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HRM 500 Week 11 Discussion Questions

HRM 500 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

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Week 11 D1
Determine two ways to apply what you learned in this course in your current or a future position.

Week 11 D2
Assess how your own theories of consumer behavior have matured or changed since the beginning of this course.

HRM 500 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer University New

HRM/500 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

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Week 11 D1
Determine two ways to apply what you learned in this course in your current or a future position.

Week 11 D2
Assess how your own theories of consumer behavior have matured or changed since the beginning of this course.

HRM 500 Week 9 Discussion Questions – Strayer University New

HRM/500 Week 9 Discussion Questions – Strayer

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Week 9 D1
From the e-Activity, examine two factors that HR managers would need to consider when teaching employees about the culture in Mexico. Recommend two actions that HR managers can take in order to prepare their employees for the culture shift.

Week 9 D2
In America today, education is increasingly the key to individual success in the workplace. Determine two benefits to hiring someone who has an education gap, as opposed to merely hiring someone who has the requisite knowledge and skills. Recommend two actions that organizations can take to overcome the education gap when hiring new employees.

HRM 500 Week 8 Discussion Questions – Strayer University New

HRM/500 Week 8 Discussion Questions – Strayer

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Week 8 D1
From the scenario, examine two reasons why employees join labor unions. Examine two reasons why managers prefer that unions do not represent their employees. Suggest two benefits that unions can provide for an employer.

Week 8 D2
From the e-Activity, examine two actions that the selected HI organization takes in order to make its employees feel that they are members of a supportive community. Propose two scenarios in which high involvement by an organization would benefit the company and encourage employee loyalty.

HRM 500 Week 8 Assignment 3 – Strayer University New

HRM/500 Week 8 Assignment 3: Performance Management
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Due Week 8 and worth 250 points
Imagine that you are the HR manager for a retail store. Your store sells clothing, shoes, handbags, linens, etc. The company recently had its worst quarter, and you want to improve employee performance through sales of the merchandise and through offering excellent customer service. The employees are less motivated, due to the recent negative media attention the company has been getting about its earnings. You want to implement a new performance management system, modify the employees’ current behavior, and link compensation directly to performance.
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:
1. Create a job description for a retail sales associate. Create an organizational behavior modification (OBM) plan to define a set of three (3) key behaviors that are necessary for job performance.
2. Determine two (2) ways that an HR manager would measure whether prospective employees exhibit the key job performance behaviors. Propose two (2) methods that an HR manager can use to inform employees of the new performance standards.
3. As the HR manager, create a plan with two (2) methods of providing feedback to employees. Include the frequency with which the feedback would be provided. Propose two (2) actions that company leaders should take to reinforce positive employee behaviors.
4. As the HR manager, determine three (3) benefits the organization would gain if it adopts a management by objects (MBO) approach in which the employees’ goals are aligned with the organization’s goals. Provide two (2) reasons why it is important to align pay with performance.
5. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

HRM 500 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer University New

HRM 500 Final Exam Week 11 Solution – Perfect Score
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8
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Performance management is the process through which managers ensure that employees’ activities and outputs contribute to the organization’s goals.

True False

2. Organizations establish performance management systems to meet three broad purposes: strategic, administrative, and developmental.

True False

3. In the case of performance appraisal, validity refers to whether the appraisal measures all aspects of performance, both relevant and irrelevant.

True False

4. Test-retest reliability refers to consistency of results over time.

True False

5. In the forced-distribution method of performance measurement, managers rank employees in their group from the highest performer to the poorest performer.

True False

6. In terms of measuring performance, a major advantage of rankings is that they are often linked to the organization’s goals.

True False

7. Attribute-based performance methods are tightly linked to an organization’s strategy.

True False

8. To rate employee behaviors, the organization begins by defining which behaviors are associated with success on the job.

True False

9. The critical-incident method is used to rate behaviors for performance evaluation.

True False

10. An advantage of behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) is improved interrater reliability.

True False

11. Compared to a behavioral observation scale (BOS), managers and employees prefer to use the behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS).

True False

12. Organizational behavior modification (OBM) is a plan for managing the behavior of employees through an informal system of feedback and reinforcement.

True False

13. Behavioral approaches to performance measurement, such as organizational behavior modification and rating scales, tend to be valid, reliable, and acceptable.

True False

14. Management by objectives (MBO) does not link employee performance with the organization’s strategic goals.

True False

15. Traditional performance measurement differs from total quality management (TQM) in that it assesses both individual performance and the system within which the individual works.

True False

16. Subordinates are the most-used source of performance information.

True False

17. Generally, peers are more favorable toward participating in reviews to be used for employee development.

True False

18. Self-appraisals are not appropriate as the basis for administrative decisions.

True False

19. Raters should use only one part of a rating scale to avoid distributional errors from occurring.

True False

20. Appraisal politics are most likely to occur when raters are accountable to the employee being rated.

True False

21. In the “tell-and-sell” approach, managers tell employees their ratings and then let the employees explain their side of the story.

True False

22. The content of a feedback should emphasize behavior, not personalities.

True False

23. The most effective way to improve performance varies according to an employee’s ability.

True False

24. Lawsuits related to performance management usually involve charges of discrimination or unjust dismissal.

True False

25. Legally defensible performance management systems are based on valid job analyses.

True False

26. The process through which managers ensure that employees’ activities and outputs contribute to the organization’s goals is known as:

A. quality analysis.

B. administrative planning.

C. project management.

D. strategic planning.

E. performance management.

27. How does an organization specify the aspects of performance that are relevant to the organization?

A. Based on the job analysis

B. By conducting performance appraisals

C. Through performance feedback sessions

D. By adjusting behavior to meet the organization’s goal

E. By identifying the underlying problem

28. To meet which of the following broad purposes do organizations establish performance management systems?

A. Systematic

B. Rational

C. Investigative

D. Strategic

E. Analytical

29. An organization helps link employees’ behavior with the organization’s goals. This helps the organization serve its _____ purpose.

A. strategic

B. logistical

C. administrative

D. developmental

E. evaluative

30. _____ means effective performance management helps the organization achieve its business objectives.

A. Systematic purpose

B. Investigative purpose

C. Developmental purpose

D. Administrative purpose

E. Strategic purpose

31. The administrative purpose of a performance management system refers to:

A. linking employees’ behaviors with the organization’s goals.

B. developing employees’ knowledge and skills.

C. linking performance measurements to the organization’s goals and communicating the goals and feedback about performance to employees.

D. measuring each employee’s performance to identify areas where expectations are not being met.

E. the ways in which organizations use the system to provide information for day-to-day decisions about salary, benefits, and recognition programs.

32. Performance management has a(n) _____ purpose, meaning that it serves as a basis for improving employees’ knowledge and skills.

A. systematic

B. tactical

C. strategic

D. administrative

E. developmental

33. Which of the following criteria for determining the effectiveness of a performance management system is concerned with maximizing the overlap between actual job performance and job performance measure?

A. Reliability

B. Acceptability

C. Specificity

D. Validity

E. Dependability

34. In the case of performance appraisal, _____ refers to whether the appraisal measures all the relevant aspects of performance and omits irrelevant aspects of performance.

A. acceptability

B. specificity

C. reliability

D. dependability

E. validity

35. Information that is gathered for measuring the effectiveness of a performance management system but is irrelevant represents “_____” of the performance measure.

A. validity

B. deficiency

C. contamination

D. reliability

E. specificity

36. With regard to a performance measure, _____describes the consistency of the results that the performance measure will deliver.

A. validity

B. acceptability

C. reliability

D. transparency

E. specificity

37. Consistency of results when more than one person measures performance is known as:

A. test-retest specificity.

B. interrater reliability.

C. interrater validity.

D. test-retest reliability.

E. test-retest validity.

38. With regard to a performance measure, _____ refers to consistency of results over time.

A. validity

B. interrater reliability

C. acceptability

D. test-retest reliability

E. specificity

39. _____ refers to telling employees exactly what is expected of them and how they can meet those expectations.

A. Generalized instruction

B. Employee orientation

C. Specific feedback

D. Overall opinion

E. Strategic fit

40. Which of the following is a comparative performance appraisal technique?

A. Mixed-standards scale

B. Simple ranking

C. Paired distribution

D. Forced comparison

E. Complex distribution

41. Which of the following is true about the simple ranking technique?

A. It assigns a certain percentage of employees to each category in a set of categories.

B. Alternation ranking is a variation of simple ranking.

C. It involves comparing each employee with each other employee to establish rankings.

D. It rates everyone favorably or near the center of the scale.

E. Simple ranking requires managers to rank employees in their group against the highest performer of each group.

42. Which of the following performance measurement methods requires managers to rank employees in their group from the highest performer to the poorest performer?

A. Graphic rating scale

B. Mixed-standard scale

C. Paired-comparison

D. Forced-distribution

E. Simple ranking

43. Which of the following is true about the forced-distribution method of measuring employee performance?

A. It is also known as the alternation ranking method.

B. It requires managers to rank employees in their group from the highest performer to the poorest performer.

C. It works best if the members of a group do not vary much in terms of their performance.

D. It involves comparing each employee with each other employee to establish rankings.

E. It assigns a certain percentage of employees to each category in a set of categories.

44. The performance measurement method that assigns a certain percentage of employees to each category in a set of categories is called the:

A. forced-distribution method.

B. alternation ranking method.

C. paired-comparison method.

D. optional ranking method.

E. simple ranking method.

45. Identify the approach to performance measurement that meets the following criteria: usually low fit with strategy, usually low validity, usually low reliability, high acceptability, and very low specificity.

A. Comparative

B. Attribute

C. Behavioral

D. Results

E. Quality

46. Identify the approach to performance measurement that meets the following criteria: high strategic congruence, usually high validity, usually high reliability, moderate acceptability, and very high specificity.

A. Comparative

B. Attribute

C. Behavioral

D. Results

E. Quality

47. Identify the evaluation approach to performance measurement that meets the following criteria: very high fit with strategy, usually high validity, high reliability, high acceptability, and high specificity regarding results but low specificity regarding behaviors necessary to achieve them.

A. Comparative

B. Attribute

C. Behavioral

D. Results

E. Developmental

48. Which of the following is true about the paired-comparison method of measuring employee performance?

A. It is time consuming if a group has more than a handful of employees.

B. It is also known as the alternation ranking method.

C. It rates everyone favorably or near the center of the scale.

D. It assigns a certain percentage of employees to each category in a set of categories.

E. It requires managers to rank employees in their group from the highest performer to the poorest performer.

49. The paired-comparison method of measuring employee performance:

A. involves comparing each employee with each other employee to establish rankings.

B. is also known as the alternation ranking method.

C. rates everyone favorably or near the center of the scale.

D. assigns a certain percentage of employees to each category in a set of categories.

E. requires managers to rank employees in their group from the highest performer to the poorest performer.

50. The _____ method of performance measurement compares each employee with each other employee to establish rankings.

A. paired-comparison

B. graphic rating scale

C. forced-distribution

D. mixed standard

E. BARS

51. Which of the following is a disadvantage of ranking using paired-comparison method for performance measurement?

A. It does not provide a scope for interpretation.

B. It is time consuming.

C. It leads to controversy.

D. It does not support decisions about how to distribute pay raises.

E. It tends to evaluate behavior more strictly than other methods.

52. Which of the following is the most widely used method for rating attributes?

A. Behaviorally anchored rating scales

B. Mixed-standard scales

C. Behavioral observation scales

D. Graphic rating scales

E. Critical-incident methods

53. If a manager considers one employee at a time and circles a number/word to signify the degree to which that employee demonstrates a particular trait, he/she is using a:

A. mixed-standard scale.

B. critical-incident approach.

C. graphic rating scale.

D. behavioral observation scale.

E. behaviorally anchored rating scale.

54. The method of performance measurement that uses several statements describing each trait to produce a final score for that trait is known as the _____.

A. behaviorally anchored rating scale

B. mixed-standard scale

C. behavioral observation scale

D. graphic rating scale

E. forced distribution scale

55. The method of performance measurement that uses several statements describing each trait to produce a final score for that trait is known as the _____.

A. behaviorally anchored rating scale

B. mixed-standard scale

C. behavioral observation scale

D. graphic rating scale

E. forced distribution scale

56. _____ use several statements describing each trait to produce a final score for that trait.

A. Behaviorally anchored rating scales

B. Mixed-standard scales

C. Behavioral observation scales

D. Graphic rating scales

E. Forced distribution scales

57. The performance management method that requires managers to rate the frequency with which an employee has exhibited a behavior during a rating period is the:

A. behaviorally anchored rating scale.

B. behavioral observation scale.

C. graphic rating scale.

D. mixed-standard scale.

E. forced-distribution scale.

58. What is the difference between a behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) and a behavioral observation scale (BOS)?

A. A BARS asks the manager to rate the frequency with which the employee has exhibited the behavior during the rating period.

B. A BOS discards many items in creating the rating scale.

C. A BOS uses many examples to define all behaviors necessary for effective performance.

D. Managers and employees prefer BARS compared to BOS for ease of use and maintaining objectivity.

E. A major drawback of BARS is the amount of information required as compared to BOS.

59. Which of the following is true of behavioral approaches to performance measurement?

A. They link the company’s goals to the specific behavior required to achieve those goals.

B. They work well for complex jobs.

C. They provide little feedback on areas of improvement.

D. They have a low degree of validity and reliability.

E. They have a low degree of acceptability.

60. Which of the following is true of management by objectives (MBO)?

A. Goals are generally nonspecific.

B. Goals are typically subjective.

C. Goals are easy to achieve.

D. Feedback is given only during the appraisal period.

E. Managers and their employees work together to set the goals.

61. What is the advantage of results-oriented performance measurement?

A. They are very effective in providing guidance on how to improve.

B. They are relatively easy to link to the organization’s goals.

C. They are generally more subjective than other kinds of performance measurement.

D. They are highly acceptable to employees, but not to managers.

E. They tend to be highly valid.

62. What is the disadvantage of results-oriented performance management?

A. It is generally more subjective than other kinds of performance measurements.

B. It has low acceptability among employees.

C. It has problems with validity.

D. It is not preferred by managers.

E. It is not easy to link to the organization’s goals.

63. Total quality management differs from traditional performance measurement in that it:

A. has an external, rather than an internal, focus.

B. is a top-down review process.

C. assesses both individual performance and the system within which the individual works.

D. focuses exclusively on support decisions about work assignments, training, and compensation.

E. provides only subjective feedback based on the work process.

64. How does total quality management (TQM) obtain objective feedback?

A. From the methods that use charts to detail causes of problems, measures of performance, or relationships between work-related variables.

B. From the methods that rate behaviors in terms of a scale showing specific statements of behavior that describe different levels of performance.

C. From the methods that use several statements describing each trait to produce a final score for that trait.

D. From the method that lists traits and provides feedback for each trait.

E. From managers, peers, and customers about the employee’s personal qualities.

65. The performance measurement system that combines information from most or all of the possible sources, is known as:

A. the critical incidents technique.

B. the behavioral observation scale.

C. management by objectives.

D. a 360-degree performance appraisal.

E. upward feedback.

66. What is the disadvantage of peers as a source of performance information?

A. Peers do not have expert knowledge of job requirements.

B. Peers are uncomfortable with rating employees for decisions that may affect themselves.

C. Assessments of performance by peers generally lack validity.

D. Peers are generally less favorable toward participating in reviews to be used for employee development.

E. Peers are poor sources of performance information in any job.

67. Which of the following is true of peers as a source of performance information?

A. Peers are poor sources of information about performance in a job.

B. Peer ratings, according to research, are not influenced much by friendships.

C. Peers evaluations generally lack validity.

D. Peers are less willing participants in reviews to be used for employee development.

E. Peers are comfortable with rating employees for decisions that may affect themselves.

68. Subordinate evaluations of performance are most appropriate when the performance results are to be used for:

A. administrative purposes.

B. investigative purposes.

C. strategic purposes.

D. developmental purposes.

E. executive purposes.

69. Which of the following steps should be taken to protect employees when they provide evaluations of managers’ performance?

A. The process should be anonymous.

B. The process should use only two employees to rate each manager.

C. The process should encourage employees to highlight the negative aspects of the manager’s performance.

D. The evaluations should be used primarily for administrative decisions.

E. The process should require that subordinates identify themselves.

70. Which of the following errors occur when a rater compares an individual, not against an objective standard, but against other employees?

A. Contrast errors

B. Distributional errors

C. Halo errors

D. Leniency errors

E. Horns errors

71. Which rater error makes it difficult to distinguish among employees rated by the same rater because the rater tends to use only one part of the rating scale?

A. Contrast error

B. Distributional error

C. Halo error

D. Error based on similarity

E. Horns error

72. The distributional error that occurs when the reviewer rates everyone near the top of a rating scale is known as _____.

A. contrast error

B. strictness

C. halo error

D. horns error

E. leniency

73. A distributional error in which a rater favors lower rankings is known as _____.

A. contrast error

B. central tendency

C. strictness

D. leniency

E. halo error

74. If different raters make different kinds of _____ errors, scores by these raters cannot be compared.

A. similarity

B. distributional

C. contrast

D. halo

E. horns

75. If a student evaluating his/her professor at the end of term rates the professor low on all performance criteria due to dissatisfaction with the professor’s grading scale, the student has likely committed which rater error?

A. Error based on similarity

B. Halo error

C. Central tendency

D. Horns error

E. Contrast error

76. Which rater error leads employees to believe that no aspects of their performance need improvement?

A. Contrast error

B. Halo error

C. Horn error

D. Strictness error

E. Central tendency error

77. Appraisal politics are likely to occur when:

A. top executives forbid distorted ratings.

B. the goals of rating are compatible with one another.

C. performance appraisal results are directly linked to developmental programs.

D. senior employees tell newcomers stories about distorted ratings.

E. performance appraisal is not directly linked to highly desirable rewards.

78. A(n) _____ is a gathering at which managers discuss employee performance ratings and provide evidence supporting their ratings with the goal of eliminating the influence of rating errors.

A. assessment center

B. 360-degree performance appraisal

C. reliability meeting

D. performance leadership council

E. calibration meeting

79. How does an organization promote fairness and reduce political behavior in the appraisal system?

A. Use different performance standards to evaluate different employees.

B. Train managers to use the appraisal process.

C. Discourage employees from discussing their weaknesses.

D. Require that managers give feedback once a year during annual appraisal.

E. Encourage managers to recognize accomplishments that only employees have identified.

80. Which approach to performance feedback is generally most effective?

A. Problem-solving

B. Tell-and-sell

C. Tell-and-listen

D. Tell-and-train

E. Listen-and-sell

81. Most managers rely on the _____ approach to performance feedback.

A. problem-solving

B. tell-and-sell

C. tell-and-listen

D. tell-and-train

E. listen-and-sell

82. Managers can improve employee satisfaction with the feedback process by:

A. keeping the feedback session short and concentrating on only the positive aspects of performance.

B. using the tell-and-sell approach during the feedback session.

C. avoiding decisions about following up on goals as these tend to intimidate the employee.

D. letting employees voice their opinions and discuss performance goals during the feedback process.

E. focusing on the employee’s personality.

83. How does a manager motivate an employee who lacks the ability to perform?

A. Demonstrate that the employee is being paid fairly and adequately.

B. Restructure the job so that the employee can handle it.

C. Refer the employee to a counselor for stress management.

D. Direct the employee’s attention to the problem by withholding rewards.

E. Link rewards to performance outcomes.

84. Coaching, frequent performance feedback, goal setting, and restructured job assignments are effective ways to improve performance for which category of employees?

A. Solid performers

B. Underutilizers

C. Misdirected effort

D. Deadwood

E. Nonessential

85. To improve the performance of underutilizers, managers should:

A. withhold pay increases.

B. demote them from their current position.

C. offer temporary assignments for skill development.

D. link rewards to performance outcomes.

E. identify development opportunities.

86. For which of the following categories of employees are performance improvement measures like withholding pay increases, demotion, and outplacement helpful?

A. Misdirected effort

B. Solid performers

C. Underutilizers

D. Deadwood

E. Nonessential

87. Lawsuits related to performance management usually involve charges of discrimination or:

A. unjust dismissal.

B. reverse discrimination.

C. affirmative action.

D. reasonable accommodation.

E. minimum wage.

88. If an employee is dismissed on the grounds of poor performance immediately after he/she complained to higher authorities about the bad work ethics of his/her manager, the employee could file a(n):

A. affirmative action lawsuit.

B. unjust dismissal lawsuit.

C. reasonable accommodation lawsuit.

D. discrimination lawsuit.

E. tort-based lawsuit.

89. What can an organization do to protect itself against discrimination and unjust dismissal lawsuits?

A. The organization should provide for a review of all top performance ratings by upper-level managers.

B. Performance measures should evaluate personal traits.

C. Requirements for job success should be clearly communicated to all the employees.

D. The organization should use a single rater to rate all the employees.

E. The organization should dismiss poor performers.

90. Identify a criticism against electronic monitoring systems.

A. They can store records of employee performance, work-rule violations, and disciplinary actions.

B. The systems prevent employees from exaggerating the number of hours they worked.

C. They cannot monitor performance measures electronically.

D. They threaten to make the workplace an electronic sweatshop, robbing employees of their dignity.

E. They do not increase productivity.

91. Discuss the six steps of the performance management process.

92. What are the different purposes of performance management systems?

93. What are the five criteria for measuring the effectiveness of a performance management system?

94. How do behavioral observation scales (BOS) differ from behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS)?

95. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using managers, peers, subordinates, self, and customers as sources of performance information.

96. Define types of rating errors, and explain how to minimize them.

97. What is a calibration meeting?

98. Discuss different ways to improve a performance feedback session.

99. What are the different ways to produce improvement in unsatisfactory performance?

100. What are the different ways in which a company can ensure that it has a legally defensible performance management system?

9
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Development implies learning that is not necessarily related to the employee’s current job.

2. A protean career is one that frequently changes based on changes in a person’s interests, abilities, and values and in the work environment.

3. Approaches to employee development fall into four broad categories: formal education, assessment, job experiences, and interpersonal relationships.

4. The most frequent uses of assessment are to identify employees with managerial potential to measure current managers’ strengths and weaknesses.

5. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is a valuable tool for understanding communication styles, appraising employees’ performance, and evaluating employees’ promotion potential.

6. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals with a Feeling (F) preference try always to be objective in making decisions, whereas individuals with a Thinking (T) preference are more subjective.

7. Research on the validity, reliability, and effectiveness of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is inconclusive.

8. Assessment centers are primarily used to identify employees’ technical skills.

9. Research suggests that assessment center ratings are valid for predicting performance, salary level, and career advancement.

10. A performance appraisal process must identify causes of the performance discrepancy and develop plans for improving performance.

11. Most employee development occurs through formal education programs.

12. An organization can use downward moves as a source of job experience.

13. Job rotation increases employees’ understanding of different company functions.

14. The temporary cross-functional move is the least common way to use downward moves for employee development.

15. Employees on sabbatical generally do not receive their salary or benefits.

16. Mentoring programs tend to be more successful when they are compulsory.

17. Coaches are peers or managers who work with other employees to motivate them, help them develop their skills, and provide them with reinforcement and feedback.

18. Basic career management systems involve the four sequential steps of recruiting, relocation, reality check, and action planning.

19. In a self-assessment, the organization’s responsibility is to identify opportunities and areas that need improvement.

20. In goal setting, it is the employee’s responsibility to identify the goal and the method of determining his/her progress toward that goal.

21. The outcome of action planning often takes the form of a career development plan.

22. Women and minorities often have trouble finding mentors.

23. Succession planning focuses on high-potential employees.

24. The development of high-potential employees is a slow process.

25. Research indicates that dysfunctional managerial behaviors, such as arrogance and insensitivity, can rarely be effectively dealt with in development programs.

26. Which of the following is of the relationship between training and development?

A. Training is future oriented, while development is focused on improvement of current job.

B. The use of work experience is high in training, but low in development.

C. Participation in training is voluntary, but compulsory in development.

D. The goal of training is preparation for the current job, while the goal of development is preparation for changes in the current job.

E. Training is often an ongoing process while development tends to be short-term process.

27. Which of the following is of development?

A. It focuses only on helping employees improve performance of their current jobs.

B. The use of work experience is low in development.

C. Participation in development is voluntary.

D. It s not related to preparing employees for changes.

E. It is linked to fixed business goals.

28. Which of the following is of protean careers?

A. Employees look for organizations to provide job security.

B. Employees take lesser responsibility for managing protean careers than for traditional careers.

C. A protean career is one that does does not change frequently.

D. Based on the psychological contract, employees look for organizations to provide development opportunities.

E. Protean careers are characterized by frequent changes due to changes in the person’s desired level of compensation.

29. Protean careers require that employees:

A. look for organizations to provide job security.

B. take responsibility to manage their own careers.

C. be specialized at repetitive tasks.

D. look for organizations for a career ladder to climb to higher positions.

E. focus on holding on to their jobs to avoid being laid off.

30. _____ help(s) employees select development activities that prepare them to meet their career goals.

A. Career path

B. Training

C. Policy analysis

D. Job sharing

E. Career management

31. The four general approaches that companies use to develop employees include:

A. formal education, assessment, job experiences, and interpersonal relationships.

B. job rotation, promotion, transfer, and job sharing.

C. psychological tests, assessment centers, Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, and performance feedback.

D. business games, formal courses, team building, and assessment.

E. TQM, Six Sigma, lean manufacturing, and quality function deployment.

32. Collecting information and providing feedback to employees about their behavior is called _____.

A. internship

B. job enlargement

C. assessment

D. job rotation

E. externship

33. The energy dichotomy of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator indicates _____.

A. the preparations individuals make before making decisions

B. the amount of consideration individuals give to their own and others’ values and feelings

C. individuals’ degree of introversion or extroversion

D. the hard facts of a situation

E. individuals’ tendency to be either flexible or structured

34. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, Introverted types (I) gain energy by _____.

A. focusing on inner thoughts

B. focusing on interpersonal relationships

C. gathering facts and details

D. focusing less on facts and more on possibilities

E. trying to be objective in making decisions

35. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, Extroverted types (E) gain energy through:

A. interpersonal relationships.

B. personal thoughts.

C. gathering facts and details.

D. establishing goals.

E. inner feelings.

36. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals with a Sensing (S) preference:

A. enjoy surprises.

B. tend to rush into decision making.

C. tend to focus less on possibilities and relationships among facts.

D. focus on interpersonal relationships.

E. tend to gather the facts and details to prepare for a decision.

37. According to the lifestyle dichotomy of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals with a _____ preference enjoy surprises and dislike deadlines.

A. Judging (J)

B. Perceiving (P)

C. Thinking (T)

D. Feeling (F)

E. Sensing (S)

38. The decision-making dimension of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator relates to the:

A. steps or actions individuals take when making decisions.

B. amount of consideration given to others’ feelings when making a decision.

C. individuals’ tendency to be flexible and adaptable.

D. confidence and speed with which decisions are reached.

E. individual’s interpersonal strength and vitality.

39. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals with a Perceiving (P) preference:

A. are conclusive and focused on goals.

B. are comfortable with changing a decision.

C. like deadlines.

D. focus more on possibilities and relationships among facts.

E. do not like surprises.

40. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) identifies individuals’ preferences for source of energy, means of information gathering, way of decision making, and _____.

A. succession planning

B. self-assessment

C. lifestyle

D. value system

E. goal setting

41. According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, individuals who are Introverted, Sensing, Thinking, and Judging (known as ISTJs):

A. appear to their colleagues to be too task-oriented.

B. tend to take a lot of time to make decisions.

C. are perceived as friendly and outgoing.

D. respond well to unexpected opportunities.

E. are mostly unorganized and impractical.

42. Which of the following is of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)?

A. It is an appropriate tool for measuring job performance.

B. People who take the MBTI generally do not find it to be an enjoyable experience.

C. MBTI scores are stable over time.

D. The MBTI is a valuable tool for understanding communication styles.

E. Research has concluded that the MBTI is highly valid, reliable, and effective.

43. Which of the following is about an assessment center?

A. An assessment center is a meeting room where a team of seven to ten employees is assigned a problem and must work together to solve it within a certain time period.

B. At an assessment center, multiple raters or evaluators evaluate employees’ performance on a number of exercises.

C. It is an office that looks into the process of collecting information and providing feedback to employees about their behavior, communication style, or skills.

D. At an assessment center, senior managers hold a test that identifies individuals’ preferences for source of energy, means of information gathering, way of decision making, and lifestyle.

E. It refers to an on-site location where the corporate leaders design a tool that gathers ratings of a manager’s use of skills associated with success in managing.

44. The primary use of assessment centers is to identify:

A. whether employees have the personality characteristics and skills needed for managerial positions.

B. the strengths and weaknesses of the organization.

C. the decision processes and communication styles that inhibit production.

D. the opportunities and threats of an organization.

E. the factors that inhibit group performance.

45. An employee’s tolerance for uncertainty and the ability to get along with others are assessed in _____.

A. leaderless group discussions

B. in-basket exercises

C. personality tests

D. role-plays

E. interviews

46. Which of the following is of in-basket exercises?

A. They require teams of five to seven employees to work together to solve assigned problems within a certain time period.

B. They are paper-and-pencil tests designed to measure participants’ communication styles and skills.

C. They simulate the administrative tasks of a manager’s job, using a pile of documents for the employee to handle.

D. They require participants to take the part of a manager or employee in a situation involving the skills to be assessed.

E. They require the use of interest and aptitude tests to evaluate an employee’s vocabulary, general mental ability, and reasoning skills.

47. Which of the following assessment center exercises is being used when a team of five to seven employees is assigned a problem and must work together to solve it within a certain time period?

A. Interview session

B. Leaderless group discussion

C. Role playing

D. In-basket exercise

E. Personality test

48. In assessment centers, typically, each assessor observes and records _____ employees’ behaviors in each exercise.

A. six or seven

B. four or five

C. eight or nine

D. one or two

E. ten or eleven

49. The measurement tool Benchmarks focuses on measuring:

A. an organization’s performance against major competitors.

B. a manager’s use of skills associated with success in managing.

C. the output of a group or team of employees.

D. performance differences among employees.

E. employees’ progress in carrying out their action plans.

50. Identify the skill related to a successful manager.

A. Accomplishes tasks by completing all the tasks himself/herself

B. Is willing to sacrifice personal life for work life

C. Is infallible and leads by the telling-and-selling approach

D. Can behave in ways that are often seen as opposites

E. Prefers slow and precise actions for management situations

51. Which of the following skills do managers demonstrate if they show genuine interest in others?

A. Compassion and sensitivity

B. Straightforwardness and composure

C. Team orientation

D. Decisiveness

E. Self-awareness

52. Which of the following skills do managers demonstrate if they accomplish tasks through managing others?

A. Compassion and sensitivity

B. Straightforwardness and composure

C. Team orientation

D. Decisiveness

E. Self-awareness

53. Which of the following statements about Benchmarks is ?

A. While managers enjoy completing the instrument and find the results interesting, research is inconclusive regarding the skills measured and their relationship to on-the-job performance.

B. The items measured by Benchmarks are based on research into the lessons that executives learn in critical events of their careers.

C. The instrument measures 24 skills and perspectives including how well managers accomplish tasks by completing the tasks themselves.

D. To provide a complete picture of managers’ skills, only the managers’ supervisors and peers should complete the instrument.

E. Research suggests that Benchmarks are valid for predicting performance, salary level, and career advancement.

54. The 360-degree feedback process:

A. involves rating the individual in terms of work-related behaviors.

B. does not lead to any improvement in performance.

C. breaks down formal communications about behaviors and skill ratings between employees and their internal and external customers.

D. gives results that can be easily interpreted by anyone.

E. demands very little time of the raters to complete the evaluations.

55. How does 360-degree feedback help organizations?

A. Managers can identify subordinates who provide negative feedback.

B. Delivering ratings provides a simple way for a manager to act on the feedback.

C. Performance improves and behavior changes as a result of participation.

D. It demands very little time, so the raters can focus on other tasks.

E. Managers can easily interpret the results themselves and take necessary action.

56. Most employee development occurs through:

A. performance appraisals.

B. job experiences.

C. formal education.

D. technical training.

E. interpersonal relationships.

57. Using job experiences for development assumes that:

A. development occurs only when job demands involve obstacles.

B. development occurs only through promotions.

C. development is most likely to occur when employees experience high levels of negative stress in their jobs.

D. development is most likely to occur when employee’s skills and experiences do not entirely match the skills required for the current job.

E. development is most likely to occur when the employee has the prerequisite skills to perform the job.

58. Which of the following is of job enlargement?

A. It is a systematic approach to help an organization modify its core processes to achieve more efficient results.

B. It aims at greater productivity through reduced application of mental and physical effort.

C. It involves attempts to motivate employees by giving them the opportunity to use specific skill sets.

D. It involves moving employees through a series of job assignments in one or more functional areas.

E. It involves adding challenges or new responsibilities to employees’ current jobs.

59. Job rotation involves:

A. adding challenges or new responsibilities to the employee’s current job.

B. moving the employee through a series of job assignments in one or more functional areas of the company.

C. allowing the employee to work full-time in a temporary position at another company.

D. allowing the employee to switch between two different jobs within the company on a daily or weekly basis.

E. assigning an employee to a position with less responsibility and authority.

60. Which of the following is a potential problem of job rotation?

A. Employees typically develop a short-term perspective on problems and solutions.

B. Employees generally earn less.

C. Promotions usually take longer.

D. Employees typically develop specialized skills but fail to use them due to quick rotations.

E. It decreases employees’ understanding of different company functions.

61. Which of the following is about job rotation?

A. According to research, job rotation typically does not benefit managers.

B. Job rotation is a simple process and rarely requires the involvement or the commitment of top management.

C. The system is restricted to a limited number of key positions and employees within the company.

D. The system ensures that employees understand the specific skills to be developed.

E. Rotation schedules are decided solely on the ability of other departments to accommodate new employees.

62. Which of the following is about a transfer?

A. It typically involves a full-time temporary position at another organization.

B. A transfer fundamentally increases job responsibilities.

C. A transfer essentially increases compensation.

D. It occurs when an employee is given less responsibility and authority.

E. It is an assignment of an employee to a position in a different area of the company, usually in a lateral move.

63. A move to a job with a similar level of responsibility within the same organization is called a(n):

A. externship.

B. promotion.

C. downward move.

D. upward move.

E. lateral move.

64. The organization may demote an employee to a lower-level position:

A. to provide greater challenges to him/her.

B. so that the employee can learn different skills.

C. to increase the employee’s visibility.

D. so that the employee can get more authority.

E. to give him/her more responsibility.

65. Allowing employees to take a full-time temporary position at another company is known as a(n):

A. transfer.

B. expatriate assignment.

C. sabbatical.

D. externship.

E. lateral move.

66. Providing employees with the opportunity to get away from the day-to-day stresses of their job and acquire new skills and perspectives is known as a(n):

A. transfer.

B. expatriate assignment.

C. sabbatical.

D. externship.

E. downward move.

67. A mentor is generally a(n):

A. employee’s peer who provides friendship and guidance.

B. employee’s manager who provides feedback on performance.

C. employee’s family member who provides emotional and financial support.

D. experienced, productive senior employee who helps develop a protégé.

E. experienced person who disseminates knowledge to the entire organization.

68. Which of the following is of mentoring?

A. Mentoring is the best substitute for therapy.

B. Most mentoring relationships develop formally as a result of interests or values officially discussed by the mentor and protégé.

C. Employees most likely to seek a mentor are emotionally unstable and have a low need for power and achievement.

D. Mentoring programs tend to be most successful when they are voluntary and participants understand the details of the program.

E. Informal mentoring programs ensure access to mentors for all employees, regardless of gender or race.

69. Which of the following is a characteristic of a successful formal mentoring program?

A. Mentor and protégé participation is mandatory.

B. Managers are rewarded for employee development.

C. Mentors are chosen on a random basis.

D. Mentors become therapists for their protégés.

E. Mentor-protégé relationships are artificially created.

70. Acting as a mentor gives managers:

A. career support and sponsorship.

B. increased visibility among the organization’s managers.

C. a chance to talk about their worries.

D. a chance to develop their interpersonal skills.

E. more chances of being promoted.

71. A peer or manager who works closely with an employee to motivate him/her, help him/her develop skills, and provide reinforcement and feedback is known as a:

A. protégé.

B. coach.

C. moderator.

D. high-potential employee.

E. facilitator.

72. Which of the following is a component of a basic career management system?

A. Stress management

B. Goal setting

C. Externship

D. Team building

E. Workplace ethics

73. What is the employee’s responsibility in the data gathering stage of career management?

A. To identify opportunities and areas needing improvement

B. To communicate performance evaluations

C. To identify steps and a timetable to reach goals

D. To provide assessment information to identify strengths, weaknesses, interests, and values

E. To ensure that goals are specific, challenging, and attainable

74. The step in the career management process in which psychological tests, such as Myers-Briggs Type Indicator and the Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory, are used is:

A. follow-up.

B. reality check.

C. goal setting.

D. action planning.

E. data gathering.

75. The career management process starts with:

A. self-assessment.

B. goal setting.

C. reality checking.

D. identifying the steps and timetable to reach a goal.

E. specifying competencies to be developed.

76. The _____ is a self-assessment tool that helps employees identify their occupational and job interests.

A. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

B. Self-Directed Search

C. Leaderless group discussion

D. Occupational Outlook Handbook

E. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory

77. Which of the following helps identify employees’ preferences for working in different types of environments like sales and counseling?

A. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

B. Self-Directed Search

C. Leaderless group discussion

D. Occupational Outlook Handbook

E. Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory

78. The step in the career management process in which employees receive information about their skills and knowledge and where these assets fit into the organization’s plans is called:

A. self-assessment.

B. feedback.

C. goal setting.

D. action planning.

E. data gathering.

79. In the feedback step of the career management process, the employee is primarily responsible for:

A. ensuring that the goal is specific, challenging, and attainable.

B. identifying company resources needed to reach goals.

C. identifying what skills he/she could realistically develop in light of the opportunities available.

D. identifying resources needed, including courses, work experiences, and relationships.

E. identifying strengths, weaknesses, interests, and values.

80. Usually the employer conducts the reality check as part of a performance appraisal or as the _____ stage of performance management.

A. self-assessment

B. action planning

C. goal setting

D. data gathering

E. feedback

81. What is the organization’s responsibility in the goal-setting stage of the career management process?

A. To identify what skills can be developed realistically

B. To identify goals and methods to determine goal progress

C. To identify steps and a timetable to reach goals

D. To ensure that the goal is specific, challenging, and attainable

E. To communicate performance evaluation and opportunities available to the employee

82. The final step in the career management process is:

A. self-assessment.

B. reality check.

C. goal setting.

D. action planning.

E. feedback.

83. During the action planning and follow-up step of the career management process, the employer:

A. has the responsibility of communicating the performance evaluation.

B. should identify opportunities and personal areas needing improvement.

C. should ensure that the goal is specific.

D. is responsible for identifying the steps and timetable to reach the goals.

E. should identify resources needed.

84. Circumstances that resemble an invisible barrier that keep most women and minorities from attaining the top jobs in organizations are referred to as the:

A. revolving door.

B. fixed wall.

C. glass ceiling.

D. closed door.

E. glass escalator.

85. The glass ceiling is likely caused by:

A. a lack of developmental relationships.

B. the presence of a diverse workforce.

C. the presence of too many mentors for the female employees.

D. the presence of women with technical skills.

E. providing challenging job assignments to high-potential employees.

86. _____ is the process of identifying and tracking high-potential employees who will be able to fill top management positions when they become vacant.

A. Acculturation

B. Leaderless group discussion

C. Benchmarking

D. Data gathering

E. Succession planning

87. Which of the following is about succession planning?

A. It ensures that middle management systematically reviews leadership talent in the company.

B. It provides a set of developmental experiences that managers must complete to be considered for top management positions.

C. All companies have a succession plan ready when they need one.

D. It identifies a specific replacement for each managerial position within the company.

E. It focuses on low-to-medium potential employees.

88. In the case of succession planning, job assignments for high-potential employees are based on:

A. the personal preferences of these employees.

B. the immediate needs of the organization.

C. the willingness of departments to accommodate these employees.

D. the successful career paths of the managers whom these employees are preparing to replace.

E. the availability of special assignments such as serving on committees and task forces.

89. The process for developing a succession plan begins with:

A. reviewing the existing talent.

B. linking succession planning with other human resource systems.

C. identifying the positions to be planned for.

D. establishing position requirements.

E. deciding how to measure employees’ potential for being able to fill requirements.

90. An Individual Coaching for Effectiveness program is designed to:

A. help managers with dysfunctional behaviors.

B. improve the technical skills of employees.

C. help prepare managers for overseas assignments.

D. reduce the effects of the glass ceiling.

E. attract and retain ambitious managerial employees.

91. Discuss the relationship between training, development, and careers.

92. What are the different kinds of formal educational programs that organizations may use to support employee development?

93. What is the function of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)? What are the different areas of preferences described by MBTI?

94. Describe a leaderless group discussion.

95. What is 360-degree feedback? What are its advantages and disadvantages?

96. What are the different ways in which job experiences help in employee development?

97. What are group mentoring programs?

98. How do managers and peers develop employees through coaching?

99. What are the four steps of a basic career management system?

100. What is succession planning and what are its benefits? What are the three stages for an effective program for developing high-potential employees?

10
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Generally, organizations encourage voluntary turnover among top management since it is inexpensive.

2. Employees can sue employers for wrongful discharge only if the employee was contracted under an employment-at-will.

3. Outcome fairness involves the ends of a discipline process, while procedural and interactional justice focus on the means to those ends.

4. Procedural justice is a judgment that takes employees’ feelings into account while carrying out discharge actions.

5. When a decision to discharge an employee is explained and implemented in a fashion that is socially sensitive, considerate, and empathetic, it fulfills the principle of outcome fairness.

6. In general, employers may conduct random searches of areas like desks, lockers, and toolboxes at any point in time without any justification to the employee.

7. According to the hot-stove rule, an organization’s discipline should give warning and have consequences that are consistent, subjective, and immediate.

8. Creating a formal discipline process is a primary responsibility of the human resource department.

9. The open-door policy is an example of an alternative dispute resolution.

10. Despite being a formal process involving an outsider, arbitration tends to be much faster, simpler, and more private than a lawsuit.

11. The availability of outplacement counseling while an employee is being encouraged to leave the organization, promotes a sense of fairness on discharge.

12. Job withdrawal is a set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid the work situation physically, mentally, or emotionally.

13. Core self-evaluation refers to pervasive low levels of satisfaction in all aspects of life, compared with other people’s feelings.

14. When employees are unclear about work methods, scheduling, and performance criteria because others hold different ideas about these, they are likely to suffer from role ambiguity.

15. Role conflict is uncertainty about what the organization and others expect from the employee in terms of what to do or how to do it.

16. If an employee disputes policies on the grounds that they violate state and federal laws, he/she can go outside the organization for help to file a lawsuit.

17. Job involvement is a judgment that the organization carried out its actions in a way that took the employee’s feelings into account.

18. Personal dispositions do not play a role in creating job satisfaction.

19. Job satisfaction is always based on an objective and complete measurement of the situation and not on perception.

20. Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, an employer may need to grant a clinically depressed employee time off or a flexible schedule to accommodate treatment.

21. The Fair Labor Standards Act exempts managers and professionals from its requirement that the company pay overtime to employees who work more than a 40-hour week.

22. The two primary sets of people in an organization who most affect job satisfaction are co-workers and customers.

23. Job satisfaction of employees remains unaffected from organizational changes such as mergers.

24. The Job Descriptive Index is an example of a job satisfaction instrument.

25. HR professionals can help make exit interviews more successful by arranging for the departing employee to talk to his/her supervisor.

26. Terminating an employee for the use of illegal drugs is an example of a(n) _____ turnover.

A. retentive

B. external

C. voluntary

D. absenteeism

E. involuntary

27. When employees initiate a turnover, when the organization would prefer to keep them, it is called _____ turnover.

A. dysfunctional

B. involuntary

C. retentive

D. external

E. voluntary

28. Historically, if the organization and employee do not have a specific employment contract, the employer or employee may end the employment relationship at any time. This is referred to as the _____ doctrine.

A. force majeure

B. laissez faire

C. employment-at-will

D. due process

E. implied in fact

29. An employee refuses an employer’s request to falsify the contents of a report to the EEOC. The employer subsequently discharges the worker for “not following orders.” Identify the exception to the at-will-employment doctrine that the employee is like to choose when he/she files a wrongful discharge suit.

A. Equal employment

B. Public policy

C. Implied contract

D. Reverse discrimination

E. Affirmative action

30. People’s perception of _____ depends on their judgment that the consequences of a decision to employees are just.

A. employment-at-will

B. procedural justice

C. fair representation

D. arbitration

E. outcome fairness

31. Which of the following statements is about employee dismissal on the grounds of employment-at-will agreements?

A. They are likely to raise principles of justice issues.

B. Most employers stopped using these agreements during the 1990s.

C. The courts have declared these agreements as illegal.

D. Most employees see the agreements as equitable.

E. Employment-at-will agreements empower managers to discharge employees at their personal discretion.

32. Although the rate of inflation is only 2 percent, Jessie receives a 6 percent increase in salary. She is nonetheless dissatisfied with her salary increase due to Norvin’s, whose job designation is similar to Jessie’s, 9 percent increase. Jessie is likely to contend that there is a lack of:

A. employment-at-will.

B. outcome fairness.

C. procedural justice.

D. interactional justice.

E. fair representation.

33. Thomas Fenton reprimanded five of his employees for coming to work drunk after a lunch outing. The next week, Thomas fired another employee for being drunk at work. The employees under Thomas can conclude a lack of _____ in dealing with employees being drunk at work.

A. benchmarking

B. outcome fairness.

C. summary dismissal

D. role underload

E. onboarding

34. In the principles of justice followed in systems of disciplining, explanation, consideration, and empathy are features of _____.

A. retributive justice

B. interactional justice

C. distributive justice

D. benchmarking

E. summary dismissals

35. People’s perception of _____ is their judgment that fair methods were used to determine the consequences an employee receives.

A. interactional justice

B. expatriation

C. outcome fairness

D. procedural justice

E. labor law posting

36. A perception of _____ is a judgment that the organization carried out its actions in a way that took the employee’s feelings into account.

A. interactional justice

B. employee turnover

C. sourcing

D. summary dismissal

E. scalability

37. Which of the following does an employer violate while terminating an employee for refusing to do something illegal, unethical, or unsafe?

A. Affirmative action

B. Public policy

C. Fair Representation

D. Equal opportunity employment

E. Reverse discrimination

38. When conducting a workplace search, without probable cause, employers can act fairly and minimize the likelihood of a lawsuit by:

A. hushing the company’s search policies prior to the search.

B. searching employees’ workplace without their knowledge.

C. using non-company personnel to conduct the search.

D. conducting random searches with or without a probable cause.

E. justifying that the organization has work rules that provide for searches.

39. If employers covered by the _____ do not inform the employees (and their union, if applicable) of layoffs, they may have to provide back pay and fringe benefits and pay penalties as well.

A. Davis–Bacon Act

B. Worker Adjustment Retraining and Notification Act

C. Right-to-Work Act

D. Employee Free Choice Act

E. Fair Labor Standards Act

40. The Worker Adjustment Retraining and Notification Act requires that:

A. organizations with unionized operations negotiate any closings or layoffs that will affect employees within the bargaining unit.

B. organizations with more than 100 employees conduct and publicize the results of an environmental, community impact study before a plant closing that will affect at least 50 full-time employees.

C. organizations with 50 or more employees and $10,000 or more in federal contracts prepare and post an affirmation plan.

D. organizations with more than 100 employees give 60 days’ notice before any closings or layoffs that will affect at least 50 full-time employees.

E. organizations with more than 50 employees give at least 30 days’ notice before any closings or layoffs that will affect all full-time employees.

41. According to this principle of discipline, discipline should give clear warning and following up with consistent, objective, immediate consequences. Identify the principle.

A. Per se rule

B. Laissez faire rule

C. Fundamental attribution rule

D. Progressive discipline

E. Hot-stove rule

42. The hot-stove rule differs from a progressive discipline process in that with the hot-stove rule:

A. the punishment meted is always inconsistent.

B. the consequences for breaking the rule is immediate.

C. the rule breaker will be warned multiple times before termination.

D. the consequences follow a gradual increase in seriousness

E. the ideology is to prevent misbehavior rather than to merely punish it.

43. The principles of justice suggest that organizations prepare for problems by establishing a formal discipline process in which the consequences become more serious if the employee repeats the offense. Identify this process.

A. Hot-stove rule of discipline

B. Progressive discipline system

C. Alternative dispute resolution program

D. At-will-employment policies

E. Impassive justice

44. This process seeks to prevent misbehavior and to correct, rather than merely punish misbehavior. Identify the process.

A. Hot-stove rule

B. Fair representation

C. Progressive discipline

D. Benchmarking

E. Peer review panel

45. Which of the following is a typical first response in the progressive discipline system?

A. Official spoken warning

B. Written warning with threat of temporary suspension

C. Temporary suspension with no written notice

D. Unofficial spoken warning

E. Termination

46. A progressive discipline system:

A. includes peer reviews, mediation and arbitration.

B. always involves four parties: the employee, the union, the company, and the courts.

C. communicates unacceptable behavior and responds to a series of offenses with increasing forcefulness.

D. is consistent with the employment-at-will doctrine because it gives employers the power to hire-or-fire at will.

E. is objective, immediate, and impersonal.

47. Conducting personal business online during work hours is called:

A. cybersquatting.

B. cyber bullying.

C. cyber sleeping.

D. cyberstalking.

E. cyberslacking.

48. Which of the following has the primary responsibility of creating a formal discipline process for the workplace?

A. Human resource department

B. Outplacement counselors

C. Legal department

D. Sales force

E. Arbitrators

49. The _____ type of alternate dispute resolution works only to the degree that employees trust management and managers who hear complaints listen and are able to act.

A. employee carve-out

B. behavioral modeling

C. open-door policy

D. fair representation

E. peer review system

50. Peer review is an example of _____.

A. alternative dispute resolution

B. employee assistance programs

C. outplacement counseling

D. fair representation

E. employee carve-out

51. If peer review does not lead to a settlement, a neutral party from outside the organization hears the case and tries to help the people in conflict arrive at a settlement. This process is called:

A. mediation.

B. carve-out.

C. open-door policy.

D. fair representation.

E. attrition.

52. Based on the expectation that two people in conflict should first try to arrive at a settlement together, organizations have a policy of making managers available to hear complaints. Typically, the first “open door” is that of the employee’s:

A. immediate supervisor.

B. choice of a neutral party.

C. peers.

D. immediate subordinates.

E. personal counselor.

53. Adam, a neutral party outside of La Meares Inc., helped clarify issues between two technical teams of the company. Though Adam’s solution had no binding power, both the teams decided to accept his solution. This is an example of _____.

A. mediation.

B. arbitration.

C. open-door policy.

D. progressive discipline.

E. fair representation.

54. ____ is a process for resolving disputes by taking them to a panel composed of representatives from the organization at the same levels as the people in the dispute.

A. Outplacement counseling

B. Mediation

C. Carve-out

D. Arbitration

E. Peer review

55. Open-door policy, and mediation are generally steps within:

A. the strategy decision-making process.

B. the alternative dispute resolution system.

C. the collective bargaining system.

D. the fair representation policy.

E. the performance appraisal program.

56. Which of the following is an example of alternative dispute resolution method?

A. Carve-out

B. Employment assistance programs

C. Benchmarking

D. Arbitration

E. Outplacement counseling

57. The decision reached in a(n) _____ is binding upon both parties.

A. peer review

B. mediation

C. open-door

D. arbitration

E. outplacement counseling

58. ____ is a referral service that employees can use to seek professional treatment for emotional problems or substance abuse.

A. Alternative dispute resolution

B. Outplacement counseling

C. Employee assistance program

D. Progressive discipline program

E. Request for proposal

59. Which of the following is of employee assistance programs?

A. It cannot be initiated by union representatives of the employee’s union.

B. It is a company-sponsored program to help employees manage the transition from one job to another.

C. It can be initiated by the employee to refer himself or herself into the program.

D. It involves taking the help of a neutral party though a nonbinding process to solve issues among employees.

E. It involves hiring an arbitrator from outside the organization to hear cases or disputes among employees.

60. Outplacement counseling programs are:

A. long-distant educational programs using instruction via video or audio tapes, computers etc. provided by the company to augment employee skills.

B. services in which professionals try to help dismissed employees manage the transition from one job to another.

C. third-party programs to assist employees with their mental health and chemical dependency needs.

D. university-sponsored executive training programs which require participants to live on campus while completing short, custom-designed courses.

E. services rendered to employees to manage drug/alcohol addiction.

61. Marcus has just been discharged form his work after the company he was working for started downsizing. Confused about his state of joblessness, Marcus threatens to sue the company for reparations. Which of the following programs can help the company from facing such situations from exiting employees?

A. Outplacement counseling

B. Employee assistance program

C. Benchmarking

D. Progressive disciplining programs

E. Expatriation

62. Job withdrawal is:

A. the loss of jobs within an organization due to adverse economic forces.

B. a set of behaviors that dissatisfied individuals enact to avoid the work situation.

C. the retracting of a job offer following the results of a pre-employment physical.

D. a psychological state employees experience upon a job dismissal or retirement.

E. the retraction of an employment offer following failure to join on an agreed date.

63. _____ results when circumstances such as the nature of the job, supervisors and co-workers, pay levels, or the employee’s own disposition cause the employee to become dissatisfied with the job.

A. Fundamental attribution error

B. Due diligence

C. Social loafing

D. Job withdrawal

E. Cognitive dissonance

64. Negative affectivity is related to dissatisfaction caused by:

A. unsafe working conditions.

B. employee’s personal disposition.

C. organizational roles.

D. social environments.

E. demanding superiors.

65. _____ means pervasive low levels of satisfaction with all aspects of life, compared with other people’s feelings.

A. Negative affectivity

B. Outplacement

C. Expatriation

D. Systemic discrimination

E. Cognitive withdrawal

66. The positive or negative bottom-line opinions that individuals have of themselves are known as:

A. negative affectivities.

B. factor comparisons.

C. core self-evaluations.

D. fair representations.

E. behavioral models.

67. Employees with negative affectivity tend to:

A. experience high job satisfaction.

B. experience feelings of anger, contempt, fear, and guilt.

C. seek change in socially acceptable ways.

D. look for the good in others, but not themselves.

E. think highly of themselves, but not others.

68. When in situations they dislike, employees with positive core self-evaluation tend to:

A. experience high job dissatisfaction.

B. blame other people for their problems.

C. seek change in socially acceptable ways.

D. act aggressively toward others.

E. experience feelings of anger, guilt, and nervousness more than others.

69. As a predictor of job dissatisfaction, nothing surpasses:

A. the nature of the task itself.

B. the geographical location of the firm.

C. negative affectivity.

D. relationships with co-workers.

E. negative self-evaluations.

70. _____ is uncertainty about what the organization and others expect from the employee in terms of what to do or how to do it.

A. Role underload

B. Role ambiguity

C. Role conflict

D. Role overload

E. Role autonomy

71. _____ is an employee’s recognition that demands of the job are incompatible or contradictory.

A. Role conflict

B. Role overload

C. Role underload

D. Role ambiguity

E. Role autonomy

72. Foreign assignments can be highly disruptive to family members, and the resulting role _____ is the top reason that people quit overseas assignments.

A. autonomy

B. overload

C. underload

D. ambiguity

E. conflict

73. Maria was recently told by the top management that they expected her to exercise more authority and leadership with her work group. Just two days prior to that, her team told her that while they appreciated the initiative she demonstrated, they expected her to be less authoritative and more democratic in the future. The term that best describes what Maria is experiencing is:

A. role carve-out.

B. role distance.

C. role conflict.

D. role underload.

E. role autonomy.

74. After an organization downsizes, it may expect so much of the remaining employees. This high expectation and demand results in a state of _____ for the employees.

A. role autonomy

B. role carve-out

C. role underload

D. role distance

E. role overload

75. Selma is a single mother who works full-time and attends to the needs of her two young children. Selma has opted to work from home for a short period after one her children had a road accident. Even though she works from home she often feels a lot of pressure in balancing her work and looking after her children. The term that best characterizes what Selma is experiencing is:

A. role ambiguity.

B. role carve-out.

C. role conflict.

D. job withdrawal.

E. role underload.

76. The amount of income associated with each job is called the:

A. pay rank.

B. pay status.

C. pay differential.

D. incentive pay.

E. pay level.

77. When employees cannot work with management to make changes, they may engage in ____, taking their charges to the media in the hope that if the public learns about the situation, the organization will be forced to change.

A. scapegoating

B. progressive discipline

C. class actions

D. media manipulation

E. whistle-blowing

78. In terms of job dissatisfaction, an employee who calls in sick or arrives to work late is engaging in:

A. behavior change.

B. job coasting.

C. physical job withdrawal.

D. whistle-blowing.

E. emotional withdrawal.

79. Helen is very dissatisfied with her job situation, but she does not perceive any other employment opportunities, so she stays and spends most of the workday dreaming about nonwork matters. Which of the following behaviors is she experiencing?

A. Physical withdrawal

B. Psychological job withdrawal

C. Job coasting

D. Benchmarking

E. Whistle-blowing

80. Low job involvement and low organizational commitment are:

A. essentially the same thing.

B. examples of psychological withdrawal.

C. examples of physical withdrawal that are related to job dissatisfaction.

D. examples of behavior change.

E. examples of physiological withdrawal.

81. To prevent job withdrawal, organizations therefore need to promote job satisfaction, a pleasant feeling resulting from the perception that one’s job fulfills or allows for the fulfillment of one’s important job values. This definition has three components:

A. compensation, working conditions, and peer support.

B. values, perceptions, and ideas of what is important.

C. job involvement, organizational commitment, and job withdrawal.

D. physical environment, social environment, and the person.

E. emotional, physical, and financial well-being.

82. In the role analysis technique, role occupant refers to:

A. the person who is hiring the employee for a particular role in the organization.

B. the employee who fills a role in the organization.

C. the people who will directly interact with the employee filling a new role in the organization.

D. the people who have written guidelines for a new role in the organization.

E. the employees who are assigned the task to write expectations from a new role in the organization.

83. In the role analysis technique, the people who directly interact with the person who is filling a new role is referred to as the person’s:

A. role occupants.

B. role managers.

C. role set.

D. role sitters.

E. benchmarkers.

84. An intervention designed to increase the communication and understanding of the various sets of role expectations that exist for specific employees is called:

A. role playing.

B. role analysis technique.

C. role carve-out.

D. role enrichment.

E. role overload.

85. Maria is concerned about an unacceptable level of job dissatisfaction among a number of work teams in her organization, and she has determined the primary cause of the dissatisfaction is the uncertainty that exists among employees regarding what is expected of them. Based on this limited information, the most appropriate intervention would be:

A. factor comparison.

B. role analysis technique.

C. job rotation.

D. role carve-out

E. job coasting.

86. The two sets of people in the organization who most affect an individual’s job satisfaction are:

A. subordinates and supervisors.

B. supervisors and family members.

C. co-workers and subordinates.

D. supervisors and co-workers.

E. supervisors and upper-level managers.

87. Which of the following aspects of satisfaction is emphasized in the job description index?

A. Outplacements

B. Promotions

C. Skills

D. Customers

E. Qualifications

88. The _____ emphasizes specific aspects of satisfaction—pay, the work itself, supervision, co-workers, and promotions.

A. outplacement policy

B. employee assistance program

C. job description index

D. novated lease system

E. profit-sharing program

89. A(n) _____ refers to the meeting of a departing employee with the employee’s supervisor and/or a human resource specialist to discuss the employee’s reasons for leaving.

A. exit interview

B. affirmative action

C. carve-out

D. observation interview

E. summary dismissal

90. _____ can uncover reasons why employees leave and perhaps set the stage for some of them to return.

A. Mock interviews

B. Job Descriptive Indices

C. Pay Satisfaction Questionnaires

D. Exit interviews

E. Summary dismissals

91. Distinguish between involuntary and voluntary turnover, and give examples of each.

92. Discuss the principles of justice that are to be followed in a system of disciplining or terminating employees.

93. What are the requirements that employers must meet to avoid wrongful discharge?

94. Discuss the following approaches to discipline: hot-stove rule and progressive discipline.

95. Explain alternative dispute resolution systems and the stages that generally constitute this system. Justify its increase in use.

96. Explain what job withdrawal is and discuss the four types of conditions that leads up to it.

97. What is job satisfaction? Mention some aspects of job satisfaction.

98. Describe how organizations contribute to employees’ job satisfaction and retain key employees by providing job complexity and meaningful work.

99. Discuss the primary sets of people in an organization who affect job satisfaction. What are the reasons a person may be satisfied with these people?

100. Write a short note on exit interviews.

11
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Pay level is the average amount (including wages, salaries, and bonuses) the organization pays for a particular job.

2. An organization’s job structure and pay levels are policies of the organization, rather than the amount a particular employee earns.

3. The laws governing Equal Employment Opportunity guarantee equal pay for men and women, whites and minorities, and other groups within the United States.

4. In states that have laws specifying minimum wages, employers must pay whichever rate is higher—the federal or state.

5. Paying a salary does not necessarily mean a job is exempt.

6. Under the FLSA, children aged 14 and 15 may not be employed in any work associated with interstate commerce.

7. The 1938 FLSA requires federal contractors to pay local or area prevailing wage rates.

8. Organizations in a product market compete to serve different customers.

9. Product markets do not place any limit on the pay an organization will offer.

10. When labor costs are a large part of an organization’s total costs, the organization responds by increasing pay levels.

11. In terms of compensation, benchmarking involves the use of pay surveys.

12. According to equity theory, people measure outcomes such as pay in terms of their outputs.

13. In a two-tier wage system, employees doing the same job are paid two different rates, depending on their technical background and training.

14. Research suggests that employees in the lower tier of the pay structure are less satisfied than the top-tier employees.

15. Compensable factors are job characteristics that an organization values and chooses to pay for.

16. Key jobs have relatively unstable content and are uncommon to many organizations.

17. When job structure and market data conflict, organizations should base their pay only on market forces because this is the only approach that does not have any practical drawbacks.

18. Pay grades allow rates of pay for individual jobs to be more precisely matched to market rates and the organization’s job structure.

19. The most common approach to pay differentials is to move an employee lower in the pay structure to compensate for increasing costs.

20. Broad bands increase the opportunities for promoting employees.

21. Skill-based pay systems support efforts to empower employees and enrich jobs.

22. A compa-ratio of 1 suggests that actual pay is not consistent with the pay policy.

23. Issues affecting an organization’s pay structure do not affect its general reputation.

24. Military pay often exceeds what service members would earn in their civilian jobs.

25. The equity of executive pay does not affect other employees.

26. An organization’s job structure consists of:

A. the relative pay for different jobs within the organization.

B. the average amount an organization pays for a particular job.

C. the characteristics of jobs that the organization values and chooses to pay for.

D. regular pay, overtime pay, and bonuses.

E. the standard amount that employers must pay under federal and state law.

27. An organization’s job structure and pay levels:

A. reflect the organization’s knowledge about inflationary pressures.

B. reflect the decisions about how much to pay each employee.

C. provide the total amount an organization pays for a particular job.

D. are annual earnings of key employees in the organization.

E. are policies of the organization.

28. Which of the following would act as a market force during the development of a pay structure?

A. Restrictions on child labor

B. Meeting principles of fairness

C. Providing equal pay for equal work

D. Paying atleast the minimum wage established by law

E. Obtaining human resources in labor markets

29. Identify the legal requirement(s) for developing a pay structure.

A. Product markets

B. High-quality workforce

C. Equity and fairness

D. Overtime pay

E. Pay differentials

30. Which of the following statements is of Equal Employment Opportunity laws?

A. These laws guarantee equal pay for whites and minorities.

B. The goal of these laws is for employers to provide equal pay for equal work.

C. Job descriptions and job structures cannot help organizations demonstrate that they are upholding these laws.

D. These laws guarantee equal pay for men and women.

E. Under these laws, employers cannot tie differences in pay to business-related considerations.

31. The comparable-worth policy:

A. advocates remedies for any undervaluation of jobs based on market-pay data.

B. is designed to reduce the wage gap between women and minority groups.

C. has been consistently upheld in court rulings.

D. uses job evaluation of an organization’s jobs in terms of such criteria as their difficulty.

E. is the only non-controversial pay policy.

32. From an economic standpoint, identify the drawback of a comparable-worth policy.

A. A free-market economy assumes people will not take differences in pay into account when they choose a career.

B. Employees may conclude that pay rates are unfair.

C. The pay policy line reflects the pay structure in the market, which does not always match rates in the organization.

D. Grouping jobs will result in rates of pay for individual jobs that do not precisely match the levels specified by the market and the organization’s job structure.

E. Raising pay for some jobs places the employer at a disadvantage relative to employers that pay the market rate.

33. Which of the following permits a lower training wage, which employers may pay to workers under the age of 20 for a period of up to 90 days?

A. FLSA

B. ADA

C. FMLA

D. ERISA

E. ADEA

34. The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) includes provisions for:

A. personal finance.

B. minimum wage.

C. wage discrimination.

D. environmental hazards.

E. retirement plans.

35. Which of the following is a drawback of a minimum wage in terms of social policy?

A. It assumes people will take differences in pay into account when they choose a career.

B. It is only one and a half times the employee’s usual hourly rate.

C. It applies only to the hours worked beyond 40 in one week.

D. It places the employer at an economic disadvantage relative to employers that pay the living wage.

E. It tends to be lower than the earnings required for a full time worker to rise above the poverty level.

36. An employee who earns a base rate of $10 an hour and receives a weekly attendance award of $20 works 50 hours this week (Overtime pay is required, whether or not the employer specifically asked or expected the employee to work more than 40 hours). His/her total compensation for the week will be:

A. $550.00.

B. $557.50.

C. $570.00.

D. $577.50.

E. $505.00.

37. Which of the following statements is of the FLSA requirements for overtime pay?

A. The overtime rate is one and a half times the employee’s hourly rate, excluding any bonuses or piece-rate payments.

B. Time worked includes only hours spent on production or sales, but not on activities such as attending required classes, cleaning up the work site, etc.

C. Overtime must be paid whether or not the employer specifically asked or expected the employee to work the extra hours.

D. Everyone is eligible for overtime pay.

E. Most workers paid on an hourly basis are exempt and therefore not subject to the laws governing overtime pay.

38. Which of the following is of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)?

A. The overtime rate under the FLSA is two and a half times the employee’s hourly rate.

B. It requires federal contractors to pay less than the prevailing wage rate.

C. It permits a subminimum training wage equal to 95% of the minimum wage.

D. Nonexempt employees are covered by FLSA and include most hourly workers.

E. Under the FLSA, executive, professional, and administrative employees are considered nonexempt employees.

39. Under the FLSA, exempt status of an employee depends on his/her:

A. job responsibilities and salary.

B. organizational commitment.

C. job title.

D. work experience.

E. job qualifications.

40. _____ means that the employee is paid a given amount regardless of the number of hours worked or quality of the work.

A. Pay level

B. Nonexemption

C. Pay policy line

D. Piecework rate

E. Salary basis

41. According to the FLSA, which of the following is most likely a nonexempt employee?

A. CEO

B. Senior administrative employee

C. Hourly-paid employee

D. Executive employee

E. Director

42. Under the FLSA, which of the following statements is of child labor?

A. Children aged 18 and 19 may not be employed in hazardous occupations defined by the Department of Labor.

B. Children aged 14 and 15 may not be employed in any work associated with interstate commerce.

C. The FLSA’s restrictions on the use of child labor apply to children younger than 18.

D. Children aged 18 and 19 may work only outside school hours, in jobs defined as nonhazardous, and for limited time periods.

E. All the states have laws requiring working papers or work permits for minors.

43. Which of the following is according to the Walsh-Healy Public Contracts Act of 1936?

A. Under the Walsh-Healy Public Contracts Act, children aged 18 and 19 may not be employed in hazardous occupations defined by the Department of Labor.

B. Federal contractors must pay their employees at rates at least equal to the prevailing wages in the area.

C. The overtime rate applies to the hours worked beyond 45 in one week.

D. Employers must pay a training wage to workers under the age of 15 for a period of up to 60 days.

E. Organizations can defend themselves against claims of discrimination by showing that they pay the going market rate.

44. Under the Davis-Bacon Act of 1931 and the Walsh-Healy Public Contracts Act of 1936, federal contractors must pay their employees at rates at least equal to the prevailing wages in the area. The calculation of prevailing rates must be based on _____ percent of the local labor force.

A. 2

B. 5

C. 10

D. 20

E. 30

45. The Davis-Bacon Act of 1931:

A. permits a lower “training wage,” which employers may pay to workers under the age of 20 for a period of up to 90 days.

B. requires that employers pay higher wages for overtime, defined as hours worked beyond 40 hours per week.

C. requires general contractors performing services on prime contracts in excess of $2,500 to pay service employees in various classes no less than the wage rates found prevailing in the locality.

D. covers all government contractors receiving $10,000 or more in federal funds.

E. covers construction contractors that receive more than $2,000 in federal money.

46. The Walsh-Healy Public Contracts Act of 1936:

A. permits a lower “training wage,” which employers may pay to workers under the age of 20 for a period of up to 90 days.

B. requires that employers pay higher wages for overtime, defined as hours worked beyond 40 hours per week.

C. covers construction contractors that receive more than $2,000 in federal money.

D. requires general contractors performing services on prime contracts in excess of $2,500 to pay service employees in various classes no less than the wage rates found prevailing in the locality.

E. covers all government contractors receiving $10,000 or more in federal funds.

47. Decisions about how to respond to the economic forces of product markets and labor markets limit an organization’s choices about:

A. pay rates.

B. pay structure.

C. pay differentials.

D. pay grades.

E. pay ranges.

48. Which of the following is of competition in product-markets?

A. The cost of labor does not affect the product market as it is an insignificant part of an organization’s costs.

B. Product-market considerations are of particular concern to a company when its customers place greater importance on product rather than price.

C. Organizations in a product market are competing to serve the same customers.

D. Product markets place a lower limit on the pay an organization will offer its employees.

E. Organizations must increase the cost of labor every quarter.

49. Organizations under pressure to cut labor costs may respond by:

A. retaining staff levels.

B. hiking pay levels to prevent employee turnover.

C. postponing hiring decisions.

D. requiring employees to bear less of the cost of benefits such as insurance premiums.

E. increasing staff levels.

50. Which of the following is of labor markets?

A. Organizations compete to sell labor in the labor market.

B. Competition for labor establishes the minimum an organization must pay to hire an employee for a particular job.

C. Changes in the CPI do not affect the labor market.

D. Cost-of-living considerations have little impact on labor-market rates.

E. An organization’s competitors in labor markets typically include only companies with different products.

51. The federal government tracks trends in the nation’s cost of living with a measure known as the:

A. Consumer Price Index.

B. Living-Wage Index.

C. Gross National Product Index.

D. Exchange Rate Index.

E. Employment Cost Index.

52. Following and studying changes in the _____ can help employers prepare for changes in the demands of the labor market.

A. Living-Wage Index

B. Consumer Price Index

C. Gross National Product

D. Exchange Rate Index

E. interest rate

53. Which of the following is about the Consumer Price Index (CPI)?

A. It helps product markets place an upper limit on the pay an organization will offer.

B. Following and studying changes in the CPI helps employers prepare for changes in the demands of the labor market.

C. It helps organizations lure top-quality employees.

D. The CPI helps control labor market’s demand for pay increases.

E. It helps organizations to compete with companies in other industries that hire similar employees.

54. The size of the range of pay levels based on labor and product markets depends on:

A. the minimum and maximum wages fixed by the government.

B. the pay of federal contractors.

C. an organization’s competitive environment.

D. the quality of employees.

E. an organization’s global reputation.

55. Economic theory holds that the most profitable pay level, all things being equal, would be:

A. below the market rate.

B. at the market rate.

C. above the market rate.

D. anywhere within (slightly above or slightly below) the market-rate range.

E. the pay level that is lower than that of the lowest paying organization.

56. A company that views employees as resources is most likely to pay the employees _____.

A. at market rates

B. below the market rates

C. above the market rates

D. only minimum wages

E. overtime rates only if they meet certain targets

57. Pay policies are one of the most important human resource tools for:

A. reducing competition in the product market.

B. automating routine activities.

C. persuading customers that high quality is worth a premium price.

D. making decisions about product pricing.

E. encouraging desired employee behaviors.

58. The procedure in which an organization compares its own practices against those of successful competitors is known as:

A. redlining.

B. poaching.

C. benchmarking.

D. profiling.

E. delayering.

59. The National Compensation Survey is an ongoing activity of the:

A. Bureau of Labor Statistics.

B. Society for Human Resource Management.

C. American Management Association.

D. AFL-CIO.

E. Bureau of Economic Analysis.

60. According to _____, people measure outcomes such as pay in terms of their inputs.

A. the pay policy line

B. equity theory

C. retributive justice theory

D. progressive justice theory

E. economic theory

61. What is the advantage of two-tier wage systems?

A. They help in moving jobs out of the country.

B. They help in closing down jobs without any legal hassles.

C. They cut labor costs without cutting employees’ existing salaries.

D. They provide more pay to new employees.

E. They provide better standards of benchmarking.

62. Research on the effects of two-tier wage plans found that:

A. lower-paid employees were less satisfied on average than higher-paid employees.

B. lower-paid employees were more satisfied on average than higher-paid employees since they made comparisons with lower-paying alternatives for themselves.

C. lower-paid employees expected to be promoted into the second tier in a short time span.

D. equity theory did not come into play for either group and neither group experienced more or less job satisfaction than the other.

E. both existing employees and new employees have a similar pay rate.

63. _____ play the most significant role in communication because they interact with their employees each day.

A. CEOs

B. Directors

C. Subordinates

D. HR professionals

E. Managers

64. _____ is an administrative procedure for measuring the relative worth of an organization’s jobs.

A. Job analysis

B. Job determination

C. Job evaluation

D. Job identification

E. Job description

65. Which of the following is of compensable factors?

A. They are generally statistically derived.

B. They are the characteristics of jobs that a firm values and chooses to pay for.

C. They refer to the factors that are important for setting the two-tier wage system.

D. They describe all aspects of the jobs being evaluated.

E. They are used to ensure equity among employees.

66. An example of a typical compensable factor is:

A. social status.

B. education.

C. longevity.

D. gender.

E. religion.

67. _____ provide the basis for decisions about relative internal worth.

A. Benchmarks

B. Pay structures

C. Job evaluations

D. Pay rates

E. Two-tier wage systems

68. Which of the following is of key jobs?

A. The organization usually has no survey data for key jobs.

B. These are jobs that have highly unstable content.

C. These are jobs that are unique among organizations and are rare to obtain.

D. Organizations make the process of creating a pay structure more impractical by defining key jobs.

E. A job with a higher evaluation score than a particular key job would receive higher pay than that key job.

69. A rate of pay for each unit produced is known as:

A. yearly pay.

B. salary.

C. hourly wage.

D. piecework rate.

E. monthly pay.

70. A graphed line showing the mathematical relationship between job evaluation points and pay rate is termed as a(n):

A. job evaluation line.

B. pay policy line.

C. equity line.

D. aggregate income line.

E. comprehensive appraisal line.

71. A pay policy line:

A. shows the mathematical relationship between the minimum pay and the maximum pay in an organization.

B. can be generated using a statistical procedure called regression analysis.

C. requires market-pay-rate data on all jobs in the organization.

D. can be used to estimate the minimum pay level for a given job evaluation.

E. reflects the pay structure in the market, which always matches rates in the organization.

72. A drawback of pay rates is that they:

A. increase the administrative burden of managing the compensation system.

B. result in decreased promotional opportunities for employees.

C. result in some jobs being underpaid and others being overpaid.

D. increase the costs of surveying the market.

E. grouping jobs will result in rates of pay for individual jobs that precisely match the levels specified by the market.

73. _____ are sets of jobs having similar worth or content, grouped together to establish rates of pay.

A. Pay scales

B. Pay ranges

C. Pay differentials

D. Pay levels

E. Pay grades

74. _____ is a set of possible pay rates defined by a minimum, maximum, and midpoint of pay for employees holding a particular job.

A. Pay grade

B. Pay range

C. Pay differential

D. Compa-ratio

E. Compensation differential

75. Pay ranges are most common for _____.

A. white-collar jobs

B. piece-rate jobs

C. jobs that are covered by union contracts

D. automotive workers

E. construction workers

76. Which of the following is of pay ranges?

A. Pay ranges are most common for blue-collar jobs and those covered by union contracts.

B. Pay ranges are often widest for employees who are at lower levels in terms of their job evaluation points.

C. Pay ranges generally are designed so that they do not overlap.

D. The market rate or the pay policy line generally serves as the midpoint of a range for the job.

E. The less overlap, the more flexibility in transferring employees among jobs.

77. Overlapping _____ give the organization more flexibility in transferring employees among jobs, because transfers need not always involve a change in pay.

A. pay rates

B. pay ranges

C. pay policies

D. pay differentials

E. pay ranks

78. Assuming an organization wants to motivate employees through promotions, and assuming enough opportunities for promotions are available, the organization would want to:

A. increase the overlap from one level to the next.

B. reduce its compa-ratio to less than 1.

C. implement a broad-band pay structure.

D. limit the overlap from one pay range to the next.

E. use a fixed interval promotion policy.

79. A _____ is an adjustment to a pay rate to reflect differences in working conditions or labor markets.

A. bonus

B. pay differential

C. green-circle rate

D. rank-and-file adjustment

E. red-circle rate

80. Which of the following is about job-based pay structures?

A. The ambiguous definition of a job’s responsibilities can contribute to an attitude that some activities “are not in my job description,” at the expense of inflexibility.

B. Their focus on higher pay for higher status can work in favor of efforts of empowerment.

C. They usually reward desired behaviors, particularly in a rapidly changing environment.

D. Organizations may avoid change because it requires repeating the time-consuming process of creating job descriptions and related paperwork.

E. They always encourage innovation and customer service.

81. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a pay structure that rewards employees for winning promotions?

A. It does not focus on setting pay for groups of jobs.

B. It does not make adjustments to a pay rate to reflect differences in labor markets.

C. It discourages employees from gaining valuable experience through lateral career moves.

D. It rewards employees for acquiring skills but does not provide a way to ensure that employees can use their new skills.

E. It does not provide a precise definition of a job’s responsibilities.

82. Which of the following is a characteristic of delayering?

A. It increases an organizations’ flexibility.

B. It increases the opportunities for promoting employees.

C. It sets pay according to the employees’ level of knowledge.

D. It encourages a climate of learning.

E. It helps employees use their knowledge and ideas more productively.

83. Reducing the number of levels in an organization’s job structure is known as:

A. outsourcing.

B. delayering.

C. rightsizing.

D. benchmarking.

E. whistle-blowing.

84. By combining more assignments into a single layer, organizations give managers more flexibility in making assignments and awarding pay increases which results in:

A. outsourcing.

B. broad bands.

C. rightsizing.

D. benchmarks.

E. downsizing.

85. Which of the following is a disadvantage of broad bands?

A. They reduce managers’ flexibility in making assignments.

B. They always result in pay decreases.

C. They reduce the number of levels in the organization’s job structure.

D. They reduce the opportunities for promoting employees.

E. They discourage employees from gaining valuable experience through lateral career moves.

86. Which of the following is a disadvantage of skill-based pay systems?

A. Lesser paperwork

B. Reduced employee empowerment

C. No guarantee that employees can use their new skills

D. Reduced opportunities for promoting employees

E. Discouraged job enrichment

87. Which of the following is about skill-based pay?

A. It provides a way to ensure that employees can use their new skills.

B. Gathering market data about skill-based pay is easy.

C. It ensures that the employer pays the employee for learning skills that benefit the employer.

D. Skill-based pay does not necessarily provide an alternative to the bureaucracy and paperwork of traditional pay structures.

E. Skill-based pay does not require records related to skills, training, and knowledge acquired.

88. The compa-ratio:

A. measures the degree to which actual pay is consistent with the pay policy.

B. is defined as average pay for the grade divided by the minimum pay for the grade.

C. can range from 0 to 100 percent.

D. uses data from market-pay surveys.

E. measures the degree to which new skills learnt are consistent with the increases in pay.

89. Assuming that the pay structure is well planned to support the organization’s goals, the compa-ratios should be close to:

A. 0.5.

B. 1.5.

C. 2.

D. 1.

E. 0.

90. The _____ requires employers to make jobs available to their workers when they return after fulfilling military duties for up to five years.

A. USERRA

B. FLSA

C. EEOA

D. NLRB

E. FMLA

91. Define job structure, pay level, and pay structure.

92. Discuss the three major provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA).

93. What is benchmarking?

94. How do employees judge the fairness of a pay structure?

95. Define hourly wage, piecework rate, and salary.

96. What is a pay policy line? What is its relevance?

97. What are the limitations of using a job-based pay structure?

98. What is skill-based pay? What are its advantages and disadvantages?

99. How do organizations compare actual pay to pay structure?

100. How does equity theory justify the high pay of CEOs?

12
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Incentive pay is influential because the amount paid is linked to certain predefined behaviors or outcomes.

2. Merit pay incentive system is usually used to attract employees who are more team-oriented.

3. Piecework rates are most suited for routine, standardized jobs with output that is easy to measure.

4. Standard hour plans are quality-oriented incentives for professional employees.

5. Merit increase grids display an organization’s policies for linking the size and frequency of pay increases to an individual’s performance rating and position within the pay range.

6. From employers’ perspective, an advantage of merit pay is that it is cheap.

7. Like merit pay, performance bonuses for individual performance are rolled into an employee’s base pay.

8. Retention bonuses are one-time incentives paid to top managers, engineers, top-performing salespeople, and information technology specialists in exchange for remaining with the company.

9. Gainsharing addresses the challenge of identifying appropriate performance measures for complex jobs.

10. Successful gainsharing plans include employee stock ownership plans.

11. Group bonuses typically reward the performance of all employees in an organization.

12. Generally, team awards do not use cost savings as a performance measure.

13. Linking incentives to the organization’s profits or stock price exposes employees to a high degree of risk.

14. Profit sharing costs more when the organization experiences financial difficulties.

15. Under profit sharing, payments are a percentage of the organization’s profits and become part of the employees’ base salary.

16. In stock ownership plans, employees may not see a strong link between their actions and the company’s stock price.

17. Employee stock ownership plan is an arrangement in which the organization distributes shares of stock to all its employees by placing it in a trust.

18. Employees should exercise the stock options even if the stock price has decreased.

19. Stock options are best suited to motivate day-to-day effort or to attract and retain top individual performers.

20. A balanced scorecard is a combination of performance measures directed toward the company’s long- and short-term goals.

21. ESOP does not give employees the right to participate in votes by shareholders even if the stock is registered on a national exchange.

22. The balanced scorecard helps employees understand the organization’s goals and how they can contribute to these goals.

23. An organization should always communicate with employees when changing an incentive plan.

24. The balanced-scorecard approach is not particularly useful in designing executive pay.

25. Incentive pay for executives lays the groundwork for significant ethical issues.

26. Pay specifically designed to energize, direct, or control employees’ behavior is known as:

A. monthly salary.

B. wage.

C. incentive pay.

D. annual salary.

E. fixed pay.

27. An effective incentive pay plan should:

A. have performance measures based on employees’ requirements.

B. not be provided as a direct percentage of employees’ performance.

C. encourage group performance and dispirit individual achievements.

D. be the same for all types of employees in the organization.

E. have performance measures linked to the organization’s goals.

28. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using incentive plans?

A. The goals of an incentive plan may interfere with other management goals.

B. The goals of incentive plans cannot be linked to particular outcomes or behaviors.

C. Incentive plans cannot be used to promote group and organizational performance.

D. Incentive plans cause dissatisfaction among the non-performing employees in the organization.

E. Incentive plans are not very effective for jobs other than sales and service.

29. When designing incentives, managers should make sure that:

A. all the employees are paid equal amounts.

B. even the lowest performing employees get some rewards.

C. employees focus only completing the task quickly.

D. employees think that the pay plan is fair.

E. they focus on hiring employees for whom earning money is the only reason to do a good job.

30. Which of the following types of incentive pay plans are used to reward individual performance?

A. Gainsharing

B. Merit pay

C. Scanlon plan

D. Profit sharing

E. Stock ownership

31. A company provides wages to its employees based on the amount workers produce. The more employees produce, the more they earn. This type of plan is called:

A. piecework rate plan.

B. merit pay plan.

C. Scanlon plan.

D. profit sharing plan.

E. standard hour plan.

32. A piecework rate plan is best suited for:

A. HR professionals.

B. executives.

C. production workers.

D. managers.

E. knowledge workers.

33. As an incentive to work efficiently, some organizations pay production workers a ____, a wage based on the amount they produce.

A. merit pay

B. commission

C. standard hour pay

D. piecework rate

E. special bonus

34. An employee who produces 10 components in an hour earns $9 ($.90 X 10) per hour, while an employee who produces 15 components earns $13.50 ($.90 x 15). This is an example of a:

A. commission plan.

B. differential piece rate plan.

C. direct commission plan.

D. profit sharing plan.

E. straight piecework plan.

35. _____ refers to an incentive pay in which the wage paid is higher when a greater amount is produced.

A. Profit sharing

B. Differential piece rate

C. Gain sharing

D. Scanlon pay

E. Merit pay

36. Which of the following is true about a piece rate plan?

A. It can be used for all types of jobs and in all types of industries.

B. It is best suited for complex jobs and tasks.

C. It can be used to encourage team work and collaboration.

D. It has a direct link between the work and how much the employee earns.

E. It encourages peers to perform as well as the co-workers and reduce conflicts.

37. Differential piece rates system refers to:

A. an incentive pay plan in which the employer pays the rate per piece based on the difference in performance of employees.

B. a wage system designed for salespeople who earn a differential pay for every piece sold.

C. an incentive pay in which the piece rate is higher when a greater amount is produced.

D. a system of linking pay increases to ratings on performance appraisals.

E. an incentive pay plan where every employee is paid different wages based on the skills they possess.

38. Piecework rate plans are most suited for _____.

A. innovative tasks

B. non-standard jobs

C. managerial jobs

D. jobs with difficult-to-measure output

E. routine, standardized jobs

39. Standard hour plans are likely to succeed if:

A. most or all of a salesperson’s compensation is in the form of commissions.

B. employers keep labor costs to a minimum.

C. the pay increase is linked to ratings on performance appraisals.

D. employees want the extra money more than they want to work at a pace that feels comfortable.

E. the organization values employee satisfaction and motivation more than profits.

40. Martin owns and manages a small auto-parts shop. He determines the time required to complete each task in his shop. When an employee completes the repair in less time, he/she receives an amount of pay equal to the rate determined by Martin for . Martin is using a:

A. standard hour plan.

B. differential piecework plan.

C. merit pay plan.

D. straight piecework plan.

E. Scanlon plan.

41. Which of the following is true about standard hour plans?

A. They always encourage employees to focus on customer service.

B. They succeed only for employees who are not motivated by money.

C. They encourage employees to focus mainly on quality.

D. In terms of their pros and cons, they are very different from piecework plans.

E. They encourage employees to work as fast as they can.

42. An incentive system in which an organization links pay increases to ratings on performance appraisals is referred to as:

A. commission.

B. a Scanlon plan.

C. merit pay.

D. gain sharing.

E. profit sharing.

43. In merit pay programs, an individual’s compa-ratio represents his/her:

A. pay relative to performance of other workers in the industry.

B. pay relative to average pay.

C. comparable worth versus others.

D. ratio of pay to benefits.

E. the average worth of the skills possessed by the individual.

44. The decisions about merit pay are based on two factors: the individual’s performance rating and the individual’s:

A. compa-ratio.

B. seniority.

C. pay grade.

D. longevity.

E. emotional quotient.

45. What is the function of a merit increase grid?

A. To make the merit increases consistent

B. To further increase the pay for those whose pay is relatively higher for their job

C. To increase the employees’ compa-ratio

D. To stabilize economic conditions

E. To increase incentives on an year-by-year basis

46. In order to control compensation costs, administrators of merit pay programs must closely monitor the compa-ratio and the:

A. number of pay grades in the pay structure.

B. an individual’s performance ratings.

C. number of new hires in the company.

D. company’s stock price in the financial year.

E. average pay of the area where the organization is functioning.

47. An advantage of merit pay is that:

A. it makes the reward more valuable by relating it to economic conditions.

B. it promotes group performance instead of promoting individual behavior.

C. it provides merit increases to employees only on the basis of performance.

D. it would never become costly for the employers.

E. it results in a bigger short-term reward for the best performers.

48. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a merit pay system?

A. It does not relate the rewards to economic conditions.

B. It cannot be used effectively in performance appraisals.

C. Comparative pay is not considered in its evaluation.

D. It is not consistent with performance management’s dimensions.

E. It can quickly become expensive for the company.

49. _____ provides a method for rewarding performance in all of the dimensions measured in the organization’s performance management system.

A. Differential piece rate

B. Standard hour plan

C. Merit pay

D. Piece rate

E. Commission

50. Which of the following is true of a performance bonus?

A. It is designed to reward group performance.

B. It should be re-earned by employees during each performance period.

C. It is rolled into base pay and provided yearly or monthly.

D. It lacks flexibility and hence it is less popular.

E. It is not a one time reward in most of the cases.

51. Retention bonuses refer to:

A. the special reward programs used to satisfy the lower and middle level managers.

B. the bonuses provided to union members to withhold a strike decision.

C. the bonuses provided to employees who take long leaves without pay.

D. annual incentives paid to daily wage workers to remain in the organization.

E. one-time incentives paid in exchange for remaining with the company.

52. When an employee’s pay is calculated as a percentage of sales, it is referred to as:

A. commission.

B. gain sharing.

C. merit plan.

D. variable wage plan.

E. profit sharing.

53. Paying most or all of a salesperson’s compensation in the form of commissions encourages the salesperson to focus on:

A. closing the sale.

B. developing customer goodwill.

C. working as a team member.

D. building a relationship with the customer.

E. improving the quality of customer experience.

54. Straight commission plans:

A. imply that the employees receive a straight salary.

B. are useful when the organization wants salespeople to concentrate on listening to customers.

C. help to attract employees risk-averse employees.

D. are common among insurance and real estate agents.

E. are not common among car salespeople.

55. Which of the following types of incentive plans are specifically designed to promote group performance?

A. Performance bonuses

B. Gainsharing

C. Standard hour plans

D. Merit pay

E. Commissions

56. Which of the following incentive programs measures improvements in productivity and effectiveness and distributes a portion of each profit to employees?

A. Merit pay

B. Team award

C. Commission

D. Profit sharing

E. Gainsharing

57. Organizations that want employees to focus on efficiency and on group incentives are most likely to implement a _____ program.

A. gainsharing

B. standard hour

C. bonus

D. commission

E. piece rate pay

58. An organization uses a gainsharing program in which employees receive a bonus if the ratio of labor costs to the sales value of production is below a set standard. This incentive plan is referred to as:

A. group bonus.

B. merit pay plan.

C. Scanlon plan.

D. piecework rate.

E. team award.

59. The Scanlon plan is a variation of:

A. profit sharing plans.

B. gainsharing plans.

C. merit pay plans.

D. individual bonus plans.

E. commission plans.

60. What should employees do to earn bonuses under the Scanlon plan?

A. They should produce products at a rate which is much higher than the standard production time.

B. They should create goodwill with customers and close as many sales as possible.

C. They should follow a defined set of quality standard to produce the desired outcome.

D. They should keep labor costs to a minimum and produce as much as possible with that amount of labor.

E. They should improve their performance year after year so that they re-earn the bonus during each performance period.

61. An organization uses Scanlon plan to provide incentives to employees. The workers produce parts worth $5 million. The target ratio set by the organization is 30%. The employees will be given a bonus if the actual labor costs are less than:

A. $0.5 million.

B. $1 million.

C. $1.5 million.

D. $2 million.

E. $2.5 million.

62. What is the difference between bonuses and team awards?

A. Bonuses are for bigger work groups whereas team awards are for small teams.

B. Bonuses reward individual performance whereas team awards encourage cooperation.

C. Bonuses are usually given to employees who meet deadlines whereas team awards are given only when the team as a whole meets the targets.

D. Bonuses encourages competition among individuals whereas team awards only foster cooperation.

E. Bonuses reward attainment of goals measured in terms of physical output whereas team awards reward performance in terms of cost savings.

63. Team awards differ from group bonuses in that they:

A. are typically plant-wide group incentive programs.

B. make payments in company stock rather than in cash.

C. are more likely to use a broad range of performance measures.

D. encourage competition among individual employees to achieve higher bonus.

E. give more importance to organizational performance than small groups’ performance.

64. Which of the following is an advantage of group incentives?

A. Group incentives always use a broad range of performance measures.

B. Groups try to outdo one another in satisfying customers and therefore create healthy competition.

C. They encourage employees to achieve their goals irrespective of the cooperation of team members.

D. They reward the performance of all the employees at a facility.

E. They always result in cooperation among team members without any competition.

65. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using group bonuses?

A. Physical outputs are not rewarded.

B. It reduces the level of cooperation between the members of the group.

C. The performance measures used are narrow.

D. It could result in competition among groups.

E. It cannot be used to promote specific goals.

66. Which of the following is an incentive plan that is intended to improve the overall performance of an organization?

A. Profit sharing

B. Gainsharing

C. Merit pay

D. Group bonus

E. Scanlon plan

67. What is profit sharing?

A. A gainsharing program in which employees receive a bonus if the ratio of labor costs to the sales value of production is below a set standard.

B. An incentive pay in which payments are a percentage of the organization’s profits and do not become part of the employees’ base salary.

C. A group incentive program that measures improvements in productivity and effectiveness and distributes a portion of profit to employees.

D. A combination of performance measures directed toward the company’s profit and used as the basis for awarding incentive pay.

E. An incentive plan where a percentage of the previous year’s profits is provided to employees as a part of salary.

68. Why do organizations use profit sharing?

A. It has been established that profit sharing helps organizations perform better.

B. It makes employees feel that they have control over the company’s profits.

C. It costs less when the organization is experiencing financial difficulties.

D. It helps employees find a direct relation between their performance and gain.

E. It motivates employees more than individual incentives.

69. Which of the following incentive plans would enable its employees to think like owners, taking a broad view of what they need to do in order to make the organization more effective?

A. Merit pay

B. Gain sharing

C. Scanlon plan

D. Performance bonuses

E. Profit sharing

70. Identify the disadvantage of using profit sharing plans.

A. They cannot be used to improve the organization’s performance as a whole.

B. The employees may develop a narrow view of their roles in the organization.

C. They cost more when the organization experiences financial difficulties.

D. Sharing profit with the employees ultimately reduces the organization’s profitability.

E. Profit sharing is not directly linked to individual behavior.

71. What is the drawback of stock ownership as a form of incentive pay?

A. Financial benefits mostly come when the employee leaves the organization.

B. Employees have the right to participate in votes by shareholders, hence reducing the negotiating power of the employer.

C. It causes the employers to lose control over their employees.

D. The employees will not benefit even if the organization is performing well.

E. Stock options do not provide any ownership to employees, instead it offers an equivalent sum.

72. The link between employees’ performance and pay is harder to establish in:

A. piece rate plans.

B. merit pay plans.

C. standard hour plans.

D. stock ownership plans.

E. Scanlon plans.

73. Stock options have their greatest motivational potential during periods of:

A. high unemployment.

B. downturns in the economy.

C. high economic growth.

D. low inflation.

E. slowdown in the company’s growth.

74. In 2003, a company employee received an option to purchase the company’s stock at $45 per share. If the stock is trading at $40 a share in 2005, the employee will most likely:

A. exercise the option, receiving a gain of $5.

B. exercise the option, receiving a gain of $40.

C. would not bother to exercise the options.

D. be eligible to obtain a price $45 per share.

E. sell the shares to a third party slightly above the market price.

75. Which of the following is an arrangement in which the organization distributes shares of stock to all its employees by placing it in a trust?

A. Stock options

B. Employee stock ownership plan

C. Scanlon plan

D. Collective stock options

E. Profit sharing plan

76. What is meant by backdating a stock option?

A. Reaping windfall in the stock market by selling stock based on company’s nonpublic information

B. Falsifying numbers in the company’s annual report to hide losses and inflate the stock prices

C. Buying company’s stock just before the date of key product launch

D. Changing the price in the original option agreement so that the option holder can buy stock at a bargain price

E. Re-evaluating a company’s stocks to adjust it to a previous date so that the shareholders and employees minimize the losses

77. What is the difference between stock options and employee stock ownership plan (ESOP)?

A. Stock options carry significant risk whereas ESOPs are risk-free.

B. Stock options are usually used with top management whereas ESOPs are provided to all employees.

C. In stock options, stocks are placed into a trust whereas ESOPs give employees the right to buy a certain number of shares of stock.

D. Under stock options, employees can sell their stocks whereas ESOPs do not allow employees to sell their stocks.

E. Earnings from stock options are exempt from income taxes whereas earnings from ESOPs are taxable.

78. Which of the following is a reason for ESOPs’ popularity?

A. Earnings of the trust holdings are exempt from income taxes.

B. ESOPs provide very high risk-free retirement income.

C. Employees can use ESOPs to buy their company during financial crises.

D. ESOPs require companies to invest 51 percent in the company’s own stocks.

E. The employees are provided with many more stocks than they actually own.

79. By law, what is the minimum percentage of assets that an ESOP must invest in its company’s stock?

A. 10

B. 26

C. 51

D. 60

E. 76

80. A major problem with ESOPs is that:

A. they carry a significant risk for employees.

B. employees are not allowed to participate in votes by shareholders.

C. the stocks within the trust are too widely diversified to earn high returns.

D. any earnings from the trust holdings are taxed at an extremely high rate.

E. they result in reduced profitability for the employees.

81. Which of the following is a method where a combination of performance measures directed toward the company’s long- and short-term goals are used as the basis for awarding incentive pay?

A. Merit pay

B. Profit sharing

C. Gainsharing

D. Balanced scorecard

E. Scanlon plan

82. What is a balanced scorecard?

A. A combination of performance measures directed toward the company’s long- and short-term goals and used as the basis for awarding incentive pay

B. A performance review process where the organization collects feedback from customers, managers, and subordinates, assigns ratings, and lists them on the company’s performance card

C. An arrangement in which the organization distributes shares of stock to all its employees by placing the stock into a trust

D. An incentive pay in which payments are a percentage of the organization’s profits and do not become part of the employees’ base salary

E. It is a system designed to measure the performance of HR personnel based on the quality of recruitment

83. Which of the following is an advantage of using balanced scorecard?

A. It eliminates the need to communicate the details of the plan to the employees.

B. It eliminates managerial effort when providing incentives to employees.

C. It provides more pay to all employees in the organization.

D. It reduces employee stress as it does not focus on financial targets.

E. It helps employees understand the organization’s goals.

84. Which of the following is true of a balanced scorecard?

A. It encourages employees to compete at the expense of cooperating to achieve organizational goals.

B. It allows employees to buy their company when it is experiencing financial problems.

C. It combines the advantages of different incentive pay plans and helps employees understand the organization’s goals.

D. It increases cooperation but does little to motivate day-to-day effort or to attract and retain top individual performers.

E. It is the only measure used by top management to measure the performance of HR professionals and managers.

85. An organization wants to provide its employees information about what its goals are and what it expects employees to accomplish. It is planning to implement an incentive plan that helps employees understand the organization’s goals. Which of the following should be used by this organization?

A. Profit sharing plan

B. Piecework rates

C. Merit pay system

D. Scanlon plan

E. Balanced scorecard

86. Employee participation in pay-related decisions can be part of a general move toward:

A. employee empowerment.

B. centralized decision making.

C. self ownership.

D. power system approach.

E. federalism.

87. If employee participation in making pay-related decisions is encouraged in an organization, then:

A. administering the plans become simple.

B. the organization’s interests can be best protected.

C. the cost borne by the organization decreases.

D. monitoring performance becomes difficult.

E. the incentive plan has more chances of being successful.

88. Which of the following is a short-term incentive?

A. Return on investment

B. Base salary

C. Stock options

D. Stock purchase plans

E. Company shares

89. Which of the following is a long-term incentive?

A. Commission

B. Group bonus

C. Merit pay

D. Stock option

E. Piece rate

90. How does the balanced scorecard help organizations deal with unethical behaviors of executives?

A. It allows companies to deduct executive pay that exceeds $1 million.

B. Rewarding the achievement of a variety of goals reduces temptation on the executive’s part to gain bonuses by manipulating data.

C. It encourages executives to hold on to their stock options when the company is undergoing financial problems.

D. It forces executives to focus on company’s long-term success because funds in ESOP are guaranteed by the Pension Benefit Guarantee Corporation.

E. In a balance scorecard, maximum points are given to ethical behavior.

91. The _____ has required companies to more clearly report executive compensation levels and the company’s performance relative to that of competitors.

A. National Credit Union Administration

B. Financial Industry Regulatory Authority

C. Commodity Futures Trading Commission

D. The Securities and Exchange Commission

E. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act

92. How does linking executive pay to stock performance lead to unethical behavior?

A. Executives can use the advantage of knowing the company’s inside information to buy or sell stock and create huge personal gains.

B. Executives can roll in the stock price into their base pay to avoid paying a huge tax.

C. Executives do not inflate the stock price in order to enjoy bonuses.

D. Executives can use the employee stock ownership plan to buy their company if it is experiencing financial problems.

E. The executives can obtain as many shares as they need at a price that is much lower than the market rate.

93. What are the different types of incentive pay? How should organizations choose the right type of incentive pay?

94. What are the different types of pay for rewarding individual performance?

95. What are the different types of piecework rates? Explain each of them.

96. What are the advantages and disadvantages of a merit pay system?

97. How can gainsharing be successful as a form of group incentive?

98. What are group bonuses and team awards? What are their advantages and disadvantages?

99. What are the implications of designing pay for organizational performance?

100. How do employee stock ownership plans differ from stock options?

101. What is balanced scorecard? What is its purpose? What are the advantages of using a balanced scorecard?

102. How does allowing employees to participate in pay-related decisions affect the incentive process?

13
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Since benefits packages are more complex than pay structures, they are harder for employees to understand and appreciate.

True False

2. Tax laws generally make benefits unfavorable to employees.

True False

3. The addition of creative benefits packages in the worker’s compensation portfolio provides employers a competitive edge in acquiring and retaining talented employees in their organization.

True False

4. All U.S. employees, including federal, state, and local government employees, are covered under the Old Age, Survivors, Disability, and Health Insurance program.

True False

5. Social Security benefits are free from federal income taxes and state taxes in all U.S. states.

True False

6. The funding for unemployment insurance comes from federal and state taxes on employees.

True False

7. Under the workers’ compensation laws, employees are eligible to receive compensation even if their injuries are self-inflicted.

True False

8. The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 requires organizations with 50 or more employees within a 75-mile radius to provide as much as 12 weeks of unpaid leave to qualifying employees.

True False

9. Benefits provided to domestic partners of employees have the same tax advantages as benefits provided to their spouses.

True False

10. Employers in the U.S. are legally required to provide 30 days of paid vacation to both new and existing employees every year.

True False

11. As an employee benefit, personal days are scheduled so that they extend a Tuesday or Thursday holiday into a long weekend.

True False

12. For the average employee, the most common type of insurance offered as benefits is the pension program.

True False

13. Health maintenance organizations charge patients half the fee for each visit and service.

True False

14. Employees are most likely to benefit from a flexible spending account if they have predictable health care expenses, such as insurance premiums.

True False

15. Disability insurance payments are usually less than 25 percent of the employee’s salary.

True False

16. A defined contribution plan guarantees a specified or fixed level of retirement income.

True False

17. According to ERISA, employees whose contributions are vested have met the requirements to receive a pension at retirement age.

True False

18. Tax-favored 529 savings plans allow employees to set aside a portion of their pretax earnings to purchase long-term care insurance.

True False

19. Tuition reimbursement programs offered by certain organizations cover the tuition and other education related expenses of their workers’ children.

True False

20. The use of wellness programs and consumer-directed health plans in an organization reflect its objective of controlling the cost of healthcare benefits.

True False

21. Cafeteria-style plans permit employees to choose the types and amounts of benefits they want for themselves from a given set of alternatives.

True False

22. According to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), employers are required to take care not to discriminate against workers over age 40 in providing pay or benefits.

True False

23. Under FASB standards, employers fund retirement benefits on a pay-as-you-go basis.

True False

24. Employees and job applicants often have a poor idea of what benefits they have and what the market value of their benefits is.

True False

25. Which of the following is true of benefits?

A. They allow employees to buy their own insurance.

B. They let employees to contribute to their own savings plans.

C. Employees do not pay income taxes on most benefits they receive.

D. They give employees greater control over what their compensation buys.

E. Laws usually do not require employers to provide benefits.

26. Which of the following benefits is required by law in the United States?

A. Sick leave

B. Personal leave

C. Medical care

D. Social Security

E. Paid leave

27. In general, Social Security provides support for _____.

A. laid-off workers

B. workers injured on the job

C. retired workers

D. self-injured workers

E. sick workers

28. Which of the following legally required employer-provided benefits help workers injured on the job?

A. Social Security

B. Unemployment insurance

C. Group insurance

D. Workers’ compensation

E. Family and medical leave

29. Which one of the following employer-provided benefits is required by law in the U.S.?

A. Floating holidays

B. Paid vacation leave

C. Unpaid family and medical leave

D. Long-term disability insurance

E. Long-term care insurance

30. Social Security is formally known as the _____.

A. paid leave program

B. New Deal program

C. Old Age, Survivors, Disability, and Health Insurance program

D. employee wellness program

E. noncontributory plan

31. Which one of the following is true of Social Security benefits?

A. Benefits are taxed as ordinary income at both the federal and state level.

B. Workers who meet requirements receive retirement benefits according to age and earnings history.

C. Workers are not required to meet any eligibility rules to receive benefits.

D. The cost of the program is borne entirely by the employees who pay a payroll tax.

E. The program covers railroad and federal, state, and local government employees.

32. Which legal benefit requires employers to pay payroll tax depending on state requirements?

A. Long-term disability insurance

B. Unemployment insurance

C. Workers’ compensation

D. Unpaid family medical leave

E. Health care benefits

33. Which one of the following is an objective of the unemployment insurance program?

A. To improve the productivity and skill set of workers

B. To protect the employer from lawsuits

C. To provide an incentive for employers to stabilize employment

D. To offset lost income during voluntary unemployment

E. To help workers with the expenses resulting from job-related accidents and illnesses

34. The unemployment insurance program is financed largely through federal and state taxes on:

A. both employees and employers.

B. employers only.

C. employees only.

D. retirees.

E. only high income group of citizens.

35. The employer’s _____ refers to the number of employees the company laid off in the past and the cost of providing them with unemployment benefits.

A. attrition

B. scalability

C. experience rating

D. Six Sigma score

E. wage drift

36. Workers are eligible for unemployment benefits if they:

A. voluntarily quit a job.

B. are out of work due to health reasons.

C. were discharged for cause.

D. are actively seeking work.

E. are out of work because of a labor dispute.

37. In which of the following areas are unemployment insurance benefits and workers’ compensation benefits similar?

A. Both these programs are funded by the federal taxes on employees.

B. Both these costs depend on the organization’s experience ratings.

C. The funding costs of both these programs are same across the states.

D. Both the programs replace the same percentage of an individual’s previous earnings.

E. The amount of compensation provided to the employees is fixed under both the programs.

38. Which one of the following is true of workers’ compensation?

A. Employees are covered under the “no-fault” provision even if the injury is self-inflicted.

B. Disability income is not covered under this benefit.

C. It provides payments to offset lost income during involuntary unemployment.

D. Funding for the program comes from the state taxes on employees.

E. The benefits provided to the workers are not taxable.

39. The cost of a worker’s compensation insurance depends on:

A. the profit earned by the organization during the concerned fiscal.

B. the number of years the concerned worker has been working in the organization.

C. the total strength of the organization’s workforce.

D. the number of years for which the organization has been in business.

E. the state where the company is located.

40. To take unpaid family leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act, employees must meet which of the following criteria?

A. Should be working for an employer with 50 or more employees within a 75-mile radius

B. Should have worked at least 15 hours per week

C. Should have worked for the employer for more than 5 years

D. Should belong to the top 10 percent of highest paid executives

E. Should be working for an employer with at least 100 employees

41. The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 requires employers to provide:

A. up to 8 weeks of unpaid leave after childbirth or adoption.

B. reinstatement to the same (or a comparable) job upon the employee’s return to work.

C. paid leave to any employee who has one or more years of full-time service.

D. up to 18 weeks of unpaid leave to care of a seriously ill parent, spouse, or child.

E. up to one month of paid leave to take care of a seriously ill spouse, child, or parent.

42. Which of the following benefits required by law provides coverage according to state requirements?

A. Paid leave

B. Medical care

C. Sick leave

D. Workers’ compensation insurance

E. Social Security

43. The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 requires employers:

A. to offer disability plans with pregnancy-related coverage.

B. offer disability plans to treat pregnancy as they would any other disability.

C. to provide up to six weeks of paid leave to either parent upon the birth of a child.

D. to provide up to six weeks of unpaid leave to either parent upon the birth of a child.

E. to offer disability leave up to one month to either parent before the birth of a child.

44. Which of the following is true of an employee’s domestic partner under the health insurance benefits?

A. They are not considered as dependents of the employee.

B. They are not covered under the employee’s health insurance benefits.

C. They get the same tax benefits as those received by spouses.

D. They receive benefits only if they work in the same firm as the employee.

E. They get benefits that are taxed as wages of the employee receiving the benefits.

45. While the number of mandatory days of paid vacation in Western Europe is about 30 days, the U.S. companies typically offer:

A. five paid holidays each year.

B. 10 paid holidays each year.

C. 20 paid holidays each year.

D. more than 40 paid holidays each year.

E. more than two weeks of paid holidays each year.

46. The purpose of floating holidays is to allow employees to:

A. extend a Tuesday or Thursday holiday into a long weekend.

B. decide which national holidays they wish to observe with pay.

C. take time off for personal reasons on any day of the week.

D. allow international employees to observe legal holidays within their country of assignment.

E. pool in the different types of leaves and enjoy long paid vacations.

47. The _____ is a federal law that requires employers to permit employees or their dependents to extend their health insurance coverage at group rates for up to 36 months following a qualifying event, such as a layoff, reduction in hours, or the employee’s death.

A. Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)

B. Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA)

C. Social Security Act

D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)

E. Sarbanes-Oxley Act

48. The Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act of 2008 exempts which of the following companies?

A. Companies with less than 50 employees

B. Companies with less than 100 but more than 50 employees

C. Companies with more than 50 employees

D. Companies with more than 100 employees

E. Companies with more than 1000 employees

49. Employers that offer medical insurance must meet the requirements of the _____.

A. Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974

B. Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993

C. Social Security Act of 1935

D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002

E. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985

50. Which one of the following is true of health maintenance organizations?

A. It’s costs tend to be more than the cost for traditional health insurance.

B. It’s services are provided on a postpaid basis.

C. It’s patients are allowed to select physicians of their choice.

D. It pays physicians on a flat salary basis.

E. It pays physicians a fee-per-service rather than a flat salary.

51. Which of the following is a difference between PPOs and HMOs?

A. PPOs provide benefits at a reduced fee rather than on a prepaid basis as in HMOs.

B. HMO employees are not required to use only preselected plan service providers, as in PPOs.

C. PPOs are less expensive plans than HMOs if the employee goes out of the PPO network.

D. HMOs have more in common with traditional fee-for-service plans than do PPOs.

E. Unlike HMOs, payments to PPO physicians are made on a flat salary basis.

52. Which of the following is true of flexible spending accounts?

A. They may be used to cover only employees’ and not dependents’ health-care expenses.

B. They do not permit pretax employee contributions.

C. Contributions to the accounts may exceed $5,000 per year but must be designated in advance.

D. Funds must be used by the plan’s year end or they revert to the employer.

E. The money in the flexible spending account is taxed and it reduces an employee’s take home pay.

53. Employers that offer medical insurance must meet the requirements of the _____.

A. Employee Retirement Income Security Act

B. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act

C. Glass-Steagall Act

D. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

E. Sarbanes–Oxley Act

54. Active employee wellness programs:

A. rely on employees to identify and obtain the services they need.

B. are health education programs that provide information and services, but no formal support or motivation to use the program

C. have not been successful in reducing risk factors associated with cardiovascular disease.

D. assume that behavior change requires not only awareness and opportunity, but support and reinforcement.

E. cost less than passive wellness programs.

55. Which of the following sources do most retirees (65 and older) receive most of their income?

A. Social Security

B. Private pensions

C. Earnings from personal assets

D. Disability insurance

E. Private investments

56. Which type of retirement plan guarantees a specified level of retirement income?

A. 401(k) plan

B. Profit sharing plan

C. Money purchase plan

D. Defined benefit plan

E. Employee stock ownership plan

57. Which of the following is a typical factor used to determine retirement benefit levels under a defined benefit retirement plan?

A. The state where the person was employed during the retirement year

B. Number of dependents

C. Age

D. Average earning during the last 20 years of employment

E. Number of unused leaves at the end of the retirement year

58. Which of the following federal laws increased the responsibility of pension plan trustees to protect retirees?

A. The COBRA

B. The ADEA

C. The ADA

D. The FLSA

E. The ERISA

59. Which of the following is true of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974?

A. The act established certain rights related to vesting.

B. The act required employers to offer supplemental retirement plans.

C. The act barred portability of retirement savings.

D. The act reduced the responsibility of pension plan trustees.

E. The act guaranteed retirees a pension equivalent to their last drawn salary.

60. Which of the following is true of the Pension Benefit Guarantee Corporation?

A. It was created by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) of 1974.

B. It provides a supplemental income if the employee is temporarily unemployed.

C. It provides employee protection for only defined-benefit pension plans.

D. It is funded by a payroll tax imposed on each plan participant.

E. It guarantees retirees a basic benefit only if the employer is in a sound financial position.

61. Which one of the following is an example of a defined-contribution pension plan?

A. Consumer-driven pension plan

B. Money purchase plan

C. Gainsharing plan

D. Flexible spending account plan

E. Unfunded PBGC plan

62. A popular defined-contribution plan whereby employees contribute pretax dollars which are then matched by the employer is known as:

A. money purchase plans.

B. Section 401(k) plans.

C. profit-sharing plans.

D. ERISA benefit plans.

E. employee stock ownership plans (ESOPs).

63. Within a 401(k) plan, who has the responsibility for investing?

A. The employee

B. The PGBC

C. The ERISA Fiduciary Advisor

D. The financial institution handling the account

E. The employer

64. Which one of the following is true of defined-contribution plans?

A. They shift the investment risk to the employer.

B. They present greater administrative challenges to employers.

C. They require annual premium payments to the PBGC.

D. They guarantee a basic benefit to the employee if the employer experiences financial difficulties.

E. They are easier to administer as compared to other plans.

65. Which of the following is true of defined-contribution plans?

A. Defined-contribution plans are required by ERISA.

B. Employers are free from the risk of poor performance of the plans.

C. The PGBC makes annual contribution of $33 per participant.

D. They guarantee a specified level of retirement income.

E. They guarantee higher returns to the employees compared to the defined benefit plans.

66. Which of the following is true of a cash balance plan?

A. All contributions to the plan come from the employee.

B. The money earns interest at a predetermined rate, such as the rate paid on U.S. Treasury bills.

C. Older employees with many years of service benefit to a greater degree than do younger workers just starting their careers.

D. It penalizes employees for changing jobs.

E. Employees cannot predict retirement benefits under cash balance plans.

67. For an organization with _____, switching from a defined-benefit plan can produce great savings in pension benefits.

A. many experienced employees

B. a few skilled employees

C. many young employees

D. many retired employees

E. highly skilled employees

68. Defined-benefit plans must meet the funding requirements of the _____.

A. Employee Retirement Income Security Act

B. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act

C. Social Security Act

D. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

E. Sarbanes-OxleyAct

69. The _____ is a report that describes a pension plan’s funding, eligibility requirements, risks, and other details.

A. mission statement

B. balanced scorecard

C. labor law posting

D. “top-heavy” plan

E. summary plan description

70. Which of the following is true of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) of 1974?

A. It was introduced as a bill by the Pension Benefit Guarantee Corporation.

B. It established vesting rights related to pensions.

C. It prohibits the movement of retirement savings when changing employers.

D. It makes it mandatory to operate a day-care center at or near the workplace.

E. It establishes the setting up flexible spending accounts for dependent care.

71. Which of the following is true of 529 savings plans?

A. They are mandated by the federal government.

B. They are designed to support the primary education expenses of workers’ children.

C. They provide education to employees’ children at a subsidized rate.

D. They provide information about the education standards in different colleges to employees to help them enroll their children in better institutions.

E. They allow parents and other family members to defer taxes on the earnings of their deposits.

72. Elder care benefits typically give emphasis to:

A. providing a direct financial assistance.

B. providing tax exemptions on medical bills of the dependent elders.

C. setting up an elderly care facility close to the work place.

D. providing information and support.

E. providing vouchers and discounts to help employees access the existing elderly care facilities.

73. To encourage learning and attract the kinds of employees who wish to develop their knowledge and skills, many organizations offer:

A. tuition reimbursement programs.

B. flexible schedules.

C. paid leaves for more than 2 weeks.

D. quarterly promotions.

E. college savings plans.

74. Which of the following was created by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) of 1974?

A. Employee Benefit Security Administration

B. Federal Trade Commission

C. Merit Systems Protection Board

D. Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board

E. Pension Benefit Guarantee Corporation

75. The guarantee that when employees become participants in a pension plan and work a specified number of years, they will receive a pension at retirement age, regardless of whether they remained with the employer is referred to as _____.

A. special drawing rights

B. quid pro quo

C. laissez-faire

D. benchmarking

E. vesting rights

76. Benefit plans that permit employees to choose the types and amounts of benefits they want from a set of alternatives are called:

A. preferred provider plans.

B. cafeteria-style plans.

C. pay-or-play plans.

D. flexible spending accounts.

E. cash balance plans.

77. A _____ pension plan allows pension benefits for key employees, such as highly paid managers, to exceed a government-specified share of total pension benefits.

A. top-heavy

B. multiemployer

C. special draw rights

D. deferred

E. defined-contribution

78. How do cafeteria-style plans increase costs for employers?

A. Employers pay much higher premium on HMO than a preferred health care plan.

B. Employers are required to pay higher insurance premium for laid-off workers.

C. Contribution to PGBC to fund the retirement plan increases under this plan.

D. Employees select the kind of benefits they expect to need the most.

E. The employers bear the cost of providing employees with benefits they do not value.

79. Which of the following is true of the cost of benefits?

A. Data about costs help employers to select the kinds of benefits to offer.

B. The lowest-cost items tend to offer the most room for savings.

C. Non-negotiable benefits tend to help the employer save more.

D. Cost control is easier when economic growth slows.

E. Concern over costs has prompted many employers to shift from PPOs to traditional health insurance.

80. Which of the following actions help organizations reduce the cost of health care benefits offered to employees?

A. By increasing the amount employers pay for deductibles and coinsurance

B. By selecting traditional health insurance over HMO and PPO as a preferred option

C. By expanding the coverage for different types of claims

D. By paying some or all of the difference in cost between an HMO or PPO plan

E. By shifting from traditional health insurance plans to PPOs and CDHPs

81. Which of the following options can be legally adopted by organizations looking to restructure the workforce to minimize the expense of benefits?

A. Use more independent contractors rather than hire additional employees.

B. Limit the coverage on life insurance, based upon the employee’s age.

C. Use more full-time rather than part-time employees.

D. Recruit new employees instead of demanding overtime from the existing employees.

E. Substitute HMO and PPO plans with traditional health insurance plans.

82. Which of the following organizations strictly limits the definition of “independent contractors,” so that employers cannot avoid legal obligations by classifying workers as self-employed when the organization receives the benefits of a permanent employee?

A. The Internal Revenue Service

B. The FBGC

C. The ERISA

D. Employee Benefit Research Institute

E. The Bureau of Labor Statistics

83. Which one of the following is an advantage of a qualified plan in retirement benefits?

A. An immediate tax deduction for the funds employees contribute to the plan

B. Taxable earnings on the money in the retirement fund

C. Tax-free withdrawals for highly compensated employees

D. Employees need not contribute to the fund

E. Allows an organization to set up a retirement plan that provides benefits exclusively to its owners and top managers

84. Which of the following criteria is an organization required to meet while offering early retirement incentives?

A. Set an age at which retirement benefits stop growing

B. Ask female employees to pay more to defined-benefit plans

C. Should not coerce employees to retire.

D. Ask employees to sign compulsory waiver under ADEA

E. Provide employees not more than 48 hours to make an early retirement decision

85. Under the Older Workers Benefit Protection Act of 1990, employers wishing to use early-retirement waivers must adhere to which of the following guidelines?

A. Inform employees that they may consult with a lawyer before signing

B. Allow employees not more than 48 hours before signing the retirement agreement

C. Make ADEA waivers compulsory

D. Provide lesser benefits than would otherwise be available upon retirement

E. Provide employees annual bonus and health insurance after the retirement

86. Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, which of the following employers is most likely to face legal challenges?

A. An employer who switches to a risk-based policy after hiring a disabled employee.

B. An employer who sets guidelines for using waivers

C. An employer who discriminates against workers over age 40 in providing pay or benefits.

D. An employer who has risk-based insurance and then hires an employee with a disability

E. An employer who does not have risk-based insurance

87. Which of the following is a requirement set for employers under the FASB standards?

A. Employers must fund benefits on a pay-as-you-go basis.

B. Benefits must not appear as future cost obligations.

C. Employers should encourage employees to participate in management functions.

D. Financial statements should be made in such a way that outsiders cannot understand them.

E. Employers must set aside the funds they expect to need for benefits to be paid after retirement.

88. The funds required by an organization to pay retirement benefits are reported as _____ in the financial statement.

A. current assets

B. current liabilities

C. accounts receivable

D. bad debt

E. future cost obligations

89. Which one of the following statements is true of employee benefits?

A. Employees generally have a thorough understanding of what benefits they have and what the market value of these benefits is.

B. Employees significantly underestimate the cost and value of their benefits.

C. Employers do an effective job of communicating the cost and value of benefits to their employees.

D. Employees, for the most part, are just not interested in their benefits.

E. Employers have very limited options for communicating information about benefits.

90. What is the importance of benefits as a part of employee compensation?

91. What are the objectives of the unemployment insurance program established by the Social Security Act of 1935. How is this program funded?

92. Discuss the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993, including its eligibility requirements, scope of coverage, and effectiveness.

93. What are sick leaves? What are the pros and cons of the accumulation of sick leaves year after year?

94. What are HMOs and PPOs? How do they differ from each other and from traditional health care providers?

95. How are cash balance plans different from defined-benefit and defined-contribution plans?

96. What are the different types of family-friendly benefits?

97. What are flexible benefit plans? What are their advantages and disadvantages?

98. Discuss the role of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) in employee benefits packages?

99. Why is it essential for organizations to communicate the nature and value of benefits to their employees?

14
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

Chapter 14

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. 1. Justice refers to the maintenance or administration of what is just, especially by the impartial adjustment of conflict in claims or the assignment of merited rewards or punishments.
True False

1. 2. Procedural justice includes all the practices that implement the philosophy and policy of an organization.
True False

1. 3. Procedurally fair treatment has been demonstrated to result in reduced stress and increased performance, job satisfaction, commitment to an organization, trust, and organizational citizenship behaviors.
True False

1. 4. Distributive justice in legal proceedings provides individuals with rights such as prior notice, prohibited conduct, timely procedures, etc.
True False

1. 5. Evidence indicates that layoff survivors who were provided explanations for the layoffs, or who received advance notice of them, had more positive reactions to layoffs and higher commitment to the organization.

True False

1. 6. For most organizations, the most important thing they can do to ensure procedural justice is to provide individuals and groups the capacity to receive punitive damages.
True False

1. 7. Correctness means the system used should provide the right answer to the problem by being unbiased and effective.
True False

1. 8. Individuals must be able to present problems, identify concerns, and challenge the organization in such a way that they are not punished for providing this input, even if the issues raised are sensitive and highly publicized.

True False

1. 9. An ombudsperson is a neutral facilitator between employees and managers who assists them in resolving workplace disputes.
True False

1. 10. Federal Express Corporation’s “guaranteed fair treatment process” lets employees appeal problems to a peer-review board chosen by the worker involved and management.
True False

1. 11. Managers may avoid imposing discipline because of ignorance of organizational rules, fear of formal grievances, or fear of losing the friendship of employees.
True False

1. 12. According to the fiduciary duty of loyalty, individuals in groups look to others to learn appropriate behaviors and attitudes.
True False

1. 13. According to the red-hot-stove rule, discipline should be immediate, with warning, consistent, and personal.
True False
14. 14. When documenting performance-related incidents it is very important to conclude a written warning by obtaining the employee’s signature that he/she has read and understands the warning.
True False

14. 15. According to the Weingarten mandate, the employee must request representation; the employer has no obligation to offer it voluntarily.
True False

14. 16. Employment-at-will refers to an employment relationship where only the employer may terminate employment at anytime and for any reason.
True False

14. 17. When an employer has promised not to terminate an employer except for unsatisfactory job performance or other good cause, the courts will insist that the employer carry out that promise.
True False

14. 18. The Supreme Court has ruled that even where state law permits, union as well as nonunion employees do not have the right to sue over their dismissals, even if they are covered by a collective bargaining contract that provides a grievance procedure and remedies.

True False

14. 19. Employees with contracts (bargained collectively or individually) are not at-will employees. True False

14. 20. A no-disclosure clause bars you from working for a competitor for six months up to five years. True False

14. 21. Whether or not a contract has been signed, executives are still required to maintain all trade secrets with which their employers have entrusted them.
True False

14. 22. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires employers of more than 100 workers to grant 60 days’ written notice before closing a plant or before laying off more than one-third of a workforce in excess of 150 people.

True False

14. 23. Before deciding to dismiss an employee, managers should conduct a detailed review of all relevant facts, including the employee’s side of the story.
True False

14. 24. Most authorities agree that it is best to terminate an employee on Fridays. True False

14. 25. To safeguard against possible allegations of misconduct or fair treatment, it is advisable to have a representative of the human resource department present at termination meetings.
True False

14. 26. Among U.S. companies, 78 percent do some form of electronic monitoring of employees. True False

14. 27. Bosses may view employees on video monitors, tap their phones, and rummage through their computer files with or without employee knowledge or consent 24 hours a day.
True False

14. 28. Research indicates that individuals cannot be conditioned to behave unethically, even if they are rewarded for it.
True False

14. 29. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act makes it unlawful to discharge, demote, suspend, threaten, harass, or in any manner discriminate against a whistle-blower.
True False
30. 30. The 2010 Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act offers incentives for whistle-blowers, as well as enhanced anti-retaliation protections.
True False

30. 31. _____ refers to the maintenance or administration of what is just, especially by the impartial adjustment of conflicting claims or the assignment of merited rewards or punishments.
A. A. Justice

A. B. Prejudice

A. C. Just cause

A. D. Positive discipline

30. 32. _____ focuses on the fairness of the procedures used to make decisions.
A. A. Proactive behavior

A. B. Distributive justice

A. C. Due process
B. D. Procedural justice

30. 33. Distributive justice focuses on the fairness of the _____ of decisions.
A. A. procedures
B. B. outcomes

A. C. content

A. D. responses

30. 34. Which of the following would NOT be considered an organizational citizenship behavior?

A. A. Altruism

A. B. Sportsmanship

A. C. Insensitivity

A. D. Courtesy

30. 35. Procedural justice affects citizenship behaviors by influencing employees’ perceptions of ____, the extent to which the organization values employee’s general contributions and cares for their well being.
A. A. due process
B. B. management accessibility

A. C. nonpunitiveness

A. D. organizational support

30. 36. _____ justice refers to the quality of interpersonal treatment that employees receive in their everyday work.
A. A. Interactional

A. B. Informational

A. C. Distributive
B. D. Blind

30. 37. _____ is expressed in terms of providing explanations or accounts for decisions made.
A. A. Informational justice
B. B. Distributive justice

A. C. Interactional justice

A. D. Retributive justice

30. 38. Which of the following is NOT an important function of voice systems?
A. A. They ensure fair treatment.

A. B. They sustain stockholder confidence and commitment.

A. C. They provide a context in which unfair treatment can be appealed.

A. D. They help to improve the effectiveness of an organization.
39. 39. A _____ is one whereby an employee may proceed directly to the next higher level of management above his/her supervisor.
A. A. just cause

A. B. progressive disciplinary policy

A. C. skip-level policy

A. D. choice-of-law provision

39. 40. Toll-free telephone numbers that employees can use anonymously to report waste, fraud, or abuse are examples of a(n):
A. A. union intervention.

A. B. employee voice system.
B. C. ethical dilemma.

A. D. grievance procedure step.

39. 41. __________ systems are characterized by elegance, accessibility, correctness, and responsiveness.
A. A. Target

A. B. Grievance

A. C. Acknowledgement

A. D. Employee voice

39. 42. A(n) _____ is a neutral facilitator between employees and managers who assists in resolving workplace disputes.
A. A. peer-review panel

A. B. grievance committee
B. C. ombudsperson

A. D. complaint team

39. 43. A(n) _____ is a neutral facilitator between employees and managers who assists them in resolving workplace disputes.
A. A. ombudsperson

A. B. aide

A. C. moderator

A. D. paralegal

39. 44. In a unionized firm, the _____ clause of the collective bargaining agreement typically retains for management the authority to impose reasonable rules for workplace conduct and to discipline employees for just cause.

A. A. employee relations

A. B. management rights

A. C. implied promises

A. D. organizational support

39. 45. The concept of _____ requires an employer not only to produce persuasive evidence of an employee’s liability or negligence, but also to provide the employee a fair hearing and to impose a penalty appropriate to the proven offense.

A. A. the hot stove rule
B. B. positive discipline

A. C. progressive discipline

A. D. just cause

39. 46. Which theory states that individuals in groups look to others to learn appropriate behaviors and attitudes?

A. A. Social learning theory
B. B. Rational choice theory

A. C. Differential association theory
B. D. Labeling theory
47. 47. _____ proceeds from an oral warning to a written warning to a suspension to dismissal.
A. A. Procedural justice
B. B. Positive discipline

A. C. Progressive discipline

A. D. Due process

47. 48. According to ____, discipline should be immediate, consistent, and impersonal.
A. A. distributive justice

A. B. the social learning theory

A. C. the red-hot-stove rule

A. D. due process

47. 49. Generally, disciplinary interviews are held over issues of workplace conduct or:
A. A. job performance.

A. B. collective bargaining disagreements.
B. C. career path possibilities.

A. D. organizational policy.

47. 50. All of the following statements about the Weingarten mandate are true EXCEPT:
A. A. the employer has no duty to bargain with any union representative during the interview.

A. B. the employee must reasonably believe that the investigation may result in disciplinary action taken against him/her.
B. C. the employer is not obligated to carry on the interview or to justify its refusal to do so.

A. D. the employer has an obligation to offer representation voluntarily.

47. 51. _____ refers to an employment relationship between an employer and an employee, under which either party can terminate the relationship without notice for any reason not prohibited by law.
A. A. Fiduciary duty of loyalty
B. B. Employment-at-will

A. C. Due process

A. D. An implied promise

47. 52. According to ____, an employee may not be fired because he/she refuses to commit an illegal act, such as perjury or price fixing.
A. A. public policy exception

A. B. social learning theory

A. C. retaliatory discharge
B. D. lifestyle discriminate

47. 53. A worker being fired for actions ranging from filing a workers’ compensation claim to reporting safety violations to government agencies is called:
A. A. unfair dismissal.

A. B. red-hot-stove discipline.

A. C. retaliatory discharge.

A. D. just cause.

47. 54. In ____, workers have been fired for refusing to quit smoking, for living with someone without being married, drinking a competitor’s product, motorcycling, and other legal activities outside of work.
A. A. constructive discharge

A. B. defamation
B. C. invasion of privacy

A. D. lifestyle discrimination

47. 55. Three __________ include public policy, implied promises, and retaliatory discharge.
A. A. policy exemptions

A. B. collective bargaining agreements

A. C. no-compete agreements

A. D. export systems
56. 56. A _____ clause prohibits you from recruiting key clients or employees away from your former employer for a year or two.
A. A. no-disclosure

A. B. payback

A. C. mandatory matching

A. D. nonsolicitation

56. 57. A _____ clause requires that you not take another job until you have repaid the company any expenses incurred in your relocation and recruitment.
A. A. no-disclosure

A. B. payback
B. C. mandatory matching

A. D. nonsolicitation

56. 58. A _____ clause prohibits you from divulging trade secrets or other proprietary information to outsiders during your employment at a company or after you leave.
A. A. no-disclosure

A. B. payback

A. C. nonsolicitation

A. D. mandatory matching

56. 59. _________ includes training and written instructors for raters and uses systems that minimize subjectivity to the greatest extent possible.
A. A. No-disclosure agreements
B. B. Nonsolicitation agreements

A. C. Performance appraisals

A. D. Payback appraisals

56. 60. From the company’s perspective, it is important to recognize that employment agreements are governed by:
A. A. federal law.

A. B. no-compete agreements.

A. C. union contracts.
B. D. state law.

56. 61. Whether or not a contract has been signed, executives are still required to maintain all trade secrets with which their employers have entrusted them. This obligation is called a:
A. A. skip-level policy.

A. B. fiduciary duty of loyalty.

A. C. public policy exception.

A. D. retaliatory discharge.

56. 62. A(n) _____ designates that the laws of a particular state will be used to interpret the contract.
A. A. choice-of-law provision

A. B. employment-at-will clause

A. C. red-hot-stove rule
B. D. employer protection agreement

56. 63. Which act requires employers of more than 100 workers to grant 60 days’ written notice before closing a plant or before laying off more than one-third of a workforce in excess of 150 people?
A. A. The Employment discrimination law

A. B. The Riot Act

A. C. The Federal Employers Liability Act

A. D. The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act
64. 64. Companies should familiarize all supervisors with company policies and provide a(n) _____ to use when conducting dismissals.
A. A. copy of the collective bargaining agreement

A. B. termination checklist

A. C. security guard

A. D. employer protection agreement

64. 65. The responsibility for terminating an employee rests with the ______; no one else has the credibility to convey this difficult message.
A. A. HR department

A. B. owner of the company
B. C. manager

A. D. union representative

64. 66. Situations that have the potential to result in a breach of acceptable behavior are called:
A. A. implied promises.

A. B. conscience struggles.

A. C. fiduciary duties of loyalty.

A. D. ethical dilemmas.

64. 67. Among major U.S. companies, about _____ percent do some form of electronic monitoring of employees.
A. A. 15

A. B. 31
B. C. 78

A. D. 92

64. 68. The _______ Act contains powerful financial incentives for whistle-blowers.
A. A. Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection

A. B. SOX

A. C. Wall Street Protest

A. D. Equal Employment Opportunity

64. 69. In the case of ____, disclosure of fraud, waste, and abuse can lead to substantial financial gains by whistle-blowers.
A. A. corporate executives

A. B. federal contractors
B. C. government employees

A. D. union members

64. 70. Under the federal False Claims Act of 1863, as amended, private citizens may sue a contractor for fraud on the government’s behalf and share up to _____ percent of whatever financial recovery the government makes as a result of the charges.

A. A. 10

A. B. 20

A. C. 30
B. D. 40

64. 71. Discuss the components of procedural justice.
72. Describe the five “core” characteristics of the most effective voice systems.

73. What are the basic requirements for workplace due process to work effectively?

74. 74. What is meant by employment-at-will and why is it difficult to terminate employees despite this principal?

75. Discuss the implications of the 2010 Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.

76. 76. List at least two of the four basic requirements a nonunion grievance procedure needs to work effectively.

77. What are reasons why managers may avoid imposing discipline?
78. What is an implied promise?

79. 79. Why should a contract state that it reflects the entire agreement of the parties and can only be amended in writing signed by both parties?

80. Where is the best place for the firing manager to conduct a termination interview?

15
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The trends and arrangements that encourage international trade also increase and change the demands on human resource management.

2. The host country is the country in which the organization’s headquarters is located.

3. Third-country nationals are employees from a country other than the parent country or the host country.

4. The usual way that a company begins to enter foreign markets is by setting up operations in those countries.

5. While international companies build one or a few facilities in another country, multinational companies go overseas on a broader scale.

6. A global organization uses cultural differences as an advantage.

7. The most important influence on international HRM is the economic system of the country in which a facility is located.

8. In countries with large power distances, people try to eliminate inequalities.

9. In countries with low uncertainty avoidance, people seem to take each day as it comes.

10. Job design aimed at empowerment is likely to be difficult in cultures with high power distance.

11. In general, spending on education is lesser per pupil in high-income countries than in poorer countries.

12. Capitalist economic systems provide ample opportunities for educational development because the education system is free to students.

13. A country’s political system does not usually affect human resource management.

14. Compared with other countries, the United States does not allow employers much latitude in reducing their workforce, the emphasis being more on protecting jobs.

15. Companies usually prefer hiring parent-country nationals for filling positions in host-countries.

16. Expanding opportunities in fast-developing nations such as China and India has limited the ability of organizations to tap into the immigrant workforce.

17. Research has found successful completion of overseas assignments to be most likely among employees who are extroverted, agreeable, and conscientious.

18. Culture shock is the first emotional stage an expatriate experiences upon starting a foreign assignment.

19. In the context of the effects of culture on training design, trainers are expected to be authoritarian and controlling of session in cultures low in power distance.

20. In the context of the effects of culture on training design, a culture with a long-term orientation will have trainees who are likely to accept development plans and assignments.

21. The general principles of performance management may apply in most countries, but the specific methods that work in one country may fail in another.

22. U.S. companies usually link stock options to specific performance goals, such as the increase in a company’s share price compared with that of its competitors.

23. In comparison with European organizations, U.S. organizations exert more centralized control over labor relations in the various countries where they operate.

24. Apart from developing an appreciation of the host-country’s culture, cross-cultural training requires developing a greater awareness of one’s own culture too.

25. The balance sheet approach for determining expatriate compensation adjusts a manager’s compensation so that it equals the host country’s standard of living, further ensuring assimilation into the local culture.

26. Canada, Mexico, and the United States have encouraged trade among themselves with the:

A. CSN.

B. NAFTA.

C. PICTA.

D. APEC.

E. TAFTA.

27. The _____ of a company is the country in which the organization’s headquarters is located.

A. host country

B. parent country

C. governing country

D. third country

E. second country

28. Maria Celio, who was born in Spain, works at the headquarters of a Spanish company. She is a:

A. host-country national.

B. expatriate.

C. governing-country national.

D. third-country national.

E. parent-country national.

29. A _____ is a country (other than the country in which the organization’s headquarters is located) in which an organization operates a facility.

A. host country

B. parent country

C. first country

D. third country

E. guest country

30. A TexasCorp (an American company) employee, who was born in India and is working at the company’s facilities in India, is a:

A. host-country national.

B. parent-country national.

C. first-country national.

D. third-country national.

E. guest-country national.

31. A country that is neither the parent country nor the host country for a company is referred to as a:

A. first country.

B. facilitating country.

C. governing country.

D. third country.

E. guest country.

32. An individual who was born in the United States and is currently working in Spain for a company headquartered in Japan is a _____ in Spain.

A. parent-country national

B. host-country national

C. third-country national

D. home-country national

E. guest-country national

33. John, an American who works for a U.S.-based company, has been assigned to work in Japan. He is known as a(n):

A. expatriate.

B. inpatriate.

C. host-country national.

D. third-country national.

E. guest-country national.

34. A company is headquartered in Germany, has offices in the U.S., and has a Vietnamese manager working in a facility in the U.S. In this case, Germany is the _____ country, the U.S. is the _____ country, and Vietnam is the _____ country.

A. parent, host, third

B. expatriate, inpatriate, repatriate

C. host, guest, third

D. third, first, host

E. parent, guest, second

35. The usual way that a company begins to enter foreign markets is by:

A. importing.

B. offshoring.

C. exporting.

D. outsourcing.

E. relocating.

36. A firm that is currently shipping domestically produced items to other countries to be sold there is engaging in:

A. exporting.

B. offshoring.

C. importing.

D. outsourcing.

E. relocating.

37. An organization that has just started setting up one or a few facilities in one or a few foreign countries is a(n):

A. global organization.

B. international organization.

C. multinational organization.

D. foreign subsidiary.

E. expatriate.

38. An organization that builds facilities in a number of different countries in an effort to minimize production and distribution costs is a(n):

A. international organization.

B. multinational company.

C. foreign subsidiary.

D. global organization.

E. outsourcing partner.

39. At the highest level of involvement in the worldwide marketplace are organizations that choose to locate a facility based on the ability to effectively, efficiently, and flexibly produce a product or service, using cultural differences as an advantage. Such organizations are referred to as:

A. foreign subsidiaries.

B. international organizations.

C. multinational organizations.

D. global organizations.

E. universal organizations.

40. Which of the following is a characteristic of global organizations?

A. They are rigid.

B. They keep costs of products as high as possible.

C. They use cultural differences as a challenge.

D. Their decisions are decentralized.

E. Their HRM practices do not treat different cultures as equals.

41. Which one of the following is of global organizations?

A. All of their managers come from the host country.

B. They increasingly emphasize standardization of products across market segments.

C. They tend to have centralized, parent-country decision-making structures.

D. HRM practices at such companies tend to be uniform across cultures.

E. Managers at such companies must be able to get results across national boundaries.

42. Which of the following terms refers to a type of HRM system that makes decisions from a global perspective, includes managers from many countries, and is based on ideas contributed by people representing a variety of cultures?

A. Host country-based HRM system

B. Parent country-based HRM system

C. Transnational HRM system

D. International HRM system

E. Multinational HRM system

43. Which one of the following statements is of transnational HRM systems?

A. To ensure fairness, they make decisions that are uniform and rigid.

B. The participants from various countries and cultures contribute ideas from a position of equality.

C. They emphasize the use of managers from the parent country.

D. They feature decision making from a parent-country perspective.

E. The host-country culture dominates the decision making process.

44. By far the most important influence on international HRM is the _____ of the country in which a facility is located.

A. politics

B. educational system

C. culture

D. economic system

E. currency

45. According to Hofstede’s cultural dimensions, a culture in which people are expected to look after their own interests is high in:

A. power distance.

B. femininity.

C. individualism.

D. uncertainty avoidance.

E. long-term orientation.

46. In cultures high in _____, people think of themselves mainly as group members.

A. power distance

B. individualism

C. masculinity

D. short-term orientation

E. collectivism

47. According to Hofstede’s dimensions of culture, _____ defines the amount of inequality that is normal.

A. individualism

B. uncertainty avoidance

C. power distance

D. collectivism

E. masculinity

48. Mark, an American national, is visiting Mexico for a business meeting. Since he is used to addressing people by their first name, he calls his host, the Chairman of the company, by his first name rather than his title. The Chairman and the other Mexican board members get offended. This reveals differences in the cultural dimension of _____ between Mark and his Mexican hosts.

A. individualism/collectivism

B. uncertainty avoidance

C. power distance

D. long-term/short-term orientation

E. masculinity/femininity

49. According to Hofstede’s dimensions of culture, _____ refers to a strong cultural preference for structured situations.

A. low power distance

B. individualism

C. masculinity

D. high uncertainty avoidance

E. long-term orientation

50. Values such as success, achievement, assertiveness, and competition are associated with:

A. short-term oriented cultures.

B. masculine cultures.

C. high-power-distance cultures.

D. low uncertainty avoidance cultures.

E. collectivist cultures.

51. In the context of Hofstede’s dimensions of culture, which of the following is a characteristic of cultures with a long-term orientation?

A. They value achievement, money making, and assertiveness more than anything else.

B. They value saving and persistence.

C. They expect people to think and act as members of a group..

D. They maintain large differences in power.

E. They have a preference for structured situations.

52. According to Hofstede’s dimensions of culture, which of the following is of cultures with a short-term orientation?

A. They value saving and persistence.

B. They protect people in a particular group.

C. They maintain large differences in power.

D. They have a preference for structured situations.

E. They promote respect for fulfilling social obligations in the present.

53. Individualistic cultures often exhibit:

A. flatter pay structures.

B. greater differences between the highest and lowest pay in the organization.

C. emphasis on organizational rather than individual performance.

D. collective decision making.

E. compensation systems based on fixed pay according to seniority.

54. How does a collectivist culture influence the HRM decisions related to job design?

A. It gives more importance to skills, resources, and personality to succeed on the job.

B. It encourages employees to make their own decisions.

C. It gives emphasis to person—organization fit.

D. It focuses on long-term rewards.

E. It relies heavily on person—job fit.

55. Which of the following is of pay structures in collectivist cultures?

A. They appreciate great differences in pay between the organization’s highest- and lowest-paid employees.

B. They see compensation tied to individual performance as fair.

C. They tend to have much flatter pay structures.

D. They get motivated with individual performance awards.

E. They value person-job fit more than person-organization fit.

56. Which of the following is about the influence of economic systems on human resource practices in international markets?

A. Socialist economic systems provide ample opportunities for educational development.

B. In developed countries with great wealth, labor costs are relatively low.

C. In capitalist economic systems, education is free for students.

D. Capitalism may not provide economic rewards for increasing one’s education.

E. In socialist systems, students bear more of the cost of their education.

57. Which of the following is of countries with small power distance?

A. People address one another with titles

B. People try to eliminate inequalities

C. People tend to rely heavily on religion

D. People seem to take each day as it comes

E. People value money making more than relationships

58. In which country would one experience the greatest latitude in reducing one’s company’s workforce in response to a forecasted oversupply of workers?

A. The United States

B. Germany

C. The United Kingdom

D. France

E. Sweden

59. Which of the following is a benefit of having a wide latitude in reducing workforce?

A. It gives the option of hiring for peak needs and laying off employees if needs decline.

B. It helps in protecting workers’ jobs.

C. It helps employees to adjust to a new culture.

D. It allows workers to keep more of their earnings regardless of the taxes they pay.

E. It gives employers the advantage to choose from local workers or immigrant workers according to the work requirement.

60. Which of the following is of selecting employees in a global labor market?

A. A host-country national can more easily understand the local values and customs.

B. Employees are usually very eager to take a foreign assignment.

C. Host-country nationals are usually more skilled than expatriates.

D. Training for and transporting families to foreign assignments is less expensive than hiring people in the foreign country.

E. Organizations generally fill all key foreign positions with host-country nationals.

61. The labor supply of _____ is useful when needed skills are scarce in a particular location, but the ability to tap it is limited by government paperwork and delays, as well as by expanding opportunities in fast-developing nations.

A. host-country nationals

B. immigrant workers

C. parent-company nationals

D. local contract workers

E. local temporary workers

62. Successful completion of overseas assignments is most likely among employees who are:

A. agreeable and conscientious.

B. more knowledgeable about their job.

C. more technically qualified.

D. higher in the managerial hierarchy.

E. introverted.

63. Which of the following is the first emotional stage associated with a foreign assignment?

A. Culture shock

B. Learning

C. Adjustment

D. Honeymoon

E. Acculturation

64. Which of the following terms describe the disillusionment and discomfort that occur during the process of adjusting to a new culture?

A. Culture shock

B. Honeymoon

C. Euphoria

D. Acculturation

E. Acclimatization

65. Which of the following is a challenge specially associated with the training and development of a global workforce?

A. Effective programs for all participating employees, regardless of their country of origin

B. Making employees aware of the training content

C. Linking training objectives to performance management

D. Making employees aware of the development plans

E. Deciding the duration of the training program

66. In the context of the effects of culture on training design, a culture high in _____ expects participation in exercises and questioning to be determined by status in the company or culture.

A. collectivism

B. femininity

C. power distance

D. time orientation

E. individualism

67. In the context of the effects of culture on training design, a culture low in _____ values relationships with fellow trainees.

A. collectivism

B. femininity

C. uncertainty avoidance

D. time orientation

E. masculinity

68. Employees from cultures high in power distance expect a training session where:

A. they are able to discuss and ask questions about the training content.

B. an informal, unstructured agenda exists.

C. trainers are viewed as experts and are authoritarian and controlling of the sessions.

D. trainees are allowed to determine the pace of the programs.

E. there is an equal relationship with the trainer.

69. Employees from cultures high in uncertainty avoidance expect a training session where:

A. trainers adopt an impromptu style of instruction.

B. a formal instructional environment exists.

C. trainers are flexible and open to schedule and activity changes.

D. trainees are allowed to determine the pace of the programs.

E. relationships with fellow trainees are emphasized.

70. In the context of the effect of culture on training, a culture with long-term orientation has trainees who:

A. expect trainers to be authoritarian and controlling of session.

B. value relationships with fellow trainees.

C. are likely to accept development plans and assignments.

D. have less tolerance for impromptu style.

E. expect formal instructional environments.

71. Training to make employees and their family members ready for an assignment in a foreign country is called:

A. acculturation.

B. international education.

C. cross-cultural preparation.

D. community training.

E. biculturalism.

72. Which of the following is of cross-cultural preparation for the different phases of an international assignment?

A. Training consists only of lectures.

B. Preparation ends once the employees have adjusted to the host-country’s environment.

C. Preparation is only required for the employees, not their families.

D. Preparation for departure includes language instruction.

E. Employees and their families should be insulated from the locals.

73. For which phase of an international assignment does the preparation involve providing information about the employee’s community and home-country workplace?

A. Preparation for departure from the home-country

B. Preparation during the assignment itself

C. Preparation for the culture shock phase in the host country

D. Preparation for the return to the home-country

E. Preparation for the honeymoon phase in the host country

74. Which of the following is of the performance management process across national boundaries?

A. The specific methods of performance management work the same way in almost every country.

B. U.S. employees are much more used to indirect feedback than are employees in other countries.

C. Which behaviors are rated, how and the extent to which performance is measured, who performs the rating, and how feedback is provided are usually uniform across countries.

D. While the measures used may vary from country to country, the legal requirements remain the same as those in the United States.

E. In rapidly changing regions, the organization may have to update its performance plans more often than once a year.

75. Which of the following is a reason for big pay differences between jobs?

A. Shortage of talent in local labor markets

B. Government rules regarding minimum wages for different jobs

C. Low rates of employee turnover in certain jobs

D. Low power distance

E. High uncertainty avoidance

76. Which of the following is about decisions related to a global compensation strategy?

A. They affect a company’s costs and ability to compete.

B. They focus more on flexibility than on fairness to account for differences across cultures.

C. They are made on the basis of the cost of living in the home country.

D. They focus only on comparing wages across countries.

E. They are determined only by labor costs.

77. Which of the following is of employee benefits?

A. In both the U.S. and Europe, the awarding of stock options is linked to specific performance goals.

B. Pension plans are more widespread in the U.S. and Japan than in Western Europe.

C. Unlike in the U.S., compensation plans in other countries are less likely to include benefits.

D. Paid vacation tends to be more generous in Western Europe than in the United States.

E. Although stock options became a common form of incentive pay in Europe during the 1990s, American businesses did not begin to adopt them until the end of that decade.

78. Which of the following statements is of international labor relations?

A. In comparison with U.S. organizations, European organizations exert more centralized control over labor relations in the various countries where they operate.

B. The day-to-day decisions about labor relations are usually handled by each foreign subsidiary.

C. Governments never get involved to protect workers who immigrate to other countries.

D. Most U.S. organizations, in contrast to European organizations, bargain with a union representing an entire industry’s employees, rather than with the local union.

E. Companies that operate across national boundaries mostly work only with unions in the home-country.

79. The day-to-day decisions about labor relations are usually handled by foreign subsidiaries because:

A. labor costs in industrialized countries are far lower than in newly industrialized countries.

B. the control over labor relations is centralized in most countries.

C. labor relations on an international scale involve differences in laws and economic systems.

D. this reduces the power distance across countries.

E. the host governments require them to do so.

80. According to expatriates, the most important qualities for an international assignment are, in order of importance:

A. family situation, flexibility and adaptability, job knowledge and motivation, relational skills, and openness to other cultures.

B. openness to other cultures, flexibility and adaptability, relational skills, job knowledge and motivation, and family situation.

C. job knowledge and motivation, flexibility and adaptability, relational skills, openness to other cultures, and family situation.

D. self-confidence, a sense of advantage, technical know-how, and family situation.

E. adaptability, job knowledge and motivation, relational skills, family situation, and openness to other cultures.

81. Which of the following shows that an employee is motivated enough for an overseas assignment?

A. The employee has no medical problems that can be a hindrance to the success of the assignment.

B. The employee has a realistic understanding of what working and living abroad require.

C. The employee’s spouse has the ability to meet the language requirements.

D. The employee is very ethnocentric.

E. The employee has the technical skills required for training employees abroad.

82. Which of the following is about preparing expatriates for international assignments?

A. Learning a new language is usually not required for communicating in a foreign country.

B. Preparation of the expatriate should include career development activities.

C. The preparation process ends when the employee leaves for the assignment.

D. Cross-cultural training is used to create an appreciation of the host country’s culture and not of the home culture.

E. Instilling verbal skills should be given more importance over writing skills.

83. Which of the following determines the compensation of expatriates by adjusting the manager’s compensation so that it gives the manager the same standard of living as in the home country plus extra pay for the inconvenience of locating overseas?

A. The scorecard approach

B. The balance-sheet approach

C. The equalization approach

D. The exchange-rate approach

E. The correspondence approach

84. Which of the following is an advantage of the balance sheet approach?

A. It ensures that the expatriates maintain a balance between productivity and expected performance.

B. It develops the criteria for measuring the success of an overseas assignment.

C. It helps expatriate managers to recognize differences and similarities between cultures.

D. It helps managers to get the same standard of living as in the home country.

E. It helps expatriates to develop valuable skills during the overseas assignment.

85. Which of the following is of the four components of expatriates’ total pay package?

A. Usually, the employer of an expatriate withholds the amount of tax to be paid in the host country, then pays the taxes due in the parent country.

B. Housing allowances ensure that the expatriate can maintain the same standard of living as other employees in the host country.

C. Expatriates’ salaries are usually lower than the pay of employees working at the headquarters.

D. Determining the base salary is simple because exchange rates rarely fluctuate.

E. Most benefits issues have to do with whether an employee can use the same benefits in the foreign country.

86. Repatriation refers to the process of:

A. preparing employees to go on an overseas assignment.

B. negotiation between unions and management.

C. preparing employees to return home from a foreign assignment.

D. helping employees to adjust to a new culture and its norms, values, and perspectives.

E. preparing employees to work with host-country nationals.

87. Two activities used by companies in the process of helping employees repatriate are communication and _____.

A. validation

B. equalization

C. dissolution

D. resolution

E. exclusion

88. In the context of the activities that an organization uses to help repatriated employees through the transition to the home-country, which of the following activities involves the expatriate receiving information and recognizing changes while abroad?

A. Validation

B. Equalization

C. Communication

D. Resolution

E. Rationalization

89. Which of the following is NOT helpful in easing the repatriation of employees after an overseas assignment?

A. Organization staying in touch with employees during their stay abroad

B. Expatriates maintaining important contacts in the company and industry

C. Communicating career development plans before and during the overseas assignment

D. Giving expatriates praise and recognition for their overseas service

E. Limiting all professional ties in the home country while overseas

90. In the context of the activities that an organization uses to help expatriates return home, which of the following activities involves giving the expatriate recognition for the overseas service when the person returns home?

A. Resolution

B. Dissolution

C. Rationalization

D. Communication

E. Validation

91. What are the reasons behind the trend toward expansion into global markets?

92. Describe the terms parent country, parent-country national, host country, host-country national, third country, and third-country national. Give examples of each.

93. Distinguish between international, multinational, and global organizations. Also briefly outline the HR issues associated with each type of organization.

94. Explain Hofstede’s dimensions of culture.

95. Discuss how economic systems impact HRM in international markets.

96. Discuss how differences among countries affect HR planning at organizations with international operations.

97. What criteria should be used for selection of employees for foreign assignments? Which of these criteria most strongly influences whether an employee completes a foreign assignment or not?

98. What is cross-cultural preparation? What are the methods used in this process? In which phases of an international assignment is cross-cultural preparation required?

99. Discuss the challenges related to compensating employees from other countries.

100. How can companies help expatriates return to the home country after completing a foreign assignment?

16
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. According to research, organizations that introduce integrated high-performance work practices usually experience increases in productivity and long-term financial performance.

2. An organization’s HR department makes most decisions about organizational structure.

3. The reward systems of an organization include the performance measures by which employees are judged and the methods of measuring performance.

4. High-performance work systems are characterized by high employee turnover.

5. The most popular way to empower employees is to design work so that it can be performed single-handedly by individuals.

6. To create a learning organization, one challenge is to shift the focus of training away from merely generating and sharing knowledge toward a stronger focus on teaching skills.

7. Research supports the idea that employees’ job satisfaction and job performance are unrelated.

8. People experience occupational intimacy when they love their work, when they and their co-workers care about one another, and when they find their work meaningful.

9. Performance measures should not include ethical standards.

10. Research suggests that it is more effective to improve HRM practices as a whole than to focus on one or two isolated practices.

11. High-performance organizations do not need selection methods that identify more than technical skills.

12. To set up a performance management system that supports the organization’s goals, managers need to understand the process of employee performance.

13. Measures of employees’ performance should take the effects of situational constraints into account.

14. Employee participation in decisions about pay policies has no proven link with job satisfaction.

15. Transaction processing includes the activities required to meet government reporting requirements.

16. An expert system can increase efficiency by enabling more highly skilled employees to do work that otherwise would require many less-skilled employees.

17. A standard feature of a modern HRIS is the use of relational databases, which store data in separate files that can be linked by common elements.

18. A benefit of e-HRM is that employees can help themselves to information they need when they need it, instead of contacting an HR staff person.

19. Most administrative and information-gathering activities in human resource management cannot be a part of e-HRM.

20. For an organization’s human resource division, “customers” are the organization’s top management.

21. An HRM audit is a formal review of the outcomes of HRM functions.

22. Training dollars per employee is a business indicator of the success of an HR department’s training programs.

23. The usual way to measure customer satisfaction in the course of an HRM audit is to conduct experiments in controlled environments.

24. One way to measure HRM effectiveness is to measure a program’s success in terms of whether it achieved its objectives and whether it delivered value in an economic sense.

25. A recruiter’s colleagues are most useful as a source of leads to qualified job candidates than are people the recruiter communicates with only occasionally.

26. A high-performance work system refers to:

A. an arrangement of machinery and equipment that streamlines the workflow and results in maximum efficiency and cost savings.

B. the right combination of people, technology, and organizational structure that makes full use of the organization’s resources and opportunities in achieving its goals.

C. a computer software system designed to help managers solve problems by showing how results vary when the manager alters assumptions or data.

D. a system used to collect, record, store, analyze, and retrieve data concerning an organization’s human resources.

E. a performance management system that customer satisfaction.

27. Which of the following is true of high-performance work systems?

A. Creating a high-performance work system is akin to traditional management practices.

B. To function as a high-performance work system, people, technology, and organizational structure must be completely independent of one another.

C. To develop a a high-performance work system, organizations need to determine what kinds of people fit their needs, and then locate, train, and motivate those special people.

D. A high-performance work system rarely includes reward systems.

E. Integrated high-performance work practices usually have little impact on productivity and long-term financial performance.

28. _____ is the way the organization groups its people into useful divisions, departments, and reporting relationships.

A. Job structure

B. Organizational structure

C. Value chain

D. Corporate design

E. Relationship management

29. An organization’s _____ usually makes most of the decisions about organizational structure.

A. top management

B. HR department

C. supervisors

D. middle-level managers

E. technical analysts

30. As an element of a high-performance work system, _____ determine(s) how the details of the organization’s necessary activities will be grouped, whether into jobs or team responsibilities.

A. information systems

B. reward systems

C. performance

D. organizational structure

E. task design

31. Which of the following elements in a high-performance work system contribute(s) to high performance by encouraging people to strive for objectives that support the organization’s overall goals and includes the performance measures by which employees are judged?

A. Organizational goals

B. Task design

C. Reward systems

D. Information systems

E. Training and development

32. In a high-performance work system, task design makes jobs:

A. narrow in scope.

B. high in task significance but low in autonomy.

C. highly specialized.

D. efficient while encouraging high quality.

E. simple and more repetitive.

33. Which of the following is an outcome of a high-performance work system?

A. Simple, repetitive jobs

B. High employee turnover

C. High production costs

D. High product quality

E. Centralized decision making

34. In a high-performance work system, organizational structure:

A. promotes high employee turnover.

B. promotes cooperation and learning.

C. discourages competition.

D. helps the organization select the right people with the required qualifications.

E. encourages people to strive for objectives that support the organization’s overall goals.

35. Which of the following is a condition that contributes to high performance?

A. Employees’ rewards and compensation relate to the company’s financial performance.

B. Work design allows employees to use a single skill.

C. Employee participation is planning changes pertaining to work method is limited.

D. Employees do not receive formal performance feedback.

E. Training is discouraged because of high costs.

36. One of the most popular ways to empower employees is to:

A. narrow the scope of jobs.

B. design work so that it is performed by teams.

C. adopt a centralized decision making approach.

D. pay bonuses to all employees regardless of contribution.

E. provide them with simple, repetitive jobs.

37. Which of the following is a way in which a work team can be empowered?

A. By minimizing the team’s interaction with other department or teams

B. By keeping roles independent and separate from one another

C. By charging the team with making decisions traditionally made by managers

D. By narrowing the scope of work done by the team and its members

E. By assigning management of work schedules to the manager

38. A learning organization:

A. actively resists organizational change.

B. considers organizational learning a barrier to the dissemination of corporate culture.

C. supports lifelong learning by enabling all employees to continually acquire and share knowledge.

D. places a relatively low importance on innovation.

E. considers training a superfluous corporate ritual.

39. Each employee’s and each group’s ongoing efforts to gather information and apply the information to their decisions in a learning organization is referred to as:

A. continuous learning.

B. critical thinking.

C. innovation.

D. cognition.

E. groupthink.

40. In a learning organization, training is viewed as:

A. a superfluous corporate ritual.

B. an investment in the organization’s human resources.

C. the only driver of continued growth and sustainability.

D. the primary means of retaining good employees.

E. a tool to minimize organizational anarchy.

41. Which of the following occurs when organizations encourage employees to see relationships among ideas and to test assumptions and observe the results of their actions?

A. High employee turnover

B. Critical, systematic thinking

C. Disruptive learning

D. Organizational change

E. Organizational anarchy

42. A learning culture creates the conditions in which managers:

A. encourage flexibility.

B. discourage experimentation.

C. help sustain the status quo.

D. encourage groupthink.

E. demonstrate a high degree of risk aversion.

43. Ethical behavior is a necessary condition of high performance because:

A. It fosters competitiveness.

B. It empowers first-line managers and supervisors.

C. It helps eliminate organizational anarchy.

D. it contributes to good long-term relationships with employees, customers, and the public.

E. it encourages people to be highly innovative.

44. Organizations can promote job satisfaction by:

A. making jobs more repetitive.

B. setting up subjective performance management systems.

C. setting highly abstract goals.

D. empowering supervisors.

E. making jobs more interesting.

45. People experience _____ when they love their work, when they and their co-workers care about one another, and when they find their work meaningful.

A. burnout

B. cognitive job satisfaction

C. occupational intimacy

D. diminished personal accomplishment

E. emotional dissonance

46. Which of the following practices is most likely to enhance occupational intimacy?

A. Lowering emphasis on organizational learning

B. Narrowing the scope of work

C. Setting highly abstract goals

D. Establishing rigid and enduring pay structures

E. Establishing policies that show concern for employees’ needs

47. _____ is the process of ensuring that HR policies, practices, and programs support or are congruent with an organization’s overall culture or brand, including its products and services.

A. Brand reinforcement

B. Brand alignment

C. Crowdsourcing

D. Brand dilution

E. Corporate social responsibility

48. Which one of the following is an HRM practice that helps organizations achieve high performance?

A. Work is performed by individuals.

B. Organization discourages continuous learning.

C. Performance management system measures customer satisfaction and quality.

D. Pay systems primarily reward loyalty to the company.

E. Technology increases costs.

49. Job design aimed at empowerment:

A. is complex.

B. limits flexibility.

C. includes access to resources.

D. increases employee turnover.

E. includes a rigid pay structure.

50. A high-performance work system is most likely to place employees in work teams where:

A. employee empowerment is considerably low.

B. employees primarily work as individual contributors.

C. employees collaborate to make decisions and solve problems.

D. the affective job satisfaction among employees is low.

E. Technology is used to the minimum.

51. Which one of the following is a selection method that organizations can adopt to identify employees who innovate, share ideas, and take initiative?

A. Technical proficiency test

B. Psychological test

C. Structured interview

D. Aptitude test

E. Physical ability test

52. At a high-performance organization, recruitment and selection aim at obtaining the kinds of employees who can thrive in this type of setting. These employees are _____.

A. primarily individual contributors

B. enthusiastic about knowledge sharing

C. averse to risk taking

D. averse to experimentation

E. averse to taking initiatives

53. Performance management systems support organizational goals best if they:

A. define and measure performance in broad behavioral terms.

B. link performance measures to meeting internal and external customers’ needs.

C. ignore situational constraints.

D. are outsourced to professional behavior management firms.

E. choose business goals based on employees’ skills and abilities.

54. Merit pay, gainsharing, and profit sharing are all methods of:

A. including employees in organizational planning.

B. disassociating compensation from performance measures.

C. disseminating organizational learning.

D. increasing employee participation in strategic decision making.

E. linking compensation to performance measures.

55. Compensation systems can help create the conditions that contribute to high performance. Consequently, organizations can increase empowerment and job satisfaction by:

A. communicating the basis for decisions about pay.

B. disassociating compensation from performance measures.

C. discouraging negotiations regarding pay.

D. limiting employee participation in management.

E. limiting the use of gainsharing and profit sharing.

56. New technology usually involves _____—that is, using equipment and information processing to perform activities that had been performed by people.

A. downsizing

B. outsourcing

C. offshoring

D. automation

E. diversification

57. Which one of the following refers to the computations and calculations involved in reviewing and documenting HRM decisions and practices?

A. e-HRM

B. Transaction processing

C. Automation

D. Expert systems

E. Decision support systems

58. Decision support systems refer(s) to:

A. computer software systems that allow users to see how outcomes vary when assumptions or data are altered.

B. the network of remote servers used to store reusable data.

C. systems that incorporate the decision rules used by people who are considered to have expertise in a certain area.

D. the set of topics on which a human resource information system collects and maintains information.

E. online training and development materials which employees can access at their own convenience from anywhere around the world.

59. A manager wishes to test a range of assumptions on the availability of a certain skill in the labor market. He plans to enter different assumptions or data to check how the likely outcomes alter in accordance with the corresponding change in data. Which one of the following is the most suitable system for such a purpose?

A. Decision support system

B. Expert system

C. e-HRM system

D. Transactional processing system

E. Transitional matrix

60. _____ are computer systems that incorporate the decision rules used by people who are considered to have proficiency in a certain area.

A. Decision support systems

B. Expert systems

C. E-HRM systems

D. Transactional processing systems

E. Clouds

61. Expert systems:

A. can only be used by those employees who have proven expertise in a certain area.

B. could cause errors if the user is fatigued or biased.

C. are typically unstable.

D. deliver quality at a very high cost.

E. help many people to arrive at decisions that reflect the expert’s knowledge.

62. A standard feature of a modern HRIS is the use of _____, which store data in separate files that can be linked by common elements.

A. graph databases

B. hypermedia databases

C. relational databases

D. unstructured databases

E. parallel databases

63. Which one of the following is an advantage of a relational database?

A. It facilitates the storage of employee information in a single, large file.

B. It replicates the traditional method of filing employee data by name, a system that is strongly preferred by organizations worldwide.

C. It helps HR staff in retrieving information about specific applicants.

D.
It helps people arrive at decisions that reflect expert knowledge.

E. It is designed to exclusively meet the needs of the HR department.

64. _____ is a display of a series of HR measures, showing human resource goals and objectives and progress toward meeting them.

A. Performance review template

B. Job preview

C. Expert system

D. HR dashboard

E. Relational database

65. Which of the following helps in making confidential HR-related information widely available to authorized users within an organization?

A. A decision support system

B. An expert system

C. The intranet

D. A transactional processing system

E. The Internet

66. Which of the following exemplifies one of the most creative developments in human resource information systems technology?

A. Decision support system

B. Transactional processing system

C. HR dashboard

D. Expert system

E. Intranet

67. Most of the human resource information is confidential, so organizations engaging in e-HRM are:

A. continuously limiting the amount and type of information made available to company personnel.

B. increasingly placing company-specific information on a secure intranet with links to resources on the broader Internet.

C. consolidating information into a single file and restricting access to the database to only top-level personnel within the company.

D. not in favor of knowledge sharing within the organization.

E. encouraging employees to restrict the use of intranet.

68. Which of the following is true of e-HRM?

A. Most administrative and information-gathering HRM activities can be part of e-HRM.

B. E-HRM is less economical than traditional HR systems.

C. E-HRM has adversely affected employee manageability.

D. The number of organizations actively engaged in e-HRM is steadily decreasing.

E. A major drawback of e-HRM is that employees cannot help themselves to the information they need when they need it.

69. Generally speaking, _____ bring(s) networks of people together to collaborate on projects, solve problems, or socialize.

A. cloud computing

B. social media

C. social discrimination

D. grid computing

E. primary group

70. For an organization’s human resource division, customers:

A. refer specifically to the organization’s shareholders.

B. refer specifically to the organization’s offshore clients.

C. usually refer to the top management.

D. refer to the organization as a whole and its other divisions.

E. refer to the labor law enforcement agencies.

71. How can the HR department meet the needs of line managers?

A. By providing qualified staffing

B. By assisting in performance management

C. By designing a rewards system

D. By providing training and development

E. By enforcing labor law regulations

72. How can the HR department of an organization meet the needs of strategic planners?

A. By providing qualified staffing

B. Through performance management

C. Through rewards systems

D. By providing training and development

E. By enforcing labor law regulations

73. How can the HR department of an organization meet the needs of employees?

A. By providing qualified staffing

B. Through performance management

C. By hiring people with niche skills

D. By providing training and development

E. By enforcing labor law regulations

74. A formal review of the outcomes of HRM functions, based on identifying key HRM functions and measures of business performance, is referred to as a(n) _____.

A. balanced scorecard

B. profit-and-loss statement

C. evidence-based HRM

D. job description

E. HRM audit

75. The primary focus of an HRM audit is on:

A. motivating customers.

B. estimating the costs of implementing an HR practice.

C. reviewing the various outcomes of HRM functions.

D. determining the dollar value of the HRM program.

E. determining the legality of HR practices.

76. Which of the following refers to an HRM function?

A. production

B. appraisal

C. export

D. import

E. copyright protection

77. Which of the following is a business indicator for staffing activities with regard to an HRM audit?

A. Treatment of applicants

B. Skill in handling terminations

C. Competitiveness in local labor market

D. Employee satisfaction with pay

E. Ratio of acceptances to offers made

78. Which of the following is a measure of customer satisfaction that indicates the success of the staffing efforts of an HR department?

A. Anticipation of personnel needs

B. Average years of experience/education of hires per job family

C. Average days taken to fill open requisitions

D. Ratio of acceptances to offers made

E. Ratio of minority/women applicants to representation in local labor market

79. Which of the following is a business indicator of the success of the compensation system designed by the HR department of an organization?

A. Competitiveness in the local labor market

B. Ratio of average salary offers to average salary in community

C. Relationship between pay and performance

D. Employee satisfaction with pay

E. Fairness of existing job evaluation system in assigning grades and salaries

80. Which of the following is a customer satisfaction measure that indicate the success of the compensation system designed by the HR department of an organization?

A. Competitiveness in local labor market

B. Ratio of average salary offers to average salary in community

C. Per capita (average) merit increases

D. Percentage of overtime hours to straight time

E. Ratio of recommendations for reclassification to number of employees

81. Which of the following is a business indicator of the success of the training programs implemented by the HR department of an organization?

A. The extent to which training programs meet the needs of employees and the company

B. Training dollars per employee

C. Communication to employees about available training opportunities

D. Assistance in identifying management potential

E. Quality of introduction/orientation programs

82. Which of the following is a customer satisfaction measure that indicates the success of the training programs implemented by the HR department of an organization?

A. Percentage of employees participating in training programs per job family

B. Percentage of employees receiving tuition refunds

C. Per capita (average) merit increases

D. Training dollars per employee

E. Quality of introduction/orientation programs

83. Which of the following is a measure of customer satisfaction that indicates the success of the benefits programs implemented by the HR department of an organization?

A. Promptness in handling claims

B. Average unemployment compensation payment

C. Per capita (average) merit increases

D. Benefit cost per payroll dollar

E. Percentage of sick leave to total pay

84. Which of the following is a business indicator of the success of the benefits programs implemented by the HR department of an organization?

A. Communication of benefits to employees

B. Fairness and consistency in the application of benefit policies

C. Promptness in handling claims

D. Average unemployment compensation payment

E. Assistance provided to line managers in reducing potential for unnecessary claims

85. Which of the following is a business indicator of the success of the employee appraisal and development programs implemented by the HR department of an organization?

A. Assistance in identifying management potential

B. Organizational development activities provided by HRM department

C. Accuracy and clarity of information provided to managers and employees

D. Quality of introduction/orientation programs

E. Distribution of performance appraisal ratings

86. Which of the following is a customer satisfaction measure of the overall effectiveness of HR activities?

A. Ratio of personnel staff to employee population

B. Percentage of employees receiving tuition refunds

C. Per capita (average) merit increases

D. Working relationship between organizations and HRM department

E. Turnover rate

87. Which of the following is a business indicator of the overall effectiveness of HR activities?

A. Ratio of personnel staff to employee population

B. Accuracy and clarity of information provided to managers and employees

C. Competence and expertise of staff

D. Working relationship between organizations and HRM department

E. Assistance in identifying management potential

88. The use of HR analytics involves measuring a program’s success in terms of:

A. whether it adopted a pro-innovation approach.

B. whether it was perceived as effective by external stakeholders.

C. whether it sustained the status quo.

D. whether it delivered value in an economic sense.

E. whether it enjoyed the support of trade unions.

89. In general, HR departments should be able to improve their performance through some combination of greater efficiency and greater effectiveness. In this context, greater efficiency means the HR department:

A. has a relatively limited influence over employee performance.

B. uses fewer and less-costly resources to perform its functions.

C. expends lavishly on resources.

D. has a more beneficial effect on the organization’s performance.

E. ensures that all operations are legal.

90. In general, HR departments should be able to improve their performance through some combination of greater efficiency and greater effectiveness. In this context, greater effectiveness means that:

A. the rate of employee turnover is considerably high.

B. the HR personnel use fewer and less-costly resources to perform its functions.

C. the average employee compensation in the organization is well above the prevailing market rate.

D. what the HR department does has a more beneficial effect on employees’ and the organization’s performance.

E. there is a relatively narrow gap between the highest and the lowest salaries paid in the organization.

91. Define a high-performance work system. What are the elements of a high-performance work system? What is the role of HRM in such a system?

92. What are the various outcomes of a high-performance work system?

93. What are the different conditions that contribute to the formation of a high-performance work system?

94. What is a learning organization? What are its key features?

95. Discuss the concept of occupational intimacy.

96. Discuss how recruitment and selection practices contribute to high performance in an organization.

97. What are the guidelines that describe how to make the performance management system support organizational goals?

98. Define HR dashboard.

99. What is an HRM audit?

100. How can HR departments improve their performance?

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Chapter 1-7 Solution
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Chapter 1

1. Managers and economists traditionally have seen human resource management as a source of value to their organizations.

True False

2. The concept of “human resource management” implies that employees in an organization cannot be considered as a resource and hence are interchangeable.

True False

3. Human resources cannot be imitated.

True False

4. High-performance work systems have been essential in making organizations strong enough to weather the storm of a recession and remain profitable when the economy begins to expand after the recession.

True False

5. No two human resource departments will have precisely the same roles and responsibilities.

True False

6. The concern for innovation and quality in recent times has forced companies to use more narrowly defined jobs to increase efficiency.

True False

7. The process of selection is limited to hiring new employees for job openings and excludes internal transfers and promotions.

True False

8. Establishing and administering personnel policies allows the company to handle problematic situations more fairly and objectively than if it addressed such incidents on a case-by-case basis.

True False

9. Companies following a low-cost strategy closely align their pay packages to the industry norms.

True False

10. Establishing and administering personnel policies allows the company to handle problematic situations more fairly and objectively than if it addressed such incidents on a case-by-case basis.

True False

11. The current federal laws fail to outline how to use employee databases in order to protect employees’ privacy while also meeting employers’ and society’s concerns for security.

True False

12. Human resource management is increasingly becoming a purely administrative function.

True False

13. Evidence-based HR refers to the practice of initiating disciplinary action against employees only in the presence of clear and demonstrable proof of undesirable behavior.

True False

14. In organizations with a sustainable strategy, the HR departments focus on employee development and empowerment rather than short-term costs.

True False

15. An HR professional can be an effective talent manager or organizational designer only when he has the knowledge of how the organization is structured and how that structure might be adjusted to help it meet its goals for developing and using employees’ talents.

True False

16. Knowledge of business trends is essential for the strategic architect role of an HR professional.

True False

17. The HR activities are exclusively carried out by an HR specialist in small organizations.

True False

18. The supervisors play a key role in employee relations as they are most often the voice of management for the employees.

True False

19. The right of free consent states that employers can conceal the nature of the job while hiring an employee for a particular position.

True False

20. Mimi feels that her being denied promotion has more to do with her being a woman than with her performance. However, her supervisors and the HR department are refusing to hear her case. This indicates that Mimi has been denied her right to due process.

True False

21. In companies that are ethical and successful, the owners are the only stakeholders who are responsible for the actions of the company.

True False

22. For human resource practices to be considered ethical, they must result in the greatest good for the largest number of people.

True False

23. The role of HR generalist is essentially limited to recruitment and selection.

True False

24. The vast majority of HRM professionals have a college degree.

True False

25. The Society for Human Resource Management is the primary professional organization for HRM and the world’s largest human resource management association.

True False

26. The policies, practices, and systems that influence employees’ behavior, attitudes, and performance constitute:

A. supply chain management.

B. materials management.

C. human resource management.

D. labor laws.

E. equal employment opportunity.

27. The concept of “human resource management” implies that employees:

A. are interchangeable.

B. are easily replaceable.

C. are a necessary expense to process work demands.

D. are resources who add economic value to the organization.

E. are secondary to all elements of economic capital like cash and technology.

28. As a type of resource, human capital refers to the:

A. wages, benefits, and other costs incurred in support of HR functions in an organization.

B. cash, equipment, technology, and facilities that the organization uses.

C. tax-deferred value of an employee’s 401(k) plan.

D. employee characteristics that add economic value to the organization.

E. total budget allocated to the HR department in an organization.

29. The term _____ is used to describe the employees of an organization in terms of their training, experience, judgment, intelligence, relationships, and insight.

A. performance management

B. human capital

C. development

D. traditional management

E. working capital

30. One of the qualities of human resources is that _____.

A. it is highly substitutable and interchangeable

B. it is easily available for all companies to utilize

C. it is easily imitated by rivals

D. it is negligible in terms of value

E. it is indispensable for building a competitive advantage

31. Human resources provide an organization with a sustainable competitive advantage because:

A. highly skilled and knowledgeable employees are commonly available.

B. the organization can easily duplicate the success of competitors’ human resources.

C. after financial resources, human resources are the most committed to an organization.

D. high-quality employees provide a needed service as they perform many critical functions.

E. employees can be easily trained, motivated, and developed to care about customers.

32. Which one of the following responsibilities is specifically associated with the HR function of employee relations?

A. Conducting attitude surveys

B. Work analysis

C. HR information systems

D. Human resource planning and forecasting

E. Job design

33. Which of the following responsibilities is specifically associated with the HR function of support for strategy?

A. Discipline

B. Human resource planning and forecasting

C. Wage and salary administration

D. Developing employee handbooks and company publications

E. Developing an HR information system

34. Which of the following refers to the process of getting detailed information about jobs?

A. Job rotation

B. Supply chain management

C. Job analysis

D. Policy creation

E. Job orientation

35. Job design is the process of:

A. defining the way work will be performed and the tasks that a given job requires.

B. generating a pool of potential candidates for a job.

C. identifying suitable candidates for jobs.

D. enabling employees to learn job-related knowledge, skills, and behavior.

E. presenting candidates with positive and negative information about a job.

36. At Smartech, a company dealing in software products, employees often complain about the lack of clarity regarding the tasks they are required to perform. Often there are two employees working on overlapping tasks, while some tasks are not designated to any employee. Though employees are satisfied with the pay and work culture, this aspect of their work environment has led to a lot of conflict in the workplace. From the information provided, this complaint of the employees can be closely linked to which of the following HR functions?

A. Compliance with laws

B. Analysis and design of work

C. Compensation and benefits

D. Maintaining employee relations

E. Recruitment and selection

37. Which of the following is responsible for the shift in the job trend, from the use of narrowly defined jobs to the use of broadly defined jobs in organizations?

A. Emphasis on innovation and quality

B. Increased demand for low skilled workers

C. Increased focus on simplifying jobs

D. Lack of competition

E. Reduced use of team-based project

38. Which of the following refers to the process through which an organization seeks applicants for potential employment?

A. Orientation

B. Training

C. Recruitment

D. Work analysis

E. Job design

39. The process by which the organization attempts to identify applicants with the necessary knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics that will help the organization achieve its goals is referred to as _____.

A. orientation

B. selection

C. compensation

D. work analysis

E. performance management

40. _____ is a planned effort to enable employees to learn job-related knowledge, skills, and behavior.

A. Selection

B. Performance appraisal

C. Training

D. Compensation

E. Recruitment

41. The HR function of _____ involves acquiring knowledge, skills, and behavior that improve employees’ ability to meet the challenges of a variety of new or existing jobs, including the client and customer demands of those jobs.

A. recruitment

B. personnel policy

C. development

D. employee relations

E. selection

42. If a company, as part of its job redesign program, plans to set up teams to manufacture products, which of the following programs might it offer to help employees learn the ins and outs of effective teamwork?

A. Development

B. Recruitment

C. Orientation

D. Selection

E. Performance management

43. The process of ensuring that employees’ activities and outputs match the organization’s goals is called _____.

A. job analysis

B. supply chain management

C. employee development

D. performance management

E. career planning

44. The employees at Edifice Financials often complain that they are not provided feedback on their performance. They feel that they do not get proper information as to how they have performed and the areas in which they need to improve. They also claim that the performance goals are vague and not measurable. Which of the following HR functions does Edifice Financials need to specifically improve upon to resolve this complaint put forth by its employees?

A. Recruitment

B. Employee selection

C. Training and development

D. Performance management

E. Planning and administering pay and benefits

45. Which of the following HR functions includes preparing and distributing employee handbooks that detail company policies and, in large organizations, company publications such as a monthly newsletter or a Web site on the organization’s intranet?

A. Recruitment and selection

B. Maintaining positive employee relations

C. Ensuring compliance with labor laws

D. Performance management

E. Planning and administering pay and benefits

46. When employees of an organization feel they have been discriminated against, see safety hazards, or have other problems and are dissatisfied with their supervisor’s response, they may turn to the HR department for help. Addressing such problems suitably is part of the HR function of:

A. recruitment and selection.

B. maintaining positive employee relations.

C. training and developing employees.

D. performance management.

E. planning and administering pay and benefits.

47. The HR function of maintaining positive employee relations primarily includes:

A. maintaining performance measures on outcomes.

B. offering training programs on effective teamwork.

C. selecting only those applicants that are referred by employees.

D. maintaining communication with union representatives.

E. planning employee pay and benefits.

48. How does establishing and administering policies help organizations?

A. It allows companies to handle situations fairly and objectively.

B. It allows companies to address issues on a case-by-case basis.

C. It eliminates the need for documentation and record-keeping.

D. It encourages employees to defend themselves by claiming ignorance of disciplinary norms.

E. It leaves a lot of room for subjective decision-making.

49. _____ refers to the use of quantitative tools and scientific methods to analyze data from human resource databases and other sources to make evidence-based decisions that support business goals.

A. Conjoint analysis

B. Performance management

C. Workforce analytics

D. Career development

E. Task analysis

50. Under the principle of “employment at will”, the employer may terminate employment:

A. after two weeks’ notice.

B. at any time without notice.

C. immediately after written notice.

D. only if the employee voluntarily resigns.

E. only if he cannot show just cause.

51. Evidence-based HR is defined as the:

A. exclusive use of statistical models for planning, forecasting, and other related HR activities.

B. establishment of overlapping performance goals and desired outcomes during performance management.

C. demonstrating that human resource practices have a positive influence on the company’s profits or key stakeholders.

D. process of ensuring that employees’ activities and outputs match the organization’s goals.

E. organization-wide planned effort to enable employees to learn job-related knowledge, rather than teamwork or communication skills.

52. The process of identifying the numbers and types of employees the organization will require in order to meet its objectives is known as:

A. supply chain management.

B. performance management.

C. human resource planning.

D. utilization analysis.

E. performance planning.

53. The process that helps the human resource department to forecast the organization’s needs for hiring, training, reassigning employees along with handling or avoiding layoffs is known as _____.

A. supply chain management

B. job development

C. human resource planning

D. evidence-based HR

E. corporate social responsibility

54. _____ is a systematic, planned effort to attract, retain, develop, and motivate highly skilled employees and managers.

A. Work flow analysis

B. Job analysis

C. Conjoint analysis

D. Talent management

E. Performance management

55. An organization’s ability to profit without depleting its resources, including employees, natural resources, and the support of the surrounding community is called _____.

A. high-performance management

B. social media optimization

C. substitutability

D. sustainability

E. supply chain management

56. The parties with an interest in the company’s success-typically, shareholders, the community, customers, and employees-constitute the _____ of a company.

A. market

B. stakeholders

C. management

D. personnel

E. strategic partners

57. Which of the following is true of sustainable organizations?

A. They primarily focus on maximizing profits and delivering high returns to investors.

B. They focus on smooth turnover and outsourcing rather than long-term planning.

C. They are more concerned about justice and fairness rather than short-term profits.

D. They are less concerned about employee development and empowerment.

E. They are more concerned with the quantum of output than quality standards.

58. An HR manager becomes a(n) _____ when she is so well respected in the organization that she can influence the positions taken by managers. This involves delivering results with integrity, sharing information, building trusting relationships, influencing others, providing candid observation, and taking appropriate risks.

A. administrator

B. cultural steward

C. recruitment manager

D. operational aide

E. trainer

59. In the role of a cultural steward, an HR manager primarily:

A. administers day-to-day work of managing people.

B. facilitates change and helps to build and strengthen the culture

C. develops people strategies to control attrition rates.

D. understands how the business makes money.

E. recognizes business trends and their impact on the business.

60. As a _____, the HR manager should know the ways that people join the organization and move to different positions within it.

A. strategy architect

B. cultural steward

C. talent manager

D. business ally

E. credible activist

61. At the most basic level, HR managers fulfilling the role of _____, carry out particular HR functions such as handling the selection, training, or compensation of employees.

A. business allies

B. cultural stewards

C. talent managers/organizational designers

D. operational executors

E. credible activists

62. Which of the following statements is true about HR responsibilities of supervisors?

A. HR activities are invariably limited to the specialists in the HR department.

B. In small organizations, all HR activities are carried out by HR specialists.

C. Non-HR managers do not need be familiar with the basics of HRM.

D. Job analysis and job design are techniques that lie outside the purview of supervisors.

E. Supervisors typically have responsibilities related to all the HR functions.

63. Which of the following is true of ethics in human resource management?

A. Evidence shows that HRM practices are invariably ethical.

B. The general public has a positive perception of the ethical conduct of U.S. businesses.

C. Many ethical issues in the workplace involve human resource management.

D. Most managers have a positive perception of the ethical conduct of U.S. businesses.

E. Most people believe that individuals apply values they hold in their personal lives to their professional activities.

64. Which of the following views on employment reflects the ethical principles embodied in the U.S. Constitution and Bill of Rights?

A. HR managers must view employees as having basic rights.

B. Employees have the right to lifetime employment.

C. HR managers have the right to hire whoever they deem best suited for a job.

D. HR managers must view employees as a necessary expense.

E. HR managers must set aside quotas for minorities.

65. The right of employees to know the nature of the job they are being hired to do and the obligation of a company not to deceive them in this respect is mainly reflective of the basic Kantian right of _____.

A. privacy

B. free consent

C. freedom of speech

D. freedom of conscience

E. due process

66. The organizations try to address the right of _____ by offering hot lines and policies and procedures designed to handle complaints from employees.

A. privacy

B. freedom of speech

C. due process

D. freedom of conscience

E. free consent

67. Which one of Kant’s basic human rights is violated when a supervisor requires an employee to do something that is unsafe or environmentally damaging, in spite of the employee clearly objecting to the order?

A. Right of freedom of speech

B. Right of equal opportunity employment

C. Right to due process

D. Right of freedom of conscience

E. Right of privacy

68. People’s right of privacy is the right to:

A. know the nature of the job they are being hired for.

B. autonomy in how they carry out their work.

C. control what they reveal about their private life.

D. a fair and impartial hearing.

E. fight against a wrongful discharge.

69. By keeping employees’ personal records confidential, an employer respects their right of:

A. autonomy.

B. freedom of conscience.

C. equal opportunity.

D. freedom of speech.

E. privacy.

70. People’s right to freedom of speech is the right to:

A. criticize an organization’s ethics if they do so in good conscience.

B. refuse to do something that is environmentally unsafe.

C. do as they wish in their private life.

D. be treated only as they knowingly and willingly consent to be treated.

E. prohibit criticism of the organization.

71. If people believe their rights are being violated, they have the right to a fair and impartial hearing. This reflects the basic human right to:

A. lifetime employment.

B. privacy.

C. due process.

D. free consent.

E. freedom of conscience.

72. Which of the following is true of companies that are ethical and successful?

A. They are solely concerned about the benefits of the company while making business decisions.

B. The owners most often assume responsibility for the actions of the company rather than the employees.

C. They are less concerned about the interests of the people involved in the business.

D. Their main aim is to maximize profits in all their transactions.

E. They have a sense of purpose and vision that the employees value, and use in their day-to-day work.

73. Which of the following is a standard that human resource managers must satisfy for HRM practices to be ethical?

A. Managers must treat employees as family.

B. Human resource practices must result in the greatest good for the largest number of people.

C. Employment practices must respect employees’ right of lifetime employment.

D. Managers must always maintain that customers are right.

E. Employment practices must limit the application of the principle of employment-at-will as it is unfair to employees.

74. Which of the following statements is true about the HR profession?

A. A degree in law is the main qualification for those who wish to choose HRM as a career.

B. The vast majority of HRM professionals have a postgraduate degree.

C. Professional certification in HRM continues to be the most common feature of a majority of professionals in the field.

D. Usually, HR generalists get paid substantially more than HR specialists.

E. HR generalists usually perform the full range of HRM activities.

75. The _____ is the primary professional organization for HRM that provides education and information services and is also the world’s largest human resource organization.

A. Strategic Human Resource Management

B. Recognition Professionals International

C. Society for Human Resource Management

D. Human Resource Certification institute

E. Human Resource Professionals Association

76. What are the qualities associated with human resources that help an organization gain a sustainable competitive advantage?

77. Name five important responsibilities of HR, briefly describing the specific activities associated with each.

78. Distinguish between training and development of employees.

79. Discuss the responsibility of HR with regard to planning and administering pay and benefits. Also analyze the impact of this function on the organization.

80. Describe the terms human resource planning and evidence-based HR. How do these concepts help HR in supporting the organization’s strategy?

81. Briefly describe six competencies required for the HR profession.

82. Discuss the HR responsibilities of supervisors.

83. List and discuss the basic human rights suggested by the work of Immanuel Kant, as well as the tradition of the Enlightenment.

84. What are the four principles followed by ethical successful companies?

85. How would you describe a career in human resource management? Cite the type of positions available, degree requirements, the nature of the work, and salary levels.

2
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. An individual who is actively seeking employment is a part of an organization’s external labor market.

True False

2. The members of Generation X are characterized by their comfort with the latest technology, and the need to be noticed, respected, and involved.

True False

3. Individuals who arrive in the United States without meeting the legal requirements for immigration or asylum are referred to as undocumented immigrants.

True False

4. Most organizations are look for educational achievements to find employees who can handle a variety of responsibilities, interact with customers, and think creatively.

True False

5. A large gap exists between the social system and the technical system in high-performance work systems.

True False

6. Knowledge workers in an organization do not work directly with customers.

True False

7. Skilled knowledge workers would suffer the most in a slow economy as they have little operational importance in a company.

True False

8. Successful organizations treat all their workers as knowledge workers.

True False

9. The use of employee empowerment has shifted the recruiting focus away from general cognitive and interpersonal skills toward technical skills.

True False

10. Teamwork gives the employees the authority and ability to decide on how to do their work.

True False

11. Virtual teams rely on communications technology such as videoconferences, e-mail, and cell phones to keep in touch and coordinate activities.

True False

12. The traditional role of HRM as primarily an administrative function has gradually given way to a new role-that of strategic partner.

True False

13. Total quality management is intended to bring about a continuous process of quality improvement.

True False

14. Total quality management proposes that every employee in the organization receive training in quality.

True False

15. When forming Citigroup, Citicorp combined its banking business with Traveller’s Group’s insurance business. This is an example of a merger.

True False

16. When two firms in one industry join together to hold a greater share of the industry, it is regarded as a consolidation.

True False

17. Early-retirement programs are are one of the most effective approaches to downsizing.

True False

18. An organization’s critical work processes are not altered during a reengineering process.

True False

19. A company that operates in the U.S.,shifts its warehouses and operations to a low rent area that is 50 miles away from town. This is an example of offshoring.

True False

20. Nathan, a citizen of England, works for an automobile company in England and is currently working on a project of the company in the United States. Nathan will hence be regarded as an expatriate.

True False

21. The processing and transmission of digitized HR information is called electronic human resource management.

True False

22. Under the new psychological contract, organizations expect employees to contribute time, effort, skills, abilities, and loyalty in return for job security and opportunities for promotion within the organization.

True False

23. Employees’ job security has increased as a result of the new psychological contract.

True False

24. Contract company workers are employed directly by a company.

True False

25. The employers can direct contract workers on details such as how and when they have to do their jobs without paying the employer’s share of Social Security for those workers.

True False

26. The term external labor market refers to the:

A. contract workers in the organization.

B. current employees of the organization.

C. individuals who are actively seeking employment.

D. employees who have direct contact with customers.

E. employees of the immediate competitors of the organization.

27. Which of the following statements best explains the term “labor force”?

A. All the permanent employees of an organization

B. All the people who have contracts to work at the company

C. All the adult members of a population

D. All the temporary workers of an organization

E. All the people willing and able to work

28. Which of the following authorities is responsible for tracking changes in the composition of the U.S. labor force and forecasting employment trends?

A. National Statistics Association

B. Occupational Outlook Bureau

C. U.S. Census Bureau

D. Bureau of Labor Welfare

E. Bureau of Labor Statistics

29. Which of the following racial groups forms the majority of the U.S. labor force?

A. African-Americans

B. Whites

C. Hispanics

D. Asians

E. Europeans

30. Which of the following statements about the composition of the U.S. labor force during the next decade is true?

A. The labor force is expected to grow at a greater rate than at any other time in U.S. history.

B. The largest proportion of the labor force is expected to be in the 16- to 25-year age group.

C. For the first time ever, the number of workers under 40 years of age will exceed the number of workers 40 years of age or older.

D. Despite a small increase in the number of young workers, the overall workforce will be aging.

E. The total cost of labor in the United States would considerably decrease.

31. The temporary work visa granted by the U.S. government:

A. allows workers to permanently bring their spouse and children to the United States.

B. permits the workers to remain in the U.S. as immigrants.

C. provides dual citizenship to highly qualified and valued immigrants.

D. permits highly educated workers to work in the U.S. for a set period of time.

E. allows the workers to work permanently in the U.S.

32. Employers’ support for immigration to the United States can be attributed to the fact that:

A. there is lack of adequate technology in the country.

B. undocumented immigration is not taken seriously by the U.S. government.

C. qualified technical workers are scarce in the United States.

D. there is increased support from the government.

E. U.S. workers are not open to innovation.

33. Managing cultural diversity involves:

A. forming different pay structures for various groups.

B. creating separate career tracks for employees with families.

C. avoiding the use of affirmative action policies.

D. reducing cultural diversity by selective hiring.

E. encouraging career development for women and minorities.

34. Which of the following skills are more actively sought by U.S. employers today?

A. Physical strength

B. Mastery of particular machinery

C. Interpersonal skills

D. Ability to perform routine tasks

E. Ability to work with a tool

35. Most organizations look for _____ to find employees who are capable of handling a variety of responsibilities, interacting with customers and thinking creatively.

A. basic psychomotor skills

B. skills related to computers

C. technical expertise

D. specific work experience

E. educational achievements

36. Which of the following defines organizations with the best possible fit between their social system and their technical system?

A. Workforce analysis systems

B. Holistic management systems

C. Supply chain systems

D. High-performance work systems

E. Total quality management systems

37. Which of the following is a trend that is seen in present day high-performance work systems?

A. Mismatches in technical system and social system

B. Employee empowerment in decision making

C. Increase in individual assignments

D. Centralized decision making

E. Reduced reliance on knowledge workers

38. How has the requirement for creating high-performance work systems changed?

A. There is a drive toward low-cost strategy in the labor market.

B. Employees prefer implementation of 40-hour work weeks.

C. Competitors are looking for ways to standardize prices in their respective industries.

D. Employers are looking for ways to tap people’s creativity and interpersonal skills.

E. Customers are demanding standardized products over customized products.

39. The growth in e-commerce and information economy has led to an increase in the demand for employees in:

A. technical jobs.

B. mining and resource extraction.

C. agriculture.

D. service occupations.

E. manufacturing.

40. Which of the following is true regarding skilled knowledge workers?

A. They do not have considerable autonomy to make decisions.

B. They are most likely to experience a lack of opportunities in a slow economy.

C. They are not easily replaceable as they own the knowledge that the company requires to produce its products.

D. They are not expected to be technically efficient and are only involved in direct interactions with customers.

E. They are bound to work under the conditions imposed by the employer owing to the low status of their jobs.

41. Who among the following can be regarded as knowledge workers?

A. Retail salespersons

B. Food serving workers

C. Office clerks

D. Registered nurses

E. Attendants

42. Employee empowerment primarily involves _____.

A. following a centralized and tall organizational structure

B. providing increased salary and benefits to employees

C. leading employees by the strength of one’s charisma

D. continually learning and improving one’s skills and abilities

E. giving employees responsibility and authority to make decisions

43. How has the use of employee empowerment affected the recruitment of knowledge workers?

A. It has enhanced the need for people with high knowledge regarding individual parts of a particular production processes.

B. It has substantially enhanced employment opportunities for women and minorities.

C. It has shifted the focus away from technical skills to general cognitive and interpersonal skills.

D. It has significantly reduced recruiting costs by using the low-cost strategy though it hinders innovation.

E. It has made the recruitment process less time consuming.

44. Human resource departments can help in employee empowerment by:

A. designing jobs such that the managers have complete control over business processes.

B. getting employees fully engaged by communicating to them about their role in supporting the organization’s mission.

C. rewarding employees based on their loyalty to the organization rather than personal accomplishments or predetermined objective criteria.

D. providing feedback only during the employee performance review.

E. creating jobs that minimize the need for the employees to come up with innovative ideas and solutions.

45. _____ refers to full involvement in one’s work and commitment to one’s job and company.

A. Job enlargement

B. Employee selection

C. Employee appraisal

D. Job specialization

E. Employee engagement

46. The term teamwork essentially refers to:

A. centralizing responsibility and authority to make decisions regarding all aspects of product development.

B. having the best possible fit between an organization’s social system and technical system.

C. making efforts to continuously improve the ways people, machines, and systems accomplish work.

D. assigning work to a group of employees with various skills who interact to assemble a product.

E. providing employees with individual opportunities to grow, thereby achieving organizational goals.

47. Teams that rely heavily on communications technology such as videoconferences, e-mail, and cell phones to keep in touch and coordinate activities are referred to as:

A. associate teams.

B. electronic teams.

C. virtual teams.

D. traditional teams.

E. technological teams.

48. Present day managers expect the HR professionals to use their knowledge of business and human resources to support the company’s strategy by:

A. maintaining compliance with labor laws.

B. performing administrative functions effectively.

C. designing and delivering effective HR policies and programs.

D. recruiting skilled knowledge workers.

E. developing strategies to meet broader goals such as profitability and market share.

49. Which of the following terms describes a company wide effort to continuously improve the way people, machines, and systems accomplish work?

A. Business reengineering

B. Total quality management

C. High-performance work system

D. Optimal performance system

E. Performance management

50. Which of the following is in compliance with the core values of total quality management?

A. Providing specific quality training to the supervisors

B. Adopting a retrospective approach to quality control by correcting error prone products

C. Developing generalized methods and processes rather than focusing on meeting the needs of the specific customers

D. Encouraging employees and customers to provide inputs on improving quality of the products and deciding on the costs

E. Measuring employees’ progress based on the amount of work done rather than the feedback obtained from the customers

51. According to the principles of total quality management:

A. the feedback process should be initiated only after a significant quality improvement.

B. human resource managers have a limited role since the emphasis is on quality alone.

C. only key personnel receive training in quality.

D. errors in a product or service should be prevented before occurrence.

E. internal customers are more valuable than external customers.

52. When two companies join forces and become one entity, it is referred to as a(n):

A. acquisition.

B. merger.

C. take-over.

D. joint venture.

E. strategic alliance.

53. A chemical company buying a medical equipment manufacturing company is an example of a(n) _____.

A. acquisition

B. partnership

C. consolidation

D. joint venture

E. strategic alliance

54. If two firms in one industry join to hold a greater share of the industry, it will be referred to as a(n) _____.

A. take-over

B. consolidation

C. acquisition

D. assimilation

E. conglomerate

55. In 1999, Glaxo Wellcome and SmithKline Beecham combined their businesses to create a new company, GlaxoSmithKline. This is an example of a(n) _____.

A. acquisition

B. take-over

C. partnership

D. strategic alliance

E. merger

56. Which of the following is a challenge for HRM during mergers?

A. Scrutinizing balance sheets

B. Evaluating the financial worth of the new company

C. Developing competitively priced products

D. Developing conflict resolution skills among employees

E. Sustaining the brand image of the company

57. The HRM function during downsizing is to terminate the workers who:

A. are performing multiple organizational roles.

B. are less valuable in their performance.

C. are a part of the external labor force.

D. are older than the other employees.

E. are being paid the highest salaries.

58. As a method of downsizing, early-retirement programs have been shown to be:

A. by far the most effective.

B. linked to greater employee suffering and distress.

C. a better alternative to the “grenade” approach.

D. most suited to distinguish clearly between good and poor performers.

E. humane.

59. When an organization undertakes a complete review of its critical work processes to make them more efficient and to be able to deliver higher quality, it is engaging in:

A. outsourcing.

B. offshoring.

C. reengineering.

D. greenfield venturing.

E. codetermining.

60. Which of the following observations about reengineering is true?

A. It is primarily concerned with production processes.

B. Critical processes are not altered during this process.

C. Changing customer needs and technologies necessitate reengineering.

D. It has no impact on human resource practices and systems.

E. It is an effort to retain the current work processes with minimal change.

61. Avion textiles, a cloth manufacturing company implements a new technology in their production process to improve the speed at which the cloth is produced. To make effective use of this technology, the company decides to train its employees regarding the new technology. They also make changes in the quality check and sales teams to maintain the costs at profitable levels and deliver good quality products. This reformation in all the critical processes of the company to make them efficient is known as _____.

A. outsourcing

B. codetermining

C. downsizing

D. hedging

E. reengineering

62. The practice of having another company provide services is known as _____.

A. benchmarking

B. downsizing

C. codetermining

D. outsourcing

E. reengineering

63. Home Needs is a consumer goods company who provide the option of door-to-door delivery. They have partnered with a packaging company for transporting their goods to the customers. This practice of having another company to provide one of the services of the company is known as _____.

A. cause marketing

B. outsourcing

C. reengineering

D. disinvesting

E. downsizing

64. Offshoring is defined as:

A. a practice of having another company provide services.

B. moving operations from the country where a company is headquartered to a country where pay rates are lower but the necessary skills are available.

C. a method of staffing other than the traditional hiring of full-time employees.

D. a complete review of the organization’s critical work processes to make them more efficient and able to deliver higher quality of products and services.

E. the act of acquiring a new company in a distant location or another country in order to acquire higher market share or growth.

65. When large U.S. software companies like IBM and Microsoft open facilities in India to take advantage of the highly skilled labor available there at lower pay rates, they are engaging in:

A. consolidation.

B. nationalization.

C. crowdsourcing.

D. codetermining

E. offshoring.

66. The largest number of immigrants to the U.S. workforce are from:

A. Africa.

B. Asia.

C. North America.

D. Europe.

E. Central America.

67. Which of the following is the reason why more organizations are looking overseas to hire talented people?

A. Lack of technology in the U.S.

B. Lack of demand for their products in the U.S.

C. Poor quality of labor in the U.S.

D. Governmental pressure

E. Low cost of labor in foreign countries

68. Employees who take assignments in other countries are called _____.

A. home-country nationals

B. immigrants

C. external employees

D. expatriates

E. emigrants

69. Which of the following terms refers to a computer system used to acquire, store, manipulate, analyze, retrieve, and distribute information related to an organization’s human resources?

A. Electronic performance support systems

B. e-CRM

C. High-performance work systems

D. Self-service systems

E. Human resource information systems

70. How does a human resource information system help the organization?

A. It can be used to scrutinize balance sheets.

B. It can be used to develop new lines of products.

C. It can be used to provide employee coaching.

D. It can help avoid litigation and lawsuits.

E. It can be used by salespeople to improve targeting.

71. An Internet portal is primarily used to:

A. process all HR transactions at one time.

B. consolidate different HR functions into a single location.

C. combine data from several sources into a single site.

D. obtain insight into business trends.

E. create a benchmark for all other companies in the industry.

72. A(n) _____ provides insight into business trends and patterns and helps businesses improve decisions.

A. electronic performance support systems

B. Internet portal

C. shared service center

D. application service provider

E. business intelligence system

73. Which of the following technologies lets a company rent space on a remote computer system and use the system’s software to manage its HR activities, including security and upgrades?

A. Application service providers

B. Internet portals

C. Shared service centers

D. Business intelligence systems

E. Electronic performance support systems

74. Which of the following can be used to consolidate different HR functions into a single location, eliminate redundancy, and reduce administrative costs?

A. Internet portals

B. Application services

C. Shared service centers

D. Business intelligence systems

E. Electronic performance support systems

75. Scott’s Services is a company which hosts a software that helps in data processing. They process the payroll, performance, and other details required by a company and make the results available online. Which of the following technologies is being used by the company to do the computing tasks for other companies?

A. Intranet

B. HR dashboards

C. HR dashboards

D. Cloud computing

E. Business Intelligence systems

76. _____ refer(s) to the processing and transmission of digitized HR information using computer networking and the Internet.

A. Electronic human resource management

B. An HR dashboard

C. An electronic performance system

D. An HR scorecard

E. Business intelligence

77. The use of social networking in HR has resulted in _____.

A. organizations becoming more bureaucratic and restrictive about information pertaining to workplace policies

B. the elimination of the self-service approach toward information dissemination in the organization

C. the elimination of face-to-face meetings and training sessions entirely across all businesses.

D. the collection of employees’ opinions through online surveys to improve employee engagement initiatives

E. HR employees having to take on greater responsibilities pertaining to record keeping.

78. The confidentiality of the HR information can be maintained by setting up e-HRM on _____, a network that uses Internet tools but limits access to authorized users in the organization.

A. an open website

B. an intranet

C. an ethernet

D. an extranet

E. Arpanet

79. What is an HR dashboard?

A. A messaging system used by HR managers to communicate with employees.

B. A display of how the company is performing on specific HR metrics.

C. A tool used to measure the profitability and growth rate of the organization.

D. A computer system used to acquire, store, manipulate, analyze, retrieve, and distribute information about work schedules and job duties

E. A system used to store, analyze, and process the information regarding the levels of demand and inventory

80. A system in which employees have online access to information about HR issues and go online to enroll themselves in programs and provide feedback through surveys is termed as:

A. social facilitation

B. payroll automation.

C. cloud computing.

D. data mining.

E. self-service.

81. The relationship between employer and employee can be thought of in terms of a(n) _____, a description of what an employee expects to contribute in an employment relationship and what the employer will provide the employee in exchange for those contributions. Unlike a written sales contract, this is not formally put into words.

A. employee contract

B. offer letter

C. psychological contract

D. union bond

E. legal agreement

82. _____ refers to the intentional practice of changing jobs frequently.

A. Job hopping

B. Moonlighting

C. Job enlargement

D. Job enrichment

E. Freelancing

83. The new type of psychological contract has resulted in reduced:

A. creativity.

B. employee compensation.

C. flexibility.

D. training and development opportunities.

E. job security.

84. Employees realize that many companies are no longer able to provide long-term employment security. Instead, the employees now want:

A. increased pay.

B. less demanding work.

C. employability.

D. written employment contracts.

E. additional benefits.

85. The use of independent contractors, on-call workers, temporary workers, and contract company workers, collectively constitute:

A. outsourcing.

B. alternative work arrangements.

C. consolidation.

D. high performance work systems.

E. offshoring.

86. Independent contractors are:

A. usually full-time company employees.

B. self-employed individuals with multiple clients.

C. people employed by a temporary agency.

D. employed directly by a company for a specific time.

E. people employed by the company to work on an independent project through a written contract.

87. Martin is a financial analyst who is not employed directly by any company. He works for multiple clients based on their requirements. Martin is a(n) _____.

A. permanent employee

B. independent contractor

C. part-time employee

D. contract company worker

E. temporary worker

88. Henry is a human resource consultant who runs and operates his own business from his home. He is often hired by businesses to present one- or two-day workshops on various topics within his field of expertise. Henry is a(n):

A. on-call worker.

B. agent.

C. temporary employee.

D. contract company worker.

E. temporary worker.

89. _____ are persons who work for an organization only when they are needed.

A. On-call workers

B. Moonlighting employees

C. Apprentices

D. Part-time employees

E. Trainees

90. _____ are employed directly by a company for a specific time, specified in a formal agreement between the company and the workers.

A. On-call workers

B. Independent contractors

C. Temporary workers

D. Contract company workers

E. Part-time workers

91. Define labor force. Distinguish between internal labor force and external labor market.

92. What sorts of activities does managing cultural diversity involve, and to what degree do HR professionals believe these activities are beneficial in maintaining a competitive advantage?

93. Explain the problem of skill deficiencies in the U.S. workforce.

94. Explain the impact of knowledge workers on the requirements for creating a high-performance work system.

95. What is employee empowerment? How can the HR departments help to make it effective?

96. What are the core values of total quality management?

97. What is outsourcing? What are the trends in HR outsourcing?

98. What is HRIS? How does it help HR professionals?

99. Define electronic human resource management. List out the applications of social networking tools employed by organizations to assist human resource management.

100. What is the “new” psychological contract? What are its implications?

3
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The legislative branch of the U.S. government is responsible for enforcing the laws passed by Congress.

True False

2. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 was partly designed to overturn Supreme Court decisions.

True False

3. The Fourteenth Amendment abolished slavery in the United States.

True False

4. A person fired by a private employer can sue under the Fourteenth amendment on charges of racial discrimination.

True False

5. The Equal Pay Act of 1963 allows pay differences between men and women performing the same job if the difference arises from any factor other than sex.

True False

6. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 applies to all organizations irrespective of its size or number of employees.

True False

7. An employer’s refusal to hire a pregnant woman is acceptable by law.

True False

8. The Americans with Disabilities Act covers people with problems arising from substance abuse.

True False

9. Executive Order 11478 requires the federal government to base all its employment policies on national origin.

True False

10. Organizations that are government contractors or subcontractors must file an Employer Information Report with the EEOC every year.

True False

11. If an attempt at a settlement fails, the EEOC may issue a “right to sue” letter to the alleged victim.

True False

12. The Office of Federal Contract Compliance Procedures is the agency responsible for enforcing the executive orders that cover companies doing business with the federal government.

True False

13. An employer who investigates the conviction records of minority applicants, but does not do so for majority applicants, can be sued on the basis of disparate treatment.

True False

14. Disparate treatment on the basis of sex is illegal even if it is a bona fide occupational qualification.

True False

15. A plaintiff must show the employer’s intent to prove disparate impact in court.

True False

16. A manager who promises a raise to an employee who will participate in sexual activities is said to be engaging in quid pro quo harassment.

True False

17. If an individual’s behavior in the workplace creates an environment in which it is difficult for someone of a particular sex to work, it cannot be regarded as sexual harassment.

True False

18. The practice of valuing diversity views a heterogeneous workforce as a liability because of the differences in perspectives and practices.

True False

19. The general-duty clause states that it is each employer’s duty to furnish a place of employment free from recognized hazards.

True False

20. According to the OSH Act, employers have the right to withhold an employee’s access to records regarding exposure.

True False

21. If an OSHA violation results in citations, the employer must post each citation in a prominent place near the location of the violation.

True False

22. Office workers who encounter a chemical infrequently are covered by the requirements of OSHA’s general duty clause.

True False

23. Occupational Safety and Health Act directly regulates employee behavior in work places to ensure safety.

True False

24. Under the job hazard analysis technique, if a single job element has high hazard potential, the entire job is laid off.

True False

25. Cultural differences are insignificant while promoting safety internationally.

True False

26. The _____ is primarily responsible for enforcing the laws passed by Congress.

A. U.S. House of Representatives

B. U.S. Senate

C. executive branch of the government

D. legislative branch of the government

E. U.S. Cabinet

27. _____ are directives issued solely by the President, without requiring congressional approval.

A. Constitutional amendments

B. Judicial reviews

C. Charters

D. Executive orders

E. Statutes

28. Which of the following legal measure requires all federal contractors and subcontractors to engage in affirmative-action programs designed to hire and promote women and minorities?

A. Twenty-Second Amendment to the Constitution

B. Executive Order 11246

C. Occupational Safety and Health Act

D. Thirteenth Amendment to the Constitution

E. Rehabilitation Act of 1973

29. Which of the following amendments to the constitution abolished slavery?

A. Third Amendment

B. Fourth Amendment

C. Thirteenth Amendment

D. Fourteenth Amendment

E. Tenth Amendment

30. Susan Clarks, a white female applicant, is refused a job at a state university in favor of a less-qualified minority applicant. She considers suing the state university on charges of reverse discrimination against her, under _____.

A. the Thirteenth Amendment

B. the Fourteenth Amendment

C. the Twenty-Second Amendment

D. the Civil Rights Act of 1866

E. Title VII of CRA of 1964

31. Which of the following is enforced by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission?

A. Thirteenth Amendment

B. Rehabilitation Act of 1973

C. Fourteenth Amendment

D. Executive Order 11246

E. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990

32. Which of the following statements is true about Civil Rights Act of 1866 and 1871?

A. They denied plaintiffs any form of compensatory and punitive damages.

B. They restricted the rights of entering into and enforcing contracts to white citizens only.

C. They denied individuals the right to sue in federal court.

D. They excluded other individuals from having the same property rights as white citizens.

E. They were passed to further the Thirteenth Amendment’s goal of abolishing slavery.

33. The_____ granted all persons the same property rights as white citizens, as well as the right to enter into and enforce contracts.

A. Thirteenth Amendment

B. Fourteenth Amendment

C. Civil Rights Act of 1866

D. Title VII of CRA

E. Executive Order 11246

34. According to the Equal Pay Act of 1963, men and women performing the same job cannot have differences in pay on the basis of _____.

A. merit

B. seniority

C. education

D. quality of production

E. sex

35. Which of the following is true about Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

A. The act permits employers to hire job applicants belonging exclusively to a particular nationality.

B. The act applies to organizations with 15 or more employees.

C. The act permits employers to retaliate against employees participating in a proceeding against the employer.

D. The act protects employers from an employee’s opposition to an alleged illegal employment practice.

E. The act permits employers to hire an individual based on his gender and race in the absence of a BFOQ.

36. Alyona Carolls thinks that her company is discriminating against a particular group of employees by denying them seniority or promotions. She expresses her concern to a senior HR manager. This method of expressing concern about an instance of illegal employment through proper channels is known as _____.

A. opposition

B. retaliation

C. participation in a proceeding

D. discrimination

E. affirmative action

37. Which of the following can be categorized as an act of participation in a proceeding?

A. Removing a whistleblower from employment

B. Implementing affirmative action measures

C. Expressing dissatisfaction over employment casually

D. Retaliating against a whistleblower

E. Testifying in an investigation

38. Which of the following categories is NOT covered by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

A. Age discrimination

B. Racial discrimination

C. Religious discrimination

D. Gender discrimination

E. Discrimination on the basis of nationality

39. Which of the following is true about Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA)?

A. ADEA favors the idea of coercing employees to accept early-retirement incentives.

B. ADEA permits an employer to reduce the fringe benefits to all employees over 40.

C. ADEA permits companies to lay off older workers when the economy is slow.

D. ADEA outlaws making employment decisions based on a person’s age being over 40.

E. ADEA recommends early-retirement incentive programs wherein employees agree not to sue the company for ageism.

40. Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) protects only those workers who are over the age of _____.

A. thirty

B. twenty five

C. twenty

D. forty

E. thirty five

41. Which of the following statements reflects a violation of Age Discrimination in Employment Act?

A. Older employees are permitted to work even after attaining the retirement age.

B. Employees over the age of 40 are asked to retire as a part of a company’s downsizing program.

C. An employee is denied employment because of the fact that he is a minor.

D. Older workers in an organization are compensated higher than the younger workers.

E. An employee avails voluntary retirement before attaining the retirement age.

42. Which of the following terms refer to an organization’s active effort to find opportunities to hire or promote people in a particular group?

A. Affirmative action

B. Disparate impact

C. Reasonable accommodation

D. Reverse discrimination

E. Adverse impact

43. Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 was introduced to enhance employment opportunity for _____.

A. women

B. minors

C. older employees

D. individuals with disabilities

E. minorities

44. Americans with Disabilities Act protects individuals who are _____.

A. obese

B. severely disfigured

C. subject to substance abuse

D. left-handed

E. suffering from vision problems like myopia

45. Which of the following individuals will NOT be covered under the Americans with Disabilities Act?

A. An individual with a history of heart disease

B. An individual with a history of mental illness

C. An individual with cancer in remission

D. An individual who is deaf and blind

E. An individual who is subject to substance abuse

46. Which of the following is true about the Americans with Disabilities Act?

A. It permits the employer to cut down on fringe benefits of individuals with disabilities.

B. It permits discrimination in areas such as layoff and leave.

C. It goes beyond prohibiting discrimination to require that employers take steps to accommodate individuals covered under the legislation.

D. It classifies a person, who needs ordinary eyeglasses or contact lenses to perform each major life activity with little or no difficulty, as disabled.

E. It is used to protect individuals with conditions such as obesity and substance abuse.

47. Jennifer Carter, a marketing executive in her late thirties, had been working at a reputed marketing firm for the past three years. However, she was fired from the company without any prior notice when she collapsed at work with an epileptic attack. Following this, Jennifer sued the company under the _____.

A. Executive Order 11246

B. Rehabilitation Act of 1973

C. Americans with Disabilities Act

D. Occupational Safety and Health Act

E. Executive Order 11478

48. Cellant Solar Energy, Inc. is a company that produces solar panels for domestic use. It has 800 permanent employees working in different departments. Suppose Cellant gets involved in a case of intentional employee discrimination, what will be the maximum punitive damage that it will have to pay under the Civil Rights Act of 1991?

A. $50,000

B. $100,000

C. $200,000

D. $250,000

E. $300,000

49. Which of the following is true about the Civil Rights Act of 1991?

A. It limits damage claims to attorney’s fees and costs.

B. It requires violators to pay punitive damages that specifically cover emotional pain and suffering.

C. It prohibits violators from paying compensatory damages.

D. It limits the maximum punitive damages allowed, depending on the size of the organization.

E. It limits the maximum punitive damages to $50,000 for all organizations even if the discrimination was intentional.

50. Lucas Johnson, an employee with the U.S. postal services was deployed to Afghanistan, to serve in the U.S. army for two years. After the completion of his military duties, he reassumed work at the post office. He was reemployed at a higher status and provided a higher compensation package. Which of the following legislations was used to help Lucas return to reemployment on such favorable terms?

A. GINA

B. USERRA

C. ADA

D. ADEA

E. OSH Act

51. Under Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994, employers must reemploy workers who left jobs to fulfill military duties for up to _____ years.

A. five

B. eight

C. eleven

D. seven

E. ten

52. An employee leaves an organization for three years to fulfill military duties. Which of the following observations is true of the employer’s obligation to reemploy the worker under the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act?

A. The employer is not obligated to reemploy the worker.

B. The employer must reemploy the worker with the same seniority and status.

C. The employer must reemploy the worker but is exempted from providing him any fringe benefits or retirement benefits.

D. The employer should implement an early-retirement incentive program for the employee.

E. The employer must reemploy the employee with a lower pay scale to compensate for the loss of his absence.

53. Which of the following legislations requires the federal government to base all its employment policies on merit and fitness?

A. The Thirteenth Amendment to the Constitution

B. Executive Order 11478

C. Civil Rights Act of 1866

D. Civil Rights Act of 1871

E. Rehabilitation Act of 1973

54. An individual wishing to file a complaint with the EEOC or a similar state agency must file the complaint within _____ days of the incident.

A. 30

B. 14

C. 360

D. 7

E. 180

55. After filing a discrimination complaint with the EEOC or other governmental agency, how long does an individual have to wait to sue in federal court?

A. 30 days

B. 60 days

C. 10 days

D. 20 days

E. 40 days

56. _____ refers to an agreement between the EEOC and an organization that the organization will cease certain discriminatory practices and possibly institute additional affirmative-action practices to rectify its history of discrimination.

A. Trust agreement

B. Good faith bargaining

C. Consent decree

D. Letter of indemnity

E. Judicial estoppel

57. _____ is the set of guidelines issued by the EEOC and other agencies to identify how an organization should establish a recruitment process that is free and fair.

A. Uniform Commercial Code

B. Equal Opportunity Legislation and Policy

C. Code of Federal Regulations

D. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures

E. EEO-1 Report

58. Which of the following bodies is responsible for enforcing the executive orders that cover companies doing business with the federal government?

A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

B. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health

C. Office of Federal Contract Compliance Procedures

D. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

E. Federal Department of Employment and Workplace Relations

59. Which of the following refers to a comparison of the race, sex, and ethnic composition of the employer’s workforce with that of the available labor supply?

A. Content analysis

B. Job analysis

C. SWOT analysis

D. Utilization analysis

E. Applied behavior analysis

60. _____ refer(s) to a plan identifying the ways in which for how the organization will meet its diversity goals.

A. Action steps

B. Utilization analysis

C. Diversification

D. Affirmative action

E. Disparate impact

61. Differing conduct toward individuals, where the differences are clearly based on the individuals’ race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, or disability status is termed as _____.

A. disparate impact

B. affirmative action

C. disparate treatment

D. reasonable accommodation

E. reverse discrimination

62. Disparate treatment could be legal if the discrimination _____.

A. is practiced to increase efficiency

B. is performed by a governmental organization

C. is performed by a private employer

D. is intended to reduce affirmative action

E. is categorized as a bona fide occupational qualification

63. In which of the following instances is disparate treatment considered legal?

A. In a particular retail outlet, male workers are employed to handle the sales.

B. In an electrical company, male workers are exclusively employed to work as electricians.

C. In a vehicle manufacturing company, male workers are exclusively employed in all departments.

D. In a certain shopping mall, female workers are exclusively employed to clean the ladies restroom.

E. In a particular hospital, only female nurses are appointed.

64. A bona fide occupational qualification _____.

A. is considered illegal by the court

B. is a necessary qualification for the job

C. is strictly prohibited by organizations

D. is a preferred qualification for the job

E. is used to deem disparate treatment illegal

65. _____ refers to a condition in which employment practices are seemingly neutral yet disproportionately exclude a protected group from employment opportunities.

A. Disparate impact

B. Disparate treatment

C. Corrective action

D. Affirmative action

E. Reasonable accommodation

66. Which one of the following cases would most likely be filed under the theory of disparate impact?

A. Majority of the applicants with high test scores are rejected due to an affirmative action plan.

B. A majority applicant is rejected on the grounds that the company only hires individuals from the minority group.

C. Minority applicants are being disproportionately rejected relative to majority applicants by a paper-and-pencil test.

D. A minority employee is fired for testifying in a discrimination suit filed against an employer.

E. At a particular organization, employees belonging to the minority group are given more privileges and benefits compared to employees belonging to the majority group.

67. A vehicle manufacturing company decides to hire 35 employees for its new servicing branch located in Texas. A total of 90 eligible applicants apply for the job of which 50 are Americans and 40 are African-Americans. Assuming that the company decides to hire 25 Americans and 10 African-Americans, what can be inferred using the four-fifths rule?

A. 0.5<0.8, this indicates that there is no evidence of discrimination. B. 2>0.8, this indicates that there is evidence of discrimination.

C. The hiring rate for African-Americans is equal to four-fifth the hiring rate of Americans; hence there is no evidence of discrimination.

D. 0.5<0.8, this indicates that there is evidence of discrimination. E. 2>0.8, this indicates that there is no evidence of discrimination.

68. The ratio of the hiring rate of a minority group to the hiring rate of a majority group is given below. Which of these ratios provide evidence for discrimination?

A. 1.0

B. 0.8

C. 1.5

D. 2.0

E. 0.9

69. Identify the type of case where most of the debate focuses on discriminatory consequences and the plaintiff need not prove the employer’s intent to discriminate.

A. Disparate impact

B. Disparate treatment

C. Reasonable accommodation

D. Affirmative action

E. Corrective action

70. Which of the following actions of employers can result in reverse discrimination?

A. Affirmative action

B. Reasonable accommodation

C. Disparate treatment

D. Retaliation

E. Disparate impact

71. Which of the following refers to an employer’s obligation to do something to enable an otherwise qualified person to perform a job?

A. Reverse discrimination

B. Reasonable accommodation

C. Disparate impact

D. Adverse action

E. Reverse discrimination

72. Which of the following statements is true of reasonable accommodation?

A. Reasonable accommodation is the same as reverse discrimination.

B. Reasonable accommodation exclusively compensates for poor educational background that hampers the progress of employees.

C. Reasonable accommodation is typically provided in situations involving individuals with disabilities or different religious needs.

D. Reasonable accommodation is provided on a homogeneous basis without the provisions being tailored to the individual needs of employees.

E. Reasonable accommodation is provided by the organization even if the requisite changes create undue hardship on the organization.

73. Nathan Williams, a blind man in his early twenties, was recently appointed as a radio jockey at the local radio station in Florida. He was given permission by his manager to bring his guide dog to work. In this instance, Nathan’s employer makes a _____.

A. disparate impact

B. disparate treatment

C. reverse discrimination

D. reasonable accommodation

E. undue hardship

74. Which of the following is NOT regarded as reasonable accommodation?

A. A firm modifies its examinations and selection procedures to enable applicants of the minority community to fare better.

B. A software firm changes its work schedule to accommodate employees of certain religious faiths.

C. An employee is granted leave on a certain date to perform religious activities.

D. A medium-sized firm changes a job assignment so that an employee with disability can work with ease.

E. A small firm changes the design and structure of the building to allow access to wheelchairs.

75. Which of the following is true about avoiding discrimination?

A. A bona fide occupational qualification is a merely preferred qualification for performing a job.

B. Proving disparate impact in court requires showing the employer’s intent.

C. Proving disparate treatment in court does not require the plaintiff showing the employer’s intent.

D. Reasonable accommodation is provided subject to the condition of undue hardship.

E. If the four-fifths rule is satisfied, substantial evidence of discrimination exists.

76. Sexual harassment refers to _____.

A. unwelcome sexual advances

B. discrimination based on gender

C. preferential treatment for a particular sex

D. undue benefits provided to males

E. reasonable accommodation based on gender

77. When an individual is promised a positive outcome for submission to sex, or threatened with a negative outcome for failure to submit to sex, this is referred to as _____.

A. adverse impact

B. disparate impact

C. reverse discrimination

D. undue hardship

E. quid pro quo harassment

78. Which of the following is true of quid pro quo harassment?

A. It involves mocking an individual’s sexual orientation.

B. It refers to an individual gaining benefit in return for a sexual favor.

C. It involves making hiring decisions based on the gender of the applicant.

D. It involves harassment against people based exclusively on the factor of age.

E. It provides preferential treatment for the minority gender at the workplace.

79. A male employee, over the objections of his female colleagues, continues to display a highly suggestive calendar containing indecent pictures within his office. This is an example of _____.

A. corrective action

B. affirmative action

C. reverse discrimination

D. sexual harassment

E. undue hardship

80. Which of the following is the most comprehensive U.S. law regarding worker safety?

A. Thirteenth amendment

B. Fourteenth amendment

C. OSH Act

D. Rehabilitation Act of 1973

E. Civil Rights Act of 1991

81. Under the _____, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration is responsible for inspecting employers, applying safety and health standards, and levying fines for violation.

A. Department of Health

B. Department of Commerce

C. Department of Trade

D. Department of Labor

E. Department of Development

82. Which of the following is responsible for conducting research to determine the criteria for specific operations or occupations and for training employers to comply with the OSH Act?

A. Department of Health

B. Department of Commerce

C. Department of Trade

D. Department of Labor

E. Department of Development

83. Martin Smiths works for a small chemical manufacturing company for the past ten years. Off late he and the other workers have developed minor respiratory problems. They confronted the management demanding proper ventilation at the factory as inhaling the chemical fumes continuously could prove fatal. When the management did not respond to their demands, they threatened to sue the company under the _____.

A. OSH Act

B. DINA

C. Title VII of CRA

D. ADA

E. ADEA

84. Which of the following is true about the OSH Act?

A. It provides employers with the right to conceal information on the substances that could be dangerous to an employee’s health.

B. It prohibits employees from having a representative present during the inspection.

C. It provides employers with the right to fire employees who request for an OSH inspection of the work site.

D. It emphasizes on keeping company records regarding exposure to hazards confidential.

E. It provides employees with the right to have employer violations posted at the work site.

85. Under OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard, organizations must have _____ for chemicals that employees are exposed to.

A. EEOC 1 forms

B. white papers

C. material safety data sheets

D. standard operating protocols

E. action reports

86. Which of the following is true about enforcement of the OSH Act?

A. In the closing conference, all the findings of the inspection are kept confidential with the officers.

B. OSHA compliance officers do not entertain any kind of input or complaints from the employees during the inspection.

C. OSHA compliance officers notify the employers a month in advance before the inspection.

D. The OSHA compliance officer will seek a restraining order from the U.S. District Court, even if the inspection reveals that the problem is minor.

E. If an OSHA violation results in citations, the employer must post each citation in a prominent place near the location of the violation.

87. Which of the following employees will NOT be covered under OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standards?

A. A technician who services copy machines for the most part of the day

B. A receptionist who occasionally changes the toner in the copier machine

C. A production engineer who manufactures car batteries

D. A healthcare worker who is exposed to latex and disinfectants

E. A lab technician who has to work with chemicals everyday

88. Which of the following techniques breaks down a job into basic elements to rate them for potential for harm or injury?

A. Job hazard analysis technique

B. Utilization analysis

C. Technique of operations review

D. Action plan analysis

E. Diversity plan

89. Which of the following methods is useful in promoting safety by determining which specific element of a job led to a past accident?

A. Reasonable accommodation

B. Affirmation action

C. Technic of operations review

D. Job hazard analysis technique

E. Utilization analysis

90. After a large fire accident at Hilson Mills, the OSHA constituted a board of inspectors who were working to ensure the safety of the employees in the future. This board began its program by calling all the employees involved in the recent fire accident and asked them what had caused the accident. Once each individual employee had put forth his views, the employees were asked to discuss amongst themselves to determine the single systemic failure that caused the fire. Which of the following methods is being used by the OSHA in studying the recent fire accident at Hilson Mills?

A. Operations cycle review

B. Standard protocol review

C. Technic of operations review

D. Job hazard analysis technique

E. Utilization analysis

91. Discuss the responsibilities of the three branches of the U.S. government in establishing and enforcing employment-related laws.

92. What are the amendments to U. S. Constitution that have implications for human resources management? Explain their impact.

93. What are the executive orders that directly impact human resources management? Explain their impact.

94. What is affirmative action? Do you think this would lead to reverse discrimination? Explain your answer.

95. Discuss the major responsibilities of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.

96. Distinguish between disparate treatment and disparate impact.

97. Define sexual harassment.

98. What are the rights granted to employees under the OSH Act?

99. Discuss the four major components of an OSHA inspection.

100. Explain the methods for identifying and communicating job hazards.

4
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Work flow design is the process of analyzing the tasks necessary for the production of a product or service.

True False

2. Work processes are the activities that a work unit’s members engage in to produce a given output.

True False

3. Jobs that involve teamwork or broad responsibility tend to require a structure based on functions.

True False

4. Job analysis can only be performed by certified external analysts of the U.S. Department of Labor.

True False

5. The tasks, duties, and responsibilities (TDRs) of a job are non-observable actions.

True False

6. All job descriptions within an organization should follow the same format.

True False

7. Ability is defined as a general enduring capability that an individual possesses.

True False

8. Incumbents are the best source of information for a job analysis.

True False

9. The Occupational Information Network relies on fixed job titles and narrow task descriptions to describe the occupational requirements.

True False

10. The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is meant to be completed by job incumbents.

True False

11. The Fleishman Job Analysis System asks subject-matter experts to evaluate a job in terms of the abilities required to perform the job.

True False

12. The expanded use of “project-based” organizational structures has reduced the need for analysis of work flows.

True False

13. Jobs that have survived the downsizing of recession tend to have a narrower scope of responsibilities coupled with increased supervision.

True False

14. Job design is the process of defining how work will be performed and what tasks will be required in a given job.

True False

15. Applying industrial engineering to a job essentially increases its complexity.

True False

16. Industrial engineering provides the best way to motivate employees by adding meaning to their jobs.

True False

17. In the Job Characteristics Model, task significance defines the degree to which a job requires completing a “whole” piece of work from beginning to end.

True False

18. Job extension is defined as moving employees among several different jobs without changing the nature of the jobs the employee handles.

True False

19. According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, individuals are motivated more by the extrinsic aspects of work when compared to the intrinsic rewards.

True False

20. Job sharing is a work option in which several relatively simple jobs are combined to form a job with a wider range of tasks.

True False

21. Joe has opted for a schedule where he works 40 hours over four days instead of working eight hours a day for five days, and gets a three-day off over the weekend. Joe’s schedule can be termed a compressed workweek.

True False

22. A telework arrangement is easiest to implement for manufacturing workers.

True False

23. The primary goal of ergonomics is to reduce the information-processing requirements of a job.

True False

24. OSHA’s role in ergonomics in occupational settings is restricted to setting guidelines and inspecting instances of violation.

True False

25. One method to simplify a job’s mental demands is to limit the amount of memorization required for the job.

True False

26. The process of analyzing the tasks necessary for the production of a product or service is termed as _____.

A. ergonomics

B. work flow design

C. utilization analysis

D. industrial engineering

E. break-even analysis

27. In the context of work flow design, a position is _____.

A. the set of duties performed by a person

B. a set of related duties fulfilled by many employees

C. an aggregate of similar jobs

D. the set of skills and abilities that is required of a person in a job

E. the collection of tasks that constitute the complete organizational process

28. Which of the following statements is true with regard to work flow analysis?

A. Information cannot be considered to be an input as it is not tangible.

B. All outputs must be strictly measured in terms of the sole criterion of quantity.

C. Quality standards are not a key criterion in the process of work flow analysis.

D. Outputs may be tangible or intangible products of different work processes.

E. Inputs and outputs are the two stages that represent the complete work flow cycle.

29. _____ are the products of any work unit.

A. Outputs

B. Inputs

C. Tasks

D. Jobs

E. Processes

30. _____ are the activities that a team’s members engage in to produce a given output.

A. Work processes

B. Task identities

C. Group dynamics

D. Job analyses

E. Ergonomic activities

31. Once the outputs are identified, the next step in a work flow analysis involves _____.

A. identifying the materials needed to generate the output

B. determining the human resource requirements for production

C. examining the work processes used to generate those outputs

D. taking an inventory of the special equipment, facilities, and systems needed for production

E. estimating the data and information needed by the work unit

32. The final stage in work flow analysis is to identify the _____.

A. tangible outputs of a particular work unit

B. operating procedures to be applied in production

C. work processes used to generate the outputs of the work unit

D. inputs used in the development of the work unit’s product

E. market forces of demand and supply for the outputs

33. In the context of a work flow analysis, materials, equipment, and human resources needed to perform the tasks collectively constitute the _____.

A. outputs

B. jobs

C. work processes

D. operating procedures

E. inputs

34. What is the result of an organization structure that is strongly based on function?

A. Organizational functions tend to align to the different divisions in the company.

B. Jobs tend to involve teamwork or broad responsibility.

C. Focus tends to be primarily on products or customer groups.

D. Workers tend to work alone at highly specialized jobs.

E. Decision-making tends to be highly decentralized.

35. The process of getting detailed information about jobs is known as _____.

A. job analysis

B. job definition

C. job training

D. job swapping

E. job rotation

36. Which of the following refers to a list of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that a job entails?

A. job evaluation

B. job description

C. utilization analysis

D. conjoint analysis

E. job standardization.

37. Job descriptions generally contain all of the following components EXCEPT _____.

A. the job title

B. a list of essential duties

C. a brief description of the responsibilities

D. the details of pay and benefits attached to the job

E. the details of the tasks involved

38. Which of the following is an appropriate course of action while formulating job descriptions?

A. Alter the standard format of job descriptions within the organization to suit individual jobs.

B. Prohibit using the phrase “and other duties as requested” in job descriptions because it leads to ambiguity.

C. Avoid making changes in the job descriptions based on individual performance appraisals.

D. Prepare a new job description whenever a new job is created in the organization.

E. Once standardized and created, a job description must not be changed.

39. A _____ is a list of the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) that an individual must have to perform a particular job.

A. job rotation

B. job definition

C. job evaluation

D. job scope

E. job specification

40. Job specifications differ from job descriptions in that job specifications primarily describe:

A. the list of the tasks and responsibilities that the job entails.

B. the observable actions that comprise the various job demands.

C. the reporting relationships within the division which includes the job.

D. the functional needs of the position under study.

E. the qualities a person performing the job must possess.

41. Carla Warne is an HR executive looking for a new job. She comes across an advertisement in a newspaper seeking applications for the post of an HR manager. The advertisement exclusively highlights requirements such as strong communication skills, excellent teamwork, and leadership skills. These requirements constitute the _____.

A. Knowledge

B. Personality traits

C. Skill

D. Responsibility

E. Ability

42. Skill is defined as _____.

A. the past experience a person has in performing similar jobs

B. the factual or procedural information that is necessary for successfully performing a task

C. an individual’s level of proficiency at performing a particular task

D. the personality traits such as someone’s persistence or motivation to achieve

E. the tangible aspects of an employee’s abilities like licenses or certifications

43. _____ refers to factual or procedural information that is necessary for successfully performing a task.

A. Knowledge

B. Attitude

C. Experience

D. Personality

E. Outlook

44. Which of the following is true about knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) that are required for a job?

A. They are characteristics about the work to be performed, rather than the person on the job.

B. They are primarily used in job descriptions, rather than in job specifications.

C. They play an important role in interviews and selection decisions.

D. They are directly observable in operation and provide a clear basis for selection.

E. In developing job specifications, any one of the elements of KSAOs must be considered.

45. Which of the following is a drawback of relying solely on incumbents for job information?

A. They lack in-depth knowledge of the tasks and duties of the job.

B. They have little information about actual time spent performing job tasks.

C. They may have an incentive to exaggerate what they do.

D. They are less accurate in reporting safety-related risk factors.

E. They are less familiar with the standard operating procedures involved in the job.

46. For analyzing technical skill levels, the best source for job information may be ____, who have vast experience rating a wide range of jobs.

A. HR executives

B. incumbents

C. supervisors

D. line managers

E. external job analysts

47. In the 1930s, the U.S. Department of Labor created the _____ as a vehicle for helping the new public employment system link the demand for skills and the supply of skills in the U.S. workforce.

A. Career Development Facilitator (CDF)

B. Dictionary of Occupational Titles (DOT)

C. Occupational Information Network (O * NET)

D. Standard Occupational Classification (SOC)

E. Selected Characteristics of Occupations (SCO)

48. Which of the following is true of O*NET?

A. It provides listings of fixed job titles and narrow task descriptions.

B. It uses a common language that generalizes across jobs to describe the abilities, work styles, work activities, and work context required for various occupations.

C. It represents the first attempt made by the U.S. Department of Labor to match the demand and supply of labor.

D. It uses a popular Internet-based software platform to provide information about the availability of qualified labor for governmental professions only.

E. It was created by the U.S. Department of Labor in the 1930s as a vehicle for helping the new public employment system link the demand and the supply of skills in the U.S. workforce.

49. The _____ Questionnaire is a standardized job analysis questionnaire containing 194 questions about work behaviors, work conditions, and job characteristics that apply to a wide variety of jobs.

A. Utilization Analysis

B. Fleishman Job Analysis

C. Work Flow Design

D. Conjoint Analysis

E. Position Analysis

50. Which of the following is true of the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ)?

A. It considers only the inputs of a work process, ignoring the outputs.

B. PAQ reports provide concrete recommendations useful for writing job descriptions or redesigning jobs.

C. PAQ ratings cannot be used to compare dissimilar jobs.

D. The descriptions in the PAQ reports are very clear and specific.

E. The PAQ is meant to be completed only by job analysts trained in this method.

51. Which of the following job analysis methods requires subject-matter experts to evaluate a job in terms of abilities required to perform the job?

A. Work Sampling Technique

B. Participatory Observation Technique

C. Fleishman Job Analysis System

D. Position Analysis Questionnaire

E. Conjoint Analysis Technique

52. To gather information about worker requirements, the Fleishman Job Analysis System typically asks _____ to evaluate a job in terms of the abilities required to perform the job.

A. subject-matter experts

B. supervisors

C. HR specialists

D. external analysts

E. the top management

53. A limitation in using the PAQ is that it _____.

A. applies exclusively to similar job profiles

B. measures only the inputs of a work process

C. fails to provide computerized reports

D. requires incumbents to spend time filling the questionnaires

E. results in abstract reports that are of limited use

54. Which of the following HR activities is similar to analyzing a job that does not yet exist?

A. Human resource planning

B. Career development

C. Job evaluation

D. Work redesign

E. Selection

55. _____ involves assessing the relative dollar value of each job to the organization in order to set up fair pay structures.

A. Job evaluation

B. Career planning

C. Training

D. Performance appraisal

E. Job rotation

56. Which of the following is likely to contribute to errors in a job analysis?

A. Use of multiple analysis methods to obtain a detailed job analysis.

B. Inputs from multiple sources like incumbents and supervisors.

C. Fixed and unchanging job descriptions for various jobs.

D. Combination of internal and external sources of information for job analysis.

E. Creation of comprehensive and detailed job description.

57. Which of the following best defines competency?

A. It is the set of duties performed by a particular team.

B. It is the list of tasks, duties, and responsibilities (TDRs) that a particular job entails.

C. It is the set of related duties for accomplishing work.

D. It is the activity that a work unit’s members engage in to produce a given output.

E. It is an area of personal capability that enables employees to perform successfully.

58. A(n) _____ is an area of personal capability that enables employees to perform their work successfully.

A. competency

B. entity

C. identity

D. duty

E. opportunity

59. The process of defining how work will be performed and what tasks will be required in a given job is known as _____.

A. job rotation

B. job evaluation

C. job design

D. job enrichment

E. job extension

60. The industrial engineering approach is most likely to emphasize _____.

A. elaborate work arrangements and reporting requirements

B. streamlining jobs to make them simpler, efficient, and automatic

C. designing jobs in such a way that they require minimal specialization

D. exploring new and diverse ways of doing the same job

E. creating complex and challenging jobs that require innovative employees

61. Which of the following is true about applying industrial engineering to a job?

A. It increases the complexity of the work.

B. It eliminates the need for specialization in the job.

C. It makes jobs less specialized and less repetitive.

D. It provides measurable and practical benefits.

E. It represents the best way to add meaningfulness to jobs.

62. Philip Matteo, a regional branch manager for a leading automobile company in the U.S., decides to design a manufacturing job based on the principles of industrial engineering. Following its successful implementation which of the following outcomes should he expect?

A. Increased efficiency

B. Increased complexity

C. Decreased repetitiveness

D. Increased skill requirements

E. Decreased specialization

63. Which of the following models was developed by Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham to describe ways to make jobs more motivating?

A. The Cognitive Dissonance Model

B. The Situational Leadership Model

C. The Job Characteristics Model

D. The Push and Pull Model

E. The Motivation-Hygiene Model

64. In the Job Characteristics Model, task identity is defined as the _____.

A. extent to which a job requires a variety of skills to carry out the tasks involved

B. degree to which the job allows an individual to make decisions about the way the work will be carried out

C. the extent to which a person receives clear information about performance effectiveness from the work itself

D. degree to which a job requires completing a “whole” piece of work from beginning to end

E. extent to which the job has an important impact on the lives of other people

65. Within the Job Characteristics Model, _____ refers to the job characteristic that reflects the degree to which the job allows an individual to make decisions about the way the work is carried out.

A. task knowledge

B. task ability

C. skill variety

D. autonomy

E. feedback

66. In terms of the Job Characteristics Model, feedback refers to the extent to which _____.

A. a job requires a variety of skills to carry out the tasks involved in the job and its duties

B. employees are given the authority to make decisions

C. performance appraisals are perceived as transparent and fair by employees

D. a job requires a variety of skills to carry out the tasks involved

E. a person receives clear information about performance effectiveness from the work itself

67. In which of the following scenarios will workers be less motivated to perform the job?

A. When the job requires a variety of skills to be performed

B. When the job requires completing the whole piece of work from beginning to end

C. When the job has minimal impact on the lives of other people

D. When the job allows individuals to take autonomous decisions about the job

E. When a person receives clear information about performance effectiveness from the work itself

68. Which of the following is the objective of job enlargement?

A. To make jobs less repetitive and more interesting

B. To increase efficiency by identifying one best way to perform a job

C. To decrease the burden of decision-making responsibilities for employees

D. To assess the relative dollar value of each job to the organization

E. To decrease the impact the job has on the lives of other people

69. Thought-Creations Inc., a publishing company in Manhattan conducted a survey on employee satisfaction. The results indicated that a majority of its support staff considered their jobs to be monotonous. In order to make the requisite change, the management decided to combine the job duties of assistants, typists, and file clerks into a single job that requires all three kinds of work. Which of the following techniques of job design did this move constitute?

A. Job rotation

B. Job review

C. Job enrichment

D. Job evaluation

E. Job extension

70. Which of the following arrangements would qualify as job rotation?

A. A receptionist is required to perform the jobs of file clerk and typist.

B. Training housekeeping staff in front office functions through periods of alternating work arrangements.

C. Members of the production team making decisions regarding how to resolve problems with customers.

D. A manager participating in a meeting while on vacation with his family.

E. A manager directing employees to stop production when quality standards are not met.

71. Which of the following job design techniques involving the addition of decision-making authorities to a job is credited to Frederick Herzberg?

A. Job extension

B. Job rotation

C. Job enrichment

D. Job enlargement

E. Job sharing

72. Job enrichment differs from job rotation in that job enrichment:

A. empowers workers by adding more decision-making authority to their jobs.

B. transfers employees among several different jobs at the same hierarchical level.

C. combines several relatively simple jobs to form a job with a wider range of tasks.

D. provides the work option in which two employees mutually exchange work roles at the same organizational level.

E. assesses of the relative dollar value of each job to the organization.

73. According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, which of the following factors would motivate individuals the most?

A. Meaningfulness of a job

B. Fringe benefits in the job

C. Share in company stock

D. Salary and allowances

E. Periodic bonuses

74. Which of the following steps can an organization take to enrich manufacturing jobs for its employees?

A. Divide tasks among employees in great detail.

B. Carry out time-and-motion studies to identify one best way to perform a job.

C. Make the tasks repetitive and simple to avoid errors.

D. Give employees more authority to manage the production process.

E. Encourage job specialization and division of labor.

75. Carl Borden, the manager of an electronics store in California, gives his staff the authority to resolve customer complaints. He lets the staff decide whether to issue refunds or replace merchandise in case of consumer grievances. Which of the following job design techniques does Carl implement in his store?

A. Job sharing

B. Cross training

C. Job rotation

D. Job enrichment

E. Job evaluation

76. Which of the following is true of self-managing work teams?

A. Team members’ job duties are narrowly defined.

B. Team members usually share work assignments.

C. Team members’ joint responsibilities are minimal.

D. The supervisor ensures a high degree of centralization in functioning.

E. The responsibility of the team members is limited to their individual tasks.

77. Tech-Marketing Inc., an advertising firm located in Ohio, requires its employees to be at work between the hours of 10:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m. This work rule allows employees to work additional hours before or after the time period in order to work the full day. Identify the job design method implemented at Tech-Marketing.

A. Zero-hour contract

B. Flextime

C. Compressed workweek

D. Telework

E. Retroactive overtime

78. Which of the following best describes job sharing?

A. A work option in which two part-time employees carry out the tasks associated with a single job.

B. Allowing full-time employees to choose start and end times within the guidelines specified by the organization.

C. Empowering individual workers by adding more opportunities for specialization in their current job duties.

D. Enlarging jobs by combining several relatively simple jobs to form a job with a wider range of tasks.

E. Enlarging jobs by moving employees among several different jobs.

79. Helen Taylor works 10 hours a day for 4 days a week, while her colleagues work 8 hours a day for 5 days a week. Helen is utilizing a flexible work schedule option known as _____.

A. the zero-hour contract

B. the compressed workweek

C. the flexible workweek

D. retroactive overtime

E. telework

80. Which of the following would qualify as a compressed workweek?

A. Employees are required to be at work from 10:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m. and can choose additional hours before/after this period.

B. Two part-time employees work in different shifts and share the tasks of a specific job.

C. Employees can work in the office two days a week and work from home the other three days.

D. Employees can choose to work away from a centrally located work area.

E. Employees are permitted to work 10 hours a day, Monday through Thursday.

81. _____ refers to the option given to employees to work away from a centrally located office.

A. Zero-hour contract

B. Telework

C. Retroactive overtime

D. Flextime

E. Compressed workweek

82. Which of the following is true about telework?

A. Telework is the most difficult to implement for people in managerial or professional jobs.

B. A telework arrangement is the easiest to set up for manufacturing workers.

C. Telecommuting supports the strategy of corporate social responsibility by reducing the employee’s need to commute by vehicles.

D. Telework arrangements are mandatorily restricted to employees who are disabled or need to be available for children or elderly relatives.

E. Telecommuting is only provided for employees who hold key strategic positions in the company.

83. A telework arrangement is generally difficult to set up for _____.

A. editors

B. software programmers

C. manufacturing workers

D. graphic designers

E. accountants

84. Which of the following best describes ergonomics?

A. The study of the interface between individuals’ physiology and the characteristics of the physical work environment.

B. The study of jobs to find the simplest way to structure work in order to maximize efficiency.

C. The study of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities for employees in a new job.

D. The study of the knowledge, skills, and abilities of the job.

E. The study of the relationship between intrinsic rewards and employee motivation in the context of human resource management.

85. What is the goal of ergonomics?

A. Empowering the employees by giving them decision-making authority

B. Reducing the physical strain on employees performing the job

C. Reducing the number of reporting relationships in the job

D. Enlarging jobs by moving employees among several different jobs

E. Increasing the job’s mental demands

86. The manager of a local grocery store places a short conveyor belt that allows customers to place items on it prior to billing. This saves the cashier from the physical strain of bending forward and reaching into carts to retrieve the items. This change is congruent with the _____ approach to job design.

A. telecommuting

B. job enrichment

C. ergonomics

D. flextime

E. job sharing

87. Which of the following is NOT a strategy used by OSHA to increase ergonomic job design?

A. Issuing regulations and guidelines for industries

B. Directing ergonomic research along specific lines

C. Providing licenses to new companies only when they ensure the highest levels of ergonomically designed jobs

D. Enforcing violations of its requirement that employers protect employees from work-related hazards

E. Performing advisory functions in the area of ergonomic designing of occupational environments

88. Designing jobs that meet mental capabilities and limitations generally involves _____.

A. allowing employees to opt for a compressed workweek schedule

B. curbing autonomy and emphasizing error-free work

C. increasing the amount of reporting requirements and documentation

D. training employees to multi-task and self manage teams

E. reducing the information-processing requirements of a job

89. It can be most beneficial to simplify jobs where _____.

A. the employees seek challenges and new demands

B. the costs of errors are severe

C. the scope for errors is minimal

D. the employees do not engage in multi-tasking

E. the information-processing requirements of the job are minimal

90. Which of the following is a way to simplify a job’s mental demands?

A. Enforcing stringent quality control standards

B. Training employees to multi-task between different job duties

C. Providing social-media tools to simplify information sharing

D. Providing comfortably designed office chairs

E. Enhancing the information processing functions of the job

91. Outline the steps in a work flow analysis.

92. Describe the relationship between work flow design and an organization’s structure.

93. Contrast and compare KSOAs and TDRs as they relate to different processes of job analysis.

94. Briefly describe the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ). What the advantages and disadvantages of using the PAQ as source of job information?

95. Job analysis is so important to HR managers that it has been called the building block of everything that personnel do. Describe the instances that demonstrate the use of job analysis information in various HR activities.

96. Summarize recent trends in job analysis.

97. What method can an organization employ to design jobs with a view of maximizing efficiency?

98. Describe self-managing work teams. Also suggest steps to make such teams more effective.

99. How does The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) encourage organizations to adopt ergonomic job design?

100. Describe some ways in which organizations can simplify the mental demands of a job.

5
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. In human resource planning, forecasting is an intermediary step.

True False

2. Statistical models are used for forecasting labor demands because they are good at capturing “once-in-a-lifetime” changes.

True False

3. Leading indicators are objective measures that accurately predict future labor demand.

True False

4. A transitional matrix is a chart that lists job categories held in one period and shows the proportion of employees in each of those job categories in a future period.

True False

5. The second step in human resource planning is performance evaluation.

True False

6. The goals an organization sets in its human resource planning process should come directly from the analysis of its labor supply and demand.

True False

7. Downsizing can be used as an option for reducing surplus labor as it yields fast results.

True False

8. Work sharing is one of the options that can be used for avoiding labor shortage.

True False

9. The negative effect of downsizing would be low among firms that use performance-related pay incentives.

True False

10. Downsizing leads to a loss of talent.

True False

11. The most widespread methods for eliminating labor shortages are reducing work hours and endorsing early-retirement programs.

True False

12. The use of temporary workers might burden the organization with additional administrative tasks.

True False

13. If the person providing the service is a contractor and not an employee, the company is not supposed to directly supervise the worker.

True False

14. Contracting with another organization to perform a broad set of services is called outsourcing.

True False

15. To ensure success with an outsourcing strategy, companies should outsource work that requires tight security.

True False

16. Implementation that ties planning and recruiting to the organization’s strategy and to its efforts to develop employees becomes a complete program of talent management.

True False

17. The steps in a workforce utilization review are identical to the steps in the HR planning process.

True False

18. In general, all companies have to make decisions in three areas of recruiting: personnel policies, recruitment sources, and the characteristics and behavior of the recruiter.

True False

19. Personnel policies influence the kinds of job applicants an organization reaches.

True False

20. Recruitment sources affect the characteristics of both the vacancies and the applicants.

True False

21. Referrals are people who apply for a vacancy without prompting from the organization.

True False

22. Many of the people reading classified ads are either over- or underqualified for the position.

True False

23. Private employment agencies serve primarily the blue-collar workers, while public employment agencies mostly serve the white-collar workers.

True False

24. The recruiter affects the nature of both the job vacancy and the applicants generated.

True False

25. On the whole, research suggests that realistic job previews have a strong, consistent effect on minimizing employee turnover.

True False

26. The first step in the human resource planning process is:

A. forecasting.

B. goal setting.

C. program implementation.

D. program evaluation.

E. performance evaluation.

27. Which of the following is an advantage of statistical forecasting methods?

A. They are particularly useful in dynamic environments.

B. Under the right conditions, they provide predictions that are much more precise than judgmental methods.

C. They are particularly useful in predicting important events that have no historical precedent.

D. They are invariably better than the “best guesses” of experts.

E. They can be used to reduce dependence on secondary data for making forecasts and predictions.

28. Which of the following terms refers to objective measures that accurately predict future labor demand?

A. Performance indicators

B. Transitional matrices

C. Functional pointers

D. Coincident pointers

E. Leading indicators

29. Trend analysis refers to:

A. a pooling of the “best guesses,” or subjective judgments, of experts to predict labor demand and supply.

B. the use of subjective judgments to understand relationships among variables during fluctuating and unstable conditions.

C. a process that accurately predicts labor demand for the next year using leading indicators.

D. a comparison of the proportion of employees in protected groups with the proportion that each group represents in the relevant labor market.

E. a statistical method of forecasting that uses the proportion of employees in various job categories for making predictions.

30. Which of the following terms is a chart that lists job categories held in one period and shows the proportion of employees in each of those job categories in a future period?

A. Trend Analysis

B. Leading Indicator Method

C. Propensity Analysis

D. Transitional Matrix

E. Labor Bureau Statistics

31. Determining the internal labor supply calls for a detailed analysis of:

A. how many people are willing to work for the organization.

B. how many people are currently in various job categories.

C. the financial performance and profitability of the company.

D. the future vacancies that will be available in the company.

E. the compensation strategies and recruitment methods used by the company.

32. Questions such as “Where did people who were in each job category go?” and “Where did people now in each job category come from?” can be answered with the help of:

A. propensity analysis.

B. leading indicators.

C. trend analysis.

D. multiple regression.

E. a transitional matrix.

33. Planners need to combine statistical forecasts of labor supply with expert judgments because:

A. it would motivate the experts in the organization.

B. subjective judgments are always more reliable than historical data.

C. historical data may not always reliably indicate future trends.

D. statistical methods fail to account for historical trends.

E. statistical forecasts work well only in a dynamic environment.

34. In the human resource planning process, which of the following is the immediate next step of the forecasting step?

A. Goal setting and strategic planning

B. Evaluation and feedback

C. Program implementation

D. Program evaluation

E. Performance evaluation

35. The goals that are set in the human resource planning process should come directly from:

A. the mid-level managers.

B. the analysis of labor supply and demand.

C. the judgments and choices made by the technical experts in the organization.

D. the feedback provided by the organization’s customers.

E. the line workers at the grassroots level.

36. Why is hiring new employees for every labor shortage not preferable?

A. The process will lead to an artificial scarcity in the labor market.

B. It would lead to reduced organizational control over the workers and process.

C. Selecting new employees attracts too many discrimination law suits.

D. If the shortage becomes a surplus, the organization may have to lay off employees.

E. The process may result in reduced quality and may affect standardization.

37. Which of the following is a fast option that can be used to avoid a labor surplus with only a moderate amount of suffering caused to the employees?

A. Pay reductions

B. Transfers

C. Demotions

D. Early retirement

E. Retraining

38. Which of the following strategies could be used to avoid a labor shortage?

A. Reduced pay

B. Work sharing

C. Hiring freeze

D. Transfers

E. Retrained transfers

39. Which of the following is a strategy of avoiding a labor surplus where the amount of human suffering caused is high?

A. Retraining

B. Demotions

C. Hiring Freeze

D. Early Retirement

E. Natural Attrition

40. Which of the following is a strategy to avoid labor shortage where the results can be obtained fast?

A. Technological Innovation

B. Retrained Transfers

C. Turnover Reductions

D. Outsourcing

E. New External Hires

41. Which of the following options for reducing an expected labor surplus has the benefit of being a relatively fast solution, but has the disadvantage of being high in human suffering?

A. Hiring Freeze

B. Early Retirement

C. Retraining

D. Work Sharing

E. Downsizing

42. Which of the following options for avoiding an expected labor shortage has the benefit of being a relatively fast solution with high revocability?

A. Retrained Transfer

B. Turnover Reductions

C. New External Hires

D. Overtime

E. Technological Innovation

43. Core competency refers to:

A. contracting with another organization to perform a broad set of services.

B. the planned elimination of large numbers of personnel with the goal of enhancing the organization’s competitiveness.

C. the construction and application of statistical models that predict labor demand for the next year, given relatively objective statistics from the previous year.

D. a set of knowledge and skills that make the organization superior to competitors and create value for customers.

E. the attempts to determine the supply of and demand for various types of human resources within the organization.

44. Which of the following is true of downsizing?

A. Downsizing improves long-term organizational effectiveness.

B. The negative effect of downsizing is especially low among firms that engage in high-involvement work practices.

C. Downsizing often disrupts the social networks through which people are creative and flexible.

D. The negative impact of downsizing is especially low for those organizations that emphasize research and development.

E. Downsizing campaigns only eliminate people who are replaceable.

45. The primary reason organizations engage in downsizing is to:

A. attain larger profit margins.

B. promote future competitiveness.

C. bring in additional skills to the organization.

D. thwart unionizing efforts within a given facility.

E. strengthen the social networks in the organization.

46. Which of the following is a disadvantage of downsizing?

A. It cannot be used to reduce the number of managers.

B. It would result in reduced future competitiveness.

C. It cannot provide an immediate solution to labor surplus.

D. It hurts long-term organizational effectiveness.

E. It does not have an immediate effect on costs.

47. Which of the following is a reason why many of the downsizing efforts fail?

A. Surviving employees could become self-absorbed.

B. The company may become less competitive in the industry.

C. The overall costs incurred by the company may increase.

D. Governmental interference could cause problems.

E. Downsizing could result in decreased diversity.

48. Many problems with downsizing can be reduced by:

A. slashing jobs across the board.

B. allowing workers to choose a buyout package in exchange for leaving.

C. engaging in better human resources planning.

D. avoiding unionization in the organization.

E. laying off only the older workers in the organization.

49. A manufacturing company hit by a slump in demand is experiencing a labor surplus. The company expects the market to improve in six months and it does not want to layoff any of its employees. Which of the following strategies is an equitable way to handle this issue that results in spreading the burden more fairly?

A. Demotions

B. Outsourcing

C. Reduced work hours

D. Overtime

E. Employing temporary workers

50. Early-retirement programs:

A. are not a popular way to reduce labor surplus.

B. are very successful because most baby boomers want to retire.

C. work well for knowledge based jobs and services.

D. cause more human suffering than the other methods of labor reduction.

E. encourage lower-performing older workers to leave voluntarily.

51. A phased-retirement program refers to:

A. laying off older employees in small batches.

B. giving lucrative incentives to a large number of older employees to voluntarily retire.

C. reducing the number of hours older employees work as well as the cost of these employees.

D. giving older employees a certain time limit to voluntarily retire.

E. offering alternative work locations and work responsibilities to older employees.

52. The most widespread methods for eliminating labor shortages are:

A. outsourcing work and work sharing.

B. hiring temporary workers and outsourcing work.

C. retrained transfers and turnover reduction.

D. overtime and new external hires.

E. overtime and retrained transfers.

53. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using temporary and contract workers?

A. Revocability of this method is lesser compared to other methods of avoiding labor shortage.

B. These kinds of workers cannot be hired through an agency.

C. These methods are a relatively slow solution to labor shortage.

D. These workers tend to be relatively less committed to the organization.

E. These workers work well in key jobs but not in those jobs that supplement the permanent employees.

54. Which of the following is true of temporary workers?

A. Temporary employment involves higher costs.

B. Using temporary workers frees the employer from many administrative tasks.

C. Use of temporary workers is not suitable for small companies because extensive testing of the employees needs to be done before these companies get employees from an agency.

D. Most temporary workers need to be trained by the employers every time they join a new organization.

E. Temporary employment is not suitable for those employers who need to operate efficiently even when demand for their products changes rapidly.

55. Temporary employment is popular with employers because:

A. it gives them flexibility in operations.

B. it allows them to comply with the requirement of affirmative action imposed by the government.

C. the quality of work is usually far superior.

D. it is most effective for key customer service jobs.

E. the temporary workers are more committed to the organization.

56. Temporary employment:

A. is costlier compared to most other methods of overcoming labor shortage.

B. is not suitable when demand for the employers’ products changes rapidly.

C. is less flexible compared to the other methods of overcoming labor shortage.

D. it is most effective for key customer service jobs.

E. is not a popular method of overcoming labor shortage.

57. Which of the following observations is true of taking the services of independent contractors?

A. Core competencies can be effectively outsourced to contractors.

B. The company is not supposed to directly supervise the contractors.

C. It is a relatively slow process with low revocability.

D. The organization can achieve increased quality though the costs are more.

E. It provides an organization increased control over the operations.

58. Outsourcing refers to:

A. contracting with another organization to perform a broad set of services.

B. licensing another organization to perform an organization’s business in a different country.

C. using a temporary or contract employee to fill a single job vacancy.

D. buying the necessary raw materials needed to perform a business from external agencies.

E. moving operations away from the home location to bring about cost savings.

59. Which of the following is a challenge associated with outsourcing strategy?

A. Labor shortage

B. Increased cost

C. Quality-control problems

D. Lack of necessary technology

E. Diseconomies of scale

60. Hugh & Co., a manufacturer of widgets, has entered into a contract with a third party to perform a few functions of its supply chain management. Hugh & Co. can be said to be engaged in:

A. offshoring.

B. consolidation.

C. licensing.

D. merger.

E. outsourcing.

61. Which of the following guidelines should companies follow to achieve success with outsourcing agencies?

A. Concentrate mainly on the cost-savings, and not on the internal environment at the agency.

B. Primarily outsource work that is proprietary in nature.

C. Start by outsourcing a significant chunk of work with minimal monitoring.

D. Outsource work in areas that will promote growth.

E. Do not enter into an outsourcing agreement with a partner located in the same country.

62. A small company that manufactures special-order wood furniture has kept its employees busy on a 40-hours-a-week schedule for the past two years. The company just received the largest contract in its history from a Saudi Arabian company, opening offices in the area. The company does not expect repeat business. In order to complete the contract in the required one month, additional skilled labor is needed at short notice. Which of the following strategies is best suited to avoid this short-term labor shortage?

A. Retrained transfers

B. Overtime

C. Technological innovation

D. New external hires

E. Turnover reductions

63. Which of the following is an element in the final stage of human resources planning?

A. Estimating labor demand

B. Estimating labor supply

C. Estimating labor surplus/shortage

D. Strategic planning

E. Evaluating outcomes

64. In the context of HR planning, implementation that ties planning and recruiting to the organization’s strategy and to its efforts to develop employees becomes a complete program of:

A. reengineering.

B. total quality management.

C. benchmarking.

D. talent management.

E. workforce utilization.

65. Which of the following is a process used to determine whether there are any subgroups whose proportion in a given job category within a company is substantially different from their proportion in the relevant labor market?

A. Adverse Treatment Analysis

B. Workforce Utilization Review

C. Subgroup Reconciliation

D. Discrimination Analysis

E. Disparity Analysis

66. Which of the following methods is best suited to diagnose the underutilization of a certain minority group in an organization?

A. Workforce Utilization Review

B. Trend Analysis

C. Transitional Matrix

D. Yield Ratio

E. Capacity Utilization Analysis

67. Recruitment is defined as:

A. the process of screening a pool of applicants who have applied for a specific position.

B. the process of evaluating the performance of an employee.

C. the activities carried out to identify and attract potential employees.

D. the process of identifying the skills required for successfully performing an organizational role.

E. the process of determining the labor supply and labor demand in an organization.

68. The process of _____ creates a buffer between planning and the actual selection of new employees.

A. recruiting

B. HR plan evaluation

C. induction

D. outsourcing

E. training

69. _____ influence the kinds of job applicants an organization reaches.

A. Personnel policies

B. Recruitment sources

C. Characteristics of the recruiter

D. Financial sources

E. Operational policies

70. Which of the following aspects of recruitment is most likely to affect the nature of the positions that are vacant?

A. Recruitment sources

B. Personnel policies

C. Recruiter traits

D. Recruiter behavior

E. Applicant characteristics

71. Companies that use “lead-the-market” pay strategy:

A. would pay more than the current market wages for a job.

B. have a recruiting disadvantage.

C. would recruit lesser number of employees than needed and depend on overtime.

D. provide relatively better working conditions to employees compared to competitors.

E. usually have low pay, coupled with overtime and flex-time.

72. Which of the following is an employment principle which states that if there is no specific employment contract saying otherwise, the employer or employee may end an employment relationship at any time, regardless of cause?

A. Due-process

B. Employment flexibility

C. Rule of fair treatment

D. Psychological contract

E. Employment at will

73. _____ formally lay out the steps an employee may take to appeal an employer’s decision to terminate that employee.

A. Leading indicators

B. Psychological contracts

C. Implicit contracts

D. Due-process policies

E. Employment-at-will contracts

74. Organizational recruitment materials that emphasize due-process policies, rights of appeal, and grievance mechanisms send a message that:

A. the organization has many problems.

B. employee morale is low in the organization.

C. job security is high in the organization.

D. the organization has a vertical decision-making structure.

E. the organization does not value the employees in the organization.

75. The U.S. Army’s “Army Strong” campaign, designed to create a generally favorable impression of the Army as a good place to work in, is an example of:

A. general advertising.

B. image advertising.

C. saturation advertising.

D. proactive advertising.

E. adventure advertising.

76. Which of the following is an internal source of recruitment?

A. Employee Referrals

B. Direct Applicants

C. Employment Agencies

D. Job Postings

E. Personal Interviews

77. The process of communicating information about a job vacancy on company bulletin boards, in employee publications, on corporate intranets, and anywhere else the organization communicates with employees is referred to as:

A. job postings.

B. external hiring.

C. employment referral.

D. a workforce utilization review.

E. direct sourcing.

78. Which of the following is most likely to be an advantage of relying on internal recruitment sources?

A. They are likely to promote diversity in terms of race and sex.

B. They minimize the impact of political considerations in the hiring decision.

C. They are generally cheaper and faster than other means.

D. They expose the organization to new ideas or new ways of doing business.

E. They are well-suited to recruit specialized upper-level positions.

79. Which of the following is true of internal recruitment sources?

A. Research indicates that most organizational positions are filled internally.

B. Internal recruitment sources expose the organization to new ideas or new ways of doing business.

C. Internal recruiting minimizes the possibility of unrealistic employee expectations.

D. Employee referrals are the most common source for internal recruitment.

E. Internal sources are most appropriate for specialized upper-level positions.

80. Which of the following types of jobs would most likely force an organization to use external recruitment methods?

A. Technical positions

B. Business analyst positions

C. Supervisory positions

D. Entry-level positions

E. Middle-management positions

81. An applicant who applies for a vacancy without prompting from the organization is referred to as a(n):

A. direct applicant.

B. natural applicant.

C. internal applicant.

D. neutral applicant.

E. referred applicant.

82. _____ are people who apply for a vacancy because someone in the organization prompted them to do so.

A. Direct applicants

B. Natural applicants

C. Neutral applicants

D. Referrals

E. Internal applicants

83. Which of the following statements is true regarding referrals?

A. Referrals fall under the category of internal source of recruitment.

B. The use of referrals tends to increase the likelihood of exposing the organization to fresh viewpoints.

C. The use of referrals tends to promote nepotism.

D. Referrals cost much more than other formal recruiting efforts.

E. Referrals are the least preferred sources of new hires.

84. Most direct applicants to an organization have done some research and concluded there is enough fit between themselves and the vacant position to warrant submitting an application. This process is termed:

A. nepotism.

B. employee referral.

C. self-selection.

D. internal recruitment.

E. employment at will.

85. _____ is the practice of hiring relatives.

A. Localism

B. Nepotism

C. Structuralism

D. Voluntarism

E. Abstractionism

86. Executive search firms:

A. find new jobs almost exclusively for high-level, unemployed executives.

B. help organizations in on-campus recruiting.

C. help only entry-level and inexperienced employees to find jobs.

D. are agencies administered by the federal government or governmental organizations.

E. serve as a buffer, providing confidentiality between the employer and the recruit.

87. The most important source of recruits for entry-level professional and managerial vacancies is:

A. on-campus interviewing.

B. public employment agencies.

C. advertisements in newspapers and magazines.

D. private employment agencies.

E. employee referrals.

88. In the context of evaluating the quality of a recruitment source, yield ratios express the:

A. output yielded by a new hire in relation to the cost of recruiting the new hire.

B. the dollar costs incurred per hire.

C. percentage of applicants who successfully move from one stage of the recruitment and selection process to the next.

D. quality of new hires by comparing the cost of training the new recruits to the cost of hiring them.

E. the percentage of applicants who complete one year in the organization after recruitment.

89. To compute _____, find the cost of using a particular recruitment source for a particular type of vacancy. Then divide that cost by the number of people hired to fill that type of vacancy.

A. cost per hire

B. yield ratio

C. return on investment

D. total cost of hiring

E. hiring conversion rate

90. Realistic job previews:

A. are proven to “inoculate” employees against the negative features of a job.

B. have a weak and inconsistent effect on turnover.

C. exaggerate the positive qualities of vacancies and downplay their negative qualities.

D. lead to unmet job expectations and high employee turnover.

E. are the most effective at helping organizations minimize turnover among new employees.

91. Sharon wants to apply for a job vacancy. She calls the recruiter who had advertised this vacancy to know more about the job. The recruiter gives some background information to Sharon about the positive and negative qualities of the job. Which of the following terms refers to the job information given by the recruiter?

A. Vacancy Analysis

B. Substantive Job Criticism

C. Pragmatic job survey

D. Realistic Job Preview

E. Role Examination

92. What is forecasting? Describe one method each for forecasting labor demand and supply.

93. What is the second step in human resource planning? Explain the significance of this step.

94. What is the primary reason organizations downsize? How do they meet this objective?

95. What are early-retirement programs? What is a phased-retirement program and what are its benefits?

96. What are the challenges associated with temporary workers and contract workers?

97. Outsourcing poses many challenges. Provide suggestions for employers to overcome these challenges.

98. Outline two personnel policies that are especially relevant to recruitment.

99. What are internal sources of recruitment? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using this source?

100. In terms of external sources of recruitment, who are direct applicants and referrals? Why are these two groups regarded as excellent sources of recruitment?

101. What characteristics and behaviors would you look for in your recruiters so as to increase the positive impact they have on job candidates?

6
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The process of selecting employees remains constant for all organizations and for all jobs.

True False

2. A reliable measurement generates consistent results.

True False

3. The degree to which a measure is free from random error refers to its validity.

True False

4. A predictive criterion-related validation strategy correlates job incumbents’ scores on a test with existing measures of their performance.

True False

5. Predictive validation is less time consuming and the easiest to administer.

True False

6. Content validation is most suitable for measuring abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership ability.

True False

7. Selection procedures that provide economic value greater than the cost of using them are said to have utility.

True False

8. Equal employment opportunity laws affect the kinds of information an organization may gather on application forms and in interviews.

True False

9. Under the ADA, when an employer makes hiring decisions, he is permitted to use employment physical exams that could reveal a psychological or physical disability.

True False

10. The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that employers obtain a candidate’s consent before downloading his/her résumé from an on-line job site.

True False

11. An application form can request information regarding an applicant’s marital status and race.

True False

12. Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the elements of a job description.

True False

13. Most organizations check references as soon as they receive the candidate’s application form.

True False

14. Aptitude tests measure a person’s existing knowledge and skills.

True False

15. Achievement tests assess how well a person can acquire skills and abilities

True False

16. Race norming refers to establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial groups.

True False

17. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 encourages the use of race norming as a selection tool.

True False

18. The results of a personality test are the most reliable.

True False

19. The Polygraph Act legalized the use of polygraph tests for employment screening in most organizations.

True False

20. In a nondirective interview, the interviewer asks questions from an established set of questions.

True False

21. In a behavior description interview, the interviewer asks the candidate how he or she handled a type of situation in the past.

True False

22. Interviewing is considered the most accurate basis for making a selection decision.

True False

23. Interviews are the least expensive method of employee selection.

True False

24. The multiple-hurdle model is based on a process of increasing the number of candidates at each stage of the selection process.

True False

25. Usually a supervisor makes the final employee selection decision.

True False

26. The process through which organizations make decisions about who will or will not be allowed to join the organization is referred to as _____.

A. recruitment

B. job analysis

C. forecasting

D. trend analysis

E. personnel selection

27. For most companies, the first step in the personnel selection process is _____.

A. verifying the applicants’ qualifications through reference and background checks

B. negotiating with the employee regarding salary and benefits

C. screening the applications to see who meet the basic requirements for the job

D. administering tests and reviewing work samples to rate the candidates’ abilities

E. inviting candidates with the best abilities to the organization for one or more interviews

28. At which stage in the selection process are supervisors and team members often involved?

A. Administering tests

B. Receiving résumés from various sources

C. Screening applications

D. Reference and background checks

E. Interviewing candidates

29. The _____ of a type of measurement indicates how free that measurement is from random error.

A. reliability

B. validity

C. generalizability

D. utility

E. verifiability

30. What does a correlation coefficient of 0 indicate?

A. A perfect positive relationship

B. A perfect negative relationship

C. A partial correlation

D. No correlation

E. An indefinite correlation

31. A correlation coefficient of -1.0 between two sets of numbers indicates _____.

A. a complete lack of any correlation between the two sets

B. that when one set of numbers goes up, so does the other set

C. that when one set of numbers goes up, the other set goes down

D. a partial correlation between the two sets

E. an indefinite relationship between the two sets

32. A reliable test would be one for which scores by people with similar attributes have a correlation close to _____.

A. 1.0

B. 0

C. -1.0.

D. -10.0

E. ∞

33. The _____ of an employment test is indicated by the extent to which the test scores relate to the actual job performance.

A. reliability

B. validity

C. generalizability

D. utility

E. dependability

34. _____ validity is a measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation between test scores and job performance scores.

A. Criterion-related

B. Diagnostic

C. Content

D. Convergent

E. Construct

35. Which of the following is true about predictive validation?

A. It is the least effective method of measuring validity.

B. It uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and future performance.

C. It involves administering a test to people who currently hold a job and comparing their scores to existing measures of job performance.

D. It is the quickest and easiest method compared to other ways of measuring validity.

E. It permits an employees’ firsthand experience with the job to influence his performance in the test.

36. Predictive validation is more accurate than concurrent validation because _____.

A. the research administers tests to people who currently hold the job

B. test performance is influenced by firsthand experience with the job

C. the group is more likely to include people who perform poorly on the test

D. it is less time-consuming and relatively simple

E. test takers tend to be less motivated to do well on the tests

37. To test the validity of the selection test for advanced widget designers, Correll-Techno Inc. administers the test to the present widget makers in the company. The test results are then compared with the employees’ latest performance appraisal scores. In this instance, what type of validation does Correll-Techno implement?

A. Predictive validation

B. Concurrent validation

C. Content validation

D. Construct validation

E. Diagnostic validation

38. Martha Stevens is the HR manager of C-Soft Inc., a software company located in New York. She wants to establish the validity of a test designed for computer technicians using a predictive criterion-related validation strategy. According to this validation, Martha must administer the test to _____.

A. at least half the present computer technicians in C-Soft

B. people doing similar jobs in other companies

C. people applying for computer technician jobs in C-Soft

D. only current computer technicians in C-Soft who are performing at acceptable levels

E. a random selection of computer technicians currently employed at C-Soft

39. A construction firm is in need of a construction superintendent, whose primary responsibilities involve organizing, supervising, and inspecting the work of several subcontractors. The firm administers a construction-error recognition test, where an applicant enters a shed that has 25 construction errors and where he/she is asked to record as many of these problems as can be detected. What type of validity is being established in this case?

A. Concurrent validity

B. Construct validity

C. Content validity

D. Representative validity

E. Predictive

40. Which of the following best describes content validity?

A. It is the extent to which something provides economic value greater than its cost.

B. It is the extent to which a measurement is free from random error.

C. It is the consistency between the test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems that occur on the job.

D. It is the consistency between a high score on a test and high level of a construct such as intelligence or leadership ability, as well as between mastery of this construct and successful performance of the job.

E. It is the measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation between test scores and job performance scores.

41. Which of the following is true about content validity?

A. It is usually measured on the basis of expert judgment.

B. It indicates how free a measurement is from random errors.

C. It is most suitable for tests that measure abstract qualities.

D. A test that scores high on content validity tends to score low on generalizability.

E. It is useful for tests that measure intelligence and leadership quality.

42. For tests that measure abstract qualities such as intelligence or leadership skills, validity would best be established by _____ validation.

A. criterion-related

B. content

C. concurrent

D. construct

E. predictive

43. A selection method that is valid in other contexts beyond the context in which it was developed is said to be _____.

A. reliable.

B. generalizable.

C. practical.

D. utilitarian.

E. dependable.

44. Evan Smith is the HR manager of a publishing company. He wants to know if a certain test of cognitive ability, used in the advertising industry, can be successfully used in his organization. In other words, he wants to know if this test is a(n) _____ method of personnel selection.

A. substitutable

B. evaluative

C. practical

D. generalizable

E. nondirective

45. Methods that provide economic value greater than the cost of using them are said to have _____.

A. reliability

B. utility

C. validity

D. generalizability

E. dependability

46. The use of a neutral-appearing selection method that damages a protected group is _____.

A. legal if the employer has a turnover of less than $100,000

B. legal if the company using the selection method has 100 or more employees

C. legal if the employer can show that there is a business necessity for using that method

D. illegal and prohibited under all circumstances

E. legal if the company using the selection method operates in the software industry

47. Which act prohibits preferential treatment in favor of minority groups?

A. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 199191

B. The Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986

C. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967

D. The Civil Rights Act of 1991

E. The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938

48. Which of the following is true according to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1991?

A. The employer can ask preemployment questions to investigate disabilities.

B. The interviewer is prohibited from asking a candidate if he/she can meet the attendance requirements for the job.

C. The interviewer is permitted to ask the candidate the number of sick leaves he/she took at his/her previous job.

D. The employer is permitted to use, for hiring decisions, employment physical exams that could reveal a psychological or physical disability.

E. Employers are required to make “reasonable accommodation” to disabled individuals.

49. Which of the following is a permissible question for job applications and interviews?

A. How would you feel about working for someone younger than you?

B. Are you a citizen of the United States?

C. What religious holidays do you observe?

D. Where were you born?

E. Will you need any reasonable accommodation for this hiring process

50. Which of the following is an impermissible question for job applications and interviews?

A. What is your full name?

B. Have you ever been convicted of a crime?

C. What was your major in college?

D. Do you have any disabilities?

E. Can you meet the requirements of the work schedule?

51. Which of the following holds good under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986?

A. Employers must verify and maintain records on the legal rights of applicants to work in the United States.

B. Employers must file a completed Form I-9 with the Immigration and Naturalization Service and retain the documents for at least ten years.

C. Employers can pay lower wages to the immigrant workers.

D. Employers must verify the legal age of employees who do not hold American citizenship.

E. Employers are allowed to discriminate against persons on the basis of citizenship status.

52. Employers use application forms for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that:

A. they are a low-cost way to gather basic data from many applicants.

B. they ensure that the organization has certain standard categories of information.

C. they are not subject to equal employment opportunity standards.

D. they allow the employer to keep up-to-date records of job applicants.

E. they enable organizations to rank applicants.

53. Which of the following details need to be asked in an application form to gather information about suitable candidates?

A. Marital status

B. History of disabilities

C. Number of children

D. Educational background

E. Applicant’s race

54. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using résumés as a source of information about job applicants?

A. It is a relatively expensive method of gathering information.

B. It does not allow applicants to highlight accomplishments.

C. Review of résumés is least valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in terms of the elements of a job description.

D. It is biased in favor of the employer.

E. The content of the information is controlled by applicants.

55. Organizations typically use résumés _____.

A. as substitutes for interviews

B. as a basis for deciding which candidates to investigate further

C. to save the cost of administering tests related to the performance on the job

D. because they can control the content of the information, as well as the way it is presented

E. because they are generally an unbiased source of information

56. Review of résumés is most valid when the content of the résumés is evaluated in _____.

A. terms of the elements of a job description

B. comparison with other applicants’ qualifications

C. terms of the incumbent’s competencies

D. terms of the industrial benchmarks

E. comparison with other employees in the organization

57. Generally, the organization checks references _____.

A. only if it believes the information provided by the applicant is incorrect

B. immediately after the applicant submits a résumé

C. after it has determined that the applicant is a finalist for the job

D. because it is a legal requirement under EEO laws

E. of all applicants to a job

58. If a person who is the reference gives negative information about the job candidate, there is a chance the candidate will claim _____, meaning the person damaged the applicant’s reputation by making statements that cannot be proved truthful.

A. defamation

B. misappropriation

C. fraud

D. misrepresentation

E. negligence

59. If a former employer gives a glowing statement about a candidate and the new employer later learns of misconduct on the part of the employee during his/her previous employment, the new employer may sue the former for _____.

A. negligence

B. misrepresentation

C. defamation

D. misappropriation

E. libel

60. Ricky Jones, a 33-year old unemployed software engineer, had applied for a job in SeaTech Inc., a Florida-based software company. He had mentioned his former project manager as his reference in the application form. But he was rejected soon after the HR of SeaTech called his former manager and learnt that Ricky was involved in an issue of sexual misconduct. Sensing this to be the reason for his rejection at SeaTech, Ricky threatened to sue his former manager on charges of _____.

A. misappropriation

B. fraud

C. misrepresentation

D. defamation

E. negligence

61. Which of the following is one of the ways by which individuals acting as references for job applicants can minimize the risk of being sued for defamation or misrepresentation?

A. By giving as much information as possible

B. By exclusively giving out positive information about a candidate

C. By only giving information about observable, job-related behaviors

D. By giving only broad opinions

E. By excluding employment dates and the employee’s final salary

62. In general, the results of reference checks for job applicants will be most valid if the employer _____.

A. contacts many references

B. relies exclusively on the list provided by the applicant

C. avoids direct contact with the reference

D. restricts contact with the references through e-mails

E. receives positive opinions about the employee from the reference

63. Which of the following tests assess how well a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities?

A. Personality inventories tests

B. Work sample tests

C. Achievement tests

D. Aptitude tests

E. Physical ability tests

64. What do achievement tests measure?

A. The ability of a person to perform well under pressure

B. A person’s existing knowledge and skills

C. The ability of a person to acquire skills

D. The future achievement potential of an individual

E. The attitude of an individual

65. _____ tests are sometimes called “intelligence tests.”

A. Achievement

B. Psychomotor

C. Adaptability

D. Cognitive ability

E. Endurance

66. Tests designed to measure such mental skills as verbal skills, quantitative skills, and reasoning ability are referred to as _____ tests.

A. job performance

B. honesty

C. personality inventories

D. cognitive ability

E. physical ability

67. Which of the following is true about cognitive ability tests?

A. They are especially valid for jobs requiring adaptability.

B. They are relatively expensive compared to the other tests.

C. They measure strength, endurance, psychomotor abilities, and other physical abilities.

D. They are free from legal complications.

E. They are especially valid for simple jobs.

68. Which of the following is a concern relating to the use of cognitive ability tests?

A. Lack of validity of the tests for complex jobs

B. Lack of reliable and commercially available tests

C. Legal issues related to administering the tests

D. Lack of validity of the tests for those jobs that require adaptability

E. Relatively high cost

69. What is race norming?

A. Treating a range of scores as being similar

B. Establishing different norms for hiring members of different racial groups

C. A legal quota system that protects interests of people with disabilities

D. Basing selection decisions on a common norm for all races, regardless of impact

E. Use of cognitive tests that discriminate against women and people with disabilities

70. The controversial practice that treats a range of scores as being similar and thus allows the employer to give preference to underrepresented groups within these “similar” scores is known as _____.

A. banding

B. generalizing

C. affirmative action

D. sensitizing

71. A typing test for an administrative assistant’s job is an example of a(n) _____ test.

A. job performance

B. cognitive ability

C. physical ability

D. personality inventories

E. emotional intelligence

72. An assessment center:

A. is a place where job applicants for manufacturing jobs undergo physical ability tests.

B. conducts a single test for all job applicants to test their technical potential.

C. uses multiple selection methods to rate applicants on their management potential.

D. is a selection method generally used for unskilled employees.

E. has the lowest validity because it combines several assessment methods.

73. Which of the following is true about job performance tests?

A. They provide fair evaluations for applicants.

B. They have the lowest level of validity compared to other tests.

C. These tests are highly generalizable.

D. Customization of these tests for various jobs is inexpensive.

E. They are best suited for identifying the particular skills or traits the individual possesses.

74. In-basket tests are an example of _____ tests.

A. job performance

B. physical ability

C. honesty

D. personality

E. cognitive ability

75. The “Big Five” traits that include extroversion, adjustment, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and inquisitiveness, are all _____ dimensions.

A. physical ability

B. cognitive ability

C. aptitude

D. personality

E. skills

76. Which of the following traits describe conscientiousness?

A. Sociable, gregarious, assertive, talkative

B. Dependable, organized, persevering, achievement-oriented

C. Courteous, trusting, good-natured, tolerant

D. Emotionally stable, nondepressed, secure, content

E. Curious, imaginative, artistically sensitive, broad-minded

77. Sean Mathers, a recruiter for a retail firm, is looking for candidates to fill a sales position. Since the job requires the salesperson to interact with customers, Sean is looking for candidates who are expressive and convincing with customers. He also wants the candidates to be friendly and social. Which one of the “Big Five” traits is Sean looking for in particular?

A. Extroversion

B. Adjustment

C. Agreeableness

D. Conscientiousness

E. Inquisitiveness

78. Which of the following tests is a legal means to test the integrity of job applicants and generally involves asking applicants directly about their attitudes toward theft and their own experiences with theft?

A. Polygraph test

B. Paper-and-pencil honesty test

C. Cognitive ability test

D. Personality inventory test

E. In-basket test

79. The rules for drug testing include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. drug testing should be administered systematically to all applicants for the same job.

B. the drug test reports should not be sent to applicants.

C. drug testing should be conducted for employees working in jobs that involve safety hazards.

D. drug testing should be conducted in an environment that is not intrusive.

E. drug-testing programs should allow for strict confidentiality of results.

80. Which of the following is true about medical examinations of job candidates?

A. Medical examinations are conducted specifically for candidates of minority groups.

B. Medical examinations are conducted upon the receipt of the candidate’s résumé.

C. Medical examinations are conducted specifically for individuals with disabilities.

D. Medical examinations that measure size and strength can never be used for a job.

E. Medical examinations are conducted after the candidate has been given a job offer.

81. Which type of interview allows the interviewer discretion in choosing the questions to be asked and generally includes open-ended questions about the candidate’s strengths, weaknesses, career goals, and work experience?

A. Behavioral

B. Situationa

C. Nondirective

D. Structured

E. Computerized

82. A _____ interview is a selection interview that consists of a predetermined set of questions for the interviewer to ask.

A. situational

B. nondirective

C. structured

D. behavior description

E. work sample

83. During an interview for a sales position at Cart-Logistics Inc., a candidate is asked about what he would do to regain business with a client whose consignment was damaged during a business transaction with Cart-Logistics. This is an example of a(n) _____ interview.

A. behavior description

B. situational

C. nondirective

D. exit

E. in-basket

84. A(n) _____ interview is a situational interview in which the interviewer asks the candidate to describe how he or she handled a type of situation in the past.

A. in-basket

B. fitness-for-duty

C. behavior description

D. nondirective

E. unstructured

85. Which of the following is an advantage of using interviews as part of a personnel selection process?

A. They are by far the most accurate method for making selection decisions.

B. They have high validity and reliability.

C. They are the most inexpensive means of making selection decisions.

D. They generally facilitate selection decisions that are free from bias against particular groups.

E. None of these.

86. Interviewing effectiveness may be enhanced by _____.

A. emphasizing on making subjective judgments

B. keeping the interviews narrow, structured, and standardized

C. limiting the use of panel interviews

D. focusing on questions that measure abilities and skills

E. focusing on accomplishing a wide range of goals

87. Which of the following is true about a well-planned interview?

A. It should address subjective matters.

B. It should specifically measure the individual’s skills.

C. It should focus on the job and the organization.

D. It should be non-standardized and non-structured.

E. It should focus on measuring the individual’s abilities.

88. Which of the following best describes multiple-hurdle model of personnel selection?

A. It is a process of selecting employees in which a very high score on one type of assessment can make up for a low score on another.

B. It is a process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some candidates at each stage of the selection process.

C. It is a selection process in which several members of the organization form a panel and interview each candidate.

D. It is a testing program that establishes different norms for hiring members of different racial groups.

E. It is a selection process that treats a range of scores as being similar and divides candidates into groups based on the range into which they fall.

89. The process of arriving at a selection decision in which a very high score on one type of assessment can make up for a low score on another is termed the _____ model.

A. multiple-hurdle

B. norming

C. compensatory

D. behavior description

E. situational

90. Which of the following information does NOT need to be included in a job offer?

A. Employment history of the candidate

B. Job responsibilities

C. Work schedule

D. Rate of pay

E. Starting date

91. Discuss the steps of the selection process.

92. Define what is meant by reliability, validity, and utility in the employment selection context.

93. Briefly describe how concurrent and predictive criterion-related researches are conducted and identify at least two potential advantages of predictive validation.

94. Discuss how the Civil Rights Act of 1991 and the Americans with Disabilities Act impact the selection process.

95. Discuss the burden placed on people or organizations contacted as references for job candidates. How do organizations cope with this burden?

96. What are the two broad categories of employment tests?

97. Why are drug tests a controversial component of the personnel selection process? What are some of the ways in which organizations can avoid problems associated with drug testing?

98. Describe the different types of interviews that can be used for employee selection.

99. Traditional job interviews have demonstrated low validity and reliability, and they are a relatively expensive method of personnel selection. Recommend steps organizations can take to avoid these pitfalls.

100. Discuss the multiple-hurdle model and the compensatory model of arriving at a personnel selection decision.

7
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Training refers to any planned effort by a firm to facilitate the learning of job-related knowledge, skills, or behavior by employees.

True False

2. The last step in the instructional design process involves choosing a training method.

True False

3. Instructional design logically should begin with needs assessment.

True False

4. Usually, needs assessment for training begins with a person analysis.

True False

5. The task analysis phase of needs assessment includes determining employees’ readiness for training.

True False

6. Readiness for training is a combination of employee characteristics and positive work environment that permit training.

True False

7. Social support refers to the ways the organization’s people encourage training.

True False

8. Effective training objectives include performance standards that are measurable.

True False

9. Putting together a request for proposal is a quick process.

True False

10. Presentation methods are preferred over hands-on training methods in helping trainees to handle interpersonal issues.

True False

11. The training technique most widely used in the workplace is behavior modeling.

True False

12. Attending classes is a faster and more efficient method of learning new skills as compared to EPSSs.

True False

13. Apprenticeship programs can only be sponsored by the government.

True False

14. For on-the-job training (OJT) programs to be effective, an organization should review OJT practices at companies in similar industries.

True False

15. Training programs use case studies to develop employees’ management skills.

True False

16. Experiential programs are an example of presentation methods.

True False

17. Coordination training trains the team in understanding and practicing each other’s skills so that they are prepared to step in and take another member’s place.

True False

18. Action learning uses challenging, structured outdoor activities, which include difficult sports.

True False

19. Along with physical elements, the training context should include emotional elements.

True False

20. If a concept involves more than five items, the training program should deliver information in shorter sessions or chunks.

True False

21. The best stage to prepare for evaluating a training program is after the program has been implemented.

True False

22. The most accurate way to assess training effectiveness is to conduct pretests and posttests and then train all the employees.

True False

23. Orientation training is designed to prepare employees to perform their job effectively, learn about the organization, and establish work relationships.

True False

24. A risk of diversity training programs is that they may alienate minorities.

True False

25. Interaction with persons from different cultures is known as cultural immersion.

True False

26. An organization’s planned effort to help employees acquire job-related knowledge, skills, abilities, and behaviors is known as:_____

A. attrition.

B. benchmarking.

C. training.

D. compensation.

E. electromation.

27. _____ refers to a process of systematically developing training to meet specified needs.

A. Fair representation

B. Orientation

C. Bumping

D. Instructional design

E. Organization analysis

28. The first step in the instructional design process is:

A. implementing a training program.

B. conducting a needs assessment.

C. selecting training methods.

D. ensuring employees’ readiness for training.

E. planning a training program.

29. What is a learning management system?

A. A team of trainers and human resource professionals who are responsible for planning and conducting the training programs in an organization.

B. The process of evaluating the organization, individual employees, and employees’ tasks to determine what kinds of training, if any, are necessary.

C. A software application that automates the administration, development, and delivery of training programs.

D. A process for determining the appropriateness of training by evaluating the characteristics of the organization.

E. The process of determining individuals’ needs and readiness for training.

30. Which of the following defines needs assessment in the context of training?

A. It is the process of evaluating the organization, individual employees, and employees’ tasks to determine what kinds of training are necessary.

B. It is a combination of employee characteristics and positive work environment that permit training.

C. It is a process that evaluates the monetary needs of employees that can motivate them to undertake a training program.

D. It is an application that automates the administration and delivery of a company’s training program.

E. It is the process to determine employees’ characteristics to ensure their readiness for training.

31. Needs assessment usually begins with _____.

A. task analysis

B. organization analysis

C. person analysis

D. competitor analysis

E. market analysis

32. Organizational analysis looks at training needs with respect to the:

A. readiness of employees for training.

B. employee’s strategy toward achieving organizational goals.

C. management’s support for training activities.

D. monetary incentives the management has promised its employees.

E. severance package deal for a particular batch of employees.

33. Which of the following considers an organization’s strategy and the resources available for training important before starting any training program?

A. Task analysis

B. Person analysis

C. Organization analysis

D. Employee readiness analysis

E. Skills analysis

34. Which of the following help a manager identify which employees need training?

A. Person analysis

B. Organization analysis

C. Task analysis

D. Trend analysis

E. Regression analysis

35. Which of the following primary variables in a person analysis can be affected by training?

A. The Organization’s input

B. Performance feedback

C. The employee’s ability and skills

D. Positive consequences to motivate good performance

E. The employee’s motivation and attitudes

36. Which of the following processes identifies the knowledge, skills, and behaviors that training should emphasize?

A. Person analysis

B. Task analysis

C. Transactional analysis

D. Trend analysis

E. Regression analysis

37. Which of the following is a characteristic of task analysis?

A. It does not require knowledge of the work environment.

B. It is independent of time constraints or deadlines.

C. It results in an assessment of employees’ readiness for training.

D. It is usually conducted along with person analysis.

E. It helps in determining individuals’ needs for training.

38. _____ is a combination of employee characteristics and positive work environment that permit training.

A. Organization analysis

B. Benchmarking

C. Learning management system

D. Orientation

E. Readiness for training

39. Employee readiness characteristics for training include basic learning skills, especially _____, which includes being able to use written and spoken language, solve math problems, and use logic to solve problems.

A. emotional intelligence

B. psychological mindedness

C. spatial ability

D. psychomotor skills

E. cognitive ability

40. Readiness for training depends on two broad characteristics of the work environment: situational constraints and _____.

A. employee ability

B. employees’ incentive package

C. training curriculum

D. social support

E. employee attitude

41. _____ is the limit on training’s effectiveness that arises from the conditions within the organization.

A. Simulation

B. Social support

C. Situational constraint

D. Psychological mindedness

E. Experiential conflict

42. _____ refers to the ways an organization’s people encourage training.

A. Situational constraint

B. Employee orientation

C. Benchmarking

D. Social support

E. Experiential programing

43. Which of the following documents outlines the type of service needed, the type and number of references needed, and the number of employees to be trained?

A. Request for proposal

B. Articles of incorporation

C. Instructional design

D. Needs assessment form

E. Organization analysis report

44. When using an outside expert, a complete _____ should indicate funding for the project and the process by which the organization will determine its level of satisfaction.

A. cohabitation agreement

B. letter of intent

C. certificate of occupancy

D. articles of incorporation

E. request for proposal

45. Whether the training is done in-house or contracted out, the responsibility for coordinating the overall training program is called _____.

A. behavior modeling

B. training administration

C. simulation

D. orientation

E. training zone

46. Which of the following training methods is used for conveying facts or comparing alternatives?

A. Hands-on methods

B. Presentation methods

C. Group-building methods

D. On-the-job training programs

E. Object class methods

47. Compared to other training methods, the hands-on training methods is most effective for:

A. Hands-on methods

B. conveying facts.

C. establishing teams or work groups.

D. communicating acceptable performance standards.

E. comparing alternatives.

48. Which of the following training methods uses techniques like lectures, workbooks, video clips, podcasts, and Web sites?

A. Group building methods

B. Hands-on methods

C. Presentation methods

D. Object class methods

E. Experiential programs

49. Which of the following is true of audiovisual training?

A. It is the best method to establish teams or work groups.

B. It is an example of a hands-on method of training.

C. It can be carried out only in a classroom.

D. It does not allow users any control over the presentation.

E. It is not affected by an individual trainer’s goals and skills.

50. Which of the following is true of computer-based training?

A. It is generally more expensive than classroom instruction.

B. It is difficult to customize for specific training needs.

C. It is a not an interactive form of training.

D. It gives a company the flexibility in scheduling training.

E. It is now declining in popularity.

51. You manage a car dealership. Given the increasing complexity and variety of today’s automobiles, it is impossible to train your mechanics on the details of every potential repair problem. So you provide the mechanics a training program to familiarize them with the basics of engine, emission, and other types of repair, and in case of a particular problem, seek expert advice through an online computer application program. This learning approach is known as a(n):

A. e-learning simulation

B. electronic performance support system.

C. experiential behavior modeling program.

D. virtual reality-based simulation program.

E. online help.

52. Which of the following is true of electronic performance support systems?

A. They provide expert advice when a problem occurs on the job.

B. They automate the administration and delivery of a company’s training programs.

C. They determine the appropriateness of training by evaluating the characteristics of the organization.

D. They determine individuals’ readiness for training.

E. They identify the tasks that training should emphasize.

53. Which of the following is a work-study training method that teaches job skills through a combination of on-the-job training and classroom training?

A. Bumping

B. Benchmarking

C. Apprenticeship

D. Co-employment

E. Onboarding

54. Which of the following is an example of an on-the-job training method?

A. Bumping

B. Benchmarking

C. Apprenticeship

D. Adventure learning

E. Action learning

55. Which of the following statements is true of apprenticeship?

A. Apprenticeship is completely devoid of any presentation training methods.

B. Apprentices can earn an income while learning a trade.

C. Apprenticeship does not offer hands-on learning and practice.

D. Apprenticeship cannot be sponsored by institutes or groups outside of the firm.

E. Apprenticeship is mostly used for teaching management and interpersonal skills.

56. Which of the following is a difference between apprenticeship and internship?

A. Apprenticeship is on-the-job training, whereas internship is a classroom-based training method.

B. Apprenticeship is a unstructured training method, whereas internship is a structured training method.

C. Apprenticeship is sponsored by employee unions, whereas internship is sponsored by educational institutions.

D. Most apprenticeship programs are for professions like accountants and lawyers, whereas most internship programs are in blue-collar jobs.

E. Apprenticeship does not provide an income, whereas internship provides an income while teaching a trade.

57. Which of the following is an on-the-job training program that is generally sponsored by an educational institution as a component of an academic program?

A. Internship.

B. Coordination training.

C. Apprenticeship.

D. Experiential training.

E. Simulation training.

58. Which of the following types of professions would typically have an apprenticeship?

A. Accountant

B. Journalist

C. Bricklayer

D. Nurse

E. Lawyer

59. Which of the following types of professions would typically have an internship?

A. Electrician

B. Doctor

C. Carpenter

D. Plumber

E. Welder

60. _____ is a training method that represents a real-life situation, with trainees making decisions resulting in outcomes that mirror what would happen on the job.

A. Apprenticeship

B. Coordination training

C. Experiential training

D. Internship

E. Simulation

61. Which of the following statements is true of simulators used in training?

A. They must have elements identical to those found in the work environment.

B. They cannot be used when the risks of a mistake on a job are great.

C. They are used for on-the-job training.

D. They are inexpensive to develop.

E. They do not need constant updating.

62. Which of the following defines an avatar used in training by simulation?

A. A computer-based technology that provides an interactive three-dimensional learning experience.

B. A computer application that automates the administration and delivery of a training program.

C. A computer depiction of employees that can be manipulated in an online role-play.

D. A computer application that conducts needs assessments for an organization.

E. A technology that provides access to skills training, information, and expert advice when a problem occurs on the job.

63. Using avatars for training purposes would be an example of _____.

A. benchmarking

B. action learning

C. adventure learning

D. simulation

E. orientation

64. _____ is a computer-based technology that provides an interactive, three-dimensional learning experience.

A. Electronic performance support system

B. Instructional design

C. Learning management system

D. Benchmarking

E. Virtual reality

65. A(n) _____ is a detailed description of a situation that trainees analyze and discuss and is designed to develop higher-order thinking skills.

A. restrictive covenant

B. premium only plan

C. case study

D. pareto chart

E. avatar

66. Which of the following statements is true of case studies?

A. Case studies stimulate learning by actively involving participants and mimicking the competitive nature of business.

B. Cases practice trainees in weighing and acting on uncertain outcomes after evaluating a case.

C. Trainees play a largely passive role while being trained with case studies.

D. Case studies do not encourage trainees to take risks.

E. Training with case studies does not require any interaction among trainees.

67. _____ involves training sessions in which participants observe other people demonstrating the desired behavior, then have opportunities to practice the behavior themselves.

A. Random testing

B. Benchmarking

C. Behavior modeling

D. Experiential training

E. Classroom learning

68. Behavior modeling is especially useful for improving:

A. quantitative skills.

B. interpersonal skills.

C. spatial skills.

D. clerical skills.

E. cognitive skills.

69. Which of the following is an example of an experiential training method?

A. Mary, who is a cashier, is being trained to stock shelves in case there is a shortage of employees.

B. Stan and his work colleagues take part in a rafting course sponsored by the company.

C. Jenna and 5 other managers are tasked to study a business problem and present recommendations.

D. Jenson is asked to review videos of other employees exhibiting certain important behaviors related to the workplace.

E. Katherine uses an online persona to make decisions in game simulations involving job-related situations.

70. One form of experiential training, called _____, is a teamwork and leadership training program based on the use of challenging, structured outdoor activities.

A. behavior modeling

B. coordination training

C. adventure learning

D. cross-training

E. action learning

71. Team training in which team members understand and practice each other’s skills so that they are prepared to step in and take another member’s place is referred to as:

A. coordination training.

B. experiential training.

C. behavior modeling.

D. cross-training.

E. action learning.

72. Which of the following is an example of the cross-training method?

A. Mary, who is a cashier, is being trained to stock shelves in case there is a shortage of employees.

B. Stan and his work colleagues take part in a rafting course sponsored by the company.

C. Jenna and 5 other managers are tasked to study a business problem and present recommendations.

D. Jenson is asked to review videos of other employees exhibiting certain important behaviors related to the workplace.

E. Katherine uses an online persona to make decisions in game simulations involving job-related situations.

73. _____ is a team training method where teams are trained on how to share information and decisions to obtain the best team performance.

A. Behavior modeling

B. Experiential training

C. Diversity training

D. Coordination training

E. Simulation

74. Giving teams or work groups an actual problem, having them work on solving it and commit to an action plan, and holding them accountable for carrying out the plan describes:

A. virtual reality

B. self-directed learning

C. action learning

D. business games.

E. simulations.

75. Marcus heads a garbage disposal firm called The Cleanout Company. Recently, his firm was under scrutiny from environmental organizations. To counter any possible negative claims by these organizations against his company, Marcus assigned 5 of his junior managers to study the issue and propose plans or initiatives that can make the company look more environmental friendly. He also instructed senior managers to mentor their juniors as they devised new ideas. Which of the following type of team training method did Marcus employ here?

A. Action learning

B. Adventure learning

C. Cross-training

D. Internship

E. Apprenticeship

76. The difficulty level of written materials is known as:

A. severability.

B. scalability.

C. modularity.

D. interoperability.

E. readability.

77. Which of the following methods helps increase readability of training material?

A. Replace concrete words with abstract words

B. Combine two or more sentences into one long sentence

C. Combine two or more paragraphs into one long paragraph

D. Add checklists and illustrations to clarify the text

E. Substitute written material for video, hands-on learning or other nonwritten methods

78. When should a training program be evaluated?

A. Before the request for proposal is developed.

B. When the organization ensures readiness.

C. After the program has been developed.

D. During the implementation of the program.

E. When the program is being developed.

79. On-the-job use of knowledge, skills, and behaviors learned in training constitutes:

A. coordination training.

B. retraining.

C. cross-training.

D. action learning.

E. transfer of training.

80. _____ requires that employees actually learn the content of the training program and that the necessary conditions are in place for employees to apply what they learned.

A. Behavior modeling

B. Transfer of training

C. Simulation

D. Virtual reality

E. Action learning

81. Information such as facts, techniques, and procedures that trainees can recall after the training, and skills that trainees can demonstrate in tests are examples of _____.

A. training outcomes

B. transfer of training

C. return on investment on training

D. training credits

E. training improvements

82. The most accurate way to evaluate the training program is to:

A. use only a pretest.

B. conduct pretests and train only part of the employees.

C. conduct pretests and posttests on all trainees.

D. use only a posttest.

E. check trainees’ performance, knowledge, and attitudes only after training.

83. The simplest approach to evaluating training is to:

A. use only a pretest.

B. calculate the ROI.

C. conduct pretests and posttests on all trainees.

D. use only a posttest.

E. compare pretest and posttest scores of the trained group with those of an untrained group.

84. Training designed to prepare employees to perform their jobs effectively, learn about the organization, and establish work relationships is known as:

A. orientation.

B. benchmarking.

C. sensitivity training.

D. bumping.

E. conditioning.

85. Organizations provide for orientation because:

A. it is a legal requirement for all new employees.

B. it relieves the shock and surprise experienced when starting a new job.

C. most new employees do not do sufficient research on the employer before joining.

D. a realistic job profile is provided during recruitment.

E. it is less cost effective than organizational analysis.

86. What is the objective of diversity training programs that focus on attitudes?

A. To identify incidents that discourages employees from working up to their potential

B. To teach employees to be effective at different tasks and roles

C. To change organizational policies that inhibits employees’ personal growth and productivity

D. To improve participants’ ability to interact effectively with people both up and down the organization’s hierarchy

E. To increase participants’ awareness of cultural, ethnic, personal, and physical differences in the workforce

87. Diversity training programs that focus on behavior aim at:

A. increasing participants’ awareness of cultural and ethnic differences as well as differences in personal and physical characteristics, such as disabilities.

B. teaching employees to be effective at different tasks and roles.

C. sending participants directly into communities where they interact with persons from different cultures, races, and nationalities.

D. changing organizational policies and individual conduct that inhibit employees’ personal growth and productivity.

E. making people aware of cultural differences and stereotypes.

88. Which of the following is a form of diversity training provided by some organizations that involves sending employees directly into communities where they have to interact with persons from different cultures, races, and nationalities?

A. Community service

B. Acculturation

C. Cultural immersion

D. Cultural health

E. Ethnology

89. Trainees are likely to respond more positively to which of the following approaches of diversity training?

A. Increasing participants’ awareness of cultural and ethnic differences as well as differences in personal and physical characteristics, such as disabilities.

B. Teaching employees skills for constructively handling communication barriers, conflicts, and misunderstandings that arise when different people try to work together.

C. Sending participants directly into communities where they interact with persons from different cultures, races, and nationalities.

D. A program that clearly demonstrates that it values diversity and minorities over the average white male employee.

E. Making people aware of cultural differences and their stereotypes about those differences to avoid letting stereotypes influence their interactions with people.

90. Which of the following characteristics would make diversity training more effective?

A. It must be separated from the work context.

B. It should be tied to business objectives.

C. It should not last for more than a day.

D. It should emphasize more on learning skills than behaviors.

E. It should be unstructured.

91. What are the different stages of instructional design process?

92. Discuss the three elements of a needs assessment process.

93. What should managers do to support training?

94. What is a request for proposal? What is its importance?

95. What is e-learning with regard to training?

96. What is meant by apprenticeship? What is its advantage?

97. What are experiential programs? Describe the different types of experiential programs.

98. What are some of the effective ways of implementing a training program?

99. What are the different methods for evaluating training?

100. What are the different approaches of diversity training?

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HRM 500 Week 10 Assignment 4 – Strayer University New

HRM/500 Assignment 4: Recognizing Employee Contributions
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HRM 500 Assignment 4: Recognizing Employee Contributions
Week 10 – A Graded Work

Assume that you are the HR Manager at a university. You want to create a way to recognize employee contributions in the Admissions Office. Determining the methods to motivate employees to enroll new students has been challenging. However, you are now being pressured by top management to reach admission goals. Employee participation in pay-related decisions could be part of a general move toward employee empowerment. Employees have hands-on knowledge about the kinds of behavior that can help the organization to perform well. Consider ways that you would attempt to meet the admission goals.

Create a PowerPoint presentation with fifteen to twenty (15-20) slides in which you:

1. As the HR manager, propose two (2) methods that you will use to determine incentive pay. Explain if the rewards are tailored towards individual, group, and / or company performance. Explain how you as the HR manager will create an incentive pay program that will motivate employees.

2. The balanced-score card approach is useful in designing executive pay. Propose three (3) measures the HR manager can use to assess shareholder value, customer value, and employee value.

3. As the HR manager, analyze two (2) difficulties in creating a benefits package that motivates employees.

4. As the HR manager, propose three (3) incentives that can be used to motivate employees.

5. As the HR manager, examine two (2) ethical risks of making incentive pay a large portion of employees’ total compensation. Propose two (2) suggestions as to how the company could balance or reduce these risks.

6. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

HRM 500 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer University New

HRM/500 Week 5 Discussion Questions

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Week 5 D1
From the scenario, propose two approaches that a company can use to leverage a 360-degree performance appraisal system to evaluate individual performance. Support your answer with examples.

Week 5 D2
Describe two instances where performance pressure can lead to unethical behavior by employees in the effort to meet company goals. Propose two suggestions that HRM can take to limit unethical behavior by employees.

HRM 500 – Strayer University NEW

HRM/500 Complete Class Assignments – DQ’s – Strayer

HRM 500 Assignment 1: Trends in the Workplace
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Due Week 3 and worth 150 points
Imagine that you are the human resource manager for a small manufacturing company. You decide to invest in a materials resource planning (MRP) system. This is a computerized information system that improves efficiency by automating such work as planning needs for resources, ordering materials, and scheduling work on the shop floor. As the human resource manager you hope that with the new MRP system, the company can grow quickly and efficiently through the processing of small orders for a variety of products. You are also aware of the challenges to hire individuals with the technical skills needed to perform the job. Consider how the organization will address the skills deficiencies.
Write a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:
1. Predict three (3) human resource functions that are likely to be affected by the implementation of an MRP system. Propose two (2) ways in which you as a human resource manager can help the organization carry out this change successfully.
2. Determine three (3) human resource skills that would be important for success in leveraging the new MRP system.
3. Based on the planned growth of the organization, predict three (3) factors that might impact the organization’s ability to hire new employees that possess the technical skills needed to perform a job.
4. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

HRM 500 Assignment 2: Organizational Structure
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Due Week 6 and worth 300 points
To achieve high-quality performance, organizations have to match job requirements with people. A job analysis is used to acquire detailed information about jobs. In addition, the job analysis is critical in determining the selection of qualified candidates, the design of a job, staffing and training needs, performance appraisals, and compensation.
Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
5. Analyze three (3) elements of a job analysis, and discuss its significance to the hiring and employee development aspects of human resource management.
6. Describe the importance of the position analysis and questionnaire (PAQ). Propose two (2) ways that the results of a PAQ can be used by human resource managers for work redesign of a customer service job to make it more efficient and to improve quality.
7. Develop two (2) strategies that a human resource professional can use in the selection of qualified applicants for a customer service position based on the Fleishman Job Analysis System.
8. Consider the job of a customer service representative who handles consumer inquiries for a company that sells items online and by catalog. Examine two (2) challenges of designing this job for efficiency. Propose two (2) suggestions for how the job can be redesigned to make it more efficient.
9. Propose three (3) ways the human resource manager can use the information obtained from a job analysis to measure the performance of the customer service representatives.
10. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

HRM 500 Week 8 Assignment 3: Performance Management
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Due Week 8 and worth 250 points
Imagine that you are the HR manager for a retail store. Your store sells clothing, shoes, handbags, linens, etc. The company recently had its worst quarter, and you want to improve employee performance through sales of the merchandise and through offering excellent customer service. The employees are less motivated, due to the recent negative media attention the company has been getting about its earnings. You want to implement a new performance management system, modify the employees’ current behavior, and link compensation directly to performance.
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:
11. Create a job description for a retail sales associate. Create an organizational behavior modification (OBM) plan to define a set of three (3) key behaviors that are necessary for job performance.
12. Determine two (2) ways that an HR manager would measure whether prospective employees exhibit the key job performance behaviors. Propose two (2) methods that an HR manager can use to inform employees of the new performance standards.
13. As the HR manager, create a plan with two (2) methods of providing feedback to employees. Include the frequency with which the feedback would be provided. Propose two (2) actions that company leaders should take to reinforce positive employee behaviors.
14. As the HR manager, determine three (3) benefits the organization would gain if it adopts a management by objects (MBO) approach in which the employees’ goals are aligned with the organization’s goals. Provide two (2) reasons why it is important to align pay with performance.
15. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

HRM 500 Week 10 Assignment 4: Recognizing Employee Contributions
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Due Week 10 and worth 400 points
Assume that you are the HR Manager at a university. You want to create a way to recognize employee contributions in the Admissions Office. Determining the methods to motivate employees to enroll new students has been challenging. However, you are now being pressured by top management to reach admission goals. Employee participation in pay-related decisions could be part of a general move toward employee empowerment. Employees have hands-on knowledge about the kinds of behavior that can help the organization to perform well. Consider ways that you would attempt to meet the admission goals.
Create a PowerPoint presentation with fifteen to twenty (15-20) slides in which you:
16. As the HR manager, propose two (2) methods that you will use to determine incentive pay. Explain if the rewards are tailored towards individual, group, and / or company performance. Explain how you as the HR manager will create an incentive pay program that will motivate employees.
17. The balanced-score card approach is useful in designing executive pay. Propose three (3) measures the HR manager can use to assess shareholder value, customer value, and employee value.
18. As the HR manager, analyze two (2) difficulties in creating a benefits package that motivates employees.
19. As the HR manager, propose three (3) incentives that can be used to motivate employees.
20. As the HR manager, examine two (2) ethical risks of making incentive pay a large portion of employees’ total compensation. Propose two (2) suggestions as to how the company could balance or reduce these risks.
21. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

HRM 500 Week 1 Discussion Questions

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Week 1- Discussion 1
From the e-Activity, rank the top-five skills that are important for success in human resource management, with 1 being the most important and 5 being the least important. Determine one of these skills that you currently possess and one skill that you will need to develop. Provide support for your answer.

Week 1- Discussion 2
Assume that you are about to start a new business. Determine two aspects of human resource management that you would consider outsourcing to specialists. Provide a rational for your response.

HRM 500 Week 2 Discussion Questions

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Week 2- D1
From the scenario, propose two adjustments that you as a HR manager can make to support the changes related to high-performance work systems, technological changes, and a change in the employment relationship.

Week 2- D2
Imagine that you work for an organization that has decided to move its manufacturing to Mexico and focus more on research and information technology. Predict two ways that the shift will impact current employees and your role as the HR manager. Provide solutions to these foreseen changes.

HRM 500 Week 3 Discussion Questions

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Week 3-D1
From the e-Activity, examine two of the resources that are available for the selected job analysis method.

Week 3- D2
From the scenario, propose two work/life programs that will support these professionals, and determine how you would ascertain the needs of the workforce.

HRM 500 Week 4 Discussion Questions

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Week 4- D1
Determine two places outside of the Internet where you would search locally for viable candidates with the skills needed to fill the positions of software developers. Support your position.

Week 4 D2
From the scenario, suggest two types of training that the company would provide for newly hired employees into a software development position. Elaborate briefly (two sentences) on your suggestions.

HRM 500 Week 5 Discussion Questions

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Week 5 D1
From the scenario, propose two approaches that a company can use to leverage a 360-degree performance appraisal system to evaluate individual performance. Support your answer with examples.

Week 5 D2
Describe two instances where performance pressure can lead to unethical behavior by employees in the effort to meet company goals. Propose two suggestions that HRM can take to limit unethical behavior by employees.

HRM 500 Week 6 Discussion Questions

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Week 6 D1
From the e-Activity, suggest two applications for the psychological test that you researched in regard to employee preferences / tendencies and the communication, work style, and leadership of the people in a work group.

Week 6 D2
Assume you are the HR Director of a company, and you are involved with selecting the next CEO of that company. Examine two reasons why CEOs experience job insecurity. Determine two advantages to being the CEO of the company that you may use to persuade the candidate to accept the position.

HRM 500 Week 7 Discussion Questions

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Week 7 D1
From the e-Activity, compare the salaries for the same job in two different geographic locations within the United States. Speculate on two economic influences that may impact the pay difference in the two geographic areas you selected.

Week 7 D2
Determine two circumstances in which profit sharing and employee stock ownership may increase employee motivation and performance levels. Support your answer with examples.

HRM 500 Week 8 Discussion Questions

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Week 8 D1
From the scenario, examine two reasons why employees join labor unions. Examine two reasons why managers prefer that unions do not represent their employees. Suggest two benefits that unions can provide for an employer.

Week 8 D2
From the e-Activity, examine two actions that the selected HI organization takes in order to make its employees feel that they are members of a supportive community. Propose two scenarios in which high involvement by an organization would benefit the company and encourage employee loyalty.

HRM 500 Week 9 Discussion Questions

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Week 9 D1
From the e-Activity, examine two factors that HR managers would need to consider when teaching employees about the culture in Mexico. Recommend two actions that HR managers can take in order to prepare their employees for the culture shift.

Week 9 D2
In America today, education is increasingly the key to individual success in the workplace. Determine two benefits to hiring someone who has an education gap, as opposed to merely hiring someone who has the requisite knowledge and skills. Recommend two actions that organizations can take to overcome the education gap when hiring new employees.

HRM 500 Week 10 Discussion Questions

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Week 10 D1
Imagine that you are HR manager for a company with a high performance work system that includes the right combination of people, technology, and organizational structure. Provide two suggestions for how the combination of these factors can contribute to high performance for the organization. Support your position.

Week 10 D2
Management is about making choices about strategy and deciding to take one action over another. Examine two challenges that managers in American companies face today in regard to the new global economy. Based on these two challenges, recommend two actions that managers in American companies can take in order to meet the challenges of the new global economy.

HRM 500 Week 11 Discussion Questions

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Week 11 D1
Determine two ways to apply what you learned in this course in your current or a future position.

Week 11 D2
Assess how your own theories of consumer behavior have matured or changed since the beginning of this course.