of the decimal value 24?

a. 10110
b. 11000
c. 10010
d. 10110
e. 10101

Answer: _____

21. Which of the following is the binary representation of the decimal value 18?

a. 10110
b. 11000
c. 10010
d. 10110
e. 10101

Answer: _____

22. Which of the following is the binary representation of the decimal value 21?

a. 10110
b. 11000
c. 10010
d. 10110
e. 10101

Answer: _____

23. The time interval between when a user presses a key and when the result of that action arrives at his or her workstation is called the

a. response time.
b. turn-around time.
c. think time.
d. delay time.
e. transmission time.

Answer: _____

24. A representation of images that uses straight and curved line segments is called ________.

Answer:

25. A representation of images that uses an array of pixels is called ______.

Answer:

26. When using an eight-value gray-scale image, ____ bits per pixel are needed.

Answer:

27. Place the following information types in order by the required data rates with the 1 needing the slowest and 6 needing the fastest.

___ color image
___ HDTV
___ text
___ black and white image
___ CD audio
___ voice

28. List the four types of information that are communicated over networks.

Answer:

Stallings Chapter 03 Exam DISTRIBUTED DATA PROCESSING

1. Traditionally, data processing has been organized in a distributed model.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. Centralized data processing typically involves terminals connected to large computers in a central data processing facility.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. Intranets use the same communication protocols and applications as the Internet.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. Like the Internet, intranets are difficult to manage.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. Extranets use different protocols and applications than are used in Intranets.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. Retail point of sale systems are an example of horizontal partitioning of data processing.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

7. Database applications are always distributed applications.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. Replicated databases involve copying all or part of the database to additional computers.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. A partitioned database is by definition not a replicated database.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. The three types of requirements for networking resulting from DDP are connectivity, availability, and performance.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

11. Match the replication strategies below with the appropriate design architecture it uses.

___ 1. Real-time replication
___ 2. Near-real-time replications
___ 3. Deferred replications

a. Lock and load
b. Three-phase commit
c. Cascade or broadcast distribution
d. Messaging and queuing
e. Two-phase commit

12. Which of the following is not a feature of an Intranet?

a. Uses Internet based standards, such as HTML and SMTP
b. Uses the TCP/IP protocol for local and wide-area networking
c. Is used to distribute content to the general Internet
d. Can be effectively managed
e. Is used to connect both local and remote sites into one network

Answer: _____

13. Which of the following typically is not supported by distributed processing?

a. Applications
b. Device controllers
c. Data
d. Control
e. Mainframes

Answer: _____

14. Which of the following is not a benefit of distributed data processing?

a. Increased responsiveness to organizational needs
b. Better correspondence to organizational patterns
c. Greater user involvement and control
d. Enhanced centralization of data definitions
e. Reduced systems incompatibility

Answer: _____

15. Which of the following is not a function provided by servers in client/server systems?

a. Printing services
b. Data entry
c. Database services
d. Gateways
e. Fax services

Answer: _____

16. The three ways of organizing data for use by an organization are

a. centralized, replicated, and partitioned.
b. centralized, structured, and partitioned.
c. structured, replicated, and partitioned.
d. centralized, replicated, and structured.
e. distributed, replicated, and partitioned.

Answer: _____

17. Two types of distributed data processing are ___ and ____ partitioning.

Answer:

18. An increasingly common organizational approach for distributed data processing is the ________ architecture.

Answer:

19. Which aspects of data processing can be centralized?

Answer:

20. List and describe the three primary methods for replicating databases.

Answer:

21. Describe some benefits and drawbacks of distributed data processing.

Answer:

22. Describe the key differences and similarities between Internets, Intranets, and Extranets.

Answer:

23. List and describe at least two factors that have led to the increase in DDP.

Answer:

Stallings Chapter 04 Exam INTERNET HISTORY AND ARCHITECTURE

1. The Internet grew out of a Department of Education project.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. ARPANet was the first message-switching network .

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. When using circuit switching, a dedicated path of transmission facilities is established between the communicating parties.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. When using message switching instead of packet switching, a dedicated path must be established between the parties for all messages that are sent.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. Packet switching is like message switching except that the unit of data sent at one time is limited in size, thus requiring larger messages to be broken into pieces.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. A computer connected to the Internet is called a host.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

7. The National Science Foundation was responsible for many of the policy decisions that led to the modern Internet.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. In the Internet, individual hosts and/or local area networks are connected to an Internet services provider through a point-of-presence.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. Commercial use of the Internet was discouraged until approximately 1988.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. Hosts connected to the Internet are identified by a unique 24-bit number that identifies a network and specific host within that network.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

11. A paradigm for electronic communications where a dedicated path is opened and maintained during the exchange is called

a. message switching.
b. circuit switching.
c. packet switching.
d. data switching.
e. analog switching.

Answer: _____

12. A paradigm for electronic communications where messages are split into blocks of data with limited size, which are then transmitted one-by-one across the network is called

a. message switching.
b. circuit switching.
c. packet switching.
d. data switching.
e. analog switching.

Answer: _____

13. The first two important applications developed for the ARPANET where

a. Telnet and FTP.
b. Telnet and email.
c. Telnet and world-wide-web.
d. FTP and email.
e. Email and world-wide-web.

Answer: _____

14. The first “killer application” for the ARPANET was

a. Telnet.
b. FTP.
c. Email.
d. World-wide-web.
e. Remote login.

Answer: _____

15. The development of a internationally distributed collection of multimedia files addressed using universal resource locators led to the

a. Telnet package.
b. Email system.
c. World-wide-web.
d. FTP package.
e. Domain resource locator.

Answer: _____

16. The problems of using IP numbers for addressing hosts in the Internet are resolved using

a. the concept of domains and the use of domain names.
b. the use of Telnet applications.
c. the use of email servers.
d. splitting IP addresses into four octets.
e. using fixed routing paths through the network.

Answer: _____

17. The Domain Name System (DNS) is comprised of four elements. Which of the following is NOT one of these elements?

a. The domain name space
b. IP addresses
c. DNS database
d. Name servers
e. Resolvers

Answer: _____

18. The key features of the DNS database are

a. variable-depth hierarchy for names, distributed databases, and name servers.
b. Resolvers, distributed databases, and name servers.
c. Distribution controlled by the database, resolvers, and distributed databases.
d. Domain name spaces, name servers, and variable-depth hierarchies.
e. Variable-depth hierarchy for names, distributed databases, and distribution controlled by the database.

Answer: _____

Stallings Chapter 05 Exam TCP/IP AND OSI

1. Protocol architectures are a set of complementary protocol modules governing communication between entities in a network.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. TCP/IP is a protocol architecture .

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. UDP provides guaranteed delivery of messages.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. LANs and WANs are usually isolated entities.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. A router is a more complex intermediate system than a bridge.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. Provide the full name for each of the following acronyms
SAP
PDU
TCP
IP
UDP
SMTP
FTP
SNMP
OSI
SNA

Answer:

7. The key elements of a protocol are

a. syntax, structure, and timing.
b. syntax, semantics, and structure.
c. structure, semantics, and format.
d. format, syntax, and semantics
e. syntax, semantics, and timing.

Answer: _____

8. Which of the following is a commonly used set of standards for computer communications?

a. SLA
b. ISO
c. POP
d. TCP/IP
e. FTP

Answer: _____

9. A device that connects networks with differing addressing schemes, packet sizes and interfaces is called a

a. hub.
b. router.
c. switch.
d. repeater.
e. bridge.

Answer: _____

10. The current IP specification uses addresses to identify hosts that consist of

a. 16 bits.
b. four bits.
c. 32 bits.
d. 64 bits.
e. 128 bits.

Answer: _____

11. The newer IPv6 specification uses addresses to identify hosts that consist of

a. 16 bits.
b. four bits.
c. 32 bits.
d. 64 bits.
e. 128 bits.

Answer: _____

12. Briefly describe the difference between the Internet and an intranet.

Answer:

13. Briefly describe the difference between an intranet and an extranet.

Answer:

14. There are two primary benefits to the use of standardized protocol architectures—one for vendors, one for customers. Briefly describe each.

Answer:

15. What are the seven layers of the OSI model?

Answer:

16. What are the five layers of the TCP/IP model?

Answer:

Stallings Chapter 06 Exam CLIENT/SERVER

1. Database applications are among the most common client-server implementations.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. Most client/server environments emphasize the use of a GUI.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. Middleware is used to overcome lack of standardization.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. Traditional client/server architecture is also called 3-tier architecture.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. Intranets are expensive to implement, but inexpensive to maintain.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. Client-server computing is fundamentally based on networking.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

7. Support tools for intranets are easily available.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. In a 3-tier client-server implementation, the client is typically a “thin client.”

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. A server-based processing model uses a “fat server” rather than a “fat client.”

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. Implementing an extranet removes the need for a company to maintain a public web site.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

11. Match each of the following terms with its definition.

___ 1. Client
___ 2. Middleware
___ 3. Server
___ 4. API
___ 5. SQL

a. A method for addressing, creating, updating, or querying relational databases.
b. A networked information requester that can query a database or other information.
c. A set of function and call programs that allow clients and servers to intercommunicate.
d. Software that improves connectivity between a client application and a server.
e. A computer that houses information for manipulation by networked clients.

12. Provide the full name for each of the following acronyms.
API
SQL
GUI
RPC

Answer:

13. Which of the following is not a class of client/server processing?

a. Host-based processing
b. Server-based processing
c. Client-based processing
d. Cooperative processing
e. Network-based processing

Answer: _____

14. Advantages of a web/database system as compared to a more traditional database approach include

a. improved functionality and ease of administration.
b. ease of administration and transaction tracking.
c. rapid development and flexible information presentation.
d. Easy deployment and improved functionality.
e. Improved functionality and transaction tracking.

Answer: _____

Stallings Chapter 07 Exam INTERNET-BASED APPLICATIONS

1. In general public and Internet mail systems offer access to a wider range of services and more robust applications.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. Upon receipt, the SMTP receiver must decide whether to place the message in the appropriate user mailbox or local outgoing mail queue.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. In order to be compliant, a mail system must include all five of the additional MIME headers.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. MIME subtypes of the multi-part type are used to describe how the different parts of a message go together.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. The simplest form of electronic mail is a single-system facility where all users of the facility to exchange messages.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. SMTP is the standard protocol in the TCP/IP protocol suite for transferring email between hosts.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

7. SMTP does not place any requirements on the contents or message bodies of mail it processes.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. SMTP returns an end-to-end acknowledgement to the originator to indicate that the message was successfully delivered to the recipient.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. SMTP can be used to send executable files and other binary file types.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. The key driving force behind the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is to enable VoIP.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

11. Email functions visible to a user, such as facilities for preparing and submitting messages, filing, replying, and forwarding, are considered

a. message transfer agent functions.
b. client functions.
c. email client functions.
d. user agent functions.
e. SMTP functions.

Answer: _____

12. Email functions concerned with the protocol operations needed to transmit and deliver messages are considered

a. message transfer agent functions.
b. client functions.
c. email client functions.
d. user agent functions.
e. SMTP functions.

Answer: _____

13. Which of the following is a true statement regarding SMTP processing of messages?

a. Messages typically are sent through multiple SMTP systems while going from the sender to the recipient.
b. The SMTP sender remains responsible for a message until it has been delivered to the recipient.
c. SMTP does not guarantee that all messages are delivered.
d. SMTP attempts to send messages until the recipients become available.
e. SMTP allows only one recipient for each message that is sent.

Answer: _____

14. A widely used extension to the RFC 822 framework that expands what can be sent via email is called

a. MIME.
b. ASCII.
c. VoIP.
d. SMTP.
e. IMAP.

Answer: _____

15. Which of the following is NOT a standard MIME content type?

a. Audio
b. Binary
c. Message
d. Image
e. Text

Answer: _____

16. When using HTTP, an application program that establishes connections for the purpose of sending requests to a server is called a

a. client.
b. server.
c. host.
d. resource.
e. gateway.

Answer: _____

17. When using HTTP, a network data object or service that can be identified by a URL is called a

a. client.
b. server.
c. host.
d. resource.
e. gateway.

Answer: _____

18. When using HTTP, an application program that accepts connections in order to service requests by sending back responses is called a

a. client.
b. server.
c. host.
d. resource.
e. gateway.

Answer: _____

19. The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is an application-level protocol for setting up, modifying, and terminating real-time sessions between participants over an IP network. SIP supports five facets of establishing and terminating multimedia communications. Which of the following is NOT one of these facets?

a. User location
b. User type
c. User capabilities
d. Session setup
e. User availability

Answer: _____

20. SMTP is not concerned with the format or content of messages, except for two exceptions. Which two of the following are these exceptions?

a. SMTP standardizes the message character set as 7-bit ASCII.
b. SMTP standardizes the message length into multiples of the the packet size.
c. SMTP checks for virus content.
d. SMTP adds binary attachments to the content, when present.
e. SMTP adds log information to the start of the delivered message that indicates the path the message took.

Answers: ____________________

21. HTTP uses TCP for communication. TCP provides connections that are reliable and involve multiple message exchanges. Yet HTTP is said to be connectionless. Explain this apparent contradiction.

Answer:

Stallings Chapter 08 Exam INTERNET OPERATION

1. The source and destination address fields in the TCP header each contain a 32-bit Internet address.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. Most IP addresses consist of a network identification and a host identification within that network.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. The left-most bits of a IP address determine whether it is Class A, B, or C.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. Subnets are used where the number of networks exceeds the number of hosts within a specific company or organization.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. Two notable consumer electronic gadgets that are impacting the traffic load on networks are the digital versatile disc and the digital still camera.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. A digital versatile disc can store approximately 100 times more data than a CD-ROM.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

7. The Internet and the Internet Protocol is designed to provide differentiated services depending on whether traffic is elastic or inelastic.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. Typically, more complex routing protocols are used between autonomous systems within a larger internet and relatively simple routing protocols are used within each autonomous system.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. A QoS facility allows the Internet to treat all classes of traffic equally in order to optimize the services provided to all users.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. An internet routing protocol is used to exchange information about reachability and traffic delays, allowing each router to construct a next-hop routing table for paths through the internet.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

11. Which of the following describes class A networks?

a. Many networks, each with a few hosts
b. Medium number of networks, each with a medium number of hosts
c. Few networks, each with many hosts
d. A dedicated network, with a set number of hosts
e. A network dedicated to multicast applications

Answer: _____

12. Which of the following describes class B networks?

a. Many networks, each with a few hosts
b. Medium number of networks, each with a medium number of hosts
c. Few networks, each with many hosts
d. A dedicated network, with a set number of hosts
e. A network dedicated to multicast applications

Answer: _____

13. Which of the following describes class C networks?

a. Many networks, each with a few hosts
b. Medium number of networks, each with a medium number of hosts
c. Few networks, each with many hosts
d. A dedicated network, with a set number of hosts
e. A network dedicated to multicast applications

Answer: _____

14. The maximum number of Class A network addresses is

a. 16
b. 126
c. 128
d. 256
e. 16,384

Answer: _____

15. What is a subnet mask?

Answer:

16. Give one example of an Internet application with elastic traffic, and one of an application with inelastic traffic.

Answer:

17. Why is differentiated service necessary?

Answer:

Stallings Chapter 09 Exam LAN ARCHITECTURE AND PROTOCOLS

1. Even for large companies, isolated personal computers are often more than sufficient for current computer based tasks.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. One of the advantages of having a bottom up approach to building a LAN is that individual managers are very close to the group and therefore understand the needs of the department and can respond quickly .

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. One of the challenges when adopting a top down design approach to networks is that the company must understand the individual needs of each department and be responsive.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. Back-end Networks are used in situations where a few large computers must be connected for low-volume data transfers.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a network specifically designed to allow specific servers the ability to share local storage devices with each other.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. One rationale for not employing Local Area Network (LAN) technology for an entire premise is because there are differing levels of equipment, such as PCs, servers, and mainframes.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

7. Twisted pair wires are immune from all interference due to electromagnetic coupling because of the twisting of the wires.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. Coaxial cable is less susceptible to electromagnetic interference, but more expensive, when compared with twisted pair cables.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. The major difference between Category 3 UTP and Category 5 UTP is that the latter uses a larger sized wire for the conductors.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. The capacity of optical fiber cable is more than 1000 times greater than coaxial cables.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

11. Which of the following is NOT on of the typical characteristics of back-end networks?

a. High data rate
b. High-speed interface
c. Distributed access
d. Extended distance
e. Small number of devices

Answer: _____

12. Problems with using a single Local Area Network (LAN) to interconnect devices on a premise include

a. Insufficient reliability, limited capacity, and inappropriate network interconnection devices
b. Insufficient reliability, limited capacity, and limited distances
c. Insufficient reliability, limited distances, and inappropriate network interconnection devices
d. Limited distances, limited capacity, and inappropriate network interconnection devices
e. Limited distances, limited capacity, and limited sizes

Answer: _____

13. Which of following is NOT one of the design that determines data rate and distance?

a. The number of senders
b. The number of receivers
c. Interference
d. Transmission impairment
e. Bandwidth

Answer: _____

14. The fact that signal strength falls off with distance is called

a. bandwidth.
b. attenuation.
c. resistance.
d. propagation.
e. amplification.

Answer: _____

15. Which of the following is NOT one of the distinguishing characteristics for optical fiber cables compared with twisted pair or coaxial cables?

a. Greater capacity
b. Small size
c. Lower attenuation
d. Electromagnetic isolation
e. Heavier weight

Answer: _____

16. Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of a building wiring scheme using a structured cabling system?

a. The scheme refers to the wiring within a commercial building
b. The scheme must accommodate the need for separate cabling systems for each of data, voice, and video applications
c. The scope of the system includes cabling to support of all types of information transfer, including voice, LANs, video and image transmission, and other forms of data transmission
d. The cabling layout and cable selection is independent of vendor and end-user equipment
e. The cable layout is designed to encompass distribution to all work areas within the building, so that relocation of equipment does not require rewiring but simply requires plugging the equipment into a preexisting outlet in the new location

Answer: _____

17. When examining a MAC frame of data starting with the first bit, which of the following describes the order of the various headers found in the frame?

a. MAC, LLC, IP, and TCP
b. TCP, IP, MAC, and LLC
c. TCP, IP, LLC, and MAC
d. MAC, IP, TCP, and LLC
e. LLC, MAC, IP, and TCP

Answer: _____

18. Describe what is meant by structured cabling systems?

Answer:

Stallings Chapter 10 Exam ETHERNET

1. Network topology refers to the way individual end stations access the network prior to transmission of user data.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. The original commercial Ethernet, as well as the original IEEE 802.3 standard, operated at 100 Mps.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. On a bus topology LAN, each station can send and receive data to or from another station independent of other bus activity.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. A MAC frame includes various bit patterns to enable a receiver to correctly recognize key parts of the information contained in the frame.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. In the MAC frame, the start of frame delimited (SFD) provides the receiver with the starting point of meaningful data in the frame.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. Every MAC frame must include two addresses, which allows an alternative receiver to be designated in the event an error occurs.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

7. Two general approaches to connecting multiple LANs are bridges and switches.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. In general, the performance of a LAN declines with increased lengths of connections and/or the number of devices using it.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. Because of increased functionality of modern layer 2 switches, bridges have been replaced by these types of switches.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. A broadcast recipient address means that all devices connected to the LAN are to receive the message.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

11. A layer 3 switch is just another name for a router.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

12. Which of the following LAN technologies has the highest capacity?

a. Ethernet
b. Fast Ethernet
c. Fibre Channel
d. Wireless LAN
e. Gigabit Ethernet

Answer: _____

13. Which of the following is not one for the speeds found in modern Ethernet LAN?

a. 10 Mbps
b. 100 Mbps
c. 1 Gbps
d. 10 Gbps
e. 100 Gbps

Answer: _____

14. Describe how the CSMA/CD handles collisions.

Answer:

15. Define and contrast the functions of bridges, switches, and hubs.

Answer:

Stallings Chapter 11 Exam WIRELESS LANS

1. LAN Extension is an application of wireless technology in situations where it may be used as an alternative to installing additional wired LAN.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. Wireless LAN applications typically employ control modules that link wireless LANs to wired LANs.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. A wireless LAN is easier than wired LANs because there are fewer requirements for capacity and connectivity.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. The typical coverage area for a wireless LAN is 300 to 500 meters.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. One advantage of wireless LAN use is that any transmission frequency can be used as long as it does not interfere with other nearby applications.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. When using wireless network, roaming occurs when a mobile stations moves from one access point (or cell) to another.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

7. Infrared LANs are an economic alternative to spread spectrum LANs.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. The two frequency bands typically used by IEEE 802.11 wireless networks are located approximately at 900 MHz and 2.4 GHz.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. Typical ranges (distance between sender and receiver) for a wireless LAN are of the order 100 to 1000 meters.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. When using a wireless LAN with a notebook computer, it is necessary for the computer not to move while the connection is active.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

11. Bluetooth is an alternative name for WIFI.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

12. A significant problem when using wireless LANs or Bluetooth arises because other applications use the same frequency bands, which causes interference problems.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

13. A basic service set (BSS) is

a. the smallest building block of a wireless LAN
b. the same as an access point
c. the same as a control module
d. always connected to a backbone distribution system.
e. an isolated set of devices using wireless

Answer: _____

14. IEEE 802.11 defines a number of services that need to be provided by wireless LAN to provide functionality. Which of the following is not one of these services?

a. Association
b. Reassociation
c. Authentication
d. Coordination
e. Disassociation

Answer: _____

15. Explain how IEEE 802.11 and Bluetooth are the same and how they are different.

Answer:

16. What types of applications are using Bluetooth?

Answer:

Stallings Chapter 12 Exam CIRCUIT SWITCHING AND PACKET SWITCHING

1. In most networks, not every sender/receiver pair can be connected.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. Switching nodes are devices that enable data to be moved from senders to receivers.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. It is desirable to have only one path from sender to receiver to avoid excess costs.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. Having multiple paths from one station to another through a network contributes to reliability.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. Almost all wide area networks (WAN) user circuit switching.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. The public telephone network is a good example of a circuit switched network.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

7. In a circuit switching network, the path that will be used through the network is determined prior to any data transfer.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. Use of digital transmission for applications such as telephone requires that a dedicated connection be established across the network.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. In circuit switching networks, channel capacity between each pair of stations and/or nodes along the connection path must be reserved regardless if used or not.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. The major application that uses circuit switching networks is the telephone system, thus most data transferred using this type of network is voice traffic.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

11. Interconnection of computer systems is not reliable when using circuit switched networks.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

12. Basic packet switching technology has recently been developed to replace circuit switching.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

13. Data communications via circuit switching involves three phases. These phases are

a. connect, transfer, hangup
b. ring, talk, hangup
c. dial, transfer, disconnect
d. establishment, data transfer, disconnect
e. establishment, multiplex, hangup

Answer: _____

14. A public telecommunications network can be described using for generic components:

a. senders, receivers, lines, and nodes.
b. subscribers, local loops, exchanges, and trunks.
c. subscribers, trunks, nodes, and loops.
d. senders, receivers, exchanges, and trunks.
e. Local loops, subscriber lines, exchanges, and trunks.

Answer: _____

15. Control signaling on circuit switching networks performs a number of functions. Which of the following is NOT one of classes of function for control signaling?

a. establishment
b. supervisory
c. address
d. call information
e. network management

Answer: _____

16. Which of the following is NOT one of the stated advantages of packet switching over circuit switching?

a. There is less network delay.
b. Line efficiency is greater.
c. Data rate conversion can be provided.
d. Priorities can be used.
e. Connections are never rejected.

Answer: _____

17. Which of the following is NOT a reason for network jitter when using packet switching networks?

a. Packets may vary in length.
b. Switches may vary in the time required to process packets.
c. Packets may take different paths through the network.
d. Packets may encounter network congestion.
e. Data rates will vary from one trunk line to the next.

Answer: _____

18. Use of circuit switching networks for data connections, such as with computers, has two shortcomings. Describe these shortcomings.

Answer:

19. In a packet switching network, an approach where each packet of a message is treated independently when sent across the network is called the ______ approach.

Answer:

20. Describe the concept of virtual circuits within the context of packet switching networks.

Answer:

Stallings Chapter 13 Exam FRAME RELAY AND ATM

1. For the following list of protocols, place an “L” next to those that are LAN protocols and a “W” next to those that are WAN protocols.
Frame Relay
Token Ring
Ethernet
X.25
SONET
T-1
T-3
SMDS
ATM

Answer:

2. Selecting a WAN protocol for a particular business is a fairly simple task given current pricing structures and business traffic patterns.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. Traffic leaving a network or internal telephone system is separated into different lines and then sent to the service provider.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. X.25 uses out-of-band signaling.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. The inability of frame relay to do hop by hop error control is offset by

a. its gigabit speeds.
b. its high overhead.
c. the extensive use of in-band signaling.
d. the increasing reliability of networks.
e. the extensive use of out-of-band signaling.

Answer: _____

6. Frame Relay is a more streamlined communication process than X.25.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

7. All of the following are part of the LAPF core except

a. frame delimiting.
b. error correction.
c. frame correction.
d. congestion control.
e. sequencing.

Answer: _____

8. All Frame Relay nodes contain which of the following protocols?

a. LAPB
b. LAPD
c. LAPF Core
d. LAPF Control
e. CIR

Answer: _____

9. The technique employed by Frame Relay is called

a. inband signaling.
b. outband signaling.
c. common channel signaling.
d. open shortest path first routing.
e. spanning tree algorithm.

Answer: _____

10. The data contained within the Frame Relay address field is the

a. MAC address.
b. Virtual circuit identifier.
c. IP number.
d. Port number
e. Data link connection identifier.

Answer: _____

11. Systems using common channel signaling

a. employ a separate virtual channel for connection setup.
b. carry connection information within each frame.
c. use an expanded control field.
d. do not use channels.
e. also use common data channels.

Answer: _____

12. In Frame Relay systems congestion control is the responsibility both of end users and the network.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

13. Congestion recovery procedures are used to preserve the network during instances of high congestion when the network has begun to drop frames.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

14. Congestion avoidance procedures are employed when congestion starts to build up and increasing queue lengths are detected.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

15. Frames whose discard eligibility is set due to committed information rates are less likely to be removed from the network.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

16. Which of the following lists the items in order such that the associated channel capacities are increasing?

a. ATM, X.25, Frame Relay, and ISDN
b. ISDN, ATM, Frame Relay, and X.25.
c. ATM, Frame Relay, ISDN, and X.25
d. X.25, ISDN, Frame Relay, and ATM
e. ISDN, X.25, Frame Relay, and ATM

Answer: _____

17. In ATM, the basic transmission unit is the

a. frame.
b. cell.
c. packet.
d. circuit.
e. segment.

Answer: _____

18. The ATM connections are identified by

a. virtual paths within data link identifiers.
b. virtual channels within virtual paths.
c. virtual circuits within virtual paths.
d. virtual paths within virtual channels.
e. virtual circuits within data link identifiers.

Answer: _____

19. When using ATM, which of the following is NOT one of the advantages for the use of virtual paths

a. Less work is needed to set a virtual path.
b. The network architecture is simplified.
c. The network performance and reliability is enhanced.
d. Channel connection setup times are reduced.
e. Enhanced network services are available for users.

Answer: _____

20. When using ATM, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of virtual channel connections?

a. Quality of service can be specified.
b. All connections are switched.
c. Sequencing is provided.
d. Traffic patterns can be monitored.
e. Dedicated channels can be provided.

Answer: _____

21. The cell loss priority within the ATM cell is similar to the DE bit in Frame Relay.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

22. One of the reasons for ATMs high rate of speed in the fact that the protocol does no pre-connection setup and therefore there is no delay.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

23. Due to the fixed cell size, the processing of ATM cells is faster than protocols employing a variable length cell.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

24. Because of the high speeds involved and the small amount of overhead, when compared to Frame Relay, congestion control in ATM networks is more complex.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

25. ATM provides a flexible set of traffic control mechanisms that are based on the type of user data.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

Stallings Chapter 14 Exam WIRELESS WANS

1. Wireless networks are more susceptible than wired networks to interference, signal loss, noise, and eavesdropping.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. Wireless networks compete effectively in terms of data transfer rates when compared with wired networks.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. When using wireless networks, there are limitations on which frequencies can be used for the channels.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. Prior to cellular radio, mobile radio and telephone services required

a. a high-power transmitter/receiver.
b. multiple transmitters/receivers.
c. only one or two dedicated channels.
d. that many channels be used, which exceed the frequency capacity.
e. wired networks for support.

Answer: _____

5. When using cellular networks,

a. a single base station can serve multiple cells.
b. adjacent cells must use the same frequencies.
c. adjacent cells are assigned different frequencies.
d. non-adjacent cells are assigned different frequencies.
e. non-adjacent cells can use any frequency.

Answer: _____

6. The ideal design for cells in a cellular network is a hexagonal shape because

a. this makes enforcement of shapes easier.
b. this is the easiest to implement.
c. this makes all frequencies available to all cells.
d. makes the distance to all adjacent cells the same.
e. all cells can be isolated.

Answer: _____

7. When using a wireless systems, you are limited in how often you can use the same frequency band for different communications because the signals are not constrained and can interfere with each other even when separated geographically.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. In cellular communications systems, base stations (BS) are located in the geographic center of cells and handle communications between mobile units and the rest of the network.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. Each mobile telecommunications switch office is connected to one base station and provides a management interface between that base station and the rest of the network.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. The two types of channels that are available between the mobile unit and the base station are ______________ and _______________.

Answer:

11. The specific base station that communicates with the mobile unit is selected by the MTSO based on the strength of the signal received from the mobile unit.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

12. The base station selected for communication with a mobile unit is always the one closest to the current location of the unit.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

13. When a mobile unit moves, it may connect with a different base station. This action is called

a. a handoff.
b. a transfer.
c. a reconfiguration.
d. a dropped signal.
e. an intertower pickup.

Answer: _____

14. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways that frequency spectrum can be divided among active users?

a. frequency division multiple access
b. time division multiple access
c. code division multiple access
d. space division multiple access
e. cell division multiple access

Answer: _____

15. First generation mobile telephone systems used analog voice communication based on amplitude modulation.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

16. Because of the limited frequencies available, a key design element of any cellular system is to

a. use small cells.
b. employ multiple access.
c. limit the number of users at one time.
d. use as many frequencies as possible.
e. use as few frequencies as possible.

Answer: _____

17. The objective of the third generation of wireless communication is to provide high speed wireless communications to support multimedia, data, and video, in addition to voice.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

18. The idea of universal personal telecommunications refers to the capability of using one’s terminal in a wide variety of environments to connect to information services.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

19. The Wireless Application Protocol (WAP) is

a. proprietary protocol developed in the USA for wireless security.
b. dependent on the specific network technologies employed.
c. an Internet standard that replaces HTML, HTTP, and XML.
d. designed to overcome many of the limitations hindering acceptance of mobile data services.
e. used primarily with mobile paging systems.

Answer: _____

20. Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the WAP specification?

a. A framework for wireless telephony applications
b. A full-featured communications protocol stack
c. A programming model based on the WWW
d. A markup language adhering to XML
e. A specification of a small browser

Answer: _____

21. The WAP Programming Model uses a ________ that acts as a proxy server for the wireless domain.

a. translator
b. WAP server
c. decoder
d. compressor
e. gateway

Answer: _____

22. Satellite communications is comparable in importance to optical fiber in the evolution of telecommunications and data communications.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

23. Which of the following is a problem when using Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO) satellites?

a. Tracking of the satellite position requires a computerized control system.
b. Large portions of the earth are out of reach of the systems.
c. The Doppler effect causes problems.
d. Because of distance, there are significant time delays in transmission times.
e. Only a few satellites can be position in orbit at any one time.

Answer: _____

24. The two alternative satellite schemes to GEO are

a. WAP and MEO
b. LEO and MEO
c. LEO and WAP
d. VSAT and WAP
e. VSAT and DBS

Answer: _____

Stallings Chapter 15 Exam DATA TRANSMISSION

1. Electromagnetic signals

a. are used only for optics.
b. are used for analog and digital signals.
c. are used for digital signals only.
d. are used for analog signals only.
e. are used for both optics and digital signals.

Answer: _____

2. Analog signals differ from digital signals in that

a. analog signals are represented vs. time while digital signals are measured vs. frequency.
b. analog signals are periodic, digital signals are not.
c. analog signals are continuous while digital signals remain at one constant level and then move to another constant level.
d. analog signals operate a higher frequencies than digital signals.
e. digital signals operate at higher frequencies than analog signals.

Answer: _____

3. Given a frequency of 60 Hz (cycles per second), the period of the signal is

a. 0.166667 sec.
b. 0.166667 Hz.
c. one second.
d. 60 seconds.
e. 1 Hz.

Answer: _____

4. A sine wave is a periodic signal that

a. has equal phase, frequency and amplitude.
b. can be either digital or analog.
c. has a maximum peak amplitude equal to it’s frequency.
d. has a frequency that is less than its amplitude.
e. can be measured in terms of it’s amplitude, frequency and phase.

Answer: _____

5. Convert 1 1/2 p radians to degrees.

a. 45
b. 90
c. 180
d. 270
e. 360

Answer: _____

6. The wavelength of an analog signal is

a. the distance traveled by the wave in the time defined by it’s period.
b. the distance traveled by the wave in one second.
c. the distance traveled by the wave during its period.
d. the period of the wave.
e. the amplitude of the wave.

Answer: _____

7. Given a frequency of 1000 Hz and a speed of 3X108 m/s (speed of light) what is the wavelength of the signal?

a. 1000 m
b. 3 m
c. 3×108 m
d. 3×105 m
e. 3×103 m

Answer: _____

8. The spectrum of a signal is

a. the lowest frequency value subtracted from the highest .
b. the range of frequencies in the signal.
c. all of the frequencies from 0 to the highest frequency used.
d. the average of the highest frequency and the lowest.
e. the average of the lowest frequency used.

Answer: _____

9. The bandwidth of a signal is

a. the width of the spectrum.
b. the average of the frequencies.
c. the range of frequencies in the signal.
d. the maximum amplitude of the signal.
e. the minimum amplitude in the signal.

Answer: _____

10. The frequency of human speech is in the range of

a. 20-1000 Hz.
b. 20-3400 Hz.
c. 300-3400 Hz.
d. 20-20,000 Hz.
e. 10-25,000 Hz.

Answer: _____

11. The loudness of a signal is measured by its amplitude.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

12. In the telephone system, conversations are reproduced using the range from 300-3400 Hz in order to limit the required capacity of transmission lines.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

13. Given a resolution of 320 pixels x 240 pixels, 1 byte of color information per pixel and a transmission rate of 30 frames per second, calculate the bandwidth necessary for this signal

a. 18.4 Mbps
b. 2.3 Mbps
c. 18.4 Kbps
d. 6 Mbps
e. 4 Mbps

Answer: _____

14. Digital signaling usually means that the information being conveyed is binary.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

15. Convert 45 to binary.

a. 110101
b. 101101
c. 011111
d. 100011
e. 100 101

Answer: _____

16. Attenuation is the reduction in signal strength as the signal propagates down the transmission path.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

17. Attenuation is greater at lower frequencies.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

18. In order to completely compensate for attenuation, the signal generated must be at least as high in strength than the noise of the channel

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

19. Delay distortion is due to

a. wait times between keyboard entry and actual transmission of data.
b. portions of the signal arriving at the destination at different times.
c. varying levels of signal strength.
d. the difference between fiber and copper transmission properties.
e. line attenuation.

Answer: _____

20. In general, noise can be defined as

a. loud, high amplitude signals.
b. errors in transmission.
c. signals generated by internetworking equipment.
d. analog signals instead of digital.
e. unwanted energy or signals on the transmission path.

Answer: _____

21. Match each of the following with the definitions.

___ 1. thermal noise
___ 2. intermodulation noise
___ 3. crosstalk
___ 4. impulse noise

a. noise generated by agitation of the electrons in a conductor
b. irregular pulses or spikes of high amplitude caused by external sources
irregular pulses or spikes of high amplitude used by external sources
c. unwanted coupling between signal paths
d. signal produced on a line that is the sum or difference of the signals that created it

22. Because of it’s characteristics, free space loss is a particular problems in

a. microwave tower transmissions.
b. wide area network transmissions.
c. dial up or modem transmissions.
d. satellite transmissions
e. LANs

Answer: _____

23. Atmospheric absorption occurs because of

a. the distances traversed in atmospheric transmission.
b. the water and oxygen content.
c. pollution and carbon content.
d. nitrogen content.
e. the ozone layer.

Answer: _____

24. Multipath problems are particularly problematic in line of sight applications.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

25. Refraction refers to the bending of the signal.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

26. Referring to Shannon’s equation, in order to increase the data rate of a signal, we need only increase the bandwidth.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

Stallings Chapter 16 Exam DATA COMMUNICATIONS

1. Analog signals are

a. continuous.
b. discrete.
c. discontinuous.
d. Both A and B.
e. Both B and C.

Answer: _____

2. Digital signals are

a. continuous.
b. discrete.
c. discontinuous.
d. Both A and B.
e. Both B and C.

Answer: _____

3. In modern communication systems, data is sent from one point to another via

a. input data.
b. alternating current (A/C).
c. pressure changes.
d. electromagnetic signals.
e. direct current (D/C).

Answer: _____

4. Analog signals are less susceptible to noise interference and are more prone to attenuation than digital signals

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. Except for digital cellular telephones, copper wire is required for digital transmission.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. One of the main differences between amplifiers and repeaters is that

a. amplifiers forward noise as well as data.
b. amplifiers clean the signal and then forward it.
c. amplifiers increase the amount of attenuation.
d. amplifiers focus primarily on digital signals.
e. amplifiers focus primarily on analog signals.

Answer: _____

7. Identify each of the following as either analog or digital signals. Use A if analog and D if digital.

Whales
Human voice
Computer bus communication
Cellular telephones
Satellite transmission
T-1 circuits

Answer:

8. An encoding scheme is used

a. in digital transmission to map binary digits to signal elements.
b. in analog transmission to clean up the quality of the transmission.
c. to help minimize errors.
d. A, B, and C.
e. A and B only.

Answer: _____

9. Analog encoding of digital information modulates a wave known as the
carrier in terms of its phase, frequency or amplitude.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. For amplitude, frequency or phase shift keying, that respective characteristic of the carrier wave is changed to indicate the next binary digit. These binary digits can be represented by this signal change or a lack of signal change.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

11. Each signal change or element is called a

a. bit.
b. byte.
c. baud.
d. signal.
e. digit.

Answer: _____

12. A carrier wave is modulated with 4 amplitudes and 4 phase changes. How many possible signal combinations are there?

a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
e. 64

Answer: _____

13. A carrier wave is modulated with 4 amplitudes and 4 phase changes. How many bits can be represented with each signal change?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

Answer: _____

14. Match each of the following with its description.

___ 1. Pulse code modulation
___ 2. LAN transmission
___ 3. Modem transmission
___ 4. Telephone transmission

a. analog data, analog encoding
b. analog data, digital encoding.
c. digital data, digital encoding
d. digital data, analog encoding

15. In Non Return to Zero encoding schemes, the signal or voltage level does not return to 0v (zero volts). One of the problems with this type of encoding is that

a. it does not work well with serial communications.
b. it is designed primarily for high speed communications only.
c. the signal ground of the transmitter is often different from that of the receiver
d. it works only for analog signals.
e. it is sometimes difficult to synchronize the timing of the transmitter and the receiver.

Answer: _____

16. In order to compensate for synchronization problems, another type of encoding method called biphase can be employed. These methods place a clock pulse within the data stream.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

17. It is difficult to use low frequencies for unguided radio transmission of data because the antenna dishes would have to be extremely large.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

18. Asynchronous transmission includes a start and stop bit with each character transmitted to ensure

a. that the total number of bits is a factor of 10.
b. to allow a continuous stream of data.
c. to prevent single bit errors from occurring.
d. to allow the receiver to maintain synchronization with the sender.
e. to allow variable length encoding schemes.

Answer: _____

19. The efficiency of an asynchronous transmission using 1 stop bit, 1 start bit and 1 parity bit is

a. 20 %.
b. 30 %.
c. 50 %.
d. 70 %.
e. 80 %.

Answer: _____

20. Synchronous serial transmissions are frame based, require the use of a preamble and are more efficient than asynchronous serial transmissions.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

21. Standards are important when devices must communicate together. The four characteristics governed by these standards are

a. mechanical, electrical, functional, and procedural.
b. electrical, physical, functional, and signaling.
c. fundamental, mechanical, procedural, and protocol.
d. protocol, fundamental, physical, and signaling.
e. physical, virtual, electrical, and functional.

Answer: _____

22. Error detection requires that extra bits be introduced into the data stream.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

23. Parity checking for error detection is most reliable for checking communications using high data rates.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

24. An error detecting scheme that employs a unique prime number is called

a. parity checking.
b. frame sequence checking.
c. error checking and error correcting.
d. cyclic redundancy check.
e. synchronous redundancy check.

Answer: _____

Stallings Chapter 17 Exam DATA LINK CONTROL AND MULTIPLEXING

1. Stop-and-wait is the simplest form of flow control.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. Sliding window is one form of error control.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. The two commonly used forms of ARQ are “stop-and-wait” and “go back N”.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. HDLC uses CRC for error detection.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. Data link control protocols are typically used only in asynchronous communication.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. Match each of the following elements of the HDLC protocol with the item that best describes it.

___ 1. information
___ 2. flag
___ 3. control
___ 4. address
___ 5. frame check sequence

a. Contains a 16- or 32-bit cyclic redundancy check used for error detection
b. Appears at the beginning and end of the frame; used for synchronization
c. Indicates the secondary station in a transmission
d. Contains the user data to be transmitted
e. Identifies the function and purpose of the frame

7. Provide the full name for each of the following acronyms
ARQ
CRC
HDLC
FCS
LLC

Answer:

8. Which of the following is NOT a common component of an error control process?

a. Error detection
b. Positive acknowledgement
c. Retransmission after timeout
d. Negative acknowledgment and retransmission
e. Damaged frame.

Answer: _____

9. The types of frames used in HDLC are

a. Exchanged information, information, and unnumbered.
b. Information, supervisory, and unnumbered.
c. Information, supervisory, and control.
d. Information, supervisory, and exchange.
e. Supervisory, unnumbered, and set synchronous.

Answer: _____

10. Briefly define and explain ARQ.

Answer:

11. What are the three phases of HDLC?

Answer:

12. What is the primary difference between stop-and-wait flow control and sliding-window flow-control.

Answer:

13. Explain what a frame check sequence is.

Answer:

14. Which of the following is a generic term that describes sharing of a communications channel by multiple communicating stations?

a. HDLC
b. Multiprogramming
c. Multi-access channels
d. Digital channels
e. Multiplexing

Answer: _____

15. A multiplexing technique where multiple users use distinct carrier frequencies separated such that the modulated signals do not overlap is called

a. frequency division multiplexing.
b. time division multiplexing.
c. separate channel multiplexing.
d. common channel multiplexing.
e. separate frequency multiplexing.

Answer: _____

16. A multiplexing technique where multiple users use distinct time slots such that the transmitted bits are shared by all users is called

a. frequency division multiplexing.
b. time division multiplexing.
c. separate channel multiplexing.
d. common channel multiplexing.
e. separate frequency multiplexing.

Answer: _____

17. Present-day television, both broadcast and cable employ

a. frequency division multiplexing.
b. time division multiplexing.
c. separate channel multiplexing.
d. common channel multiplexing.
e. separate frequency multiplexing.

Answer: _____

18. Which of the following is NOT one of the example applications of T-1 leased transmission facilities?

a. Cable television systems
b. Private data networks
c. Video teleconferencing
d. Internet access
e. High-speed digital facsimile

Answer: _____

19. The term SONET corresponds to

a. special operations networking environment testing.
b. synchronous optical networking environment testing.
c. synchronous operational networking.
d. system optical networking.
e. synchronous optical network.

Answer: _____

20. SONET/SDH signal payload speeds range

a. from 902 Mbps to 1.53 Gbps.
b. from 50 Mbps to 1.53 Gbps.
c. from 50 Mbps to 1.53 Gbps.
d. from 1.80 Mbps to 2.4 Mbps
e. from 1.8 Mbps to 153 Gbps.

Answer: _____

Stallings Chapter 18 Exam

1. Data confidentiality assures that individuals control or influence what information related to them may be collected and stored.

a. True
b. False (the definition refers to privacy)

Answer: _____

2. The three key objectives of computer security are confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. Repudiation refers to a user either denying sending data or a user denying receiving or possessing the data.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. Traffic analysis is an active attack.

a. True
b. False (it is passive)

Answer: _____

5. A masquerader is a legitimate user who accesses data, programs, or resources for which such access is not authorized.

a. True
b. False (that is a misfeasor)

Answer: _____

6. All parasitic malware is software that replicates.

a. True
b. False (logic bombs are parasitic but do not replicate, for example)

Answer: _____

7. A backdoor is the same as a trapdoor.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. A logic bomb is a useful, or apparently useful, program or command procedure containing hidden code that, when invoked, performs some unwanted or harmful function.

a. True
b. False (that describes a Trojan Horse)

Answer: _____

9. Most viruses carry out their work in a manner that is specific to a particular operating system.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. A virus can be prepended or postpended to an executable program, or it can be embedded in some other fashion.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

11. A macro virus is a larger and more self-contained than an ordinary virus.

a. True
b. False (a macro virus infects files with macro code)

Answer: _____

12. An encrypted virus can only be triggered after an external software program is triggered to decrypt the virus.

a. True
b. False (the virus encrypts and decrypts a portion of itself)

Answer: _____

13. A stealth virus is explicitly designed to hide itself from detection by antivirus software.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

14. A worm is a program that can replicate itself and send copies from computer to computer across network connections.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

15. Important objectives of computer security include:

a. Confidentiality
b. Integrity
c. Availability
d. All of the above

Answer: _____

16. One type of attack on the security of a computer system or network that impacts the availability of a system (e.g. destruction of a resource in the system) is referred to as:

a. Interruption
b.Interception
c. Modification
d. All of the above

Answer: _____

17. The type of attack on communications lines and networks known as traffic analysis belongs to the general category of:

a. Active attacks
b. Passive attacks
c. Administrative attacks
d. None of the above

Answer: _____

18. Of the three classes of intruders into computer systems and networks, the clandestine user is typically:

a. An insider to the organization
b. An outsider to the organization
c. Either an insider or an outsider to the organization
d. None of the above

Answer: _____

19. Which of the following is not an example of intrusion:

a. Guessing and cracking passwords
b. Running a packet sniffer on a workstation to capture user names and passwords
c. Using an unattended, logged-in workstation without permission
d. All of the above are examples of intrusion

Answer: _____

20. A secret entry point into a program that allows intruders aware of the breached area to gain access and bypass the usual security access procedures is called a:

a. Logic bomb
b. Trojan horse
c. Virus
d. None of the above

Answer: _____

21. The stage of a virus where it is activated to perform the function for which it was intended is referred to as the:

a. Propagation phase
b. Triggering phase
c. Execution phase
d. None of the above

Answer: _____

22. A virus can be attached to a program by:

a. Prepending
b. Postpending
c. Embedding other than at the beginning or end
d. All of the above

Answer: _____

23. Which of the following statements regarding macro viruses is true:

a. A macro virus is platform independent
b. Macro viruses infect documents, not executable portions of code
c. Macro viruses are easily spread
d. All of the above

Answer: _____

24. Which of the following statements is generally true regarding the original class of email viruses:

a. It sends itself to selected names on the user’s email mailing list
b. Arrive in email attachments
c. Usually do no local damage on the infected machine
d. All of the above

Answer: _____

25. The network vehicle used for worm propagation is:

a. Electronic mail facility
b. Remote execution capability
c. Remote login capability
d. All of the above

Answer: _____

26. A worm that can attack a variety of OSs rather than a single OS such as Windows is:

a.Multiplatform
b. Multi-exploit
c. Polymorphic
d. Metamorphic

Answer: _____

27. The primary mechanism used in implementing denial-of-service attacks is the:

a. Worm
b. Trojan horse
c. Bot
d. All of the above

Answer: _____

Stallings Chapter 19 Exam

1. Ipsec is based primarily upon the DES standard.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. Transport mode in IPSec provides protection to the entire IP packet.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. IPSec provides authentication, encryption, and key exchange functions.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. SSL performs encryption first, followed by computing a message authentication code.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. IEEE 802.11i consists of two main functions: authentication and access control.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. A security intrusion is defined as a successful attempt by a user to gain access to a system or system resource without proper authorization.

a. True
b. False (an unsuccessful attempt is also considered an intrusion)

Answer: _____

7. Typically, a firewall is inserted between the premises network and the Internet to establish a controlled link and to erect an outer security wall or perimeter.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8, Generic decryption (GD) technology enables the antivirus program to easily detect even the most complex polymorphic viruses while maintaining fast scanning speeds.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. IPSec transport mode provides protection primarily for:

a. the Internet layer
b. upper-layer protocols
c. network and link-layer protocols
d. all of the above

Answer: _____

10. The higher-layer protocols defined as part of SSL include:

a. handshake protocol
b. change cipher spec protocol
c. alert protocol
d. all of the above

Answer: _____

11. The WiFi standard known as Privacy with message integrity can be described as follows:

a. A way of ensuring the privacy of the individual using WiFi
b. A technique that ensures that the data transmitted using WiFi have not been altered
c. A way of providing mutual authentication between a user and an AS
d. None of the above

Answer: _____

12. A key logical component of an IDS is:

a. sensors
b. analyzers
c. user interface
d. all of the above

Answer: _____

13. A stateful inspection firewall

a. applies a set of rules to each incoming and outgoing IP packet and then forwards or discards the packet
b. controls TCP traffic by creating a directory of outbound TCP connections
c. acts as a relay of application-level traffic
d. sets up two TCP connections, one between itself and a TCP user on an inner host and one between itself and a TCP user on an outside host

Answer: _____

14. Which of the following is not a central element of a typical antivirus scheme

a. detection
b. identification
c. removal
d. deterrence

Answer: _____

15. For VPNs, both authentication and are generally desired.

Ans: _____

16. SSL is designed to make use of TCP to provide .

Ans: _____

17. IEEE 802.11i makes use of another standard that was designed to provide access control functions for LANs. The standard is .

Ans: _____

18. The firewall cannot protect against attacks that the firewall

Ans: _____

Stallings Chapter 20 Exam NETWORK MANAGEMENT

1. When a network fault occurs, it is important to isolate the fault area from the rest of the network.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

2. User requirements are a critical part of determining network management requirements.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

3. SNMP was developed for use on TCP/IP networks.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

4. SNMP operates using the TCP protocol.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

5. SNMP “trap” messages are generated by the management station.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

6. The most important characteristic of a network is availability.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

7. A network fault is another name for a network error.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

8. SNMPv4 is the current standard for network management.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

9. Software performance monitors are typically less expensive than hardware performance monitors.

a. True
b. False

Answer: _____

10. Fault management deals with

a. Facilities needed to evaluate the behavior of managed objects and the effectiveness of communication
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment

Answer: _____

11. Accounting management deals with

a. Facilities needed to evaluate the behavior of managed objects and the effectiveness of communication
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment

Answer: _____

12. Configuration and name management deals with

a. Facilities needed to evaluate the behavior of managed objects and the effectiveness of communication
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment

Answer: _____

13. Performance management deals with

a. Facilities needed to evaluate the behavior of managed objects and the effectiveness of communication
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment

Answer: _____

14. Security management deals with

a. Facilities needed to evaluate the behavior of managed objects and the effectiveness of communication
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment

Answer: _____

15. Which of the following was intended to correct security deficiencies in network management?

a. SNMP
b. SNMPv1
c. SNMPv2
d. SNMPv3
e. SNMPv4

Answer: _____

CIS 505 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer University New

CIS/505 Week 5 Discussion Questions

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Week 5 DQ 1
Routing and Switching Selection Criteria. Please respond to the following:

• Compare and contrast distance-vector and link state routing, and analyze the limitations that would prevent the usage of each.
• Choose the method best suited for designing a new routing protocol for a LAN architecture. Justify your decision.

Week 5 DQ 2
Transmission Medium. Please respond to the following:

• Suggest a way to improve the way LLC and MAC are used for LAN operation.
• Evaluate guided and unguided transmission medium to determine which you would use to design a new facility.

CIS 505 Week 5 Assignment 3 – Strayer University New

CIS 505 Assignment 3: Elastic and Inelastic Traffic
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Due Week 5 and worth 60 points
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
1. Outline a plan for the development of an addressing and naming model in an environment of the following scenario:
a. Ten (10) departments in a 1,000-employee organization
b. Equal separation by geography
c. Use a common data center of twenty (20) backend enterprise servers
2. Analyze the functional problems of throughput, delay, and packet loss as it pertains to your plan.
3. Analyze and explain how you would use DNS in your plan.
4. Compose a two-paragraph executive summary highlighting the main points of your plan.
5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.

CIS 505 – Strayer University NEW

CIS/505 Complete Class Assignments – DQ’s – Strayer

CIS 505 Assignment 1: Standards Research
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Due Week 2 and worth 60 points
The following Website may be used for reference to complete this assignment. The Website represents an electronic document titled “Standards Organizations” written by William Stallings (2009), located at http://www.box.net/shared/9dtnzvwys8/1/15730219/164146343/1.
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
1. Select one (1) of the working groups in the IETF or IEEE and briefly summarize what this group is working on.
2. Justify the need of the IEEE 802 standard used in networking.
3. Evaluate the three (3) standard organizations including IEEE, ISO, and ANSI to determine the most important for communication technology.
4. Take a position on the need for a federal regulating body of standards such as NIST. Include supporting evidence to justify your opinion.
5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

CIS 505 Assignment 2: Requirements for the Corporate Computing Function
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Due Week 3 and worth 60 points
Your new corporate CIO has devised a nine-point mission statement for the company. As one of the operations managers in the department, you have received a memo on the new policy and an associated task. The CIO wants to address the new strategy in a three-phase rollout plan and wants your feedback on LAN and MAN technology. Refer to Table 3.1 in Chapter 3 of the textbook for the nine points of the mission statement.
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
6. From Table 3.1, speculate why the fifth point, “Meet information requirements of management”, is in the CIO’s list of nine (9) points.
7. Imagine only three (3) points are to be rolled out in the first phase. Evaluate each point to determine the most important three (3) for the initial rollout phase.
8. Recommend one (1) additional point the CIO should include in order to ensure the topic of security is addressed in the mission statement. Explain your rationale for the inclusion.
9. Use at least four (4) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.

CIS 505 Assignment 3: Elastic and Inelastic Traffic
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Due Week 5 and worth 60 points
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
10. Outline a plan for the development of an addressing and naming model in an environment of the following scenario:
Ten (10) departments in a 1,000-employee organization
Equal separation by geography
Use a common data center of twenty (20) backend enterprise servers
11. Analyze the functional problems of throughput, delay, and packet loss as it pertains to your plan.
12. Analyze and explain how you would use DNS in your plan.
13. Compose a two-paragraph executive summary highlighting the main points of your plan.
14. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.

CIS 505 Assignment 4: Services in Your Area
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Due Week 8 and worth 60 points
Research DSL and cable modem services available closest to your community. You may use neighboring communities or regions if your community does not have access to DSL or cable modem services. Researched material must be focused on the technical aspects of DSL and cable modem services. Marketed documents, white papers, or other advertisements may not be used for the completion of this assignment.
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
15. Identify the DSL and cable modem services referenced in this assignment and the region(s) in which they operate.
16. Create a diagram of the DSL and Cable Modem connections to your ISP, cable organization, and telecom to your home router using Visio or its open source alternative software. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
17. Compare and evaluate the speeds of DSL and cable modem that you researched.
18. Compare and evaluate the cost of DSL and cable modem that you researched.
19. Compare and evaluate the reliability of DSL and cable modem that you researched.
20. Recommend DSL or cable modem based on the previous comparison and evaluation of services available closest to your region. Explain your recommendation.
21. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.
Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or Dia. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

CIS 505 Assignment 5: Wireless Technology
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Due Week 9 and worth 60 points
There are a number of cellular phone companies each serving their own unique geographical areas. Likewise, they each may use a different technology to transfer communication. Research the pros and cons 3G and 4G technologies and its role in today’s applications.
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
22. Compare the pros and cons of 3G and 4G technology to determine the best uses of 3G and 4G technology in today’s applications.
23. Describe how an enterprise would use 3G, 4G, WWAN, and WIAMX to improve business. Explain why they would use one (1) solution over the remaining three (3).
24. Analyze the changes in 4G technology since the printing of the textbook in 2009 and identify those of importance for a user of 4G technology.
25. Take a position on the following statement, “Wireless application protocol is a necessity for wireless communication organizations and their users.” Then, explain your position with supporting evidence.
26. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.

CIS 505 Case Study 2: ING Life
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Due Week 6 and worth 75 points
Read the case study titled “ING Life” found at the end of Chapter 7.
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
27. Assess the probable difficulties and risks associated with using a public infrastructure such as the Internet as part of a business solution.
28. Analyze ING’s solution for providing security to determine if the solution is adequate or inadequate. Provide a rationale for your answer.
29. Critique the extranet solution and recommend one (1) change to the solution to provide better connectivity to brokers.
30. Use at least two (2) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.

CIS 505 Case Study 3: Carlson Companies
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Due Week 7 and worth 75 points
Read the case study titled “Carlson Companies” found at the end of Chapter 10.
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
31. Assess how the Carlson SAN approach would be implemented in today’s environment.
32. Compare the pros and cons of consolidating data on a SAN central data facility versus the dispersed arrangement it replaces.
33. Evaluate the issues raised from the Carlson SAN mixing equipment from a number of vendors and determine the management options for dealing with this type of situation.
34. Justify the reduction of administration and management of storage networking through Carlson’s IP SAN.
35. Assess how cloud computing could be used by Carlson instead of a SAN. Create a diagram using Visio or its open source alternative software to illustrate the use of cloud computing. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
36. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.
Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or Dia. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

CIS 505 Term Paper: Networking
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Due Week 10 and worth 175 points
Select one (1) of the following topics in which you will base your responses in the form of a term paper:
37. Network Neutrality IPv6
38. Web2.0 WWAN
39. Wireless Technology WLAN
40. Broadband Convergence DNSSEC
41. U.S. Telecommunication Policy WAN
42. Internet Security 
Write a ten to fifteen (10-15) page paper in which you:
Compose an executive summary highlighting the paper’s contents and reasoning for your chosen topic.
Conduct a SWOT analysis by analyzing the strengths, weaknesses, application opportunities, and threats from competitors of the chosen topic.
Evaluate the current ethical and legal concerns surrounding your topic.
Select one (1) ethical or legal concern surrounding your topic, take a position on the issue, and provide rationale.
Analyze the improvements over the last two (2) years to your communication technology topic, and suggest an improvement based on its current usage.
Predict the future role of the communication technology you’ve selected for both personal and commercial use.
Create a diagram that illustrates the communication structure of your chosen technology in Visio or its open source alternative software. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
Use at least eight (8) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.
Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or Dia. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

CIS 505 Week 1 Discussion Questions

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Week 1 DQ 1
Trends in Communications and Networking. Please respond to the following:

• Compare the direction of current and past trends in both communication and networking and explain how these changes have impacted business.
• Analyze why the burden on managers is greater today than in previous years when it comes to using technology efficiently. Give two examples that defend this claim.

Week 1 DQ 2
Understanding Response Time. Please respond to the following:

• Identify an acceptable system response time for interactive applications. Compare how this response time relates to an acceptable response time for Websites.
• Suggest two real-world examples of user and system response times that demonstrate their importance and significance.

CIS 505 Week 2 Discussion Questions

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Week 2 DQ 1
Mainframes. Please respond to the following:

• Take a position on the following statement, “Mainframe computers are still needed even though personal computers and workstations have increased in capabilities.” Defend your position by providing at least one example to support your position.
• Analyze the differences between distributed data processing and centralized data processing. Provide an example of each. Then compare each to the processing used in cloud computing.

Week 2 DQ 2
Circuit Switching and Packet Switching. Please respond to the following:

• Cite two examples of a circuit switch and packet switch environment. Base one example on a circuit switch and the other on a packet switch. Describe the trade-off between the two technologies and the reason why packet switching is more appropriate for the Internet.
• Assuming your daily routine stayed the same, speculate the problems you would have if the Internet didn’t exist. Speculate the problems of a familiar organization given the same scenario.

CIS 505 Week 3 Discussion Questions

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Week 3 DQ 1
IPv6 Adoption. Please respond to the following:

• Take a position on the idea of IPv6 being hailed as the next generation of the Internet. Support your response with evidence or examples.
• Critique the adoption and deployment of IPv6, and determine the security and networking issues associated with this process.

Week 3 DQ 2
Fat Clients and Servers. Please respond to the following:

• Provide a scenario in which the use of fat servers would be preferred over the use of fat clients. Describe why fat servers, rather than fat clients, should be used in your scenario.
• Compare the pros and cons of Intranets to those of the Internet from an organizational perspective. Suggest one way to integrate the two and the benefits this may bring.

CIS 505 Week 4 Discussion Questions

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Week 4 DQ 1
HTTP and HTTPS. Please respond to the following:

• Analyze the current uses of HTTP and HTTPS, and predict the future outlook for both protocols. Describe any foreseen changes in the frequency or way each protocol is used.
• Identify the various uses for HTTP and HTTPS, and justify the use of one over the other. Include two examples to demonstrate the use of each protocol.

Week 4 DQ 2
Elastic and Inelastic. Please respond to the following:

• Provide three examples of inelastic traffic not discussed in the text and validate their inclusion as inelastic.
• Analyze the characteristics of elastic traffic to determine why this is used on the Internet.

CIS 505 Week 5 Discussion Questions

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Week 5 DQ 1
Routing and Switching Selection Criteria. Please respond to the following:

• Compare and contrast distance-vector and link state routing, and analyze the limitations that would prevent the usage of each.
• Choose the method best suited for designing a new routing protocol for a LAN architecture. Justify your decision.

Week 5 DQ 2
Transmission Medium. Please respond to the following:

• Suggest a way to improve the way LLC and MAC are used for LAN operation.
• Evaluate guided and unguided transmission medium to determine which you would use to design a new facility.

CIS 505 Week 6 Discussion Questions

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Week 6 DQ 1
Ethernet Options. Please respond to the following:

• Compare the advantages of ATM and Gigabit Ethernet technologies as high-speed networking solutions. Describe how to migrate from Fast Ethernet to Gigabit Ethernet, and to 10-Gbps Ethernet.
• Compare and contrast the advantages of Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, and 10-Gbps Ethernet.

Week 6 DQ 2
Wireless LAN. Please respond to the following:

• Analyze the characteristics of wireless LANs and assess the security concerns of this technology in organizations such as universities or hospitals. Identify additional areas of concern for organizations that implement a wireless LAN. Then, explain whether the implementation of a WAN would solve these problems. Explain your rationale.
• Rank the following IEEE 802.11 standard addresses in order of importance with the first one being the most important. Justify the reason for your chosen order.

o Association
o Re-association
o Disassociation
o Authentication

CIS 505 Week 7 Discussion Questions

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Week 7 DQ 1
Circuit Packet Switching and VPNs. Please respond to the following:

• From the e-Activity, analyze at least one major advantage of private networks and the impact it creates for a communication technology organization. Be sure to provide your source either as an article or URL.
• From the e-Activity, compare three VPN services available to organizations to determine the primary differences among each. Discuss the pros and cons of each VPN service and suggest the type of organization that would best fit each network provider.

Week 7 DQ 2
ATM and Frame Relay. Please respond to the following:

• Compare the advantages and disadvantages of ATM to those of frame relay. Recommend the superior technology and explain your rationale.
• Suppose you are in charge of selecting ATM or frame relay as a WAN alternative for your technological needs of a communication technology organization. Choose one of the WAN alternatives and justify your decision.

CIS 505 Week 8 Discussion Questions

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Week 8 DQ 1
Satellite Communication. Please respond to the following:

• Justify the circumstances in a business situation in which you would use GEOS, LEOS, and MEOS.
• Discuss the business applications currently being used to support VSAT.

Week 8 DQ 2
Data Transmission. Please respond to the following:

• Compare the four items related to channel capacity: data rate, bandwidth, noise, and error rate. Determine the most important and justify its significance over the remaining items.
Describe real-world examples of attenuation and white noise. Examine the effect on the information-carrying capacity of the link and present a way to avoid these types of interruptions.

CIS 505 Week 9 Discussion Questions

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Week 9 DQ 1
Digital Transmission. Please respond to the following:

• Compare and contrast the data communication technologies of guided media and unguided media. This should include transmission media, data link control protocols, and multiplexing.
• Compare digital transmission to analog transmission to determine the advantages of digital transmission. Provide at least one example to support your response.

Week 9 DQ 2
T-1 Lines. Please respond to the following:

• From the e-Activity, analyze the multiplexing techniques of DSL and cable modem Internet and suggest the one you prefer. Explain your decision.
• Compare and contrast the use of leased lines in a WAN or LAN setting. Then recommend what you would use if you were a CIO. Support your response with evidence or examples.

CIS 505 Week 10 Discussion Questions

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Week 10 DQ 1
Employee Monitoring. Please respond to the following:

• Take a position on the ethical concerns raised by employees who are upset about organizations monitoring their email or Internet access for security purposes. Assess whether you believe it is fair for an employee to undergo this type of surveillance.
• Suggest an alternative approach for an organization to control security without monitoring employee actions.

Week 10 DQ 2
Computer Security. Please respond to the following:

• From the e-Activity, discuss two security issues related to the researched technologies.
• Select a Wi-Fi device you are familiar with and analyze the security protection currently implemented on the device. Speculate whether the protection on the selected device is sufficient for the data it contains.

CIS 505 Week 11 Discussion Questions

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Week 11 DQ 1
Future Outlook. Please respond to the following:

• Of the numerous forms of communication technologies presented in this course, predict the first form of technology to be phased out by a newer and improved technology. Explain the limitations of this technology and the reason for its speculated obsolesce.
• Speculate the technology that will replace the previously mentioned technology above. Describe the features, capabilities, or basic advantages this technology will have over its predecessor.

Week 11 DQ 2
Course Wrap-Up. Please respond to the following:

• Discuss how you can apply at least four of the weekly course learning outcomes throughout this course to your professional or personal life.
• Select your favorite technology discussed in this course. Imagine today’s world without that technology. Explain the issues and impact this change would make.