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MKT 475 Week 11 Quiz

MKT 475 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 10 Chapter 15

Strategic Marketing Implementation and Control

True/False Questions

1. The analytical dimension of marketing planning process is concerned with the organizational structure in which planning is carried out, along with the associated information resources and corporate culture.

2. Internal marketing involves developing programs to win line management support for new strategies.

3. External marketing involves changing the attitudes and behavior of employees working at key points of contact with customers.

4. Internal marketing goals include promoting the external marketing strategy.

5. The balanced scorecard method is used to implement marketing plans.

6. The balanced scorecard method formally includes an assessment of the strategy component across all aspects of the business unit at the same time.

7. A benefit of the balanced scorecard methodology is that it is feasible for any business unit level strategy and provides a means to link performance evaluation to strategy implementation.

8. The second step in marketing evaluation and control is determining performance metrics and standards.

9. When monitoring a firm’s effectiveness of marketing activities, external information sources must be excluded.

10. Marketing metrics should be chosen to reflect issues most closely linking marketing investments with value chain requirements.

Multiple Choice Questions

11. The _____ indicates marketing objectives and the strategy and tactics for accomplishing the objectives, and guides implementation and control. 
A. strategic marketing plan
B. traditional marketing design
C. integrated marketing communications
D. market positioning strategy

12. Which of the following techniques guides short-term marketing activities?
A. Strategic marketing plan
B. Annual marketing plan
C. Situation analysis
D. Positioning strategy

13. Which of the following marketing planning process dimensions is concerned with an organization’s structure, associated information resources, and corporate culture?
A. Analytical process dimension
B. Behavioral process dimension
C. Organizational process dimension
D. Cognitive process dimension

14. Which of the following marketing planning process dimensions is concerned with managerial perceptions, participation, and strategic assumptions?
A. Analytical process dimension
B. Cognitive process dimension
C. Organizational process dimension
D. Behavioral process dimension

15. Which of the following marketing planning process dimensions is concerned with techniques, procedures, systems, and planning models?
A. Analytical process dimension
B. Cognitiveprocess dimension
C. Organizational process dimension
D. Behavioral process dimension

16. Which of the following is true about internal marketing?
A. It positions the marketing strategy in the customer marketplace.
B. Its goals include promoting the external marketing strategy.
C. It aims at providing superior external customer service to support internal strategy.
D. Its aim is to better align internal market objectives with external capabilities.

17. Which of the following is true about internal marketing?
A. It positions the marketing strategy in the customer marketplace.
B. It involves changing the attitudes and behavior of customers at key points of contact with employees.
C. It is aimed at the potential customers within the company.
D. It is targeted at particular market segments and niches.

18. _____ is a formalized management control system that implements a given business unit strategy by means of activities across four areas: financial, customer, internal business process, and learning and growth (or innovation).
A. Benchmarking
B. Internal strategy-organization fit
C. Strategic marketing audit
D. Balanced scorecard method

19.Which of the following is true of the balanced scorecard method?
A. It translates aggregate and broadly defined strategies to very specific actions.
B. It provides a means to link customer satisfaction with value orientation.
C. It is not feasible for business unit level strategies.
D. It does not assess the strategy component across all aspects of the business unit.

20. The _____ approach allows consideration of specific activities which will accomplish the objective, but also formally includes an assessment of the strategy component across all aspects of the business unit at the same time. 
A. vertical assessment
B. balanced scorecard
C. strategic marketing audit
D. benchmarking

21. Which of the following is the initial step in setting up a strategic marketing evaluation program?
A. Obtaining and analyzing information for performance-gap identification
B. Selecting performance criteria and choosing relevant marketing metrics
C. Conducting strategic marketing audit
D. Assessing performance and taking necessary action

22. Which of the following is the strategic marketing audit used for?
A. To translate broadly defined marketing strategy into very specific actions
B. To provide a means to link performance evaluation to strategy implementation
C. To ensure that activities in one area do not interfere with activities in another area
D. To initiate a formal strategic marketing planning program

23. The results of the _____ provide the basis for selecting performance criteria and choosing relevant marketing metrics to assess actual performance against plans and tactical intent.
A. strategic marketing audit
B. integrated marketing communications
C. balanced scorecard
D. customer relationship analysis

24. _____ use both internal and external information sources to provide a structure for monitoring the effectiveness of marketing activities and strategies.
A. Marketing segmentation strategies
B. Balanced scorecard methods
C. Marketing metrics
D. Salesforce strategies

25. The choice of the most relevant marketing metrics should be made in the light of the need to:
A. track performance relative to alliances.
B. track performance relative to suppliers.
C. track performance over investment capabilities.
D. measure performance relative to strategy.

26. Which of the following is a danger of using a marketing dashboard?
A. The dashboard contains metrics only relevant to assessing past performance.
B. The dashboard contains metrics which only give insight into present performance.
C. The dashboard contains metrics which only give insight into future developments.
D. The dash board contains only metrics related to the main business drivers.

27. Which of the following approaches is a quality control technique useful in determining when operating results are fluctuating normally or instead are disorderly?
A. Value chain analysis
B. Statistical process-control methods
C. Benchmarking
D. Data-control processes

28. _____ is/are used to analyze and improve results in marketing performance measures such as the number of orders processed, customer complaints, and territory sales.
A. Value chain analysis
B. Benchmarking
C. Quality-control charts
D. Cluster analysis

29. A _____ indicates when the process is experiencing normal variation and when the process is out of control.
A. data-control process
B. value chain analysis
C. BCG matrix
D. control-chart analysis

30. Which of the following is true of a control-chart analysis?
A. It cannot be used to detect randomness in operating results.
B. Its control boundaries are set using historical data.
C. It can only be used to establish average and upper limits of the measure.
D. It can only be used to establish average and lower limits of the measure.

Essay Questions

31. What are the core tasks of a CMO?

32. Explain the dimensions of the marketing planning process.

33. Discuss factors that influence the implementation of a marketing strategy.

34. Discuss how organizational designs help implement a strategic marketing plan.

35. What guiding points should be considered when selecting relevant marketing metrics?

MKT 475 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer University New

MKT/475 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 10 Chapter 15

Strategic Marketing Implementation and Control

True/False Questions

1. The analytical dimension of marketing planning process is concerned with the organizational structure in which planning is carried out, along with the associated information resources and corporate culture.

2. Internal marketing involves developing programs to win line management support for new strategies.

3. External marketing involves changing the attitudes and behavior of employees working at key points of contact with customers.

4. Internal marketing goals include promoting the external marketing strategy.

5. The balanced scorecard method is used to implement marketing plans.

6. The balanced scorecard method formally includes an assessment of the strategy component across all aspects of the business unit at the same time.

7. A benefit of the balanced scorecard methodology is that it is feasible for any business unit level strategy and provides a means to link performance evaluation to strategy implementation.

8. The second step in marketing evaluation and control is determining performance metrics and standards.

9. When monitoring a firm’s effectiveness of marketing activities, external information sources must be excluded.

10. Marketing metrics should be chosen to reflect issues most closely linking marketing investments with value chain requirements.

Multiple Choice Questions

11. The _____ indicates marketing objectives and the strategy and tactics for accomplishing the objectives, and guides implementation and control. 
A. strategic marketing plan
B. traditional marketing design
C. integrated marketing communications
D. market positioning strategy

12. Which of the following techniques guides short-term marketing activities?
A. Strategic marketing plan
B. Annual marketing plan
C. Situation analysis
D. Positioning strategy

13. Which of the following marketing planning process dimensions is concerned with an organization’s structure, associated information resources, and corporate culture?
A. Analytical process dimension
B. Behavioral process dimension
C. Organizational process dimension
D. Cognitive process dimension

14. Which of the following marketing planning process dimensions is concerned with managerial perceptions, participation, and strategic assumptions?
A. Analytical process dimension
B. Cognitive process dimension
C. Organizational process dimension
D. Behavioral process dimension

15. Which of the following marketing planning process dimensions is concerned with techniques, procedures, systems, and planning models?
A. Analytical process dimension
B. Cognitiveprocess dimension
C. Organizational process dimension
D. Behavioral process dimension

16. Which of the following is true about internal marketing?
A. It positions the marketing strategy in the customer marketplace.
B. Its goals include promoting the external marketing strategy.
C. It aims at providing superior external customer service to support internal strategy.
D. Its aim is to better align internal market objectives with external capabilities.

17. Which of the following is true about internal marketing?
A. It positions the marketing strategy in the customer marketplace.
B. It involves changing the attitudes and behavior of customers at key points of contact with employees.
C. It is aimed at the potential customers within the company.
D. It is targeted at particular market segments and niches.

18. _____ is a formalized management control system that implements a given business unit strategy by means of activities across four areas: financial, customer, internal business process, and learning and growth (or innovation).
A. Benchmarking
B. Internal strategy-organization fit
C. Strategic marketing audit
D. Balanced scorecard method

19.Which of the following is true of the balanced scorecard method?
A. It translates aggregate and broadly defined strategies to very specific actions.
B. It provides a means to link customer satisfaction with value orientation.
C. It is not feasible for business unit level strategies.
D. It does not assess the strategy component across all aspects of the business unit.

20. The _____ approach allows consideration of specific activities which will accomplish the objective, but also formally includes an assessment of the strategy component across all aspects of the business unit at the same time. 
A. vertical assessment
B. balanced scorecard
C. strategic marketing audit
D. benchmarking

21. Which of the following is the initial step in setting up a strategic marketing evaluation program?
A. Obtaining and analyzing information for performance-gap identification
B. Selecting performance criteria and choosing relevant marketing metrics
C. Conducting strategic marketing audit
D. Assessing performance and taking necessary action

22. Which of the following is the strategic marketing audit used for?
A. To translate broadly defined marketing strategy into very specific actions
B. To provide a means to link performance evaluation to strategy implementation
C. To ensure that activities in one area do not interfere with activities in another area
D. To initiate a formal strategic marketing planning program

23. The results of the _____ provide the basis for selecting performance criteria and choosing relevant marketing metrics to assess actual performance against plans and tactical intent.
A. strategic marketing audit
B. integrated marketing communications
C. balanced scorecard
D. customer relationship analysis

24. _____ use both internal and external information sources to provide a structure for monitoring the effectiveness of marketing activities and strategies.
A. Marketing segmentation strategies
B. Balanced scorecard methods
C. Marketing metrics
D. Salesforce strategies

25. The choice of the most relevant marketing metrics should be made in the light of the need to:
A. track performance relative to alliances.
B. track performance relative to suppliers.
C. track performance over investment capabilities.
D. measure performance relative to strategy.

26. Which of the following is a danger of using a marketing dashboard?
A. The dashboard contains metrics only relevant to assessing past performance.
B. The dashboard contains metrics which only give insight into present performance.
C. The dashboard contains metrics which only give insight into future developments.
D. The dash board contains only metrics related to the main business drivers.

27. Which of the following approaches is a quality control technique useful in determining when operating results are fluctuating normally or instead are disorderly?
A. Value chain analysis
B. Statistical process-control methods
C. Benchmarking
D. Data-control processes

28. _____ is/are used to analyze and improve results in marketing performance measures such as the number of orders processed, customer complaints, and territory sales.
A. Value chain analysis
B. Benchmarking
C. Quality-control charts
D. Cluster analysis

29. A _____ indicates when the process is experiencing normal variation and when the process is out of control.
A. data-control process
B. value chain analysis
C. BCG matrix
D. control-chart analysis

30. Which of the following is true of a control-chart analysis?
A. It cannot be used to detect randomness in operating results.
B. Its control boundaries are set using historical data.
C. It can only be used to establish average and upper limits of the measure.
D. It can only be used to establish average and lower limits of the measure.

Essay Questions

31. What are the core tasks of a CMO?

32. Explain the dimensions of the marketing planning process.

33. Discuss factors that influence the implementation of a marketing strategy.

34. Discuss how organizational designs help implement a strategic marketing plan.

35. What guiding points should be considered when selecting relevant marketing metrics?

MKT 475 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer University New

MKT/475 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 8 Chapter 13

Sales, Digital, and Direct Marketing Strategies

True/False Questions

1. The final step in a salesforce strategy is designing the sales organizations.

3
2. Sales quotas are used to state the management’s expected sales results.

3

3. Transactional selling is not restricted to small, low-volume buyers.

3

4. The new business selling strategy is based on firms selling to an existing customer base and providing technical and application assistance.

3

5. Trade selling provides assistance and support to value chain members rather than obtaining sales.

3

6. If a customer base displays substantial differences in purchasing power and servicing requirements, then the use of a single salesforce channel is appropriate.

3

7. If the product or the customer base does not dominate design considerations, a geographical sales organization is used.

3

8. Single-factor models analyze the profit performance of accounts or trading areas as the basis to estimate the profit impact of adding more salespeople.

3

9. In social media–based positioning attempts, the goal is to create a community providing only functional benefits.

392

10. In direct marketing, accuracy of targeting is only as good as the lists used to access potential buyers.

400

Multiple Choice Questions

11. Which of the following initiatives of forming a salesforce strategy requires deciding how personal selling is expected to contribute to the marketing program?
A. Determining the role of the sales force in the promotion strategy
B. Selecting the selling process
C. Deciding if and how alternative sales channels will be utilized
D. Designing the sales

3

12. Which of the following initiatives is the second step in building a salesforce strategy?
A. Determining the role of the sales force in the promotion strategy
B. Select the selling process
C. Deciding if and how alternative sales channels will be utilized
D. Designing the sales organization

3

13. _____ selling involves obtaining sales from first-time buyers, who may be one-time purchasers or repeat buyers.
A. Missionary
B. Trade selling
C. New business
D. Consultative

3

14. _____ selling provides assistance and support to value chain members rather than obtaining sales. 
A. New business
B. Consultative/technical
C. Missionary
D. Trade

3
15. _____selling is a form of selling in which the salespeople work with the customers of a channel member to encourage them to purchase the producer’s product from the channel member. 
A. Missionary
B. Trade
C. New business
D. Consultative/technical

3

16. _____ is targeted at an existing customer base and provides technical and application assistance. These positions may involve the sales of complex equipment or services.
A. New business selling
B. Consultative selling
C. Missionary selling
D. Trade selling

3

17. Sales representatives of Oasis Travels collaborate with various hotels across the state to get customers to book package tours. Which of the following sales positions do the salespeople of Oasis Travels hold?
A. New business selling
B. Consultative selling
C. Missionary selling
D. Trade selling

3

18. Which of the following activities does a selling process include?
A. Advertising the product
B. Training the salespeople
C. Prospecting for suppliers
D. Presenting the sales message

3

19. Which of the following activities would most likely be the first in the selling process?
A. Prospecting for customers
B. Opening relationships
C. Presenting the sales message
D. Training salespeople

3

20.Which of the following sales organization designs is most appropriate when customer needs are different and the product offering is simple?
A. Product-driven
B. Market-driven
C. Geography-driven
D. Product/market-driven

3

21. Which of the following sales organization designs can be adopted when customer needs are similar and there is a complex range of products offered?
A. Geography-driven
B. Market-driven
C. Product-driven
D. Product/market-driven

3

22. If the product or the customer base does not dominate design considerations, a _____ sales organization is used.
A. market-driven
B. product-driven
C. product/market-driven
D. geography-driven

3

23. _____ require information on each salesperson’s sales and/or costs and can help spot high performing and unprofitable territories by comparing each salesperson to an average break-even sales level.
A. Revenue/cost analysis techniques
B. Single-factor models
C. Sales and effort response models
D. Portfolio deployment models

3

24. _____ for analyzing sales force assume that size of the sales force and/or effort deployment are determined by one factor, such as market potential or workload whose values can be used to determine required selling effort.
A. Revenue/cost analysis techniques
B. Single-factor models
C. Sales and effort response models
D. Portfolio deployment models

3
25. _____ for analyzing sales force size consider the impact of multiple influences like market potential, intensity of competition, and workload on market response that can improve salesperson deployment decisions.
A. Revenue/cost analysis techniques
B. Single-factor models
C. Sales and effort response models
D. Portfolio deployment models

3
26. Mark sees an ad in the newspaper of a new line of treadmills and orders for it by calling the number provided in the ad. Which of the following type of direct marketing methodology did the ad employ?
A. Direct response media
B. Direct mail
C. Catalog shopping
D. Kiosk shopping

399

27. Which of the following is a disadvantage of direct marketing?
A. Limited content support in direct-response advertising
B. Effectiveness of direct marketing cannot be measured
C. Restricts selective reach and segmentation opportunities
D. No flexibility provided in accessing potential buyers

400

28. Which of the following is an advantage of direct marketing?
A. Sufficient content support in direct-response advertising
B. Timing contact can be managed and personalized
C. Negative image factors are non-existent
D. Shipping and postal rates tend to decrease over time

400

29. Which of the following is true, with regard to an organizational buyer, of computer ordering?
A. It does not allow for direct purchase responses.
B. It makes it hard to monitor customer preferences.
C. It enables the buyer to lower inventory levels.
D. It increases the overall cost of inventory.

400

30. Which of the following types of networks is most likely to be present at a kiosk for customers to use?
A. Internet
B. Intraweb
C. Extranet
D. Intranet

400

Essay Questions

31. What are the major initiatives of a salesforce strategy?

32. Describe the different types of sales jobs.

33. List the activities that make up the selling process.

34. An important part of deciding the personal selling strategy is choice of the alternative channels to end-user customers. Explain the issues involved.

35. Explain the communications features of the Internet.

MKT 475 Week 8 Quiz – Strayer University New

MKT/475 Week 8 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 7 Chapter 11 and 12

Chapter 11

Pricing Strategy

True/False Questions

1. Price strategy is always related to competition whether firms use a higher, lower, or equal price.

323

2. Both revenues and costs need to be taken into account in selecting pricing strategies.

323

3. Lowering prices generally eliminates potential price wars.

324

4. The second step in selecting a pricing strategy is analyzing the pricing situation.

324

5. The core issue in pricing is finding out what value requirements (benefits-costs) the buyer places on the product or brand.

327
6. The underlying logic of economic value modeling (EVM) is that using the price/benefit ratio is a more realistic view of value than “dollar worth of benefits minus price.”

328

7. Customer value mapping estimates are based on the differentiated benefits that a customer receives from a product.

328

8. Competitive bidding is an example of demand-oriented approach of pricing.

340
9. Reverse auction pricing involves sellers bidding for organizational buyers’ purchases.

340
10. The competitor is the frame of reference for demand-oriented pricing methods.

340

Multiple Choice Questions

11. Which of the following distribution approaches is most likely to call for more competitive pricing?
A. Exclusive
B. Selective
C. Intensive
D. Narrow

321
322

12. Price cuts in economic downturns are primarily aimed at:
A. increasing short-term profits.
B. defending a firm’s position vigorously.
C. compensating for low quality products.
D. capturing market share.

323

13. Which of the following is the first step in selecting a pricing strategy?
A. Setting pricing objectives
B. Analyzing the pricing situation
C. Selecting pricing strategy
D. Determining specific prices and policies

323

14. Which of the following is the final step in selecting a pricing strategy?
A. Setting pricing objectives
B. Determining specific prices and policies
C. Selecting pricing strategy
D. Analyzing the pricing situation

323

15. _____ is the percentage change in the quantity sold of a brand when the price changes, divided by the percentage change in price.
A. Price distribution
B. Price band
C. Price point
D. Price elasticity

327

16. _____ estimates value as the perceived quality buyers obtain per unit of price.
A. Customer value mapping
B. Customer equity
C. User lifetime value
D. Customer value proposition

327
328

17. Value using _____ consists of the financial savings and gains provided to customers due to purchase of the firm’s brand instead of competitors’ brands.
A. customer value mapping
B. economic value modeling
C. user lifetime value
D. customer value proposition

328

18. Which of the following is the first step in cost analysis for pricing decisions?
A. Estimating how cost varies with the volume of sales
B. Analyzing the cost competitive advantage of the product
C. Determining the components of the cost of the product
D. Estimating how much control management has over costs

330

19. _____ indicates whether costs and prices for various products decline by a given amount each time the number of units produced doubles.
A. Economic value modeling
B. Activity-based costing
C. Customer value mapping
D. Learning-curve analysis

331

20. A high-active pricing strategy:
A. values superiority.
B. emphasizes nonprice competitive factors.
C. offers discounts.
D. avoids price comparisons.

336

21. Which of the following is true of high-passive strategy pricing?
A. It is used when competition for the market target is very high.
B. It emphasizes nonprice competitive factors.
C. It is primarily used by discount retailers.
D. It is used by producers whose brands are not familiar to the market.

337

22. A low-active pricing strategy:
A. emphasizes nonprice competitive factors.
B. is mainly used to gain margins in small market targets.
C. is most effective for discount retailers.
D. is an attractive strategy when competition for market target is high.

337

23. A low-passive pricing strategy:
A. emphasizes superior value of the product.
B. emphasizes nonprice competitive factors.
C. offers discounts.
D. avoids price comparisons.

337

24. When two or more competitors collude to explicitly or implicitly set prices, this practice is referred to as _____.
A. horizontal price fixing
B. price discrimination
C. deceptive pricing
D. predatory pricing

337

25. _____ is the practice of charging different prices to different buyers for goods of similar grade and quality.
A. Price fixing
B. Price discrimination
C. Deceptive pricing
D. Predatory pricing

338

26. Charging a very low price for a product with the intent of driving competitors out of business is referred to as _____.
A. cannibalization
B. price fixing
C. predatory pricing
D. deceptive pricing

338
27. Which of the following types of price determination methods uses the price of producing and marketing the product as the basis for determining price?
A. Cost-oriented
B. Supply-oriented
C. Competition-oriented
D. Demand-oriented

339

28. _____ pricing methods consider estimated market response to alternative prices.
A. Cost-oriented
B. Supply-oriented
C. Competition-oriented
D. Demand-oriented

339

29. Which of the following types of pricing is considered a cost-oriented approach of pricing?
A. Break-even pricing
B. Reverse auction pricing
C. Demand-oriented pricing
D. Internet auction pricing

339

30. When using markup pricing, which of the following formulas determines the selling price?
A. Price = Average unit cost divided by Markup percentage
B. Price = Average unit cost divided by 1 minus Markup percentage
C. Price = Unit cost minus Markup price
D. Price = Total fixed costs divided by Unit price minus Unit variable cost

340

Essay Questions

31. Explain the role of price in the distribution strategy.

32. Explain the various roles of price in the marketing program.

33. What are the steps in selecting a pricing strategy?

34. Give an account of predatory pricing. What are its ethical implications?

35. Give an account of the impact of emerging markets on pricing.

Chapter 12

Promotion, Advertising, and Sales Promotion Strategies

True/False Questions

1. An advantage of personal selling over advertising is its flexibility in responding to the buyer’s objections and questions at the time the decision to purchase is being made.

355

2. The percent-of-sales method of budgeting for promotion is arbitrary and does not recognize that promotion efforts and results are related.

357
3. Promotion expenditures for the competitive parity method are guided by comparing which component(s) is/are appropriate for attaining each objective.

357
4. The final step in developing an advertising strategy involves evaluating its effectiveness.

359
5. Determining the sales and profit impact of advertising is more difficult to measure than the exposure and awareness it creates.

360
6. The fragmentation of many consumer markets is driving significant amounts of advertising spending from traditional mass media to more focused narrowcast media.

363

7. Recall tests measure consumers’ awareness of specific ads and campaigns by asking questions to determine if a sample of people remembers an ad.

366

8. Longitudinal studies use empirical data to build a mathematical relationship between sales and advertising effort.

366

9. Sales promotions are primarily used to bring awareness of a particular product.

366

10. Coupons are extensively used as a promotional activity to target value chain members.

369

Multiple Choice Questions

11. _____ consists of planning, implementing, and controlling an organization’s communications to its customers and other target audiences. 
A. Promotion strategy
B. Distribution program
C. Benchmarking
D. Planned obsolescence

350
12. Which of the following is a disadvantage of advertising?
A. It has high cost per exposure.
B. It has fixed messages for the duration of an exposure.
C. It does not allow much creativity in message design.
D. It provides low control of message content.

351

13. Which of the following is true about advertising?
A. It has high cost per exposure.
B. It provides low control over exposure.
C. It does not allow direct interactions with buyer.
D. It does not allow for creative message designs.

351

14. _____ consists of verbal communication between a salesperson and one or more prospective purchasers with the objective of making or influencing a sale. 
A. Public relation
B. Sales promotion
C. Advertising
D. Personal selling

351

15. _____ consists of activities such as, trade shows, contests, samples, point-of-purchase displays, product placement in films and other occasions, trade incentives, and coupons.
A. Sales promotion
B. Advertising
C. Personal selling
D. Interactive marketing

351
16. _____ refers to communications placed in the commercial media at no charge to the company receiving the publicity.
A. Advertising
B. Public relations
C. Personal selling
D. Interactive marketing

353

17. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the percent of sales method of setting promotional budgets?
A. It heavily relies on the experience and judgment of the marketing team.
B. It can result in too much spending on promotion when sales are high and not enough when sales are low.
C. Its budgeting method is directly guided by how much competitors spend.
D. It does not base its budgeting on past expenditure patterns.

357
18. Which of the following promotion strategies is most appropriate when buyers’ information needs are high?
A. Advertising-driven
B. Sales promotion-driven
C. Personal selling-driven
D. Generic

358

19. An advertising-driven promotion strategy is used when:
A. the numbers of buyers are small.
B. the size and importance of purchase is large.
C. product complexity is high.
D. no post purchase contact is required.

358

20. Which of the following advertising objectives is used more often because of the ease of measurement?
A. Exposure objectives
B. Attitude change objectives
C. Sales objectives
D. Profit objectives

360

21. Distributing promotional video clips across the Internet is referred to as _____.
A. personal selling
B. viral marketing
C. sales promotion
D. direct distribution

363

22. _____ identifies relationships between advertising expenditures and sales using statistical techniques such as regression analysis. 
A. Test marketing
B. Recall test
C. Longitudinal study
D. Evaluating historical data

366
23. _____ measure(s) consumers’ awareness of specific ads and campaigns by asking questions to determine if a sample of people remembers an ad. 
A. Recall tests 
B. Effort/result models 
C. Longitudinal studies
D. Test marketing

366
24. _____ track(s) advertising expenditures and sales results before, during, and after an advertising campaign. 
A. Effort/result models
B. Longitudinal studies
C. Recall tests
D. Test marketing

366
25. _____ use empirical data to build a mathematical relationship between sales and advertising effort. 
A. Controlled tests
B. Recall tests
C. Effort/results models
D. Longitudinal studies

366
26. Which of the following is a promotional pricing form of sales promotion activity?
A. Selling aids
B. Trade shows
C. Prizes
D. Coupons

369

27. Which of the following sales promotion activity is targeted at industrial buyers?
A. Coupons
B. Bonuses
C. Rebates
D. Advertising support

369

28. Which of the following informational activities is targeted at both channel members and the salesforce?
A. Demonstrations
B. Trade shows
C. Displays
D. Selling aids

369

29. Which of the following is a disadvantage of sales promotions?
A. The sales response of the sales promotion activities cannot be measured to determine their effectiveness.
B. The incentive and price promotion techniques trigger the purchase of other products.
C. It allows value-added resellers to build inventories on products that receive manufacturers’ trade discounts.
D. It has the flexibility to contribute to various marketing objectives.

370

30. Which of the following is the first step in developing a sales promotion strategy?
A. Setting specific promotion objectives
B. Defining the communications task(s) to be accomplished
C. Evaluating the relative cost-effectiveness of various methods
D. Coordinating the content and the timing with other activities

371

Essay Questions

31. Identify the advantages and disadvantages of advertising.

32. List the activities involved in designing an organization’s promotion strategy.

33. Define and explain the benefits of the objective and task method of promotion budget.

34. Explain the challenges impacting the creative process in advertising and changing the design of creative strategies and media.

35. Give an account of the different promotional activities targeted at a firm’s salesforce.

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Chapter 06

Market Targeting and Strategic Positioning

True/False Questions
1. Segment targeting is used more extensively than product differentiation in marketing.

164
2. Product specialization involves offering buyers a product differentiated from competitors’ products.

164
3. Product-markets that experience rapid growth are referred to as emerging market.

165
4. Growing product-markets are shifting from growth to maturity, as indicated by the product life cycles of the products.

165
5. The total sales and profits of a product will decline after it reaches the maturity stage.

166

6. New entrants in an emerging market can use disruptive technologies to attract buyers away from incumbent firms.

167
7. Large, well-established companies are more likely to enter a new product-market than are new enterprises.

167

8. An experiential positioning concept applies to products that solve consumption-related problems for externally generated consumption needs.

175
9. Positioning shows how the company or brand is differentiated from its competitors.

1

10. Doubtful positioning occurs when frequent changes and contradictory messages confuse customers regarding the positioning of the brand.

1

Multiple Choice Questions

11. Naturo-All Foods Inc. provides products that appeal to middle-class buyers who have strong value preferences for natural foods and are willing to pay premium prices for the products that are often not available from other grocery retailers. This segment of customers is Naturo-All Foods Inc.’s _____.
A. focus group
B. affiliate network
C. mass market
D. market target

162

12. The _____ decision identifies the people or organizations in a product-market toward which a firm directs its positioning strategy. 
A. market targeting
B. employer branding
C. domain selecting
D. strategic sifting

163
13. Product-markets that are newly formed are categorized as _____ and are created by factors such as a new technology or the identification of unmet needs by suppliers. 
A. growing
B. emerging
C. mature
D. declining

165

14. A(n)_____ is a life product life cycle stage where the product-market is actually fading away instead of experiencing a temporary fall or cyclical changes.
A. emerging product-market
B. maturing product-market
C. declining product-market
D. growing product-market

165
15.Which of the following is true about the life cycle of a typical product?
A. Profits are highest in the emerging phase of the product-market.
B. Total profits increase after the product reaches the maturity stage.
C. Sales are highest during the growth period.
D. Profits fall off before sales as the product reaches maturity.

166

16. The number of competitors in a(n) _____ market initially consists of the first market entrant and one or two other firms.
A. emerging 
B. maturing
C. declining 
D. growing

166
17. Which of the following market targeting approaches best fits extensive targeting in a clearly defined market segment?
A. Product variety
B. Target selected niches
C. Target multiple segments
D. Product specialization

164

18. Which of the following market targeting approaches best fits selective targeting in a segment not clearly defined? 
A. Product variety
B. Target selected niches
C. Target multiple segments
D. Product specialization

164
19. The global market strategy of _____ considers the extent to which standardized products and other strategy elements can be designed to compete on a global basis, and buyers are targeted without regard to national boundaries and regional preferences.
A. segmentation
B. buffering
C. local responsiveness
D. integration

170
20. Which of the following is a characteristic of emerging markets?
A. Sales are highest in this stage of the product life cycle.
B. Factors that drive market growth are clearly defined at this stage.
C. Market segments are most defined at this stage.
D. Profits are not obtained at this stage of the product life cycle.

166
167

21. The positioning _____ indicates management’s desired positioning of the product (brand) in the eyes and minds of the targeted buyers.
A. strategy
B. concept
C. effectiveness
D. location

172
1

22. The positioning _____ is the positioning initiative which combines marketing program (mix) policies used to portray the positioning desired by management to the targeted buyers. It includes the product (good or service), supporting services, distribution channels, price, and promotion actions taken by the organization.
A. effectiveness
B. concept
C. strategy
D. location

1

23. A(n) _____ positioning concept applies to products that solve consumption-related problems for externally generated consumption needs.
A. functional 
B. lateral
C. symbolic
D. experiential

175
24. _____ positioning applies to products that relate to the buyer’s internally generated need for self-enhancement, role position, group membership, or ego-identification.
A. Iconic
B. Symbolic 
C. Functional 
D. Experiential

175
25. The _____ positioning concept is used to position products that provide sensory pleasure, variety, and/or cognitive stimulation. 
A. material
B. functional
C. experiential
D. symbolic

175

26. Which of the following positioning concepts is most commonly utilized by luxury brands?
A. Functional positioning
B. Experiential positioning
C. Expedient positioning
D. Symbolic positioning

175

27. Bruckners and Co. is a fine writing instruments company that manufactures different products like pencils, pens, oil pastels, and other writing accessories. A recent study conducted by Bruckners on their product positioning revealed that most customers were only aware of Bruckners’ Artisan line of pencils, which were particularly marketed for sketch artists. Which of the following positioning errors is affecting the Artisan brand?
A. Overpositioning
B. Underpositioning
C. Confused positioning
D. Doubtful positioning

1
28. Lambasta is a burger joint that claims to specialize in lamb burgers. Over the past year, Lambasta has experimented in different products wherein they stopped making some of their flagship lamb burgers and replaced them with chicken burgers. The Lambasta website, which claims Lambasta to be “the only legitimate lamb burger joint in town,” increasingly provides special offers on their chicken burgers. Their core customer base and profits have steadily declined ever since. Which of the following types of positioning errors is affecting Lambasta?
A. Underpositioning
B. Overpositioning
C. Symbolic positioning
D. Confused positioning

1
29. Which of the following describes doubtful positioning?
A. When frequent changes and contradictory messages confuse customers regarding the positioning of the brand
B. When the claims made for the product or brand are not regarded as credible by the customer 
C. When customers have too narrow an understanding of the company, product, or brand
D. When customers have only vague ideas about the company and its products and do not perceive anything distinctive about them

1

30. _____ occurs when customers have only vague ideas about the company and its products and do not perceive anything distinctive about them.
A. Doubtful positioning
B. Overpositioning
C. Underpositioning
D. Confused positioning

1

Essay Questions

31. Briefly explain the four life cycle stages of the product-market environment.

32. Identify and discuss the three possible targeting strategies in growth markets.

33. Explain the consumer behavior of buyers in mature markets affecting brand management.

34. Elaborate on the scope of using positioning strategies.

35. Explain how test marketing can help assess positioning effectiveness.

Chapter 07

Strategic Relationships

True/False Questions

1. Environmental diversity increases the capacity of an organization to respond quickly to customer needs and new product development.

1

2. Environmental diversity makes it difficult to link buyers and the goods and services that meet buyers’ needs and wants in the marketplace.

1
3. Competence in specialized technology can give smaller firms extensive bargaining power with larger firms.

190

4. Marketing intermediaries such as wholesalers and retailers are horizontal channels of distribution.

191

5. Horizontal relationships have often been established between competing firms to access global markets not served by the cooperating firms.

191
6. Opportunity costs should be considered when assessing and comparing costs in an alliance.

195

7. Value chain relationships provide access to consumer and organizational end-users.

199

8. Strategic account management primarily deals with customers who do not directly invest time or resources in their relationship with the firm.

201

9. Alliances are agreements between two or more firms to establish a separate entity.

203

10. A disengagement plan should consider detailed description of the rights of each partner to alliance assets and products on disengagement.

209
210

Multiple Choice Questions

11. _____ consists of “building a complex product or process from smaller subsystems that can be designed independently yet function together as a whole.”
A. Sifting
B. Modularity
C. Scaffolding
D. Encoding

1

12. _____ reduces the capacity of an organization to respond quickly to customer needs and new product development.
A. Market-sensing
B. Organizational learning
C. Environmental diversity
D. Vertical integration

1

13. An organization that primarily competes through its relationships with other organizations to deliver value to end-users is referred to as a _____.
A. memory organization
B. knowledge organization
C. horizontal organization
D. hollow organization

190

14. Which of the following relationships is an example of an intermediate customer relationship of a firm?
A. Relationship to the distributors of the firm’s products
B. Relationship to the consumers of the firm’s products
C. Relationship to the suppliers of the firm
D. Relationship to the employees of the firm

196

15. Which of the following is considered as an end-use customer of a firm?
A. Competitor
B. Supplier
C. Distributor
D. Consumer

196

16. Which of the following is an example of lateral relationships?
A. Relationship with suppliers
B. Relationship with customers
C. Relationship with competitors
D. Relationship with functional departments

196

17. Supplier relationships are similar to customer relationships in that they are both considered as _____ to the firm.
A. horizontal relationships
B. vertical relationships
C. internal relationships
D. lateral relationships

196

18. Moving products through various stages in the value-added process often involves linking suppliers, manufacturers, distributors, and consumer and business end-users of goods and services into _____ channels. 
A. lateral
B. vertical
C. horizontal
D. parallel

197

19. Which of the following is true of strategic alliances?
A. It is a type of acquisition by one firm of another.
B. It does not involve joint purchasing of stocks of another company.
C. It is not a merger between two independent firms.
D. It does not involve the sharing of existing distribution channels between the firms.

202

20. A _____ between two organizations is an agreement to cooperate to achieve one or more common important objectives without forming a separate entity.
A. joint venture
B. merger
C. divestiture
D. strategic alliance

202

21. Collaborative relationships between companies that are competitors or in related industries are referred to as _____. 
A. outsources
B. alliances
C. joint ventures
D. internal partnerships

202

22. _____ are agreements between two or more firms to establish a separate entity.
A. Franchises
B. Consortiums
C. Strategic alliances
D. Joint ventures

203

23. Which of the following relationships would be considered an internal partnership?
A. Relationships between functional units and employees of a firm
B. Relationships between a firm and a competitor
C. Relationships between a firm and its supplier
D. Relationships between a firm and its customers

204

24. Strategic leadership of a partnership can be achieved by:
A. developing an interdependent leadership structure.
B. assigning the responsibility to one of the partners.
C. efficient outsourcing.
D. initiating independent value chain functions.

207

25. Companies may miss opportunities to reduce costs and generate additional income by:
A. assessing the venture’s strategic fit for continuing the alliance.
B. generating extensive restructuring options.
C. assigning accountability for making changes.
D. failing to launch a process.

209

26. Which of the following should be considered for a successful alliance disengagement plan?
A. Identifying and agreeing on the events that will trigger exit from the alliance
B. Design of the engagement process
C. Restructuring and cost-reduction
D. Developing new markets and building market position

210

27. Corporate alliances must demonstrate that their joint activities do not lead to price fixing or other forms of _____. 
A. boycotts
B. market limitation
C. benefits
D. comfort letters

214

28. Industry alliances for any purpose must avoid _____, treat codes of conduct as voluntary while issues of breach of the code by suppliers must be addressed by individual companies. 
A. market manipulation
B. benefits 
C. boycotts 
D. comfort letters

214

29. An alliance should demonstrate the low risk of anticompetitive harm and pro-competitive _____ and efficiencies to be gained. 
A. market manipulation
B. boycotts
C. benefits
D. comfort letters

214

30. Alliances can seek official _____ from bodies like the US Justice Department stating the authority does not intent to challenge the activities of the alliance. 
A. patents
B. copyrights
C. laurels
D. comfort letters

214
Essay Questions

31. Mention the factors that create a need to establish cooperative strategic relationships between organizations.

32. Describe the different forms of organizational relationships.

33. What are the advantages and disadvantages of outsourcing firm activities?

34. What is the rationale for Strategic Account Management (SAM) and what are the risks of SAM?

35. What features should a successful disengagement plan for a strategic alliance contain?