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CIS 517 Week 1 – 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer University New

CIS/517 Discussion Questions Week 1-11
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CIS 517 Week 1 Discussion 1
Describe an information systems project that was successful in your organization. What made it successful?
CIS 517 Week 1 Discussion 2
Describe ethical issues you need to be aware of when projects are on the verge of going bad. Cite any real-world examples

CIS 517 Week 2 Discussion 1
The Project Management Institute (PMI) Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK) defines the five (5) project management process groups as Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing. Select one (1) process group and provide its significance to the overall quality of an information systems project. Please cite real-world examples to support your answer.

CIS 517 Week 2 Discussion 2
Persuade a hypothetical senior manager that is reluctant to fund and accept formal project management processes. Provide your strongest two or three (2 or 3) supporting pieces of evidence in your answer.

CIS 517 Week 3 Discussion 1
Discuss the various methods for selecting projects. Which method(s) would you choose to support your recommended project selection to senior management? Defend your response.

CIS 517 Week 3 Discussion 2
Discuss the difficulty of IT project execution and support why executing a plan can be difficult. Describe one or two (1 or 2) project management tools or techniques that could have been helpful in executing the plan in the example you used.

CIS 517 Week 4 Discussion 1
Discuss the relationship of the work breakdown structure (WBS) to a work package. Why is work packages created from the WBS? Present a simple IT workforce example (4 levels and 10 tasks) of a WBS.

CIS 517 Week 4 Discussion 2
Give a real-world example of how scope creep can occur or why it does occur. Based on the readings, discuss the steps can you take as a project manager to minimize scope creep in an IT project that involves dozens of vendors in an outsourcing and off shoring project.

CIS 517 Week 5 Discussion 1
Explain how you would use the critical path method in managing your projects. How does the information provided from the critical path provide value to your projects stakeholders? Explain why some people may find greater value in it than others.

CIS 517 Week 5 Discussion 2
Provide a real-world example in an IT-context of where you would use each of the four (4) dependencies: FS, SS, FF, and SF in a task dependency.
Finish to Start (FS)
Start to Finish (SF)
Finish to Finish (FF)
Start to Start (SS)

CIS 517 Week 6 Discussion 1
Select and describe one (1) or more components of Earned Value such as Planned Value, Actual Cost, schedule performance index, or cost performance index and describe how you as a project manager can use these measurement techniques to plan, manage, communicate, and forecast a new or existing project.

CIS 517 Week 6 Discussion 2
Select and describe one (1) or more components of Earned Value such as Planned Value, Actual Cost, schedule performance index, or cost performance index and describe how you as a project manager can use these measurement techniques to plan, manage, communicate, and forecast a new or existing project.

CIS 517 Week 7 Discussion 1
Describe how you can build quality into your project in each of the PMBOK® process groups.
Does one process group require a greater focus on quality than others? How does testing fit into quality?

CIS 517 Week 7 Discussion 2
Describe the team-building activities you would use as a project manager throughout the PMBOK process groups. Is there any one that you would recommend over the others? Why?
Describe the activities you could use if the project starts to run late, over budget, and invokes some scope creep.
CIS 517 Week 8 Discussion 1
Communication among various constituents in terms of time and place is key to project management consideration. Describe the types of communication tools that you could use to effectively manage your project communication in a large multinational project. Which of these tools have you used successfully or seen implemented successfully? Share the experience thoroughly.
CIS 517 Week 8 Discussion 2
Working with cross-functional teams and offshore teams is common in large IT project deployments. Similarly, your stakeholders may be from different parts of the business. Describe how you would communicate and connect with individuals that come from different parts of the organization or from outside partners
CIS 517 Week 9 Discussion 1
Describe some of the tools and techniques that you can use as a project manager to mitigate risk in your projects. Support your response.

CIS 517 Week 9 Discussion 2
Define risk at the outset of your large hypothetical multinational and multi-constituent project. Discuss how you can use your risk breakdown structure to identify good and bad project risk.

CIS 517 Week 10 Discussion 1
Search the Web for an IT-specific request for proposal (RFP) or request for quotation (RFQ) and be prepared to measure it against Figure 12-4.
<li
From the e-Activity, review your document and defend whether it adheres to the basic outline or template included in Figure 12-4 of the text
Recommend at least one (1) improvement your research document can make.
CIS 517 Week 10 Discussion 2
Select one (1) type of a cost-reimbursable contract. Describe how it works and cite an example of its application in a real-world project.

CIS 517 Week 11 Discussion 1
Discuss how you can apply the learning outcomes of this course to your professional and personal lives.
Identify the key qualifications needed for a position in this field and explain how this course has helped you to understand those expected qualifications.

CIS 517 Week 11 Discussion 2
Write a speech that you would give to a friend in an elevator summing up the contents of this course. You have 30 – 90 seconds to inform your friend of the most important elements, go!
• Describe the most important piece of knowledge that you gained during this course.

CIS 517 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer University New

CIS/517 Midterm and Final Exam – All possible questions with answers

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Project Management

TRUE/FALSE

1. Until the 1980s, project management primarily focused on providing schedule and resource data to top management in the military, computer, and construction industries.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 2

2. A research report showed that the U.S. spends $2.3 trillion on projects every year, an amount equal to 40 percent of the nation’s gross domestic product.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 3

3. One attribute that helps define a project is that a project has a unique purpose.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 7

4. A project should be developed using progressive elaboration, starting from specific details and broadening in scope as it progresses.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 7

5. Projects are often defined narrowly when they begin.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 7

6. Projects rarely involve uncertainty.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 8

7. Every project is constrained in different ways by its scope and cost goals; these limitations are sometimes referred to in project management as the double constraint.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 8

8. Questions about how long a project’s schedule should be are related to the issue of the project’s scope.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 8

9. Because projects involve uncertainty and limited resources, projects rarely finish according to discrete scope, time, and cost goals as originally planned.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 8

10. Managing the triple constraint involves making trade-offs between scope, time, and cost goals for a project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 8

11. Some people refer to the “double constraint” of project management to include quality and customer satisfaction.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 9

12. In the example of building a new house, the support staff would provide the wood, windows, flooring materials, appliances, and so on.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 11

13. Stakeholders’ needs and expectations are only important in the beginning of a project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 11

14. There are six core knowledge areas of project management.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 12

15. Follow-up studies done by the Standish Group showed that the number of failed projects has more than doubled in the past decade.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 14

16. The 2006 Standish Group survey showed that IT project success rates had risen from 16 percent in 1994 to 35 percent in 2006.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 14

17. Project management is the silver bullet that guarantees success on all projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 14

18. A key finding of a 2004 study is that relationship management is viewed as a top success factor for information systems in China, while it is not mentioned in U.S. studies.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 15

19. Winners in project delivery know that strong program managers—referred to as project leaders—are crucial to project success.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 16

20. A program is “a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually.”

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 17

21. Program managers are not responsible for coordinating the efforts of project teams, functional groups, suppliers, and operations staff.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 17

22. The job description for a project manager can vary by industry and by organization.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 22

23. Project managers should possess general management knowledge and skills.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 23

24. Project managers must be able to make effective use of technology as it relates to the specific project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 23

25. Project managers for large information technology projects have to be experts in the field of information technology.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 24

26. Project managers often take on the role of both leader and manager.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 25

27. Today’s project managers still draw Gantt charts by hand.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 27

28. Determining the relationships among tasks is not essential in helping to improve project scheduling.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 27

29. New software makes basic tools, such as Gantt charts and network diagrams, inexpensive, easy to create, and available for anyone to update.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 29

30. Many people still use basic productivity software, such as Microsoft Word or Excel, to perform many project management functions.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 32

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A research report showed that the U.S. spends ____ on projects every year.
a. $2.3 billion c. $2.3 trillion
b. $23 billion d. $23 trillion

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 3

2. A research report showed that the U.S. spends the equivalent of ____ percent of the nation’s gross domestic product on projects every year.
a. 10 c. 25
b. 20 d. 50

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 3

3. Many organizations assert that using project management provides advantages, such as ____.
a. lower profit margins c. less internal coordination
b. lower costs d. lower worker morale

ANS: 1 REF: 4

4. Because a project requires resources, often from various areas, many projects cross ____ or other boundaries to achieve their unique purposes.
a. financial c. departmental
b. spatial d. technological

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 7

5. The project ____ usually provides the direction and funding for the project.
a. leader c. manager
b. sponsor d. director

ANS: 1 REF: 7

6. The limitations of scope, time, and cost goals are sometimes referred to as the ____.
a. double bind c. double constraint
b. triple constraint d. double obstacle

ANS: REF: 8

7. ____ are the people involved in or affected by project activities and include the project sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, users, suppliers, and even opponents of the project.
a. Managers c. Directors
b. Stakeholders d. Citizens

ANS: REF: 10-11

8. In the example of the project of building a house, the project sponsors would be the potential ____.
a. contractors c. managers
b. support staff d. new homeowners

ANS: PTS: REF: 11

9. In the example of the project of building a house, the ____ would normally be the general contractor responsible for building the house.
a. project sponsors c. project manager
b. project team d. support staff

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 11

10. Project ____ management involves defining and managing all the work required to complete the project successfully.
a. scope c. time
b. quality d. cost

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 12

11. Project ____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was undertaken.
a. cost c. scope
b. time d. quality

ANS: PTS: 1 R EF: 12

12. Project ____ management is concerned with making effective use of the people involved with the project.
a. human resource c. communications
b. risk d. procurement

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 12

13. Project ____ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information.
a. risk c. communications
b. procurement d. resource

ANS: PTS 1 REF: 12

14. Project ____ management is an overarching function that affects and is affected by all of the other knowledge areas.
a. cost c. integration
b. quality d. time

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 12

15. What works on one project may not work on another, so it is essential for project managers to continue to develop their knowledge and ____ in managing projects.
a. time c. funding
b. resources d. skills

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 14

16. According to the Standish group, which of the following factors contributes most to the success of information technology projects?
a. Executive support c. Experienced project manager
b. User involvement d. Clear business objectives

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 15

17. According to the Standish Group study describing what factors contribute most to the success of information technology projects, ____ percent of successful projects are led by experienced project managers.
a. 75 c. 97
b. 80 d. 100

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 15

18. “All project leaders use a shared road map, focusing on key business aspects of their projects while integrating goals across all parts of the organization” describes the ____ best practice for project delivery.
a. Use an integrated toolbox
b. Grow project leaders
c. Develop a streamlined project delivery process
d. Measure project health using metrics

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 16

19. ____ project management software integrates information from multiple projects to show the status of active, approved, and future projects across an entire organization.
a. Investment c. Enterprise
b. Active d. Budget

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 21

20. A ____ can have many different job descriptions, which can vary tremendously based on the organization and the project.
a. project supervisor c. job coordinator
b. project manager d. project coordinator

ANS: REF: 21

21. In an interview with two chief information officers (CIOs), both men agreed that the most important project management skills seem to depend on ____.
a. the difficulty of the project and the resources involved
b. the difficulty of the task and the people involved
c. the uniqueness of the project and the difficulty of the task
d. the uniqueness of the project and the people involved

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 22

22. Achieving high performance on projects requires ____, otherwise called human relations skills.
a. capital skills c. light skills
b. soft skills d. hard skills

ANS: REF: 22

23. A(n) ____ focuses on long-term goals and big-picture objectives, while inspiring people to reach those goals.
a. assistant c. leader
b. programmer d. manager

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 24

24. A(n) ____ often deals with the day-to-day details of meeting specific goals.
a. manager c. programmer
b. leader d. analyst

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 24

25. Some people say that ____ achieve the vision of a project.
a. leaders c. stakeholders
b. managers d. supervisors

ANS: REF: 24

26. Most people agree that the modern concept of project management began with the ____.
a. Great Wall of China c. Egyptian pyramids
b. first space shuttle d. Manhattan Project

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 27

27. The Manhattan Project cost almost $2 billion in ____.
a. 1936 c. 1956
b. 1946 d. 1966

ANS: REF: 27

28. In ____, Henry Gantt developed the famous Gantt chart as a tool for scheduling work in factories.
a. 1897 c. 1927
b. 1917 d. 1957

ANS: REF: 27

29. A Gantt chart is a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a ____ format.
a. pie chart c. bar graph
b. line graph d. calendar

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 27

30. During the Cold War years of the 1950s and ’60s, ____ continued to be key in refining several project management techniques.
a. NASA c. steel manufacturing
b. the military d. marine biology

ANS: REF: 27

31. The longest path through a network diagram that determines the earliest completion of a project is called the ____ path.
a. essential c. critical
b. important d. vital

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 27

32. By the ____, the U.S. military and its civilian suppliers developed software to assist in managing large projects.
a. 1960s c. 1980s
b. 1970s d. 1990s

ANS: REF: 28

33. ____ was an early project management software product that helped managers analyze complex schedules for designing aircraft.
a. Artemis c. Vega
b. Columbia d. Oberlin

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 28

34. A PMO, or Project ____ Office, is an organizational group responsible for coordinating the project management function throughout an organization.
a. Management c. Municipal
b. Money d. Marketing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 29

35. Many organizations are now using enterprise or project ____ management software to help manage projects.
a. path c. institute
b. portfolio d. office

ANS: REF: 29

36. PMI provides certification as a Project Management ____ (PMP), someone who has documented sufficient project experience and education, agreed to follow the PMI code of professional conduct, and demonstrated knowledge of the field of project management by passing a comprehensive examination.
a. Producer c. Professional
b. Practitioner d. Professor

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 30

37. Just as passing the CPA exam is a standard for accountants, passing the ____ exam is becoming a standard for project managers.
a. PMI c. PMP
b. PM d. PMO

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 31

38. The Project Management ____, a Web site for people involved in project management, provides an alphabetical directory of more than 300 project management software solutions.
a. Center c. Consortium
b. Alliance d. Facility

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 32

39. ____ tools are often recommended for small projects and single users.
a. Low-end c. High-end
b. Midrange d. Expensive

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 33

40. ____ tools, sometimes referred to as enterprise project management software, provide robust capabilities to handle very large projects.
a. Low-end c. High-end
b. Midrange d. Inexpensive

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 33

COMPLETION

1. More than ____________________ million people regard project management as their profession.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 3

2. The “CHAOS” study found that more than ____________________ percent of information technology projects were canceled before completion.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 3

3. A(n) ____________________ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

ANS: project

PTS: 1 REF: 4

4. The term “____________________” refers to work done in organizations to sustain the business.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 4

5. ____________________ include people, hardware, software, or other assets.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 7

6. The question, “What unique product or service does the customer or sponsor expect from the project?” is related to the ____________________ of the project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 8

7. The question, “What is the project’s budget?” is related to the project’s ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 8

8. The ____________________ of project management includes quality along with scope, time, and cost.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 9

9. ____________________ is “the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements.”

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 10

10. Project management ____________________ describe the key competencies that project managers must develop.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 12

11. Project management tools and ____________________ assist project managers and their teams in carrying out work in all nine knowledge areas.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 12

12. Gantt charts, project network diagrams, critical path analysis, crashing, fast tracking, and schedule performance measurements are examples of tools and techniques for ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 13

13. Companies that excel in project delivery use performance ____________________ to quantify progress.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 17

14. ______________________________ refers to the process in which organizations group and manage projects and programs as a portfolio of investments that contribute to the entire enterprise’s success.

ANS:
Project portfolio management
Portfolio management

PTS: 1 REF: 18

15. ____________________ skills include effective communication, influencing the organization to get things done, leadership, motivation, negotiation, conflict management, and problem solving.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 23

16. One reason project managers need good ____________________ skills is that to understand, navigate, and meet stakeholders’ needs and expectations, they need to lead, communicate, negotiate, solve problems, and influence the organization at large.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 23

17. Some people say that, “Managers do things right, and ____________________ do the right things.”

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 24

18. A(n) ____________________ chart is a standard format for displaying project schedule information.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 27

19. As computer hardware became smaller and more affordable and ____________________ included graphical and easy to use interfaces, project management software became less expensive and more widely used.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 28

20. The ___________________________________, an international professional society for project managers founded in 1969, has continued to attract and retain members, reporting 277,221 members
worldwide by August 31, 2008.

ANS:
PMI
Project Management Institute
Project Management Institute (PMI)

PTS: 1 REF: 29

21. Because there are so many people working on projects in various industries, PMI has created Specific ____________________ (SIGs) that enable members to share ideas about project management in their particular application areas, such as information systems.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 29

22. ____________________, loosely defined, is a set of principles that guide our decision making based on personal values of what is “right” and “wrong.”

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 31

23. ____________________ tools, a step up from low-end tools, are designed to handle larger projects, multiple users, and multiple projects.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 33

24. ____________________ is still the most widely used project management software today in the midrange tools category.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 33

25. ____________________ tools are generally licensed on a per-user basis.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 33

ESSAY

1. Describe the triple constraint. What are the three components and what is the relationship between them?

PTS: 1 REF: 8-9

2. List and describe each of the nine project management knowledge areas.

PTS: 1 REF: 12

3. What is the difference between leadership and management? How do these two terms relate to a project manager?

PTS: 1 REF: 24-25

4. Discuss the PMP certification. What are the advantages of obtaining PMP certification?

PTS: 1 REF: 30-31

5. Discuss the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.

PTS: 1 REF: 31

Chapter 2: The Project Management and Information Technology Context

TRUE/FALSE

1. Many of the theories and concepts of project management are difficult to understand.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 44

2. If project managers lead projects in isolation, it is unlikely that those projects will ever truly serve the needs of the organization.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 44

3. Using a systems approach is critical to successful project management.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 45

4. Few business and information technology students understand the concepts of systems and performing a systems analysis.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 45

5. Although it is easier to focus on the immediate and sometimes narrow concerns of a particular project, project managers and other staff must keep in mind the effects of any project on the interests and needs of the entire system or organization.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 46

6. When you separate business and organizational issues from project management planning, you do a better job of ensuring project success.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 46

7. Organizational issues are often the least difficult part of working on and managing projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 47

8. According to the symbolic frame, what is most important about any event in an organization is what actually happened.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 48

9. Most colleges and universities have very strong functional organizations.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 49

10. An organization that uses a project organizational structure earns their revenue primarily from performing projects for other groups under contract.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 49

11. Project managers in matrix organizations have staff from various functional areas working on their projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 50

12. Assigning staff part-time to the project often creates underutilization and/or misallocation of staff resources.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 51

13. Project organizations may miss economies of scale available through the pooling of requests for materials with other projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 51

14. The same organization can have different subcultures.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 51

15. An organizational culture with strong unit integration makes the project manager’s job more difficult.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 52

16. External project stakeholders generally include the project sponsor, project team, support staff, and internal customers for the project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 52

17. Technical and analytical skills guarantee success in project management.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 53

18. The best way to kill a project is to withhold the required money, human resources, and visibility for the project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 54

19. If project managers have functional management commitment, they will also have adequate resources and not be distracted by events that do not affect their specific projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 54

20. If a project manager does not submit a potential project in the proper format, it could be rejected.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 56

21. It is much more expensive to make major changes to a project during earlier phases.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 57

22. Most IT projects involve a major amount of software development.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 60

23. The Adaptive Software Development (ASD) life cycle model assumes that software development follows an adaptive approach because the requirements cannot be clearly expressed early in the life cycle.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 60

24. Since the organization usually commits more money as a project continues, a management review should occur after each phase to evaluate progress, potential success, and continued compatibility with organizational goals.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 61

25. The nature of hardware development projects is more diverse than software-oriented projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 63

26. Within the category of programmer, there are several job titles used to describe the specific technologies the programmer uses, such as project manager programmer, systems analyst programmer, macro developer, and so on.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 64

27. It is rare for technical specialists or project managers to remain with the same company for a long time.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 64

28. Because of the nature of information technology projects, the people involved come from very similar backgrounds and possess similar skill sets.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 64

29. Because of overlaps in their duties, hardware specialists usually understand the language of database analysts, and vice versa.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 64

30. COBOL programmers cannot be of much help on a Java project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 64

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ____ describes a holistic view of carrying out projects within the context of the organization.
a. Systems philosophy c. Systems analysis
b. Systems thinking d. Systems approach

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 45

2. The term “systems approach” emerged in the ____.
a. 1940s c. 1960s
b. 1950s d. 1970s

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 45

3. ____ is a problem-solving approach that requires defining the scope of the system, dividing it into its components, and then identifying and evaluating its problems, opportunities, constraints, and needs.
a. Systems philosophy c. Systems troubleshooting
b. Systems management d. Systems analysis

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 45

4. The ____ focuses on different groups’ roles and responsibilities in order to meet the goals and policies set by top management.
a. structural frame c. political frame
b. human resources frame d. symbolic frame

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 47

5. The ____ focuses on producing harmony between the needs of the organization and the needs of the people.
a. structural frame c. political frame
b. human resources frame d. symbolic frame

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 47

6. The ____ assumes that organizations are coalitions composed of varied individuals and interest groups.
a. political frame c. structural frame
b. symbolic frame d. human resources frame

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 47

7. A ____ is the hierarchy most people think of when picturing an organizational chart.
a. project organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure
b. system organizational structure d. functional organizational structure

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 48-49

8. In a ____, program managers report to the CEO.
a. project organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure
b. system organizational structure d. functional organizational structure

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 49

9. In a ____, personnel often report to both a functional manager and one or more project managers.
a. project organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure
b. system organizational structure d. functional organizational structure

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 50

10. Project managers have the most authority in a pure ____.
a. functional organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure
b. project organizational structure d. circular organizational structure

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 50

11. Project managers have the least amount of authority in a pure ____.
a. functional organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure
b. project organizational structure d. circular organizational structure

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 50

12. In a ____ matrix organizational structure, the project manager controls the project budget and has moderate to high authority.
a. weak c. strong
b. balanced d. functional

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 50

13. ____ is a set of shared assumptions, values, and behaviors that characterize the functioning of an organization.
a. Organizational politics c. Organizational culture
b. Organizational philosophy d. Organizational structure

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 51

14. The ____ characteristic of organizational culture describes the degree to which management’s decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on people within the organization.
a. member identity c. people focus
b. group emphasis d. unit integration

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 51

15. ____ refers to the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment.
a. Means-ends orientation c. Conflict tolerance
b. Open-systems focus d. Risk tolerance

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 52

16. Many companies have realized that information technology is integral to their business and have created a vice president or equivalent-level position for the head of information technology, often called the ____.
a. CPO c. CEO
b. CFO d. CIO

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 55

17. A ____ is a collection of project phases.
a. project life cycle c. project planning cycle
b. project feasibility d. project acquisition

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 57

18. In early phases of a project life cycle, resource needs are usually ____ and the level of uncertainty is ____.
a. lowest; highest c. lowest; lowest
b. high; lowest d. highest; highest

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 57

19. A preliminary or rough cost estimate is developed in the ____ phase, and an overview of the work involved is created.
a. implementation c. concept
b. development d. close-out

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 57

20. In the ____ phase, the project team creates more detailed project plans, a more accurate cost estimate, and a more thorough WBS.
a. development c. concept
b. implementation d. close-out

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 58

21. In the ____ phase, the project team creates a definitive or very accurate cost estimate, delivers the required work, and provides performance reports to stakeholders.
a. development c. concept
b. implementation d. close-out

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 58

22. The ____ model assumes that requirements will remain stable after they are defined.
a. spiral life cycle c. prototyping life cycle
b. waterfall life cycle d. RAD life cycle

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 60

23. The ____ model provides for progressive development of operational software, with each release providing added capabilities.
a. spiral life cycle c. waterfall life cycle
b. RAD life cycle d. incremental build life cycle

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 60

24. The ____ model requires heavy user involvement, and developers use a model to generate functional requirements and physical design specifications simultaneously.
a. RAD life cycle c. spiral life cycle
b. prototyping life cycle d. incremental build life cycle

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 60

25. The ____ model uses an approach in which developers work with an evolving prototype.
a. incremental build life cycle c. RAD life cycle
b. waterfall life cycle d. spiral life cycle

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 60

26. Most trade schools, colleges, and universities did not start offering degrees in computer technology, computer science, management information systems, or other information technology areas until the ____.
a. 1950s c. 1980s
b. 1970s d. 1990s

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 64

COMPLETION

1. To handle complex situations effectively, project managers need to take a(n) ____________________ view of a project and understand how it relates to the larger organization.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 45

2. A(n) ____________________ is an overall model for thinking about things as systems.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 45

3. ____________________ are sets of interacting components working within an environment to fulfill some purpose.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 45

4. ____________________ addresses the business, technological, and organizational issues associated with creating, maintaining, and making a change to a system.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 45

5. The three spheres of systems management are business, organization, and ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 45

6. The ____________________ is usually depicted in an organizational chart.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 47

7. The ____________________ focuses on symbols and meanings.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 48

8. Three general classifications of organizational structures are ____________________, project, and matrix.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 48

9. In a(n) ____________________ organizational structure, project managers have little or no authority.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 50

10. When project managers use a(n) ____________________, they are better able to make decisions that address the needs of the entire organization.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 51

11. Experienced project managers know it is often best to balance the degree of ____________________ to get good project results.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 52

12. Some projects have a senior manager called a(n) ____________________ who acts as a key proponent for a project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 54

13. A major element of good practice concerns ____________________, which addresses the authority and control for key IT activities in organizations, including IT infrastructure, IT use, and project management.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 55

14. A(n) ____________________ is a product or service, such as a report, a training session, a piece of hardware, or a segment of software code, produced or provided as part of a project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 57

15. In the ____________________ phase, there should be some sort of customer acceptance of the entire project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 59

16. Understanding the ____________________ is just as important to good project management as understanding the phases of the traditional project life cycle.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 59

17. A(n) ________________________________________ is a framework for describing the phases involved in developing information systems.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 60

18. The term ______________________________ has become popular to describe new approaches that focus on close collaboration between programming teams and business experts.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 61

19. Management reviews, called phase exits or ____________________, are very important for keeping projects on track and determining if they should be continued, redirected, or terminated.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 61

20. A(n) ______________________________ is a group of senior executives from various parts of the organization, who regularly review important corporate projects and issues.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 62

ESSAY

1. Describe the concept of a systems approach.

PTS: 1 REF: 45

2. What are the four frames of organizations? Describe each frame.

PTS: 1 REF: 47-48

3. Describe each of the three major types of organizational structure.

PTS: 1 REF: 48-50

4. What are the reasons why top management commitment is crucial to project managers?

PTS: 1 REF: 54-55

5. What is a systems development life cycle? What are some of the predictive models associated with the systems development life cycle?

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 60

Chapter 3: The Project Management Process Groups: A Case Study

TRUE/FALSE

1. Decisions and actions taken in one knowledge area at a certain time rarely affect other knowledge areas.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 78

2. Initiating processes take place during each phase of a project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 79

3. Initiating processes are not required to end a project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 79

4. The level of activity and length of each process group varies for every project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 79-80

5. Initiating and closing tasks are usually the longest and require the most amount of resources and time.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 80

6. Research suggests that companies working to implement best practices should spend less than 10 percent of project time in initiating and planning.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 81

7. The executing process group generally requires the most resources.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 82

8. Monitoring and controlling processes overlap all of the other project management process groups.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 82

9. Key outcomes of the executing process group are formal acceptance of the work and creation of closing documents.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 82

10. The majority of organizations develop their own internal information technology project management methodologies.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 85

11. You cannot tailor RUP to include the PMBOK process groups.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 85

12. DMAIC is used to improve an existing business process.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 86

13. An organization should put considerable thought into project selection to ensure that it initiates the right kinds of projects for the right reasons.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 87

14. In the long-term view, it is better to have a huge success on an unimportant project than to have a moderate success on an important project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 87

15. Information technology is usually a support function in an organization.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 87

16. Information systems must support the firm’s business goals, such as developing its own intranet site applications.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 87

17. An organization may initiate information technology projects for several reasons, but the most important reason is to support business objectives.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 87

18. It is good practice to lay the groundwork for a project after it officially starts.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 87

19. A stakeholder management strategy is an approach to help increase the support of stakeholders throughout the project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 93

20. Some project managers do not even write down stakeholder information because they do not consider stakeholder management as a crucial part of their jobs.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 93

21. The kick-off meeting is always held before the business case and project charter are completed.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 95

22. A milestone list is an output list associated with the Project Scope Management knowledge area.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 97

23. The WBS provides a basis for creating the project schedule and performing earned value management for measuring and forecasting project performance.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 104

24. Project initiation involves taking the actions necessary to ensure that activities in the project plan are completed.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 106

25. Executing the project includes work required to introduce any new hardware, software, and procedures into normal operations.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 106

26. The products of the project are produced during project implementation, and it usually takes the least amount of resources to accomplish this process.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 106

27. Human resource issues often occur during project execution, especially conflicts.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 107

28. The process of acquiring a project team falls under the Project Human Resource Management knowledge area.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: 108

29. In addition to progress reports, an important tool for monitoring and controlling a project is using project management software.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 114

30. Even though many information technology projects are canceled before completion, it is still important to formally close any project and reflect on what can be learned to improve future projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 114

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Projects involve ____ project management process groups.
a. three c. eight
b. five d. ten

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 78

2. ____ include defining and authorizing a project or project phase.
a. Initiating processes c. Executing processes
b. Planning processes d. Monitoring and controlling processes

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 79

3. ____ include devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project addresses the organization’s needs.
a. Initiating processes c. Executing processes
b. Planning processes d. Monitoring and controlling processes

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 79

4. Examples of ____ include acquiring and developing the project team, performing quality assurance, distributing information, managing stakeholder expectations, and conducting procurements.
a. monitoring and controlling processes c. planning processes
b. executing processes d. initiating processes

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 79

5. A common ____ is reporting performance, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track.
a. executing process c. monitoring and controlling process
b. closing process d. planning process

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 79

6. Administrative activities are often involved in ____, such as archiving project files, closing out contracts, documenting lessons learned, and receiving formal acceptance of the delivered work as part of the phase or project.
a. monitoring and controlling processes c. initiating processes
b. executing processes d. closing processes

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 79

7. During ____ processes for a new project, the organization recognizes that a new project exists, and completes a project charter as part of this recognition.
a. initiating c. opening
b. planning d. controlling

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 81

8. ____ is crucial in information technology projects because once a project team implements a new system, it takes a considerable amount of effort to change the system.
a. Initiating c. Executing
b. Planning d. Closing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 81

9. The project integration management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities of developing project charters.
a. initiating c. executing
b. planning d. monitoring and controlling

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 83

10. The project scope management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities of scope verification and scope control.
a. initiating c. executing
b. planning d. monitoring and controlling

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 83

11. The project time management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activity of schedule control.
a. initiating c. executing
b. planning d. monitoring and controlling

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 83

12. ____ is a planning process falling under the Project Integration Management knowledge area.
a. Schedule development c. Create WBS
b. Develop project management plan d. Quality planning

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 83

13. ____ is a planning process falling under the Project Scope Management knowledge area.
a. Schedule development c. Create WBS
b. Develop project management plan d. Quality planning

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 83

14. ____ is a monitoring and controlling process.
a. Develop project team c. Risk response planning
b. Request seller responses d. Integrated change control

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 83

15. The project cost management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities of estimating costs and budget determination.
a. initiating c. executing
b. planning d. monitoring and controlling

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 84

16. The project communications management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activity of information distribution.
a. initiating c. executing
b. planning d. monitoring and controlling

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 84

17. The project procurement management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activity of administering procurements.
a. initiating c. executing
b. planning d. monitoring and controlling

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 84

18. The project procurement management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities conducting procurements.
a. initiating c. executing
b. planning d. monitoring and controlling

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 84

19. ____ is an iterative software development process that focuses on team productivity and delivers software best practices to all team members.
a. RAP c. RUP
b. RIP d. ROP

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 85

20. ____ should serve as the foundation for deciding which projects to pursue.
a. Strategic planning c. Successful past projects
b. Project managers d. Employee abilities

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 87

21. An organization may initiate information technology projects for several reasons, but the most important reason is to support ____.
a. financial security c. technological advances
b. business objectives d. shareholders

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 87

22. A ____ is a document that includes details related to the identified project stakeholders.
a. stakeholder register c. stakeholder directory
b. stakeholder list d. stakeholder contact list

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 92

23. A ____ is an approach to help increase the support of stakeholders throughout the project.
a. stakeholder management plan c. stakeholder management strategy
b. stakeholder strategy d. stakeholder management list

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 93

24. A ____ is a meeting held at the beginning of a project so that stakeholders can meet each other, review the goals of the project, and discuss future plans.
a. kick-off party c. kick-off meeting
b. launch meeting d. project launch meeting

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 95

25. The ____ is often held after the business case and project charter are completed, but it could be held sooner, as needed.
a. kick-off project c. launch meeting
b. kick-off meeting d. launch project

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 95

26. It is good practice to focus on the ____ of meetings.
a. flow c. agenda
b. planning d. results

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 96

27. Quality metrics are an output of project ____.
a. cost management c. integration management
b. scope management d. quality management

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 98

28. The ____ provides a basis for creating the project schedule and performing earned value management for measuring and forecasting project performance.
a. WSB c. WBS
b. project team analysis d. project tool

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 104

29. ____ the project involves taking the actions necessary to ensure that activities in the project plan are completed.
a. Executing c. Starting
b. Initiating d. Coordinating

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 106

30. The ____ process involves gaining stakeholder and customer acceptance of the final products and services and bringing the project, or project phase, to an orderly end.
a. ending c. developing
b. closing d. completing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 114

COMPLETION

1. A(n) ____________________ is a series of actions directed toward a particular result.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 79

2. ___________________________________ progress from initiation activities to planning activities, executing activities, monitoring and controlling activities, and closing activities.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 79

3. The ____________________ plan coordinates and encompasses information from all other plans.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 79

4. Each of the five project management ____________________ is characterized by the completion of certain tasks.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 81

5. The ideal outcome of the monitoring and ____________________ process group is to complete a project successfully by delivering the agreed-upon project scope within time, cost, and quality constraints.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 82

6. Many of the project management processes occur as part of the ____________________ process group.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 83

7. A(n) ____________________ describes how things should be done.

ANS

PTS: 1 REF: 85

8. Ideally, the ____________________ would be involved in initiating a project, but often the project manager is selected after many initiation decisions have already been made.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 87

9. Developing a(n) ____________________ to share its project management knowledge could help a company reduce internal costs by working more effectively.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 87

10. ____________________ are people involved in or affected by project activities and include the project sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, users, suppliers, and even opponents to the project.

ANS

PTS: 1 REF: 92

11. A(n) ___________________________________ includes basic information such as stakeholder names, level of interest in the project, level of influence on the project, and potential management strategies for gaining support or reducing obstacles from that particular stakeholder.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 93

12. ____________________ is often the most difficult and unappreciated process in project management.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 96

13. The main purpose of project plans is to ____________________ project execution.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 96

14. A(n) ____________________ is the output of risk identification planning.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 98

15. The ______________________________ is a very important tool in project management because it provides the basis for deciding how to do the work.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 104

16. ____________________ the project includes work required to introduce any new hardware, software, and procedures into normal operations.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 106

17. The process of information distribution falls under the ___________________________________ knowledge area.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 108

18. ____________________ and controlling is the process of measuring progress toward project objectives, monitoring deviation from the plan, and taking corrective action to match progress with the plan.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 111

ESSAY

1. List and describe the five process management groups.

2. What is a methodology and what are some methodologies other than the PMBOK Guide do organizations use as a basis for project management methodology?

3. Describe the process of initiating a project and the issues involved.
4. What is a work breakdown structure?

Chapter 4: Project Integration Management

TRUE/FALSE

1. Directing and managing project execution involves carrying out the project management plan by performing the activities included in it.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 130

2. Many people consider project integration management the key to overall project success.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 131

3. Project integration management does not include interface management.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 131

4. The number of interfaces can increase exponentially as the number of people involved in a project increases.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 132

5. Project integration management must occur just within the context of a particular project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 132

6. Project managers should never be involved in strategic planning and project selection.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 133

7. Strategic planning involves determining long-term objectives by analyzing the strengths and weaknesses of an organization, studying opportunities and threats in the business environment, predicting future trends, and projecting the need for new products and services.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 133-134

8. An organization’s information technology project selection process should guide the strategic plan.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 136

9. Information systems can help an organization support a strategy of being a low-cost producer.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 137

10. Selecting projects is considered an exact science.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 138

11. As projects progress, the organization must reevaluate the need, funding, and will for each project to determine if the project should be continued, redefined, or terminated.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 138

12. Opportunities and directives are essentially the same thing.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 139

13. Many problems and directives must be resolved quickly.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 139

14. The organization should complete low-priority projects before high-priority ones, if the low-priority ones take less time.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 139

15. You can use the NPV function in Microsoft Access to calculate the NPV quickly.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 140

16. Net present value and cash flow mean the same thing.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 140

17. An annual discount factor is a multiplier for each year based on the discount rate and year.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 142

18. The ROI is always positive.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 142

19. Payback period is the amount of time it will take to recoup, in the form of net cash inflows, the total dollars invested in a project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 143

20. The first step in creating a weighted scoring model is to assign a weight to each criterion.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 144

21. A project charter typically does not authorize the project manager to use organizational resources to complete the project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 147

22. Some people might use a contract in place of a charter.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 148

23. Many projects fail because of unclear requirements and expectations, so starting with a project charter makes a lot of sense.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 149

24. Project management plans document project planning assumptions and decisions regarding choices.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 151

25. The introduction or overview of a project must only include a list of definitions and acronyms.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 151-152

26. A stakeholder analysis should be part of the overall project plan.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 151-154

27. The key deliverables section of the project management plan should describe the quality expectations for the product deliverables.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 153

28. A commonsense approach to improving the coordination between project plan development and execution is to follow this simple rule: Those who will do the work should not plan the work.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 156

29. Many organizations have found that large information technology projects require experienced general managers who understand the business and application area of the technology, not the technology itself.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 158

30. All projects can benefit from using some type of project management information system to coordinate and communicate project information.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 165

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. There are ____ main processes involved in project integration management.
a. three c. ten
b. six d. fifteen

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 130

2. ____ involves working with stakeholders to create the document that formally authorizes a project.
a. Developing the project charter
b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement
c. Developing the project management plan
d. Directing and managing project execution

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 130

3. ____ involves coordinating all planning efforts to create a consistent, coherent document.
a. Developing the project charter
b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement
c. Developing the project management plan
d. Directing and managing project execution

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 130

4. The outputs of ____ include change request status updates, project management plan updates, and project document updates.
a. monitoring and controlling the project work
b. closing the project
c. developing the project management plan
d. performing integrated change control

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 131

5. Many people are familiar with SWOT analysis—analyzing Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats—which is used to aid in ____.
a. project initiation c. strategic planning
b. project planning d. strategic initiation

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 134

6. The ____ step in the planning process is to tie the information technology strategic plan to the organization’s overall strategic plan.
a. first c. third
b. second d. fourth

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 135

7. In the ____ information technology planning stage, the analysis outlines business processes that are central to achieving strategic goals and helps determine which ones could most benefit from information technology.
a. Project Planning
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Resource Allocation
d. Information Technology Strategy Planning

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 135-136

8. In the ____ stage, organizations tie information technology strategy to mission and vision of organization and identify key business areas.
a. Project Planning
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Resource Allocation
d. Information Technology Strategy Planning

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 136

9. In the ____ stage of selecting information technology projects, organizations define project scope, benefits, and constraints.
a. Project Planning
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Resource Allocation
d. Information Technology Strategy Planning

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 136

10. In the ____ stage of selecting information technology projects, organizations select information technology projects.
a. Project Planning
b. Business Area Analysis
c. Resource Allocation
d. Information Technology Strategy Planning

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 136

11. Research shows that ____ is the number one reason cited for why organizations invest in information technology projects.
a. providing financial incentives
b. supporting implicit business objectives
c. supporting explicit business objectives
d. keeping abreast of technological advances

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 136

12. Author ____, who developed the concept of the strategic value of competitive advantage, has written several books and articles on strategic planning and competition.
a. James Bacon c. Robert Cooper
b. Michael Porter d. Carol Matlack

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 136-137

13. Projects that address ____ are much more likely to be successful because they will be important to the organization.
a. a balanced scorecard c. broad organizational needs
b. a weighted scoring model d. net present value

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 138

14. One method for selecting projects based on ____ is to determine whether they first meet three important criteria: need, funding, and will.
a. broad organizational needs
b. using a weighted scoring model
c. implementing a balanced scorecard
d. categorizing information technology projects

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 138

15. ____ are new requirements imposed by management, government, or some external influence.
a. Opportunities c. Problems
b. Commands d. Directives

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 139

16. ____ analysis is a method of calculating the expected net monetary gain or loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the present point in time.
a. Cost of capital c. Cash flow
b. Net present value d. Payback

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 139-140

17. The first step in determining the NPV is to ____.
a. determine the estimated costs and benefits for the life of the project and the products it produces
b. determine the discount rate
c. calculate the net present value
d. determine the cash flow

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 141

18. In the mathematical formula for determining the NPV, the variable n is ____.
a. the year of the cash flow c. the amount of cash flow each year
b. the last year of the cash flow d. the discount rate

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 142

19. The ____ is the minimum acceptable rate of return on an investment.
a. return on investment c. external rate of return
b. internal rate of return d. required rate of return

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 142-143

20. You can determine a project’s ____ by finding what discount rate results in an NPV of zero for the project.
a. internal rate of return (IRR) c. payback period
b. required rate of return d. return on investment (ROI)

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 143

21. In a weighted scoring model, the sum of all of the criteria’s weights must total ____ percent.
a. 0 c. 100
b. 50 d. 150

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 145

22. A(n) ____ is a methodology that converts an organization’s value drivers, such as customer service, innovation, operational efficiency, and financial performance, to a series of defined metrics.
a. payback analysis c. weighted scoring model
b. balanced scorecard d. net present value analysis

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 146

23. A(n) ____ is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project’s objectives and management.
a. balanced scorecard c. net present value analysis
b. business case d. project charter

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 147

24. A(n) ____ is a document that describes the products or services to be created by the project team.
a. contract c. project charter
b. statement of work d. business case

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 148

25. ____ support contributes the most to successful information technology projects.
a. Stakeholder c. Executive
b. Team d. User

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 149

26. A(n) ____ is a document used to coordinate all project planning documents and help guide a project’s execution and control.
a. project management plan c. scope statement
b. statement of work d. contact

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 151

27. The ____ section of the project plan should describe the major project functions and activities and identify those individuals who are responsible for them.
a. organizational charts
b. other organizational or process-related information
c. project responsibilities
d. management objectives

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 152

28. The ____ section of the project management plan describes how to monitor project progress and handle changes.
a. management objectives c. risk management
b. project controls d. technical processes

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 153

29. The ____ section of the project management plan describes specific methodologies a project might use and explains how to document information.
a. management objectives c. risk management
b. project controls d. technical processes

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 153

30. The project schedule information section of the project management plan might include ____.
a. a detailed budget c. a detailed schedule
b. key deliverables d. project staffing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 153-154

31. The majority of time on a project is usually spent on ____, as is most of the project’s budget.
a. execution c. closing
b. planning d. monitoring and controlling

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 156

32. Most systems analysts begin their careers as ____.
a. database administrators c. project managers
b. CEOs d. programmers

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 156

33. On large projects, many project managers say that ____ percent of the job is communicating and managing changes.
a. 50 c. 90
b. 70 d. 100

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 159

34. ____ should result in improvements in project performance.
a. Corrective actions c. Preventive actions
b. Corrective reports d. Proactive methods

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 160

35. ____ provide information on how project execution is going.
a. Performance reports c. Deliverables
b. Change requests d. Contracts

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 160

36. Which of the following is an important input to the integrated change control process?
a. Deliverables
b. Work performance information
c. Approved and rejected change requests
d. Approved and validated defect repair

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 161

37. A(n) ____ is a formal, documented process that describes when and how official project documents may be changed.
a. integrated change control c. performance report
b. change request d. change control system

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 162

38. A(n) ____ is a formal group of people responsible for approving or rejecting changes to a project.
a. CCA c. CCC
b. CCB d. CCD

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 162

39. ____ ensures that the descriptions of the project’s products are correct and complete.
a. CCB c. Configuration management
b. Correction management d. Product description management

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 163

40. ____ tools track the execution of business process flows and expose how the state of supporting IT systems and resources is impacting end-to-end business process performance in real time.
a. BSM c. CCA
b. CCB d. BSC

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 165

COMPLETION

1. ______________________________ involves coordinating all of the other project management knowledge areas throughout a project’s life cycle.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 130

2. Good ____________________ management is critical to providing stakeholder satisfaction.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 131

3. ____________________ involves identifying and managing the points of interaction between various elements of the project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 131-132

4. Project initiation starts with identifying potential projects, using realistic methods to select which projects to work on, and then formalizing their initiation by issuing some sort of ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 135

5. The last step in the ____________________ process for selecting information technology projects is choosing which projects to do and assigning resources for working on them.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 136

6. Many information systems are classified as “____________________” because they directly support key business strategies.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 137

7. Many organizations rely on effective _________________________ (NPD) to increase growth and profitability.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 137

8. ____________________ are undesirable situations that prevent an organization from achieving its goals.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 138

9. ____________________ are chances to improve the organization.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 139

10. Even though many information technology projects can be completed quickly, it is still important to ____________________ them.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 139

11. A positive NPV means the return from a project exceeds the ____________________, the return available by investing the capital elsewhere.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 140

12. A(n) ____________________ is the rate used in discounting future cash flow.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 141

13. ______________________________ is the result of subtracting the project costs from the benefits and then dividing by the costs.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 142

14. You can use the ____________________ function in Excel to determine the IRR quickly.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 143

15. A(n) _________________________ is a tool that provides a systematic process for selecting projects based on many criteria.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 144

16. With a(n) ____________________, you can simply add all the points to determine the best projects for selection, without having to multiply weights and scores and sum the results.

ANS: point model

PTS: 1 REF: 146

17. Enterprise _________________________ include relevant government or industry standards, the organization’s infrastructure, and marketplace conditions.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 148

18. ______________________________ include formal and informal plans, policies, procedures, guidelines, information systems, financial systems, management systems, lessons learned, and historical information that can be used to influence a project’s success.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 148

19. A project manager usually organizes the project work into several work packages using a(n) ______________________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 153

20. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) Standard 1058-1998 describes the contents of a(n) ________________________________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 154

21. Project managers should not hesitate to consult ____________________ on different topics, such as what methodology to follow, what programming language to use, what training approach to follow, and so on.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 158

22. ____________________ project work includes collecting, measuring, and disseminating performance information.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 159

23. A(n) ____________________ is the approved project management plan plus approved changes.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 159

24. A(n) preventive ____________________ might be modifying a time-tracking system screen to avoid common errors people made in the past.

ANS: a

PTS: 1 REF: 161

25. _________________________ involves identifying, evaluating, and managing changes throughout the project life cycle.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 161

ESSAY

1. List and briefly describe the six main processes involved in project integration management.

PTS: 1 REF: 130-131

2. How are potential projects identified?

PTS: 1 REF: 133-134

3. What are the methods for categorizing Information Technology projects?

PTS: 1 REF: 138-139

4. What is a weighted scoring model? How is it created?

PTS: 1 REF: 144-145

5. What is integrated change control? What are the main objectives of integrated change control?

PTS: 1 REF: 161

Chapter 5: Project Scope Management

TRUE/FALSE

1. Scope refers to all the work involved in creating the products of the project and the processes used to create them.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 178

2. Deliverables are only product-related, such as a piece of hardware or software.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 178

3. Project scope management includes the processes involved in defining and controlling what is or is not included in a project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 178

4. The project’s size, complexity, importance, and other factors will not affect how much effort is spent on collecting requirements for scope planning.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 182

5. Information from the project charter provides a basis for further defining the project scope.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 183

6. Project scope statements should include, at a minimum, a product scope description and detailed information on all project deliverables.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 185

7. The scope of a project should be clear and specific from the start.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 185

8. Many information technology projects also require detailed functional and design specifications for developing software, which also should be referenced in the detailed scope statement.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 185

9. The project scope statement should reference supporting documents, such as product specifications that will affect what products are produced or purchased, or corporate policies, which might affect how products or services are produced.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 185

10. The project scope statement provides the basis for planning and managing project schedules, costs, resources, and changes.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 186-187

11. The project scope statement, stakeholder requirements documentation, and organizational process assets are the primary inputs for creating a WBS.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 187

12. A WBS is often depicted as a task-oriented pie chart.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 187

13. A project team always organizes the WBS around project products.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 187

14. A work package represents the level of work that the project manager monitors and controls.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 188

15. A work package should always represent less than 80 hours of work.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 188-189

16. You can only enter duration estimates for work packages.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 189

17. It is easy to create a good WBS.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 189

18. The tasks in a WBS do not have to be developed as a sequential list of steps.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 190

19. If you want some time-based flow for the work, you can create a WBS using the project management process groups of initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing as Level 2 in the WBS.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 190

20. The executing tasks of the WBS remain constant from project to project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 190

21. Many organizations provide guidelines and templates for developing WBSs.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 192

22. Mind mapping allows people to write and even draw pictures of ideas in a nonlinear format.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 193

23. The format of the WBS dictionary should be the same from project to project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 194

24. A unit of work should appear at only one place in the WBS.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 196

25. Lack of user input leads to problems with managing scope creep and controlling change.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 200

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The term ____ describes a product produced as part of a project.
a. end-product c. deliverable
b. scope d. outcome

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 178

2. There are ____ main processes involved in project scope management.
a. three c. five
b. four d. six

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 178

3. ____ involves defining and documenting the features and functions of the products produced during the project as well as the processes used for creating them.
a. Collecting requirements c. Controlling scope
b. Defining scope d. Verifying scope

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 178

4. ____ involves reviewing the project charter, requirements documents, and organizational process assets to create a scope statement, adding more information as requirements are developed and change requests are approved.
a. Planning scope c. Controlling scope
b. Defining scope d. Verifying scope

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 179

5. ____ involves formalizing acceptance of the project deliverables and during this phase the key project stakeholders, such as the customer and sponsor for the project, inspect and then formally accept the deliverables during this process.
a. Planning scope c. Controlling scope
b. Defining scope d. Verifying scope

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 179

6. The main outputs of ____ are accepted deliverables and change requests.
a. planning scope c. defining scope
b. controlling scope d. verifying scope

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 179

7. ____ involves controlling changes to project scope throughout the life of the project, which is a challenge on many information technology projects.
a. Planning scope c. Controlling scope
b. Defining scope d. Verifying scope

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 179

8. Good ____ is very important to project success because it helps improve the accuracy of time, cost, and resource estimates, it defines a baseline for performance measurement and project control, and it aids in communicating clear work responsibilities.
a. scope planning c. scope definition
b. scope management d. scope verification

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 183

9. An up-to-date ____ is an important document for developing and confirming a common understanding of the project scope.
a. scope management plan c. WBS
b. project scope statement d. decomposition

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 185

10. Of the following constraints, it is most difficult to describe, agree upon, and meet the ____ goal of many projects.
a. scope c. cost
b. time d. technical

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 186

11. A(n) ____ is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defines the total scope of the project.
a. project charter c. project scope statement
b. business case d. work breakdown structure

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 186

12. In the WBS, the name of the entire project is the top box, called Level ____.
a. 0 c. 2
b. 1 d. 3

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 187

13. In the WBS, the main groupings for the work are listed in Level ____.
a. 0 c. 2
b. 1 d. 3

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 187

14. Many people confuse tasks on a WBS with ____.
a. goals c. responsibilities
b. objectives d. specifications

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 189

15. The ____ tasks vary the most from project to project.
a. closing c. planning
b. monitoring and controlling d. executing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 190

16. The ____ should list and describe all of the deliverables required for the project.
a. project charter c. WBS
b. scope statement d. Gantt chart

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 190

17. In the ____, you use a similar project’s WBS as a starting point.
a. top-down approach c. mind-mapping approach
b. bottom-up approach d. analogy approach

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 192

18. The ____ approach involves refining the work into greater and greater levels of detail.
a. analogy c. top-down
b. bottom-up d. mind mapping

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 193

19. The ____ approach is best suited to project managers who have vast technical insight and a big-picture perspective.
a. analogy c. top-down
b. bottom-up d. mind mapping

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 193

20. Project managers often use the ____ approach for projects that represent entirely new systems or approaches to doing a job, or to help create buy-in and synergy with a project team.
a. analogy c. top-down
b. bottom-up d. mind mapping

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 193

21. After discovering WBS items and structure using the ____ technique, you could then translate the information into chart or tabular form.
a. analogy c. top-down
b. bottom-up d. mind mapping

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 194

22. ____ involves formal acceptance of the completed project scope by the stakeholders.
a. Scope verification c. Scope control
b. Scope planning d. Scope definition

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 198

23. The goal of ____ is to influence the factors that cause scope changes, assure changes are processed according to procedures developed as part of integrated change control, and manage changes when they occur.
a. scope verification c. scope planning
b. scope control d. scope definition

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 198

24. ____ is a process for identifying and modeling business events, who initiated them, and how the system should respond to them.
a. Prototyping c. RAD
b. JAD d. Use case modeling

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 201

25. ____ uses highly organized and intensive workshops to bring together project stakeholders—the sponsor, users, business analysts, programmers, and so on—to jointly define and design information systems.
a. Prototyping c. RAD
b. JAD d. Use case modeling

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 201

COMPLETION

1. Factors such as user involvement, clear business objectives, a minimized or clearly defined scope, and firm basic requirements, are elements of _________________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 178

2. The main outputs of ____________________ are the project scope statement and updates to project documents.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 179

3. Creating the ______________________________ involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 179

4. Key inputs for preparing the project scope statement include the ____________________, requirements documentation, and organizational process assets such as policies and procedures related to scope statements as well as project files and lessons learned from previous, similar projects.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 183

5. The main outputs of scope definition are the _________________________ and project document updates.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 183

6. The project scope statement should reference ____________________, such as product specifications that will affect what products are produced or purchased, or corporate policies, which might affect how products or services are produced.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 185

7. A(n) ____________________ project scope statement is an important document for developing and confirming a common understanding of the project scope.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 185

8. Some project management experts believe that work should not be done on a project if it is not included in the _________________________.

ANS:
)

PTS: 1 REF: 187

9. PMI uses the term “____________________” to describe each level of work in the WBS.

ANS: task

PTS: 1 REF: 187

10. A(n) ____________________ is a task at the lowest level of the WBS.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 188

11. If ____________________ for developing a WBS exist, it is very important to follow them.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 191

12. In the ____________________ approach, team members first identify as many specific tasks related to the project as possible.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 193

13. ____________________ is a technique that uses branches radiating out from a core idea to structure thoughts and ideas.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 193

14. ____________________ can be used for developing WBSs using the top-down or bottom-up approach.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 194

15. A(n) ____________________ is a document that describes detailed information about each WBS item.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 194

16. The approved project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary form the ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 196

17. ____________________ is the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 197

18. The main tool for performing scope verification is ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 198

19. ____________________ involves controlling changes to the project scope.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 198

20. ____________________ is the difference between planned and actual performance.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 199

ESSAY

1. List and briefly describe the five main processes involved in project scope management.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 178-179

2. What is a work breakdown structure? What are the inputs and tools used for creating one?

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 186-187

3. List and briefly describe five approaches for creating work breakdown structures.

ANS:
PTS: 1 REF: 191-194

4. Describe the process of scope verification.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 198

5. What are some of the suggestions for improving the requirements process?

ANS:
PTS: 1 REF: 200-202

Chapter 6: Project Time Management

TRUE/FALSE

1. Many information technology projects are failures in terms of meeting scope, time, and cost projections.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 212

2. Managers often cite cost issues during the end phase of a project as one of their biggest challenges and the main cause of conflict.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 212

3. Schedule performance can be estimated by subtracting the original time estimate from how long it really took to complete the project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 212

4. Individual work styles and cultural differences may cause schedule conflicts.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 212

5. Different cultures may have different perceptions of work ethic.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 212

6. The outputs to schedule development include activity duration estimates and project document updates.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 213

7. The main outputs of estimating activity resources include the activity list and attributes, project scope statement, milestone list, and organizational process assets.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 213

8. Most managers are unfamiliar with any forms of scheduling.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 214

9. Project schedules grow out of the basic documents that initiate a project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 214

10. It only takes one activity to complete a milestone.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 215

11. Activity information is not a required input to the other time management processes.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 215

12. After defining project activities, the next step in project time management is sequencing them or determining their dependencies.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 217

13. Even though the delivery of new hardware may not be in the scope of a project, you should add an external dependency to it if required project activities depend on that delivery.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 217

14. Network diagrams are the preferred technique for showing activity discretionary dependencies.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 218

15. The arrows in a network diagram represent the activity sequencing or relationships between tasks.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 218

16. It is not necessary to complete all of the activities on the network diagram in order for the project to finish.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 218

17. Every item on the WBS needs to be on the network diagram.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 218

18. Start-to-finish relationships are the most common type of relationships.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 220

19. It is important that the people who help determine what resources are necessary include people who have experience and expertise in similar projects and with the organization performing the project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 221

20. Duration only includes the actual amount of time worked on an activity.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 222

21. In a Gantt chart created in Microsoft Project, a black diamond symbol represents a milestone.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 224

22. A Tracking Gantt chart is based on the percentage of work completed for project tasks or the actual start and finish dates.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 228

23. Most projects have one path through a network diagram.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 228

24. The critical path always includes the most critical activities.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 229

25. A fast and easy way to determine early and late start and finish dates and free and total slack amounts for activities is by using project management software.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 231

26. Fast tracking can end up lengthening the project schedule.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 233

27. By using the PERT weighted average for each activity duration estimate, the total project duration estimate does not account for the risk or uncertainty in the individual activity estimates.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 236

28. One of PERT’s main disadvantages is that it involves more work than CPM.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 237

29. Many projects, especially in information technology, have very unrealistic schedule expectations.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 238

30. Project management software does not have the capacity to automatically generate network diagrams and calculate the critical path(s) for the project.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 240

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. There are ____ main processes involved in project time management.
a. two c. six
b. four d. ten

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 213

2. ____ involves identifying the specific activities that the project team members and stakeholders must perform to produce the project deliverables.
a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources
b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity durations

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 213

3. The main outputs of the ____ process are an activity list, activity attributes, and milestone list.
a. defining activities c. resource estimating activities
b. sequencing activities d. duration estimating activities

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 213

4. ____ involves identifying and documenting the relationships between project activities.
a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources
b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity durations

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 213

5. ____ involves estimating the number of work periods that are needed to complete individual activities.
a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources
b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity durations

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 213

6. ____ involves analyzing activity sequences, activity resource estimates, and activity duration estimates to create the project schedule.
a. Estimating activity durations c. Controlling the schedule
b. Developing the schedule d. Estimating activity resources

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 214

7. ____ involves controlling and managing changes to the project schedule.
a. Estimating activity durations c. Controlling the schedule
b. Developing the schedule d. Estimating activity resources

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 214

8. Outputs from ____ include work performance measurements, organizational process assets updates, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates.
a. estimating activity durations c. controlling the schedule
b. developing schedules d. estimating activity resources

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 214

9. The ____ provide(s) schedule-related information about each activity, such as predecessors, successors, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions related to the activity.
a. activity list c. activity descriptions
b. milestones d. activity attributes

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 215

10. The goal of ____ is to ensure that the project team has complete understanding of all the work they must do as part of the project scope so they can start scheduling the work.
a. defining activities c. estimating activity resources
b. sequencing activities d. estimating activity durations

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 215

11. ____ results in supporting detail to document important product information as well as assumptions and constraints related to specific activities.
a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources
b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity duration

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 216

12. ____ involves evaluating the reasons for dependencies and the different types of dependencies.
a. Defining activities c. Estimating activity resources
b. Sequencing activities d. Estimating activity duration

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 217

13. ____ dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work being performed on a project.
a. Mandatory c. External
b. Discretionary d. Internal

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 217

14. ____ dependencies are sometimes referred to as soft logic and should be used with care since they may limit later scheduling options.
a. Mandatory c. External
b. Discretionary d. Internal

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 217

15. ____ dependencies involve relationships between project and non-project activities.
a. Mandatory c. External
b. Discretionary d. Internal

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 217

16. ____ occur when two or more activities follow a single node.
a. Combinations c. Merges
b. Conflicts d. Bursts

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 219

17. On a network diagram, all arrowheads should face toward the ____.
a. top c. right
b. left d. bottom

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 219

18. The ____ is a network diagramming technique in which boxes represent activities.
a. PDM c. ADM
b. AOA d. POA

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 219

19. In a ____ relationship, the “from” activity must finish before the “to” activity can start.
a. start-to-start c. finish-to-finish
b. finish-to-start d. start-to-finish

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 220

20. In a ____ relationship, the “from” activity cannot start until the “to” activity is started.
a. start-to-start c. finish-to-finish
b. finish-to-start d. start-to-finish

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 220

21. In a ____ relationship, one task cannot finish before another finishes.
a. start-to-start c. finish-to-finish
b. finish-to-start d. start-to-finish

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 220

22. A ____ is a hierarchical structure that identifies the project’s resources by category and type.
a. work breakdown structure c. network diagram
b. resource breakdown structure d. critical path analysis

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 222

23. The activity list, activity attributes, activity resource requirements, resource calendars, project scope statement, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets all include information that affect ____.
a. definitions c. resource estimates
b. sequences d. duration estimates

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 223

24. The ultimate goal of ____ is to create a realistic project schedule that provides a basis for monitoring project progress for the time dimension of the project.
a. defining activities c. developing the schedule
b. sequencing activities d. estimating activity duration

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 223

25. ____ provide(s) a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a calendar format.
a. Gantt charts c. Critical chain scheduling
b. Critical path analysis d. PERT analysis

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 224

26. ____ is a network diagramming technique used to predict total project duration.
a. A Gantt chart c. Critical chain scheduling
b. Critical path analysis d. PERT analysis

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 228

27. The critical path is the ____ path through a network diagram, and it represents the ____ time it takes to complete a project.
a. longest; longest c. shortest; longest
b. longest; shortest d. shortest; shortest

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 228-229

28. ____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following activities.
a. Total slack c. Free time
b. Total float d. Free slack

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 230

29. ____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the planned project finish date.
a. Total slack c. Total time
b. Free float d. Free slack

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 230

30. The ____ for an activity is the latest possible time an activity might begin without delaying the project finish date.
a. early entry date c. late start date
b. late entry date d. early start date

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 230

31. ____ is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost.
a. Crushing c. Fast tracking
b. Crashing d. Expediting

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 233

32. ____ involves doing activities in parallel that you would normally do in sequence.
a. Crushing c. Fast tracking
b. Crashing d. Expediting

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 233

33. ____ is a method of scheduling that considers limited resources when creating a project schedule and includes buffers to protect the project completion date.
a. A Gantt chart c. Critical chain scheduling
b. Critical path analysis d. PERT analysis

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 233

34. Critical chain scheduling protects tasks on the critical chain from being delayed by using ____, which consist of additional time added before tasks on the critical chain that are preceded by non-critical-path tasks.
a. critical paths c. dummy activities
b. feeding buffers d. fast tracking

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 235

35. ____ states that work expands to fill the time allowed.
a. Murphy’s Law c. Parkinson’s Law
b. Newton’s Law d. Moore’s Law

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 235

36. ____ use(s) probabilistic time estimates—duration estimates based on using optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates of activity durations—instead of one specific or discrete duration estimate.
a. Critical Path Analysis c. Critical Chain Scheduling
b. Gantt charts d. PERT

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 236

37. The goal of ____ is to know the status of the schedule, influence the factors that cause schedule changes, determine that the schedule has changed, and manage changes when they occur.
a. activity duration estimating c. schedule control
b. schedule development d. activity resource estimating

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 237

38. Project managers often illustrate progress with a ____ showing key deliverables and activities.
a. Tracking Gantt chart c. network diagram
b. Gantt chart d. PERT chart

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 239

39. Project managers must use discipline to control ____.
a. project bursts c. project critical paths
b. project schedules d. project dependencies

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 239

40. Project management software highlights the critical path in ____ on a network diagram.
a. blue c. green
b. yellow d. red

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 240

COMPLETION

1. ____________________ is the one variable in project scheduling that has the least amount of flexibility.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 212

2. _________________________ involves the processes required to ensure timely completion of a project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 213

3. ______________________________ involves estimating how many people, equipment, and materials a project team should use to perform project activities.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 213

4. Outputs of ______________________________ include activity duration estimates and project document updates.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 213

5. The ____________________ is a tabulation of activities to be included on a project schedule.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 215

6. A(n) ____________________ on a project is a significant event that normally has no duration.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 215

7. In the activity definition process, the project team should review the ____________________ and activity attributes with project stakeholders before moving on to the next step in project time management.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 216

8. A(n) ____________________ is a schematic display of the logical relationships among, or sequencing of, project activities.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 218

9. In a network diagram, a(n) ____________________ is simply the starting and ending point of an activity.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 218

10. In a(n) ____________________ relationship, the “from” activity must start before the “to” activity can be finished.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 220

11. ____________________ have no duration and no resources but are occasionally needed on AOA network diagrams to show logical relationships between activities.

ANS

PTS: 1 REF: 220

12. ____________________ is the number of workdays or work hours required to complete a task.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 222

13. Duration estimates are often provided as a discrete number, such as four weeks, or as a range, such as three to five weeks, or as a(n) ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 223

14. To make milestones meaningful, some people use the ____________________ criteria to help define them.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 226

15. A(n) ____________________ Gantt chart compares planned and actual project schedule information.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 226-227

16. A white diamond on the Tracking Gantt chart represents a(n) ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 227

17. A(n) ____________________ for a project is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which the project can be completed.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 228

18. A(n) ____________________ determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 230

19. The ______________________________ is based on the fact that, like a chain with its weakest link, any complex system at any point in time often has only one aspect or constraint that limits its ability to achieve more of its goal.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 233

20. ____________________ occurs when a resource works on more than one task at a time.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 234

21. ____________________ states that if something can go wrong, it will.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 235

22. The main outputs of ____________________ include work performance measurements, organizational process assets updates, such as lessons-learned reports related to schedule control, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 237

23. One of the first reality checks on scheduling that a project manager should make is to review the ____________________ usually included in the project charter.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 238

24. Managers like to see progress made on projects approximately each ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 239

25. Many project management software programs come with ____________________ or sample files.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 241

ESSAY

1. List and briefly describe the main processes involved in project time management.

PTS: 1 REF: 213-214

2. What are the basic reasons for creating dependencies among project activities? Describe each.

PTS: 1 REF: 217

3. What is a network diagram? What formats exist for creating network diagrams?

PTS: 1 REF: 218-219

4. Describe critical path analysis. How is the critical path calculated?

PTS: 1 REF: 228

5. What is the Theory of Constraints? What is Critical Chain Scheduling?

PTS: 1 REF: 233-234

Chapter 7: Project Cost Management

TRUE/FALSE

1. Although information technology projects have a poor track record in meeting project goals, they have a good track record in meeting budget goals.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 254

2. Preparing cost estimates is a job for accountants.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 256

3. Any new technology or business process is untested and has inherent risks.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 256

4. Many projects that are started never finish because of cost management problems.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 257

5. When justifying investments in new information systems and technology, the focus should only be on revenues or expenses.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 257

6. Organizations have a history of spending too much money in the early phases of information technology projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 258

7. Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine net present value.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 259

8. Direct costs cannot be directly attributed to a certain project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 260

9. When deciding what projects to invest in or continue, you should include sunk costs.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 260

10. Learning curve theory does not apply to the amount of time it takes to complete some tasks.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 260

11. If a project manager gets sick for two weeks or an important supplier goes out of business, management reserve could be set aside to cover the resulting costs.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 260

12. ROM estimates can be referred to as a ballpark estimate, a guesstimate, a swag, or a broad gauge.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 261

13. A definitive estimate should be the least accurate of the three types of estimates.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 262

14. Estimates are usually done at various stages of a project and should become more accurate as time progresses.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 262

15. The cost management plan is part of the overall project management plan.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 262

16. A large percentage of total project costs are often labor costs.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 263

17. Parametric models are least reliable when historical information was used to create the model.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 264

18. When developing an estimate for a large software project, estimates cannot be made before clear system requirements have been produced.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 265

19. The people who develop software cost estimates often have a great deal of experience with cost estimation.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 265

20. Every cost estimate is unique.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 265

21. The WBS is not a required input when developing a cost estimate.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 266

22. Most organizations have a well-established process for preparing budgets.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 270

23. Cost budgeting provides information for project funding requirements.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 271

24. There does not need to be a change control system to define procedures for changing the cost baseline.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 272

25. The formulas for variances and indexes start with EV, the earned value.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 274

26. If cost variance is a positive number, it means that performing the work cost more than planned.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 275

27. If the cost performance index is less than one or less than 100 percent, the project is under budget.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 275

28. In an earned value chart, when the actual cost line is right on or above the earned value line, costs are less than or equal to planned.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 276

29. Many projects, particularly information technology projects, do not have good planning information, so tracking performance against a plan might produce misleading information.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 277

30. Databases are a common tool for cost estimating, cost budgeting, and cost control.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 279

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The Standish Group’s CHAOS studies reported an average cost overrun for unsuccessful IT projects ranged from 180 percent in 1994 to ____ percent in 2004.
a. 28 c. 56
b. 43 d. 73

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 254

2. Three separate surveys of software project cost overruns found that the average cost overrun for all of the projects in their survey samples (not just unsuccessful projects) were ____ percent.
a. 13–14 c. 33–34
b. 23–24 d. 43–44

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 254

3. ____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget.
a. Cost budgeting c. Cost control
b. Cost estimating d. Project cost management

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 256

4. ____ involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete a project.
a. Determining the budget c. Controlling costs
b. Consolidation of costs d. Estimating costs

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 256

5. ____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance.
a. Determining the budget c. Controlling costs
b. Consolidation of costs d. Estimating costs

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 256

6. ____ is the ratio of revenues to profits.
a. Profit c. Cost structure
b. Profit margin d. Cost margin

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 257-258

7. ____ helps you develop an accurate projection of a project’s financial costs and benefits.
a. Profit cycle costing c. Life cycle costing
b. Financial costing d. Profit margin costing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 258

8. ____, with assistance from financial experts in their organizations, should create estimates of the costs and benefits of the project for its entire life cycle.
a. Financial managers c. Budget managers
b. Project managers d. System managers

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 258

9. Since organizations depend on reliable information technology, there are also huge costs associated with ____.
a. work time c. uptime
b. technical planning d. downtime

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 258

10. ____ is a method for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project and the resulting annual cash flow.
a. Life cycle costing c. Cost estimating
b. Profit margin analysis d. Cash flow analysis

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 259

11. ____ are those costs that an organization can easily measure in dollars.
a. Intangible costs c. Tangible costs
b. Direct costs d. Indirect costs

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 259

12. Project managers should focus on ____, since they can control them.
a. sunk costs c. direct costs
b. indirect costs d. intangible costs

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 260

13. ____ are costs that are not directly related to the products or services of the project, but are indirectly related to performing the project.
a. Intangible costs c. Direct costs
b. Tangible costs d. Indirect costs

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 260

14. ____ should be forgotten.
a. Sunk costs c. Direct costs
b. Indirect costs d. Intangible costs

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 260

15. ____ allow for future situations that may be partially planned for.
a. Contingency reserves c. Unknown unknowns
b. Management reserves d. Direct reserves

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 260

16. ____ allow for future situations that are unpredictable.
a. Contingency reserves c. Known unknowns
b. Management reserves d. Indirect reserves

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 260

17. A ____ provides an estimate of what a project will cost.
a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate
b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 261

18. A ____ is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started.
a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate
b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 261

19. A ____ is used to allocate money into an organization’s budget.
a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate
b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 261

20. A ____ is used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs.
a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate
b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 261

21. ____ use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.
a. Actual estimates c. Bottom-up estimates
b. Parametric estimates d. Analogous estimates

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 263

22. ____ involve estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total.
a. Actual estimates c. Bottom-up estimates
b. Parametric estimates d. Analogous estimates

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 264

23. A(n) ____ might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the programming language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on.
a. analogous cost estimate c. bottom-up estimate
b. parametric model d. reserve analysis

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 264

24. Tom DeMarco, a well-known author on software development, suggests ____ reasons for the inaccuracies of many information technology project cost estimates and some ways to overcome them.
a. three c. five
b. four d. six

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 264-265

25. If the cost estimate will be the basis for contract awards and performance reporting, it should be a ____ and as accurate as possible.
a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate
b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 266

26. The main goal of the ____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements.
a. cost budgeting c. cost control
b. cost consolidation d. cost estimating

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 270

27. A ____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance.
a. budget baseline c. cost baseline
b. ledger d. cost line

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 271

28. The project management plan, project funding requirements, work performance data, and organizational process assets are inputs for the process of ____.
a. controlling costs c. consolidating costs
b. budgeting costs d. estimating costs

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 272

29. ____ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data.
a. Cost baseline c. Constructive cost modeling
b. Earned value management d. Parametric modeling

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 273

30. The ____ is that portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period.
a. AC c. RP
b. EV d. PV

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 273

31. The ____ is the ratio of actual work completed to the percentage of work planned to have been completed at any given time during the life of the project or activity.
a. AC c. RP
b. EV d. PV

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 273

32. The ____ is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed.
a. AC c. RP
b. EV d. PV

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 273

33. The ____ is the total direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing work on an activity during a given period.
a. AC c. RP
b. EV d. PV

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 273

34. Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned value from ____.
a. EV c. PV
b. AC d. RP

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 274

35. ____ is the earned value minus the actual cost.
a. SV c. CPI
b. CV d. SPI

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 275

36. ____ is the earned value minus the planned value.
a. SV c. CPI
b. CV d. SPI

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 275

37. The ____ is the ratio of earned value to actual cost and can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project.
a. SV c. CPI
b. CV d. SPI

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 275

38. The ____ is the ratio of earned value to planned value and can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project.
a. SV c. CPI
b. CV d. SPI

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 275

39. The ____ is an estimate of what it will cost to complete the project based on performance to date.
a. CPI c. EAC
b. SV d. SPI

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 275

40. Using simplified percentage complete amounts for a one-year project with weekly reporting and an average task or work packet size of one week, you can expect about a(n) ____ percent error rate.
a. 1 c. 11
b. 5 d. 15

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 277

COMPLETION

1. Using good _________________________ can change the false perception that costs grow and failures are to be expected.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 256

2. The main outputs of the ____________________ process are activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 256

3. The main outputs of the ____________________ process are a cost performance baseline, project funding requirements, and project document updates.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 256

4. The main outputs of the ____________________ process are work performance measurements, budget forecasts, organizational process asset updates, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 256

5. Information technology project managers need to be able to present and discuss project information in ____________________ terms as well as in technical terms.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 257

6. ____________________ are revenues minus expenditures.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 257

7. ____________________ allows you to see a big-picture view of the cost of a project throughout its life cycle.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 258

8. ____________________ considers the total cost of ownership, or development plus support costs, for a project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 258

9. ____________________ costs or benefits are costs or benefits that are difficult to measure in monetary terms.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 259

10. ____________________ cost is money that has been spent in the past.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 260

11. ____________________ states that when many items are produced repetitively, the unit cost of those items decreases in a regular pattern as more units are produced.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 260

12. A(n) ____________________ is a document that describes how the organization will manage cost variances on the project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 262

13. ____________________ costs are often much higher for contractors.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 263

14. ____________________ uses project characteristics in a mathematical model to estimate project costs.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 264

15. In practice, many people find that using a combination or hybrid approach involving analogous, bottom up, and/or parametric modeling provides the best ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 264

16. It is helpful to analyze the total dollar value as well as the percentage of the total amount for each major ______________________________ category.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 269

17. It’s important for the team to ____________________ assumptions they made when developing the cost baseline and have several experts review it.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 270

18. In addition to providing input for budgetary estimates, cost budgeting provides a(n) ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 271

19. ____________________ has many cost management features to help you enter budgeted costs, set a baseline, enter actuals, calculate variances, and run various cost reports.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 272

20. A(n) ____________________ is the original project plan plus approved changes.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 273

21. After you total the EV, AC, and PV data for all activities on a project, you can use the CPI and ___________________________________ to project how much it will cost and how long it will take to finish the project based on performance to date.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 275

22. In general, ____________________ numbers for cost and schedule variance indicate problems in those areas.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 275

23. _________________________ and SPI less than one or less than 100 percent indicate problems.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 275

24. The cost performance index can be used to calculate the ______________________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 275

25. Many organizations now collect and control an entire suite of projects or investments as one set of interrelated activities in one place, called a(n) ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 278

ESSAY

1. List and briefly describe the three project cost management processes.
PTS: 1 REF: 256

2. What are tangible, intangible, direct and indirect costs? Give examples of each.

PTS: 1 REF: 259-260

3. What are the three basic types of cost estimating? Describe each type.

PTS: 1 REF: 261-262

4. Describe four problems with Information Technology cost estimates.

PTS: 1 REF: 265

5. List and describe the three values calculated for an activity in earned value management. Give examples of each.

PTS: 1 REF: 273

Chapter 8: Project Quality Management

TRUE/FALSE

1. Most people simply accept poor quality from many information technology products.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 293

2. The majority of people in the United States use the Internet.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 293

3. When an information system does not function correctly, it is generally a slight inconvenience.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 293

4. Quality is a lower priority than project scope, time, and cost.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 295

5. The quality planning process involves taking responsibility for quality throughout the project’s life cycle.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 295

6. Quality planning implies the ability to anticipate situations and prepare actions that bring about the desired outcome.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 296

7. Understanding which variables affect outcome is a very important part of quality planning.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 296

8. Design of experiments cannot be applied to project management issues such as cost and schedule trade-offs.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 296-297

9. Organizational policies related to quality, the particular project’s scope statement and product descriptions, and related standards and regulations are all important input to the quality assurance process.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 297

10. It is important to clarify what functions and features the system must perform, and what functions and features are optional.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 297

11. Most information technology products can reach 100 percent reliability.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 298

12. Project managers are ultimately responsible for quality management on their projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 298

13. Continuous quality improvement is not a goal of quality assurance.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 298

14. Only in-house auditors can perform quality audits.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 299

15. If products are accepted, they are considered to be validated deliverables.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 299

16. In a Pareto chart, the variables described by the histogram are ordered chronologically.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 304

17. To obtain valid statistics, it is important to study every member of a population.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 306

18. Control charts are one tool used in the analyze phase of the DMAIC process.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 308

19. All of the Six Sigma principles are brand new.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 308

20. Using Six Sigma principles is an organization-wide commitment.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 308

21. Minimizing defects does not matter if an organization is making a product that no one wants to buy.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 310

22. The term sigma means median.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 310

23. Testing needs to be done during almost every phase of the systems development life cycle.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 313

24. Integration testing replaces the other forms of testing with a single comprehensive test.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 313

25. Modern quality management requires customer satisfaction, prefers prevention to inspection, and recognizes management responsibility for quality.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 315

26. In TQC, product quality is less important than production rates, and workers are not allowed to stop production whenever a quality problem occurs.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 318

27. ISO 9000 provides minimum requirements needed for an organization to meet its quality certification standards.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 318

28. Many quality experts believe the main cause of quality problems is the lack of leadership.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 319

29. DeMarco and Lister found direct correlations between productivity and programming language, years of experience, and salary.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 322

30. Expectations can vary based on an organization’s culture or geographic region.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 322

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. It took only ____ years for 50 million people to use the Internet compared to 25 years for 50 million people to use telephones.
a. three c. seven
b. five d. nine

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 293

2. ____ means the project’s processes and products meet written specifications.
a. Conformance to requirements c. Quality conformance
b. Fitness for use d. Documentation matching

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 294

3. The ____ ultimately decides if quality is acceptable.
a. project team c. project manager
b. CEO d. customer

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 295

4. Project quality management involves ____ main processes.
a. two c. four
b. three d. five

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 295

5. ____ includes identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to satisfy those standards.
a. Performing quality assurance c. Checking quality
b. Performing quality control d. Planning quality

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 295

6. The main outputs of ____ are a quality management plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, a process improvement plan, and project document updates.
a. quality control c. quality assurance
b. quality planning d. quality certification

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 295

7. ____ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
a. Performing quality assurance c. Checking quality
b. Performing quality control d. Planning quality

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 295

8. ____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality.
a. Performing quality assurance c. Checking quality
b. Performing quality control d. Planning quality

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 295

9. The ____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling.
a. quality planning c. quality assurance
b. quality certification d. quality control

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 295

10. ____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function.
a. Reliability c. Maintainability
b. Performance d. Functionality

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 297

11. ____ are the system’s special characteristics that appeal to users.
a. Features c. Properties
b. System outputs d. Functions

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 297

12. ____ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer’s intended use.
a. Reliability c. Maintainability
b. Performance d. Functionality

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 297

13. ____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions.
a. Reliability c. Maintainability
b. Performance d. Functionality

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 298

14. ____ addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product.
a. Reliability c. Maintainability
b. Performance d. Functionality

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 298

15. ____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization.
a. Design of experiments c. Testing
b. Quality auditing d. Benchmarking

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 299

16. ____determine(s) if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected.
a. Process adjustments c. Acceptance decisions
b. Rework d. Auditing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 299

17. ____ is action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations.
a. A process adjustment c. An acceptance decision
b. Rework d. Auditing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 300

18. ____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements.
a. Process adjustments c. Acceptance decisions
b. Rework d. Auditing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 300

19. A ____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time.
a. statistical sampling chart c. Six Sigma chart
b. Pareto chart d. control chart

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 301

20. The ____ states that if seven data points in a row are all below the mean, above the mean, or are all increasing or decreasing, then the process needs to be examined for non-random problems.
a. ten run rule c. seven run rule
b. six 9s of quality rule d. Six Sigma rule

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 302

21. ____ help(s) you identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system.
a. Statistical sampling c. Six Sigma
b. Pareto charts d. Quality control charts

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 304

22. ____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection.
a. Statistical sampling c. Six Sigma
b. Pareto analysis d. Quality control charting

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 306

23. A certainty factor of 1.960 is used for ____ percent desired certainty.
a. 75 c. 96
b. 95 d. 99

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 306

24. ____ is a comprehensive and flexible system for achieving, sustaining and maximizing business success.
a. Statistical sampling c. Six Sigma
b. Pareto analysis d. Quality control charting

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 307

25. Six Sigma’s target for perfection is the achievement of no more than ____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities.
a. 1.34 c. 34
b. 3.4 d. 340

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 307

26. Important tools used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data.
a. define c. analyze
b. measure d. improve

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 307

27. An important tool used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram.
a. define c. analyze
b. measure d. improve

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 307

28. A ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed).
a. skewed distribution c. polynomial distribution
b. normal distribution d. symmetrical distribution

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 310

29. In any normal distribution, ____ percent of the population is within three standard deviations of the mean.
a. 95.5 c. 99.7
b. 99.0 d. 99.9

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 310

30. A(n) ____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements.
a. defect c. error
b. failure d. recall

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 312

31. A(n) ____ is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible.
a. integration test c. user acceptance test
b. unit test d. system test

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 313

32. ____ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system.
a. Integration testing c. User acceptance testing
b. Unit testing d. System testing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 313

33. One of ____ 14 Points for Management states that an organization should cease dependence on inspection to achieve quality.
a. Deming’s c. Crosby’s
b. Juran’s d. Ishikawa’s

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 315

34. One of ____ ten steps states that an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement.
a. Deming’s c. Juran’s
b. Crosby’s d. Ishikawa’s

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 316

35. Juran’s final step to quality improvement is ____.
a. organize to reach the goals (establish a quality council, identify problems, select projects, appoint teams, designate facilitators)
b. keep score
c. report progress
d. maintain momentum by making annual improvement part of the regular systems and processes of the company

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 316

36. ____ wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects.
a. Juran c. Crosby
b. Ishikawa d. Deming

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 316

37. ____, a quality system standard developed by the ISO, is a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization.
a. IEEE 15504 c. IEEE 9000
b. ISO 9000 d. ISO 15504

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 318

38. ____ is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range.
a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost
b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 320

39. ____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer.
a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost
b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 321

40. ____ helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes.
a. SQFD c. SQMMI
b. CMM d. CMMI

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 323

COMPLETION

1. The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) defines ____________________ as “the totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs.”

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 294

2. ____________________ means a product can be used as it was intended.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 294

3. The purpose of ______________________________ is to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 295

4. Examples of common ____________________ include failure rates of products produced, availability of goods and services, and customer satisfaction ratings.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 295

5. Performing ____________________ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 295

6. Performing ____________________ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 295

7. _________________________ is a quality planning technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 296

8. ____________________ are the screens and reports the system generates.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 297

9. Top management and ____________________ can have the greatest impact on the quality of projects by doing a good job of quality assurance.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 299

10. A(n) ____________________ is a structured review of specific quality management activities that help identify lessons learned that could improve performance on current or future projects.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 299

11. ____________________ often perform quality audits by helping to design specific quality metrics for a project and then applying and analyzing the metrics throughout the project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 299

12. ____________________ often results in requested changes and validated defect repair, resulting from recommended defect repair or corrective or preventive actions.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 300

13. ____________________ diagrams trace complaints about quality problems back to the responsible production operations.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 300

14. A(n) ____________________ is a histogram that can help you identify and prioritize problem areas.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 304

15. Standard deviation and ____________________ are fundamental concepts for understanding quality control charts.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 306

16. Sample size = 0.25 * (____________________/acceptable error)2

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 306

17. Projects that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follow a five-phase improvement process called ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 307

18. ____________________ measures how much variation exists in a distribution of data.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 310

19. The ____________________ represents the number of units handled correctly through the process steps.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 312

20. ____________________ is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 312

21. Watts S. Humphrey defines a(n) ____________________ as anything that must be changed before delivery of the program.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 314

22. ____________________ are groups of non-supervisors and work leaders in a single company department who volunteer to conduct group studies on how to improve the effectiveness of work in their department.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 317

23. ____________________ design methods focus on eliminating defects by substituting scientific inquiry for trial-and-error methods.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 318

24. The ____________________ means taking responsibility for failures or not meeting quality expectations.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 320

25. The _____________________________________________ model focuses on defining user requirements and planning software projects.

ANS:
)

PTS: 1 REF: 323

ESSAY

1. List and briefly describe the three project quality management processes.

PTS: 1 REF: 295-296

2. What are the three main outcomes of quality control? Briefly describe each.

PTS: 1 REF: 299-300

3. What are the five phases in the DMAIC process? Briefly describe each one.

PTS: 1 REF: 307-308

4. Describe the relationship between Six Sigma and Statistics. What statistical concepts are involved in the Six Sigma philosophy?

PTS: 1 REF: 310-311

5. What are the five major cost categories related to quality? Briefly describe each category.

PTS: 1 REF: 320-321

Chapter 9: Project Human Resource Management

TRUE/FALSE

1. Most project managers agree that managing human resources effectively is one of the toughest challenges they face.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 338

2. The global job market for information technology workers is contracting.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 338

3. Hiring managers say interpersonal skills are the least important soft skill for information technology workers.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 339

4. As the job market changes, people should upgrade their skills to remain marketable and flexible.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 339

5. Many highly qualified information technology workers lost their jobs in the past few years.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 339

6. If companies plan their projects well, they can avoid the need for overtime, or they can make it clear that overtime is optional.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 340

7. Team-building skills are often not a challenge for many project managers.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 343

8. Extrinsic motivation causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 344

9. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs states that people’s behaviors are guided or motivated by a sequence of needs.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 344

10. Maslow suggests that each level of the hierarchy of needs is not necessarily a prerequisite for the levels above.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 344

11. According to Herzberg, hygiene factors such as larger salaries, more supervision, or a more attractive work environment would motivate workers to do more if present.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 345-346

12. People who need institutional power or social power want to organize others to further the goals of the organization.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 347

13. People who believe in Theory Y assume that workers dislike and avoid work if possible, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to make adequate efforts to meet objectives.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 347

14. Project managers often do not have control over project staff who report to them.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 348

15. Assignment, budget, promotion, money, and penalty influence bases are automatically available to project managers as part of their position.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 348

16. Thamhain and Wilemon found that when project managers used work challenge and expertise to influence people, projects were more likely to succeed.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 348

17. Legitimate power involves using personal knowledge and expertise to get people to change their behavior.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 349

18. Smaller information technology projects usually have deputy project managers or subproject managers.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 353

19. A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) is a matrix that maps the work of the project as described in the OBS to the people responsible for performing the work as described in the WBS.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 354

20. A RAM should only be used to assign detailed work activities.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 355

21. A staffing management plan describes when and how people will be added to and taken off the project team.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 356

22. One innovative approach to hiring and retaining information technology staff is to offer existing employees incentives for helping recruit and retain personnel.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 358

23. Schedules tend to focus primarily on time rather than on both time and resources.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 359

24. If a certain resource is overallocated, the project manager can change the schedule to remove resource overallocation.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 361

25. When resources are used on a more constant basis, they require more management.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 362

26. Resource leveling results in fewer problems for project personnel and accounting departments.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 362

27. Project managers often recommend that people take specific training courses to improve individual and team development.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 363

28. The first dimension of psychological type in the MBTI signifies whether people draw their energy from other people (extroverts) or from inside themselves (introverts).

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 364

29. Project managers do not need to continually assess their team’s performance.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 368

30. Project managers should limit the size of work teams to eight to ten members.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 370

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Human resource management includes ____ processes.
a. three c. five
b. four d. six

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 343

2. ____ involves getting the needed personnel assigned to and working on the project.
a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team
b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 343

3. Key outputs of ____ process are project staff assignments, resource calendars, and project management plan updates.
a. managing the project team c. developing the project team
b. acquiring the project team d. developing the human resource plan

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 343

4. ____ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance.
a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team
b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 343

5. The main outputs of ____ process are team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factors updates.
a. managing the project team c. developing the project team
b. acquiring the project team d. human resource planning

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 343

6. ____ involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance.
a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team
b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 343

7. ____ involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships.
a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team
b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 343

8. Abraham Maslow, a highly respected psychologist, rejected the dehumanizing negativism of psychology in the ____.
a. 1940s c. 1960s
b. 1950s d. 1970s

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 344

9. ____ is best known for developing a hierarchy of needs.
a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow
b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 344

10. At the bottom of Maslow’s structure are ____ needs.
a. esteem c. physiological
b. self-actualization d. social

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 344

11. ____ is at the top of Maslow’s structure.
a. Esteem c. Physiological
b. Self-actualization d. Social

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 345

12. The bottom four needs in Maslow’s structure are referred to as ____ needs.
a. self-actualization c. safety
b. deficiency d. growth

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 345

13. The highest level of needs in Maslow’s structure is referred to as a ____ need.
a. deficiency c. safety
b. growth d. physiological

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 345

14. ____ is best known for distinguishing between motivational factors and hygiene factors when considering motivation in work settings.
a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow
b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 345

15. ____ found that people were motivated to work mostly by feelings of personal achievement and recognition.
a. Maslow c. McClelland
b. McGregor d. Herzberg

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 346

16. ____ proposed that an individual’s specific needs are acquired or learned over time and shaped by life experiences.
a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow
b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 346

17. People with a high need for ____ seek to excel and tend to avoid both low-risk and high-risk situations to improve their chances for achieving something worthwhile.
a. affiliation c. power
b. money d. achievement

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 347

18. People with a high need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted by others.
a. affiliation c. power
b. money d. achievement

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 347

19. People who need personal ____ want to direct others and can be seen as bossy.
a. affiliation c. power
b. advancement d. achievement

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 347

20. The ____ presents subjects with a series of ambiguous pictures and asks them to develop a spontaneous story for each picture, assuming they will project their own needs into the story.
a. RAM c. TAT
b. MBTI d. RACI

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 347

21. ____ is best known for developing Theory X and Theory Y.
a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow
b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 347

22. People who believe in ____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid responsibility.
a. Theory W c. Theory Y
b. Theory X d. Theory Z

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 347

23. ____ emphasizes things such as job rotation, broadening of skills, generalization versus specialization, and the need for continuous training of workers.
a. Theory W c. Theory Y
b. Theory X d. Theory Z

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 348

24. According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the legitimate hierarchical right to issue orders.
a. authority c. expertise
b. assignment d. promotion

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 348

25. According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the ability to improve a worker’s position.
a. authority c. expertise
b. assignment d. promotion

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 348

26. ____ involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do.
a. Legitimate power c. Reward power
b. Coercive power d. Referent power

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 349

27. ____ involves using incentives to induce people to do things.
a. Legitimate power c. Reward power
b. Coercive power d. Referent power

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 349

28. ____ is based on an individual’s personal charisma.
a. Legitimate power c. Reward power
b. Coercive power d. Referent power

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 349

29. Which of Covey’s habits does Douglas Ross suggest differentiates good project managers from average or poor project managers? ____
a. Think win/win
b. Seek first to understand, then to be understood
c. Begin with the end in mind
d. Synergize

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 351

30. ____ is matching certain behaviors of the other person.
a. Empathic listening c. Synergy
b. Rapport d. Mirroring

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 351

31. ____ fill in for project managers in their absence and assist them as needed.
a. Deputy project managers c. Assistant project managers
b. Subproject managers d. Second-tier project managers

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 352

32. The first step in the framework for defining and assigning work is ____.
a. defining how the work will be accomplished
b. breaking down the work into manageable elements
c. finalizing the project requirements
d. assigning work responsibilities

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 353

33. A(n) ____ is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time.
a. responsibility assignment matrix c. RACI charts
b. resource histogram d. organizational breakdown structure

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 357

34. ____ refers to the amount of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods.
a. Resource loading c. Resource allocation
b. Resource leveling d. Resource requesting

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 360

35. ____ is a technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks.
a. Resource loading c. Resource allocation
b. Resource leveling d. Resource requesting

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 361

36. In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs as team members have different opinions as to how the team should operate.
a. performing c. forming
b. norming d. storming

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 363

37. In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs when the emphasis is on reaching the team goals, rather than working on team process.
a. performing c. forming
b. norming d. storming

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 363

38. In the MBTI, the ____ dimension relates to the manner in which you gather information.
a. Extrovert/Introvert c. Judgment/Perception
b. Thinking/Feeling d. Sensation/Intuition

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 364

39. Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and task-oriented.
a. “Expressives” c. “Analyticals”
b. “Drivers” d. “Amiables”

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 366

40. Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and people-oriented.
a. “Expressives” c. “Analyticals”
b. “Drivers” d. “Amiables”

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 366

COMPLETION

1. If organizations want to be successful at implementing information technology projects, they need to understand the importance of project _________________________ and take actions to make effective use of people.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 340

2. Psychosocial issues that affect how people work and how well they work include ____________________, influence and power, and effectiveness.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 344

3. _________________________ causes people to do something for a reward or to avoid a penalty.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 344

4. Only after meeting ____________________ needs can individuals act upon growth needs.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 345

5. Herzberg called factors that cause job satisfaction ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 345

6. ____________________ should receive frequent performance feedback, and although money is not an important motivator to them, it is an effective form of feedback.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 347

7. The ___________________________________ is a tool to measure the individual needs of different people using McClelland’s categories.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 347

8. Managers who believe in McGregor’s ____________________ assume that individuals do not inherently dislike work, but consider it as natural as play or rest.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 347

9. ____________________ is the potential ability to influence behavior to get people to do things they would not otherwise do.

ANS: Power

PTS: 1 REF: 348

10. There are ____________________ main types of power, based on French and Raven’s classic study, “The Bases of Social Power.”

PTS: 1 REF: 349

11. ____________________ is getting people to do things based on a position of authority.

PTS: 1 REF: 349

12. ____________________ is the concept that the whole is equal to more than the sum of its parts.

PTS: 1 REF: 350

13. Covey, like Maslow, believes that people have the ability to be ____________________ and choose their responses to different situations.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 350

14. ____________________ is listening with the intent to understand.

PTS: 1 REF: 350

15. ____________________ is a relation of harmony, conformity, accord, or affinity.

PTS: 1 REF: 351

16. The ____________________ often includes an organizational chart for the project, detailed information on roles and responsibilities, and a staffing management plan.

PTS: 1 REF: 352

17. ____________________ are responsible for managing the subprojects into which a large project might be divided.

PTS: 1 REF: 352-353

18. A(n) ______________________________ or draft contract often provides the basis for defining and finalizing work requirements.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 353

19. The ________________________________________ allocates work to responsible and performing organizations, teams, or individuals, depending on the desired level of detail.

PTS: 1 REF: 354

20. A(n) ________________________________________ is a specific type of organizational chart that shows which organizational units are responsible for which work items.

PTS: 1 REF: 354

21. Some organizations use ____________________ to show Responsibility, Accountability, Consultation, and Informed roles for project stakeholders.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 355

22. ____________________ means more resources than are available are assigned to perform work at a given time.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 360

23. Resource ____________________ aims to minimize period-by-period variations in resource loading by shifting tasks within their slack allowances.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 361

24. The ___________________________________ is a popular tool for determining personality preferences.

PTS: 1 REF: 364

25. Many project managers keep a(n) ____________________ to document, monitor, and track issues that need to be resolved for the project team to work effectively.

PTS: 1 REF: 369

ESSAY

1. List and briefly describe the four processes involved in human resource management.

PTS: 1 REF: 343

2. Describe Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. How does it relate to information technology projects?

PTS: 1 REF: 344-345

3. What are the five main types of power? Briefly describe each type.

PTS: 1 REF: 349

4. What is a staffing management plan?

PTS: 1 REF: 356

5. What are the five stages of the Tuckman model? Briefly describe each stage.

PTS: 1 REF: 363

Chapter 10: Project Communications Management

TRUE/FALSE

1. The information technology field is relatively stable and unchanging.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 382

2. The gap between users and developers decreases as technology advances.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 382

3. Most educational systems for information technology graduates promote strong technical skills over strong communication and social skills.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 382

4. You can separate technical skills and soft skills when working on information technology projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 383

5. The communications management plan will vary with the needs of the project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 386

6. The communications management plan should not address frequency of communication.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 386-387

7. By analyzing stakeholder communications needs, you can avoid wasting time or money on creating or disseminating unnecessary information.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 387

8. Consistent communication helps organizations improve project communications, especially for programs composed of multiple projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 388

9. Many WBSs include a section for project communications to ensure that reporting key information is a project deliverable.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 388

10. Getting project information to the right people at the right time and in a useful format is not as important as developing the information in the first place.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 388

11. Instead of knowing the people working on their projects and developing a trusting relationship with them, many colleagues and managers should want to focus on getting information by reading technical documents.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 390

12. It is not important to document any changes in technical specifications that might affect product performance.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 391

13. People have a tendency to want to report bad information.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 391

14. Adding more people to a project that is falling behind schedule often causes more setbacks because of the increased complexity of communications.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 394

15. You can assume that a task originally scheduled to take two months of one person’s time can be done in one month by two people.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 394

16. Rarely does the receiver interpret a message exactly as the sender intended.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 394

17. Communicating badly exponentially increases the possibility of making fatal mistakes.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 395

18. Status reports can take various formats depending on the stakeholders’ needs.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 398

19. Many projects have each team member prepare a monthly or sometimes weekly progress report.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 398

20. Team members often create consolidated progress reports based on the information received from team leaders.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 398

21. Project managers should lead their teams in developing norms for dealing with various types of conflicts that might arise on their projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 399

22. When using the confrontation mode, project managers directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach that allows affected parties to work through their disagreements.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 400

23. Project managers must realize that all conflict is bad.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 400

24. Emotional conflict, which stems from personality clashes and misunderstandings, often depresses team performance.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 400

25. It is common to find someone with a natural ability for both communication and technical skills.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 400

26. Not understanding how to communicate effectively with other cultures and people of diverse backgrounds hurts projects and businesses.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 401

27. It is not good practice to include time for informal meetings with customers to help develop relationships and provide staff to assist in relationship management.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 401

28. Do not have a meeting if there is a better way of achieving the objective at hand.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 402

29. E-mail is always an appropriate medium for all types of communications.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 404

30. Project team members rarely need to see all project documentation.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 410

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. There are ____ main processes in project communications management.
a. two c. four
b. three d. five

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 383

2. ____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders.
a. Reporting performance c. Managing stakeholder expectations
b. Distributing information d. Planning communications

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 384

3. The output of the ____ process is a communications management plan.
a. reporting performance c. managing stakeholder expectations
b. distributing information d. planning communications

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 384

4. ____ involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner.
a. Reporting performance c. Managing stakeholder expectations
b. Distributing information d. Planning communications

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 384

5. ____ involves collecting and disseminating performance information, including status reports, progress measurement, and forecasting.
a. Reporting performance c. Managing stakeholder expectations
b. Distributing information d. Planning communications

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 384

6. The communications management plan can be part of the team ____.
a. WBS c. plan
b. contract d. guidelines

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 386

7. Having ____ review and approve all stakeholder communications analysis will ensure that the information is correct and useful.
a. stakeholders c. top management
b. project team members d. customers

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 388

8. Information regarding the content of essential project communications comes from the ____.
a. organizational chart c. work breakdown structure (WBS)
b. communications management plan d. expectations management matrix

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 388

9. The ____ serves as a good starting point for information distribution.
a. stakeholder communications analysis c. communications management plan
b. WBS d. status report

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 388

10. Often, many non-technical professionals—from colleagues to managers—prefer to ____ about project information to try to find pertinent information.
a. read detailed reports c. read Web pages
b. read e-mails d. have a two-way conversation

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 390

11. ____ are often more effective, particularly for sensitive information.
a. Electronic communications c. Telephone conversations
b. Short face-to-face meetings d. Long face-to-face meetings

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 390

12. Many people cite research that says in a face-to-face interaction, ____ percent of communication is through body language.
a. 10 c. 58
b. 25 d. 85

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 391

13. Since information technology projects often require a lot of coordination, it is a good idea to have ____ meetings.
a. long, frequent c. short, frequent
b. short, infrequent d. long, infrequent

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 391

14. According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only inappropriate method for expressing support/appreciation.
a. phone call c. meeting
b. e-mail d. Web site

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 392

15. According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only method that is “excellent” for encouraging creative thinking.
a. phone call c. meeting
b. e-mail d. Web Site

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 392

16. According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the most appropriate method for giving complex instructions.
a. phone call c. meeting
b. e-mail d. Web Site

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 392

17. Many users prefer ____ to learn how to use a new system.
a. phone conversations c. e-mail conversations
b. face-to-face meetings d. reading user guides

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 394

18. As the number of people involved in a project ____, the complexity of communications ____.
a. increases, decreases c. increases, stays constant
b. decreases, increases d. increases, increases

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 395

19. Two people have ____ communications channel(s).
a. zero c. two
b. one d. three

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 395

20. Four people have ____ communications channel(s).
a. one c. six
b. four d. eight

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 395

21. Many practitioners define project success as ____.
a. meeting project scope goals c. satisfying the customer/sponsor
b. meeting time goals d. meeting cost goals

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 396

22. Project sponsors can usually rank scope, time, and cost goals in order of importance in a(n) ____.
a. expectations management matrix c. issue log
b. responsibility assignment matrix d. priority matrix

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 397

23. ____ describe where the project stands at a specific point in time.
a. Progress reports c. Forecasts
b. Status reports d. Updates

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 398

24. ____ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period.
a. Progress reports c. Forecasts
b. Status reports d. Updates

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 398

25. ____ predict future project status and progress based on past information and trends.
a. Progress reports c. Forecasts
b. Status reports d. Updates

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 398

26. ____ are a good way to highlight information provided in important project documents, empower people to be accountable for their work, and have face-to-face discussions about important project issues.
a. Information retreats c. Information review meetings
b. Status planning meetings d. Status review meetings

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 399

27. ____ issues cause the most conflicts over the project life cycle.
a. Project priority c. Cost
b. Staffing d. Schedule

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 399

28. The ____ mode is also called the problem-solving mode.
a. confrontation c. smoothing
b. compromise d. forcing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 400

29. With the ____, project managers use a give-and-take approach to resolving conflicts.
a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode
b. compromise mode d. forcing mode

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 400

30. When using the ____, the project manager deemphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement.
a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode
b. withdrawal mode d. forcing mode

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 400

31. When using the ____, project managers exert their viewpoint at the potential expense of another viewpoint.
a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode
b. compromise mode d. forcing mode

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 400

32. When using the ____, project managers retreat or withdraw from an actual or potential disagreement.
a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode
b. withdrawal mode d. forcing mode

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 400

33. Research indicates that project managers favor using ____ for conflict resolution over the other four modes.
a. compromise c. confrontation
b. smoothing d. forcing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 400

34. ____ employees are also more likely to enroll voluntarily in classes on the latest technology than those on developing their soft skills.
a. Individual c. Groups of
b. Service d. Team

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 401

35. It takes ____ to help improve communication.
a. timing c. leadership
b. highly skilled employees d. outside consultants

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 401

36. According to the guideline governing ____, many meetings are most effective with the minimum number of participants possible.
a. determining if a meeting can be avoided
b. determining who should attend the meeting
c. defining the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting
d. running the meeting professionally

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 403

37. According to the guideline governing ____, designate someone to take minutes and send the minutes out soon after the meeting.
a. running the meeting professionally
b. providing an agenda to participants before the meeting
c. determining who should attend the meeting
d. building relationships

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 403

38. The ____ line for any e-mail messages you write should clearly state the intention of the e-mail.
a. to c. subject
b. from d. cc

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 404

39. Some items discussed in a(n) ____ include reflections on whether project goals were met, whether the project was successful or not, the causes of variances on the project, the reasoning behind corrective actions chosen, the use of different project management tools and techniques, and personal words of wisdom based on team members’ experiences.
a. final project report c. audit report
b. design document d. lessons-learned report

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 409

40. ____ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project.
a. Project archives c. Project databases
b. Project backups d. Project notes

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 409

COMPLETION

1. Many experts agree that the greatest threat to the success of any project, especially information technology projects, is a failure to ____________________.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 382

2. The outputs of the ____________________ process are performance reports, organizational process assets updates, and change requests.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 384

3. ________________________________________ involves managing communications to satisfy the needs and expectations of project stakeholders and to resolve issues.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 384

4. A(n) ___________________________________ is a document that guides project communications.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 386

5. The _________________________ analysis includes information such as the contact person for the information, when the information is due, and the preferred format for the information.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 387

6. ____________________ can facilitate the process of distributing information, when used properly.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 389

7. Many experts believe that the difference between good project managers and excellent project managers is their ability to nurture relationships and use empathic ____________________ skills.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 390

8. It is important to put information in context, especially if it is ____________________ news.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 394

9. Project managers should try to ____________________ the size of teams or sub teams to avoid making communications too complex.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 395

10. Many information technology professionals work on ____________________ projects where they never meet their project sponsors, other team members, or other project stakeholders.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 396

11. Many studies define project success as meeting project scope, time, and ____________________ goals.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 396

12. The ______________________________ includes a list of measures of success as well as priorities, expectations, and guidelines related to each measure.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 397

13. The ____________________ statement clearly defines mandatory requirements and optional requirements.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 397

14. Understanding the stakeholders’ ____________________ can help in managing issues.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 398

15. _________________________ keeps stakeholders informed about how resources are being used to achieve project objectives.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 398

16. Team leaders often create consolidated ____________________ based on the information received from team members.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 398

17. An important technique for performance reporting is the ____________________ review meeting.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 399

18. When the stakes are high, ____________________ is never far away.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 399

19. The ____________________ approach is the least desirable conflict-handling mode.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 400

20. Project team members may become stagnant or develop ____________________—conformance to the values or ethical standards of a group—if there are no conflicting viewpoints on various aspects of a project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 400

21. Communication skills training usually includes ____________________ activities in which participants learn concepts such as building rapport.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 401

22. All meetings should have a(n) ____________________ and intended outcome.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 403

23. Some professionals refuse to attend meetings if they do not have a(n) ____________________ ahead of time.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 403

24. ____________________ e-mail that you do not need to save or respond to.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 405

25. A(n) _________________________ is a reflective statement documenting important things a team has learned from working on a project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 409

ESSAY

1. What are five main processes in project communications management? Briefly describe each process.

PTS: 1 REF: 383-384

2. Describe the concepts of informal methods for distributing information. How do they compare to formal methods for distributing information?

PTS: 1 REF: 390

3. How do you determine the number of communications channels? How does the number of people involved in a project affect this value? How can project managers control this value?

PTS: 1 REF: 395

4. What is performance reporting? What are some methods used for performance reporting?

PTS: 1 REF: 398-399

5. List and briefly describe Blake and Mouton’s five basic modes for handling conflicts. Which mode(s) are most commonly used by project managers?

PTS: 1 REF: 400

Chapter 11: Project Risk Management

TRUE/FALSE

1. Risk management is a frequently overlooked aspect of project management.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 422

2. Good project risk management never goes unnoticed.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 422

3. Before you can improve project risk management, you must understand what risk is.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 425

4. Negative risk management is like investing in opportunities.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 425

5. The cost for risk management should not exceed the potential benefits.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 426

6. By reviewing the project scope statement, cost, schedule, and communications management plans, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets, project teams can discuss and analyze risk management activities for their particular projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 427

7. The last step in project risk management is deciding how to address this knowledge area for a particular project by performing risk management planning.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 428

8. The level of detail included in the risk management plan rarely varies across projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 429

9. Few organizations develop their own risk questionnaires.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 431

10. You can break down the technology risk category into hardware, software, and network technology.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 431

11. Potential risks can only be identified early in a project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 434

12. The psychology literature shows that individuals, working alone, produce fewer ideas than the same individuals produce through brainstorming in small, face-to-face groups.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 434-435

13. The Delphi technique is a systematic, interactive forecasting procedure based on independent and anonymous input regarding future events.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 435

14. It is uncommon for people to identify problems or opportunities without really understanding them.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 435

15. SWOT analysis can be used during risk identification by having project teams focus on the broad perspectives of potential risks for particular projects.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 435

16. Risk events refer to specific, certain events that may occur to the detriment or enhancement of the project.
ANS:

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 436

17. A potential response to the risk event of a defective server might be the inclusion of a clause in a contract with the supplier to replace a defective server within a certain time period at a negotiated cost.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 437

18. A probability/impact matrix or chart lists the relative probability of a risk occurring on one side of a matrix or axis on a chart and the relative impact of the risk occurring on the other.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 439

19. Negative and positive risks should always be included in the same probability/impact matrix or chart.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 439

20. A simple approach to using probability/impact information is to calculate risk factors.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 440

21. The Microsoft Solution Framework (MSF) includes a risk management model that includes developing and monitoring a top-ten master list of risks.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 441

22. A risk management review accomplishes one objective: it keeps management and the customer aware of the major influences that could prevent or enhance the project’s success.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 441

23. The main output of qualitative risk analysis is a decision tree.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 442

24. Quantitative risk analysis and qualitative risk analysis must be done together.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 442

25. The lower the EMV, the better.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 443

26. The Monte Carlo analysis can predict the probability of finishing by a certain date or the probability that the cost will be equal to or less than a certain value.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 444

27. Several PC-based software packages are available that perform Monte Carlo simulations.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 445

28. Increasing the project manager’s authority is a strategy for mitigating technical and cost risks.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 448
29. Selecting the most experienced project manager is recommended for reducing schedule risks.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 448

30. Project risk management does not stop with the initial risk analysis.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 450

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. William Ibbs and Young H. Kwak’s study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of risk management.
a. engineering/construction c. information systems
b. telecommunications d. high-tech manufacturing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 423

2. William Ibbs and Young H. Kwak’s study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of quality management.
a. engineering/construction c. information systems
b. telecommunications d. high-tech manufacturing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 423

3. KLCI Research Group’s 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the participants said they had procedures in place to identify and assess risk.
a. 75 c. 97
b. 87 d. 99

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 424

4. KLCI Research Group’s 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent identified anticipating and avoiding problems as the primary benefit of risk management.
a. 60 c. 89
b. 80 d. 99

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 424

5. KLCI Research Group’s 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the organizations surveyed had a Project Management Office.
a. 64 c. 85
b. 75 d. 94

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 424

6. KLCI Research Group’s 2001 survey revealed that the most frequently cited benefit from software risk management practices is to ____.
a. prevent surprises c. meet customer commitments
b. improve ability to negotiate d. anticipate/avoid problems

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 424

7. Utility rises at a decreasing rate for a ____ person.
a. risk-seeking c. risk-neutral
b. risk-averse d. risk-indifferent

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 426

8. Those who are ____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake.
a. risk-seeking c. risk-neutral
b. risk-averse d. risk-indifferent

ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 426

9. A ____ person achieves a balance between risk and payoff.
a. risk-seeking c. risk-fearing
b. risk-averse d. risk-neutral

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 426

10. There are ____ major processes involved in risk management.
a. three c. five
b. four d. six

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 427

11. ____ involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project.
a. Identifying risks c. Performing qualitative risk analysis
b. Planning risk management d. Performing quantitative risk analysis

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 427

12. ____ involves determining which risks are likely to affect a project and documenting the characteristics of each.
a. Identifying risks c. Performing qualitative risk analysis
b. Planning risk management d. Performing quantitative risk analysis

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 427

13. ____ involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence.
a. Performing qualitative risk analysis c. Planning risk responses
b. Planning risk management d. Performing quantitative risk analysis

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 427

14. ____ involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives.
a. Performing qualitative risk analysis c. Planning risk management
b. Planning risk responses d. Performing quantitative risk analysis

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 427

15. ____ involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives.
a. Performing quantitative risk analysis c. Monitoring and controlling risk
b. Planning risk responses d. Performing qualitative risk analysis

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 427

16. ____ involves monitoring identified and residual risks, identifying new risks, carrying out risk response plans, and evaluating the effectiveness of risk strategies throughout the life of the project.
a. Performing quantitative risk analysis c. Monitoring and controlling risk
b. Planning risk responses d. Performing qualitative risk analysis

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 427

17. ____ are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs.
a. Fallback plans c. Contingency plans
b. Contingency reserves d. Contingency allowances

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 429

18. ____ are developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives, and are put into effect if attempts to reduce the risk are not effective.
a. Fallback plans c. Contingency plans
b. Contingency reserves d. Contingency allowances

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 429

19. According to the Standish Group’s success potential scoring sheet, ____ has the highest relative importance.
a. executive management support c. proper planning
b. clear statement of requirements d. user involvement

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 430

20. “If the information technology project is to produce a new product or service, will it be useful to the organization or marketable to others?” applies to which risk category? ____
a. Financial risk c. Structure/process risk
b. Technology risk d. Market risk

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 431

21. “Will the project meet NPV, ROI, and payback estimates?” applies to which risk category? ____
a. Financial risk c. Structure/process risk
b. Technology risk d. Market risk

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 431

22. “Is there a project champion?” applies to which risk category? ____
a. Financial risk c. Structure/process risk
b. Technology risk d. People risk

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 431

23. In a risk breakdown structure, competitors, suppliers, and cash flow are categories that fall under ____ risk.
a. business c. organizational
b. technical d. project management

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 432

24. Poor conflict management, poor project organization and definition of responsibilities, and absence of leadership are risk conditions associated with the ____ project management knowledge area.
a. Integration c. Time
b. Quality d. Human Resources

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 433

25. Unenforceable conditions or contract clauses, and adversarial relations are risk conditions associated with the ____ project management knowledge area.
a. Integration c. Procurement
b. Quality d. Human Resources

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 434

26. ____ is a fact-finding technique for collecting information in face-to-face, phone, e-mail, or instant-messaging discussions.
a. Brainstorming c. The Delphi technique
b. SWOT analysis d. Interviewing

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 435

27. A(n) ____ represents decision problems by displaying essential elements, including decisions, uncertainties, causality, and objectives, and how they influence each other.
a. risk breakdown structure c. process flow chart
b. influence diagram d. system flow chart

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 436

28. A project manager can chart the probability and impact of risks on a ____.
a. risk ranking chart c. probability/impact matrix
b. risk probability table d. risk assessment matrix

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 438

29. ____ are/is a qualitative risk analysis tool, and in addition to identifying risks, it maintains an awareness of risks throughout the life of a project.
a. Risk factor analysis c. Risk registering
b. Probability/impact matrices or charts d. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 441

30. A(n) ____ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain.
a. decision tree c. Monte Carlo analysis
b. EMV d. watch list

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 442

31. ____ analysis simulates a model’s outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results.
a. Decision tree c. Monte Carlo
b. EMV d. Watch list

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 444

32. What is the first step in a Monte Carlo analysis?
a. Determine the probability distribution of each variable.
b. For each variable, such as the time estimate for a task, select a random value based on the probability distribution for the occurrence of the variable.
c. Assess the range for the variables being considered.
d. Run a deterministic analysis or one pass through the model using the combination of values selected for each one of the variables.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 444

33. ____ involves eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating its causes.
a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference
b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 447

34. ____ involves shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party.
a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference
b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 448

35. ____ involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence.
a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference
b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 448

36. ____ involves doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens.
a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement
b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 449

37. ____ involves allocating ownership of the risk to another party.
a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement
b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 449

38. ____ involves changing the size of the opportunity by identifying and maximizing key drivers of the positive risk.
a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement
b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 449

39. ____ applies to positive risks when the project team cannot or chooses not to take any actions toward a risk.
a. Risk enhancement c. Risk sharing
b. Risk acceptance d. Risk exploitation

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 449

40. ____ risks are a direct result of implementing a risk response.
a. Tertiary c. Residual
b. Primary d. Secondary

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 449

COMPLETION

1. Risk management can have a(n) ____________________ impact on selecting projects, determining the scope of projects, and developing realistic schedules and cost estimates.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 422

2. A project ____________________ is an uncertainty that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting project objectives.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 425

3. Given that all projects involve ____________________ that can have negative or positive outcomes, the question is how to decide which projects to pursue and how to identify and manage project risk throughout a project’s life cycle.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 426

4. The idea of striving to balance risks and opportunities suggests that different organizations and people have different ____________________ for risk.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 426

5. ____________________ is the amount of satisfaction or pleasure received from a potential payoff.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 426

6. The main output of the ____________________ process is the start of a risk register.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 427

7. A(n) _________________________ documents the procedures for managing risk throughout the project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 428

8. _________________________ are provisions held by the project sponsor or organization to reduce the risk of cost or schedule overruns to an acceptable level.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 430

9. A(n) _________________________ is a hierarchy of potential risk categories for a project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 432

10. Inadequate planning, poor resource allocation, poor integration management, and lack of post-project review are risk conditions associated with the ____________________ project management knowledge area.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 433

11. ____________________ is a technique by which a group attempts to generate ideas or find a solution for a specific problem by amassing ideas spontaneously and without judgment.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 434

12. The basic concept of the ____________________ is to derive a consensus among a panel of experts who make predictions about future developments.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 435

13. ____________________ based on risks that have been encountered in previous projects provide a meaningful template for understanding risks in a current project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 436

14. System or process ____________________ are diagrams that show how different parts of a system interrelate.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 436

15. A(n) ____________________ is a document that contains results of various risk management processes.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 436

16. ____________________ are indicators or symptoms of actual risk events.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 437

17. The ____________________ is the person who will own or take responsibility for the risk.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 437

18. ____________________ are numbers that represent the overall risk of specific events, based on their probability of occurring and the consequences to the project if they do occur.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 440

19. A(n) ____________________ is a list of risks that are low priority, but are still identified as potential risks.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 442

20. _________________________ is the product of a risk event probability and the risk event’s monetary value.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 442

21. Many professionals use ____________________ to help make several common business decisions, such as determining break-even points based on different assumptions.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 446

22. Risk ____________________ involves accepting the consequences should a risk occur.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 448

23. Examples of risk ____________________ include using proven technology, having competent project personnel, using various analysis and validation techniques, and buying maintenance or service agreements from subcontractors.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 448

24. ____________________ risks are risks that remain after all of the response strategies have been implemented.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 449

25. Project teams sometimes use ____________________—unplanned responses to risk events—when they do not have contingency plans in place.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 450

ESSAY

1. List and briefly describe the six major processes involved in risk management.

PTS: 1 REF: 427-428

2. List and describe four methods for identifying risks.

PTS: 1 REF: 434-436

3. Describe Decision Trees and Expected Monetary Value.

PTS: 1 REF: 442-444

4. What are the basic steps in performing a Monte Carlo analysis?

PTS: 1 REF: 444-445

5. What are the four basic response strategies for negative risks? Describe each strategy.

PTS: 1 REF: 447-448

Chapter 12: Project Procurement Management

TRUE/FALSE

1. Many private companies use the term procurement instead of purchasing.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 462

2. The cost savings and use of offshore resources lower inflation, increase productivity, and lower interest rates.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 462

3. Most people view offshore outsourcing as being good.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 463

4. Many companies are realizing that they can use offshore outsourcing and create more jobs at home.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 463

5. Few organizations use some form of outsourcing to meet their information technology needs.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 463

6. According to a 2008 report on IT outsourceing trends in the U.S. and Canada, application development is the least popular form of IT outsourcing and was used by only 25 percent of organizations surveyed.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 463

7. When an organization outsources work, it often does not have as much control over those aspects of projects that suppliers carry out.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 464

8. The success of many information technology projects that use outside resources is often due to good project cost management.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 465

9. If there is no need to buy any products or services from outside the organization, then there is no need to perform any of the other procurement management processes.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 466

10. It is always less effective to hire skilled consultants to perform specific tasks for a short period of time than to hire or keep employees on staff full time.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 468

11. Make-or-buy analysis involves estimating the internal costs of providing a product or service and comparing that estimate to the cost of outsourcing.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 468

12. Experts outside the company, including potential suppliers themselves, cannot provide expert judgment.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 469

13. The buyer absorbs less of the risk with cost-reimbursable contracts than they do with fixed-price contracts.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 470

14. The total value of the contract is a function of the quantities needed to complete the work.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 472

15. Any type of contract should include specific clauses that take into account issues unique to the project.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 472

16. Some termination clauses state that the buyer can terminate a contract for any reason and give the supplier only 24 hours’ notice.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 473

17. Contents of the procurement management plan will vary with project needs.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 473

18. Lead times for purchases and acquisitions should not be included in a procurement management plan.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 473

19. It is important to use appropriate words in a contract SOW such as may instead of must.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 474

20. A contract SOW should not specify the location of the work.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: 474

21. The main sections of an RFP never include the statement of work and schedule information.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 475-476

22. A key factor in evaluating bids, particularly for projects involving information technology, is the past performance record of the bidder.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 477

23. Experts in source selection recommend that technical criteria should be given more weight than management or cost criteria.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 478

24. It is customary to have contract negotiations during the source selection process.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 479

25. The term “e-procurement” often describes various procurement functions that are now done electronically.

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 481

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)–sponsored report stated that spending for global sources of computer software and services is expected to grow at a compound annual rate of about ____ percent.
a. 10 c. 30
b. 20 d. 40

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 462

2. An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)–sponsored report stated that total savings from offshore resources during the 2005-2010 period are estimated to grow from $8.7 billion to ____.
a. $10.2 billion c. $50.4 billion
b. $20.4 billion d. $107.9 billion

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 462

3. “Outsourcing suppliers are often able to use economies of scale that may not be available to the client alone, especially for hardware and software.” refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing.
a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs
b. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business
c. Access skills and technologies
d. Provide flexibility

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 464

4. “Most organizations are not in business to provide information technology services, yet many have spent valuable time and resources on information technology functions when they should have focused on core competencies such as marketing, customer service, and new product design.” refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing.
a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs
b. Provide flexibility
c. Access skills and technologies
d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 464

5. “Organizations can gain access to specific skills and technologies when they are required by using outside resources.” refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing.
a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs
b. Provide flexibility
c. Access skills and technologies
d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 464

6. “Outsourcing to provide extra staff during periods of peak workloads can be much more economical than trying to staff entire projects with internal resources.” refers to the ____ benefit.
a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs
b. Provide flexibility
c. Access skills and technologies
d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 464

7. There are ____ main processes of project procurement management.
a. three c. five
b. four d. six

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 465

8. ____ involves determining what to procure, when, and how.
a. Planning contracting c. Conducting procurements
b. Administrating procurements d. Planning procurements

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 465

9. ____ involves obtaining seller responses, selecting sellers, and awarding contracts.
a. Conducting procurements c. Requesting seller responses
b. Selecting sellers d. Planning purchases and acquisitions

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 465

10. Outputs of the ____ process include selected sellers, procurement contract awards, resource calendars, change requests, and updates to the project management plan and other project documents.
a. Closing the contract c. Requesting seller responses
b. Conducting procurements d. Administering the contract

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 465

11. ____ involves managing relationships with sellers, monitoring contract performance, and making changes as needed.
a. Closing procurements c. Requesting seller responses
b. Selecting sellers d. Administering procurements

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 465

12. ____ involves completion and settlement of each contract, including resolution of any open items.
a. Exiting procurements c. Closing procurements
b. Closing out accounts d. Ending procurements

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 466

13. For many projects, properly ____ some information technology functions can be a great investment.
a. outsourcing c. increasing
b. scaling d. planning

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 466

14. ____ contracts involve a fixed total price for a well-defined product or service.
a. CPFF c. Cost-reimbursable
b. Lump sum d. Time and material

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 469

15. ____ involve payment to the supplier for direct and indirect actual costs.
a. CPFF contracts c. Cost-reimbursable contracts
b. Lump sum contracts d. Time and material contracts

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 470

16. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus.
a. CPFF c. CPPC
b. CPIF d. CPPF

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 470

17. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs.
a. CPFF c. CPPC
b. CPIF d. CPPF

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 471

18. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined percentage based on total costs.
a. CPFF c. CPPC
b. CPIF d. CPPF

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 471

19. From the supplier’s perspective, there is the least risk with a(n) ____ contract.
a. CPFF c. CPPC
b. FFP d. CPFF

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 472

20. The ____ is a description of the work required for the procurement.
a. RFQ c. COW
b. RFP d. SOW

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 474

21. Many organizations use ____ and templates to generate SOWs.
a. details c. plans
b. outlines d. samples

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 474

22. A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit proposals from prospective suppliers.
a. RFQ c. COW
b. RFP d. SOW

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 475

23. A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers.
a. RFQ c. COW
b. RFP d. SOW

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 475

24. Buyers typically develop a short list of the top ____ suppliers to reduce the work involved in selecting a source.
a. one to two c. eight to ten
b. three to five d. twelve to fifteen

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 478

25. ____ change orders are oral or written acts or omissions by someone with actual or apparent authority that can be construed to have the same effect as a written change order.
a. Direct c. Destructive
b. Constructive d. Instructive

ANS: PTS: 1 REF: 479

COMPLETION

1. ____________________ means acquiring goods and/or services from an outside source.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 462

2. The term ____________________ is widely used in government.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 462

3. A well-written ____________________—a mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified products or services and obligates the buyer to pay for them—can clarify responsibilities and sharpen focus on key deliverables of a project.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 464

4. ______________________________ includes the processes required to acquire goods and services for a project from outside the performing organization.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 465

5. _________________________ involves completion and settlement of each contract, including resolution of any open items.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 466

6. A(n) ____________________ decision is one in which an organization decides if it is in its best interests to make certain products or perform certain services inside the organization, or if it is better to buy them from an outside organization.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 466

7. A(n) ____________________ contract has the least amount of risk for the buyer.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 470

8. _________________________ contracts are a hybrid of both fixed-price and cost-reimbursable contracts.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 472

9. ____________________ can be used in various types of contracts to require the buyer to pay the supplier a predetermined amount per unit of product or service.

ANS: Unit pricing

PTS: 1 REF: 472

10. A(n) ____________________ is a contract clause that allows the buyer or supplier to end the contract.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 473

11. If a SOW is used as part of a contract to describe only the work required for that particular contract, it is called a(n) ____________________ statement of work.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 474

12. Many organizations use samples and ____________________ to generate SOWs.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 474

13. A(n) ____________________ is a document prepared by a seller when there are different approaches for meeting buyer needs.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 475

14. A(n) ____________________ is a document prepared by sellers providing pricing for standard items that have been clearly defined by the buyer.

ANS:
PTS: 1 REF: 475

15. A(n) ____________________ conference is a meeting with prospective sellers prior to preparation of their proposals or bids.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 477

16. Selecting suppliers or sellers, often called ____________________ selection, involves evaluating proposals or bids from sellers, choosing the best one, negotiating the contract, and awarding the contract.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 478

17. Experts in source selection highly recommend that buyers use formal proposal ____________________ sheets during source selection.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 478

18. Tools to assist in contract closure include ____________________, negotiated settlements, and a records management system.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 481

19. ____________________ are often done during contract closure to identify lessons learned in the entire procurement process.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 481

20. A(n) ____________________ system provides the ability to easily organize, find, and archive procurement-related documents.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 481

ESSAY

1. What are four reasons that many companies are turning to outsourcing?

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 464

2. List and briefly describe the four main processes of project procurement management.

ANS:
.

PTS: 1 REF: 465-466

3. What are the three types of cost-reimbursable contracts? Briefly describe each type.

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 470-471

4. What is a SOW? What is a contract SOW?

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 474-475

5. What are RFPs and RFQs? How and why are these documents created, and what issues must be considered when creating them?

ANS:

PTS: 1 REF: 475-476

CIS 517 Week 2 Assignment 1 – Strayer University NEW

CIS/517 Week 2 Assignment 1 – Strayer

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Assignment 1: The Role of Project Managers

Due Week 2 and worth 80 points

Research job boards for project manager positions. Take note of the various industries that hire project managers. Then, research statistics from the project management institute on the rate of success of projects in different industries including IT.

Write a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:
Explain project management as a discipline.
Describe the industries in which project managers are in high demand. Provide evidence to support your
response.
Describe the general role of a project manager, and explain the primary ways in which it differs across
different industries.
Compare the rate of success of projects in IT and other industries. Explain the discrepancy or lack thereof.
Use at least two (2) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not
qualify as quality resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Identify how project management improves the success of information technology projects.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in IT project management.
Write clearly and concisely about issues in IT project management using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.