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ECO 302 Week 2 Quiz

Chapter 1

TRUE/FALSE

1. Macroeconomists study the amount of employment and unemployment.

2. Macroeconomists study the price of individual products like beer.

3. When the gross domestic product is growing, it is called inflation.

4. A recession is when GDP is falling toward a trough.

5. If price is below equilibrium in a market, then quantity supplied will be less than quantity demanded.

6. The annual inflation rate measures the annual percentage growth in the overall price level.

7. The annual inflation rate measures the growth in the prices of oil and food only.

8. Endogenous variables in an economic model are those that the model takes as given and does not try to explain.

9. Exogenous variables in an economic model are those that the model takes as given and does not try to explain.

10. In a model with perfect competition, both buyers and sellers take the price of a good as given.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Macroeconomics deals with:
a. how individual markets work.
b. the overall performance of the economy.
c. relative prices in different markets.
d. substitution of one good for another good.

2. Macroeconomics includes the study of:
a. the general price level. c. the relative price of goods.
b. the price of individual goods. d. all of the above.

3. Macroeconomists study:
a. the determination of the economy’s total production.
b. unemployment
c. the general price level.
d. all of the above.

4. Macroeconomists study:
a. the determination of real GDP.
b. the production of specific goods.
c. the relative production in different markets.
d. all of the above.

5. Among the prices that macroeconomist study are:
a. the price of coffee. c. the interest rate.
b. the price of tea. d. all of the above.

6. Among the prices that macroeconomists study are:
a. the wage rate. c. the exchange rate.
b. the interest rate. d. all of the above.

7. Monetary policy involves:
a. the government’s expenditure. c. determining the quantity of money.
b. taxation. d. the fiscal deficit.

8. The unemployment rate is:
a. the fraction of the population with no job.
b. the fraction of those seeking work with no job.
c. the rate of growth of those with no job.
d. the rate of growth of those seeking work.

9. Fiscal policy involves:
a. determining exchange rates. c. interest rates.
b. government expenditures. d. all of the above.

10. The rate of growth of GDP for period t is:
a. c.
b. d.

11. Variations in real GDP are called:
a. inflation. c. economic fluctuations.
b. deflation. d. all of the above.

12. When GDP is expanding toward a high point it is called a[n]:
a. depression. c. recession.
b. boom. d. inflation.

13. When real GDP falls toward a low point or trough it is called a[n]:
a. boom. c. inflation.
b. recession. d. expansion.

14. During recessions the unemployment rate:
a. declines. c. is stable.
b. increases. d. is unmeasureable.

15. The unemployment rate in the US was highest in the:
a. 1990s c. 1980s
b. 1930s d. 1950s

16. The inflation rate for year t is:
a. c.
b. d.

17. A variable that macroeconomists want to model is a[n]
a. endogenous variable. c. exogenous variable.
b. dummy variable. d. predetermined variable.

18. A variable taken as given in a model is a[n]
a. endogenous variable. c. exogenous variable.
b. dummy variable. d. dichotomous variable.

19. The dollar price paid to use capital is known as:
a. the interest rate. c. the rental price of capital.
b. the exchange rate. d. the general price level.

20. The price of labor is the:
a. exchange rate. c. interest rate.
b. wage rate. d. the rental price.

Figure1.1

Price

21. In Figure1.1 the equilibrium price is:
a. 2 c. 7
b. 5 d. 0

22. In Figure1.1 the equilibrium quantity is
a. 5 c. 7
b. 2 d. 8

23. In Figure1.1 if price is 7, then
a. the market is in equilibrium. c. there is excess quantity demanded.
b. there is excess quantity supplied. d. the market clears.

24. In Figure1.1 if the price is 2, then:
a. the market is in equilibrium. c. there is excess quantity demanded.
b. there is excess quantity supplied. d. the market clears.

25. In Figure1.1, if price is 7, then quantity demanded is:
a. 2. c. 3.
b. 7. d. 8.

26. In Figure1.1, if price is 7, then quantity demanded is:
a. 2. c. 3.
b. 7. d. 8.

27. In Figure1.1, if price is 7, then quantity supplied is:
a. 2. c. 3.
b. 7. d. 8.

28. In Figure1.1, if price is 2, then quantity demanded is:
a. 2. c. 3.
b. 7. d. 8.

29. In Figure1.1, if price is 2, then quantity supplied is:
a. 2. c. 3.
b. 7. d. 8.

30. In Figure1.1, if price is 5, then quantity demanded is:
a. 2. c. 3.
b. 7. d. 5.

31. In Figure1.1, if demand falls, then equilibrium:
a. price and quantity fall. c. price falls and quantity rises.
b. price and quantity rise. d. prices rises and quantity falls.

32. In Figure1.1 if supply increases, then equilibrium:
a. price and quantity fall. c. price rises and quantity falls.
b. price and quantity rise. d. price falls and quantity rises.

33. A possible order of events in an economy over time is:
a. expansion, recession, peak, expansion. c. expansion, peak, trough, recession.
b. recession, trough, expansion, peak. d. recession, trough, peak, expansion.

34. A trough in an economy is when the economy:
a. is growing. c. is contracting.
b. reaches a low point. d. reaches a high point.

35. A peak in an economy is when the economy:
a. is growing. c. is contracting.
b. reaches a low point. d. reaches a high point.

36. A possible order of economic fluctuations is:
a. recession, boom, expansion, trough. c. recession, trough, expansion, peak.
b. expansion, recession, boom, trough. d. expansion, trough, recession, peak.

37. If prices are sticky:
a. the market quickly sticks at equilibrium. c. the market only slowly moves toward equilibrium.
b. the market clears quickly. d. all of the above.

38. In an economic model:
a. endogenous variables feed into a model to affect exogenous variable. c. exogenous and endogenous variables feed into the model.
b. exogenous variables feed into a model to affect endogenous variables. d. none of the above.

39. A price taker:
a. takes the price to the market. c. accepts the market price and decides whether and how much to buy or sell.
b. controls the market price. d. accepts the market quantity and sets price.

40. A macroeconomist would study the:
a. price of cars. c. the sales of beer.
b. the market for shoes. d. none of the above.

41. Since the late 1800s, U.S. GDP has followed
a. a general downward trend. c. a flat trend.
b. a general upward trend. d. no discernable trend.

42. An economic expansion ends when the economy
a. reaches a peak. c. begins a boom.
b. reaches a trough. d. begins a surge.

43. An economic recession ends when
a. the economy reaches a peak. c. unemployment reaches zero percent.
b. the economy reaches a trough. d. unemployment rises at a slow pace.

44. The unemployment rate measures
a. the number of people applying for unemployment insurance. c. the number of people in government welfare programs.
b. the percentage of people working at the minimum wage. d. the percentage of people seeking work who do not have a job.

45. The trend in the U.S. inflation rate since the 1970s has been
a. an increase in the rate. c. a decrease in the rate.
b. a decrease in the rate, followed by an increase in the rate. d. a steady trend, with no major change in the rate.

46. The changing rates of inflation in the U.S. mostly reflects changes in institutions such as
a. the gold standard. c. the U.S. tax code.
b. U.S. Federal Reserve policy. d. both (a) and (b).

47. In the past twenty-five years, the U.S. Federal Reserve mostly has pursued a policy of
a. low income tax rates. c. low and stable inflation.
b. low corporate tax rates. d. high required reserve rates.

48. An example of an exogenous variable in a macroeconomic model most likely would be
a. the level of employment. c. the weather.
b. the level of real GDP. d. the interest rate.

49. An example of an endogenous variable in a macroeconomic model most likely would be
a. the level of employment. c. the level of real GDP.
b. the existence of a war. d. either (a) or (c).

50. An example of an endogenous variable in a macroeconomic model most likely would be
a. the interest rate. c. the development of a new technology.
b. the existence of a war. d. natural disasters.

51. Which is NOT an example of an exogenous variable in a macroeconomic model?
a. the interest rate. c. the development of a new technology.
b. the existence of a war. d. natural disasters.

52. Macroeconomics uses microeconomic models
a. to model the level of real GDP. c. to model the market for coffee.
b. to model the decisions of individual households and businesses. d. in no circumstances.

53. In a macroeconomic model, the term disequilibrium refers to
a. a discrepancy between the quantities of labor supplied and demanded. c. a gap between the wages of unskilled and skilled workers.
b. a discrepancy between the quantities of coffee supplied and demanded. d. a gap between the level of real GDP in two cities.

54. In a macroeconomic model, the term disequilibrium refers to
a. the argument that some prices in the goods market are sticky. c. a gap between the wages of unskilled and skilled workers.
b. a discrepancy between the quantities of coffee supplied and demanded. d. a gap between the unemployment rate in two cities.

55. The new Keynesian approach argues that
a. the economy reflects perfect competion. c. individuals and businesses are mostly price-takers.
b. some prices are sticky and move only slowly. d. supply and demand in the goods market move prices quickly.

56. The new Keynesian approach argues that
a. individuals and businesses are mostly price-takers. c. sectors of the economy may be in disequilibrium for extended periods.
b. most prices are flexible and move quickly. d. supply and demand in the goods market move prices quickly.

57. The economist John Maynard Keynes argued that labor markets
a. are perfectly competitive. c. are usually in disequillibrium.
b. are usually at a point of disengagement. d. reflect rapid adjusment of wages to market conditions.

58. When a country follows a gold standard,
a. the price of gold is mostly constant. c. the price of gold varies quite a bit.
b. the price of silver is mostly constant. d. a central bank cannot also exist.

59. An exchange rate reflects
a. the sum of the values of two currencies. c. the relative levels of labor supply in two countries.
b. the rate at which one currency exchanges for another currency. d. the relative levels of capital in two countries.

60. In a macroeconomic model with perfect competition,
a. no individual buyer can noticeably affect the prices of goods. c. buyers can affect the prices of goods, but sellers cannot.
b. no individual seller can noticeably affect the prices of goods. d. both (a) and (b).

61. In a macroeconomic model with perfect competition,
a. there are many buyers and a few sellers. c. there are many buyers and sellers.
b. there are many sellers and a few buyers. d. there are few buyers and sellers.

62. A macroeconomic model which uses a microeconomic foundation will begin with
a. a microeconomic model, which is then aggregated to form a macroeconomic model. c. a macroeconomic model, which is then aggregated to form a microeconomic model.
b. a macroeconomic model, which is then disaggregated to form a microeconomic model. d. a gold standard model, which is then held exogenous to form a macroeconomic model.

63. An equilibrium price in a microeconomic model
a. shows where the quantity demanded is less than the quantity supplied. c. shows where disequilibrium occurs.
b. is a market-clearing price. d. shows where the quantity demanded is greater than the quantity supplied.

64. An equilibrium price in a microeconomic model
a. shows where the quantity demanded is less than the quantity supplied. c. occurs when there is no pressure for the price to rise or fall.
b. is a market-lowering price. d. shows where the quantity demanded is greater than the quantity supplied.

65. The number for employment refers to the number of
a. employers who have job openings. c. people looking for jobs.
b. adults in the population. d. people with jobs.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What types of economic issues do macroeconomists study?

2. How is the annual inflation rate calculated?

3. What is the rate of growth of real GDP?

4. Describe what happens when demand or supply increase in a market.

5. What are exogenous and endogenous variables?

6. Why are both flexible prices and sticky prices important to macroeconomic models?

ECO 302 Week 3 Quiz

Chapter 2

TRUE/FALSE

1. Nominal GDP measures the dollar value of all goods and services that an economy produces in a particular period of time.

2. GDP is a complete measure of economic welfare.

3. GDP ignores welfare changes due to environmental damage.

4. Value added is the difference between costs of production and the price of a product.

5. The difference between GDP and NNP is the depreciation of capital.

6. Nominal GDP measures the total value of goods and services, adjusted for inflation.

7. GDP in constant dollars uses prices from a base year, so that prices do not vary over time.

8. Business inventories are included in the GDP component of private domenstic investment.

9. A flow variable measures the dollar amount of goods at a specific point in time.

10. Conceptually, GDP measured by income, product, and value added each equal the same amount.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Nominal GDP measures the:
a. dollar value of all goods and services produced in an economy at a point in time. c. dollar value of all goods and services produced in an economy during a specified time period.
b. the constant dollar value of all goods and services produced in an economy at a point in time. d. the constant dollar value of all goods and services produced in an economy during a specified time period.

2. Imputed rental income is:
a. the money people receive from renting property. c. what an owner occupied house would fetch on the market if the owner rented it.
b. the money businesses pay for renting property. d. the money businesses receive from renting property.

3. In an economy with two goods, beer and pizza, if pizza costs $10 per pie and beer costs $5 per six pack and if 100 six packs of beer and 200 pizzas are produced in a year, then nominal GDP that year would be:
a. $2,000. c. $1,500.
b. $2,500. d. none of the above.

4. In an economy with two goods, burgers and pizza, if pizza costs $15 per pie and burgers costs $5 per burger and if 1000 burger and 200 pizzas are produced in a year, then nominal GDP that year would be:
a. $24,000. c. $16,000.
b. $8,000. d. none of the above.

5. Real GDP is GDP:
a. in constant dollars. c. that considers income distribution.
b. in current dollars. d. that includes the value of leisure.

6. Real GDP equals:
a. nominal GDP times the implicit price level. c. the current dollar value of all goods and services produced in an economy during a particular time period.
b. nominal GDP divided by the implicit price level. d. real GDP time the implicit price level.

7. The implicit price level is:
a. the ratio of nominal to real GDP. c. the ratio of real to nominal GDP
b. the product of real and nominal GDP. d. the difference between real and nominal GDP.

8. If real GDP is 120 and nominal GDP is 180, then the implicit price level is:
a. .56. c. 60.
b. 1.5. d. 21600.

9. If real GDP is 200 and nominal GDP is 160, then the implicit price level is:
a. 0.8 c. 40.
b. 1.25 d. 32000.

10. GDP does not:
a. consider changes in the distribution of income. c. assign value to leisure time.
b. include most nonmarket goods. d. all of the above.

11. Personal consumption expenditure includes:
a. services. c. imports.
b. residential structures. d. all of the above.

12. Gross private domestic expenditure includes:
a. fixed investment. c. residential structures.
b. change in business inventory. d. all of the above.

13. Net exports of goods and services equals:
a. imports times exports. c. imports minus exports.
b. exports minus imports. d. all of the above.

14. Personal Consumption expenditure includes:
a. changes in business inventories. c. imports.
b. nondurables. d. all of the above.

15. Gross private domestic investment includes
a. durable goods. c. financial assets.
b. residential structures. d. all of the above.

16. Government purchases include:
a. state and local government purchases. c. federal government debt.
b. tax receipts. d. all of the above.

Table 2.1

Category of Expenditure Trillions of $

Personal Consumption Expenditure 7.5
Gross Private Domestic Investment 2.2
Government Purchases 2.5
Net Exports of Goods and Services -1.0
Depreciation of capital 0.5

17. Based on the data in Table 2.1, Gross Domestic Product is:
a. $11.7 trillion. c. $11.2 trillion.
b. $10.7 trillion. d. none of the above.

18. Based on the data in Table 2.1, net domestic private investment is:
a. $1.7 trillion. c. $11.0 trillion.
b. $2.7 trillion. d. none of the above.

19. Depreciation is:
a. when the price level falls. c. the capital used up producing this period’s output.
b. the economy goes into recession. d. all of the above.

Table 2.2

Category of Expenditure Trillions of $

Durable Goods 1.1
Fixed Investment 1.0
Federal Government Purchases 0.9
Exports 1.3
Nondurable Goods 2.6
Nonresidential Structures 1.3
State and Local Government 1.5
Imports 2.0
Services 5.2
Residential Structures 0.8
Changes in Business Inventories 2.0

20. Based on the data in Table 2.2, personal consumption expenditure is:
a. $3.7 trillion. c. $8.9 trillion.
b. $9.7 trillion. d. none of the above.

21. Based on the data in Table 2.2, gross private investment is:
a. $1.0 trillion. c. $5.1 trillion.
b. $4.3 trillion. d. none of the above.

22. Based on the data in Table 2.2, government purchases are:
a. $0.9 trillion. c. $0.6 trillion.
b. $2.4 trillion. d. none of the above.

23. Based on the data in Table 2.2, net exports of goods and services are:
a. $0.7 trillion. c. -$0.7 trillion.
b. $3.3 trillion. d. none of the above.

24. Based on the data in Table 2.2, gross domestic product is:
a. $17.7 trillion. c. $19.7 trillion.
b. $15.7 trillion. d. none of the above.

25. Based on the data in Table 2.2, net domestic product is:
a. $15.7 trillion. c. $19.7 trillion.
b. $17.7 trillion. d. none of the above.

26. Economists sometimes use a closed economy model despite the fact of trade with the rest of the world because:
a. the world as a whole is a closed economy. c. it simplifies the analysis.
b. at least for large countries like the US exports and imports have been small compared to GDP. d. all of the above.

27. Economists sometimes use a closed economy model because:
a. few countries actually trade with others. c. exports and imports have no effect on the economy.
b. it simplifies the analysis. d. all of the above.

Table 2.3

Type of Income Trillions of $

Compensation of employees 7.1
Proprietor’s income 0.9
Rental income of persons 0.1
Corporate profits 1.4
Net interest 0.5
Taxes on production 0.9
Subsidies 0.1
Business transfers 0.1
Surplus of government enterprises -0.1

28. Based on the data in Table 2.3, national income is:
a. $7.1 trillion. c. $11.0 trillion.
b. $10.8 trillion. d. none of the above.

29. Taxes on production include:
a. excise taxes. c. estate taxes.
b. income taxes. d. all of the above.

30. National income includes:
a. corporate taxes c. corporate profits.
b. corporate assets d. all of the above.

31. National income and GDP diverge in practice because of:
a. receipts and payments involving the rest of the world. c. taxes
b. subsidies. d. all of the above.

32. National income includes:
a. rental income of persons. c. corporate profits.
b. net interest. d. all of the above.

33. National income and GDP diverge in practice because of:
a. subsidies. c. taxes.
b. depreciation of capital. d. all of the above.

Table 2.4

Type of Product or Income Trillions of $

Gross domestic product (GDP) 12.5
Income receipts from the rest of the world 0.5
Depreciation of the capital stock 1.6
Corporate profits, taxes on production, contributions for social
insurance, net interest, business transfers, surplus of government
enterprises 3.6
Personal taxes 1.2
Income payments to the rest of the world 0.4
Personal income receipts on assets and personal transfer payments 3.0

34. Base on the data in Table 2.4, gross national product (GNP) is:
a. $11.4 trillion. c. $12.5 trillion.
b. $12.6. trillion. d. none of the above.

35. Based on the data in Table 2.4, net national product is:
a. $11.0 trillion. c. $12.6 trillion.
b. $11.4 trillion. d. none of the above.

36. Based on the data in Table 2.4, national income is:
a. $7.4 trillion. c. $8.9 trillion.
b. $11.0 trillion. d. none of the above.

37. Based on the data in Table 2.4, personal income is:
a. $10.2 trillion. c. $11.8 trillion.
b. $10.4 trillion. d. none of the above.

38. Based on the data in Table 2.4, disposable personal income is:
a. $10 trillion. c. $9.2 trillion.
b. $7.4 trillion. d. none of the above.

39. Gross national product (GNP) is gross domestic product (GDP):
a. less income receipts from the rest of the world less income payments to the rest of the world. c. plus income receipts from the rest of the world less income payments to the rest of the world.
b. less income receipts from the rest of the world plus income payments to the rest of the world. d. less income receipts from the rest of the world less income payments to the rest of the world.

40. Net national product (NNP) is gross national product (GNP):
a. plus depreciation of capital. c. plus personal taxes.
b. less depreciation of capital. d. less personal taxes.

41. Personal income is national income:
a. less corporate profits, taxes on production, contributions for social insurance, net interest, business transfers and surplus of government enterprises plus personal income receipts on assets and personal transfer payments. c. plus corporate profits, taxes on production, contributions for social insurance, net interest, business transfers and surplus of government enterprises less personal income receipts on assets and personal transfer payments.
b. less corporate profits, taxes on production, contributions for social insurance, net interest, business transfers, surplus of government enterprises, personal income receipts on assets and personal transfer payments. d. plus corporate profits, taxes on production, contributions for social insurance, net interest, business transfers, surplus of government enterprises, personal income receipts on assets and personal transfer payments.

42. Disposable personal income is personal income:
a. plus personal taxes. c. less personal taxes.
b. less corporate profits, taxes on production, contributions for social insurance, net interest, business transfers and surplus of government enterprises plus personal income receipts on assets and personal transfer payments. d. plus corporate profits, taxes on production, contributions for social insurance, net interest, business transfers and surplus of government enterprises less personal income receipts on assets and personal transfer payments.

43. Subtracted from national income to get personal income is:
a. depreciation of capital. c. personal transfer payments.
b. corporate profits. d. all of the above.

44. Added to national income to get personal income is:
a. personal income receipts on assets. c. contributions for social insurance.
b. net interest. d. all of that above.

45. Subtracted from national income to get personal income is:
a. net interest. c. taxes on production.
b. business transfers. d. all of the above.

46. Subtracted from personal income to get disposable personal income is:
a. personal taxes. c. personal income receipts on assets.
b. contributions for social insurance. d. all of the above.

47. The consumer price index (CPI):
a. can not be constructed as a chained index. c. is updated whenever new goods are introduced.
b. does not adjust for quality changes in goods. d. fully accounts for substitution to cheaper goods.

48. The consumer price index is biased because it can not account for:
a. quality changes in goods. c. people substituting to cheaper goods.
b. new goods. d. all of the above.

49. The consumer price index does not account for:
a. the introduction of new goods. c. goods whose prices fall.
b. goods whose prices rise. d. all of the above.

50. The consumer price index is constructed from:
a. tax data. c. data from wholesale producers.
b. survey data. d. all of the above.

51. Nominal GDP can be misleading primarily because it
a. does not include imputed rental income. c. is adjusted for inflation.
b. depends on the overall level of prices. d. does not include personal consumption expenditures.

52. Which of the following would NOT be included in this year’s GDP?
a. the sale of a new 4-door sedan car to a consumer. c. the sale of an antique automobile to a antique-car collector.
b. the sale of a new computer to a student. d. the sale of a new SUV to a consumer.

53. Which of the following would be included in this year’s GDP?
a. the sale of a new car. c. the sale of an existing home.
b. the sale of a used car. d. the sale of an antique table.

54. In the calculation of real GDP, a base year is used for measuring
a. rental income. c. production quantities.
b. wages. d. prices.

55. The chain-weighted measure of GDP
a. uses average prices of goods for two adjacent years. c. uses the current prices of goods.
b. uses the price of goods in a base year, such as the year 2000. d. gives more weight to goods which are more expensive.

56. A chain-weighted measure of GDP addresses the issue of changes in
a. product quality. c. the chain of supply for goods.
b. the average weight of goods. d. the quantity of exports and imports.

57. When the quality of a product changes over time, real GDP
a. cannot be adjusted for this problem. c. can be adjusted by using a chain-weighted measure of GDP.
b. can be adjusted by choosing a new base year each decade. d. can be adjusted by subtracting depreciation from nominal GDP.

58. If nominal GDP is 200 and the implicit price level is 1.25, then real GDP
a. equals 250. c. equals 160.
b. equals 201.25 d. cannot be calculated.

59. If nominal GDP is 300 and the implicit price level is 0.75, then real GDP
a. equals 400. c. equals 225.
b. equals 300. d. cannot be calculated.

60. If real GDP equals 400 and the implicit price level is 0.75, then nominal GDP
a. equals 400. c. equals 225.
b. equals 300. d. cannot be calculated.

61. If real GDP equals 400 and the implicit price level is 1.25, then nominal GDP
a. equals 320. c. equals 500.
b. equals 400. d. cannot be calculated.

62. One shortcoming of real GDP is that it
a. excludes most nonmarket activity. c. does not consider price changes.
b. does not consider income distribution. d. (a) and (b).

63. Which of the following is NOT classified as a consumer durable?
a. automobiles. c. refrigerators.
b. furniture. d. none of the above.

64. Seasonal adjustment to macroeconomic data corrects mostly for
a. price level changes. c. the weather and holidays.
b. product quality changes. d. the housing industry cycle.

65. The sum of value added from all sectors in an economy is equal to
a. national income. c. net national product.
b. GDP. d. (a) and (b).

66. A pottery shop buys clay and other materials for $20. Workers use the materials to make 5 bowls that are sold for $250 total. The value added by the pottery shop equals
a. $0. c. $30.
b. $20. d. $230.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is nominal gross domestic product (GDP)?

2. What is real GDP and what makes it “real?”

3. What is the relationship between nominal and real GDP?

4. What parts of welfare does real GDP not measure?

5. Why might the consumer price index (CPI) overstate inflation?

6. Why should GDP measured by expenditures and by income each equal the same amount? Why, in practice, are they often not equal?

Chapter 3

TRUE/FALSE

1. The standard of living of people in a country is their per capita income.

2. Diminishing returns to labor implies that eventually the marginal product of labor will become negative.

3. The marginal product of capital is how much output changes when capital increases by one unit.

4. Saving is income that is not consumed.

5. Real saving equals gross investment.

6. Data show that, from 1960 to 2000, the U.S. and other OECD countries grew at moderate rates.

7. Data from recent decades show that most countries in sub-Saharan Africa grew at a fast pace.

8. In a production function for the economy, the marginal product of capital typically is increasing.

9. Constant returns to scale in a production function imply that doubling both capital and labor will also double output.

10. The Solow growth model indicates that the growth rate of real GDP per worker depends partly on the saving rate.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. World growth data shows that from 1960 to 2000:
a. the US and other OECD countries grew at moderate rates. c. some countries particularly East Asian countries grew rapidly.
b. sub-Saharan African countries grew at low rates or declined. d. all of the above.

2. World growth data reveals that from 1960 to 2000:
a. the US and other OECD countries grew at moderate rates. c. some countries particularly East Asian countries grew a low rates or declined.
b. sub-Saharan African countries grew rapidly. d. all of the above.

3. World growth data reveals that from 1960 to 2000:
a. the US and other OECD countries stagnated. c. some countries particularly East Asian countries grew at low or negative rates.
b. sub-Saharan African countries grew at low or negative rates. d. all of the above.

4. World growth data reveals that from 1960 to 2000:
a. all countries grew at similar rates. c. some countries particularly East Asian countries grew rapidly.
b. sub-Saharan African countries grew moderately. d. the US and other OECD countries stagnated.

5. The US and other OECD countries had high levels of GDP per person in 2000 despite growing at a moderate rate from 1960 to 2000 because:
a. of exploitation of foreign countries. c. they stole the wealth of less developed countries.
b. their economies had grown at a moderate rate for a century or more. d. all of the above.

6. If A in the production function Y = A • F(K,L) rises, then:
a. output rises for any level of K and L. c. the marginal product of capital rises.
b. the marginal product of labor rises. d. all of the above.

7. If A in the production function Y = A • F(K,L) doubles, while K and L remain the same, then
a. output doubles. c. the marginal product of capital falls.
b. the marginal product of labor falls. d. output increases by less than double.

8. A in the production function Y = A • F(K,L) is:
a. the marginal product of labor. c. the marginal product of capital.
b. the capital to labor ratio (K/L). d. the level of technology.

9. The marginal product of labor is:
a. how much output rises for when labor increases one unit. c. labor divided by capital (L/K)
b. capital divided by labor (K/L). d. the level of technology.

10. The marginal product of capital is:
a. . c. the slope of the production when technology and labor are held constant.
b. the change in output for a unit change in capital. d. all of the above.

11. Diminishing marginal product of capital (MPK) means:
a. output rises as capital rises. c. output rises as the MPK rises.
b. the MPK eventually falls as capital rises. d. the marginal product of capital eventually becomes negative as capital rises.

12. In the production function Y = A • F(K,L), L is:
a. leisure. c. the marginal product of labor.
b. labor. d. the marginal product of leisure.

13. In the production function Y = A • F(K,L), Y is:
a. good Y. c. the marginal product of good Y.
b. production. d. constant returns to scale.

14. Among the assumptions made about the production function Y = A • (K,L) is:
a. diminishing marginal product of labor. c. diminishing marginal product of capital.
b. constant returns to scale. d. all of the above.

15. For the production function Y = A • F(K,L) constant returns to scale means:
a. if capital and labor double output doubles. c. the marginal products of capital and labor are constant.
b. capital and labor increase at a constant rate. d. technology is constant.

16. If the production function Y = A • (K,L) is divided by L, then
a. (Y/L) = A•f(K/L). c. y = A•f(k).
b. output per capita equals technology times a function of the capital labor ratio. d. all of the above.

17. Among the categories the growth rate is broken down into by growth accounting is:
a. the growth rate of technology. c. the capital labor ratio.
b. the marginal product of capital. d. all of the above.

18. Growth accounting shows that GDP growth depends on:
a. growth of the capital stock. c. government purchases.
b. holding environmental pollution in check. d. having a reasonable distribution of income.

19. Growth accounting shows that economic growth depends on:
a. government tax receipts. c. lowering environmental pollution.
b. the growth of the labor force. d. all of the above.

20. Growth accounting shows that economic growth depends on:
a. controlling environmental pollution. c. increases in technology.
b. international cooperation. d. all of the above.

21. Growth accounting shows that economic growth depends on:
a. increases in technology. c. growth in the capital stock.
b. the growth of the labor force. d. all of the above.

22. The growth accounting formula is:
a. c.
b. d. Y= A • F(K,L)

23. The labor force participation rate is:
a. the labor force divided into population. c. the labor force times population.
b. the labor force divide by population. d. the labor population minus the labor force.

24. If a country has a population of 100 million and a labor force of 60 million, then its labor force participation rate is:
a. 0.6. c. 40 million.
b. 1.67 d. 60 million.

25. If a country has a population of 300 million and a labor force of 200 million, then its labor force participation rate is:
a. 0.67 c. 100 million.
b. 1.5 d. 200 million.

26. The change in the capital stock in an economy depends on:
a. the economy’s saving. c. the economy’s investment.
b. the change in bond prices. d. all of the above.

27. In a closed economy with no government sector, the change in the capital stock is:
a. net investment less depreciation. c. gross investment.
b. gross investment less depreciation. d. nominal saving.

28. In a closed economy with no government sector, the change in the capital stock is equal to:
a. net investment less depreciation. c. gross investment.
b. nominal saving. d. real saving.

29. Depreciation of the capital stock occurs due to:
a. machines deteriorating. c. bonds falling in value.
b. real estate rising in value. d. all of the above.

30. Depreciation of the capital stock occurs due to:
a. inflation. c. bonds falling in value.
b. buildings needing repair. d. all of the above.

31. Depreciation of the capital stock occurs due to:
a. deflation. c. bonds falling in value.
b. vehicles requiring new parts. d. all of the above.

32. Depreciation of the capital stock occurs due to:
a. machines deteriorating. c. buildings needing repair.
b. vehicles needing parts. d. all of the above.

33. If there are 120 machines in an economy and the depreciation rate is 5% per year, then:
a. depreciation is 5 machines a year. c. depreciation is 115 machines per year.
b. depreciation is 6 machines a year. d. depreciation is 114 machines per year.

34. If there are 120 machines in an economy and the depreciation rate is 10% per year, then next year there are:
a. 10 of the original machines left. c. 108 of the original machines left.
b. 12 of the original machines left. d. 110 of the original machines left.

35. The average product of capital is:
a. c. .
b. Y/K. d. .

Figure 3.1

36. In Figure 3.1 the average product of capital is:
a. rising. c. falling.
b. constant. d. unknown.

37. In Figure 3.1 the marginal product of capital is:
a. rising. c. constant.
b. declining. d. unknown.

38. Figure 3.1 shows:
a. a production function with labor and technology constant. c. a production function with capital and technology constant.
b. a production function with capital and labor constant. d. a production function with capital, labor and technology constant.

39. In the steady state of the Solow growth model:
a. c.
b. d.

40. In the Solow growth model the economy reaches the optimal k*:
a. immediately. c. randomly.
b. over a period of time. d. cyclically.

41. The Solow growth model assumes unemployment is:
a. zero. c. rising.
b. falling. d. constant.

42. The Solow growth model ignores:
a. the international sector. c. changes in labor force participation.
b. the role of government. d. all of the above.

43. The Solow growth model shows that the growth rate of real GDP per worker depends on:
a. the saving rate, s c. the depreciation rate, .
b. the growth rate of the labor force, n. d. all of the above.

44. The Solow growth model shows that the growth rate of real GDP per worker depends on:
a. the saving rate, s c. the rate of inflation.
b. government spending, G. d. all of the above.

45. The Solow growth model shows that the growth rate of real GDP per worker depends on:
a. the rate of growth of the money supply. c. rate of growth of government debt.
b. the growth rate of the labor force, n. d. all of the above.

46. The Solow growth model shows that the growth rate of real GDP per worker depends on:
a. the rate of growth of the money supply. c. the depreciation rate, .
b. level of output in the economy. d. all of the above.

47. In the Solow growth model the optimal capital to labor ratio, K/L, is where:
a. s + n = s•(k/y). c. n + s = s•(y/k).
b. s + n = s•(y/k). d. s + s = n•(y/k).

48. In the Solow growth model the steady state is when the economy has:
a. full employment. c. zero inflation.
b. the optimal capital labor ratio, k*. d. all of the above.

49. During the transition to the steady state in the Solow growth model:
a. the output per worker rises. c. the rate of growth of capital rises.
b. labor force participation rises. d. all of the above.

50. During the transition to the steady state in the Solow growth model:
a. the output per worker falls. c. the rate of growth of capital falls.
b. labor force participation rises. d. all of the above.

51. During the transition to the steady state in the Solow growth model:
a. the output per worker rises. c. the rate of growth of capital falls.
b. the capital to labor ratio rises. d. all of the above.

52. The Solow residual is:
a. that part of output growth not attributed to labor force growth. c. that part of output growth not attributed to capital stock growth and labor force growth.
b. that part of output growth not attributed to capital stock growth. d. the growth in output.

53. The Solow residual is that part of output growth attributed to:
a. the growth rate of the labor force. c. the growth rate of the capital stock.
b. the growth rate of output. d. the grow rate of technology.

54. The Solow residual:
a. is not directly observable. c. is attributed to capital stock growth.
b. attributed to labor force growth. d. is attributed to labor force growth and capital stock growth.

55. Economists use the term poverty to identify people who
a. earn less than $5,000 per year. c. have no access to the internet at home.
b. earn less than $6,000 per year. d. have difficulty affording food and shelter.

56. In economics, the term inequality describes
a. the same thing as poverty. c. an unequal representation in the U.N.
b. an unequal distribution of income. d. disparity among countries’ voting rights.

57. Data from recent decades show that economic growth led to
a. a worldwide increase in poverty. c. an increase in poverty in OECD countries only.
b. no signficant change in poverty. d. a worldwide decline in poverty.

58. Data from recent decades show that economic growth led to
a. a worldwide increase in inequality. c. an decrease in inequality in China only.
b. no signficant change in inequality. d. a worldwide decrease in inequality.

59. The world distribution of real GDP per person in 2000 shows that
a. OECD countries dominate the bottom of the distribution. c. sub-Saharan African countries dominate the bottom of the distribution.
b. OECD countries dominate the top of the distribution. d. both (b) and (c).

60. The world distribution of real GDP per person in 2000 shows that
a. OECD countries dominate the bottom of the distribution. c. sub-Saharan African countries dominate the top of the distribution.
b. OECD countries dominate the top of the distribution. d. both (b) and (c).

61. The slope of a production function in terms of capital, holding technology and labor fixed, usually
a. increases with increases in capital. c. decreases with increases in capital.
b. remains constant with increases in capital. d. either (a) or (b).

62. The slope of a production function in terms of labor, holding technology and capital fixed, usually
a. decreases with increases in labor. c. increases with increases in labor.
b. remains constant with increases in labor. d. either (a) or (b).

63. A bakery with a production function exhibiting constant returns to scale has 2 mixers and 4 workers, who produce 10 cakes per day. If the bakery owner adds 2 more mixers and 4 more workers, then production would most likely
a. increase by 10 cakes per day. c. decrease by 2 cakes per day.
b. increase by 40 cakes per day. d. increase by 60 cakes per day.

64. In the Solow model, the growth rate of the capital stock is a function of
a. the saving rate and the depreciation rate. c. the labor force participation rate and the technology growth rate.
b. the saving rate and the labor force participation rate. d. the depreciation rate and the labor force participation rate.

65. In the Solow model, the growth rate of the labor is a function of
a. the saving rate and the growth rate of the population. c. the labor force participation rate and the health technology growth rate.
b. the saving rate and the labor force participation rate. d. the growth rate of the population.

66. In the Solow growth model, the average product of capital
a. increases as capital per worker rises. c. declines as capital per worker rises.
b. remains constant as capital per worker rises. d. declines, then rises, as capital per worker rises.

67. In the steady state for the Solow growth model,
a. the labor per technology unit ratio increases. c. the capital per worker ratio increases.
b. the labor per technology unit ratio no longer moves. d. the capital per worker ratio no longer moves.

68. In the steady state for the Solow growth model, the saving per worker
a. is greater than the capital provided for each new worker. c. is equal to the depreciation rate per worker.
b. is equal to the capital provided for each new worker. d. is greater than the depreciation rate per worker.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is a production function?

2. What do constant returns to scale imply?

3. What is the growth account formula and what does it tell us?

4. Show why real saving equals net investment.

ECO 302 Week 4 Quiz

Chapter 4

TRUE/FALSE

1. An increase in the depreciation rate affects the steady-state capital per worker the same way as an increase in the population growth rate.

2. If the saving rate increases, then the optimum level of capital per worker falls.

3. An increase in technology causes the optimum level of capital per worker to rise in the long run or steady state.

4. An increase in technology causes the real GDP per worker to increase during the transition to the steady-state.

5. An increase in technology cause the growth in real output per worker to be higher in the long run or steady-state.

6. An increase in the saving rate causes the growth in real output per worker to be lower in the long run or steady-state.

7. The Solow model of growth says that poorer economies should over time converge towards richer ones in terms of real output put worker.

8. In the long run or steady state of the Solow model, the growth rate of capital per worker is higher with a higher saving rate.

9. An increase in the population growth rate in the Solow model causes the growth in output per worker to be higher in the long run or steady-state.

10. An increase in the population growth rate in the Solow model causes output per worker to be lower in the long run or steady-state.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. In the revised version of the Solow growth model the optimal level of capital stock per worker depends on:
a. the saving rating. c. population growth rate.
b. the depreciation rate. d. all of the above.

2. In the revised version of the Solow growth model the optimal level of the capital stock per worker depends on:
a. monetary growth. c. the saving rate.
b. government spending. d. all of the above.

3. In the revised version of the Solow growth model the optimal level of the capital stock per worker depends on:
a. monetary growth. c. appreciation in the stock market.
b. the depreciation rate. d. all of the above.

4. In the revised version of the Solow growth model the optimal level of the capital stock per worker depends on:
a. the population growth rate. c. inflation.
b. government spending. d. all of the above.

5. In the Solow growth model as a growing economy transitions to the steady state:
a. the average product of capital falls. c. the average product of labor falls.
b. output per worker is constant. d. the growth rate of capital is equal to zero.

6. In the Solow growth model in the steady state the growth rate of capital per worker, k*, is:
a. rising. c. fluctuating.
b. falling. d. zero.

7. In the Solow growth model, if technology, A, improves, then in the steady state:
a. output per worker grows faster. c. capital per worker grows faster.
b. output per worker grows at the same rate, zero. d. all of the above.

8. In the Solow growth model, if the population growth rate, n, increases, then in the steady state:
a. output per worker grows slower. c. capital per worker grows at the same rate, zero.
b. capital per worker grows slower. d. all of the above.

9. In the Solow growth model, if the depreciation rate, , increases, then in the steady state:
a. output per worker grows at the same rate, zero. c. capital per worker grows faster.
b. output per worker grows faster. d. all of the above.

10. In the Solow growth model, if labor input, L(0), increases, then in the steady state:
a. output per worker grows faster. c. capital per worker grows faster.
b. capital per worker grows at the same rate, zero. d. all of the above.

11. In the Solow growth model in the steady state the growth rate of output per worker, y*, is:
a. rising. c. constant at zero.
b. falling. d. fluctuating.

12. If the saving rate increases in the Solow growth model, then during the transition to the steady state:
a. the growth rate of capital per worker will increase. c. the growth rate of capital per worker is constant.
b. the growth rate of capital per worker will decrease. d. the growth rate of capital per worker is zero.

13. If the saving rate increases in the Solow growth model, then in the steady state the growth rate of capital per worker is:
a. constant. c. zero.
b. unchanged. d. all of the above.

14. If the saving rate increases in the Solow growth model, then in the steady state the growth rate of capital per worker is:
a. higher. c. lower.
b. unchanged. d. rising.

15. If the level of technology increases in the Solow growth model, then in the steady state, the growth rate of capital per worker is:
a. higher. c. lower.
b. unchanged. d. rising.

16. If the saving rate increases in the Solow growth model, then in the steady state:
a. capital per worker and the growth of capital will be higher. c. capital per worker will be higher but the growth rate of capital will be lower.
b. capital per worker will be higher but the growth rate of capital will remain the same at zero. d. capital per worker will be lower but the growth rate of capital will be higher.

17. If the level of technology increases in the Solow growth model, then in the steady state
a. capital per worker and the growth of capital will be higher. c. capital per worker will be higher but the growth rate of capital will be lower.
b. capital per worker will be higher but the growth rate of capital will remain the same at zero. d. capital per worker will be lower but the growth rate of capital will be higher.

18. If the level of technology increases in the Solow growth model, then in the steady state
a. capital per worker will be higher. c. the growth rate of capital will be lower.
b. saving per worker will be higher. d. capital per worker will be the same.

19. If the level of technology increases in the Solow growth model, then in the steady state
a. capital per worker will be higher. c. the growth rate of capital will be lower.
b. output per worker will be higher. d. both (a) and (b).

20. If the saving rate increases in the Solow growth model, then in the steady state
a. capital per worker will be higher. c. the growth rate of capital will be zero.
b. output per worker will be higher. d. all of the above.

21. If the level of technology increases in the Solow growth model, then in the steady state
a. output per worker will be higher. c. the growth rate of capital will be zero.
b. capital per worker will be higher. d. all of the above.

22. In the Solow growth model during the transition an increase in technology:
a. lowers the growth rate of capital per worker. c. raises the growth rate of capital per worker.
b. does not change the growth rate of capital per worker. d. causes the growth rate of capital to fall to zero per worker.

23. In the Solow growth model during the transition an increase in technology:
a. lowers the growth rate of output per worker. c. raises the growth rate of output per worker.
b. does not change the growth rate of output per worker. d. causes the growth rate of output per worker to fall to zero.

24. In the Solow growth model during the transition an increase in technology:
a. lowers the growth rate of capital and output per worker. c. raises the growth rate of capital and output per worker.
b. raises the growth rate of capital per worker and lowers the growth rate of output per worker. d. lowers the growth rate of capital per worker and raises the growth rate of output per worker.

25. In the Solow growth model in the short run, an increase in the labor input L(0):
a. increases the growth rate of real output per worker. c. reduces the growth rate of capital per worker.
b. increases s•(y/k). d. decreases s + n.

26. In the Solow growth model in the short run, an increase in the labor input L(0),
a. decrease the growth rate of real output per worker. c. increase the growth rate of capital per worker.
b. increases s•(y/k). d. decrease s + n.

27. In the Solow growth model in the long run or steady state, an increase in the labor input L(0) will,
a. increase the capital stock. c. not affect real output per worker.
b. lead to a growth of the capital stock per worker of zero. d. all of the above.

28. In the Solow growth model in the long run or steady state, an increase in the labor input L(0) will,
a. decrease the capital stock. c. not change real output per worker.
b. lead to a positive growth of the capital stock per worker. d. all of the above.

Figure 4.1

Determinants
of k/k

29. In Figure 4.1 the distance between s•(y/k) and s + n is the growth of capital per worker:
a. in the transition. c. in the steady state.
b. in the long-run. d. none of the above.

30. In Figure 4.1 if the saving rate increases, then
a. the curve s + n increases. c. the curve s + n decreases.
b. the curve s + n becomes steeper. d. the curve s + n becomes flatter.

31. In Figure 4.1, if the saving rate increase, then:
a. s•(y/k) increases. c. s•(y/k) decreases.
b. s•(y/k) gets steeper. d. s•(y/k) becomes vertical.

32. In Figure 4.1, if the saving rate increase, then:
a. s•(y/k) and s + n increase. c. s•(y/k) and s + n decrease.
b. s•(y/k) increases while s + n decreases. d. s•(y/k) decreases while s + n increase.

33. In Figure 4.1, if the technology improves, then:
a. s•(y/k) increases. c. s•(y/k) decreases.
b. s + n increases. d. s + n decreases.

34. In Figure 4.1, if the initial amount of labor increases, then:
a. s•(y/k) increases. c. s + n increases.
b. K/L moves away from the optimum. d. the growth rate of population increases.

35. In Figure 4.1, if the initial amount of labor increases, then in the steady state:
a. the growth rate of capital per worker increases. c. the growth rate of output per worker is the same.
b. the growth rate of output per worker rises. d. the population growth rate rises.

36. In Figure 4.1, if the initial amount of labor increases, then during the transition to they steady state:
a. the growth rate of capital per worker and output per worker increase. c. the growth rate of capital per worker increases and output per worker decrease.
b. the growth rate of capital per worker and output per worker.decrease. d. the growth rate of capital per worker decreases and output per worker increases.

37. In Figure 4.1, if the population growth rate increases, then:
a. s•(y/k) increases. c. s + n increases.
b. K/L moves away from the optimum. d. the initial amount of labor increases.

38. In Figure 4.1, an increase in productivity:
a. raises the steady state growth rate of capital per worker. c. lowers the steady state growth rate of output per worker
b. does not change steady-state growth rates of output or capital per worker. d. lowers the steady-state level of capital.

39. In Figure 4.1, an increase in the depreciation rate has the same effects as:
a. an increase in the savings rate. c. an increase in the population growth rate.
b. an increase in the initial amount of labor. d. all of the above.

40. In Figure 4.1, an increase in technology:
a. increases s•(y/k) c. increases s + n.
b. decreases s•(y/k) d. decreases s + n.

41. In Figure 4.1, an increase in technology:
a. increases k*. c. decreases k*.
b. does not affect k*. d. makes k* zero.

42. In Figure 4.1, an increase in the population growth rate:
a. increases k*. c. decreases k*.
b. does not affect k*. d. makes k* zero.

43. In Figure 4.1, an increase in the depreciation rate:
a. increases k*. c. decreases k*.
b. does not affect k*. d. makes k* zero.

44. In Figure 4.1, if the technology improves, then:
a. the steady-state capital stock increases. c. the steady-state growth in output per worker increases.
b. the steady-state growth in capital per worker increases. d. the population growth rate increases.

45. Convergence of economies is the tendency according to the Solow growth model for:
a. richer countries to buy up all the capital in poorer countries. c. poorer economies to grow faster in terms of real GDP per capita than richer countries.
b. richer countries to tend decline as pollution damage increases. d. the tendency for richer economies to shrink to the size of poorer economies.

46. Since 1960 the data show a tendency of output per worker to converge:
a. in all countries in the world. c. in OECD countries.
b. countries with different savings rates. d. none of the above.

47. The data show a tendency of output per worker to converge:
a. among US States from 1880 to 2000. c. in OECD countries from 1960 to 2000.
b. countries with similar economies. d. all of the above.

48. Convergence will not happen if economies around the world have:
a. different saving rates. c. different population growth rates.
b. different technologies. d. all of the above.

49. Convergence will not happen if economies around the world have:
a. different saving rates. c. different levels out labor input.
b. different average products of capital in the transition. d. all of the above.

50. Convergence will not happen if economies around the world have:
a. different capital labor ratios in during the transition. c. different levels out labor input.
b. different population growth rates. d. all of the above.

51. Convergence will not happen if economies around the world have:
a. different average products of capital during the transition. c. different levels of technology.
b. different initial levels of labor input. d. all of the above.

52. Convergence will not happen if economies around the world have:
a. different average products of capital during the transition. c. different optimum levels of capital per worker, k*.
b. different initial levels of labor input. d. all of the above.

53. Economies are said to have converged if they:
a. have the same growth rate in the transition. c. have the same saving rate.
b. have the same capital per worker, k*, in the steady state. d. all of the above.

54. When converging economies:
a. have the same growth rate of capital per worker. c. have the same growth rate of output per worker.
b. the same steady state capital per worker, k*. d. all of the above.

55. Convergence will not happen if economies around the world have:
a. different savings rates. c. different optimum levels of capital per worker, k*.
b. different population growth rates. d. all of the above.

56. Convergence will not happen if economies around the world have:
a. different capital per worker growth rates in the transition. c. different initial starting points.
b. different initial levels of labor input, L(0). d. none of the above.

57. If the savings rate increases in the Solow growth model, then during the short run transition to the steady state,
a. the growth rate of capital per worker increases. c. the depreciation rate of capital per worker increases.
b. the growth rate of the population decreases. d. the growth rate of capital per worker to equal zero.

58. A major influenza pandemic which led to many deaths would have what effect on the Solow growth model?
a. It would decrease the level of technology. c. It would decrease the depreciation rate.
b. It would decrease the labor force. d. It would increae the level of technology.

59. Suppose that Canada experiences a large migration of Mexicans to Canada. The effect on the Solow growth model would be to
a. decrease the level of technology. c. decrease the saving rate.
b. increase the labor force. d. increae the level of technology.

60. If the initial level of labor increases, but the population growth rate does not change, then the
a. initial capital per worker decreases, c. initial capital per worker remains zero.
b. initial capital per worker increases. d. initial growth rate of capital per worker decreases.

61. If the initial level of labor increases, but the population growth rate does not change, then the
a. initial growth rate of capital per worker decreases. c. initial capital per worker remains zero.
b. initial capital per worker increases. d. initial growth rate of capital per worker increases.

62. In the long run, an economy with twice as much labor has
a. less than twice as much capital. c. less than twice as much real GDP.
b. twice as much capital per worker. d. twice as much real GDP.

63. In the long run, an economy with twice as much labor has
a. more than twice as much capital and real GDP. c. less than twice as much capital and real GDP.
b. twice as much capital per worker and output per worker. d. twice as much capital and real GDP.

64. If the population growth rate increases, then in the steady state of the Solow model,
a. real capital per worker is higher. c. the gowth rate of capital per worker is higher.
b. real capital per worker is lower. d. the growth rate of capital per worker is lower.

65. If the population growth rate increases, then in the steady state of the Solow model,
a. real GDP per worker is higher. c. the gowth rate of GDP per worker is higher.
b. real GDP per worker is lower. d. the growth rate of GDP per worker is lower.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What are the short and long run effects of an increase in the saving rate in the Solow growth model?

2. What are the long and short run effects of an increase in technology, A, in the Solow growth model?

3. What are the long run and short run effects to an increase in the labor input in the Solow growth model?

4. What are the long and short run effects of an increase in the population growth rate the Solow growth model?

5. Why does the Solow growth model show the economies of poor countries tend to converge over time toward richer ones in terms of per capita and real GDP per worker?

Chapter 5

TRUE/FALSE

1. In the Solow growth model, the growth rate of capital per worker is positively related to the optimum capital per worker.

2. In the Solow growth model the growth rate of capital per worker is positively related to the initial level of capital per worker.

3. The Solow growth model with technological progress has continuous output per worker growth in the steady state.

4. Ideas are rival goods.

5. Governments grant patents and copyrights to encourage firms to engage in research and development.

6. Conditional convergence is the tendency of economies to coverge when they are similar.

7. In the Solow growth model, the growth rate of output per worker is positively related to the initial level of capital per worker.

8. In the Solow growth model, the growth rate of output per worker is positively related to the optimal level of output per worker.

9. The Solow growth model with exogenous technological growth implies that the steady-state growth rate of real GDP per worker is lower than the rate of technological progress.

10. In the Romer endogenous growth model, the rate of technological progress depends on private returns to R&D investment.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Conditional convergence is the tendency of economies to converge:
a. all the time. c. only when economic conditions are good..
b. when they are similar. d. only when currencies are stable.

2. Absolute convergence is the tendency of economies to converge:
a. all the time. c. only when economic conditions are good.
b. when they are similar. d. only when currencies are stable.

3. In the Solow growth model transition, the growth rate of capital per worker is negatively related to:
a. the initial capital stock per worker, k(0). c. the optimum output per worker, k*
b. k/k. d. all of the above.

4. In the Solow growth model transition, the growth rate of capital per worker is positively related to:
a. the initial capital stock per worker, k(0). c. the optimum output per worker, k*
b. k/k. d. all of the above.

5. In the Solow growth model transition, the growth rate of output per worker is negatively related to:
a. the initial capital stock per worker, k(0). c. the optimum output per worker, y*
b. y/y. d. all of the above.

6. In the Solow growth model transition, the growth rate of output per worker is positively related to:
a. the initial capital stock per worker, k(0). c. the optimum output per worker, y*
b. y/y. d. all of the above.

7. The key equation for conditional convergence for capital per worker is:
a. c.
b. Y = A•F(K,L) d.

8. The key equation for conditional convergence for output per worker is:
a. c.
b. Y = A•F(K,L) d.

9. In the key equation for convergence , y(0) is:
a. the initial level of output. c. the optimum level of output.
b. the initial level of output per worker. d. the optimum level of output per worker.

10. In the key equation for convergence , y* is:
a. the initial level of output. c. the optimum level of output.
b. the initial level of output per worker. d. the optimum level of output per worker.

11. In the key equation for convergence , k* is:
a. the initial level of capital. c. the optimum level of capital.
b. the initial level of capital per worker. d. the optimum level of capital per worker.

12. In the key equation for convergence , k(0) is:
a. the initial level of capital. c. the optimum level of capital.
b. the initial level of capital per worker. d. the optimum level of capital per worker.

13. Convergence can be seen in the data of all countries together if one holds constant:
a. the saving rate. c. the degree the rule of law is maintained.
b. the fertility rate. d. all of the above.

14. Convergence can be seen in the data of all countries together if one holds constant:
a. the degree that democracy is maintained. c. the average rate of inflation.
b. changes in the terms of trade. d. all of the above.

15. Convergence can be seen in the data of all countries together if one holds constant:
a. the size of government. c. investment in education and health.
b. the extent of international openness. d. all of the above.

16. In the Solow growth model, the long run rate of growth of output per worker is:
a. zero c. cyclical.
b. negative. d. positive.

17. A growth model with continuing output per worker growth in the long run is:
a. the production function. c. the Solow growth model.
b. the Ak model of constant average product of capital. d. all of the above.

18. If sA > s + n in the model with constant average product of capital, the long run growth rate is:
a. constant. c. negative.
b. positive d. cyclical.

19. A problem with the constant average product of capital growth model is that:
a. output per worker grows in the long run. c. the Y/K ratio grows.
b. there is no convergence. d. all of the above.

20. A problem with the constant average product of capital growth model is that:
a. a common view among economist is that the average product of capital eventually starts to fall as capital rises. c. the Y/K ratio grows.
b. output per worker grows in the long run. d. all of the above.

21. If sA > s + n in the model with constant average product of capita, the long run growth rate is:
a. c. sA – (s +N)
b. Ak d. none of the above.

22. In the Solow growth model with technological progress,
a. k* is constant. c. k* is cyclical.
b. k* is growing d. k* is declining.

23. In the Solow growth model with technological progress in the steady state:
a. capital per worker is constant. c. capital per worker is increasing.
b. capital per worker is cyclical. d. capital per worker is declining.

24. In the Solow growth model with technological progress in the optimal amount of capital per worker is
a. growing. c. cyclical.
b. shrinking. d. fluctuating.

25. In endogenous growth models, technological progress comes from:
a. outside the system. c. increases in the capital stock.
b. research and development. d. all of the above.

26. An example of a rival capital good is:
a. infrastructure like roads. c. an idea like a new chemical formula for a drug.
b. a machine like a printing press. d. all of the above.

27. An example of a non-rival good is:
a. a output like a pizza. c. an idea like a new chemical formula for a drug.
b. a machine like a printing press. d. all of the above.

28. An example of a non-rival good is:
a. mathematical formulas in calculus. c. an idea like a new chemical formula for a drug.
b. codes for computer software. d. all of the above.

29. An example of a rival capital good is:
a. an employee like an R&D engineer. c. a structure like a factory.
b. a machine like a printing press. d. all of the above.

30. An example of a non-rival good is:
a. an output like a shirt. c. a structure like a factory.
b. code for computer software. d. all of the above.

31. An example of non-rival good is:
a. mathematical formulas in calculus. c. an output like a dress.
b. a machine like a laser printer. d. all of the above.

32. To encourage firms to engage in research and development (R&D), governments grant temporary monopolies in the production of the goods that result from R&D called:
a. patents. c. anti-trust exemptions.
b. land grants. d. all of the above.

33. To encourage firms to engage in research and development (R&D), governments grant temporary monopolies in the production of the word or symbol based goods like books and computer code that result from R&D called:
a. cartels. c. anti-trust exemptions.
b. copyrights. d. all of the above.

34. The private return from research and development might be less than the social return because:
a. others than just the inventor can use inventions that come out of research and development. c. it is funded by the government.
b. it is encouraged by patents and copyrights. d. all of the above.

35. The rewards to private R&D depend on:
a. the costs of R&D. c. the security of intellectual property rights.
b. the rewards from the results of R&D. d. all of the above.

36. The rewards to private R&D are negatively related to:
a. the costs of R&D. c. the security of intellectual property rights.
b. the rewards from the results of R&D. d. all of the above.

37. The rewards to private R&D are positively related to:
a. the costs of R&D. c. the security of intellectual property rights.
b. growth rate of capital per worker. d. all of the above.

38. If intellectual property rights become better secured, then:
a. the costs of R&D are greater. c. the private returns to R&D are greater.
b. the costs of R&D are smaller. d. the private returns to R&D are smaller.

39. The ability to control the inventions from R&D spending is known as
a. greed. c. intellectual property rights.
b. a rival good. d. all of the above.

40. A business may not seek a patent on an idea or invention because:
a. patents are not valuable. c. ideas and inventions are non-rival.
b. approval is costly. d. all of the above.

41. Diffusion of technology means:
a. how many industries a technology can be used in. c. how expensive a technology is.
b. describes the imitation and adaptation of technology from country to country. d. how many scientist had to work on a technology.

42. Steady state growth is when:
a. when the average product of capital, y/k, is unchanging as k increases at a constant rate. c. when the rate growth of output per worker is constant at zero.
b. when the rate of growth of capital per worker is constant at zero. d. all of the above.

43. With steady state growth:
a. ( y/y)* = ( k/k)* c. ( y/y)*= g/(1- )
b. y/k is constant. d. all of the above.

44. With steady state growth:
a. ( y/y)* = ( k/k)*. c. y* = 0.
b. k* = 0. d. all of the above.

45. With steady state growth:
a. there is absolute convergence. c. k* growth fluctuates.
b. y/k is constant. d. all of the above.

46. With steady state growth:
a. k* growth fluctuates. c. ( y/y)*= g/(1- )
b. there is absloute convergence. d. all of the above.

47. With steady state growth:
a. the optimal output per worker and capital per worker grow at the same rate. c. the average product of capital is constant.
b. the steady state growth rate of real GDP per worker is greater than the rate of technological progress. d. all of the above.

48. With steady state growth:
a. the optimal output per worker and capital per worker grow at the same rate. c. the average product of capital falls.
b. the steady state growth rate of real GDP per worker is equal to the rate of technological progress. d. all of the above.

49. With steady state growth:
a. the optimal output per worker grows faster than optimal capital per worker. c. the average product of capital is constant.
b. the steady state growth rate of real GDP per worker is less than the rate of technological progress. d. all of the above.

50. With steady state growth:
a. the optimal output per worker grows faster than the optimal capital per worker. c. the average product of capital is falling.
b. the steady state growth rate of real GDP per worker is greater than the rate of technological progress. d. all of the above.

51. A government which promotes free trade across borders will
a. increase efficiency, which increases productivity and the steady-state real GDP per worker. c. increase poverty, which decreases productivity and the steady-state real GDP per worker.
b. decrease efficiency, which decreases productivity and the steady-state real GDP per worker. d. decrease saving, which decreases the steady-state real GDP per worker.

52. A country which has a poorly-performing judicial system will experience
a. an increase in efficiency, which increases productivity and the steady-state real GDP per worker. c. an increase in saving, which increases the steady-state real GDP per worker.
b. a decrease in efficiency, which decreases productivity and the steady-state real GDP per worker. d. a decrease in saving, which decreases the steady-state real GDP per worker.

53. The evidence on conditional convergence
a. indicates that conditional convergence holds for a broad group of countries. c. indicates that absolute convergence is more likely than conditional convergence.
b. fails to show any notable signs of conditional convergence. d. fails to hold constant variables such as saving rates and fertility rates, so is inconclusive.

54. Recent research on the determinants of economic growth suggest which of the following variables helps to explain growth?
a. the extent of official corruption c. the degree of international openness
b. the scope of education and health programs. d. all of the above.

55. The high growth rates of real GDP per person in South Korea and Taiwan from the 1960s to 2000 reflect
a. high steady-state values for capital per worker. c. high initial values for capital per worker.
b. low steady-state values for population growth. d. high initial values for output per worker.

56. Absolute convergence suggests that growth rates of real GDP per person in sub-Saharan Africa from 1960 to 2000 would be
a. high. c. low.
b. moderate. d. negative.

57. Conditional convergence suggests that growth rates of real GDP per person in sub-Saharan Africa from 1960 to 2000 would be
a. high. c. low.
b. moderate. d. negative.

58. The fact that growth rates of GDP per worker in many African countries were the lowest in the world from 1960 to 2000 can be explained by
a. absolute convergence. c. partial convergence.
b. conditional convergence. d. steady-state convergence.

59. The fact that growth rates of GDP per worker in many African countries were the lowest in the world from 1960 to 2000 can be explained by
a. low initial values of capital per worker. c. low steady-state values of capital per worker.
b. low initial values of GDP per worker. d. high initial values of saving.

60. The fact that growth rates of GDP per worker in many African countries were the lowest in the world from 1960 to 2000 can be partly explained by
a. low initial values of capital per worker. c. low rates of population growth.
b. low initial values of GDP per worker. d. weak education and health programs.

61. The fact that growth rates of GDP per worker in many East Asian countries were high from 1960 to 2000 can be partly explained by
a. high initial values of capital per worker. c. relatively little openness to international trade.
b. high initial values of GDP per worker. d. satisfactory programs in education and health.

62. In the Solow growth model with exogenous technological progress, if the share of capital income is 1/2 and technology improves at a rate of 1 percent per year, then the steady-state growth rate of real GDP per person equals
a. 2 percent per year. c. 0.5 percent per year.
b. 1 percent per year. d. zero percent per year.

63. In the Solow growth model with exogenous technological progress, if the share of capital income is 1/3 and technology improves at a rate of 2 percent per year, then the steady-state growth rate of real GDP per person equals
a. zero percent per year. c. 2 percent per year.
b. 1 percent per year. d. 3 percent per year.

64. In the Solow growth model with exogenous technological progress, absolute convergence
a. continues to exist, but conditional convergence does not. c. and conditional convergence continue to exist.
b. does not exist, but conditional convergence continues to exist. d. and conditional convergence no longer exist.

65. The Romer model of endogenous growth suggests that countries that spend more on R&D tend to have
a. lower rates of applications for patents and copyrights. c. higher growth rates of GDP per person.
b. lower growth rates of of capital per person. d. lower growth rates of GDP per person.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is conditional convergence?

2. What variables must be held constant to find convergence in the data on all countries.

3. What is the key equation for conditional convergence and what are the direction of influences?

4. What are the steady-state growth results of a constant average product of capital model of growth and what are the problems of such a model?

5. What happens when exogenous technological change is modeled in the Solow growth model?

ECO 302 Week 5 Quiz

Chapter 6

TRUE/FALSE

1. Bond holdings and interest income are zero for the whole economy.

2. The household real budget constraint shows that household real consumption is equal to household real income plus household real saving.

3. In the Barro model prices like the real wage adjust to clear markets like the labor market.

4. In the Barro model the nominal rate of return on capital, (R/P) – is greater than the nominal return on bonds, i, because capital is viewed by households as more risky than bonds.

5. Real profit equals real output plus spending on capital and labor inputs.

6. In the bond market, a higher interest rate means that borrowing is less expensive than before.

7. Household decisions depend on the nominal values for wages and rent rather than the real values for wages and rent.

8. In the Barro model, households use money as a means for trading goods and services.

9. In the Barro market model, gold serves as money.

10. The market-clearing interest rate depends on the marginal productivity of capital.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The market clearing approach assumes that:
a. people are not able to affect prices that influence their decisions. c. firms are not able to affect prices that influence their decisions.
b. prices adjust to clear markets. d. all of the above.

2. The market clearing approach assumes that:
a. people are not able to affect prices that influence their decisions. c. firms are able to affect prices that influence their decisions.
b. prices change very slowly. d. all of the above.

3. The market clearing approach assumes that:
a. people are able to affect prices that influence their decisions. c. firms are able to affect prices that influence their decisions.
b. prices adjust to clear markets. d. all of the above.

4. The market clearing approach assumes that:
a. people are able to affect prices that influence their decisions. c. firms are not able to affect prices that influence their decisions.
b. prices change very slowly. d. all of the above.

5. The labor market clears when:
a. the real wage causes LS = LD. c. the marginal product of labor is zero.
b. the real wage causes LS to be minimized. d. the real wage causes LS to be as large as possible.

6. In the goods market in the Barro model households can buy:
a. bonds. c. labor services.
b. goods to increase their stock of capital. d. all of the above.

7. The goods market the price, P, is:
a. the price level. c. the price of a particular good.
b. the rental price of goods. d. the interest rate.

8. In the rental market in the Barro model, households buy and sell:
a. real estate. c. the use of capital for one period.
b. consumer durables like cars. d. all of the above.

9. A bond that is traded in the bond market in the Barro model is piece of paper that:
a. is the lenders claim to the amount owed by the borrower. c. is the lenders claim to ownership in the company.
b. is the borrowers claim to the amount owed by the lender. d. assures the person is who they say they are.

10. Money in the Barro model is held because:
a. for its own sake. c. to earn interest.
b. to trade fairly soon for something else. d. all of the above.

11. Money in the Barro model is:
a. gold. c. interest earning.
b. a medium of exchange. d. all of the above.

12. One unit of money in the Barro model has a purchasing power of:
a. the price level time that one unit, P. c. the interest rate, i.
b. the price level over the interest rate, (P/i). d. one over the price level, (1/P)

13. If a household has $2,000 in money and the price level is 10, then the real value of its money is:
a. $10. c. 200 goods.
b. $20,000. d. 1,900 goods.

14. The real wage is:
a. hourly earning after taxes. c. the value of a worker’s time in goods received.
b. wages plus fringe benefits. d. the price level divided by the nominal wage rate.

15. If the nominal wage rate is $10 per hour and the price level is 2, then the real wage a worker earns is:
a. five units of goods per hour. c. twenty units of goods per hour.
b. eight units of goods per hour. d. one-fifth unit of goods per hour.

16. If the rental price of a capital good is $100 and the price level is 25, then when renting the capital the owner’s real earnings are:
a. 4 units of output per period. c. seventy five units of output per period.
b. 2,500 units of output per period. d. one-forth unit of output per period.

17. The rental price of capital is:
a. a dollar amount per unit of capital. c. a nominal interest rate
b. a real interest rate. d. profit.

18. Over all households bonds, B, must total zero because:
a. there are no bonds in the model. c. bonds are not important in the model.
b. for every dollar loaned a dollar is borrowed in the bond market. d. bonds are illegal in most economies.

19. The profit in the model is:
a. output – (wages times labor hired + the rental price times capital rented). c. (price times output) – (wages times labor hired + the rental price times capital rented).
b. (price times output) divided by (wages times labor hired + the rental price times capital rented). d. (wages times labor hired + the rental price times capital rented) – (price times output).

20. The rate of return from owning capital is:
a. the rental price of capital, R. c. the net nominal rental income, (R/P)•PK – PK.
b. the value of depreciation, PK. d. the real rental price less depreciation, (R/P) – .

21. The principal of a bond is:
a. the amount of interest paid each period. c. the amount of interest paid over the term of the bond.
b. the initial amount borrowed. d. the total amount to be paid back including the amount borrow and the amount of interest paid over the term of the bond.

22. The maturity of a bond is:
a. the amount of interest paid each period. c. the amount of interest paid over the term of the bond.
b. the amount borrowed. d. the time at which the lender must be paid back.

23. If the principal of a bond is $100, it matures in a year and the interest rate is 4%, then at the interest payment on this bond will be:
a. $100. c. $4.
b. $96. d. $400.

24. If the principal of a bond is $1000, it matures in a year and the interest rate is 6%, then at the end of the year the lender will receive:
a. $1000. c. $60.
b. $1060. d. $940.

25. In the market clearing model, for the whole economy interest income is:
a. bonds minus the interest rate. c. the interest rate divided by bonds.
b. zero. d. bonds divided by the interest rate.

26. Individual household nominal income includes:
a. nominal interest income, iB. c. nominal wage income, wL.
b. nominal net rental income, [(R/P) – PK]•PK. d. all of the above.

27. In the model the nominal interest rate equals the nominal net return on capital, i = (R/P) – , because:
a. other than rates of return bonds and capital look the same to households as assets. c. bonds are riskier than capital.
b. capital is riskier than bonds. d. bonds are zero in the aggregate.

28. In the model the nominal interest rate equals the nominal net return on capital, i = (R/P) – , because:
a. bonds are zero in the aggregate. c. bonds are riskier than capital.
b. capital is riskier than bonds. d. if bonds offered a higher return than capital households would hold no capital.

29. According to the household nominal budget constraint, PC+ B+P• K = + wL + i(B + PK), households can use their income to:
a. purchase consumption goods. c. purchase capital goods.
b. acquire more bonds. d. all of the above.

30. Interest income is:
a. positive for net bond holders. c. negative for net bond issuers.
b. zero for the whole economy. d. all of the above.

31. According to the household nominal budget constraint, PC+ B+P• K = + wL + i(B + PK), households can use their income to:
a. purchase consumption goods. c. acquire more money.
b. hire more workers. d. all of the above.

32. According to the household nominal budget constraint, PC+ B+P• K = + wL + i(B + PK), households can use their income to:
a. acquire more money. c. pay more wages.
b. acquire more bonds. d. all of the above.

33. According to the household nominal budget constraint, PC+ B+P• K = + wL + i(B + PK), households can use their income to:
a. hire more workers. c. purchase capital goods.
b. acquire more money. d. all of the above.

34. If a household this week produces 20 of its product at a cost of 50 cents each, sells them for $1, works 40 hours at $10 per hour, must pay $10 in interest owed on its borrowing and rents out 10 units of capital at $100 for the week, the household’s, nominal income is:
a. $1,440 this week. c. $1,420 this week.
b. $1,400 this week. d. none of the above.

35. The household real budget constraint C + ( B/P) + K = ( /P)+ (w/P)•L + i•((B/P) + K).
shows that in our model:
a. households get income only from labor. c. households can spend their income only on consumption.
b. households can spend their income on consumption or acquiring more capital and bonds. d. households view bonds as riskier than capital.

36. The household’s budget constraint shows that:
a. sources of fund = uses of funds. c. labor income is the largest part of income.
b. profits are the largest part of income d. consumption is the largest part of spending.

37. The household real budget constraint C + ( B/P) + K = ( /P) + (w/P)•L + i•((B/P) + K).
shows that in our model:
a. households get income only from labor. c. households get income from profits from production, labor and interest on bonds and capital.
b. households can spend their income only on consumption. d. households view bonds as riskier than capital.

38. To maximize profit a firm should hire labor:
a. until it can produce no more of its product. c. until the marginal product of labor equal the real wage rate.
b. until the marginal product of labor begins to fall. d. until the marginal product of labor is zero.

39. An investment in the Barro model is:
a. the purchase of a bond. c. the purchase of a capital good used for production.
b. the purchase of ownership in a firm. d. all of the above.

40. To maximize profit a firm should hire capital:
a. until it can produce no more of its product. c. until the marginal product of capital equal the real rental price of capital.
b. until the marginal product of labor begins to fall. d. until the marginal product of capital is zero.

41. In the market for capital services:
a. the supply of capital adjusts to create market clearing. c. the demand for capital adjusts to create market clearing.
b. the real rental price of capital adjusts to create market clearing. d. all of the above.

42. In the market clearing model, depreciation, , is:
a. the rate at which capital disappears. c. the rate at which bonds lose value.
b. the rate at which money loses value. d. all of the above.

43. In the market clearing model:
a. households can owe pay interest. c. for the whole economy interest income is zero.
b. households can earn interest. d. all of the above.

44. In the market clearing model, nominal saving is:
a. the change in money + the change in bonds + the change in the nominal value of capital. c. + wL + i(B + PK) – PC.
b. nominal income less nominal consumption. d. all of the above.

45. In the market clearing model, nominal saving is:
a. the change in money + the change in bonds. c. + wL + i(B + PK) – PC.
b. nominal income plus nominal consumption. d. all of the above.

46. In the market clearing model, nominal saving is:
a. always zero. c. nominal income – depreciation of capital.
b. nominal income less nominal consumption. d. all of the above.

47. In the market clearing model, nominal saving is:
a. the change in money + the change in bonds + the change in the nominal value of capital. c. always zero.
b. nominal income plus nominal saving. d. all of the above.

48. Real saving is:
a. + wL + i(B + PK) – PC. c. ( /P) + (w/P)L + i((B/P) + K) – C.
b. output plus consumption. d. all of the above.

49. Figure 6.1

In Figure 6.1 an increase in real income is shown by:
a. a shift of the curve up and to the right. c. a shift of the curve inward and to the left.
b. rotating the curve out the real consumption axis. d. rotating the curve up the real saving axis.

50. In the market clearing model, the demand for capital and labor come from:
a. the tastes of people. c. the objective of profit maximizing.
b. rental and labor markets. d. all of the above.

51. In the goods market, production of goods comes from
a. large corporate firms. c. households.
b. technology-related businesses. d. large partnerships.

52. Households buy goods on the goods market because they wish to
a. consume. c. export.
b. invest. d. both (a) and (b).

53. Households provide to the rental market
a. all available capital services, so that no capital remains idle. c. none of their capital services, since households do not own capital.
b. some of their capital services, leaving a fraction of capital idle. d. none of their capital services, so that only businesses own capital.

54. In the Barro market model, currency is used
a. to earn interest income. c. only in the bond market.
b. as a medium of exchange. d. only in the labor market.

55. Households earn interest from
a. holding bonds and holding money. c. holding bonds, but not from holding money.
b. holding money, but not from holding bonds. d. none of the above.

56. To simplify the analysis of the bond market, the Barro bond market model initially assumes that
a. each bond has a different risk level. c. bond maturities are long.
b. a bond has no principal amount. d. the inflation rate is zero.

57. A household views the real rental price for capital (R/P) as
a. the rate of return on capital only after it is adjusted for depreciation. c. the profit from its production of goods and services.
b. the rate of return on capital only after it is adjusted for inflation. d. the profit from its holdings of bonds and money.

58. In the Barro markets model, the medium(s) of exchange
a. is bonds. c. are both bonds and money.
b. is money. d. are bonds, money, and labor services.

59. If bonds offer a higher rate of return than capital does, then households would
a. hold neither bonds nor capital. c. hold bonds only.
b. hold capital only. d. hold both bonds and capital.

60. In the market for capital services, if the real rental price is below the market-clearing rental price, then
a. suppliers of capital services would compete by bidding down the real rental price. c. the market for capital services would be in equilibrium.
b. suppliers of capital services would compete by bidding up the real rental price. d. demanders of capital services would compete by bidding up the real rental price.

SHORT ANSWER

1. How is profit calculated in the model?

2. What is the household real budget constraint and what does it tell us?

3. In the model why does the return on bonds, i, equal the return on capital, (R/P) – ?

4. What is real profit in the Barro model?

5. What causes the labor and capital markets to clear in the Barro model?

6. In the Barro market-clearing model, on what variable does the interest rate depend? Explain briefly.

7. Why does the Barro model assume that the labor and capital market clear? Explain briefly.

8. In the Barro market model, why are equilibrium profits equal to zero?

Chapter 7

TRUE/FALSE

1. If the value of initial assets increases, then a household will change consumption or present value of asset at the end of period 2 due to an income effect.

2. $100 a year from now is equal in worth to $100 today.

3. A discount factor is used to deflate nominal consumption to real consumption.

4. If wages rises by $10 per worker just this period, we would expect to see consumption rise by much less than $10 this period.

5. The aggregate household budget constraint is consumption plus net investment is real GDP less depreciation.

6. In the multiyear household budget constraint, wage incomes from each year are added together without further adjustments.

7. In the multiyear household budget constraint, initial asset values are excluded.

8. An increase in the interest rate leads to an income effect and an intertemporal-substitution effect on consumption which offset each other.

9. An increase in the interest rate leads to an income effect which increases consumption and saving in year 1.

10. An increase in the interest rate leads to an intertemporal substitution effect which decreases consumption and increases saving in year 1.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Real profit is zero when:
a. the interest rate is zero. c. the labor and capital markets clear.
b. the depreciation rate is high. d. the labor and capital markets do not clear.

2. When the labor and capital markets clear:
a. depreciation is zero. c. a dollar today is worth more than a dollar in the future.
b. real profit is zero. d. all of the above.

3. Real household saving is:
a. B + K c. ( B/P) + K
b. B + ( K/P) d. ( B/P) + ( K/P)

4. Real income is:
a. wL + i(B+K) c. (w/P)L + i((B/P)+(K/P))
b. (w/P)L + i((B/P)+ K) d. (w/P)L + i(B+ K)

Figure 7.1

5. In Figure 7.1 if the household opts to consume all its income it will be at point:
a. F c. H
b. G d. I

6. In Figure 7.1 if the household decides to save all of its income, it would be at point:
a. F c. H
b. G d. I

7. In Figure 7.1 if the household moves from point G to point H on its budget, it would be:
a. saving and consuming more. c. saving more and consuming less.
b. saving less and consuming more. d. saving and consuming less.

8. In Figure 7.1 if the household moves from point I to point H on its budget, it would be:
a. saving and consuming more. c. saving more and consuming less.
b. saving less and consuming more. d. saving and consuming less.

9. In Figure 7.1 if the household moves from point F to point H on its budget, it would be:
a. saving and consuming more. c. saving more and consuming less.
b. saving less and consuming more. d. saving and consuming less.

10. In Figure 7.1 if the household moves from point H to point G on its budget, it would be:
a. saving and consuming more. c. saving more and consuming less.
b. saving less and consuming more. d. saving and consuming less.

11. In Figure 7.1 if the household moves from point H to point G on its budget, it would be:
a. gaining one unit of saving and one unit of consumption. c. gaining one unit of saving for giving up five units of consumption.
b. giving up one unit of saving for one unit of consumption. d. giving up one unit of saving and five units of consumption.

12. Real saving in year one is:
a. real bonds plus capital in year 1 minus real bonds and capital in year 0. c. bonds plus capital in period 1.
b. bonds plus capital plus money period 1. d. interest times the sum of bonds plus capital in period 1.

13. The household’s year one budget constraint is:
a. real assets at the end of year zero plus real income in year one less consumption in year one equals real assets at the end of year one. c. real assets at the end of year zero plus real income in year one plus consumption in year one equals real assets at the end of year one.
b. real income in year one less real assets at the end of year zero less consumption in year one equals real assets at the end of year one. d. real income in year one plus consumption in year one less real assets at the end of year zero equals real assets at the end of year one.

14. In the one period budget constraint sources of funds include:
a. labor income. c. income from bonds.
b. income from capital. d. all of the above.

15. In the one period budget constraint sources of funds include:
a. labor income. c. capital gains.
b. interests bearing money. d. all of the above.

16. In the one period budget constraint sources of funds include:
a. capital gains. c. income from rising prices.
b. income from capital. d. all of the above.

17. In the one period budget constraint sources of funds include:
a. capital gains. c. income from bonds.
b. inflation. d. all of the above.

18. In the one period budget constraint the uses of funds include:
a. purchases of consumption goods. c. purchases of bonds.
b. purchases of capital goods. d. all of the above.

19. In the one period budget constraint the uses of funds include:
a. purchases of consumption goods. c. payment profits.
b. payment of wages. d. all of the above.

20. In the one period budget constraint the uses of funds include:
a. payment of transfers. c. payment of wages.
b. purchases of capital goods. d. all of the above.

21. In the one period budget constraint the uses of funds include:
a. payment of transfers. c. purchases of bonds.
b. payment of wages. d. all of the above.

22. The measure used to reduce future consumption to today’s values is called:
a. an implicit deflator. c. an escalator.
b. a discount factor. d. a future value.

23. When a discount factor is multiplied times a future period variable it creates a:
a. future value. c. a real variable.
b. a present value. d. a nominal variable.

24. A dollar today is worth more than a dollar a year from now as long as:
a. the interest rate is negative. c. the depreciation rate is negative.
b. the interest rate is positive. d. the depreciation rate is positive.

25. An income effect is the response of households to changes in the present value of:
a. relative prices. c. uses of funds.
b. sources of funds. d. assets at the end of year two.

26. If the interest rate is greater than zero, then the concept of present value is that a dollar today:
a. is worth more than a dollar a year from now. c. will be worthless a year from now.
b. is worth less than a dollar a year from now. d. is worth the same as a year from now.

27. If the present value of assets at the end of year two is constant, an increase in the present value of sources of funds must cause:
a. consumption in periods one and two to rise. c. consumption to rise in period one and fall in period two.
b. consumption in periods one and two to fall. d. consumption to fall in period one and rise in period two.

28. The present value of sources of funds is:
a. the value of intial assets plus the present value of wage income plus the present value of assets at the end of year two. c. the present value of wage income plus the present value of assets at the end of year two.
b. the value of initial assets plus the present value of assets at the end of year two. d. the value of intial assets plus the present value of wage income.

29. An increase in the interest rate:
a. makes consumption in period two relatively more expensive compared to consumption in period one. c. makes consumption in period two relatively cheaper compared consumption in period one.
b. does not change relative cost of consuming in either period. d. discourages savings in each period.

30. If a household consumes one less unit in period 1, they can consume:
a. on more unit in period two. c. one less unit in period two.
b. (1 + i) more units in period two. d. no more in period two.

31. Utility in economics is:
a. a product with a derived demand like electricity. c. satisfaction or happiness.
b. usefulness. d. all of the above.

32. Utility in economics:
a. used to mean happiness. c. is what a person gets from a good.
b. used to mean satisfaction. d. all of the above.

33. An increase in the interest rate can cause an income effect by:
a. making future consumption cheaper. c. making present consumption cheaper.
b. changing real income in year two. d. all of the above.

34. An increase in the interest rate:
a. makes future consumption cheaper. c. makes present consumption more expensive.
b. increases future income. d. all of the above.

35. An increase in the interest rate:
a. makes future consumption cheaper. c. makes present consumption cheaper.
b. decreases future income. d. all of the above.

36. An increase in the interest rate:
a. makes future consumption more expensive. c. makes present consumption more expensive.
b. decreases future income. d. all of the above.

37. An increase in the interest rate:
a. makes future consumption more expensive. c. makes present consumption cheaper.
b. increases future income. d. all of the above.

38. An intertemporal substitution effect is caused by a change in:
a. a price from one period to another. c. income.
b. wealth. d. all of the above.

39. The marginal propensity to save out of a temporary change in income is approximately:
a. 1 c. 0
b. 0.5 d. none of the above.

40. The marginal propensity to save out of a permanent change in income is approximately:
a. 1 c. 0
b. 0.5 d. none of the above.

41. The marginal propensity to consume out of a permanent change in income is approximately:
a. 1 c. 0
b. 0.5 d. none of the above.

42. The marginal propensity to consume out of a temporary change in income is approximately:
a. 1 c. 0
b. 0.5 d. none of the above.

43. If a worker receives a one time bonus we would expect them to:
a. save most of it. c. consume most of it.
b. refuse it. d. consume half and save half of it.

44. If a worker receives a bonus every Christmas, we would expect them to:
a. save most of it. c. consume most of it.
b. reject it. d. consume half of it and save half of it.

45. If a person wins $500 in a scratch-off lottery game, we would expect them to:
a. save most of it. c. consume most of it.
b. refuse it. d. consume half and save half of it.

46. If a worker gets a promotion that doubles their salary, with the increase in salary we would expect them to:
a. save most of it. c. consume most of it.
b. reject it. d. consume half of it and save half of it.

47. If the household budget constraint is aggregated over all household, it shows that:
a. consumption plus net investment equal net national product. c. C + K = Y – K
b. consumption plus net investment equals real GDP less depreciation. d. all of the above.

48. If the household budget constraint is aggregated over all household, it shows that:
a. consumption plus net investment equal net national product. c. C – K = Y + K.
b. consumption less net investment equals real GDP less depreciation. d. all of the above.

49. If the household budget constraint is aggregated over all household, it shows that:
a. consumption less net investment equal net national product. c. C – K = Y + K
b. consumption plus net investment equals real GDP less depreciation. d. all of the above.

50. If the household budget constraint is aggregated over all household, it shows that:
a. profit is zero. c. C + K = Y – K
b. PC+ B+P• K = + wL + i(B + PK), d. all of the above.

51. In the multi-year budget constraint the present value of consumption equals the value of initial assets plus the:
a. present value of savings. c. present value of wage incomes.
b. present value of final assets. d. the present value of time.

52. In the two-year household budget constraint, each unit of initial assets is adjusted by
a. multiplying by (1 + io). c. dividing by (1 + io).
b. multiplying by (1 + i1). d. dividing by (1 + i1).

53. In the two-year household budget constraint, each unit of labor in year 2 is adjusted by
a. multiplying by (1 + io). c. dividing by (1 + io).
b. dividing by (1 + i1). d. multiplying by (1 + i1).

54. In the two-year household budget constraint, each unit of conumption in year 2 is adjusted by
a. multiplying by (1 + io). c. dividing by (1 + i1).
b. multiplying by (1 + i1). d. dividing by (1 + i0).

55. For a household budget over two years, suppose the dollar wage rate in year 1 and year 2 equals $12, the price level in year 1 and year 2 equals 2, and the nominal interest rate in year 1 and year 2 equals 3 percent. The total present value of wage income over two years is
a. 24 c. 12
b. 12.18 d. 5.83

56. For a household budget over two years, suppose the dollar wage rate in year 1 and year 2 equals $8, the price level in year 1 and year 2 equals 2, and the nominal interest rate in year 1 and year 2 equals 3 percent. The present value of wage income in year two only is
a. 3.88 c. 4.12
b. 4 d. 5.83

57. Suppose that the present value of a household’s wage income rises. The effect on consumption most likely is
a. zero. c. more consumption in year 2 only.
b. more consumption in both year 1 and 2. d. more consumption in year 1 only.

58. An increase in the interest rate in year 1 leads to
a. an intertemporal substition effect which lowers C1 and lowers C2. c. an intertemporal substition effect which lowers C1 and raises C2.
b. an interpersonal effect which lowers C1 and lowers C2. d. an interpersonal effect which lowers C1 and lowers C2.

59. An increase in the interest rate in year 1 leads to
a. an intertemporal substition effect which raises consumption and saving in year 1. c. an intertemporal substition effect which lowers consumption and raises saving in year 1.
b. an income effect which lowers consumption and saving in year 1. d. an income effect which raises consumption and lowers saving in year 1.

60. For a 2-year household budget constraint, an increase in the interest rate in year 1 leads to which combined effect on consumption?
a. An increase in consumption in year 1. c. A decrease in consumption in year 1.
b. A decrease in consumption in year 1 and an increase in year 2. d. An ambiguous effect.

SHORT ANSWER

1. Derive the household’s two period real budget constraint.

2. What is an intertemporal substitution effect and what can cause one?

3. What is an income effect and what can cause one?

4. What are the effects of an increase in the interest rate on the choice of consumption over time?

5. Show the relationship between the household budget constraint and net national product.

6. Does an increase in permanent income affect household consumption differently than an increase in temporary income?

7. What is the marginal propensity to consume? When would you predict its value to be close to zero?

ECO 302 Week 6 Quiz

Chapter 8

TRUE/FALSE

1. Intertemporal substitution effects are substitution effects over time.

2. When the marginal product of labor increases due to a positive technology change, the real wage falls.

3. The model predicts that in response to a permanent positive change in technology real consumption will be procyclical.

4. An increase in the interest rate makes future consumption cheaper and future leisure more expensive.

5. The income effect on labor supply is positive.

6. A trend line for U.S. GDP since World War II is mostly flat.

7. In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will increase the real wage rate.

8. In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will decrease the interest rate.

9. In the equilibrium business cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology will decrease the interest rate.

10. The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that the real wage will be procyclical.

11. The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that the real rental price of capital will be procyclical.

12. The equilibrium business cycle model predicts that real investment will be countercyclical.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The cyclical part of real GDP is
a. trend real GDP less real GDP. c. real GDP/trend real GDP.
b. real GDP less trend real GDP. d. trend real GDP/real GDP.

2. Real GDP equals:
a. trend real GDP plus the cyclical part of GDP c. trend real GDP less the cyclical part of GDP.
b. trend real GDP times the cyclical part of GDP. d. trend real GDP divided by the cyclical part of GDP.

3. An equilibrium business-cycle model:
a. uses shocks to GDP to find equilibrium conditions. c. uses equilibrium conditions to determine how shocks affect real GDP and other macroeconomic variables. .
b. uses GDP to find equilibrium shocks to the economy. d. uses GDP to find equilibrium conditions.

4. An increase in the level of technology, A, causes:
a. an increase in the MPL c. a movement along the MPL hiring more labor.
b. a decrease in the MPL d. a movement along the MPL hiring less labor.

5. The model predicts that an economic expansion caused by an increase in technology, A, will:
a. drive down the real wage. c. drive up the real wage.
b. cause labor supply to be greater than labor demand. d. lead to a relatively low real wage.

6. The model predicts that in a recession caused by an decrease in technology, A, we would observe:
a. a relatively low real wage. c. a relatively high real wage.
b. an excess demand for labor. d. an increase in the MPL

7. If technology, A, increases, then:
a. the MPK and the demand for capital services increase. c. the MPK increases and the demand for capital services decreases.
b. the MPK and the demand for capital services decrease. d. the MPK decreases and the demand for capital services increases.

8. The model predicts that if there is a technology, A, shock, the real rental price of capital will:
a. be relatively high during an economic expansion or a recession. c. be relatively high during an economic expansion and relatively low during a recession.
b. be relatively low during an economic expansion or a recession. d. be relatively low during an economic expansion and relatively high during a recession.

9. The model predicts that if there is a technology, A, shock, the interest rate, i, will be:
a. relatively high during an economic expansion or a recession. c. relatively high during an economic expansion and relatively low during a recession.
b. relatively low during an economic expansion or a recession. d. relatively low during an economic expansion and relatively high during a recession.

10. During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a. tend to rise due to the income effect. c. tend to fall due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b. may rise or fall depending on whether the income effect is greater than the substitution effect or not. d. all of the above.

11. During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a. tend to fall due to the income effect. c. tend to rise due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b. may rise or fall depending on whether the income effect is greater than the substitution effect or not. d. all of the above.

12. During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a. tend to rise due to the income effect. c. tend to rise due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b. be unchanged. d. tend to fluctuate.

13. During an economic expansion due to an increase in technology, A, consumption will:
a. tend to fall due to the income effect. c. tend to fall due to the intertemporal substitution effect of the interest rate rising.
b. be unchanged. d. tend to fluctuate.

14. If technology, A, increases permanently then we would expect:
a. consumption to decrease as the substitution effect would be greater than the income effect of the change. c. consumption to increase as the substitution effect would be greater than the income effect of the change.
b. consumption to increase as the income effect would be greater than the substitution effect of the change. d. consumption to decrease as the income effect would be greater than the substitution effect of the change.

15. If there is a permanent increase in technology, A, then we expect consumption to:
a. increase by more than real GDP. c. increase but by less than real GDP.
b. increase by the same amount as real GDP. d. be unchanged.

16. If there were a permanent increase in technology, A, we would expect real saving to:
a. increase as the increase in real consumption is less than real GDP. c. decrease as the increase in real consumption is more than real GDP.
b. increase as the increase in real consumption is more than real GDP. d. decrease as the increase in real consumption is less than real GDP.

17. A variable that moves in the same direction as real GDP is known as:
a. acyclical. c. countercyclical.
b. procyclical. d. exogenous.

18. A variable that has little tendency to move during a business cycle is known as:
a. acyclical. c. countercyclical.
b. procyclical. d. exogenous.

19. A variable that moves in the opposite direction as real GDP is known as:
a. acyclical. c. countercyclical.
b. procyclical. d. exogenous.

20. An acyclical variable is one that:
a. moves the same direction as real GDP. c. moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b. has little tendency to move during a business cycle. d. determined outside the model.

21. An procyclical variable is one that:
a. moves the same direction as real GDP. c. moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b. has little tendency to move during a business cycle. d. determined outside the model.

22. An countercyclical variable is one that:
a. moves the same direction as real GDP. c. moves the opposite direction as real GDP.
b. has little tendency to move during a business cycle. d. determined outside the model.

23. US real consumer expenditure since 1954 has been:
a. procyclical. c. a cyclical.
b. countercyclical. d. exogenous.

24. US real gross domestic private investment since 1954 has been:
a. procyclical. c. a cyclical.
b. countercyclical. d. exogenous.

25. Since 1954, in the US:
a. real gross private investment has varied more than real GDP, while real consumer expenditure has varied less than real GDP. c. real gross private investment has varied less than real GDP, while real consumer expenditure has varied more than real GDP.
b. real gross private investment and real consumer expenditure have varied more than real GDP. d. real gross private investment and real consumer expenditure have varied less than real GDP.

26. US real average earnings of production workers since 1954 has been:
a. procyclical. c. a cyclical.
b. countercyclical. d. exogenous.

27. US real rental price of capital since 1954 has been:
a. procyclical as the model predicts. c. procyclical rather countercyclical as the model predicts.
b. countercyclical as the model predicts. d. countercyclical rather procyclical as the model predicts.

28. An example of a temporary change in technology would be:
a. a new discovery. c. a harvest failure.
b. a new invention. d. all of the above.

29. An example of a temporary change in technology would be:
a. a new discovery. c. a new invention.
b. a general strike. d. all of the above.

30. With a temporary change in technology the model predicts:
a. the interest rate will be procyclical. c. a higher interest rate will motivate households to increase current real saving.
b. a lower interest rate will motivate households to increase current real consumption. d. all of the above.

31. With a temporary change in technology the model predicts:
a. the interest rate will be procyclical. c. a higher interest rate will motivate households to decrease current real saving.
b. a lower interest rate will motivate households to decrease current real consumption. d. all of the above.

32. With a temporary change in technology, we would expect:
a. the income effect of consumption to be larger. c. the intertemporal substitution effect on consumption to be larger.
b. the income effect of consumption to be smaller. d. the intertemporal substitution effect on consumption to be larger.

33. With a temporary positive change in technology we would expect real current consumption:
a. to increase a lot. c. to remain unchanged.
b. to decrease a lot. d. to either increase or decrease a little.

34. With a temporary change in technology, A, we expect little change in consumption because:
a. the income effect on consumption is larger. c. the intertemporal-substitution effect is larger.
b. the income effect on consumption is smaller. d. the intertemporal-substitution effect is smaller.

35. The model predicts that an economic expansion caused by a temporary increase in technology, A, would lead to:
a. high real GDP and investment. c. low real GDP and investment.
b. low real GDP and high real investment. d. high real GDP and low real investment.

36. Temporary changes in technology, A, conflict with the data in that:
a. investment is clearly acyclical. c. the wage rate is clearly countercyclical.
b. consumption is clearly procyclical. d. all of the above.

37. A higher real wage:
a. makes consumption more expensive. c. makes leisure less expensive.
b. makes it a worse deal for households to work an extra hour. d. makes leisure more expensive.

38. A higher real wage:
a. increases the income of households inducing them to work more. c. increases the income of households inducing them to work less.
b. decreases the income of households inducing them to work more. d. decreases the income of households inducing them to work less.

39. The overall effect of a higher real wage is:
a. to increase labor as the income and substitution effect reinforce each other. c. to decrease labor as the income and substitution effect reinforce each other.
b. ambiguous on labor as the income and substitution effect work against each other. d. ambiguous because the income and substitution effect reinforce each other.

40. We expect that an increase in real wages will:
a. increase labor supply, if temporary. c. increase labor supply, whether permanent or temporary.
b. increase labor supply, if permanent. d. reduce labor supply, whether permanent or temporary.

41. An increase in the interest rate induces worker to:
a. work more in the current period and less in the future. c. work less in the current period and more in the future.
b. work more in the current period and in the future. d. work less in the current period and in the future.

42. A higher interest rate makes:
a. future consumption cheaper. c. current consumption more expensive.
b. future leisure cheaper. d. all of the above.

43. A higher interest rate makes:
a. future consumption and leisure more expensive. c. future consumption and leisure cheaper.
b. future consumption cheaper and future leisure more expensive. d. future consumption more expensive and future leisure cheaper.

44. A higher interest rate makes:
a. current consumption and leisure more expensive. c. current consumption and leisure cheaper.
b. current consumption cheaper and current. leisure more expensive. d. current consumption more expensive and current leisure cheaper.

45. A higher interest rate makes:
a. current consumption and future leisure more expensive. c. current consumption and future leisure cheaper.
b. current consumption cheaper and future. leisure more expensive. d. current consumption more expensive and future leisure cheaper.

46. Intertemporal substitution effects motivate households to:
a. supply more labor when the wage rate is temporarily low. c. supply less labor when the wage rate is temporarily low.
b. supply more labor when the wage rate is permanently low. d. supply more labor when the wage rate is permanently low.

47. In the US since 1964 total hours worked and employment have been:
a. acyclical. c. procyclical.
b. countercyclical. d. exogenous.

48. The measure of labor productivity used in the popular media is:
a. Y/L c. procyclical.
b. average product of labor. d. all of the above.

49. In the model with an upward sloping supply curve of labor and increase demand for labor due to a positive technological, A, change:
a. increases employment and the real wage. c. decreases employment and the real wage.
b. decreases employment and increases the real wage. d. decreases employment and increases the real wage.

50. When the labor supply of households is allowed to slope upward:
a. the model predictions match the observed data that employment and real wages are countercyclical. c. the model predictions do not match the observed data that employment and real wages are procyclical.
b. the model predictions do not match the observed data that employment and real wages are countercyclical. d. the model predictions match the observed data that employment and real wages are procyclical.

51. The most important feature of U.S. real GDP in the post-World War II era most likely is
a. the overall upward trend. c. the large fluctuations relative to trend.
b. the high standard deviation from trend. d. the many recessions related to politics.

52. The equilibrium business cycle model, unlike the long-run Solow growth model, assumes that
a. changes in capital are important. c. the interest rate always rises.
b. changes in capital are insignificant. d. the cyclical growth in GDP is positive.

53. Suppose that the economy suffers a major natural disaster. The equilibrium business-cycle model predicts that the interest rate will be
a. unchanged. c. relatively low.
b. relatively high. d. greater than the return on capital.

54. Suppose that the economy suffers a major natural disaster. The equilibrium business-cycle model predicts that the real rental price of capital will be
a. unchanged. c. relatively low.
b. relatively high. d. greater than the return on capital.

55. According to the equilibrium business-cycle model, a major improvement in competitiveness in a nation’s economy will affect the real wage in which way?
a. The real wage will be unchanged. c. The real wage will be relatively low.
b. The real wage cannot be predicted. d. The real wage will be relatively high..

56. In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an improvement in the level of technology causes
a. an economic expansion. c. a trend level of GDP.
b. a recession. d. an economic shock.

57. In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an economic expansion typically starts with
a. an improvement in the level of technology. c. a decline in the level of technology
b. an increase in the stock of capital. d. a decrease in the stock of capital.

58. In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession typically starts with
a. an improvement in the level of technology. c. a decline in the level of technology
b. an increase in the stock of capital. d. a decrease in the stock of capital.

59. In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession would be characterized by
a. a relatively low real wage and relatively high real rental price of capital. c. a relatively high real wage and relatively low real rental price of capital.
b. a relatively low real wage and real rental price of capital. d. a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital.

60. In the equilibrium business-cycle model, a recession would be characterized by
a. a relatively low interest rate and relatively high real rental price of capital. c. a relatively high interest rate and relatively low real rental price of capital.
b. a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital. d. a relatively low interest rate and real rental price of capital.

61. In the equilibrium business-cycle model, an economic expansion would be characterized by
a. a relatively low real wage and relatively high real rental price of capital. c. a relatively high real wage and real rental price of capital.
b. a relatively low real wage and real rental price of capital. d. a relatively high real wage and relatively low real rental price of capital.

62. Which of the following variables is procyclical, according to the equilibrium business-cycle model?
a. the real wage rate c. the real rental rate on capital
b. the real interest rate d. all of the above

63. Which of the following variables is countercyclical, according to the equilibrium business-cycle model?
a. the real wage rate c. the real rental rate on capital
b. the real interest rate d. none of the above

64. The equilibrium real-business cycle model predicts that labor productivity will be
a. procyclical. c. acyclical.
b. countercyclical. d. indeterminate.

65. The measure known as total hours worked
a. multiplies employment by 40. c. divides employment by 24.
b. divides employment by the average wage rate. d. multiplies employment by the average weekly hours worked per employee.

SHORT ANSWER

1. If there is a positive technological change, what happens in the labor market?

2. What does the model predict about investment when technology increases and why and what do the data show about investment in the US?

3. What happens to consumption when there is a permanent and temporary increase in technology, A, and why?

4. What is the relationship between real GDP and the cyclical part of GDP?

5. What happens in the model, if a temporary technology change increase real wages temporarily?

6. What does the real business-cycle model predict will be the relationship between an economic expansion and the real rental price of capital?

Chapter 9

TRUE/FALSE

1. When the capital utilization rate, , is added to the model the interest rate becomes countercyclical.

2.
The higher the capital utilization rate, , the greater the depreciation rate of capital, .

3. An increase in unemployment insurance payments decreases effective real income while unemployed.

4. The duration of unemployment is the number unemployed divided by the labor force.

5. Unemployment will exist in an market clearing model, if it takes some search time for workers to find jobs.

6. An increase in the technology level leads to an outward shift of the demand curve for capital services.

7. An increase in the technology level leads to an increase in the market-clearing real rental price of capital.

8. When a variable capital utilization rate is added to the Barro model, the model predicts that the capital utilization rate will be countercyclical.

9. GDP can rise when a decrease in technology leads to an increase in the capital utilization rate.

10. The natural rate of unemployment in an economy occurs when the job separation rate equals zero.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The capital utilization rate is:
a. the rate capital wears out in a particular period. c. the percentage of capital used in production.
b. the depreciation rate. d. all of the above.

2. When the capital utilization rate, , increases then:
a. GDP increases. c. (hours per period)•(number of machines) increases.
b. machines are in use more hours per period. d. all of the above.

3. When the capital utilization rate, , increases then:
a. GDP decreases. c. (hours per period)•(number of machines) increases.
b. machines are in use fewer hours per period. d. all of the above.

4. When the capital utilization rate, , increases then:
a. GDP decreases. c. (hours per period)•(number of machines) decreases.
b. machines are in use more hours per period. d. all of the above.

5. When the capital utilization rate, , increases then:
a. GDP increases. c. (hour per period)•(number of machines) decreases.
b. machines are in use fewer hours per period. d. all of the above.

6. When we allow a capital utilization rate, , less than 100%, then the rate of return form owning capital becomes:
a. (R/P) – . c. (R/P)• – .
b. (R/P)• – ( ). d. (R/P) – ( ).

7. An owner of capital might set their capital utilization rate below 100% because:
a. the depreciation rate goes up with the capital utilization rate. c. to make time available for maintaining their capital.
b. machines wear out faster when used more intensively. d. all of the above.

8. The optimal capital utilization rate, , is that where:
a. (R/P)• – ( ) is maximized. c. (R/P)• > ( )
b. (R/P)• = ( ) d. (R/P)• < ( ) 9. the net real income from supplying capital services is: a. (R/P)• K - ( )K. c. ( )K - (R/P)• b. (R/P)• K + ( ). d. (R/P)• K • ( )K 10. Higher capital utilization rates may raise the user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply: a. operating at inconvenient times. c. operating when complementary services like transporters are unavailable or more expensive. b. paying overtime to employees operating the machines. d. all of the above. 11. Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply: a. operating at inconvenient times. c. less highway congestion. b. off-peak utility prices. d. all of the above. 12. Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply: a. less highway congestion. c. operating when complementary services like transportation are unavailable or more expensive. b. off peak utility prices. d. all of the above. 13. Higher capital utilization rates may raise user costs of capital because higher utilization rates may imply: a. less highway congestion. c. off peak utility prices. b. paying overtime to employees operating the machines. d. all of the above. 14. GDP rises can rise in an expansion due to: a. an increase in technology, A, directly increasing GDP. c. an increase in technology, A, causing an increase in the capital utilization rate, the quantity of capital services and GDP. b. an increase in technology, A, causing an increase in labor, L and GDP. d. all of the above. 15. The model predicts the capital utilization rate, , is: a. acyclical. c. countercyclical. b. procyclical. d. exogenous. 16. The model predicts that with a negative shock to technology, the capital utilization rate, , will: a. rise as GDP rises. c. rise as GDP falls. b. fall as GDP falls. d. fall as GDP rises. 17. After the capital utilization rate, , is included in the model, the interest rate: a. is still procyclical. c. becomes procyclical. b. is still countercyclical. d. becomes countercyclical. 18. The US data from 1948 to 2006 shows the capital utilization rate, , is: a. procyclical as the model predicts. c. procyclical the opposite the model predicts. b. countercyclical as the model predicts. d. countercyclical the opposite as the model predicts. 19. The model predicts that with a positive shock to technology the capital utilization rate, , will a. fall as GDP falls. c. rise as GDP rises. b. fall as GDP rises. d. rise as GDP falls. 20. If the rental price of capital increases, then the capital utilization rate, ,: a. also increases. c. remains the same. b. decreases. d. depends on whether the substitution rate is greater than the income effect. 21. The unemployment rate is: a. the number of workers in the labor force unemployed divided by the number of workers employed. c. the number of workers in the labor force unemployed divided by the labor force. b. the number of workers employed divide by the number of workers in the labor force unemployed. d. the labor force divided by the number of workers in the labor force unemployed. 22. The vacancy rate in the labor market is: a. the number of job openings divided by the number of unemployed people in the labor force. c. the ratio of open jobs to filled jobs. b. the number of job openings divided by the number of workers in the labor force. d. the ratio of open jobs to the total number of jobs that employers want occupied. 23. If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the number of unemployed workers in the labor force is: a. 5 million. c. 2 million. b. 3 million. d. none of the above. 24. If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the number of vacancies is: a. 5 million. c. 2 million. b. 3 million. d. none of the above. 25. If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the unemployment rate is: a. 3%. c. 5.3%. b. 5%. d. none of the above. 26. If the labor force is 100 million, there are 95 million people employed, there are 98 million jobs that employers want occupied, vacancy rate is: a. 5%. c. 3.1%. b. 3.2%. d. 3%. 27. If the labor force is 100 million, there are 94 million people employed, there are 99 million jobs that employers want occupied, then the vacancy rate is: a. 5%. c. 5.3% b. 5.1% d. 1% 28. One minus the unemployment rate, 1 - u, is: a. the vacancy rate. c. the employment rate. b. the labor force. d. the level of employment. 29. Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if: a. there are frictions in the labor market. c. we allow for differences among workers and jobs. b. it takes some search time for workers to find jobs. d. all of the above. 30. Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if: a. the labor market is in disequilibrium. c. we allow for differences among workers and jobs. b. we allow capital utilization of less than 100%. d. all of the above. 31. Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if: a. there are frictions in the labor market. c. the labor market is in equilibrium. b. the labor supply curve is upward sloping. d. all of the above. 32. Unemployment can exist in a market clearing model, if: a. all workers are identical. c. the labor supply curve is upward sloping. b. it takes some search time for workers to find jobs. d. all of the above. 33. A worker will accept a job offer, if the real wage offer is above: a. the worker’s effective real income when unemployed, . c. the worker’s reservation wage. b. the wage the worker earned in their last job. d. the average wage in the economy. 34. An increase in a worker’s effective real income while unemployed, , will cause the worker’s: a. real wage offers to increase. c. real reservation wage to increase. b. real wage offers to decrease. d. real reservation wage to decrease. 35. We expect that an increase in the effective real income while unemployed , a. will reduce the job-finding rate. c. increase real wage offers. b. will increase the job-finding rate. d. decrease real wage offers. 36. A decrease in workers’ effective real incomes while unemployed, , will: a. lower the job finding rate and raise the expected duration of unemployment. c. raise the job finding rate and lower the expected duration of unemployment. b. lower the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment. d. raise the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment. 37. A negative shock to productivity, A, will: a. lower the job finding rate and raise the expected duration of unemployment. c. raise the job finding rate and lower the expected duration of unemployment. b. lower the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment. d. raise the job finding rate and the expected duration of unemployment. 38. Job separations can be due to: a. an adverse shock to the firm’s production function. c. a change in a worker’s circumstances such as changing locations. b. the job being temporary from the start like a seasonal job. d. all of the above. 39. Job separations can be due to: a. a positive shock to the firm’s production function. c. a change in a worker’s circumstances such as changing locations. b. an increase in technology. d. all of the above. 40. Job separations can be caused by: a. an adverse shock to the firm’s production function. c. increased technology, A. b. foreign competition. d. all of the above. 41. In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is the unemployment rate: a. where job findings equal job separations. c. the job separation rate equals the job finding rate. b. job findings are maximized. d. job separations are minimized. 42. If the job separation rate is 0.02 and the job finding rate is 0.3, then the natural rate of unemployment is: a. 6.25% c. 6.67% b. 15% d. none of the above. 43. If the job separation rate is 0.03 and the job finding rate is 0.7, then the natural rate of unemployment is: a. 4.2% c. 23.3% b. 4.1% d. none of the above. 44. In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is: a. positively related to that job separations rate. c. fixed. b. zero. d. positively related to the job finding rate. 45. In the Barro model, the natural rate of unemployment is: a. negatively related to that job separations rate. c. fixed. b. zero. d. negatively related to the job finding rate. 46. In US data vacancies from 1954 to 2006 as measure by the help-wanted index are: a. procyclical as the model predicts. c. procyclical the opposite the model predicts. b. countercyclical as the model predicts. d. countercyclical the opposite the model predicts. 47. Discouraged workers are: a. those that are unemployed. c. those who have dropped out of the labor force. b. those that are underemployed. d. those who are under paid. 48. The job-finding rate is: a. the number of hires per month divided by the number unemployed. c. the number of hires per month divided by the unemployment rate. b. the number of hires per month divided by the number employed. d. the number of hires per month divided by the employment rate. 49. The US data from December 2000 to February 2006 shows that the job finding rate is: a. acyclical. c. procyclical. b. countercyclical. d. exogenous. 50. The US data from December 2000 to February 2006 shows that the job separation rate is: a. acyclical. c. procyclical. b. countercyclical. d. exogenous. 51. Owners of capital choose the utilization rate to a. maximize their net real income from supplying capital services. c. minimize their net real income from supplying capital services. b. maximize their net real costs from supplying capital services. d. minimize their net real rental payments from supplying capital services. 52. When the Barro model allows for variable capital utilization rates, the result is that an increase in the technology level causes a. a decrease in the capital utilization rate. c. a decrease in the quantity of capital services. b. an increase in the capital utilization rate. d. no change in the quantity of capital services. 53. When the technology level increases, a. the demand for capital services shifts to the left. c. the demand for capital services shifts to the right. b. the supply of capital services shifts to the right. d. both (b) and (c). 54. When the technology level increases, the market for capital services a. fails to clear. c. clears at the original real rental price. b. clears at a lower real rental price. d. clears at a higher real rental price. 55. When the technology level increases, the market for capital services a. clears at a higher quantity of capital services. c. clears at the original quantity of capital services. b. clears at a lower quantity of capital services. d. fails to clear. 56. On a graph of the capital services market, the supply of capital services a. slopes down because an increase in the real rental price raises the capital utilization rate. c. slopes up because an increase in the real rental price lowers the capital utilization rate. b. slopes up because an increase in the real rental price raises the capital utilization rate. d. slopes down because an increase in the real rental price lowers the capital utilization rate. 57. On a graph of the capital services market, the demand for capital services shifts out when a. the technology level decreases, which increases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input. c. the technology level increases, which increases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input. b. the technology level decreases, which decreases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input. d. the technology level increases, which decreases the marginal product of capital for any give amount of capital input. 58. U.S. data show that the labor force is a. strongly countercyclical. c. strongly procyclical. b. acyclical. d. weakly procyclical. 59. U.S. data show that the employment rate is a. strongly procyclical. c. strongly countercyclical. b. acyclical. d. weakly countercyclical. 60. An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will a. increase a person’s effective real income while unemployed. c. have no effect on a person’s effective real income while unemployed. b. decrease a person’s effective real income while unemployed. d. either (a) or (c). 61. An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will a. decrease a person’s duration of unemployment. c. have no effect on a person’s duration of unemployment. b. increase a person’s duration of unemployment. d. either (a) or (c). 62. An increase in unemployment insurance payments from the government will a. increase the job finding rate. c. decrease the job-finding rate. b. have no effect on the job-finding rate. d. either (a) or (b). 63. The job-separation rate is likely to be high among workers who are a. inexperienced and difficult to evaluate. c. in industries where there are frequent shocks to product demand. b. likely to experience changes in job preferences. d. all of the above. 64. At the natural rate of unemployment, a. the job-separation rate is positive. c. the job-finding rate equals zero. b. the job-separation rate equals zero. d. both (b) and (c). 65. At the natural rate of unemployment, a. the job-separation and job-finding rates are each zero. c. tthe job-separation and job-finding rates are both negative. b. the job-separation and job-finding rates are both positive. d. the job-separation rate is zero and the job-finding rate is positive. SHORT ANSWER 1. How does the capital utilization enter the production function? 2. How does the capital utilization rate affect the depreciation rate and why? 3. How can there be unemployment in a market clearing model? 4. How does the Barro model define the natural rate of unemployment and what does the natural rate of unemployment depend on. 5. What is the reservation wage? 6. How does an increase in technology affect the market-clearing real rental price of capital services? ECO 302 Week 7 Quiz Chapter 10 TRUE/FALSE 1. High powered money is commodity money like gold and silver. 2. If households reduce money balances, then their transactions costs go up. 3. If the money supply grows faster than money demand, then the price level rises. 4. If the interest rate increases, then the real demand for money also increases. 5. The neutrality of money means that one time changes in the money supply do not affect real variables. 6. M1 includes a broader array of deposit accounts than M2 does. 7. In the Barro model, money and barter can both be used for exchanges. 8. In the Barro model, households hold money as a long-term store of value. 9. If the price level doubles, then a household’s nominal demand for money also doubles. 10. If the nominal quantity of money supplied does not vary, then the price level will be countercyclical. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Fiat money is money that has value because of: a. its intrinsic value. c. government decree. b. it is a commodity. d. all of the above. 2. Commodity money is money that has value because: a. of the intrinsic value of the commodity. c. the government says so. b. it is legal tender. d. all of the above. 3. If a person holds one dollar and does not lose it, then as long as the person holds that dollar they will have: a. the commodity value of the dollar. c. an interest bearing asset. b. one dollar in currency. d. all of the above. 4. High powered money is: a. money held by business for investment. c. total currency in circulation. b. total currency in circulation plus depository institutions deposits at the Federal Reserve. d. government bonds held by the public and depository institutions. 5. A monetary aggregate is: a. high powered money. c. money defined more broadly than currency. b. commodity money. d. total currency in circulation plus depository institutions deposits at the Federal Reserve. 6. US M1 money includes: a. currency held by the public. c. traveler’s checks. b. checkable deposits. d. all of the above. 7. US M1 money includes: a. savings deposits. c. time deposits. b. checkable deposits. d. all of the above. 8. US M1 money includes: a. currency, traveler’s checks and checkable deposits. c. currency, checkable deposits, savings deposits. b. checkable deposits, traveler’s checks and savings deposits. d. currency, time deposits, checkable deposits. 9. US M2 money includes: a. currency. c. small time deposits. b. demand deposits d. all of the above. 10. US M2 money includes: a. currency, time deposits government bonds. c. checkable deposits, savings deposits, small time deposits. b. savings deposits, small time deposits, private bonds. d. retail money market mutual funds, small time deposits, government bonds. 11. Money is different from other assets like capital and bonds in that: a. money does not pay interest. c. capital and bonds are better long term stores of value. b. money can be spent for purchases. d. all of the above. 12. Money is different from other assets like capital and bonds in that: a. money does not pay interest. c. money is a better long term store of value. b. money has intrinsic value. d. all of the above. 13. Money is different from other assets like capital and bonds in that: a. money pays a higher interest rate. c. money is a better long term store of value. b. money can be spent for purchases. d. all of the above. 14. Money is different from other assets like capital and bonds in that: a. money has intrinsic value. c. capital and bonds are better long term stores of value. b. money pays a higher rate of interest. d. all of the above. 15. When households reduce their average money balances, they a. purchase more goods. c. incur more opportunity costs. b. they earn less interest. d. incur more transaction costs. 16. If a person’s income doubles we expect their cash holding to: a. double. c. less than double. b. more than double. d. decline. 17. Economies of scale in cash management means: a. at a higher income household’s hold more money as a proportion of their income. c. the proportion of income held is not affected by household income. b. at lower incomes household’s hold more money as a proportion of their income d. at lower income households hold less money as a proportion of their income. 18. Real money demand does not change when: a. nominal GDP changes. c. the price level changes. b. the interest rate changes. d. all of the above. 19. Among the source of transactions costs associated with reducing average money balances are: a. brokerage fees. c. the time spent going to the ATM. b. the time spent going to the bank. d. all of the above. 20. Among the sources of transactions costs associated with reducing average money balances are: a. brokerage fees. c. foregone interest payments. b. opportunity costs. d. all of the above. 21. Among the source of transactions costs associated with reducing average money balances are: a. foregone interest payments. c. opportunity costs. b. the time spent going to the bank or ATM. d. all of the above. 22. The demand for money is: a. negatively related to the price level. c. positively related to real GDP. b. positively related to the interest rate. d. all of the above. 23. The demand for money is: a. negatively related to the price level. c. negatively related to real GDP. b. negatively related to the interest rate. d. all of the above. 24. The demand for money is: a. positively related to the price level. c. negatively related to real GDP. b. positively related to the interest rate. d. all of the above. 25. The demand for money is: a. positively related to the price level. c. positively related to real GDP. b. negatively related to the interest rate. d. all of the above. 26. When the supply of money increases, then a. the price level rises. c. money demand increases. b. the price level falls. d. money demand decreases. 27. When the demand of money increases, then a. the price level rises. c. the money supply increases. b. the price level falls. d. the money supply decreases. Figure 10.1 28. In Figure 10.1, if money demand decreases then: a. the equilibrium price level rises. c. the money supply rises. b. the equilibrium prices level falls. d. the money supply falls. 29. In Figure 10.1, if the money supply decreases then: a. the equilibrium price level rises. c. money demand increases. b. the equilibrium price level falls. d. money demand decreases. 30. In Figure 10.1 if the interest rate, i, were to increase, then a. money demand decreases and the price level increases. c. the money supply and the price level would increase. b. money demand increases and the price level decreases. d. the money supply and the price level would decrease. 31. In Figure 10.1 if real GDP, Y, were to increase, then a. money demand decreases and the price level increases. c. the money supply and the price level would increase. b. money demand increases and the price level decreases. d. the money supply and the price level would decrease. 32. In Figure 10.1 the interaction of the money supply and money demand determines: a. real GDP. c. growth rate of the economy. b. the price level. d. all of the above. 33. In Figure 10.1 if money demand increases faster than the money supply then: a. the price level will rise over time. c. GDP will rise over time. b. the price level will fall over time. d. GDP will fall over time. 34. In Figure 10.1 if the money supply increases faster than money demand then: a. the price level will rise over time. c. GDP will rise over time. b. the price level will fall over time. d. GDP will fall over time. 35. In Figure 10.1, if money demand increases then: a. the equilibrium price level rises. c. the money supply rises. b. the equilibrium price level falls. d. the money supply falls. 36. In Figure 10.1, if the money supply increases then: a. the equilibrium price level rises. c. the money supply rises. b. the equilibrium price level falls. d. the money supply falls. 37. Real money demand is: a. Md/P. c. the purchasing power of money balances. b. a function of real GDP and the interest rate. d. all of the above. 38. Real money demand is: a. money demand after taxes. c. determined by the central bank. b. a function of real GDP and the interest rate. d. all of the above. 39. Real money demand is: a. determined by the central bank. c. the purchasing power of money balances. b. money demand after taxes. d. all of the above. 40. If the money supply doubles, then a. real GDP doubles. c. the interest rate, i, doubles. b. real money demand doubles. d. none of the above. 41. If the money supply doubles, then a. GDP doubles. c. the interest rate, i, doubles. b. the price level doubles. d. none of the above. 42. Under price level targeting the money supply becomes: a. neutral. c. exogenous. b. endogenous. d. predetermined. 43. During a recession, a. the interest rate and real GDP fall tending to cause money demand to fall. c. the interest rate falls tending to cause money demand to rise, but is at least partly offset by real GDP falling tending to cause money demand to fall. b. the interest rate and real GDP rise tending to cause money demand to rise. d. the interest rate rising and real GDP falling tend to cause money demand to rise. 44. If policy makers target a specific price level, then: a. the money supply becomes exogenous in the model. c. the money supply becomes endogenous in the model. b. the money supply becomes predetermined in the model. d. the money supply becomes neutral in the model. 45. In US data from 1954 to 2006, the price level is: a. procyclical as we would expect if the monetary authority does not vary the money with the business cycle. c. countercyclical as we would expect if the monetary authority does not vary the money supply with the business cycle. b. procyclical as we would expect if the monetary authority varies the money supply with the business cycle. d. countercyclical as we would expect if the monetary authority varies the money supply with the business cycle. 46. Real money demand is: a. L(Y, i). c. P • L(Y, i). b. equal to the money supply. d. all of the above. 47. Money demand and the money supply are brought into equilibrium by: a. real GDP adjusting. c. the interest rate adjusting. b. the price level adjusting. d. the real wage rate adjusting. 48. Price level targeting implies that the monetary authority: a. changes the money supply to match movements in money demand. c. changes money demand and money supply to match movements in the price level. b. changes money demand to match movements in the money supply. d. changes money demand to match movements in the price level. 49. The neutrality of money implies: a. one time changes in real variables do not affect money demand. c. one time changes in nominal variables do not affect money demand. b. one time changes in the money supply do not affect real variables. d. one time changes in the money supply do not affect nominal variables. 50. If for one period the money supply increases, then: a. real GDP increases. c. real capital per worker increases. b. the real wage increases. d. none of the above. 51. If James performs one hour of house cleaning for Lilly in exchange for Lilly performing one hour of yardwork for James, then the exchange involved a. barter. c. items with no intrinsic value. b. fiat money. d. the capital services market. 52. Fiat money would most likely hold the dominant position as a medium of exchange when a. legal restrictions prevent private firms from issuing small, interest-bearing bonds as substitutes for money. c. the government requires that taxes be paid using the fiat money. b. the government declares the money to be legal tender. d. all of the above. 53. The monetary base does not include a. total currency in circulation. c. bank deposits at the Federal Reserve. b. checkable deposits. d. all of the above. 54. Checkable deposits are a. deposits at financial institutions that can be withdrawn only after paying a penalty. c. deposits at financial institutions that can be withdrawn by writing a check. b. savings deposits at financial institutions that can be withdrawn by transfer to another account. d. deposits on which the bank checks the deposit slip carefully. 55. If Alicia transfers $100 from her savings deposit account to her checkable deposit account, then M1 a. increases and M2 stays the same. c. increases and M2 decreases. b. increases and M2 increases. d. decreases and M2 increases. 56. If Hagen transfers $100 from his checkable deposit account to his savings deposit account, then M1 a. increases and M2 stays the same. c. decreases and M2 stays the same. b. increases and M2 increases. d. decreases and M2 increases. 57. U.S. data show that checkable deposits have a. increased in importance as a payment method. c. increased in importance as a portion of M1. b. decreased in importance as a payment method. d. decreased in importance as a portion of the monetary base. 58. Which asset below is the least useful long-term store of value? a. bonds. c. either (a) or (b). b. ownership of capital. d. money. 59. A household’s demand for money arises from the household’s a. optimal strategy for money management. c. need to provide capital services to the market. b. need to provide labor services to the market. d. desire to increase its transactions costs. 60. The empirical evidence on the demand for money finds that a. an decrease in the price level lowers the real demand for money in the same proportion. c. an increase in the price level lowers the nominal demand for money in the same proportion. b. interest rates are negatively related to money. d. real GDP is negatively related to money. 61. The point where money supplied equals money demanded determines a. the real interest rate. c. the price level. b. the nominal interest rate. d. the real return on capital services. 62. Which of the following scenarios would mostly likely cause the price level to double? a. The nominal quantity of money demanded doubles. c. The nominal wage doubles. b. The nominal quantity of money demanded falls by half. d. The nominal quantity of money supplied doubles. 63. In general equilibrium, a one-time increase in the nominal quantity of money supplied a. does not affect the interest rate. c. decreases the interest rate. b. increases the interest rate. d. either (a) or (b). 64. The general equilibrium in the Barro model assumes that prices are a. inflexible and adjust slowly. c. unaffected by changes in the money supply. b. flexible and adjust rapidly. d. unimportant in explaining money demand. 65. Most economists agree that money is a. not neutral in the long-run. c. neutral in the long-run. b. not neutral in the short- or long-run. d. neutral in the short-run. SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the money demand function and what is the direction of influence of the variables on money demand? 2. Why does economizing on money balances lead to greater transactions cost? 3. How do money demand and the money supply interact to determine the price level? 4. What does money neutrality mean? 5. What would happen to money demand, the money supply and the price level if there were a positive shock to production? 6. According to the Barro model, will the price level be high or low in a recession? Chapter 11 TRUE/FALSE 1. The real rate of interest is the nominal rate of interest less the expected inflation rate. 2. The real return on money is zero. 3. An increase in the money growth rate affects household consumption, C. 4. In the market clearing model, an increase in the money growth rate leads to an increase in the inflation rate. 5. In the market clearing model an increase in the money growth rate leads to a decrease in the nominal interest rate. 6. Inflation is a measure of the growth of prices in the volatile food and energy categories. 7. Households with rational expectations have no errors in their predictions. 8. Expected and actual inflation are equal in a model with rational expectations. 9. Deflation occurs when the inflation rate slows down, but remains positive. 10. Data show a strong negative relationship between the inflatin rate and the growth rate of nominal currency. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The actual inflation rate is: a. the change in the price level divided by the original price level. c. the original price level divided by the new price level. b. The original price level divided the change in price level. d. the new price level divided by the original price level. 2. If the price level last year was 110 and this year is 118, then the inflation rate between last period and this period was: a. 7.3%. c. 8% b. 7%. d. 6.8%. 3. If the price level last year was 135 and this year is 142, then the inflation rate between last period and this period was: a. 4.9%. c. 5.1% b. 7%. d. 5.2%. 4. If the price level last year was 106 and this year is 102, then the inflation rate between last period and this period was: a. -3.8% c. 3.8% b. 4%. d. -3.9%. 5. The unexpected inflation rate is: a. the expected inflation rate less the actual inflation rate. c. the actual inflation rate less the expected inflation rate. b. the expected inflation rate divided by the actual inflation rate. d. the actual inflation rate divided by the expected inflation rate. 6. If the expected inflation rate is 5% and the actual inflation rate is 4%, then the unexpected inflation rate is: a. 1%. c. -1%. b. 9%. d. 1.25%. 7. If the expected inflation rate is 3% and the actual inflation rate is 5%, then the unexpected inflation rate is: a. 2%. c. -2%. b. 8%. d. 1.67%. 8. If the expected inflation rate is 5% and the unexpected inflation rate is 4%, then the actual inflation rate is: a. 1%. c. -1%. b. 9%. d. 1.25%. 9. If the expected inflation rate is 3% and the unexpected inflation rate is -2%, then the actual inflation rate is: a. 2%. c. -2%. b. 1%. d. 1.67%. 10. The real interest rate is a. the nominal interest rate plus the expected inflation rate. c. the nominal interest rate less the expected inflation. b. the nominal interest rate divided by the expected inflation rate. d. the expected inflation rate divided by the nominal rate of interest. 11. If the nominal interest rate is 5% and the expected inflation rate is 2%, then the expected real rate of interest is: a. 7%. c. 2.5%. b. 3% d. -3%. 12. If the nominal interest rate is 2% and the actual inflation rate is 5%, then the actual real rate of interest is: a. 7%. c. 2.5%. b. 3% d. -3%. 13. When the real interest rate, r, can differ from the nominal interest rate, i, then: a. money demand depends on the real rate of interest. c. consumption depends on the nominal rate of interest. b. consumption depends on the real rate of interest. d. money demand no longer depends on any interest rate. 14. An indexed bond is one: a. that pays a real rate of interest. c. that is indexed to the expected inflation rate. b. that is indexed to the economic growth rate. d. that pays a nominal rate of interest. 15. The data on countries around the world show that: a. the inflation rate is positively related to the growth of currency. c. the inflation rate is inversely related to the growth of currency. b. the inflation rate is unrelated to the growth in currency. d. countries with high currency growth rates have higher real GDP. 16. The nominal rate of interest on money is: a. zero. c. minus the inflation rate. b. real rate of return on money less the inflation rate. d. all of the above. 17. The nominal rate of interest on money is: a. positive. c. minus the inflation rate. b. real rate of return on money plus the inflation rate. d. all of the above. 18. The real rate of interest on money is: a. zero. c. minus the inflation rate. b. the nominal rate of return on money plus the inflation rate. d. all of the above. 19. If the interest rate is 5% and the inflation rate is 3%, then the nominal rate of return on money is: a. 2%. c. 5% b. 3% d. zero. 20. If the interest rate is 5% and the inflation rate is 3%, then the real rate of return on money is: a. 2%. c. -3% b. 3% d. zero. 21. If the interest rate is 6% and the inflation rate is 2%, then the nominal rate of return on money is: a. 2%. c. 8% b. 4% d. zero. 22. If the interest rate is 6% and the inflation rate is 2%, then the real rate of return on money is: a. 2%. c. -2% b. 4% d. zero. 23. In the market clearing model money growth is modeled as: a. random. c. via the purchase of bonds. b. lump-sum transfers. d. all of the above. 24. Lump sum transfers for money growth implies: a. we need to analyze how transfer affects GDP. c. we need to analyze how transfers affect capital. b. we do not have to analyze how households adjust their behavior to attract transfers. d. we need to model how households adjust their behavior to attract transfers. 25. The expected rate of inflation is: a. the real rate of interest less the nominal rate of interest. c. the nominal rate of interest plus the real rate of interest. b. the nominal interest rate on nominal bonds less the interest rate on indexed bonds. d. the interest rate on indexed bonds less the nominal interest rate on nominal bonds. 26. An increase in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes: a. an increase in the nominal interest rate. c. an increase in the price level. b. a decrease in money demand. d. all of the above. 27. An increase in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes: a. an increase in the nominal interest rate. c. a decrease in the price level. b. an increase in money demand. d. all of the above. 28. An increase in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes: a. a decrease in the nominal interest rate. c. an increase in consumption. b. a decrease in money demand. d. all of the above. 29. An increase in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes: a. a decrease in the nominal interest rate. c. an increase in the price level. b. an increase in consumption. d. all of the above. 30. An increase in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes: a. an increase in the nominal interest rate. c. an increase in the inflation rate. b. a decrease in money demand. d. all of the above. 31. An increase in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes: a. a decrease in the nominal interest rate. c. an increase in the inflation rate. b. an increase in money demand. d. all of the above. 32. The growth rate of real money balances is: a. the growth rate of nominal money less the inflation rate. c. the growth rate of nominal money plus the inflation rate. b. the growth rate of nominal money divided by the inflation rate. d. the inflation rate divided by the growth rate of nominal money. 33. When the rate of growth rate of money is constant: a. the inflation rate equals the growth rate of money. c. real money balance are fixed over time. b. the nominal interest rate is the real rate of interest plus the growth rate of money. d. all of the above. 34. When the rate of growth rate of money is constant: a. the inflation rate equals the growth rate of money. c. real money balance are declining. b. the nominal interest rate rises. d. all of the above. 35. When the rate of growth rate of money is constant: a. the inflation rate is growing. c. real money balance are declining. b. the nominal interest rate is the real rate of interest plus the growth rate of money. d. all of the above. 36. When the rate of growth rate of money is constant: a. the inflation rate is growing. c. real money balance are constant over time. b. the nominal interest rate is declining. d. all of the above. 37. Real revenue from printing money is approximately: a. the nominal interest rate times real money balances. c. the real interest rate times nominal money balances. b. the money growth rate times real money balances. d. the money growth rate times nominal money balances. 38. If the inflation rate is 3% and the nominal interest rate is 5% and the money growth rate increases to 5%, then we would expect the nominal interest rate to be: a. 10%. c. zero. b. 7%. d. 2%. 39. If the inflation rate is 3% and the nominal interest rate is 5% and the money growth rate increases to 5%, then we would expect the inflation rate to be: a. 10%. c. 5%. b. 7%. d. 2%. 40. If the inflation rate is 3% and the nominal interest rate is 5% and the money growth rate increases to 5%, then we would expect real money balances to: a. fall. c. remain unchanged. b. increase. d. to fluctuate. 41. If the inflation rate is 2% and the nominal interest rate is 4% and the money growth rate increases to 3%, then we would expect the nominal interest rate to be: a. 6%. c. 5%. b. zero. d. 2%. 42. If the inflation rate is 2% and the nominal interest rate is 4% and the money growth rate increases to 5%, then we would expect the inflation rate to be: a. 6%. c. 5%. b. 7%. d. 2%. 43. A decrease in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes: a. a decrease in the nominal interest rate. c. a decrease in the price level. b. an increase in money demand. d. all of the above. 44. A decrease in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes: a. a decrease in the nominal interest rate. c. an increase in the price level. b. a decrease in money demand. d. all of the above. 45. A decrease in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes: a. an increase in the nominal interest rate. c. an increase in the price level. b. an increase in money demand. d. all of the above. 46. A decrease in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes: a. an increase in the nominal interest rate. c. a decrease in the price level. b. a decrease in money demand. d. all of the above. 47. A decrease in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes: a. a decrease in the nominal interest rate. c. a decrease in the inflation rate. b. an increase in money demand. d. all of the above. 48. A decrease in the money growth rate in the market clearing model causes: a. an increase in the nominal interest rate. c. an increase in the inflation rate. b. a decrease in money demand. d. all of the above. 49. If the inflation rate is 3% and the nominal interest rate is 5% and the money growth rate decreases to 2%, then we would expect the inflation rate to be: a. 8%. c. 5%. b. 7%. d. 2%. 50. If the inflation rate is 3% and the nominal interest rate is 5% and the money growth rate increases to 2%, then we would expect the nominal interest rate to be: a. 4%. c. 5%. b. 7%. d. 2%. 51. Inflation is a. a continuing upward movement in the price level. c. a continuing upward movement in the prices of oil and food. b. a one-time upward movement in the price level. d. a continuing upward movement in the price of labor. 52. Deflation is a. a one-time downward movement in the price level. c. a declining, but positive, rate of inflation. b. a continuing downward movement in the price level. d. a continuing upward movement in the price of labor. 53. From 2000 to 2006, the rate of change of prices in Japan was -0.2% per year. This is an example of a. inflation. c. deflation. b. hyperinflation. d. disinflation. 54. Cross-country data on inflation rates shows a strong and positive association with the a. disinflation rate for the previous period. c. growth rate of nominal currency. b. nominal and real interest rates. d. growth rate of real currency. 55. Households which form rational expectations will a. exhibit procyclical patterns in their errors over time. c. exhibit deflationary patterns in their errors over time. b. exhibit countercyclical patterns in their errors over time. d. not exhibit a systematic pattern of errors over time. 56. If the inflation rate between last year and this year is 5%, and the price level last year was 125, then the price level this year is a. 131.25. c. 120.00. b. 130.00. d. 100.00. 57. If the inflation rate between last year and this year is -5%, and the price level last year was 125, then the price level this year is a. 100.00. c. 120.00. b. 118.75. d. 131.25. 58. Households with rational expectations will a. make accurate predictions each period. c. make procyclical errors in their predictions. b. have no errors in their predictions. d. have errors in their predictions. 59. If the nominal interest rate is 7% and the expected inflation rate is 4%, then the a. expected real interest rate is 3%. c. actual nominal interest rate is 3%. b. actual real interest rate is 3%. d. expected nominal interest rate is 4%. 60. The Livingston survey a. asks about 500 randomly-chosen households for their forecasts of the CPI. c. uses prices on indexed bonds to calculate inflation expectations. b. asks about 50 economists for their forecasts of the CPI. d. uses the real interest rate to calculate estimates of the nominal interest rate. 61. If the interest rate on a regular Treasury bond is 8% and the interest rate on an indexed bond is 3%, then the a. real interest rate is 5%. c. expected inflation rate is 5%. b. real interest rate is 8%. d. expected inflation rate is 8%. 62. If the interest rate on a regular Treasury bond is 7% and the interest rate on an indexed bond is 3%, then the a. expected inflation rate is 10%. c. expected inflation rate is 5%. b. real interest rate is 7%. d. real interest rate is 3%.. 63. In a model with a nonzero rate of inflation, the real rate of return from owning capital a. equals the real interest rate. c. equals the nominal interest rate. b. is greater than the real interest rate. d. is greater than the nominal interest rate. 64. In a model with a nonzero rate of inflation, real money demanded depends on a. the real interest rate. c. the nominal interest rate. b. the real depreciation rate. d. the nominal depreciation rate. 65. If the inflation rate equals 5% and the total real rate of return from owning capital equals 2%, then the a. the depreciation rate equals 2%. c. nominal interest rate equals 2%. b. real interest rate equals 2%. d. nominal interest rate is greater than 2%. SHORT ANSWER 1. Derive the relationship between nominal and real interest rates. 2. After allowing for inflation expectations why does real money demand still depend on the nominal rate of interest? 3. What advantages are there to modeling money growth as lump-sum transfers? 4. What happens in the market clearing model when the money growth rate increases? 5. What is the government revenue from printing money? 6. If households have rational expectations, would they ever make errors in predicting inflation? Explain briefly. 7. In a model with nonzero inflation, what is the equilibrium relation between the interest rate and the rate of return from owning capital? ECO 302 Week 8 Quiz Chapter 12 TRUE/FALSE 1. Government can use its funds to purchase goods or transfer money to people. 2. If a household’s transfer payment less taxes is greater than zero, then government is a net source of funds for that household. 3. A permanent increase in government purchases causes an increase in the real rate of interest. 4. A permanent increase in government purchases increases GDP. 5. A temporary increase in government purchases increases GDP. 6. A temporary increase in government expenditures will reduce gross investment. 7. From 1929 to the present, government expenditures as a ratio to GDP have risen to equal about one-third. 8. U.S. government transfer payments in the form of unemployment insurance are equivalent to about ten percent of GDP. 9. The largest expansions in transfer payments at the U.S. federal level have been in Social Seccurity and Medicare. 10. Across a large sample of countries, the U.S. ratio of total government expenditure to GDP is near the median. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The biggest category of government purchases in the US is: a. state and local purchases. c. federal government purchases. b. defense purchases. d. federal transfer payments. 2. Government transfer payment as a percentage of GDP have been: a. generally rising. c. cyclical. b. generally falling. d. constant. 3. The fastest growing part of the federal government budget since WWII is: a. interest payments on the debt. c. transfer payments. b. defense spending. d. infrastructure. 4. State and local governments purchases include: a. defense spending. c. social security retirement spending. b. education spending. d. all of the above. 5. The biggest category of state and local expenditures are: a. education. c. defense. b. transfer payments. d. none of the above. 6. State and local governments purchases are about half: a. interest on debt. c. defense. b. transfer payments. d. none of the above. 7. The government budget constraint without borrowing is: a. Gt + Vt = Tt + (Mt - Mt-1 )/P c. Gt - Vt = Tt b. Gt = Tt + Vt d. Gt - Vt = Tt - (Mt - Mt-1 )/P 8. The government budget constraint is: a. government purchases less transfer payments equal revenue from money growth less taxes. c. government purchases plus taxes equal transfer payment plus revenue from money creation. b. government purchases plus transfer payments equal taxes plus revenue from money growth. d. government purchases times transfer payment equals taxes times revenue from money creation. 9. The government’s budget constraint is: a. Gt + Vt = Tt + (Mt - Mt-1 )/P c. -Gt = Vt - Tt, if revenue from money creation is zero. b. Gt + Vt - Tt = (Mt - Mt-1 )/P d. all of the above. 10. The government’s budget is: a. government purchases plus transfer payments equal taxes plus revenue from money creation. c. the negative of government equals transfers less taxes, if revenue from money creation is zero. b. government purchases plus transfers less taxes equal revenue from money creation. d. all of the above. 11. If there is no revenue from money growth, then the government’s budget constraint without borrowing is: a. Gt + Vt = Tt. c. Gt = Vt - Tt b. Gt = Vt + Tt. d. all of the above. 12. If the money supply does not change, then the government’s budget constraint without borrowing is: a. Gt - Vt = Tt c. -Gt = Vt - Tt b. Gt = Vt - Tt d. all of the above. 13. Among the government’s sources of funds are; a. transfer payments. c. government purchases. b. tax revenue. d. all of the above. 14. Among the government’s sources of funds are; a. transfer payments. c. real revenue from printing money. b. government purchases. d. all of the above. 15. Among the government’s uses of funds are; a. transfer payments. c. real revenue from printing money. b. tax revenue. d. all of the above. 16. Among the government’s uses of funds are; a. government purchases. c. real revenue from printing money. b. tax revenue. d. all of the above. 17. In the market clearing model without government borrowing, the net effect of government on households is an increase in funds of: a. transfer payments times taxes. c. taxes less transfer payments. b. transfer payments plus taxes. d. transfer payments less taxes. 18. If a household’s transfer payments less taxes is positive, then the government: a. is a net source of funds for that household. c. is a net drain on that household. b. is a net use of fund of funds for that household. d. does not affect that household’s budget constraint. 19. If a household’s transfer payments less taxes is negative, then the government: a. is a net source of funds for that household. c. is a net subsidizer of that household. b. is a net use of fund of funds for that household. d. does not affect that household’s budget constraint. 20. According to the market clearing model a permanent increase in government purchases causes: a. a decrease in consumption. c. an increases in real GDP. b. an increases in the real interest rate. d. all of the above. 21. According to the market clearing model a permanent increase in government purchases leads to: a. an increase in capital utilization. c. an increase in the demand for capital services. b. a decrease in the supply of capita services. d. no change in the real rate of interest. 22. According to the market clearing model a permanent increase in government purchases causes an increase in: a. real GDP. c. the real wage rate. b. the real interest rate. d. none of the above. 23. In the market clearing model the intertemporal substitution effect from a permanent increase in government purchases: a. works through real interest rate changes. c. works through real interest rate and real wage changes. b. works through real wage changes. d. does not exist because the real interest rate and real wage rated do not change. 24. In the market clearing model a permanent decrease in government purchase will: a. increase consumption. c. increase the real wage rate. b. increase the real interest rate. d. all of the above. 25. In the market clearing model a permanent increase in government purchases does not increase the real wage because: a. labor supply and labor demand increase about the same amount. c. labor demand is downward sloping. b. labor supply is fixed. d. neither labor demand nor labor supply shift due to the permanent increase in government purchases. 26. In the market clearing model a permanent increase in government purchases does not increase the real interest rate because: a. the supply of capital services and demand for capital services increase about the same amount. c. the demand for capital services is downward sloping. b. neither demand for capital services nor supply of capital services shift due to the permanent increase in government purchases. d. the supply of capital services is upward sloping. 27. According to the market clearing model, a one unit permanent increase in government purchases causes: a. GDP to rise about one unit. c. gross investment to fall about one unit. b. consumption to fall about one unit. d. all of the above. 28. According to the market clearing model a one unit permanent increase in government purchases causes: a. no change in GDP. c. no change in gross investment. b. consumption to fall about one unit. d. all of the above. 29. US data since the end of the Korean war shows that permanent changes in government purchases are: a. acyclical as the model predicts. c. acyclical as opposed to the model that predicts they will be procyclical. b. procyclical as the model predicts. d. countercyclical as opposed to the model that predicts they will be acyclical. 30. Since the end of the Korean war, US permanent government spending has: a. increased as GDP has increased. c. had little relationship to fluctuations in real GDP. b. decreased as GDP has increased. d. decreased when GDP decreased. 31. The model predicts that a temporary increase in government purchases causes: a. an increase in consumption. c. a reduction in gross investment. b. a reduction in real GDP. d. all of the above. 32. The model predicts that a temporary increase in government expenditures will lead to: a. a decrease in consumption. c. a decrease in GDP. b. an increase in investment. d. none of the above. 33. People might work more during a war time temporary increase in government purchases because of: a. patriotism. c. increased investment the model predicts. b. the increase in the MPL as the model predicts. d. all of the above. 34. People might work more during a war time temporary increase in government purchases because of: a. a military draft or voluntary enlistment takes away some primary household earners and to maintain consumption as the model predicts, those households may have other members work who did not previously. c. increased investment leading to hire capital stocks that increase the demand for labor as the model predicts. b. the increase in the MPL leading to an increase in the demand for labor and increased capital utilization as the model predicts. d. all of the above. 35. The real wage increase in the data during war time might be overstated as: a. price controls lead to understating the price level. c. because capital utilization falls in war time. b. labor demand is so high in war time. d. all of the above. 36. With a temporary change in government purchases the model predicts investment is: a. acyclical. c. countercylical. b. procyclical. d. exogenous. 37. With a permanent change in government purchases the model predicts consumption is: a. acyclical. c. countercylical. b. procyclical. d. exogenous. 38. The model predicts that a temporary decrease in government purchases causes: a. an increase in consumption. c. an increase in gross investment. b. a reduction in real GDP. d. all of the above. 39. According to the market clearing model, a one unit temporary decrease in government purchases causes: a. no change in GDP. c. no change in the interest rate. b. investment to rise about one unit. d. all of the above. 40. According to the market clearing model, a one unit temporary decrease in government purchases causes: a. a one unit decrease in GDP. c. consumption to rise about one unit. b. gross investment to rise about one unit. d. all of the above. 41. The model predicts that a temporary decrease in government expenditures will lead to: a. an increase in real wages. c. a decrease in GDP. b. a decrease in the real interest rate. d. none of the above. 42. The model predicts that a temporary decrease in government purchases causes: a. an increase in consumption. c. an increase in gross investment. b. a reduction in real GDP. d. all of the above. 43. The model predicts a permanent decrease in government purchases causes: a. an increase consumption. c. an increases real GDP. b. an increases the real interest rate. d. all of the above. 44. The model predicts a permanent decrease in government purchases leads to: a. an increase in capital utilization. c. an increase in the demand for capital services. b. a decrease in the supply of capita services. d. no change in the real rate of interest. 45. According to the model a permanent decrease in government purchases does not increase the real wage according to the market clearing model because: a. labor supply and labor demand decrease about the same amount. c. labor demand is downward sloping. b. labor supply is fixed. d. neither labor demand nor labor supply shift due to the permanent increase in government purchases. 46. According to the model a permanent decrease in government purchases does not decrease the real interest rate according to the market clearing model because: a. the supply of capital services and demand for capital services decrease about the same amount. c. the demand for capital services is downward sloping. b. neither demand for capital services nor supply of capital services shift due to the permanent increase in government purchases. d. the supply of capital services is upward sloping. 47. A temporary decrease in government purchases does not increase the real wage according to the market clearing model because: a. labor supply and labor demand decrease about the same amount. c. labor demand is downward sloping. b. labor supply is fixed. d. neither labor demand nor labor supply shift due to the permanent increase in government purchases. 48. A temporary decrease in government purchases does not decrease the real interest rate according to the market clearing model because: a. the supply of capital services and demand for capital services decrease about the same amount. c. the demand for capital services is downward sloping. b. neither demand for capital services nor supply of capital services shift due to the permanent increase in government purchases. d. the supply of capital services is upward sloping. 49. A temporary increase in government purchases does not increase the real wage according to the market clearing model because: a. labor supply and labor demand increase about the same amount. c. labor demand is downward sloping. b. labor supply is fixed. d. neither labor demand nor labor supply shift due to the permanent increase in government purchases. 50. A temporary increase in government purchases does not increase the real interest rate according to the market clearing model because: a. the supply of capital services and demand for capital services increase about the same amount. c. the demand for capital services is downward sloping. b. neither demand for capital services nor supply of capital services shift due to the permanent increase in government purchases. d. the supply of capital services is upward sloping. 51. Goernment expediture as a ratio to GDP since the 1980s has a. stabilized at about 1/3. c. grown from about 1/3 to 1/2. b. grown from about 1/10 to 1/5. d. declined from about 1/3 to 1/5. 52. Data across more than 50 countries shows that the U.S. ratio of government expediture to GDP is a. much higher than the median ratio. c. slightly below the median ratio. b. one of the two highest ratios. d. one of the two lowest ratios. 53. At the federal level, the largest expansions in transfer payments have been from increases in a. unemployment insurance c. welfare. b. Social Security. d. tax rebates. 54. U.S. data show that the ratio of Social Security, Medicare and state and local Medicaid payments to GDP is a. less than 1%. c. about 50%. b. more than 98%. d. about 10%. 55. When the Barro model assumes lump-sum taxes, this means a. real taxes are independent of a household’s income. c. nominal taxes depend negatively on a household’s consumption. b. nominal taxes depend positively on a household’s income. d. there is no tax on inheritances. 56. Suppose real government purchases equal $800 billion and real government transfers equal $100 billion. If the nominal quantity of money is constant, then real tax revenues must a. equal $700 billion. c. be greater than $8,100 billion. b. equal $900 billion. d. be less than $100 billion. 57. Real disposable income for a household equals a. the real return on capital services. c. real income available after taxes. b. the nominal wage rate. d. the real return on capital services after taxes. 58. If a household’s real taxes increase by one unit, then a. real government transfers to the household decreae by one unit. c. the real return on capital services falls by one unit. b. real government transfers to the househould increase by one unit. d. real disposable income falls by one unit. 59. Adding government to the Barro model affects the household budget constraint by a. adding the present value of real transfers net of real taxes as a source of funds. c. adding the present value of real transfers plus real taxes as a use of funds. b. adding and subtracting the present value of real transfers net of real taxes as a source of funds, for no net effect. d. subtracting the present value of real transfers net of real taxes as a use of funds. 60. A permanent increase in government purchases will a. shift the demand for capital services outward. c. shift the supply of capital services inward. b. not shift the demand or supply of capital services. d. shift the supply of capital services outward. 61. A permanent increase in government purchases will a. shift the demand curve for labor invward. c. not shift the supply or demand curves for labor. b. shift the supply curve for labor outward.. d. shift the demand curve for labor outward. 62. One empirical prediction from the model which includes government purchases is that a. permanent changes in real government purchases increase real GDP. c. permanent changes in nominal government purchases increase nominal GDP. b. permanent changes in real government purchases decrease real GDP. d. permanent changes in real government purchases have little impact on real GDP. 63. One difference between a permanent and temporary increase in government purchases is that with a temporary increase, a. expected real disposable income in future years is unchanged. c. the expected real wage rate in future years is higher. b. expected real disposable income in future years is higher. d. the expected real wage rate in future years is lower. 64. A temporary increase in government purchases, unlike a permanent increase, a. comes mostly at the expense of a loss of transfer payments. c. increases the real wage rate in future years.. b. comes mostly at the expense of a loss in gross investment. d. comes mostly at the expense of a lower real interest rate. 65. The data on temporary increases in government purchases during wartime a. do not support the prediction that gross investment would rise. c. do not support the prediction that GDP would be unchanged. b. do not support the prediction that consumption would rise. d. do support the prediction that GDP would be unchanged. SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the government’s budget constraint without government borrowing and what does it show us? 2. How does government without borrowing affect the household’s budget constraint? 3. What are the effects of a permanent increase in government purchases in the market clearing model? 4. What are the effects of a temporary increase in government purchases? 5. What has been the US experience in war time temporary increase in government purchases and how do they conform with the predictions of the model? Chapter 13 TRUE/FALSE 1. The marginal tax rate is the change in taxes when taxable income change one unit. 2. The term (1 - w) is the faction of labor income the worker gets to keep. 3. An increase in the marginal tax on labor income, increases the supply of labor. 4. An increase in the marginal tax on labor income, decreases the demand for capital services. 5. A decrease in the marginal tax on asset income, reduces investment short run and the capital stock and GDP in the long run. 6. An increase in the marginal tax rate on labor income reduces overall market activity, as gauged by GDP. 7. The largest sources of tax revenue for the U.S. federal government include the individual income tax and social-insurance contributions. 8. The largest source of tax revenue for the U.S. federal government is the corporate-profit tax. 9. U.S. data show that state and local government revenues currently far exceed federal government revenues. 10. A graduated income-tax rate has a marginal tax rate which equals the average tax rate. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The US Federal government gains revenue from: a. individual income taxes. c. excise taxes. b. social insurance taxes. d. all of the above. 2. The US Federal government gains revenue from: a. property taxes. c. UN grants. b. social insurance taxes. d. all of the above. 3. The US Federal government gains revenue from: a. property taxes. c. individual income taxes. b. sales taxes. d. all of the above. 4. The US Federal government gains revenue from: a. revenue from money creation. c. sales taxes. b. social insurance taxes. d. all of the above. 5. The US Federal government gains revenue from: a. property taxes. c. UN grants. b. excise taxes and customs. d. all of the above. 6. The US state and local governments gains revenue from: a. property taxes. c. sales taxes. b. income taxes. d. all of the above. 7. The US state and local governments gains revenue from: a. property taxes. c. sales taxes. b. income taxes. d. all of the above. 8. The US state and local governments gains revenue from: a. property taxes. c. revenue from money creation. b. customs. d. all of the above. 9. The US state and local governments gains revenue from: a. revenue from money creation. c. sales taxes. b. customs. d. all of the above. 10. The US state and local governments gains revenue from: a. customs. c. revenue from money creation. b. federal grants. d. all of the above. 11. The US state and local governments gains revenue from: a. revenue from money creation. c. income taxes. b. customs. d. all of the above. 12. The marginal income tax rate is: a. taxes divided by income. c. income divide by taxes. b. the change in taxes when income changes one dollar. d. the change in income when taxes change one dollar. 13. The average income tax rate is: a. income taxes divided by income. c. income divide by income taxes. b. the change in income taxes when income changes one dollar. d. the change in income when income taxes change one dollar. 14. The average marginal income tax rate is: a. the marginal tax rate of the average household. c. the change in income taxes divided by income. b. the average tax rate of the marginal household. d. all of the above. 15. A graduate-rate tax structure is one: a. whose marginal rate increases as income increases. c. whose average rate equals the marginal rate. b. that has a flat rate. d. whose marginal rate decreases as income increases. 16. A flat-rate tax structure is one: a. whose marginal rate increases as income increases. c. whose average rate equals the marginal rate. b. that has graduated rates. d. whose marginal rate decreases as income increases. 17. One less the marginal tax on wages, (1 - w) is: a. the fraction of wage income paid in taxes. c. the fraction of income the government receives. b. the fraction of wage income the worker gets to keep. d. the average marginal tax rate. 18. The after tax real wage is: a. (w/P)• w c. (w/P)•(1 - w) b. (w/P)•L•(1 - w) d. (w/P)/(1 - w) 19. If government purchases are constant, then an increase in the marginal income tax rate, w, leads to: a. a positive income effect. c. no income effect. b. a negative income effect. d. a marginal income effect. 20. If the marginal tax rate on income, w, changes but government purchases don’t then the government could have: a. lowered some other lower marginal rate wage tax like the social security payroll tax. c. raised some income tax deductions. b. the increased revenue due to the higher marginal tax rate is all used for real transfers. d. all of the above. 21. If the marginal tax rate on income, w, changes but government purchases don’t then the government could have: a. lowered some other lower marginal rate wage tax like the social security payroll tax. c. reduced some income tax deductions. b. reduced real transfers. d. all of the above. 22. If the marginal tax rate on income, w, changes but government purchases don’t then the government could have: a. raised some other lower marginal rate wage tax. c. reduced some income tax deductions. b. used all the increased revenue due to the higher marginal tax rate for real transfers. d. all of the above. 23. If the marginal tax rate on income, w, changes but government purchases don’t then the government could have: a. raised some other lower marginal rate wage tax. c. raised some income tax deductions. b. lowered real transfers. d. all of the above. 24. If the real marginal tax rate, w, increases in the market clearing model then: a. the supply of labor decreases. c. real output, Y, declines. b. the demand for capital decreases. d. all of the above. 25. If the real marginal tax rate, w, increases in the market clearing model then: a. the supply of labor decreases. c. real output, Y, rises. b. the demand for capital increases. d. all of the above. 26. If the real marginal tax rate, w, increases in the market clearing model then: a. the supply of labor increases. c. real output, Y, declines. b. the demand for capital increases. d. all of the above. 27. If the real marginal tax rate, w, increases in the market clearing model then: a. the supply of labor increases. c. real output, Y, rises. b. the demand for capital decreases. d. all of the above. 28. The after tax real interest rate is: a. r/ r c. (1- r)•r b. (1+ r)/(1+r) d. r/r 29. In the short run if the tax rate on asset income, r , rises, then in the market clearing model: a. household current consumption will rise compared to future consumption. c. the after tax real interest rate falls. b. current investment will fall. d. all of the above. 30. In the short run if the tax rate on asset income, r , rises, then in the market clearing model: a. household current consumption will rise compared to future consumption. c. the after tax real interest rate rises. b. current investment will rise. d. all of the above. 31. In the short run if the tax rate on asset income, r , rises, then in the market clearing model: a. household current consumption will fall compared to future consumption. c. the after tax real interest rate rises. b. current investment will fall. d. all of the above. 32. In the short run if the tax rate on asset income, r , rises, then in the market clearing model: a. household current consumption will fall compared to future consumption. c. the after tax real interest rate falls. b. current investment will rise. d. all of the above. 33. In the long run an increase in the marginal tax rate on asset income, r, in the market clearing model: a. increases the stock of capital and real GDP. c. decreases the stock of capital and real GDP. b. increases the stock of capital and decreases real GDP. d. decreases the stock of capital and increases real GDP. 34. In the long run an increase in the marginal tax rate on asset income, r, in the market clearing model: a. decreases GDP. c. lowers consumption. b. decrease the capital stock. d. all of the above. 35. In the long run an increase in the marginal tax rate on asset income, r, in the market clearing model: a. increases GDP. c. raises consumption. b. decrease the capital stock. d. all of the above. 36. In the long run an increase in the marginal tax rate on asset income, r, in the market clearing model: a. decreases GDP. c. raises consumption. b. increase the capital stock. d. all of the above. 37. With an increase in government purchases financed by an increase in the marginal tax rate on labor income, the change in labor supply depends on whether the: a. negative substitution effect is bigger than the positive income effect. c. positive substitution effect is bigger than the negative income effect. b. negative substitution effect is bigger than the negative income effect. d. positive substitution effect is bigger than the positive income effect. 38. An increase in government purchases financed by an increase in the marginal tax rate on labor income, increases the quantity of labor supplied, if the: a. negative substitution effect is bigger than the positive income effect. c. positive substitution effect is bigger than the negative income effect. b. negative substitution effect is smaller than the positive income effect. d. positive substitution effect is smaller than the negative income effect. 39. An increase in government purchases financed by an increase in the marginal tax rate on labor income, decreases the quantity of labor supplied, if the: a. negative substitution effect is bigger than the positive income effect. c. positive substitution effect is bigger than the negative income effect. b. negative substitution effect is smaller than the positive income effect. d. positive substitution effect is smaller than the negative income effect. 40. If there is an decrease in government purchases along with a decrease in the marginal tax rate on labor income, then: a. the income effect would be toward a decrease in labor supply. c. the substitution effect would be towards an increase in labor supply. b. the overall effect on labor supply is uncertain. d. all of the above. 41. If there is an decrease in government purchases along with a decrease in the marginal tax rate on labor income, then: a. the income effect would be toward a decrease in labor supply. c. the substitution effect would be towards an decrease in labor supply. b. the overall effect on labor supply is negative. d. all of the above. 42. If there is an decrease in government purchases along with a decrease in the marginal tax rate on labor income, then: a. the income effect would be toward an increase in labor supply. c. the substitution effect would be towards an increase in labor supply. b. the overall effect on labor supply is positive. d. all of the above. 43. If there is an decrease in government purchases along with a decrease in the marginal tax rate on labor income, then: a. the income effect would be toward an increase in labor supply. c. the substitution effect would be towards a decrease in labor supply. b. the overall effect on labor supply is uncertain. d. all of the above. 44. If the marginal tax on labor income, w, rises then the tax receipts of the government: a. rise. c. stay the say. b. fall. d. may rise, fall or stay the same. 45. If transfer payments are related to characteristics of households like income, then an increase in the marginal tax on labor income, w,: a. will have smaller effects in the market clearing model. c. will have the same effects in the market clearing model. b. will have stronger effects in the market clearing model. d. will have no effects in the market clearing model. 46. A decrease in the marginal tax rate on asset income, r, in the short run in the market clearing model: a. does not change the stock of capital c. does not change the market clearing rental price of capital. b. does not change real GDP. d. all of the above. 47. A decrease in the marginal tax rate on asset income, r, in the short run in the market clearing model: a. does not change the stock of capital c. reduces the market clearing rental price of capital. b. decreases real GDP. d. all of the above. 48. A decrease in the marginal tax rate on asset income, r, in the short run in the market clearing model: a. raises the stock of capital c. does not change the market clearing rental price of capital. b. increases real GDP. d. all of the above. 49. A decrease in the marginal tax rate on asset income, r, in the short run in the market clearing model: a. raises the stock of capital c. reduces the market clearing rental price of capital. b. does not change real GDP. d. all of the above. 50. A decrease in the marginal tax rate on asset income, r, in the short run in the market clearing model: a. raises change the stock of capital c. increases gross investment. b. increases real GDP. d. all of the above. 51. From 1929 to the present, total government revenue grew to be about a. 30% of GDP. c. 10% of GDP. b. 50% of GDP. d. 1% of GDP. 52. Before World War II, state and local government revenue comprised about a. less than one-third of total government revenues. c. 10% of total government revenues. b. more than half of total government revenues. d. 0% of total government revenues. 53. Since World War II, state and local government revenues have been a a. growing share of total government revenues. c. shrinking share of total government revenues. b. stable share of total government revenues. d. miniscule share of total government revenues. 54. Individual income taxes in the U.S. a. began during the Revolution. c. affect only the richest 10% of people. b. are an insignficant source of revenue. d. mostly began in 1913. 55. The major sources of federal government revenue, in descending order of their importance, are a. individual income taxes, social-insurance contributions, and corporate profits taxes. c. payments from the Federal Reserve, corporate profits taxes, and individual income taxes. b. social-insurance contributions, corporate profits taxes, and individual income taxes. d. corporate profits taxes, payments from the Federal Reserve, and individual income taxes. 56. The single largest source of federal government revenue from those listed below is a. taxes on corporate profits. c. excise and customs taxes. b. individual income taxes. d. payments from the Federal Reserve to the U.S. Treasury. 57. The U.S. federal income-tax structure is designed so that a. all citizens pay a flat marginal tax rate. c. the marginal tax rate generally rises with income. b. the average tax rate falls as income rises. d. all citizens pay a flat average tax rate. 58. Data on U.S individual income taxes shows that the income tax a. is not graduated, because higher-income citizens pay a high share of the taxes. c. is flat, because higher-income citizens pay a low share of the taxes. b. is flat, because higher-income citizens pay a high share of the taxes. d. is graduated, because higher-income citizens pay a high share of the taxes. 59. Data on U.S adjusted gross income show that the income tax is progressive because a. high-income citizens pay a high share of taxes relative to the share of income they receive. c. low-income citizens pay a high share of taxes relative to the share of income they receive. b. high-income citizens pay a low share of taxes relative to the share of income they receive. d. all citizens pay a high share of taxes relative to the share of income they receive. 60. Historical data on U.S. marginal taxes rates show, that on average, the marginal tax rate a. fell during the Korean War in the 1950s to an all-time low. c. were at their highest in the pre-World War II era. b. rose after World War II to a high of about 40% in 1981. d. none of the above. 61. The U.S. Social Security contribution or tax on individuals a. is a graduated tax for incomes up to $94,200. c. is a flat tax for incomes up to $94,200. b. is a graduated tax for all incomes, with no upper limit. d. is a progressive tax for all incomes up to $10,000. 62. The U.S. Social Security contribution or tax on individuals has a marginal tax rate which equals the average tax rate. This makes it a. a progressive tax. c. an alternating tax. b. a depreciating tax. d. a flat tax. 63. An increase in the marginal tax rate on labor income will shift the a. labor supply curve leftward. c. labor demand curve rightward. b. labor supply curve rightward. d. labor demand curve leftward. 64. An increase in the marginal tax rate on labor income will shift the a. supply curve for capital services leftward. c. demand curve for capital services leftward. b. supply curve for capital services rightward. d. demand curve for capital services rightward. 65. A decrease in the marginal tax rate on labor income will shift the a. labor supply curve leftward. c. labor demand curve rightward. b. labor supply curve rightward. d. labor demand curve leftward. 66. The Laffer Curve shows that total real tax revenue a. rises continuously as the marginal tax rate rises. c. falls, then rises, as the marginal tax rate rises. b. falls continuously as the marginal tax rate rises. d. rises, then falls, as the marginal tax rate rises. SHORT ANSWER 1. What are the effects of an increase in the marginal tax rate on labor income in the market clearing model? 2. What does (1 - w) tell us and what are the real after tax returns on assets and labor if income from them are taxed? 3. What are the short run effects of an increase in the marginal tax rate on assets income in the market clearing model? 4. What are the long run effects of an increase in the marginal tax rate on asset income in the market clearing model? 5. Under what conditions in the market clearing model will the quantity of labor supplied increase when government purchases are increased and financed by an increase in the marginal tax rate on labor income? 6. What are the major sources of revenue for the U.S. government, and which are most important today? 7. Explain the difference between a graduated-rate tax and a flat-rate tax. ECO 302 Week 9 Quiz Chapter 14 TRUE/FALSE 1. When a country has a deficit, its debt is growing. 2. A pay as you go social security system raises the capital stock. 3. If government budget is in deficit, then real government saving is in surplus. 4. If the government runs a deficit, households will feel wealthier. 5. A budget deficit caused by changing labor income taxes changes the labor and production. 6. The debt-to-GDP ratio typically rises during a recession. 7. The major peaks in the ratio of public debt to GDP in the U.S. reflect expenditures on Social Security. 8. Real national saving equals net investment. 9. Real government saving is positive when the real public debt increases. 10. If government expediture exceeds government revenue, then the government has a budget surplus. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The governments sources of funds include: a. taxes. c. borrowing. b. printing money. d. all of the above. 2. The governments sources of funds include: a. taxes. c. paying interest on past bonds. b. government purchases. d. all of the above. 3. The governments sources of funds include: a. transfer payments. c. paying interest on the government debt. b. printing money. d. all of the above. 4. The governments sources of funds include: a. government purchases. c. borrowing. b. transfer payments. d. all of the above. 5. The governments uses of funds include: a. government purchases. c. paying interest on the past government debt. b. transfer payments. d. all of the above. 6. The governments uses of funds include: a. government purchases. c. printing money. b. borrowing. d. all of the above. 7. The governments uses of funds include: a. printing money. c. taxes. b. transfer payments. d. all of the above. 8. The governments uses of funds include: a. borrowing. c. paying interest on the past government debt. b. printing money. d. all of the above. 9. A balanced government budget is one where: a. government purchases equal taxes. c. the governments real savings is zero. b. government debt is zero. d. all of the above. 10. Total bond holding of all households is Bgt because: a. the quantity of all private bonds held by the public is zero. c. the public views government bonds as less risky than private bonds. b. the quantity of all government bonds held by the public is zero. d. the public views private bonds as less risky than government bonds. 11. Total bond holding of all households is equal to a. the quantity of all private bonds. c. the quantity of all private bonds plus all government bonds. b. the quantity of all government bonds. d. the quantity of all private bonds minus all government bonds. 12. If money and the price level are constant, then the government’s real budget deficit is: a. (Bgt - Bgt-1)/P. c. (Bt + Bgt)/P. b. Bgt/P. d. none of the above. 13. If money and the price level are constant, then the government’s real budget debt is: a. (Bgt - Bgt-1)/P. c. (Bt + Bgt)/P. b. Bgt/P. d. none of the above. 14. If the government reduces taxes by $1 this year without raising taxes or printing more money, then a. future tax liabilities will rise by $1 plus the interest, R, that must be paid on the borrowing. c. future tax liabilities will fall by $1 plus the interest, R, that must be paid on the borrowing. b. future tax liabilities will rise by $1 less the interest, R, that must be paid on the borrowing. d. future tax liabilities will fall by $1 less the interest, R, that must be paid on the borrowing. 15. Ricardian equivalence implies that a government budget deficit: a. increases current consumption. c. reduces national saving. b. increases future tax liabilities. d. all of the above. 16. Ricardian equivalence holds: a. only for year to year changes in the governments budget. c. only with a government deficit not a surplus. b. no matter how long until the bonds are to be paid off. d. only with a government surplus not a deficit. 17. A strategic budget deficit is designed to: a. increase GDP. c. constrain the behavior of future governments. b. increase economic activity. d. all of the above. 18. The standard view of the budget deficit is that it: a. reduces the GDP in the long run. c. reduces the capital stock in the long run. b. reduces investment. d. all of the above. 19. The standard view of the budget deficit is that it: a. reduces the GDP in the long run. c. increases the capital stock in the long run. b. increases investment. d. all of the above. 20. The standard view of the budget deficit is that it: a. increases the GDP in the long run. c. increases the capital stock in the long run. b. reduces investment. d. all of the above. 21. The standard view of the budget deficit is that it: a. increases the GDP in the long run. c. reduces the capital stock in the long run. b. increases investment. d. all of the above. 22. The standard view of the budget deficit is that a deficit: a. does not affect the economy in the long run. c. does not affect the economy in the short run. b. and the public debt are a burden on the economy. d. encourages economic growth. 23. Households may feel wealthier due to a tax cut, if: a. they are very concerned about future generations. c. they are using an infinite planning horizon. b. they expect the bonds created by the deficit to be paid off after their lifetime. d. they plan to leave a bequest to their heirs. 24. Households may feel wealthier due to a tax cut, if: a. they are not able to borrow as much against future earnings as they wish. c. they care a lot about future generations. b. they are not able to lend present earnings as much as they wish. d. they plan to leave a bequest to their heirs. 25. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system: a. reduces current national savings. c. reduces the future capital stock. b. reduces investment. d. all of the above. 26. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system: a. reduces current national savings. c. raises the future capital stock. b. raises investment. d. all of the above. 27. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system: a. raises current national savings. c. raises the future capital stock. b. reduces investment. d. all of the above. 28. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system: a. raises current national savings. c. reduces the future capital stock. b. raises investment. d. all of the above. 29. If households ignore effects on future generations when a pay as you go social security system starts, the then elderly: a. have a positive income effect on their consumption. c. receive low returns on any taxes paid into the system. b. receive benefits that in present value is less the present value of their contributions. d. all of the above. 30. If households ignore effects on future generations, when a pay as you go social security system starts, the then elderly: a. have a negative income effect on their consumption. c. receive low returns on any taxes paid into the system. b. receive benefits that in present value is greater than the present value of their contributions to the system. d. all of the above. 31. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system: a. increases consumption. c. reduces national saving. b. reduces the capital stock in the long run. d. all of the above. 32. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system: a. increases consumption. c. increases national saving. b. increases the capital stock in the long run. d. all of the above. 33. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system: a. decreases consumption. c. raises national saving. b. reduces the capital stock in the long run. d. all of the above. 34. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system: a. decreases consumption. c. reduces national saving. b. increases the capital stock in the long run. d. all of the above. 35. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system: a. reduces investment. c. reduces private saving. b. reduces GDP in the long run. d. all of the above. 36. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system: a. reduces investment. c. increases private saving. b. increases GDP in the long run. d. all of the above. 37. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system: a. raises investment. c. raises private saving. b. reduces GDP in the long run. d. all of the above. 38. If households ignore effects on future generations, a pay as you go social security system: a. raises investment. c. reduces private saving. b. increases GDP in the long run. d. all of the above. 39. A pay as you go social security system only increase consumption and reduces investment, if: a. households leave bequests. c. if the planning horizon is overlapping generations. b. if households neglect the adverse affects on their descendants. d. households increase their savings. 40. If currently alive households take full account of the negative affects of a pay as you go social security system on their descendants, then the: a. effects are magnified. c. effects are exponential. b. effects are nil. d. effects are unchanged. 41. Open market operations amount to: a. printing more money and raising taxes and lowering taxes and raising the public debt. c. printing more money and raising taxes and lowering taxes and raising the public debt. b. printing less money and reducing taxes and raising taxes and reducing the public debt. d. printing more money and reducing taxes and raising taxes and reducing the public debt. 42. By varying its budget deficit, a government can: a. change the timing of taxes. c. avoid accumulation of government debt. b. avoid having to raise taxes to pay for a deficit. d. all of the above. 43. If the time path of government purchases does not change and the government cuts lump sum taxes, then: a. real GDP does not change. c. real gross investment does not change. b. real consumption does not change. d. all of the above. 44. If the time path of government purchases does not change and the government cuts lump sum taxes, then: a. real GDP does not change. c. real gross investment falls. b. real consumption increases. d. all of the above. 45. If the time path of government purchases does not change and the government cuts lump sum taxes, then: a. real GDP does rise. c. real gross investment rises. b. real consumption does not change. d. all of the above. 46. If the time path of government purchases does not change and the government cuts lump sum taxes, then: a. real GDP falls. c. real gross investment does not change. b. real consumption falls. d. all of the above. 47. If the time path of government purchases does not change and the government cuts lump sum taxes, then: a. the interest rate does not change. c. the future capital stock does not change. b. the real wage rate does not change. d. all of the above. 48. If the time path of government purchases does not change and the government cuts lump sum taxes, then: a. the interest rate rises. c. the future capital stock does not change. b. the real wage rate falls. d. all of the above. 49. If the time path of government purchases does not change and the government cuts lump sum taxes, then: a. the interest rate does not change. c. the future capital stock falls. b. the real wage rate rises. d. all of the above. 50. If the time path of government purchases does not change and the government cuts current labor income taxes, then: a. labor supply is shifted to the future. c. present GDP is reduced. b. labor supply is shifted to the present. d. future GDP is increased. 51. If the time path of government purchases does not change and the government cuts current assets income taxes, then: a. households save more and consume less in the present. c. households save less and consume more in the present. b. households save and consume less in the present. d. households save and consume more in the present. 52. The major peaks in the ratio of public debt to GDP in the U.S. reflect a. financing of wartime expenditures. c. major economic expansions. b. financing of Social Security. d. major increases in technology. 53. In a business cycle recession, the debt-to-GDP ratio typically a. falls. c. does not change. b. rises. d. either (a) or (c). 54. In a business cycle recession, the debt-to-GDP ratio typically a. falls because of an increase in debt. c. rises because of an increase in debt. b. falls because of an increase in GDP. d. rises because of an increase in GDP. 55. In a business cycle recession, the debt-to-GDP ratio typically a. falls because of an increase in debt. c. rises because of a decrease in debt. b. falls because of an increase in GDP. d. rises because of a decrease in GDP. 56. In a business cycle expansion, the debt-to-GDP ratio typically a. falls because of an increase in GDP. c. rises because of an increase in debt. b. falls because of a decrease in GDP. d. rises because of a decrease in debt. 57. Assuming that the nominal quantity of money is constant and there is no inflation, if the real public debt decreases, the government budget shows a. an increase in the real deficit. c. a decrease in private bonds. b. an increase in real saving. d. a decrease in printing money. 58. Assuming that the nominal quantity of money is constant and there is no inflation, if the real public debt increases, the government’s a. rate of money printing is greater than 50%. c. real saving is less than zero b. real saving equals zero. d. rate of money printing is greater than zero. 59. A government budget surplus a. is the same as the government’s real saving. c. means that government saving is positive. b. means that government revenue exceeds its expenditure. d. all of the above. 60. Real national saving equals a. the change in the capital stock. c. both (a) and (b). b. net investment. d. net depreciation. 61. Real national saving is a. the difference between government and household saving. c. both (a) and (b). b. the sum of government and household saving. d. net depreciation. 62. An open-market operation in which the Federal Reserve purchases bonds will a. increase the money supply and increase the price level. c. decrease the money supply and decrease real GDP. b. decrease the money supply and increase the price level. d. decrease the money supply and increase real GDP. 63. An open-market operation in which the Federal Reserve sells bonds will a. increase the money supply and increase the price level. c. decrease the money supply and decrease the price level. b. decrease the money supply and increase real GDP. d. decrease the money supply and increase the price level. 64. An open-market operation in which the Federal Reserve purchases bonds will a. decrease the money supply and increase real GDP. c. decrease the money supply and decrease real GDP. b. increase the money supply but not change real GDP. d. increase the money supply and increase real GDP. 65. An open-market operation in which the Federal Reserve sells bonds will a. decrease the money supply and increase real GDP. c. decrease the money supply and decrease real GDP. b. increase the money supply and increase real GDP. d. increase the money supply but not change real GDP. SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the government budget constraint when government borrowing is allowed? 2. What are public, private and national saving and what is the implication of real national saving? 3. What are the effects of the government lowering taxes by $1 for one period in the market clearing model with no transfer payments, the money stock fixed, no inflation and with a given time path of government purchases? 4. What is the Ricardian equivalence theorem? 5. Why might a budget deficit make households feel wealthier after a tax cut? 6. In the equillibrium business cycle model, what is the impact of an open market operation purchase by the Federal Reserve? Chapter 15 TRUE/FALSE 1. If households misperceive prices, they may change real decisions in response to changes in the money supply in the long run. 2. If the actual price level is above the expected price level, then workers’ actual real wage will be below their expected real wage. 3. The real effect of a given monetary shock is larger the more stable the underlying monetary environment. 4. Money can only effect real variables in the short run, if people expect the increase in the money supply. 5. If monetary authorities follow a monetary rule, then monetary policy is more effective in affecting real variables like real GDP. 6. In the price-misperceptions model, market prices adjust to clear markets only very slowly. 7. In the price-misperceptions model, an increase in the price level increases the equilibrium labor input and capital services in the short- and long-run. 8. Discretionary monetary policy is more likely than a policy rule to promote a reputation for the central bank of promoting low inflation. 9. A formal provision in the law to target inflation requires secrecy about the central bank’s activities. 10. Discretionary monetary policy suffers from an incentive for the central bank to sometimes renege on its commitment to low inflation. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. We would expect households to have the most complete information about: a. their own wage rate. c. products purchased occasionally like a automobile. b. the wage rate available on other jobs. d. all of the above. 2. We would expect households to have the most complete information about: a. the wage rate available on other jobs. c. products purchased occasionally like a automobile. b. products they purchase frequently. d. all of the above. 3. We would expect households to have incomplete information about: a. their own wage rate. c. products purchased occasionally like a automobile. b. products they purchase frequently. d. all of the above. 4. We would expect households to have incomplete information about: a. their own wage rate. c. wage rates available on other jobs. b. products they purchase frequently. d. all of the above. 5. The workers’ perceived real wage rate is: a. their nominal wage rate divided by the actual price level. c. their nominal wage rate divided by the expected price level. b. the actual price level divided by their nominal wage rate. d. the expected price level divided by their nominal wage rate. 6. If the nominal wage is $10 per hour and the expected price level is 2 and the actual price level is 4, then: a. the expected real wage rate is greater than the actual real wage rate. c. the expected real wage rate is greater than the actual nominal wage rate. b. the expected real wage rate is less than the actual real wage rate. d. the actual real wage rate is greater than the actual nominal wage rate. 7. If the nominal wage is $10 per hour and the expected price level is 2 and the actual price level is 4, then expected real wage rate is: a. $10. c. $2.50. b. $5. d. none of the above. 8. If the nominal wage is $10 per hour and the expected price level is 2 and the actual price level is 4, then actual real wage rate is: a. $10. c. $2.50. b. $5. d. none of the above. 9. If the nominal wage is $10 per hour and the expected price level is 2 and the actual price level is 4, then actual nominal wage rate is: a. $10. c. $2.50. b. $5. d. none of the above. 10. If the nominal wage is $10 per hour and the expected price level is 5 and the actual price level is 4, then: a. the expected real wage rate is greater than the actual real wage rate. c. the expected real wage rate is greater than the actual nominal wage rate. b. the expected real wage rate is less than the actual real wage rate. d. the actual real wage rate is greater than the actual nominal wage rate. 11. If the nominal wage is $10 per hour and the expected price level is 2 and the actual price level is 4, then actual real wage rate is: a. $10. c. $2. b. $2.50. d. none of the above. 12. If the nominal wage is $10 per hour and the expected price level is 5 and the actual price level is 4, then expected real wage rate is: a. $10. c. $2. b. $2.50. d. none of the above. 13. If the nominal wage is $10 per hour and the expected price level is 5 and the actual price level is 4, then actual nominal wage rate is: a. $10. c. $2. b. $2.50. d. none of the above. 14. If the nominal wage rises from $10 per hour in period one to $15 per hour in period 2 as the expected price level rises from 1 to 3 while the actual price level rises from 4 to 5, then from period 1 to period 2: a. the nominal wage is rising. c. the actual real wage is falling. b. the expected real wage is rising. d. all of the above. 15. If the nominal wage rises from $10 per hour in period 1 to $15 per hour in period 2 as the expected price level rises from 1 to 3 while the actual price level rises from 4 to 5, then from period 1 to period 2: a. the nominal wage is falling. c. the actual real wage is falling. b. the expected real wage is falling. d. all of the above. 16. If the nominal wage rises from $10 per hour in period one to $15 per hour in period 2 as the expected price level rises from 1 to 3 while the actual price level rises from 4 to 5, then from period 1 to period 2: a. the nominal wage is rising. c. the actual real wage is rising. b. the expected real wage is falling. d. all of the above. 17. If the nominal wage rises from $10 per hour in period one to $15 per hour in period 2 as the expected price level rises from 1 to 3 while the actual price level rises from 4 to 5, then from period 1 to period 2: a. the nominal wage is falling. c. the actual real wage is rising. b. the expected real wage is rising. d. all of the above. 18. In the current period a perceived increase in the real wage, will cause households to: a. work more. c. consume less leisure. b. consume more goods. d. all of the above. 19. In the current period a perceived increase in the real wage, will cause households to: a. work more. c. consume more leisure. b. consume fewer goods. d. all of the above. 20. In the current period a perceived increase in the real wage, will cause households to: a. work less. c. consume more leisure. b. consume more goods. d. all of the above. 21. In the current period a perceived increase in the real wage, will cause households to: a. work less. c. consume less leisure. b. consume fewer goods. d. all of the above. 22. If the perceive real wage goes up, workers will supply more labor: a. unless the actual real wage remains the same or falls. c. in the short run. b. in the long run. d. all of the above. 23. If the perceive real wage goes up, real GDP increases: a. unless the actual real wage remains the same or falls. c. in the short run. b. in the long run. d. all of the above. 24. While price misperceptions can cause an increase labor supply and GDP in the short-run, in the long run: a. money is neutral. c. labor supply returns to its initial position. b. money does not affect real GDP. d. all of the above. 25. While price misperceptions can cause an increase in labor supply and GDP in the short-run, in the long run: a. money is no longer neutral in the model. c. labor supply returns to its initial position. b. money negatively impacts real GDP. d. all of the above. 26. While price misperceptions can cause an increase in labor supply and GDP in the short-run, in the long run: a. money is neutral. c. labor supply ultimately declines. b. money negatively affects real GDP. d. all of the above. 27. While price misperceptions can cause an increase in labor supply and GDP in the short-run, in the long run: a. money is no longer neutral in the model. c. labor supply falls by more than its initial increase. b. money does not affect real GDP. d. all of the above. 28. An increase in the money supply: a. can affect real variables temporarily in the short run. c. can affect nominal variables in the long run. b. can not affect real variables in the long run. d. all of the above. 29. An increase in the money supply: a. can affect real variables temporarily in the short run. c. can affect real variables in the long run. b. can not affect nominal variables in the short run. d. all of the above. 30. An increase in the money supply: a. can not affect real variables temporarily in the short run. c. can not affect nominal variables in the long run. b. can not affect real variables in the long run. d. all of the above. 31. An increase in the money supply: a. can not affect real variables temporarily in the short run. c. can affect nominal variables in the long run. b. can affect real variables in the long run. d. all of the above. 32. An increase in the money supply and inflation can only affect real variables only: a. if households perceive it is happening. c. in the long run. b. if households do not perceive all of the inflation. d. if households expect it. 33. In the short run if households’ perceived money growth and inflation equals the actual money growth and inflation, then a. money affects real variables like labor supply. c. the model is still neutral even in the short run. b. money affects real variables like GDP. d. all of the above. 34. Monetary policy authorities can only affect the real economy, if: a. their actions are anticipated by the public. c. their actions are fully communicated to the public. b. their actions are consistent and predictable. d. their actions systematically fool the public. 35. A monetary shock of a given size has a larger real effect: a. the more it is anticipated by the public. c. the more fully it is explained and communicated to the public. b. the more stable the underlying monetary environment. d. all of the above. 36. Price misperception during a positive technology shock would cause: a. output or GDP to rise by less than it would without price misperception. c. the expected price level to fall less than the actual price level falls. b. labor supply to rise by less than it would without price misperception. d. all of the above. 37. Price misperception during a positive technology shock would cause: a. output or GDP to rise by less than it would without price misperception. c. the expected price level to fall more than the actual price level falls. b. labor supply to fall by more than it would without price misperception. d. all of the above. 38. Price misperception during a positive technology shock would cause: a. output or GDP to fall by more than it would without price misperception. c. the expected price level to fall more than the actual price level falls. b. labor supply to rise by less than it would without price misperception. d. all of the above. 39. Price misperception during a positive technology shock would cause: a. output or GDP to fall by more than it would without price misperception. c. the expected price level to fall less than the actual price level falls. b. labor supply to fall by more than it would without price misperception. d. all of the above. 40. Discretionary monetary policy is when the monetary authority: a. does not commit to future monetary actions. c. never produces a monetary surprise to households. b. commits to future monetary actions. d. always behaves in a predictable way. 41. A monetary policy rule is when the monetary authority: a. does not commit to future monetary actions. c. often produces a monetary surprise to households. b. commits to future monetary actions. d. always behaves in unpredictable ways. 42. The price misperception model predicts: a. the price level will be procyclical while in US data the price level is countercyclical. c. the real wage is countercyclical while in US data the real wage is procyclical. b. the nominal quantity of money is procyclical and in US data money is weakly procyclical. d. all of the above. 43. The price misperception model predicts: a. the price level will be procyclical while in US data the price level is countercyclical. c. the real wage is procyclical and in US data the real wage is procyclical. b. the nominal quantity of money is countercyclical while in US data money is weakly procyclical. d. all of the above. 44. The price misperception model predicts: a. the price level will be countercyclical while in US data the price level is countercyclical. c. the real wage is procyclical and in US data the real wage is procyclical. b. the nominal quantity of money is procyclical and in US data money is weakly procyclical. d. all of the above. 45. The price misperception model predicts: a. the price level will be countercyclical and in US data the price level is countercyclical. c. the real wage is countercyclical while in US data the real wage is procyclical. b. the nominal quantity of money is countercyclical while in US data money is weakly procyclical. d. all of the above. 46. Real variables can only be affected by: a. unperceived changes in the price level. c. expected changes in the price level. b. perceived changes in the price level. d. actual changes in the price level. 47. Monetary policy can affect real variables in the short run if monetary policy: a. surprises households. c. is unpredictable. b. is random. d. all of the above. 48. Monetary policy can affect real variables in the short run if monetary policy: a. surprises households. c. is predictable. b. is consistent. d. all of the above. 49. Monetary policy can affect real variables in the short run if monetary policy: a. is fully explained to households. c. is predictable. b. is random. d. all of the above. 50. Monetary policy can affect real variables in the short run if monetary policy: a. is fully communicated to households. c. is unpredictable. b. is consistent. d. all of the above. 51. In the price-misperceptions model, market prices of goods, wage rates, and rental prices a. adjust rapidly to clear markets. c. give households complete information. b. adjust slowly to clear markets. d. give households perfect information. 52. The price-misperceptions model differs from the equilibrium business cycle model in that households a. no longer serve as providers of capital services. c. find that market-clearing prices move to equilbrium slowly. b. sometimes misinterpret changes in nominal prices as changes in real prices. d. typically face disequilibrium because prices fail to clear markets. 53. Empirical evidence suggests that money is not always neutral, which is consistent with a. an equilibrium business-cycle model. c. a price-misperceptions model. b. a real business-cycle model. d. a wage-imperfections model. 54. In the price-misperceptions model, employers have a. inaccurate information about wages and accurate information about the price of the output. c. accurate information about wages and the price of the output. b. inaccurate information about wages and the price of the output. d. accurate information about wages and inaccurate information about the price of the output. 55. In the price-misperceptions model, workers have a. inaccurate information about wages and accurate information about the price level. c. accurate information about wages and the price level. b. accurate information about wages and inaccurate information about the price level. d. inaccurate information about wages and the price level. 56. In the price-misperceptions model, a rise in the real wage rate makes the demand curve for labor, in the short run, to a. become steeper than in an equilibrium business-cycle model. c. depend about expectations about prices, not the actual price used in an equilibrium business-cycle model. b. become less steep than in an equilibrium business-cycle model. d. remain the same as in an equilibrium business-cycle model. 57. In the price-misperceptions model, a rise in the nominal wage rate makes the supply curve of labor, in the short run, a. shift to the right compared to an equilibrium business-cycle model. c. shift to the left compared to an equilibrium business-cycle model. b. become less steep than in an equilibrium business-cycle model. d. remain the same as in an equilibrium business-cycle model. 58. In the price-misperceptions model, an increase in the price level in the short run, a. lowers the quantity of labor supplied at a given real wage. c. leaves the quantity of labor supplied unchanged. b. lowers the quantity of labor supplied at a given nominal wage. d. increases the quantity of labor supplied at a given real wage. 59. In the price-misperceptions model, an increase in the price level will, in the long run, a. lower the quantity of labor supplied at a given real wage. c. leave the quantity of labor supplied unchanged. b. lower the quantity of labor supplied at a given nominal wage. d. increase the quantity of labor supplied at a given real wage. 60. In the price-misperceptions model, an increase in the price level will, in the short run, a. increase the equilibrium quantity of labor input and real GDP. c. leave the equilibrium quantity of labor input and real GDP unchanged. b. lower the equilbirum quantity of labor input and increase real GDP. d. lower the equilibrium quantity of labor input and real GDP. 61. In the price-misperceptions model, an increase in the price level in the short-run a. decreases the equilibrium quantity of labor input and capital services. c. leaves the equilibrium quantity of labor input and capital services unchanged. b. increases the equilibrium quantity of labor input and capital services. d. increases the equilibrium quantity of labor input and decreases the equilibrium quantity of capital services. 62. In the price-misperceptions model, an increase in the price level in the long-run a. decreases the equilibrium quantity of labor input and capital services. c. increases the equilibrium quantity of labor input and decreases the equilibrium quantity of capital services. b. increases the equilibrium quantity of labor input and capital services. d. leaves the equilibrium quantity of labor input and capital services unchanged. 63. The Lucas hypothesis on monetary shocks says that the real effect of a given size monetary shock is a. larger, the more stable the underlying monetary environment. c. larger, the less stable the underlying monetary environment. b. smaller, the more stable the underlying monetary environment. d. independent of the stability of the underlying moentary environment. 64. Empirical evidence shows that, for countries such as the U.S., a monetary shock has a. little or no relation to real GDP. c. little or no relation to nominal GDP. b. a significant positive relation to real GDP. d. a signficant negative relation to real GDP. 65. In the price-misperception model, money is a. endogenous, just as it is in the equilibrium business-cycle model. c. exogenous, but it is endogenous in the equilibrium business-cycle model. b. exogenous, just as it is in the equilibrium business-cycle model. d. endogenous, but it is exogenous in the equilibrium business-cycle model. 66. Friedman and Schwartz’s Monetary History concludes that the procyclical pattern for money a. does not exist in historical data for the U.S. from 1867 to 1960. c. cannot be explained entirely by endogenous money. b. can only be explained during the times the U.S. used a commodity money. d. can be explained entirely by exogenous money. 67. One reason for preferring a rule for monetary policy is that a rule a. allows for additional discretionary policy. c. ensures that the economy would have a negative rate of inflation. b. ensures that the economy would have a positive rate of inflation. d. improves the credibility of the monetary authority. 68. Which of the following is likely to promote low and stable inflation? a. inflation targeting c. a large benefit from temporarily reneging on a stated policy b. discretionary monetary policy d. none of the above SHORT ANSWER 1. On what types of prices do households have the best information and on what types of products may they have incomplete information? 2. What are the short run effects of a real wage misperception in the market clearing model? 3. Why even with the possibility of real wage misperceptions is the market clearing model still neutral in the long run? 4. Under what conditions do monetary policy changes have the larger real effects on an economy? 5. What is the difference between discretionary monetary policy and monetary policy under a policy rule? 6. Why might a monetary-policy rule be more likely than discretionary policy to promote low inflation? ECO 302 Week 10 Quiz Chapter 16 TRUE/FALSE 1. A model with sticky prices and nominal wages is a disequilibrium model. 2. Menu costs are the posted prices of a firm. 3. In the short run in a model with sticky prices, a monetary surprise affects labor demand and real output. 4. In the long run in a model with sticky prices, a monetary surprise affects labor demand and real output. 5. A new Keynesian model produces a countercyclical pattern of the average product of labor while in the data the average product of labor is weakly procyclical. 6. In the new Keynesian model, an increase in household consumption will increase output by more than the original increase in consumption. 7. In the new Keynesian model, a monetary expansion will decrease output in the short run. 8. In a model with imperfect competition, a firm will set its price equal to its nominal marginal cost. 9. In the Keynesian model with sticky nominal wages, the nominal wage rate is fixed above its market-clearing value. 10. In the Keynesian model with sticky nominal wages, a monetary expansion does not affect the real wage rate. 11. The Federal Funds rate is determined in the market for bonds issued by the U.S. Treasury. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Menu costs are: a. the posted prices of a firm. c. are set by the government. b. the costs of changing prices. d. are the long run costs of the firm. 2. Sticky prices are: a. real prices that do not rapidly respond to changed circumstances. c. nominal prices that do not rapidly respond to changed circumstances. b. prices set by government. d. prices that can never be changed. 3. In the model of price setting, the demand for the firms product is: a. positively related to real income in the economy. c. negatively related to the real wage the firm pays. b. positively related to the firms price relative to the price level. d. all of the above. 4. In the model of price setting, the demand for the firms product is: a. negatively related to real income in the economy. c. negatively related to the real wage the firm pays. b. negatively to the firms price relative to the price level. d. all of the above. 5. A firm’s markup ratio is: a. its price relative to the price level. c. it price relative to its marginal costs. b. the price level relative to its marginal costs. d. its marginal cost relative to the price level. 6. In the model of price setting, the demand for the firm’s price is: a. positively related to the markup ratio. c. negatively related to the firm’s marginal product of labor. b. positively related to the nominal wage the firm pays. d. all of the above. 7. In the model of price setting, the demand for the firm’s price is: a. positively related to the markup ratio. c. positively related to the firm’s marginal product of labor. b. negatively related to the nominal wage the firm pays. d. all of the above. 8. In the model of price setting, the demand for the firm’s price is: a. negatively related to the markup ratio. c. positively related to the firm’s marginal product of labor. b. positively related to the nominal wage the firm pays. d. all of the above. 9. In the model of price setting, the demand for the firm’s price is: a. negatively related to the markup ratio. c. negatively related to the firm’s marginal product of labor. b. negatively related to the nominal wage the firm pays. d. all of the above. 10. In the model with sticky prices, in the short run a positive monetary shock leads to: a. an increase in household real money balances. c. no change in household’s desired real money balances. b. an increase in household’s demand for goods. d. all of the above. 11. In the model with sticky prices, in the short run a positive monetary shock leads to: a. an increase in household real money balances. c. an increase in house hold’s desired real money balances. b. a decrease in household’s demand for goods. d. all of the above. 12. In the model with sticky prices, in the short run a positive monetary shock leads to: a. a decrease in household real money balances. c. a decrease in household’s desired real money balances. b. an increase in household’s demand for goods. d. all of the above. 13. In the model with sticky prices, in the short run a positive monetary shock leads to: a. a decrease in household real money balances. c. no change in household’s desired real money balances. b. a decrease in household’s demand for goods. d. all of the above. 14. In a model with sticky prices, a positive monetary shock would cause households: a. to spend more to try to get rid of the excess money. c. to change optimal real money balances. b. to want to hold more money. d. all of the above. 15. In the model with sticky prices, in the short run a positive monetary shock leads to: a. an increased supply of labor. c. a higher marginal product of labor. b. an increased demand for labor. d. all of the above. 16. In the short run with a model with sticky prices a positive monetary surprise: a. increases labor demand. c. increases the real wage. b. increases real output. d. all of the above. 17. In the short run with a model with sticky prices a positive monetary surprise: a. increases labor demand. c. leaves the real wage unchanged. b. decreases real output. d. all of the above. 18. In the short run with a model with sticky prices a positive monetary surprise: a. decreases labor demand. c. leaves the real wage unchanged. b. increases real output. d. all of the above. 19. In the short run with a model with sticky prices a positive monetary surprise: a. decreases labor demand. c. increases the real wage. b. decreases real output. d. all of the above. 20. In the short run with a model with sticky prices a negative monetary surprise: a. decreases labor demand. c. decreases the real wage. b. decreases real output. d. all of the above. 21. In the short run with a model with sticky prices a negative monetary surprise: a. decreases labor demand. c. increases the real wage. b. increases real output. d. all of the above. 22. In the short run with a model with sticky prices a negative monetary surprise: a. increases labor demand. c. increases the real wage. b. decreases real output. d. all of the above. 23. In the short run with a model with sticky prices a negative monetary surprise: a. increases labor demand. c. decreases the real wage. b. increases real output. d. all of the above. 24. In the short run in a model with sticky prices: a. the labor input is procyclical. c. the real wage rate in procyclical. b. the average product of labor is countercyclical. d. all of the above. 25. In the short run in a model with sticky prices: a. the labor input is procyclical. c. the real wage rate in countercyclical. b. the average product of labor is procyclical. d. all of the above. 26. In the short run in a model with sticky prices: a. the labor input is countercyclical. c. the real wage rate in countercyclical. b. the average product of labor is countercyclical. d. all of the above. 27. In the short run in a model with sticky prices: a. the labor input is countercyclical. c. the real wage rate in procyclical. b. the average product of labor is procyclical. d. all of the above. 28. In the long run in a model with sticky prices: a. prices will adjust. c. increase in prices reverse the short run effects. b. money is neutral. d. all of the above. 29. In the long run in a model with sticky prices: a. prices will adjust. c. the short run effects persist. b. money still affects output. d. all of the above. 30. In the long run in a model with sticky prices: a. prices remain sticky. c. the short run effects persist. b. money is neutral. d. all of the above. 31. In the long run in a model with sticky prices: a. prices remain sticky. c. increase in prices reverse the short run effects. b. money affects production. d. all of the above. 32. In a new Keynesian model: a. money is procyclical and money is weakly procyclical in the data. c. the average product of labor is countercyclical while the average product of labor is weakly procyclical in the data. b. the price level is countercyclical and the price level is countercyclical in the data. d. all of the above. 33. In a new Keynesian model: a. money is procyclical and money is weakly procyclical in the data. c. the average product of labor is procyclical while the average product of labor is countercyclical in the data. b. the price level is procyclical and the price level is procyclical in the data. d. all of the above. 34. In a new Keynesian model: a. money is countercyclical and money is weakly countercyclical in the data. c. the average product of labor is procyclical while the average product of labor is countercyclical in the data. b. the price level is countercyclical and the price level is countercyclical in the data. d. all of the above. 35. In new Keynesian model: a. money is countercyclical and money is weakly countercyclical in the data. c. the average product of labor is countercyclical while the average product of labor is weakly procyclical in the data. b. the price level is procyclical and the price level is procyclical in the data. d. all of the above. 36. In a new Keynesian model an increase in aggregate demand causes: a. an increase in real production greater than the increase in aggregate demand. c. an increase in real production less than the increase in aggregate demand. b. an increase in real production equal to increase in aggregate demand. d. a decrease in real production. 37. In a new Keynesian model a temporary increase in output could be cause by: a. a positive monetary surprise. c. a positive shock to government purchases. b. households becoming exogenously more thrifty. d. all of the above. 38. In a new Keynesian model a temporary increase in output could be cause by: a. a positive monetary surprise. c. a negative shock to government purchases. b. households becoming exogenously less thrifty. d. all of the above. 39. In a new Keynesian model a temporary increase in output could be cause by: a. a negative monetary surprise. c. a negative shock to government purchases. b. households becoming exogenously more thrifty. d. all of the above. 40. In a new Keynesian model a temporary increase in output could be cause by: a. a negative monetary surprise. c. a positive shock to government purchases. b. households becoming exogenously less thrifty. d. all of the above. 41. In the short run in a new Keynesian model an increase in money means: a. the price level must rise. c. the interest rate must rise. b. real GDP must rise. d. all of the above. 42. In the short run in a new Keynesian model an increase in money means: a. the price level must rise. c. the interest rate must fall. b. real GDP must fall. d. all of the above. 43. Unlike the price misperception model the new Keynesian models finds that: a. the price level is countercyclical as the data show. c. the price level is procyclical as the data show. b. the price level is countercyclical while the data show it is procyclical. d. the price level is procyclical as the data show it is countercyclical. 44. In a model with sticky nominal wages an increase in the money supply will: a. lower the real wage. c. increase the labor input. b. increase real output. d. all of the above. 45. In a model with sticky nominal wages an increase in the money supply will: a. lower the real wage. c. decrease the labor input. b. decrease real output. d. all of the above. 46. In a model with sticky nominal wages an increase in the money supply will: a. raise the real wage. c. decrease the labor input. b. increase real output. d. all of the above. 47. In a model with sticky nominal wages an increase in the money supply will: a. raise the real wage. c. increase the labor input. b. decrease real output. d. all of the above. 48. A result of a model with sticky nominal wages is: a. voluntary unemployment in the short run. c. money being countercyclical while in the data money is weakly procyclical. b. a countercyclical real wage while in the data the real wage is procyclical. d. all of the above. 49. A result of a model with sticky nominal wages is: a. involuntary unemployment in the short run. c. money being countercyclical while in the data money is weakly procyclical. b. a procyclical real wage as in the data. d. all of the above. 50. A reason that nominal wages might be sticky is: a. the government sets all wages. c. people having incomplete information about wages at other jobs. b. contracts between workers and employers. d. all of the above. 51. The sticky-price model differs from the equilibrium business-cycle model in assuming that a. nominal goods prices do not react to market changes quickly. c. real goods prices do not react to market changes quickly. b. nominal goods prices react to market changes quickly. d. real goods prices react to market changes quickly. 52. The sticky-price model differs from the equilibrium business-cycle model in assuming that a. the typical producer takes as given the price of his or her output. c. most goods are standardized and easily traded in organized markets. b. the typical producer actively sets the price of his or her output. d. most goods are traded in perfectly-competitive markets. 53. The sticky-price model differs from the equilibrium business-cycle model in assuming that each producer a. takes into account restaurant costs. c. takes into account menu costs. b. assumes costs of price changes equal zero. d. assumes restaurant costs are greater than one. 54. A firm’s nominal marginal cost of production is a. the ratio of the marginal product of labor to nominal wages. c. nominal wages minus the marginal product of labor. b. nominal wages plus the marginal product of labor. d. the ratio of nominal wages to the marginal product of labor. 55. A firm’s nominal marginal cost of production is a. the nominal cost of producing an additional unit of the good. c. equal to the marginal product of labor. b. the real cost of producing an additional unit of the good. d. the same thing as a firm’s markup ratio. 56. Under imperfect competiton, each firm a. has a nominal marginal cost equal to its output price. c. will set its price below its nominal marginal cost. b. can set its price above its nominal marginal cost. d. none of the above. 57. If we observe in the market for automobiles that the auto price is above a firm’s nominal marginal cost, then a. the firm is not maximizing profits. c. the market has imperfect competiton. b. the firm is not accounting for restaurant costs. d. the firm takes as given its output price. 58. In the short-run in a sticky-price model, an increase in money shifts the a. supply curve for labor rightward. c. demand curve for labor leftward. b. supply curve for labor leftward. d. demand curve for labor rightward. 59. In the short-run in a sticky-price model, a decrease in money shifts the a. demand curve for labor leftward. c. supply curve for labor rightward. b. supply curve for labor leftward. d. demand curve for labor rightward. 60. In the short-run in a sticky-price model, where the product’s price is fixed by assumption, an increase in demand for a firm’s product will lead to a. a decrease in production. c. no change in production. b. an increase in production. d. a decrease in firm profits. 61. Labor hoarding means that a. workers are motivated to remain out of the labor market during a recession. c. employers are motivated to retain workers even during a recession. b. workers are motivated to work additional hours during an expansion. d. workers are motivated to work fewer hours during an expansion. 62. Labor hoarding may occur because a. firms face costs in hiring and firing workers. c. firms want to have labor available for the next economic upturn. b. workers face costs in the decision to enter the labor force. d. both (a) and (c). 63. The new Keynesian model may exhibit a multiplier effect, which implies that a. the rise in output may be greater than the initial expansion in aggregate demand. c. the rise in labor supply may be greater than the initial expansion in aggreagate demand. b. the rise in output will be lower than the initial expansion in aggregate demand. d. the rise in labor supply will be lower than the initial expansion in aggreagate demand. 64. In the new Keynesian model, an increase in household consumption will a. increase saving. c. increase output by less than the increase in consumption. b. increase output by more than the increase in consumption. d. not affect output. 65. The Federal Funds rate is a. the 10-year nominal interest rate in the Federal Funds market. c. the overnight nominal interest rate in the Federal Funds market. b. the 10-year real interest rate in the Federal Funds market. d. the overnight nominal interest rate in the Eurodollar market. 66. The Federal Funds rate applies a. mostly to 30-year home mortgages. c. to the Eurodollar market. b. mostly to the IMF (International Monetary Fund). d. to the inter-bank market. 67. A shortcoming of a constant-growth-rate rule for money is that a. the Fed must have advance knowledge about future quantities of real money demanded. c. households may not understand how the Fed funds rate affects them. b. the Fed must have an accurate measure of currency. d. it does not allow the nominal interest rate to respond to variations in the real quantity of money demanded. SHORT ANSWER 1. What are sticky prices and when might prices be sticky? 2. In a model of price setting what determines firm j’s price? 3. What are the effects of a positive monetary surprise in the short run a model with sticky prices? 4. What are the long run effects of a monetary surprise in a model with sticky prices? 5. What are the effects of a monetary surprise in a model with sticky nominal wages? 6. When would a constant-growth rate rule for money work well, and when would it be difficult to use? 7. In the Keynesian model with sticky nominal wages, what is the short-run impact from a monetary expansion? ECO 302 Week 11 Quiz Chapter 17 TRUE/FALSE 1. With an international sector real GNP is consumption plus gross investment plus government purchases plus net real asset income from abroad. 2. The balance of trade is net exports or imports less exports. 3. A higher current account deficit is caused by a declining domestic economy. 4. The real current account balance is real national saving less net domestic investment. 5. Tariffs and quotas lead to a higher real GDP growth rate in the country imposing them. 6. The law of one price says that there must be a unique price for a good in each location where it is sold. 7. If the home country has a real GNP which is greater than real domestic expenditure, then the home country has a current-account deficit. 8. Foreign direct investment occurs when the home country acquires additional ownership of capital located in the rest of the world. 9. If the home country has negative trade balance, then its real GDP is less than real domestic expenditure. 10. The equilibrium business-cycle model predicts that the real current-account balance will be countercyclical. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The law of one price: a. prohibits price discrimination. c. is a tax on imports. b. is that markets work to ensure that the same good has the same price in all locations. d. prohibits price increases unless firms can show their are unusual circumstances. 2. The difference between real GDP in a closed economy and real GNP in a open economy is: a. net real asset income from abroad. c. net international investment position. b. net imports. d. the trade balance. 3. Real GNP in an open economy is: a. the closed economy real output less net real asset income from abroad. c. the closed economy real output less gross real asset income from abroad. b. the closed economy real output plus gross real asset income from abroad. d. the closed economy real output plus net real asset income from abroad. 4. Net real asset income from abroad is: a. rt-1•Bft-1/P. c. (Bft - Bft-1)/P. b. Yt - (Ct +It +Gt ). d. ((Bft - Bft-1)/P) - (rt-1•Bft-1/P). 5. Net real foreign investment is: a. rt-1•Bft-1/P. c. (Bft - Bft-1)/P. b. Yt - (Ct +It +Gt ). d. ((Bft - Bft-1)/P) - (rt-1•Bft-1/P). 6. The trade balance is: a. rt-1•Bft-1/P. c. (Bft - Bft-1)/P. b. Yt - (Ct +It +Gt ). d. ((Bft - Bft-1)/P) - (rt-1•Bft-1/P). 7. The balance on the current account: a. rt-1•Bft-1/P. c. (rt-1•Bft-1/P) + ((Bft - Bft-1)/P). b. Yt + (rt-1•Bft-1/P) - (Ct +It +Gt ). d. ((Bft - Bft-1)/P) - (rt-1•Bft-1/P). 8. The balance on the current account is: a. real GNP less net foreign investment income. c. real GNP less the net international investment position. b. real GNP less net foreign investment. d. real GNP less real domestic expenditure. 9. The real current-account balance is: a. net real asset income from abroad less trade balance c. trade balance times the net real asset income from abroad. b. trade balance plus the net real asset income from abroad. d. trade balance less the net real income from abroad. 10. The real current account balance equals: a. net foreign investments. c. the trade balance plus net real asset income from abroad. b. real GNP less real domestic expenditure. d. all of the above. 11. The real current account balance equals: a. net foreign investments. c. the trade balance. b. the net international investment position. d. all of the above. 12. The real current account balance equals: a. the trade balance. c. the net international investment position. b. real GNP less real domestic expenditure. d. all of the above. 13. The real current account balance equals a. the net international investment position. c. the trade balance plus net real asset income from abroad. b. the trade balance. d. all of the above. 14. The trade balance is: a. the difference between exports and imports. c. the real current-account balance less net real asset income from abroad. b. real GDP less real domestic expenditure. d. all of the above. 15. The trade balance is: a. the difference between exports and imports. c. net foreign investment. b. real asset income from abroad. d. all of the above. 16. The trade balance is: a. the balance on the current account. c. net foreign investment. b. real GDP less real domestic expenditure. d. all of the above. 17. The trade balance is: a. net foreign investment. c. the real current-account balance less net real asset income from abroad. b. the net international investment position. d. all of the above. 18. In the market clearing model with world markets for goods and credit, an increase in technology, A, in the home country causes: a. an increase in the MPK. c. an increase in borrowing from foreigners. b. an increase in home country gross domestic investment. d. all of the above. 19. In the market clearing model with world markets for goods and credit, an increase in technology, A, in the home country causes: a. an increase in the MPK. c. an increase in lending to foreigners. b. an decrease in home country gross domestic investment. d. all of the above. 20. In the market clearing model with world markets for goods and credit, an increase in technology, A, in the home country causes: a. an decrease in the MPK. c. an increase in lending to foreigners. b. an increase in home country gross domestic investment. d. all of the above. 21. In the market clearing model with world markets for goods and credit, an increase in technology, A, in the home country causes: a. a decrease in the MPK. c. an increase in borrowing from foreigners. b. a decrease in gross domestic investment. d. all of the above. 22. In the market clearing model with world markets for goods and credit, an increase in technology, A, in the home country causes: a. a larger current account deficit. c. a lower MPK. b. a smaller current account deficit. d. lower domestic gross investment. 23. In the market clearing model with world markets for goods and credit, a decrease in technology, A, in the home country causes: a. a larger current account deficit. c. a higher MPK. b. a smaller current account deficit. d. higher domestic gross investment. 24. The open economy equilibrium business-cycle model predicts that the real current account balance will be: a. acyclical. c. countercyclical. b. procyclical. d. exogenous. 25. The open economy equilibrium business-cycle model predicts that the real current account balance will be: a. the same in expansions and recession. c. high in expansions and low in recessions. b. low in expansions and high in recessions. d. invariant with the business cycle. 26. In US data the real current account balance is: a. procyclical when the model predicts it will be countercyclical. c. countercyclical when the model predicts it will be procyclical. b. procyclical as the model predicts. d. countercyclical as the model predicts. 27. In US data the real current account balance is: a. procyclical. c. countercyclical. b. weakly procyclical. d. weakly countercyclical. 28. While according to the model the current account balance will be countercyclical, the balance can also decline due to: a. a temporary negative shock like a harvest failure. c. a temporary increase in government purchases as in war time. b. a less developed country having a low capital stock. d. all of the above. 29. While according to the model the current account balance will be countercyclical, the balance can also decline due to: a. a temporary negative shock like a harvest failure. c. a permanent decrease in government purchases. b. a less developed country having poor institutions for growth. d. all of the above. 30. While according to the model the current account balance will be countercyclical, the balance can also decline due to: a. a temporary positive shock like a good harvest. c. a permanent decrease in government purchases. b. a less developed country having a low capital stock. d. all of the above. 31. While according to the model the current account balance will be countercyclical, the balance can also decline due to: a. a temporary positive shock like a positive harvest c. a temporary increase in government purchases as in war time. b. a less developed country having a high capital stock. d. all of the above. 32. In the Ricardian case, if the government budget deficit is increased, then the trade balance: a. moves toward a deficit too. c. is unaffected. b. moves toward a surplus. d. is exogenous. 33. The terms of trade are: a. ($ per home good)/($ per foreign good). c. foreign good per home good. b. the number of units of foreign goods that can be imported for each unit of home goods exported. d. all of the above. 34. The terms of trade are: a. ($ per home good)/($ per foreign good). c. home good per foreign good. b. the number of units of home goods that can be exported for each unit of foreign goods imported. d. all of the above. 35. The terms of trade are: a. ($ per foreign good)/($ per home good). c. home good per foreign good. b. the number of units of foreign goods that can be imported for each unit of home goods exported. d. all of the above. 36. The terms of trade are: a. ($ per home foreign/($ per home good). c. foreign good per home good. b. the number of units of home goods that can be exported for each unit of foreign goods imported. d. all of the above. 37. An increase in the terms of trade: a. raises real GDP. c. increases real national saving if the change in terms of trade is less than fully permanent. b. increases consumption. d. all of the above. 38. An increase in the terms of trade: a. raises real GDP. c. lowers real national saving. b. decreases consumption. d. all of the above. 39. An increase in the terms of trade: a. reduces real GDP. c. lowers real national saving. b. increases consumption. d. all of the above. 40. An increase in the terms of trade: a. reduces real GDP. c. increases real national saving if the change in terms of trade is less than fully permanent. b. decreases consumption. d. all of the above. 41. A decrease in the terms of trade: a. reduces real GDP. c. decreases real national saving if the change in terms of trade is less than fully permanent. b. decreases consumption. d. all of the above. 42. A decrease in the terms of trade: a. reduces real GDP. c. increases real national saving if the change in terms of trade is less than fully permanent. b. increases consumption. d. all of the above. 43. If the government reduces tariffs or quotas on imports, then: a. real GDP will increase. c. net domestic investment will rise. b. the real current account balance falls. d. all of the above. 44. If the government reduces tariffs or quotas on imports, then: a. real GDP will increase. c. net domestic investment will fall. b. the real current account balance rises. d. all of the above. 45. If the government reduces tariffs or quotas on imports, then: a. real GDP will decrease. c. net domestic investment will fall. b. the real current account balance falls. d. all of the above. 46. If the government reduces tariffs or quotas on imports, then: a. real GDP will decrease. c. net domestic investment will rise. b. the real current account balance rises. d. all of the above. 47. If the government imposes or increases tariffs or quotas on imports, then: a. real GDP will decrease. c. net domestic investment will fall. b. the real current account balance rises. d. all of the above. 48. If the government imposes or increases tariffs or quotas on imports, then: a. real GDP will decrease. c. net domestic investment will rise. b. the real current account balance falls. d. all of the above. 49. If the government imposes or increases tariffs or quotas on imports, then: a. real GDP will increase. c. net domestic investment will rise. b. the real current account balance rises. d. all of the above. 50. If the government reduces tariffs or quotas on imports, then: a. real GDP will increase. c. net domestic investment will fall. b. the real current account balance falls. d. all of the above. 51. If we observe that the price of a good is higher in one location than in another location, this observation a. violates the law of one price. c. violates the law of one GDP. b. validates the law of one price. d. validates the law of one GDP. 52. Foreign direct investment is a. the home country’s additional supply of labor to the rest of the world. c. the home country’s additional demand for labor from the rest of the world. b. the home country’s additional ownership of capital in the rest of the world. d. the foreign country’s additional demand for labor in the home country. 53. When the home country acquires additional ownership of capital located in the rest of the world, it has is a. reduced foreign indirect investment. c. acquired foreign direct investment. b. acquired foreign divested investment. d. reduced foreign direct intervention. 54. Real gross national product in an open economy includes a. real GDP. c. net real labor costs from abroad. b. net real asset income from abroad. d. (a) and (b). 55. If the home country has a real GNP which is greater than real domestic expenditure, then the home country has a. a current-account suplus. c. balance on the current account. b. a current-account deficit. d. none of the above. 56. If the home country has a real GNP which is less than real domestic expenditure, then the home country has a. a current-account suplus. c. balance on the current account. b. a current-account deficit. d. none of the above. 57. If the home country has a real GNP which is equal to real domestic expenditure, then the home country has a. a current-account suplus. c. balance on the current account. b. a current-account deficit. d. none of the above. 58. If the home country has a real GNP which is greater than net foreign investment, then the home country has a. a current-account suplus. c. balance on the current account. b. a current-account deficit. d. none of the above. 59. If the home country has a real GDP which is greater than real domestic expenditure, then the home country has a. a trade balance that is positive. c. a trade balance that is zero. b. a trade balance that is negative. d. none of the above. 60. If the home country has a real GDP which is less than real domestic expenditure, then the home country has a. a trade balance that is positive. c. a trade balance that is zero. b. a trade balance that is negative. d. none of the above. 61. Historical data on the U.S. current account balance show a. a deficit from the turn of the twentieth century through the mid-1970s. c. a surplus for the twentieth century through the mid-1970s. b. a surplus in most of the past two decades. d. a zero current account balance for most of the twentieth century. 62. Historical data on the U.S. current account balance show that one of the largest ratios for the current-account balance relative to GDP occurred a. as a surplus, in the early 1970s. c. as a surplus, in the early 2000s. b. as a deficit, in the early 1990s. d. as a deficit, in the early 2000s. 63. Historical data on the ratio of U.S. nominal exports and imports to GDP show a. a generally rising ratio since 1950. c. a generally positive but steady ratio since 1950. b. a generally falling ratio since 1950. d. a ratio hovering around zero since 1950. 64. Historical data on the ratio of U.S. net international investment to GDP show a. a steady increase in the ratio since 1980. c. a steady ratio since 1980. b. a steady decline in the ratio since 1980. d. no discernable pattern in the ratio since 1980. 65. Historical data on the ratio of U.S. net factor income from abroad to GDP show a. a steady increase in the ratio since 1980. c. a peak in the ratio around 1980, followed by a decline through 1987. b. a steady decline in the ratio since 1960. d. no discernable pattern in the ratio since 1980. 66. A developing country with good prospects means that the country’s current-account balance would likely be a. negative. c. zero. b. positive. d. impossible to determine. SHORT ANSWER 1. What is the real current account balance? 2. What are the effects of a permanent increase in technology in the open market clearing model? 3. What does the open market clearing model predict about the association of the real current account balance and real GDP growth and what do the data on the US show? 4. Does a government budget deficit lead to a real current-account deficit? 5. What are the effects of reducing tariffs and quotas in the open market clearing model? Chapter 18 TRUE/FALSE 1. If the dollar per yen exchange rate rises, then so does the value of the dollar. 2. When absolute purchasing power parity holds, the real exchange rate is 1. 3. Relative purchasing power parity says that the country with the higher inflation rate will see its currency depreciate. 4. The interest rate differential between two countries is the real interest rate. 5. If a country fixes its exchange rate, it gives up control of its money supply. 6. The nominal exchange rate is measured by quantities of currencies exchanged, while the real exchange rate is measured by quantities of goods exchanged. 7. Fixed exchange rates are determined by market forces. 8. Flexible exchange rates are determined by market forces. 9. Poorer countries tend to have high real exchange rates because the prices for nontradable goods is low in these countries. 10. The combination of interest rate parity and relative purchasing power parity implies that expected real incomes are the same in the home country and the foreign country. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nominal exchange rate is: a. foreign good per home good. c. the number of units of foreign currency per one unit of the home currency. b. the number of units of foreign currency per one unit of home currency divided by the ratio of the foreign price level to the home price level. d. all of the above. 2. The real exchange rate is: a. foreign good per home good. c. the number of units of foreign currency per one unit of the home currency. b. nominal exchange rate divided by the ratio of the foreign price level to the home price level. d. all of the above. 3. Flexible exchange rates are determined by: a. the market. c. the UN. b. the home country government. d. the International Monetary Fund. 4. Fixed exchange rates are determined by: a. the market. c. the UN. b. the governments of the two countries. d. the International Monetary Fund. 5. Purchasing power parity is the idea that: a. the nominal exchange equals the ratio of the foreign price to the home price. c. the nominal exchange equals the home price less the foreign price. b. the nominal exchange rate equals the foreign price time the home price. d. the nominal exchange equals the home price less the foreign price. 6. Purchasing power parity may not hold due to: a. inflation. c. market clearing. b. nontraded goods such as services. d. all of the above. 7. Purchasing power parity may not hold due to: a. inflation. c. shifts in the terms of trade. b. market clearing. d. all of the above. 8. Absolutely purchasing power parity means: a. the quantity of goods that can be bought in the home country equals the quantity of good that can be bought in the foreign country. c. the nominal exchange rate is the ratio of the foreign price to the home price. b. buying and selling goods looks equally attractive in both countries. d. all of the above. 9. Absolute purchasing power parity means: a. the quantity of goods that can be bought in the home country equals the quantity of good that can be bought in the foreign country. c. the nominal exchange rate is the ratio of the home price to the world price. b. buying and selling goods looks more attractive in the home country. d. all of the above. 10. Absolute purchasing power parity means: a. the quantity of goods that can be bought in the home country is greater than the quantity of goods that can be bought in the foreign country. c. the nominal exchange rate is the ratio of the foreign price to the world price. b. buying and selling goods looks equally attractive in both countries. d. all of the above. 11. Absolutely purchasing power parity means: a. the quantity of goods that can be bought in the home country is greater than the quantity of goods that can be bought in the foreign country. c. the nominal exchange rate is the ratio of the foreign price to the home price. b. buying and selling goods looks more attractive in the home country. d. all of the above. 12. Non-traded goods include: a. personal services like haircuts. c. consumer goods like shirts. b. durable goods like tv sets. d. all of the above. 13. Non-traded goods include: a. commodities like wheat. c. consumer goods like shirts. b. real estate. d. all of the above. 14. Relative purchasing power parity says that: a. the growth rate of the nominal exchange rate is the foreign inflation rate less the home inflation rate. c. the growth rate of the nominal exchange rate is the home inflation rate plus the foreign inflation rate. b. the growth rate of the nominal exchange rate is the foreign inflation rate times the home inflation rate. d. the growth rate of the nominal exchange rate is the foreign inflation rate divided by the home inflation rate. 15. Relative purchasing power parity implies a country will see its currency fall in value, if a. its inflation rate is lower than the foreign inflation rate. c. its inflation rate is higher than the foreign inflation rate. b. its price level is higher than the foreign price level. d. its price level is lower than the foreign price level. 16. Relative purchasing power parity implies a country will see its currency rise in value, if a. its inflation rate is lower than the foreign inflation rate. c. its inflation rate is higher than the foreign inflation rate. b. its price level is higher than the foreign price level. d. its price level is lower than the foreign price level. 17. Relative purchasing power parity implies a country will see its currency keep the same value, if a. its inflation rate is lower than the foreign inflation rate. c. its inflation rate is equal to the foreign inflation rate. b. its price level is higher than the foreign price level. d. its price level is equal to the foreign price level. 18. If the home inflation rate is 5% and the foreign inflation rate is 9%, then by relative purchasing power parity the home country would expect is exchange rate to: a. rise in value by 5%. c. rise value by 4%. b. fall in value by 5%. d. fall in value by 4%. 19. If the home inflation rate is 9% and the foreign inflation rate is 5%, then by relative purchasing power parity the home country would expect is exchange rate to: a. rise in value by 5%. c. rise value by 4%. b. fall in value by 5%. d. fall in value by 4%. 20. If the home inflation rate is 5% and the foreign inflation rate is 5%, then by relative purchasing power parity the home country would expect is exchange rate to: a. rise in value by 5%. c. have no change in its value. b. fall in value by 5%. d. fall in value by 10%. 21. Interest rate parity says that: a. the interest rate differential is the growth rate of the nominal exchange rate. c. the interest rate differential is the growth rate of the real exchange rate. b. the interest rate differential is ratio of the foreign price level to the home price level. d. the interest rate differential is ratio of the home price level to the foreign price level. 22. If the home interest rate is 5% and the foreign interest rate is 7%, then the expected growth of the nominal exchange rate is: a. 2%. c. -2%. b. 5%. d. -12%. 23. If the home interest rate is 5% and the foreign interest rate is 7%, then the difference in the expected inflation rates is: a. 2%. c. -2%. b. 5%. d. -12%. 24. If the home interest rate is 7% and the foreign interest rate is 5%, then the expected growth of the nominal exchange rate is: a. 2%. c. -2%. b. 7%. d. -12%. 25. If the home interest rate is 7% and the foreign interest rate is 5%, then the difference in the expected inflation rates is: a. 2%. c. -2%. b. 7%. d. -12%. 26. If absolute purchasing power parity holds, under fixed exchange rates: a. the home interest rate equals the foreign interest rate. c. the growth rate of the nominal exchange rate is zero. b. the home inflation rate equals the foreign inflation rate. d. all of the above. 27. If absolute purchasing power parity holds, under fixed exchange rates: a. the home interest rate equals the foreign interest rate. c. the growth rate of the nominal exchange rate is positive. b. the home inflation is lower than the foreign inflation rate. d. all of the above. 28. If absolute purchasing power parity holds, under fixed exchange rates: a. the home interest rate is higher than the foreign interest rate. c. the growth rate of the nominal exchange rate is negative. b. the home inflation rate equals the foreign inflation rate. d. all of the above. 29. If absolute purchasing power parity holds, under fixed exchange rates: a. the home interest rate is higher than the foreign interest rate. c. the growth rate of the nominal exchange rate is zero. b. the home inflation rate is lower than the foreign inflation rate. d. all of the above. 30. If a country with a fixed exchange rate tries to raise its money stock it will: a. see its central bank gain domestic government bonds. c. see its money stock fall back to its initial level. b. see its central bank lose international reserves. d. all of the above. 31. If a country with a fixed exchange rate tries to raise its money stock it will: a. see its central bank gain domestic government bonds. c. see its money stock continue to rise. b. see its central bank gain international reserves. d. all of the above. 32. If a country with a fixed exchange rate tries to raise its money stock: a. see its central bank lose domestic government bonds. c. see its money stock continue to rise. b. see its central bank lose international reserves. d. all of the above. 33. If a country with a fixed exchange rate tries to raise its money stock: a. see its central bank lose domestic government bonds. c. see its money stock fall back to its initial level. b. see its central bank gain international reserves. d. all of the above. 34. A revaluation is when a country: a. allows its currency’s value to float. c. lowers the fixed value of its currency. b. raises the fixed value of its currency. d. allows its currency value to be set by the market. 35. A devaluation is when a country: a. allows its currency’s value to float. c. lowers the fixed value of its currency. b. raises the fixed value of its currency. d. allows its currency value to be set by the market. 36. A depreciation is when the value of a country’s currency: a. is fixed by the government. c. falls in value in the exchange market. b. rises in value in the exchange market. d. is fixed in relationship to gold. 37. An appreciation is when the value of a country’s currency: a. is fixed by the government. c. falls in value in the exchange market. b. rises in value in the exchange market. d. is fixed in relationship to gold. 38. Under a fixed exchange rate regime, losses of international reserves imply that: a. the pressure on a country that needs to devalue it currency is greater. c. countries are not under much pressure to change the value of their currency. b. the pressure on a country that needs to revalue its currency is greater. d. countries can not change the value of their currencies. 39. Fixed exchange rates: a. facilitate transactions between countries compared to floating exchange rates. c. constrain monetary policy officials. b. make monetary policy interdependent between the countries fixing their exchange rate. d. all of the above. 40. Fixed exchange rates: a. facilitate transactions between countries compared to floating exchange rates. c. give domestic monetary policy officials more autonomy. b. make monetary policy independent between the countries fixing their exchange rate. d. all of the above. 41. Fixed exchange rates: a. make transactions between countries riskier compared to floating exchange rates. c. give domestic monetary policy officials more autonomy. b. make monetary policy interdependent between the countries fixing their exchange rate. d. all of the above. 42. Fixed exchange rates: a. make transactions between countries riskier compared to floating exchange rates. c. constrain monetary policy officials. b. make monetary policy independent between the countries fixing their exchange rate. d. all of the above. 43. Floating exchange rates: a. make transactions between countries more difficult. c. provide autonomy for monetary policy authorities. b. make monetary policy independent. d. all of the above. 44. Floating exchange rates: a. make transactions between countries more difficult. c. constrain monetary policy officials. b. make monetary policy interdependent between the countries. d. all of the above. 45. Floating exchange rates: a. make transactions between countries easier. c. constrain monetary policy officials. b. make monetary policy independent. d. all of the above. 46. Floating exchange rates: a. make transactions between countries easier. c. provide autonomy for monetary policy authorities. b. make monetary policy interdependent between the countries. d. all of the above. 47. Under fixed exchange rates a country’s: a. money supply is fixed. c. monetary policy makers are not independent. b. inflation rate is fixed. d. all of the above. 48. Under fixed exchange rates a country’s: a. money supply is fixed. c. monetary policy makers are independent. b. inflation rate will rise. d. all of the above. 49. Under fixed exchange rates a country’s: a. money supply is domestically controlled. c. monetary policy makers are independent. b. inflation rate is fixed. d. all of the above. 50. Under fixed exchange rates a country’s: a. money supply is domestically controlled. c. monetary policy makers are not independent. b. inflation rate will rise. d. all of the above. 51. Suppose the exchange rate between the U.S. dollar and the Argentinian peso is 3 pesos per dollar today. It rises to 3.1 pesos per dollar the next day. This means the dollar has a. appreciated and the peso has depreciated. c. appreciated, and the peso has appreciated. b. depreciated and the peso has appreciated. d. depreciated, and the peso has depreciated. 52. In 1950, one U.S. dollar bought 361 Japanese yen, and in 2006, one U.S. dollar bought 117 yen. The U.S. dollar a. gained over half of its value in terms of yen. c. appreciated relative to the yen. b. lost over half of its value in terms of yen. d. appreciated relative to most of the world’s currencies. 53. If a country’s government intervenes often in the exchange rate market, then the country a. is operating closer to a flexible exchange-rate model than a fixed exchange-rate model. c. is operating closer to a fixed exchange-rate model than a flexible exchange-rate model. b. will experience repeated appreciations of its currency. d. is not a member of the International Monetary Fund (IMF). 54. At a simplified level, purchasing power parity makes sense because, if it did not, housefholds would a. want to purchase all of their goods in one place, the more expensive country. c. not want to purchase any goods from either country. b. want to purchase equal portions of their goods in each country. d. want to purchase all of their goods in one place, the cheaper country. 55. The real exchange rate is measured in units of a. goods bought in the foreign country relative to goods bought in the home country. c. labor supply in the foreign country relative to labor supply in the home country. b. prices in the foreign country relative to prices in the home country. d. none of the above. 56. If you can buy one pound of flour for $1.25 in the U.S. and one pound of flour for 0.75 £ (pounds) in the U.K., then purchasing power parity implies the a. real exchange rate is 1.25 £ per $. c. nominal exchange rate is 1.67 £ per $. b. nominal exchange rate is 0.6 £ per $. d. real exchange rate is 0.6 £ per $. 57. Purchasing power parity implies the a. nominal exchange rate equals one. c. real exchange rate equals one. b. nominal exchange is greater than one. d. real exchange rate is less than one. 58. The Balassa-Samuelson hypothesis identifies a pattern of poor countries having a. low nominal exchange rates. c. low real exchange rates. b. high nominal exchange rates. d. high real exchange rates. 59. The pattern of real exchange rates across countries that is identified by the Balassa-Samuelson hypothesis occurs because a. low-income countries tend to have low prices for nontradable goods. c. low-income countries tend to have low prices for tradable goods. b. low-income countries tend to have high prices for nontradable goods. d. low-income countries tend to have low real exchange rates. 60. The combination of interest-rate parity and relative purchasing power parity leads to the conclusion that the a. foreign expected real interest rate is greater than the home expected real interest rate. c. foreign expected nominal interest rate equals the home expected real interest rate. b. foreign expected real interest rate equals the home expected real interest rate. d. foreign expected nominal interest rate equals the home expected nominal interest rate. 61. The Bretton Woods System refers to a. the flexible exchange-rate system that the International Monetary Fund (IMF) prefers. c. the fixed exchange-rate regime which linked other currencies to the dollar and the dollar to gold. b. the flexible exchange-rate regime introduced just after World War II that gave France the major role in stabilizing currencies. d. the fixed exchange-rate regime which linked the U.S. and other currencies to silver. 62. Under the Bretton Woods System, the U.S. dollar a. was allowed to vary around a wide band compared to other participating countries. c. was not fixed, but the U.S. nominal interest rate was fixed relative to other participating countries. b. varied according to market conditions, but the other participating countries did not allow their currencies to vary. d. was the only participating currency linked directly to gold. 63. If the country of Colombia decides to fix its nominal exchange rate with the U.S. dollar, then in the long run, it will have a. roughly the same inflation rate as the U.S. c. roughly the same real GDP as the U.S. b. a higher inflation rate than the inflation rate for the U.S. d. a higher real GDP than the real GDP in the U.S. 64. One reason that a country with a record of high inflation might want to fix its nominal exchange rate with the U.S. dollar is that a. the country will, in the long run, have about the same inflation rate as the U.S. c. the fixed exchange-rate will act as a monetary-policy rule which prevents the country from reneging on a pledge of low inflation. b. the fixed exchange-rate will help the country gain credibility in fighting high inflation. d. all of the above. 65. In exchange rate policy, sterilization refers to a. the market’s ability to clear excess quantities of currency supplied rapidly. c. anti-crime laws the U.S. passed to prevent “money laundering.” b. the central bank’s attempt to offset an initial intervention in the exchange market. d. the process the International Monetary Fund (IMF) uses to lend to a country in need. 66. In a fixed exchange-rate regime, the money supply is a. exogenous. c. endogenous. b. interdependent. d. highly skewed. SHORT ANSWER 1. What is a nominal exchange rate? 2. What is absolute purchasing power parity, what does it imply and why might it not hold? 3. What is relative purchasing power parity and when does it say the home country will see its currency lose value? 4. What is interest-rate parity and what does this imply about when the exchange rate will be stable? 5. What are the advantages of fixed and floating exchange rates? ECO 305 Complete Test Bank – Strayer A+ Graded Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material http://budapp.net/ECO-305-Exam-and-Quizzes-Strayer-413.htm

ECO 305 Week 2 Quiz

CHAPTER 1—THE INTERNATIONAL ECONOMY AND GLOBALIZATION

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A primary reason why nations conduct international trade is because:
a. Some nations prefer to produce one thing while others produce other things
b. Resources are not equally distributed among all trading nations
c. Trade enhances opportunities to accumulate profits
d. Interest rates are not identical in all trading nations

2. A main advantage of specialization results from:
a. Economies of large-scale production
b. The specializing country behaving as a monopoly
c. Smaller production runs resulting in lower unit costs
d. High wages paid to foreign workers

3. International trade in goods and services is sometimes used as a substitute for all of the following except:
a. International movements of capital
b. International movements of labor
c. Domestic production of the same goods and services
d. Domestic production of different goods and services

4. If a nation has an open economy, it means that the nation:
a. Allows private ownership of capital
b. Has flexible exchange rates
c. Has fixed exchange rates
d. Conducts trade with other countries

5. International trade forces domestic firms to become more competitive in terms of:
a. The introduction of new products
b. Product design and quality
c. Product price
d. All of the above

6. The movement to free international trade is most likely to generate short-term unemployment in which industries?
a. Industries in which there are neither imports nor exports
b. Import-competing industries
c. Industries that sell to domestic and foreign buyers
d. Industries that sell to only foreign buyers

7. International trade is based on the idea that:
a. Exports should exceed imports
b. Imports should exceed exports
c. Resources are more mobile internationally than are goods
d. Resources are less mobile internationally than are goods

8. Arguments for free trade are sometimes disregarded by politicians because:
a. Maximizing domestic efficiency is not considered important
b. Maximizing consumer welfare may not be a chief priority
c. There exist sound economic reasons for keeping one’s economy isolated from other economies
d. Economists tend to favor highly protected domestic markets

9. How much physical output a worker producers in an hour’s work depends on:
a. The worker’s motivation and skill
b. The technology, plant, and equipment in use
c. How easy the product is to manufacture
d. All of the above

10. The largest amount of trade with the United States in recent years has been conducted by:
a. Canada
b. Germany
c. Chile
d. United Kingdom

11. Increased foreign competition tends to:
a. Intensify inflationary pressures at home
b. Induce falling output per worker-hour for domestic workers
c. Place constraints on the wages of domestic workers
d. Increase profits of domestic import-competing industries

12. ____ is the ability of a firm/industry, under free and fair market conditions, to design, produce, and market goods and services that are better and/or cheaper than those of other firms/industries.
a. Competitiveness
b. Protectionism
c. Comparative advantage
d. Absolute advantage

13. A firm’s ____, relative to that of other firms, is generally regarded as the most important determinant of competitiveness.
a. Income level
b. Tastes and preferences
c. Governmental regulation
d. Productivity

14. Free traders maintain that an open economy is advantageous in that it provides all of the following except:
a. Increased competition for world producers
b. A wider selection of products for consumers
c. The utilization of the most efficient production methods
d. Relatively high wage levels for all domestic workers

15. Recent pressures for protectionism in the United States have been motivated by all of the following except:
a. U.S. firms shipping component production overseas
b. High profit levels for American corporations
c. Sluggish rates of productivity growth in the United States
d. High unemployment rates among American workers

16. International trade tends to cause welfare losses to at least some groups in a country:
a. The less mobile the country’s resources
b. The more mobile the country’s resources
c. The lower the country’s initial living standard
d. The higher the country’s initial living standard

17. For a nation to maximize its productivity in a global economy:
a. Only imports are necessary
b. Only exports are necessary
c. Both imports and exports are necessary
d. Neither imports nor exports are necessary

18. A feasible effect of international trade is that:
a. A monopoly in the home market becomes an oligopoly in the world market
b. An oligopoly in the home market becomes a monopoly in the world market
c. A purely competitive firm becomes an oligopolist
d. A purely competitive firm becomes a monopolist

19. International trade in goods and services tends to:
a. Increase all domestic costs and prices
b. Keep all domestic costs and prices at the same level
c. Lessen the amount of competition facing home manufacturers
d. Increase the amount of competition facing home manufacturers

20. The real income of domestic producers and consumers can be increased by:
a. Technological progress, but not international trade
b. International trade, but not technological progress
c. Technological progress and international trade
d. Neither technological progress nor international trade

21. In the United States, automobiles are
a. Imported, but not exported
b. Exported, but not imported
c. Imported and exported
d. Neither exported nor imported

22. Technological improvements are similar to international trade since they both:
a. Provide benefits for all producers and consumers
b. Increase the nation’s aggregate income
c. Reduce unemployment for all domestic workers
d. Ensure that industries can operate at less than full capacity

23. A sudden shift from import tariffs to free trade may induce short-term unemployment in:
a. Import-competing industries
b. Industries that are only exporters
c. Industries that sell domestically as well as export
d. Industries that neither import nor export

24. Recent empirical studies indicate that productivity performance in industries is:
a. Directly related to globalization of industries
b. Inversely related to globalization of industries
c. Not related to globalization of industries
d. Any of the above

25. Empirical research indicates that ____ best enhances productivity gains for firms and industries.
a. Local competition
b. Regional competition
c. Global competition
d. No competition

26. Increased globalization is fostered by:
a. Increased tariffs and quotas
b. Restrictions on the migration of labor
c. Reduced transportation costs
d. Restrictions on investment flows

27. A reduced share of the world export market for the United States would be attributed to:
a. Decreased productivity in U.S. manufacturing
b. High incomes of American households
c. Relatively low interest rates in the United States
d. High levels of investment by American corporations

28. The dominant trading nation in the world market following World War II was:
a. United Kingdom
b. Germany
c. South Korea
d. United States

29. A closed economy is one in which:
a. Imports exactly equal exports, so that trade is balanced
b. Domestic firms invest in industries overseas
c. The home economy is isolated from foreign trade
d. Saving exactly equals investment at full employment

30. Relative to countries with low ratios of exports to gross domestic product, countries having high export to gross domestic product ratios are ____ vulnerable to changes in the world market.
a. Less
b. More
c. Equally
d. Any of the above

31. Which of the following is a fallacy of international trade?
a. Trade is a zero-sum activity
b. Exports increase employment in exporting industries
c. Import restrictions increase employment in import-competing industries
d. Tariffs and quotas reduce trade volume

32. Foreign ownership of U.S. financial assets
a. Has decreased since the 1960’s
b. Has increased since the 1960’s
c. Has made the U.S. a net borrower since the late 1980’s
d. Both a and c

33. The first wave of globalization was brought to an end by
a. The Great Depression
b. The Second World War
c. The First World War
d. The Smoot-Hawley Act

34. Multilateral trade negotiations have led to
a. Continued trade liberalization
b. Financial liberalization
c. Increased investment
d. All of the above

TRUE/FALSE

1. Important trading partners of the United States include Canada, Mexico, Japan, and China.

2. The United States exports a larger percentage of its gross domestic product than Japan, Germany, and Canada.

3. Opening the economy to international trade tends to lessen inflationary pressures at home.

4. The benefits of international trade accrue in the forms of lower domestic prices, development of more efficient methods and new products, and a greater range of consumption choices.

5. In an open trading system, a country will import those commodities that it produces at relatively low cost while exporting commodities that can be produced at relatively high cost.

6. Although free trade provides benefits for consumers, it is often argued that import protection should be provided to domestic producers of strategic goods and materials vital to the nation’s security.

7. In the long run, competitiveness depends on an industry’s natural resources, its stock of machinery and equipment, and the skill of its workers in creating goods that people want to buy.

8. If a nation has an open economy, it means that the nation allows private ownership of capital.

9. Increased foreign competition tends to increase profits of domestic import-competing companies.

10. Restrictive trade policies have resulted in U.S. producers of minerals and metals supplying all of the U.S. consumers’ needs.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is the most important factor which contributes to competitiveness?

2. What are the challenges of the international trading system?

ESSAY

1. Does exposure to competition with the world leader in a particular industry improve a firm’s productivity?

2. What are the essential arguments in favor of free trade?

CHAPTER 2—FOUNDATIONS OF MODERN TRADE THEORY: COMPARATIVE ADVANTAGE

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The mercantilists would have objected to:
a. Export promotion policies initiated by the government
b. The use of tariffs or quotas to restrict imports
c. Trade policies designed to accumulate gold and other precious metals
d. International trade based on open markets

2. Unlike the mercantilists, Adam Smith maintained that:
a. Trade benefits one nation only at the expense of another nation
b. Government control of trade leads to maximum economic welfare
c. All nations can gain from free international trade
d. The world’s output of goods must remain constant over time

3. The trading principle formulated by Adam Smith maintained that:
a. International prices are determined from the demand side of the market
b. Differences in resource endowments determine comparative advantage
c. Differences in income levels govern world trade patterns
d. Absolute cost differences determine the immediate basis for trade

4. Unlike Adam Smith, David Ricardo’s trading principle emphasizes the:
a. Demand side of the market
b. Supply side of the market
c. Role of comparative costs
d. Role of absolute costs

5. When a nation requires fewer resources than another nation to produce a product, the nation is said to have a:
a. Absolute advantage in the production of the product
b. Comparative advantage in the production of the product
c. Lower marginal rate of transformation for the product
d. Lower opportunity cost of producing the product

6. According to the principle of comparative advantage, specialization and trade increase a nation’s total output since:
a. Resources are directed to their highest productivity
b. The output of the nation’s trading partner declines
c. The nation can produce outside of its production possibilities curve
d. The problem of unemployment is eliminated

7. In a two-product, two-country world, international trade can lead to increases in:
a. Consumer welfare only if output of both products is increased
b. Output of both products and consumer welfare in both countries
c. Total production of both products, but not consumer welfare in both countries
d. Consumer welfare in both countries, but not total production of both products

8. As a result of international trade, specialization in production tends to be:
a. Complete with constant costs–complete with increasing costs
b. Complete with constant costs–incomplete with increasing costs
c. Incomplete with constant costs–complete with increasing costs
d. Incomplete with constant costs–incomplete with increasing costs

9. A nation that gains from trade will find its consumption point being located:
a. Inside its production possibilities curve
b. Along its production possibilities curve
c. Outside its production possibilities curve
d. None of the above

Table 2.1. Output Possibilities of the U.S. and the U.K.

Output per Worker per day
Country Tons of Steel Televisions
United States 15 45
United Kingdom 10 20

10. Referring to Table 2.1, the United States has the absolute advantage in the production of:
a. Steel
b. Televisions
c. Both steel and televisions
d. Neither steel nor televisions

11. Referring to Table 2.1, the United Kingdom has a comparative advantage in the production of:
a. Steel
b. Televisions
c. Both steel and televisions
d. Neither steel nor televisions

12. Refer to Table 2.1. If trade opens up between the United States and the United Kingdom, American firms should specialize in producing:
a. Steel
b. Televisions
c. Both steel and televisions
d. Neither steel nor televisions

13. Referring to Table 2.1, the opportunity cost of producing one ton of steel in the United States is:
a. 3 televisions
b. 10 televisions
c. 20 televisions
d. 45 televisions

14. Refer to Table 2.1. Mutually advantageous trade will occur between the United States and the United Kingdom so long as one ton of steel trades for:
a. At least 1 television, but no more than 2 televisions
b. At least 2 televisions, but no more than 3 televisions
c. At least 3 televisions, but no more than 4 televisions
d. At least 4 televisions, but no more than 5 televisions

15. Referring to Table 2.1, the United Kingdom gains most from trade if:
a. 1 ton of steel trades for 2 televisions
b. 1 ton of steel trades for 3 televisions
c. 2 tons of steel trade for 4 televisions
d. 2 tons of steel trade for 5 televisions

16. Concerning international trade restrictions, which of the following is false? Trade restrictions:
a. Limit specialization and the division of labor
b. Reduce the volume of trade and the gains from trade
c. Cause nations to produce inside their production possibilities curves
d. May result in a country producing some of the product of its comparative disadvantage

17. If a production possibilities curve is bowed out (i.e., concave) in appearance, production occurs under conditions of:
a. Constant opportunity costs
b. Increasing opportunity costs
c. Decreasing opportunity costs
d. Zero opportunity costs

18. Increasing opportunity costs suggest that:
a. Resources are not perfectly shiftable between the production of two goods
b. Resources are fully shiftable between the production of two goods
c. A country’s production possibilities curve appears as a straight line
d. A country’s production possibilities curve is bowed inward (i.e., convex) in appearance

19. The trading-triangle concept is used to indicate a nation’s:
a. Exports, marginal rate of transformation, terms of trade
b. Imports, terms of trade, marginal rate of transformation
c. Marginal rate of transformation, imports, exports
d. Terms of trade, exports, imports

20. Assuming increasing cost conditions, trade between two countries would not be likely if they have:
a. Identical demand conditions but different supply conditions
b. Identical supply conditions but different demand conditions
c. Different supply conditions and different demand conditions
d. Identical demand conditions and identical supply conditions

Table 2.2. Output possibilities for South Korea and Japan

Output per worker per day
Country Tons of steel VCRs
South Korea 80 40
Japan 20 20

21. Referring to Table 2.2, the opportunity cost of one VCR in Japan is:
a. 1 ton of steel
b. 2 tons of steel
c. 3 tons of steel
d. 4 tons of steel

22. Referring to Table 2.2, the opportunity cost of one VCR in South Korea is:
a. 1/2 ton of steel
b. 1 ton of steel
c. 1 1/2 tons of steel
d. 2 tons of steel

23. Refer to Table 2.2. According to the principle of absolute advantage, Japan should:
a. Export steel
b. Export VCRs
c. Export steel and VCRs
d. None of the above; there is no basis for gainful trade

24. Refer to Table 2.2. According to the principle of comparative advantage:
a. South Korea should export steel
b. South Korea should export steel and VCRs
c. Japan should export steel
d. Japan should export steel and VCRs

25. Refer to Table 2.2. With international trade, what would be the maximum amount of steel that South Korea would be willing to export to Japan in exchange for each VCR?
a. 1/2 ton of steel
b. 1 ton of steel
c. 1-1/2 tons of steel
d. 2 tons of steel

26. Refer to Table 2.2. With international trade, what would be the maximum number of VCRs that Japan would be willing to export to South Korea in exchange for each ton of steel?
a. 1 VCR
b. 2 VCRs
c. 3 VCRs
d. 4 VCRs

27. The earliest statement of the principle of comparative advantage is associated with:
a. Adam Smith
b. David Ricardo
c. Eli Heckscher
d. Bertil Ohlin

28. If Hong Kong and Taiwan had identical labor costs but were subject to increasing costs of production:
a. Trade would depend on differences in demand conditions
b. Trade would depend on economies of large-scale production
c. Trade would depend on the use of different currencies
d. There would be no basis for gainful trade

29. If the international terms of trade settle at a level that is between each country’s opportunity cost:
a. There is no basis for gainful trade for either country
b. Both countries gain from trade
c. Only one country gains from trade
d. One country gains and the other country loses from trade

30. International trade is based on the notion that:
a. Different currencies are an obstacle to international trade
b. Goods are more mobile internationally than are resources
c. Resources are more mobile internationally than are goods
d. A country’s exports should always exceed its imports

Figure 2.1. Production Possibilities Schedule

31. Referring to Figure 2.1, the relative cost of steel in terms of aluminum is:
a. 4.0 tons
b. 2.0 tons
c. 0.5 tons
d. 0.25 tons

32. Referring to Figure 2.1, the relative cost of aluminum in terms of steel is:
a. 4.0 tons
b. 2.0 tons
c. 0.5 tons
d. 0.25 tons

33. Refer to Figure 2.1. If the relative cost of steel were to rise, then the production possibilities schedule would:
a. Become steeper
b. Become flatter
c. Shift inward in a parallel manner
d. Shift outward in a parallel manner

34. Refer to Figure 2.1. If the relative cost of aluminum were to rise, then the production possibilities schedule would:
a. Become steeper
b. Become flatter
c. Shift inward in a parallel manner
d. Shift outward in a parallel manner

35. When a nation achieves autarky equilibrium:
a. Input price equals final product price
b. Labor productivity equals the wage rate
c. Imports equal exports
d. Production equals consumption

36. When a nation is in autarky and maximizes its living standard, its consumption and production points are:
a. Along the production possibilities schedule
b. Above the production possibilities schedule
c. Beneath the production possibilities schedule
d. Any of the above

37. If Canada experiences increasing opportunity costs, its supply schedule of steel will be:
a. Downward-sloping
b. Upward-sloping
c. Horizontal
d. Vertical

38. If Canada experiences constant opportunity costs, its supply schedule of steel will be:
a. Downward-sloping
b. Upward-sloping
c. Horizontal
d. Vertical

39. The gains from international trade increase as:
a. A nation consumes inside of its production possibilities schedule
b. A nation consumes along its production possibilities schedule
c. The international terms of trade rises above the nation’s autarky price
d. The international terms of trade approaches the nation’s autarky price

40. In a two-country, two-product world, the statement “Japan enjoys a comparative advantage over France in steel relative to bicycles” is equivalent to:
a. France having a comparative advantage over Japan in bicycles relative to steel
b. France having a comparative disadvantage against Japan in bicycles and steel
c. Japan having a comparative advantage over France in steel and bicycles
d. Japan having a comparative disadvantage against Japan in bicycles and steel

41. Ricardo’s theory of comparative advantage was of limited real-world validity because it was founded on the:
a. Labor theory of value
b. Capital theory of value
c. Land theory of value
d. Entrepreneur theory of value

42. Assume that labor is the only factor of production and that wages in the United States equal $20 per hour while wages in the United Kingdom equal $10 per hour. Production costs would be lower in the United States than the United Kingdom if:
a. U.S. labor productivity equaled 40 units per hour while U.K. labor productivity equaled 15 units per hour
b. U.S. labor productivity equaled 30 units per hour while U.K. labor productivity equaled 20 units per hour
c. U.S. labor productivity equaled 20 units per hour while U.K. labor productivity equaled 30 units per hour
d. U.S. labor productivity equaled 15 units per hour while U.K. labor productivity equaled 25 units per hour

43. According to Ricardo, a country will have a comparative advantage in the product in which its:
a. Labor productivity is relatively low
b. Labor productivity is relatively high
c. Labor mobility is relatively low
d. Labor mobility is relatively high

44. The Ricardian model of comparative advantage is based on all of the following assumptions except:
a. Only two nations and two products
b. Product quality varies among nations
c. Labor is the only factor of production
d. Labor can move freely within a nation

45. The writings of G. MacDougall emphasized which of the following as an explanation of a country’s competitive position?
a. National income levels
b. Relative endowments of natural resources
c. Domestic tastes and preferences
d. Labor compensation and productivity levels

46. The introduction of community indifference curves into our trading example focuses attention on the nation’s:
a. Income level
b. Resource prices
c. Tastes and preferences
d. Productivity level

47. Introducing indifference curves into our trade model permits us to determine:
a. Where a nation chooses to locate along its production possibilities curve in autarky
b. The precise location of a nation’s production possibilities curve
c. Whether absolute cost or comparative cost conditions exist
d. The currency price of one product in terms of another product

48. In the absence of trade, a nation is in equilibrium where a community indifference curve:
a. Lies above its production possibilities curve
b. Is tangent to its production possibilities curve
c. Intersects its production possibilities curve
d. Lies below its production possibilities curve

49. The use of indifference curves helps us determine the point:
a. Along the terms-of-trade line a country will choose
b. Where a country maximizes its resource productivity
c. At which a country ceases to become competitive
d. Where the marginal rate of transformation approaches zero

50. With trade, a country will maximize its satisfaction when it:
a. Moves to the highest possible indifference curve
b. Forces the marginal rate of substitution to its lowest possible value
c. Consumes more of both goods than it does in autarky
d. Finds its marginal rate of substitution exceeding its marginal rate of transformation

51. Trade between two nations would not be possible if they have:
a. Identical community indifference curves but different production possibilities curves
b. Identical production possibilities curves but different community indifference curves
c. Different production possibilities curves and different community indifference curves
d. Identical production possibilities curves and identical community indifference curves

52. Given a two-country and two-product world, the United States would enjoy all the attainable gains from free trade with Canada if it:
a. Trades at the U.S. rate of transformation
b. Trades at the Canadian rate of transformation
c. Specializes completely in the production of both goods
d. Specializes partially in the production of both goods

53. John Stuart Mill’s theory of reciprocal demand best applies when trading partners:
a. Are of equal size and importance in the market
b. Produce under increasing cost conditions
c. Partially specialize in the production of commodities
d. Have similar taste and preference levels

54. The equilibrium prices and quantities established after trade are fully determinate if we know:
a. The location of all countries’ indifference curves
b. The shape of each country’s production possibilities curve
c. The comparative costs of each trading partner
d. The strength of world supply and demand for each good

55. “The equilibrium relative commodity price at which trade takes place is determined by the conditions of demand and supply for each commodity in both nations. Other things being equal, the nation with the more intense demand for the other nation’s exported good will gain less from trade than the nation with the less intense demand.” This statement was first proposed by:
a. Alfred Marshall with offer curve analysis
b. John Stuart Mill with the theory of reciprocal demand
c. Adam Smith with the theory of absolute advantage
d. David Ricardo with the theory of comparative advantage

56. Which of the following terms-of-trade concepts is calculated by dividing the change in a country’s export price index by the change in its import price index between two points in time, multiplied by 100 to express the terms of trade in percentages?
a. Commodity terms of trade
b. Marginal rate of transformation
c. Marginal rate of substitution
d. Autarky price ratio

57. The best explanation of the gains from trade that David Ricardo could provide was to describe only the outer limits within which the equilibrium terms of trade would fall. This is because Ricardo’s theory did not recognize how market prices are influenced by:
a. Demand conditions
b. Supply conditions
c. Business expectations
d. Profit patterns

58. Under free trade, Sweden enjoys all of the gains from trade with Holland if Sweden:
a. Trades at Holland’s rate of transformation
b. Trades at Sweden’s rate of transformation
c. Specializes completely in the production of its export good
d. Specializes partially in the production of its export good

59. Because the Ricardian trade theory recognized only how supply conditions influence international prices, it could determine:
a. The equilibrium terms of trade
b. The outer limits for the terms of trade
c. Where a country chooses to locate along its production possibilities curve
d. Where a country chooses to locate along its trade triangle

60. The terms of trade is given by the prices:
a. Paid for all goods imported by the home country
b. Received for all goods exported by the home country
c. Received for exports and paid for imports
d. Of primary products as opposed to manufactured products

Table 2.3. Terms of Trade

Export Price Index Import Price Index
Country 1990 2004 1990 2004
Mexico 100 220 100 200
Sweden 100 160 100 150
Spain 100 155 100 155
France 100 170 100 230
Denmark 100 120 100 125

61. Referring to Table 2.3, which countries’ terms of trade improved between 1990 and 2004?
a. Mexico and Denmark
b. Sweden and Denmark
c. Sweden and Spain
d. Mexico and Sweden

62. Referring to Table 2.3, which countries’ terms of trade worsened between 1990 and 2004?
a. Spain and Mexico
b. Mexico and France
c. France and Denmark
d. Denmark and Sweden

63. Referring to Table 2.3, which country’s terms of trade did not change between 1990 and 2004?
a. Spain
b. Sweden
c. France
d. Denmark

64. Given free trade, small nations tend to benefit the most from trade since they:
a. Are more productive than their large trading partners
b. Are less productive than their large trading partners
c. Have demand preferences and income levels lower than their large trading partners
d. Enjoy terms of trade lying near the opportunity costs of their large trading partners

65. A terms-of-trade index that equals 150 indicates that compared to the base year:
a. It requires a greater output of domestic goods to obtain the same amount of foreign goods
b. It requires a lesser amount of domestic goods to obtain the same amount of foreign goods
c. The price of exports has risen from $100 to $150
d. The price of imports has risen from $100 to $150

66. A term-of-trade index that equals 90 indicates that compared to the base year:
a. It requires a greater output of domestic goods to obtain the same amount of foreign goods
b. It requires a lesser amount of domestic goods to obtain the same amount of foreign goods
c. The price of exports has fallen from $100 to $90
d. The price of imports has fallen from $100 to $90

67. The theory of reciprocal demand does not well apply when one country:
a. Produces under constant cost conditions
b. Produces along its production possibilities curve
c. Is of minor economic importance in the world marketplace
d. Partially specializes the production of its export good

68. The terms of trade is given by:
a. (Price of exports/price of imports)  100
b. (Price of exports/price of imports) + 100
c. (Price of exports/price of imports)  100
d. (Price of exports/price of imports)  100

69. If Japan and France have identical production possibilities curves and identical community indifference curves:
a. Japan will enjoy all the gains from trade
b. France will enjoy all the gains from trade
c. Japan and France share equally in the gains from trade
d. Gainful specialization and trade are not possible

70. A rise in the price of imports or a fall in the price of exports will:
a. Improve the terms of trade
b. Worsen the terms of trade
c. Expand the production possibilities curve
d. Contract the production possibilities curve

71. A fall in the price of imports or a rise in the price of exports will:
a. Improve the terms of trade
b. Worsen the terms of trade
c. Expand the production possibilities curve
d. Contract the production possibilities curve

72. Under free trade, Canada would not enjoy any gains from trade with Sweden if Canada:
a. Trades at the Canadian rate of transformation
b. Trades at Sweden’s rate of transformation
c. Specializes completely in the production of its export good
d. Specializes partially in the production of its export good

Figure 2.2 illustrates trade data for Canada. The figure assumes that Canada attains international trade equilibrium at point C.

Figure 2.2. Canadian Trade Possibilities

73. Consider Figure 2.2. In the absence of trade, Canada would produce and consume:
a. 8 televisions and 16 refrigerators
b. 12 televisions and 16 refrigerators
c. 8 televisions and 12 refrigerators
d. 12 televisions and 8 refrigerators

74. Referring to Figure 2.2, Canada has a comparative advantage in:
a. Televisions
b. Refrigerators
c. Televisions and refrigerators
d. Neither televisions nor refrigerators

75. Consider Figure 2.2. With specialization, Canada produces:
a. 16 televisions
b. 12 televisions and 8 refrigerators
c. 8 televisions and 16 refrigerators
d. 24 refrigerators

76. Consider Figure 2.2. With trade, Canada consumes:
a. 12 televisions and 8 refrigerators
b. 12 televisions and 16 refrigerators
c. 8 televisions and 16 refrigerators
d. 24 refrigerators

77. According to Figure 2.2, exports for Canada total:
a. 16 refrigerators
b. 8 refrigerators
c. 12 refrigerators
d. 16 refrigerators

78. According to Figure 2.2, imports for Canada total:
a. 6 televisions
b. 8 televisions
c. 12 televisions
d. 16 televisions

79. Concerning possible determinants of international trade, which are sources of comparative advantage? Differences in:
a. Methods of production
b. Tastes and preferences
c. Technological know-how
d. All of the above

80. Ricardo’s model of comparative advantage assumed all of the following except:
a. In each nation, labor is the only input
b. Costs do not vary with the level of production
c. Perfect competition prevails in all markets
d. Transportation costs rise as distance increases between countries

81. Ricardo’s model of comparative advantage assumed all of the following except:
a. Trade is balanced, thus ruling out flows of money between nations
b. Firms make production decisions in an attempt to maximize profits
c. Free trade occurs between nations
d. Labor is immobile within a country, but is incapable of moving between countries

82. The dynamic gains from trade include all of the following except:
a. Economies of large-scale production resulting in decreasing unit cost
b. Increased saving and investment resulting in economic growth
c. Increased competition resulting in lower prices and wider range of output
d. Increasing comparative advantage leading to specialization

83. All of the following may be exit barriers except
a. Employee health benefit costs
b. Treatment, storage and disposal costs
c. Penalties for terminating contracts with raw material suppliers
d. Increasing opportunity cost of production

84. Incomplete specialization may be caused by
a. Increasing opportunity cost
b. Unrestricted trade
c. Constant opportunity cost
d. Decreasing opportunity cost

85. Improvements in productivity may lead to decreasing comparative costs if
a. The assumption of fixed technologies under constant costs is relaxed
b. Technologies available to each nation is allowed to differ
c. Resource endowments are allowed to vary
d. All of the above

86. Adam Smith
a. Was a leading advocate of free trade
b. Developed the concept of absolute advantage
c. Maintained that labor costs represent the major determinant of production cost
d. All of the above

87. Modern trade theory contends that the pattern of world trade is governed by
a. Differences in supply conditions and demand conditions
b. Supply conditions only
c. Demand conditions only
d. None of the above

88. When nations are of similar size, and have similar taste patterns, the gains from trade
a. Are shared equally between them
b. Are impossible to determine
c. Are too small, so that trading is not beneficial
d. Are determined by the nation that has comparative advantage in the more essential product

89. The commodity terms of trade measures
a. The rate at which exports exchange for imports
b. The influence trade has on productivity levels
c. The effect on income of the trading nation
d. The improvement in a nation’s welfare

TRUE/FALSE

1. According to the mercantilists, a nation’s welfare would improve if it maintained a surplus of exports over imports.

2. The mercantilists maintained that a free-trade policy best enhances a nation’s welfare.

3. The mercantilists contended that because one nation’s gains from trade come the expense of its trading partners, not all nations could simultaneously realize gains from trade.

4. According to the price-specie-flow-doctrine, a trade-surplus nation would experience gold outflows, a decrease in its money supply, and a fall in its price level.

5. The trade theories of Adam Smith and David Ricardo viewed the determination of competitiveness from the demand side of the market.

6. According to the principle of absolute advantage, international trade is beneficial to the world if one nation has an absolute cost advantage in the production of one good while the other nation has an absolute cost advantage in the other good.

7. The principle of absolute advantage asserts that mutually beneficial trade can occur even if one nation is absolutely more efficient in the production of all goods.

8. The basis for trade is explained by the principle of absolute advantage according to David Ricardo and the principle of comparative advantage according to Adam Smith.

9. The principle of comparative advantage contends that a nation should specialize in and export the good in which its absolute advantage is smallest or its absolute disadvantage is greatest.

10. The Ricardian theory of comparative advantage assumes only two nations and two products, labor can move freely within a nation, and perfect competition exists in all markets.

11. Assume that the United States is more efficient than the United Kingdom in the production of all goods. Mutually beneficial trade is possible according to the principle of absolute advantage, but is impossible according to the principle of comparative advantage.

12. It is possible for a nation not to have an absolute advantage in anything; but it is not possible for one nation to have a comparative advantage in everything and the other nation to have a comparative advantage in nothing.

13. Ricardo’s theory of comparative advantage was of limited relevance to the real world since it assumed that labor was only one of several factors of production.

14. Compared to Ricardian trade theory, modern trade theory provides a more general view of comparative advantage since it is based on all factors of production rather than just labor.

15. Constant opportunity costs suggest that the relative cost of producing one product in terms of the other will remain the same no matter where a nation chooses to locate on its production-possibilities schedule.

16. There are two explanations of constant opportunity costs: (1) factors of production are imperfect substitutes for each other; (2) all units of a given factor have different qualities.

17. With increasing opportunity costs, a nation totally specializes in the production of the commodity of its comparative advantage; with constant opportunity costs, a nation partially specializes in the production of the commodity of its comparative advantage.

18. A nation’s trade triangle denotes its exports, imports, and terms of trade.

19. International trade leads to increased welfare if a nation can achieve a post-trade consumption point lying inside of its production-possibilities schedule.

20. If the U.S. post-trade consumption point lies along its production possibilities schedule, the United States achieves a higher level of welfare with trade than without trade.

21. If productivity in the German computer industry grows faster than it does in the Japanese computer industry, the opportunity cost of each computer produced in Japan increases relative to the opportunity cost of a computer produced in Germany.

22. If Japan loses competitiveness in computers, Japanese computer workers lose jobs to foreign computer workers and the wages of Japanese computer workers tend to fall relative to the wages of foreign computer workers.

23. With constant opportunity costs, a nation will achieve the greatest possible gains from trade if it partially specializes in the production of the commodity of its comparative disadvantage.

24. By reducing the overall volume of trade, import restrictions tend to reduce a nation’s gains from trade.

25. With increasing opportunity costs, comparative advantage depends on a nation’s supply conditions and demand conditions; with constant opportunity costs, comparative advantage depends only on demand conditions.

26. According to the principle of comparative advantage, an open trading system results in resources being channeled from uses of low productivity to those of high productivity.

27. The existence of exit barriers tends to delay the closing of inefficient firms that face international competitive disadvantages.

28. MacDougall’s empirical study of comparative advantage was based on the notion that a product’s labor cost is underlaid by labor productivity and the wage rate.

29. The MacDougall study of comparative advantage hypothesized that in those industries in which U.S. labor productivity was relatively high, U.S. exports to the world should be lower than U.K. exports to the world, after adjusting for wage differentials.

30. The basic idea of mercantilism was that wealth consisted of the goods and services produced by a nation.

31. According to Adam Smith, international trade was a “win-win” situation since all nations could enjoy gains from trade.

32. The price-specie-flow mechanism illustrated why one nation’s gains from trade were accompanied by another country’s losses.

33. Complete specialization usually occurs under the assumption of increasing opportunity costs.

34. Adam Smith contended that gold, silver, and other precious metals constituted the wealth of a nation.

35. The price-specie-flow mechanism illustrated why nations could not maintain trade surpluses or trade deficits over the long run.

36. The marginal rate of transformation equals the absolute slope of a country’s production possibilities schedule.

37. Assume that Germany has higher labor productivity and higher wage levels than France. Germany can produce a commodity more cheaply than France if its productivity differential more than offsets its wage differential.

38. Ricardo’s theory of comparative advantage does not take into account demand conditions when determining relative commodity prices.

39. If Canada has a higher wage level and higher labor productivity than Mexico, Canada will necessarily produce a good at a higher labor cost than Mexico.

40. If Argentina has a comparative advantage over Brazil in beef relative to coffee, Argentina will specialize in beef production.

41. Modern trade theory recognizes that the pattern of world trade is governed by both demand conditions and supply conditions.

42. A nation achieves autarky equilibrium at the point where its community indifference curve is tangent to its production possibilities schedule.

43. In autarky equilibrium, a nation realizes the lowest possible level of satisfaction given the constraint of its production possibilities schedule.

44. A nation benefits from international trade if it can achieve a higher indifference curve than it can in autarky.

45. A nation realizes maximum gains from trade at the point where the international terms-of-trade line is tangent to its community indifference curve.

46. The Ricardian theory of comparative advantage could fully explain the distribution of the gains from trade among trading partners.

47. Because the Ricardian theory of comparative advantage was based only on a nation’s demand conditions, it could not fully explain the distribution of the gains from trade among trading partners.

48. Because the Ricardian theory of comparative advantage was based only on a nation’s supply conditions, it could only determine the outer limits within which the equilibrium terms of trade would lie.

49. The domestic cost ratios of nations set the outer limits to the equilibrium terms of trade.

50. Mutually beneficial trade for two countries occurs if the equilibrium terms of trade lies between the two countries’ domestic cost ratios.

51. Assume that the United States and Canada engage in trade. If the international terms of trade coincides with the U.S. cost ratio, the United States realizes all of the gains from trade with Canada.

52. Assume that the United States and Canada engage in trade. If the international terms of trade coincides with the Canadian cost ratio, the United States realizes all of the gains from trade with Canada.

53. If the international terms of trade lies beneath (inside) the Mexican cost ratio, Mexico is worse off with trade than without trade.

54. Although J. S. Mill recognized that the region of mutually beneficial trade is bounded by the cost ratios of two countries, it was not until David Ricardo developed the theory of reciprocal demand that the equilibrium terms of trade could be determined.

55. According to J. S. Mill, if we know the domestic demand expressed by both trading partners for both products, the equilibrium terms of trade can be defined.

56. The theory of reciprocal demand asserts that as the U.S. demand for Canadian wheat rises, the equilibrium terms of trade improve for the United States.

57. Assume that Canada has a comparative advantage in wheat and a comparative disadvantage in autos. As the Canadian demand for wheat increases, Canada’s equilibrium terms of trade improves.

58. The theory of reciprocal demand best applies when two countries are of equal economic size, so that the demand conditions of each nation have a noticeable impact on market prices.

59. The theory of reciprocal demand best applies when one country has a “large” economy and the other country has a “small” economy.

60. If two nations of approximately the same size and with similar taste patterns participate in international trade, the gains from trade tend to be shared about equally between them.

61. The expression “importance of being unimportant” suggests that if one nation is much larger than the other, the larger nation realizes most of the gains from trade while the smaller nation realizes fewer gains from trade.

62. An improvement in a nation’s terms of trade occurs if the prices of its exports rise relative to the prices of its imports over a given time period.

63. If a country’s terms of trade worsen, it must exchange fewer exports for a given amount of imports.

64. If a country’s terms of trade improve, it must exchange more exports for a given amount of imports.

65. The terms of trade represents the rate of exchange between a country’s exports and imports.

66. Assume 1990 to be the base year. If by the end of 2004 a country’s export price index rose from 100 to 130 while its import price index rose from 100 to 115, its terms of trade would equal 113.

67. Assume 1990 to be the base year. If by the end of 2004 a country’s export price index rose from 100 to 140 while its import price index rose from 100 to 160, its terms of trade would equal 120.

68. Assume 1990 to be the base year. If by the end of 2004 a country’s export price index rose from 100 to 125 while its import price index rose from 100 to 125, its terms of trade would equal 100.

69. The commodity terms of trade are found by dividing a country’s import price index by its export price index.

70. For the commodity terms of trade to improve, a country’s export price index must rise relative to its import price index over a given time period.

71. For the commodity terms of trade to improve, a country’s import price index must rise relative to its export price index over a given time period.

SHORT ANSWER

1. Is it possible to add up the preferences of all consumers in an entire nation?

2. Who gains more from trade, when nations are of unequal economic size?

3. Is it possible for comparative advantage to change, thus changing the direction of trade?

4. Do national security concerns lead to incomplete specialization?

ESSAY

1. Will it be impossible to keep low-skilled jobs in the U.S.?

2. Is it possible to estimate the gains from trade?

ECO 305 Week 3 Quiz

CHAPTER 3—SOURCES OF COMPARATIVE ADVANTAGE

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following suggests that a nation will export the commodity in the production of which a great deal of its relatively abundant and cheap factor is used?
a. The Linder theory
b. The product life cycle theory
c. The MacDougall theory
d. The Heckscher-Ohlin theory

2. According to Staffan Linder, trade between two countries tends to be most pronounced when the countries:
a. Find their tastes and preferences to be quite harmonious
b. Experience economies of large-scale production over large output levels
c. Face dissimilar relative abundances of the factors of production
d. Find their per capita income levels to be approximately the same

3. Which of the following is a long-run theory, emphasizing changes in the trading position of a nation over a number of years?
a. Theory of factor endowments
b. Comparative advantage theory
c. Theory of the product cycle
d. Overlapping demand theory

4. The Leontief paradox questioned the validity of the theory of:
a. Comparative advantage
b. Factor endowments
c. Overlapping demands
d. Absolute advantage

5. Which of the following would least likely apply to the product life cycle theory?
a. Calculators and computers
b. Coal and crude oil
c. Home movie cameras
d. Office machinery

6. Classical trade theory emphasized which of the following as an underlying explanation of the basis for trade?
a. Productivities of labor inputs
b. Tastes and preferences among nations
c. Changes in technologies over time
d. Quantities of economic resources

7. Concerning the influence that transportation costs have on the location of industry, which of the following industries has generally attempted to locate production facilities close to resource supplies?
a. Autos
b. Steel
c. Soft drinks
d. Valuable electronics goods

8. Assume that Country A, in the absence of trade, finds itself relatively abundant in labor and relatively scarce in land. The factor endowment theory reasons that with free trade, the internal distribution of national income in Country A will change in favor of:
a. Labor
b. Land
c. Both labor and land
d. Neither labor nor land

9. When considering the effects of transportation costs, the conclusions of our trade model must be modified. This is because transportation costs result in:
a. Lower trade volume, higher import prices, smaller gains from trade
b. Lower trade volume, lower import prices, smaller gains from trade
c. Higher trade volume, higher import prices, smaller gains from trade
d. Higher trade volume, lower import prices, greater gains from trade

10. Most economists maintain that the major factor underlying wage stagnation in the United States in the 1990s has been:
a. Import competition
b. Technological change
c. Rising real value of the minimum wage
d. Increasing union membership

11. Assume the cost of transporting autos from Japan to Canada exceeds the pretrade price difference for autos between Japan and Canada. Trade in autos is:
a. Impossible
b. Possible
c. Highly profitable
d. Moderately profitable

12. Eli Heckscher and Bertil Ohlin are associated with the theory of comparative advantage that stresses differences in:
a. Income levels among countries
b. Tastes and preferences among countries
c. Resource endowments among countries
d. Labor productivities among countries

13. Hong Kong is relatively abundant in labor, while Canada is relatively abundant in capital. In both countries the production of shirts is relatively more labor intensive than the production of computers. According to the factor endowment theory, Hong Kong will have a(n):
a. Absolute advantage in the production of shirts and computers
b. Absolute advantage in the production of computers
c. Comparative advantage in the production of shirts
d. Comparative advantage in the production of computers

14. If Japanese workers receive lower wages in the production of autos than do American workers:
a. Japan will have a comparative advantage in the production of autos
b. Japan will have an absolute advantage in the production of autos
c. Production costs will be lower in Japan than in the U.S.
d. Production costs could be lower in the U.S. if American labor productivity is higher than the Japanese

15. Which trade theory suggests that a newly produced good, once exported, could ultimately end up being imported as the technology is transferred to lower- cost nations?
a. Factor endowment theory
b. Product life cycle theory
c. Overlapping demand theory
d. Comparative advantage theory

16. A firm is said to enjoy economies of scale over the range of output for which the long-run average cost is:
a. Increasing
b. Constant
c. Decreasing
d. None of the above

17. A product will be internationally traded as long as the pretrade price differential between the trading partners is:
a. Greater than the cost of transporting it between them
b. Equal to the cost of transporting it between them
c. Less than the cost of transporting it between them
d. None of the above

18. Which of the following suggests that by widening the market’s size, international trade can permit longer production runs for manufacturers, which leads to increasing efficiency?
a. Economies of scale
b. Diseconomies of scale
c. Comparative cost theory
d. Absolute cost theory

19. The Leontief paradox:
a. Was applied to the product life cycle theory
b. Suggested that the U.S. exports labor-intensive goods
c. Found that national income differences underlie world trade patterns
d. Implied that diseconomies of scale occur at low output levels

20. Which of the following best applies to the theory of overlapping demands?
a. Manufactured goods
b. Services
c. Primary products
d. None of the above

21. The Heckscher-Ohlin theory explains comparative advantage as the result of differences in countries’:
a. Economies of large-scale production
b. Relative abundance of various resources
c. Relative costs of labor
d. Research and development

22. Boeing aircraft company was able to cover its production costs of the first “jumbo jet” in the 1970s because Boeing could market it to several foreign airlines in addition to domestic airlines. This illustrates:
a. How economies of scale make possible a larger variety of products in international trade
b. A transfer of wealth from domestic consumers to domestic producers as the result of trade
c. How a natural monopoly is forced to behave more competitively with international trade
d. How a natural monopoly is forced to behave less competitively with international trade

23. Which trade theory contends that a country that initially develops and exports a new product may eventually become an importer of it and may no longer manufacture the product?
a. Theory of factor endowments
b. Theory of overlapping demands
c. Economies of scale theory
d. Product life cycle theory

24. The theory of overlapping demands predicts that trade in manufactured goods is unimportant for countries with very different:
a. Tastes and preferences
b. Expectations of future interest rate levels
c. Per-capita income levels
d. Labor productivities

25. The trade model of the Swedish economists Heckscher and Ohlin maintains that:
a. Absolute advantage determines the distribution of the gains from trade
b. Comparative advantage determines the distribution of the gains from trade
c. The division of labor is limited by the size of the world market
d. A country exports goods for which its resource endowments are most suited

26. According to the factor endowment model, countries heavily endowed with land will:
a. Devote excessive amounts of resources to agricultural production
b. Devote insufficient amounts of resources to agricultural production
c. Export products that are land-intensive
d. Import products that are land-intensive

27. For the United States, empirical studies indicate that over the past two decades the cost of international transportation relative to the value of U.S. imports has:
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Not changed
d. None of the above

28. Should international transportation costs decrease, the effect on international trade would include:
a. An increase in the volume of trade
b. A smaller gain from trade
c. A decline in the income of home producers
d. A decrease in the level of specialization in production.

29. That the division of labor is limited by the size of the market best applies to which explanation of trade?
a. Factor endowment theory
b. Product life cycle theory
c. Economies of scale theory
d. Overlapping demand theory

30. A larger variety of products results from international trade especially if:
a. International trade affords producers monopoly power
b. National governments levy import tariffs and quotas
c. Producing goods entails increasing costs
d. Economies of scale exist for producers

31. With economies of scale and decreasing unit costs, a country has the incentive to:
a. Specialize completely in the product of its comparative advantage
b. Specialize partially in the product of its comparative advantage
c. Specialize completely in the product of its comparative disadvantage
d. Specialize partially in the product of its comparative disadvantage

32. Proponents of ____ maintain that government should enact policies that encourage the development of emerging, “sunrise” industries.
a. Product life cycle policy
b. Static comparative advantage policy
c. Intraindustry trade policy
d. Industrial policy

33. Legislation requiring domestic manufacturers to install pollution abatement equipment tends to promote:
a. Higher production costs and an increase in output
b. Higher production costs and a decrease in output
c. Lower production costs and an increase in output
d. Lower production costs and a decrease in output

34. Stringent governmental regulations (e.g., air quality standards) imposed on domestic steel manufacturers tend to:
a. Enhance their competitiveness in the international market
b. Detract from their competitiveness in the international market
c. Increase the profitability and productivity of domestic manufacturers
d. Reduce the market share of foreign firms selling steel in the domestic market

35. Among the determinants underlying a country’s international competitiveness in business services (e.g., construction) are:
a. The potential scale economies afforded by a market’s size
b. Abundance of equipment including data processing facilities and computers
c. Skills and capabilities of employees and their wage rates
d. All of the above

36. The simultaneous import and export of computers by Germany is an example of:
a. Intraindustry trade
b. Interindustry trade
c. Perfect competition
d. Imperfect competition

37. Linder’s theory of overlapping demand provides an explanation of:
a. Product life cycle theory
b. Factor endowment model
c. Economies of large-scale production
d. Intraindustry trade

38. Intraindustry trade can be explained in part by:
a. Adam Smith’s principle of absolute advantage
b. Perfect competition in product markets
c. Diseconomies of large scale production
d. Transportation costs between and within nations

39. The Leontief paradox provided:
a. Support for the principle of absolute advantage
b. Support for the factor endowment model
c. Evidence against the factor endowment model
d. Evidence against the principle of absolute advantage

40. Which trade theory suggests that comparative advantage tends to shift from one nation to another as a product matures?
a. Interindustry trade theory
b. Intraindustry trade theory
c. Product life cycle theory
d. Overlapping demand theory

41. Which trade theory is tantamount to a short-run version of the factor price equalization theory?
a. Specific factors theory
b. Product life cycle theory
c. Economies of scale theory
d. Overlapping demand theory

42. According to the specific factors trade theory:
a. Owners of factors specific to export industries suffer from trade, while owners of factors specific to import-competing industries gain
b. Owners of factors specific to export industries gain from trade, while owners of factors specific to import-competing industries suffer
c. Both owners of factors specific to export industries and owners of factors specific to import-competing industries gain from trade
d. Both owners of factors specific to export industries and owners of factors specific to import-competing industries suffer from trade

43. Which nation has sometimes been characterized as being a “pollution haven” due to its lenient environmental standards that encourage the production of pollution-intensive goods?
a. Japan
b. Canada
c. Germany
d. Mexico

44. Boeing Inc. has criticized The Airbus Company’s competitiveness on the grounds that Airbus benefits from:
a. Import tariffs protecting Airbus in the European market
b. Import quotas protecting Airbus in the European market
c. Lenient environmental standards of European governments
d. Production subsidies supplied by European governments

45. To justify the subsidies it has received from European governments, The Airbus Company has used all of the following arguments except:
a. Its subsidies have prevented U.S. aircraft firms from holding a world-wide monopoly
b. U.S. aircraft firms have benefited from military-sponsored programs of the U.S. government
c. Airbus’ subsidies were totally repaid as the firm realized profits on its aircraft sales
d. Without subsidies to Airbus, Europe would be dependent on the United States as a supplier of aircraft

46. Expanding trade or technological improvements
a. Increases the demand for skilled workers in the U.S.
b. Decreases the demand for unskilled workers in the U.S.
c. Increases the demand for unskilled workers in the U.S.
d. Both a and b.

47. Economists agree that wages of unskilled workers are being held down by
a. International trade
b. Technology improvements
c. Lack of education
d. A combination of a, b, and c

48. The factor endowment theory states that comparative advantage is explained
a. Exclusively by differences in relative supply conditions
b. Exclusively by differences in relative national demand conditions
c. Both supply and demand conditions
d. None of the above

49. The factor endowment theory assumes
a. Same tastes and preferences
b. Factor inputs of uniform quality
c. Same technology
d. All of the above

50. In explaining international trade, the product life cycle theory focuses on
a. Tastes and preferences
b. The role of technological innovation
c. Per-capita income levels of nations
d. Both b and c

TRUE/FALSE

1. According to Ricardian theory, comparative advantage depends on relative differences in labor productivity.

2. The Heckscher-Ohlin theory asserts that relative differences in labor productivity underlie comparative advantage.

3. The factor-endowment theory highlights the relative abundance of a nation’s resources as the key factor underlying comparative advantage.

4. According to the factor-endowment theory, a nation will export that good for which a large amount of the relatively scarce resource is used.

5. According to the factor-endowment theory, a nation will import that good for which a large amount of the relatively abundant resource is used.

6. The Heckscher-Ohlin theory suggests that land-abundant nations will export land-intensive goods while labor-abundant nations will export labor-intensive goods.

7. The Heckscher-Ohlin theory contends that over a period of years a country that initially is an exporter of a product will become an importer of that product.

8. The Heckscher-Ohlin theory emphasizes the role that demand plays in the creation of comparative advantage.

9. The factor-endowment theory asserts that with specialization and trade there tends to occur an equalization in the relative resource prices of trading partners.

10. According to the factor-endowment theory, international specialization and trade cause a nation’s cheap resource to become cheaper and a nation’s expensive resource to become more expensive.

11. Fears about the downward pressure that cheap foreign workers place on U.S. wages have led U.S. labor unions to lobby for import restrictions such as tariffs and quotas.

12. According to the factor-price-equalization theory, international trade results in the relative differences in resource prices between nations being eliminated.

13. Empirical testing by Wassily Leontief gave support to the Heckscher-Ohlin theory of trade.

14. The Leontief Paradox was the first major challenge to the product-life-cycle theory of trade.

15. The Leontief Paradox suggested that, in contrast to the predictions of the factor-endowment theory, U.S. exports were less capital-intensive than U.S. import-competing goods.

16. The specific-factors theory analyzes the income distribution effects of trade in the short run when resources are immobile among industries.

17. Owners of resources specific to export industries tend to lose from international trade, while owners of factors specific to import-competing industries tend to gain.

18. The factor-price-equalization theory is a short-run version of the specific-factors theory.

19. With economies of scale, specialization in a few products allows a manufacturer to benefit from longer production runs which lead to decreasing average cost.

20. With decreasing costs, a country has an incentive to partially specialize in the product of its comparative advantage.

21. By widening the size of the domestic market, international trade permits companies to take advantage of longer production runs and increasing efficiencies such as mass production.

22. The theory of overlapping demands applies best to trade in manufactured goods.

23. Decreasing cost conditions lead to complete specialization in the production of the commodity of comparative advantage.

24. According to Staffan Linder, the factor endowment theory is useful in explaining trade patterns in manufactured goods, but not primary products.

25. The theory of overlapping demands asserts that trade in manufactured goods is stronger the less similar the demand structures of two countries.

26. The theory of overlapping demands contends that international trade in manufactured products is strongest among nations with similar income levels.

27. According to the theory of overlapping demands, trade in manufactured goods would be greater among two wealthy countries than among a wealthy country and a poor country.

28. Recent studies of U.S. resource endowments indicate that the United States is most abundant in unskilled labor, followed by semi-skilled labor and skilled labor.

29. Intraindustry trade would occur if computers manufactured in the United States by IBM are exported to Japan while the United States imports computers manufactured by Hitachi of Japan.

30. Because seasons in the Southern Hemisphere are opposite those in the Northern Hemisphere, one would expect intraindustry trade to occur in agricultural products.

31. Intraindustry trade can be explained by product differentiation, economies of scale, seasons of the year, and transportation costs.

32. According to the theory of intraindustry trade, many manufactured goods undergo a trade cycle in which the home country initially is an exporter and eventually becomes an importer of a product.

33. The product-life-cycle theory applies best to trade in primary products in the short run.

34. According to the product-life-cycle theory, the first stage of a product’s trade cycle is when it is introduced to the home market.

35. According to the product life cycle theory, the last stage of a product’s trade cycle is when it becomes an import-competing good.

36. Ricardo’s theory of comparative advantage is a static theory that does not consider changes in international competitiveness over the long run.

37. Dynamic comparative advantage refers to the creation of comparative advantage through the mobilization of skilled labor, technology, and capital.

38. Industrial policy seeks to direct resources to declining industries in which productivity is low, linkages to the rest of the economy are weak, and future competitiveness is remote.

39. Europe’s jumbo-jet manufacturer, Airbus, has justified receiving governmental subsidies on the grounds that the subsidies prevent the United States from becoming a monopoly in the jumbo-jet market.

40. The imposition of pollution-control regulations on domestic steel manufacturers leads to decreases in production costs and an improvement in the steel manufacturers’ competitiveness.

41. Empirical studies conclude that U.S. environmental policies are a more important determinant of trade performance than capital, raw materials, labor skills, and wages.

42. Most developing countries have pollution-control laws and enforcement policies that are more stringent than those of the major industrial countries.

43. Although the theory of comparative advantage explains trade in manufactured goods, it has no explanatory value for trade in business services.

44. When transportation costs are added to our trade model, the low-cost exporting country produces less, consumes more, and exports less than that which occurs in the absence of transportation costs.

45. When transportation costs are added to our trade model, the degree of specialization in production between two countries increases as do the gains from trade.

46. In the absence of transportation costs, free trade results in the equalization of the prices of traded goods, as well as resource prices, in the trading nations.

47. In industries where the final product is much less weighty or bulky than the materials from which it is made, firms tend to locate production near resource supplies.

48. Industrial processes that add weight or bulk to a commodity are likely to be located near the resource market to minimize transportation costs.

49. A product will be traded only if the cost of transporting it between nations is less than the pretrade difference between their relative product prices.

50. Generally speaking, transportation costs are more important than production costs as a source of comparative advantage.

51. The product-life-cycle model contends that when a new product is introduced to the home market, it generally requires low-skilled labor to produce it.

52. According to the product life cycle model, comparative advantage shifts from cheap-labor countries to high-technology countries after a manufactured good becomes standardized.

SHORT ANSWER

1. Does factor price equalization occur in the real world?

2. What is the focus of the product life cycle theory, and where is it applicable?

ESSAY

1. Explain how immigration and trade may worsen wage inequality, and how college education may mitigate against that.

2. How does Staffan Linder explain world trade patterns?

CHAPTER 4—TARIFFS

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The imposition of tariffs on imports results in deadweight welfare losses for the home economy. These losses consist of the:
a. Protective effect plus consumption effect
b. Redistribution effect plus revenue effect
c. Revenue effect plus protective effect
d. Consumption effect plus redistribution effect

2. Suppose that the United States eliminates its tariff on steel imports, permitting foreign-produced steel to enter the U.S. market. Steel prices to U.S. consumers would be expected to:
a. Increase, and the foreign demand for U.S. exports would increase
b. Decrease, and the foreign demand for U.S. exports would increase
c. Increase, and the foreign demand for U.S. exports would decrease
d. Decrease, and the foreign demand for U.S. exports would decrease

3. A $100 specific tariff provides home producers more protection from foreign competition when:
a. The home market buys cheaper products rather than expensive products
b. It is applied to a commodity with many grade variations
c. The home demand for a good is elastic with respect to price changes
d. It is levied on manufactured goods rather than primary products

4. A lower tariff on imported aluminum would most likely benefit:
a. Foreign producers at the expense of domestic consumers
b. Domestic manufacturers of aluminum
c. Domestic consumers of aluminum
d. Workers in the domestic aluminum industry

5. When a government allows raw materials and other intermediate products to enter a country duty free, its tariff policy generally results in a:
a. Effective tariff rate less than the nominal tariff rate
b. Nominal tariff rate less than the effective tariff rate
c. Rise in both nominal and effective tariff rates
d. Fall in both nominal and effective tariff rates

6. Of the many arguments in favor of tariffs, the one that has enjoyed the most significant economic justification has been the:
a. Infant industry argument
b. Cheap foreign labor argument
c. Balance of payments argument
d. Domestic living standard argument

7. The redistribution effect of an import tariff is the transfer of income from the domestic:
a. Producers to domestic buyers of the good
b. Buyers to domestic producers of the good
c. Buyers to the domestic government
d. Government to the domestic buyers

8. Which of the following is true concerning a specific tariff?
a. It is exclusively used by the U.S. in its tariff schedules.
b. It refers to a flat percentage duty applied to a good’s market value.
c. It is plagued by problems associated with assessing import product values.
d. It affords less protection to home producers during eras of rising prices.

9. The principal benefit of tariff protection goes to:
a. Domestic consumers of the good produced
b. Domestic producers of the good produced
c. Foreign producers of the good produced
d. Foreign consumers of the good produced

10. Which of the following policies permits a specified quantity of goods to be imported at one tariff rate and applies a higher tariff rate to imports above this quantity?
a. Tariff quota
b. Import tariff
c. Specific tariff
d. Ad valorem tariff

11. Assume the United States adopts a tariff quota on steel in which the quota is set at 2 million tons, the within-quota tariff rate equals 5 percent, and the over-quota tariff rate equals 10 percent. Suppose the U.S. imports 1 million tons of steel. The resulting revenue effect of the tariff quota would accrue to:
a. The U.S. government only
b. U.S. importing companies only
c. Foreign exporting companies only
d. The U.S. government and either U.S. importers or foreign exporters

12. When the production of a commodity does not utilize imported inputs, the effective tariff rate on the commodity:
a. Exceeds the nominal tariff rate on the commodity
b. Equals the nominal tariff rate on the commodity
c. Is less than the nominal tariff rate on the commodity
d. None of the above

13. Developing nations often maintain that industrial countries permit raw materials to be imported at very low tariff rates while maintaining high tariff rates on manufactured imports. Which of the following refers to the above statement?
a. Tariff-quota effect
b. Nominal tariff effect
c. Tariff escalation effect
d. Protective tariff effect

14. Should the home country be “large” relative to the world, its imposition of a tariff on imports would lead to an increase in domestic welfare if the terms-of-trade effect exceeds the sum of the:
a. Revenue effect plus redistribution effect
b. Protective effect plus revenue effect
c. Consumption effect plus redistribution effect
d. Protective effect plus consumption effect

15. Should Canada impose a tariff on imports, one would expect Canada’s:
a. Terms of trade to improve and volume of trade to decrease
b. Terms of trade to worsen and volume of trade to decrease
c. Terms of trade to improve and volume of trade to increase
d. Terms of trade to worsen and volume of trade to increase

16. A beggar-thy-neighbor policy is the imposition of:
a. Free trade to increase domestic productivity
b. Trade barriers to increase domestic demand and employment
c. Import tariffs to curb domestic inflation
d. Revenue tariffs to make products cheaper for domestic consumers

17. A problem encountered when implementing an “infant industry” tariff is that:
a. Domestic consumers will purchase the foreign good regardless of the tariff
b. Political pressure may prevent the tariff’s removal when the industry matures
c. Most industries require tariff protection when they are mature
d. Labor unions will capture the protective effect in higher wages

18. Tariffs are not defended on the ground that they:
a. Improve the terms of trade of foreign nations
b. Protect jobs and reduce unemployment
c. Promote growth and development of young industries
d. Prevent overdependence of a country on only a few industries

19. The deadweight loss of a tariff:
a. Is a social loss since it promotes inefficient production
b. Is a social loss since it reduces the revenue for the government
c. Is not a social loss because society as a whole doesn’t pay for the loss
d. Is not a social loss since only business firms suffer revenue losses

20. Which of the following is a fixed percentage of the value of an imported product as it enters the country?
a. Specific tariff
b. Ad valorem tariff
c. Nominal tariff
d. Effective tariff

21. A tax of 20 cents per unit of imported cheese would be an example of:
a. Compound tariff
b. Effective tariff
c. Ad valorem tariff
d. Specific tariff

22. A tax of 15 percent per imported item would be an example of:
a. Ad valorem tariff
b. Specific tariff
c. Effective tariff
d. Compound tariff

23. Which type of tariff is not used by the American government?
a. Import tariff
b. Export tariff
c. Specific tariff
d. Ad valorem tariff

24. Which trade policy results in the government levying a “two-tier” tariff on imported goods?
a. Tariff quota
b. Nominal tariff
c. Effective tariff
d. Revenue tariff

25. If we consider the impact on both consumers and producers, then protection of the steel industry is:
a. In the interest of the United States as a whole, but not in the interest of the state of Pennsylvania
b. In the interest of the United States as a whole and in the interest of the state of Pennsylvania
c. Not in the interest of the United States as a whole, but it might be in the interest of the state of Pennsylvania
d. Not in the interest of the United States as a whole, nor in the interest of the state of Pennsylvania

26. If I purchase a stereo from South Korea, I obtain the stereo and South Korea obtains the dollars. But if I purchase a stereo produced in the United States, I obtain the stereo and the dollars remain in America. This line of reasoning is:
a. Valid for stereos, but not for most products imported by the United States
b. Valid for most products imported by the United States, but not for stereos
c. Deceptive since Koreans eventually spend the dollars on U.S. goods
d. Deceptive since the dollars spent on a stereo built in the United States eventually wind up overseas

27. The most vocal political pressure for tariffs is generally made by:
a. Consumers lobbying for export tariffs
b. Consumers lobbying for import tariffs
c. Producers lobbying for export tariffs
d. Producers lobbying for import tariffs

28. If we consider the interests of both consumers and producers, then a policy of tariff reduction in the U.S. auto industry is:
a. In the interest of the United States as a whole, but not in the interest of auto-producing states
b. In the interest of the United States as a whole, and in the interest of auto-producing states
c. Not in the interest of the United States as a whole, nor in the interest of auto-producing states
d. Not in the interest of the United States as a whole, but is in the interest of auto-producing states

29. Free traders point out that:
a. There is usually an efficiency gain from having tariffs
b. There is usually an efficiency loss from having tariffs
c. Producers lose from tariffs at the expense of consumers
d. Producers lose from tariffs at the expense of the government

30. A decrease in the import tariff will result in:
a. An increase in imports but a decrease in domestic production
b. A decrease in imports but an increase in domestic production
c. An increase in price but a decrease in quantity purchased
d. A decrease in price and a decrease in quantity purchased

Figure 4.1 illustrates the demand and supply schedules for pocket calculators in Mexico, a “small” nation that is unable to affect the world price.

Figure 4.1. Import Tariff Levied by a “Small” Country

31. Consider Figure 4.1. In the absence of trade, Mexico produces and consumes:
a. 10 calculators
b. 40 calculators
c. 60 calculators
d. 80 calculators

32. Consider Figure 4.1. In the absence of trade, Mexico’s producer surplus and consumer surplus respectively equal:
a. $120, $240
b. $180, $180
c. $180, $320
d. $240, $240

33. Consider Figure 4.1. With free trade, Mexico imports:
a. 40 calculators
b. 60 calculators
c. 80 calculators
d. 100 calculators

34. Consider Figure 4.1. With free trade, the total value of Mexico’s imports equal:
a. $220
b. $260
c. $290
d. $300

35. Consider Figure 4.1. With free trade, Mexico’s producer surplus and consumer surplus respectively equal:
a. $5, $605
b. $25, $380
c. $45, $250
d. $85, $195

36. Consider Figure 4.1. With a per-unit tariff of $3, the quantity of imports decreases to:
a. 20 calculators
b. 40 calculators
c. 50 calculators
d. 70 calculators

37. According to Figure 4.1, the loss in Mexican consumer surplus due to the tariff equals:
a. $225
b. $265
c. $285
d. $325

38. According to Figure 4.1, the tariff results in the Mexican government collecting:
a. $100
b. $120
c. $140
d. $160

39. According to Figure 4.1, Mexican manufacturers gain ____ because of the tariff.
a. $75
b. $85
c. $95
d. $105

40. According to Figure 4.1, the deadweight cost of the tariff totals:
a. $60
b. $70
c. $80
d. $90

41. Consider Figure 4.1. The tariff would be prohibitive (i.e., eliminate imports) if it equaled:
a. $2
b. $3
c. $4
d. $5

Assume the United States is a large consumer of steel that is able to influence the world price. Its demand and supply schedules are respectively denoted by DU.S. and SU.S. in Figure 4.2. The overall (United States plus world) supply schedule of steel is denoted by SU.S.+W.

Figure 4.2. Import Tariff Levied by a “Large” Country

42. Consider Figure 4.2. With free trade, the United States achieves market equilibrium at a price of $____. At this price, ____ tons of steel are produced by U.S. firms, ____ tons are bought by U.S. buyers, and ____ tons are imported.
a. $450, 5 tons, 60 tons, 55 tons
b. $475, 10 tons, 50 tons, 40 tons
c. $525, 5 tons, 60 tons, 55 tons
d. $630, 30 tons, 30 tons, 0 tons

43. Consider Figure 4.2. Suppose the United States imposes a tariff of $100 on each ton of steel imported. With the tariff, the price of steel rises to $____ and imports fall to ____ tons.
a. $550, 20 tons
b. $550, 30 tons
c. $575, 20 tons
d. $575, 30 tons

44. Consider Figure 4.2. Of the $100 tariff, $____ is passed on to the U.S. consumer via a higher price, while $____ is borne by the foreign exporter; the U.S. terms of trade:
a. $25, $75, improve
b. $25, $75, worsen
c. $75, $25, improve
d. $75, $25, worsen

45. Referring to Figure 4.2, the tariff’s deadweight welfare loss to the United States totals:
a. $450
b. $550
c. $650
d. $750

46. According to Figure 4.2, the tariff’s terms-of-trade effect equals:
a. $300
b. $400
c. $500
d. $600

47. According to Figure 4.2, the tariff leads to the overall welfare of the United States:
a. Rising by $250
b. Rising by $500
c. Falling by $250
d. Falling by $500

48. Suppose that the production of $500,000 worth of steel in the United States requires $100,000 worth of iron ore. The U.S. nominal tariff rates for importing these goods are 15 percent for steel and 5 percent for iron ore. Given this information, the effective rate of protection for the U.S. steel industry is approximately:
a. 6 percent
b. 12 percent
c. 18 percent
d. 24 percent

49. Suppose that the production of a $30,000 automobile in Canada requires $10,000 worth of steel. The Canadian nominal tariff rates for importing these goods are 25 percent for automobiles and 10 percent for steel. Given this information, the effective rate of protection for the Canadian automobile industry is approximately:
a. 15 percent
b. 32 percent
c. 48 percent
d. 67 percent

Exhibit 4.1

Assume that the United States imports automobiles from South Korea at a price of $20,000 per vehicle and that these vehicles are subject to an import tariff of 20 percent. Also assume that U.S. components are used in the vehicles assembled by South Korea and that these components have a value of $10,000.

50. Refer to Exhibit 4.1. In the absence of the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, the price of an imported vehicle to the U.S. consumer after the tariff has been levied is:
a. $22,000
b. $23,000
c. $24,000
d. $25,000

51. Refer to Exhibit 4.1. Under the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, the price of an imported vehicle to the U.S. consumer after the tariff has been levied is:
a. $22,000
b. $23,000
c. $24,000
d. $25,000

52. Suppose an importer of steel is required to pay a tariff of $20 per ton plus 5 percent of the value of steel. This is an example of a (an):
a. Specific tariff
b. Ad valorem tariff
c. Compound tariff
d. Tariff quota

53. A compound tariff is a combination of a (an):
a. Tariff quota and a two-tier tariff
b. Revenue tariff and a protective tariff
c. Import tariff and an export tariff
d. Specific tariff and an ad valorem tariff

Table 4.1. Production Costs and Prices of Imported and Domestic VCRs

Imported VCRs Domestic VCRs
Component parts $150 Imported component parts $150
Assembly cost/profit 50 Assembly cost 50
Nominal tariff 25 Profit 25
____ ____
Import price Domestic price
after tariff 225 after tariff 225

54. Consider Table 4.1. Prior to the tariff, the total price of domestically-produced VCRs is:
a. $150
b. $200
c. $225
d. $250

55. Consider Table 4.1. Prior to the tariff, the total price of imported VCRs is:
a. $150
b. $200
c. $225
d. $235

56. Consider Table 4.1. The nominal tariff rate on imported VCRs equals:
a. 11.1 percent
b. 12.5 percent
c. 16.7 percent
d. 50.0 percent

57. Consider Table 4.1. Prior to the tariff, domestic value added equals:
a. $25
b. $50
c. $75
d. $100

58. Consider Table 4.1. After the tariff, domestic value added equals:
a. $25
b. $50
c. $75
d. $100

59. Consider Table 4.1. The effective tariff rate equals:
a. 11.1 percent
b. 16.7 percent
c. 50.0 percent
d. 100.0 percent

60. If the domestic value added before an import tariff for a product is $500 and the domestic value added after the tariff is $550, the effective rate of protection is:
a. 5 percent
b. 8 percent
c. 10 percent
d. 15 percent

61. When a tariff on imported inputs exceeds that on the finished good,
a. The nominal tariff rate on the finished product would tend to overstate its protective effect
b. The nominal tariff rate would tend to understate it’s protective effect
c. It is impossible to determine the protective effect of a tariff
d. Tariff escalation occurs

62. The offshore assembly provision in the U.S.
a. Provides favorable treatment to U.S. trading partners
b. Discriminates against primary product importers
c. Provides favorable treatment to products assembled abroad from U.S. manufactured components
d. Hurts the U.S. consumer

63. Arguments for U.S. trade restrictions include all of the following except
a. Job protection
b. Infant industry support
c. Maintenance of domestic living standard
d. Improving incomes for developing countries

64. For the United States, a foreign trade zone (FTZ) is
a. A site within the United States
b. A site outside the United States
c. Always located in poorer developing countries
d. Is used to discourage trade

TRUE/FALSE

1. To protect domestic producers from foreign competition, the U.S. government levies both import tariffs and export tariffs.

2. With a compound tariff, a domestic importer of an automobile might be required to pay a duty of $200 plus 4 percent of the value of the automobile.

3. With a specific tariff, the degree of protection afforded domestic producers varies directly with changes in import prices.

4. During a business recession, when cheaper products are purchased, a specific tariff provides domestic producers a greater amount of protection against import-competing goods.

5. A ad valorem tariff provides domestic producers a declining degree of protection against import-competing goods during periods of changing prices.

6. With a compound duty, its “specific” portion neutralizes the cost disadvantage of domestic manufacturers that results from tariff protection granted to domestic suppliers of raw materials, and the “ad valorem” portion of the duty grants protection to the finished-goods industry.

7. The nominal tariff rate signifies the total increase in domestic productive activities compared to what would occur under free-trade conditions.

8. When material inputs enter a country at a very low duty while the final imported product is protected by a high duty, the result tends to be a high rate of protection for domestic producers of the final product.

9. According to the tariff escalation effect, industrial countries apply low tariffs to imports of finished goods and high tariffs to imports of raw materials.

10. Under the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, U.S. import duties apply only to the value added in the foreign assembly process, provided that U.S.-made components are used by overseas companies in their assembly operations.

11. Bonded warehouses and foreign trade zones have the effect of allowing domestic importers to postpone and prorate over time their import duty obligations.

12. A nation whose imports constitute a very small portion of the world market supply is a price taker, facing a constant world price for its import commodity.

13. Graphically, consumer surplus is represented by the area above the demand curve and below the product’s market price.

14. Producer surplus is the revenue producers receive over and above the minimum necessary for production.

15. For a “small” country, a tariff raises the domestic price of an imported product by the full amount of the duty.

16. Although an import tariff provides the domestic government additional tax revenue, it benefits domestic consumers at the expense of domestic producers.

17. An import tariff reduces the welfare of a “small” country by an amount equal to the redistribution effect plus the revenue effect.

18. The deadweight losses of an import tariff consist of the protection effect plus the consumption effect.

19. The redistribution effect is the transfer of producer surplus to domestic consumers of the import-competing product.

20. As long as it is assumed that a nation accounts for a negligible portion of international trade, its levying an import tariff necessarily increases its overall welfare.

21. Changes in a “large” country’s economic conditions or trade policies can affect the terms at which it trades with other countries.

22. A “large” country, that levies a tariff on imports, cannot improve the terms at which it trades with other countries.

23. For a “large” country, a tariff on an imported product may be partially absorbed by the domestic consumer via a higher purchase price and partially absorbed by the foreign producer via a lower export price.

24. If a “large” country levies a tariff on an imported good, its overall welfare increases if the monetary value of the tariff’s consumption effect plus protective effect exceeds the monetary value of the terms-of-trade effect.

25. If a “small” country levies a tariff on an imported good, its overall welfare increases if the monetary value of the tariff’s consumption effect plus protective effect is less than the monetary value of the terms-of-trade effect.

26. A tariff on steel imports tends to improve the competitiveness of domestic automobile companies.

27. If a tariff reduces the quantity of Japanese autos imported by the United States, over time it reduces the ability of Japan to import goods from the United States.

28. A compound tariff permits a specified amount of goods to be imported at one tariff rate while any imports above this amount are subjected to a higher tariff rate.

29. A tariff can be thought of as a tax on imported goods.

30. Although tariffs on imported steel may lead to job gains for domestic steel workers, they can lead to job losses for domestic auto workers.

31. Relatively low wages in Mexico make it impossible for U.S. manufacturers of labor-intensive goods to compete against Mexican manufacturers.

32. According to the infant-industry argument, temporary tariff protection granted to an infant industry will help it become competitive in the world market; when international competitiveness is achieved, the tariff should be removed.

Exhibit 4.2

In the absence of international trade, assume that the equilibrium price and quantity of motorcycles in Canada is $14,000 and 10 units respectively. Assuming that Canada is a small country that is unable to affect the world price of motorcycles, suppose its market is opened to international trade. As a result, the price of motorcycles falls to $12,000 and the total quantity demanded rises to 14 units; out of this total, 6 units are produced in Canada while 8 units are imported. Now assume that the Canadian government levies an import tariff of $1,000 on motorcycles.

33. Refer to Exhibit 4.2. As a result of the tariff, the price of imported motorcycles equals $13,000 and imports total 4 cycles.

34. Refer to Exhibit 4.2. The tariff leads to an increase in Canadian consumer surplus totaling $11,000.

35. Refer to Exhibit 4.2. The tariff’s redistribution effect equals $7,000.

36. Refer to Exhibit 4.2. The tariff’s revenue effect equals $6,000.

37. Refer to Exhibit 4.2. All of the import tariff is shifted to the Canadian consumer via a higher price of motorcycles.

38. Refer to Exhibit 4.2. The tariff leads to a deadweight welfare loss for Canada totaling $1,000.

39. Unlike a specific tariff, an ad valorem tariff differentiates between commodities with different values.

40. A limitation of a specific tariff is that it provides a constant level of protection for domestic commodities regardless of fluctuations in their prices over time.

41. A tariff quota is a combination of a specific tariff and an ad valorem tariff.

42. A specific tariff is expressed as a fixed percentage of the total value of an imported product.

43. The protective effect of a tariff occurs to the extent that less efficient domestic production is substituted for more efficient foreign production.

44. A tariff can increase the welfare of a “large” levying country if the favorable terms-of-trade effect more than offsets the unfavorable protective effect and consumption effect.

45. If the world price of steel is $600 per ton, a specific tariff of $120 per ton is equivalent to an ad valorem tariff of 25 percent.

46. An import tariff will worsen the terms of trade for a “small” country but improve the terms of trade for a “large” country.

47. Suppose that the tariff on imported steel is 40 percent, the tariff on imported iron ore is 20 percent, and 30 percent of the cost of producing a ton of steel consists of the iron ore it contains. The effective rate of protection of steel is approximately 49 percent.

48. There is widespread agreement among economists that import tariffs increase overall employment in the levying country.

49. Assume that the United States imports VCRs from South Korea at a price of $200 per unit and that these VCRs are subject to an import tariff of 20 percent. Also assume that U.S. components are used in the VCRs assembled by South Korea and that these components have a value of $100. Under the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, the price of an imported VCR to the U.S. consumer after the tariff has been levied is $220.

50. Assume that the United States imports televisions from Taiwan at a price of $300 per unit and that these televisions are subject to an import tariff of 25 percent. Also assume that U.S. components are used in the televisions assembled by Taiwan and that these components have a value of $100. Under the Offshore Assembly Provision of U.S. tariff policy, the price of an imported television to the U.S. consumer after the tariff has been levied is $375

SHORT ANSWER

1. Can import duties have unintended side effects?

2. What happens to effective protection when the value added by the domestic producer declines?

ESSAY

1. Is it possible for a low nominal tariff rate to understate the effective rate of protection? What is tariff escalation?

2. How can tariffs be justified?

ECO 305 Week 4 Quiz

CHAPTER 5—NONTARIFF TRADE BARRIERS

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The imposition of a tariff on imported steel for the home country results in:
a. Improving terms of trade and rising volume of trade
b. Higher steel prices and falling steel consumption
c. Lower profits for domestic steel companies
d. Higher unemployment for domestic steel workers

2. Which of the following refers to a market-sharing pact negotiated by trading partners to moderate the intensity of international competition?
a. Orderly marketing agreement
b. Local content requirements
c. Import quota
d. Trigger price mechanism

3. Suppose the United States and Japan enter into a voluntary export agreement in which Japan imposes an export quota on its automakers. The largest share of the export quota’s “revenue effect” would tend to be captured by:
a. The U.S. government
b. Japanese automakers
c. American auto consumers
d. American autoworkers

4. Suppose the government grants a subsidy to domestic producers of an import-competing good. The subsidy tends to result in deadweight losses for the domestic economy in the form of the:
a. Consumption effect
b. Redistribution effect
c. Revenue effect
d. Protective effect

5. Tariffs and quotas on imports tend to involve larger sacrifices in national welfare than would occur under domestic subsidies. This is because, unlike domestic subsidies, import tariffs and quotas:
a. Permit less efficient home production
b. Distort choices for domestic consumers
c. Result in higher tax rates for domestic residents
d. Redistribute revenue from domestic producers to consumers

6. Suppose the government grants a subsidy to its export firms that permits them to charge lower prices on goods sold abroad. The export revenue of these firms would rise if the foreign demand is:
a. Elastic in response to the price reduction
b. Inelastic in response to the price reduction
c. Unit elastic in response to the price reduction
d. None of the above

7. Because export subsidies tend to result in domestic exporters charging lower prices on their goods sold overseas, the home country’s:
a. Export revenues will decrease
b. Export revenues will rise
c. Terms of trade will worsen
d. Terms of trade will improve

8. Which trade restriction stipulates the percentage of a product’s total value that must be produced domestically in order for that product to be sold domestically?
a. Import quota
b. Orderly marketing agreement
c. Local content requirement
d. Government procurement policy

9. The imposition of a domestic content requirement by the United States would cause consumer surplus for Americans to:
a. Rise
b. Fall
c. Remain unchanged
d. None of the above

10. Domestic content legislation applied to autos would tend to:
a. Support wage levels of American autoworkers
b. Lower auto prices for American autoworkers
c. Encourage American automakers to locate production overseas
d. Increase profits of American auto companies

11. Compared to an import quota, an equivalent tariff may provide a less certain amount of protection for home producers since:
a. A tariff has no deadweight loss in terms of production and consumption
b. Foreign firms may absorb the tariff by offering exports at lower prices
c. Tariffs are effective only if home demand is perfectly elastic
d. Quotas do not result in increases in the price of the imported good

12. Empirical studies show that because voluntary export quotas are typically administered by exporting countries, foreign exporters tend to:
a. Raise their export prices, thus capturing much of the quota’s revenue effect
b. Lower their export prices, thus losing much of the quota’s revenue effect
c. Raise their export prices, thus selling more goods overseas
d. Lower their export prices, thus selling fewer goods overseas

13. Concerning the restrictive impact of an import quota, assume there occurs an increase in the domestic demand for the import product. As long as the quota falls short of what would be imported under free market conditions, the economy’s adjustment to the increase in demand would take the form of:
a. A decrease in domestic production of the import good
b. An increase in the amount of the good being imported
c. An increase in the domestic price of the import good
d. A decrease in domestic consumption of the import good

14. Assume the U.S. has a competitive advantage in producing calculators, while the rest of the world has a competitive advantage in steel. Suppose the U.S. and the rest of the world enter into an agreement to lower import quotas below existing levels on calculators and steel. Which of the following would least likely occur for the U.S.? Rising levels of:
a. Consumer surplus for American buyers of steel
b. Producer surplus for American steelmakers
c. Production in the American calculator industry
d. Producer surplus for American calculator producers

15. A firm that faces problems of falling sales and excess productive capacity might resort to international dumping if it:
a. Can charge higher prices in markets that are elastic to price changes
b. Earns revenues on foreign sales that at least cover variable costs
c. Can sell at that price where domestic and foreign demand elasticities equate
d. Is able to force foreign prices below marginal production costs

16. A producer successfully practicing international dumping would charge:
a. A relatively higher price in the more inelastic market
b. A relatively higher price in the more elastic market
c. The same price in all markets, regardless of their elasticities
d. Different prices in all markets, regardless of their elasticities

17. The practice of Canadian firms dumping their products in Sweden poses a problem for economic policymakers since dumping tends to:
a. Favor Swedish consumers over Canadian consumers
b. Favor Swedish producers over Canadian producers
c. Become widespread as firms operate at full productive capacity
d. Result in firms charging prices above the total costs of production

18. The United Auto Workers union attempted to win the approval of legislation that would moderate the practice of foreign sourcing on the part of American auto manufacturers. Which of the following best represents this legislation?
a. Voluntary export quotas
b. Trigger price mechanism
c. Tariff quotas
d. Local content laws

19. A main factor behind the president’s decision to extend relief to steel firms in the form of trigger prices was that:
a. Dumping complaints can be time consuming and expensive to implement
b. The Tokyo Round outlawed the granting of subsidies to steel firms
c. Trigger prices involve zero deadweight welfare loss for the economy
d. Orderly marketing agreements were too costly to administer

20. If a tariff and an import quota lead to equivalent increases in the domestic price of steel, then:
a. The quota results in efficiency reductions but the tariff does not
b. The tariff results in efficiency reductions but the quota does not
c. They have different impacts on how much is produced and consumed
d. They have different impacts on how income is distributed

21. If a tariff and an import quota lead to equivalent increases in the domestic price of steel, then:
a. The quota results in efficiency reductions but the tariff does not
b. The tariff results in efficiency reductions but the quota does not
c. They have identical impacts on how much is produced and consumed
d. They have identical impacts on how income is distributed

22. From the perspective of the American public as a whole, export subsidies levied by overseas governments on goods sold to the United States:
a. Help more than they hurt
b. Hurt more than they help
c. Are equivalent to an import quota
d. Are equivalent to an export quota

23. Export subsidies levied by foreign governments on products in which the United States has a comparative disadvantage:
a. Lower the welfare of all Americans
b. Lead to increases in U.S. consumer surplus
c. Encourage U.S. production of competing goods
d. Encourage U.S. workers to demand higher wages

24. If import licenses are auctioned off to domestic importers in a competitive market, their scarcity value (revenue effect) accrues to:
a. Foreign corporations
b. Foreign workers
c. Domestic corporations
d. The domestic government

25. A specification of a maximum amount of a foreign produced good that will be allowed to enter the country over a given time period is referred to as:
a. A domestic subsidy
b. An export subsidy
c. An import quota
d. An export quota

26. Import quotas tend to lead to all of the following except:
a. Domestic producers of the imported good being harmed
b. Domestic consumers of the imported good being harmed
c. Prices increasing in the importing country
d. Prices falling in the exporting country

27. To maintain that South Koreans are dumping their VCRs in the United States is to maintain that:
a. Koreans are selling VCRs in the United States below their production cost
b. Koreans are selling VCRs in the United States above their production cost
c. The cost of manufacturing VCRs in Korea is lower in Korea than in the United States since wages are lower in Korea
d. The cost of manufacturing VCRs in Korea is higher in Korea than in the United States since wages are higher in Korea

28. If the home country’s government grants a subsidy on a domestically produced good, domestic producers tend to:
a. Capture the entire subsidy in the form of higher profits
b. Increase their level of production
c. Reduce wages paid to domestic workers
d. Consider the subsidy as an increase in production cost

29. For years the U.S. government levied quotas on inexpensive oil imported from the Middle East. The quotas led to cost increases for U.S. consumers totaling $3 billion for oil products. An apparent justification for this policy was that:
a. U.S. oil companies and workers deserved higher incomes
b. U.S. oil was of superior quality and merited higher prices
c. One should not be too dependent on foreign suppliers of crucial resources
d. The U.S. government needed the quota revenue to balance its budget

30. In certain industries, Japanese employers do not lay off workers. Therefore, they sometimes have excess supplies of goods that they cannot sell on the home market without lowering prices. To hold down losses, they sell goods in overseas markets at prices well beneath those in Japan. This practice is best referred to as:
a. Orderly marketing
b. Trigger pricing
c. Domestic content pricing
d. Dumping

Figure 5.1 illustrates the steel market for Mexico, assumed to be a “small” country that is unable to affect the world price. Suppose the world price of steel is given and constant at $200 per ton. Now suppose the Mexican steel industry is able to obtain trade protection.

Figure 5.1. Alternative Nontariff Trade Barriers Levied by a “Small” Country

31. Consider Figure 5.1. With free trade, the quantity of steel imported by Mexico equals:
a. 2 tons
b. 4 tons
c. 6 tons
d. 8 tons

32. Consider Figure 5.1. With free trade, Mexico’s consumer surplus and producer surplus respectively equal:
a. $2000 and $1200
b. $3200 and $200
c. $3600 and $800
d. $4000 and $600

33. Referring to Figure 5.1, suppose the Mexican government imposes an import quota equal to 2 tons of steel.

If Mexican steel importers behave as monopoly buyers and foreign exporters behave as competitive sellers, the overall welfare loss of the quota to Mexico equals:
a. $200
b. $400
c. $600
d. $800

34. Referring to Figure 5.1, suppose the Mexican government imposes an import quota equal to 2 tons of steel.

If foreign exporters behave as monopoly sellers, and Mexican importers behave as competitive buyers, the overall welfare loss of the quota to Mexico equals:
a. $200
b. $400
c. $600
d. $800

35. Referring to Figure 5.1, suppose the Mexican government imposes an import quota equal to 2 tons of steel.

If the Mexican government auctions import licenses to the highest foreign bidder, the overall welfare loss of the quota to Mexico equals:
a. $200
b. $400
c. $600
d. $800

36. Consider Figure 5.1. Suppose the Mexican government provides a subsidy of $200 per ton to its steel producers, as indicated by the supply schedule SM (with subsidy).

The quantity of imports equals:
a. 1 ton
b. 2 tons
c. 3 tons
d. 4 tons

37. Consider Figure 5.1. Suppose the Mexican government provides a subsidy of $200 per ton to its steel producers, as indicated by the supply schedule SM (with subsidy).

The total cost of the subsidy to the Mexican government equals:
a. $200
b. $400
c. $600
d. $800

38. Consider Figure 5.1. Suppose the Mexican government provides a subsidy of $200 per ton to its steel producers, as indicated by the supply schedule SM (with subsidy).

As a result of the subsidy Mexican steel producers gain ____ of producer surplus.
a. $200
b. $400
c. $600
d. $800

39. Consider Figure 5.1. Suppose instead that the Mexican government provides a subsidy of $200 per ton to its steel producers, as indicated by the supply schedule SM (with subsidy).

As a result of the subsidy, the welfare loss to Mexico due to inefficient domestic production equals:
a. $200
b. $400
c. $600
d. $800

40. Consider Figure 5.1. Suppose the Mexican government provides a subsidy of $200 per ton to its steel producers, as indicated by the supply schedule SM (with subsidy).

The overall deadweight welfare loss to Mexico equals:
a. $200
b. $400
c. $600
d. $800

41. Consider Figure 5.1. Suppose the rest of the world voluntarily agrees to reduce steel shipments to Mexico vis-a-vis an export quota equal to 2 tons.

Assuming Mexican importers behave as competitive buyers while foreign exporters behave as monopoly sellers, the overall welfare loss of the quota to Mexico is:
a. $200
b. $400
c. $600
d. $800

42. Consider Figure 5.1. Suppose the rest of the world voluntarily agrees to reduce steel shipments to Mexico vis-a-vis an export quota equal to 2 tons.

Assuming Mexican importers behave as monopoly buyers while foreign exporters behave as competitive sellers, the overall welfare loss of the quota to Mexico is:
a. $200
b. $400
c. $600
d. $800

Figure 5.2 illustrates the revenue and cost conditions of ABC Inc. which sells calculators in Canada and France.

Figure 5.2. International Dumping

43. Consider Figure 5.2. In the absence of international dumping, ABC Inc. maximizes profits by selling ____ calculators at a price of $____; the firm realizes profits totaling $____.
a. 27, $5, $54
b. 27, $5, $36
c. 24, $4, $46
d. 24, $4, $28

44. Referring to Figure 5.2, consider if ABC Inc. sells 27 calculators at a price of $5 each, realizing profits totaling $54. Of this quantity, ABC Inc. sells ____ calculators in Canada and realizes revenues totaling $____; the firm sells ____ calculators in France and realizes revenues totaling $____.
a. 15, $35, 9, $45
b. 15, $45, 9, $35
c. 21, $105, 6, $30
d. 21, $30, 6, $105

45. Consider Figure 5.2. With international dumping, ABC Inc. sells ____ calculators to Canadian buyers at a price of $____ and ____ calculators to French buyers at a price of $____.
a. 15, $4, 12, $7
b. 15, $7, 12, $4
c. 9, $5, 15, $6
d. 9, $6, 15, $5

46. Consider Figure 5.2. Compared with the total revenue and total profit that ABC Inc. realizes in the absence of dumping, with dumping the firm attains a:
a. Fall in revenue of $18; fall in profits of $15
b. Fall in revenue of $18, fall in profits of $18
c. Rise in revenue of $18, rise in profits of $15
d. Rise in revenue of $18, rise in profits of $18

Figure 5.3 illustrates the apple market for Sweden, assumed to be a “small” country that is unable to affect the world price. SSweden is the domestic supply and DSweden is the domestic demand. SSweden+Quota is Sweden’s supply schedule with an import quota.

Figure 5.3. Sweden’s Apple Market

47. Consider Figure 5.3. In the absence of trade, Sweden’s equilibrium price and quantity of apples would be:
a. $0.60 and 22 pounds
b. $0.60 and 14 pounds
c. $1.00 and 18 pounds
d. $1.40 and 14 pounds

48. Consider Figure 5.3. Suppose the rest of the world can supply apples to Sweden at a price of $0.60 per pound. With free trade, Sweden produces ____ pounds of apples and imports ____ pounds of apples.
a. 10, 8
b. 10, 18
c. 6, 22
d. 6, 16

49. Consider Figure 5.3. At the free-trade price of $0.60 per pound, Sweden’s consumer surplus totals $____ and producer surplus totals $____.
a. $10.80, $2.40
b. $14.60, $3.90
c. $24.20, $1.80
d. $32.40, $2.30

50. Consider Figure 5.3. If SSweden+Quota represents the supply schedule after a quota is levied, Sweden’s imports will equal:
a. 6 apples
b. 8 apples
c. 10 apples
d. 12 apples

51. Consider Figure 5.3. After the quota is levied, the price of apples in Sweden will equal:
a. $0.60 per pound
b. $1.00 per pound
c. $1.40 per pound
d. $1.80 per pound

52. Consider Figure 5.3. As a result of the quota, Sweden’s consumer surplus:
a. Increases by $6
b. Increases by $8
c. Decreases by $6
d. Decreases by $8

53. Consider Figure 5.3. The quota leads to a deadweight welfare loss for Sweden of an amount equaling:
a. $0.80
b. $1.60
c. $2.40
d. $3.20

54. Consider Figure 5.3. The quota’s revenue effect equals:
a. $1.60
b. $2.40
c. $3.20
d. $4.00

55. Consider Figure 5.3. Assume that Swedish import companies behave as competitive buyers while foreign export companies behave as a monopoly seller. Compared to free trade, Sweden’s import quota results in domestic welfare:
a. Gains totaling $3.20
b. Gains totaling $4.80
c. Losses totaling $3.20
d. Losses totaling $4.80

56. Consider Figure 5.3. Assume that Swedish import companies behave as a monopoly buyer while foreign export companies behave as competitive sellers. Compared to free trade, Sweden’s import quota results in domestic welfare:
a. Gains totaling $1.60
b. Gains totaling $3.20
c. Losses totaling $1.60
d. Losses totaling $3.20

57. Consider Figure 5.3. If the Swedish government auctions import licenses to the highest bidder in a competitive market, it could realize revenues of up to:
a. $3.20
b. $4.00
c. $4.80
d. $5.60

Figure 5.4 illustrates the calculator market for Venezuela, assumed to be a “small” country that is unable to affect the world price. SVenezuela is the domestic supply schedule and DVenezuela is the domestic demand schedule.

Figure 5.4. Venezuelan Calculator Market

58. Consider Figure 5.4. Suppose the rest of the world supplies calculators to Venezuela at a price of $4 each. With free trade, Venezuelan imports total:
a. 8 calculators
b. 16 calculators
c. 20 calculators
d. 24 calculators

59. Consider Figure 5.4. Assume the Venezuelan government grants its manufacturers a production subsidy of $4 per calculator. After the subsidy is granted, Venezuelan imports total:
a. 8 calculators
b. 12 calculators
c. 16 calculators
d. 20 calculators

60. Consider Figure 5.4. The cost of the production subsidy to the Venezuelan government totals:
a. $32
b. $40
c. $48
d. $54

61. Consider Figure 5.4. The increase in Venezuelan producer surplus under the production subsidy totals:
a. $16
b. $20
c. $24
d. $32

62. Consider Figure 5.4. The production subsidy results in an overall welfare loss for Venezuela totaling:
a. $8
b. $12
c. $16
d. $20

63. A voluntary export agreement
a. Typically applies only to the world’s most important exporting nation(s)
b. Typically applies only to the world’s least important exporting nation (s)
c. Is always more restrictive on trade than a tariff or import quota
d. All of the above

64. When voluntary export limits are imposed on the world’s chief exporter
a. The exports of the non-restrained suppliers may be stimulated
b. A trade diversion effect may occur
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

65. Subsidies to domestic firms may lead to
a. An increase in prices
b. Higher volume of exports
c. Higher volume of imports
d. Increase in welfare of the trading partner

66. Concerning international dumping, many economists argue that “fair value” should be based on
a. Average variable cost
b. Average fixed cost
c. Marginal cost
d. Total cost

TRUE/FALSE

1. In the post-World War II era, Nontariff trade barriers have decreased in importance relative to tariff barriers.

2. An import quota is a physical restriction on the quantity of goods that may be imported during a specified time period.

3. Today most industrial countries protect their industries via global import quotas rather than selective import quotas.

4. A global import quota permits a specified number of goods to be imported each year, but does not specify where the product is shipped from and who is permitted to import.

5. Import tariffs and import quotas yield identical protection effects, consumption effects, redistribution effects, and revenue effects.

6. Import quotas can yield revenue for the domestic government if it auctions import licenses to the highest bidder in a competitive market.

7. To the extent that domestic importing companies organize as a monopoly buyer, and foreign exporting companies behave as competitive sellers, the importing companies capture the revenue effect of a quota.

8. An import quota tends to reduce the overall welfare of the importing nation by an amount equal to the protective effect, consumption effect, and the portion of the revenue effect that is captured by the domestic government.

9. The sugar import quotas of the U.S. government have tended to increase the market price of sugar, thus reducing the costs to the government of maintaining sugar price supports for domestic growers.

10. During periods of growing demand, a tariff more effectively restricts the volume of imports than an equivalent import quota.

11. With a quota placed on imported sugar, increased domestic demand leads to increased sugar imports but not to higher sugar prices.

12. With a tariff on auto imports, increased domestic demand leads to a fall in the number of autos imported and a rise in the number of autos produced domestically.

13. An orderly marketing agreement is a market-sharing pact negotiated by trading nations, and its effect is to moderate the intensity of international competition.

14. An elimination of nontariff barriers on apples tends to increase apple imports, reduce profits of import-competing apple producers, and generate job losses for domestic apple workers.

15. The distribution of an import quota’s revenue effect depends on the relative concentration of bargaining power between foreign exporters and domestic importers.

16. Voluntary export restraint agreements typically apply to all of the world’s exporting nations rather than only the most important exporting nations.

17. For an export quota applied to manufactured goods, foreign exporters tend to capture only a negligible share of the quota’s revenue effect.

18. When increases in nonrestraint supply offset part of the cutback in shipments that occur under an export quota, the overall inefficiency loss for the importing country is less than that which would have occurred in the absence of nonrestrained exports.

19. Export quotas, placed on Japanese auto shipments to the United States in the 1980s, led to rising prices of both Japanese autos and U.S.-produced autos purchased by the U.S. consumer.

20. Under the Multifiber Arrangement, the United States can export only limited quantities of textiles and apparel to Taiwan, Hong Kong, South Korea, and China.

21. During the 1980s, U.S. steel-using companies (Caterpillar) actively supported the U.S. government’s negotiation of voluntary export agreements with foreign steel-exporting countries.

22. By limiting the amount of foreign sourcing, local content laws are viewed as a means of jobs preservation for domestic workers.

23. Local content laws stipulate the maximum percentage of a product’s total value that must be produced domestically for that product to be sold domestically.

24. Local content laws are consistent with the principle of import substitution, in which domestic production replaces the importation of goods from abroad.

25. To the extent that a local content requirement forces firms to locate production in a high-cost nation, product price rises and consumer surplus falls.

26. A subsidy granted to import-competing producers results in a welfare loss to the economy by an amount equal to the protective effect plus the consumption effect.

27. A subsidy granted to import-competing producers is intended to lead to increased domestic production and decreased imports for the home country.

28. A subsidy granted to an import-competing producer shifts its supply schedule outward to the right.

29. A subsidy granted to an import-competing producer imposes a deadweight loss on the domestic economy equal to the redistribution effect plus consumption effect.

30. A subsidy granted to import-competing producers reduces overall domestic welfare by the same amount as would a tariff or quota that restricts imports by the same amount.

31. To the extent that subsidies granted to exporting firms reduce the foreign price of their goods, the subsidizing country’s terms of trade worsen.

32. If the U.S. demand for Korean steel is price elastic, an export subsidy granted to Korean steel firms will increase Korea’s export revenue.

33. International dumping occurs when foreign buyers are charged higher prices than domestic buyers for an identical product, after allowing for transportation costs and tariff duties.

34. Sporadic (distress) dumping would occur if domestic orange producers dispose of an excess quantity of oranges, resulting from an abnormally large harvest, by selling them at lower prices abroad than at home.

35. Predatory dumping would occur if Toyota Inc. of Japan sells autos to U.S. consumers at lower prices than to Japanese consumers in order to put Chrysler Inc. out of business.

36. A firm would increase profits from dumping if it charges a lower price at home, where demand is inelastic, and a higher price abroad where demand is elastic.

37. The purpose of international dumping is to decrease a firm’s costs and increase its profits, compared to what would be realized in the absence of dumping.

38. A firm granting lifetime employment to its workers has the incentive to engage in international dumping during periods of business recession and excess production capacity.

39. A firm suffering idle plant capacity would minimize losses by selling its product abroad at a lower price than at home, provided that the foreign price more than covers average variable cost.

40. Under U.S. antidumping law, an antidumping duty can be levied when the U.S. Commerce Department determines that a foreign product is being sold in the United States at less than fair value and the U.S. International Trade Commission determines that the dumped product is causing economic harm to domestic producers.

41. The margin of dumping equals the amount by which the foreign price is greater than the domestic price, or the amount by which the foreign price exceeds the cost of production.

42. For most nations, the ratio of imports to total purchases in the public sector is much higher than in the private sector.

43. According to the U.S. Buy American Act, federal government agencies cannot purchase materials and products from U.S. suppliers if their prices are higher than those of foreign competitors.

44. For the United States, the Buy American Act has tended to increase consumer surplus for U.S. buyers of protected merchandise.

45. An effective Buy American law would tend to increase U.S. producer surplus at the expense of U.S. consumer surplus.

46. An effective Buy American law results in deadweight welfare losses for the United States in the form of the protective effect and consumption effect.

47. Although the Tokyo Round of international trade negotiations reduced the Buy-American restrictions of the U.S. government, many state governments have maintained restrictive Buy-American policies.

48. According to the cost-based definition of dumping, dumping begins to occur when a firm sells a product at a price that is less than average variable cost.

49. If the Japanese demand for computers is elastic and the Canadian demand for computers is inelastic, a profit-maximizing firm would charge a higher price to Canadian buyers than to Japanese buyers.

50. If the Australian government imposes a domestic content requirement of 75 percent on autos, at least 25 percent of an auto’s value must be produced in a foreign country if that auto is to be sold in Australia.

51. During the 1980s, the U.S. government imposed sugar import quotas in an attempt to reduce its costs of maintaining price supports for U.S. sugar growers.

Figure 5.5 illustrates the television market for Mexico, assumed to be a small country that is unable to affect the world price. SMexico is the domestic supply schedule and DMexico is the domestic demand schedule. Suppose that Japan can supply televisions to Mexico at a price of $100 per set.

Figure 5.5. Mexico’s Television Market

52. Consider Figure 5.5. With free trade, Mexicans produce 4 TVs, consume 24 TVs, and import 20 TVs.

53. Consider Figure 5.5. With free trade, Mexican producer surplus equals $2450 and Mexican consumer surplus equals $200.

54. Consider Figure 5.5. Suppose that the governments of Mexico and Japan negotiate a voluntary export agreement in which Japanese TV exports to Mexico are limited to 8 units. Under the quota, the price of TVs in Mexico equals $250 while Mexicans produce 10 TVs and purchase 18 TVs.

55. Consider Figure 5.5. Compared to free trade, the Japanese export quota leads to an increase in Mexican consumer surplus of $3150.

56. Consider Figure 5.5. Compared to free trade, the Japanese export quota leads to an increase in Mexican producer surplus of $1050.

57. Consider Figure 5.5. The deadweight welfare loss to Mexico, as a result of the Japanese export quota, totals $1200.

58. Consider Figure 5.5. The Japanese export quota’s revenue effect totals $1200.

59. Consider Figure 5.5. The government of Mexico collects 50 percent of the export quota’s revenue effect, or $600, in the form of tax revenue.

60. Consider Figure 5.5. Assuming that the revenue effect of the export quota accrues to Japanese firms, the overall welfare loss to Mexico equals $2100 as a result of the quota.

SHORT ANSWER

1. Is a tariff-rate quota a two-tier tariff? Why?

2. What is an OMA?

ESSAY

1. Describe some of the differences between tariffs and quotas?

2. What are the intent and impact of domestic content requirements?

CHAPTER 6—TRADE REGULATIONS AND INDUSTRIAL POLICIES

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The World Trade Organization was established by the ____ of multilateral trade negotiations:
a. Kennedy Round
b. Tokyo Round
c. Uruguay Round
d. Clinton Round

2. Under U.S. commercial policy, the escape clause results in:
a. Temporary quotas granted to firms injured by import competition
b. Tariffs that offset export subsidies granted to foreign producers
c. Tax advantages extended to minority-owned exporting firms
d. Duties which offset commercial dumping on the part of foreign firms

3. Adjustment assistance is sometimes used to assist:
a. In retraining workers displaced by imports
b. In retraining workers displaced by exports
c. Foreign firms injured by our quotas
d. Foreign firms injured by our tariffs

4. The Export-Import Bank of the United States encourages American firms to sell overseas by providing direct loans and loan guarantees to foreign purchasers of American goods. To American firms, this represents a:
a. Specific subsidy
b. Ad valorem subsidy
c. Domestic subsidy
d. Export subsidy

5. The Smoot-Hawley Tariff Act of 1930 has generally been associated with:
a. Falling tariffs
b. Increases in the volume of trade
c. Intensifying the worldwide depression
d. Efforts to liberalize nontariff trade barriers

6. A trade policy designed to alleviate some domestic economic problem by exporting it to foreign countries is known as a (an):
a. International dumping policy
b. Trade adjustment assistance policy
c. Most-favored-nation policy
d. Beggar-thy-neighbor policy

7. Under U.S. commercial policy, which clause permits the modification of a trade liberalization agreement on a temporary basis if serious injury occurs to domestic producers as a result of the agreement?
a. Adjustment assistance clause
b. Escape clause
c. Most-favored-nation clause
d. Reciprocal-trade clause

8. Which policy reflects the notion that if society enjoys gains due to increased efficiency stemming from trade liberalization, some sort of compensation should be provided to those who are temporarily hurt by import competition?
a. Countervailing duties
b. Trade adjustment assistance
c. Domestic subsidies
d. Most-favored-nation standard

9. The Uruguay Round of Multilateral Trade Negotiations accomplished all of the following except:
a. Placed primary emphasis on nontariff trade barriers
b. Is estimated to yield modest gains in world output and employment
c. Achieved cuts in tariffs but not in nontariff trade barriers
d. Abolished all barriers to trade in agricultural products

10. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade and its successor, the World Trade Organization, have resulted in:
a. Termination of export subsidies applied to manufactured goods
b. Termination of import tariffs applied to manufactured goods
c. Encouragement of beggar-thy-neighbor policies
d. Reductions in trade barriers via multilateral negotiations

11. For the United States, which organization makes loans to foreign buyers of U.S. manufactured goods?
a. Export-Import Bank
b. Domestic International Sales Corporation
c. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
d. Commodity Credit Corporation

12. The high point of U.S. protection culminated with the passage of the:
a. Smoot-Hawley Act of 1930
b. General Agreements on Tariffs and Trade in 1947
c. Trade Reduction Act of 1962
d. Adjustment Assistance Act of 1970

13. Countervailing duties are intended to neutralize any unfair advantage that foreign exporters might gain over domestic producers because of foreign:
a. Tariffs
b. Subsidies
c. Quotas
d. Buy-national policies

14. Trade theory suggests that the United States would gain from a subsidy provided by Japan to its calculator producers if the gains to American consumers of calculators more than offset the losses to American calculator producers. This occurs as long as the United States:
a. Is a net importer of calculators
b. Is a net exporter of calculators
c. Has an absolute advantage in calculator production
d. Has a comparative advantage in calculator production

15. Under the original provisions of the Reciprocal Trade Agreements Act, the president of the United States was authorized to cut tariffs up to:
a. 10 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 75 percent
d. 100 percent

16. The U.S. “trade-remedy laws” could establish all of the following except:
a. Import tariffs to protect U.S. firms seriously injured by foreign competition
b. Countervailing duties which neutralize foreign export subsidies
c. Antidumping duties which protect U.S. firms from imports sold at less-than-fair-value
d. Economic sanctions levied against hostile nations

17. The principle of normal trade relations (most-favored-nation)treatment was established with the passage of the:
a. Fordney-McCumber Act of 1922
b. Smoot-Hawley Act of 1930
c. Reciprocal Trade Agreements Act of 1934
d. Trade Act of 1974

18. Throughout the post-World War II era, the importance of tariffs as a trade barrier has:
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Remained the same
d. None of the above

19. As a way of helping American firms trade in the world market, U.S. trade law provides antitrust exemptions for horizontal combinations of American firms engaged solely in export trade. Such firms are permitted to form:
a. Export trade associations
b. Domestic international sales corporations
c. Export-import banks
d. Commodity sales corporations

20. ____ attempt to produce a fair and free-trading environment in which there exists a level playing field.
a. Trade-remedy laws
b. Industrial policies
c. Strategic trade policies
d. Economic sanctions

21. Suppose the United States imposes trade sanctions (export quotas) on grain sold to the Russians. Assuming other nations do not increase grain exports to the Russians, all of the following would occur except:
a. Grain prices would rise in Russia
b. Consumer surplus would decrease for the Russians
c. Grain prices would rise in the United States
d. Export revenues would decrease for U.S. producers

22. In 1980 the United States announced an embargo on grain exports to the Soviet Union in response to the Soviet armed invasion of Afghanistan. The embargo was mainly resisted by:
a. U.S. grain consumers and producers of bread
b. U.S. farmers and grain companies
c. Grain producers in foreign countries
d. Grain consumers in foreign countries

23. Export embargoes induce greater losses in consumer surplus for the target country:
a. The lesser its initial dependence on foreign produced goods
b. The more elastic the target country’s demand schedule
c. The greater the available output from alternative suppliers
d. The more inelastic the target country’s supply schedule

24. Suppose the president lowers tariffs on radios as the result of negotiations under the trade agreements program. Radio producers in the United States can appeal under the:
a. Escape clause if rising imports substantially injure the U.S. radio industry
b. Escape clause if rising unemployment occurs even though imports remain unchanged
c. Infant industry clause if rising imports cause unemployment to rise among U.S. radio workers
d. Infant industry clause if rising imports result in losses for U.S. radio companies

25. During the past four decades:
a. Nontariff barriers (NTBs) and tariffs have increased in importance
b. NTBs and tariffs have decreased in importance
c. NTBs have increased and tariffs have decreased in importance
d. NTBs have decreased and tariffs have increased in importance

26. The strongest political pressure for a trade policy that results in higher protectionism comes from:
a. Domestic workers lobbying for import restrictions
b. Domestic workers lobbying for export restrictions
c. Domestic consumers lobbying for export restrictions
d. Domestic consumers lobbying for import restrictions

27. The Uruguay Round of trade negotiations was primarily concerned with:
a. Import tariffs
b. Export tariffs
c. Economic sanctions
d. Nontariff trade barriers

28. The Uruguay Round of trade negotiations lowered:
a. Trade sanctions levied against South Africa
b. Trade sanctions levied against the Soviet Union
c. Tariffs, but not nontariff trade barriers
d. Tariffs as well as nontariff trade barriers

29. The average tariff rate today on dutiable imports in the United States is approximately:
a. 5 percent of the value of imports
b. 15 percent of the value of imports
c. 20 percent of the value of imports
d. 25 percent of the value of imports

30. Those who argue in favor of import protection generally give the impression that such restricted trade will:
a. Decrease the level of national security
b. Provide benefits to some particular industry
c. Provide benefits to the entire nation
d. Not yield welfare losses for the nation

31. In 1990 the United States and its allies imposed trade embargoes on exports/imports to/from Iraq in response to its invasion of Kuwait. The embargoes would induce smaller losses in Iraq’s consumer surplus the:
a. Lesser its initial dependence on foreign products
b. Less elastic Iraq’s demand schedule
c. Lesser the available output from alternative suppliers
d. More inelastic Iraq’s supply schedule

32. In U.S. trade law, Section 301 cases involve accusations of:
a. International dumping by U.S. companies
b. Full-cost pricing by U.S. companies
c. Unfair trade practices by foreign nations
d. Trade embargoes by foreign nations

33. Industrial policy attempts to fulfill all of the following objectives except:
a. Improving the infrastructure for an industry
b. Easing transitions for workers in declining industries
c. Supporting troubled industries if the difficulty is temporary
d. Fostering industries which offer long-run comparative disadvantage

34. Countervailing duties may be imposed:
a. In response to a foreign export subsidy
b. In response to a foreign antidumping tariff
c. To promote exports of domestic companies
d. To promote imports of domestic consumers

35. The World Trade Organization provides for all of the following except:
a. The usage of the normal-trade-relation (most-favored-nation) clause
b. Assistance in the settlement of trade disagreements
c. Multilateral tariff reductions
d. Bilateral tariff reductions

36. In U.S. trade law, which measure permits the levying of restrictions on fairly traded imports that harm or threaten to harm American manufacturers?
a. Antidumping duty
b. Countervailing duty
c. National security clause
d. Escape clause

37. Which international organization stipulates procedures for the settlement of international trade disputes?
a. World Trade Organization
b. World Bank
c. International Monetary Fund
d. Organization of Economic Development

38. The most recent round of multilateral trade negotiations is the:
a. Kennedy Round
b. Tokyo Round
c. Doha Round
d. Geneva Round

39. In 1986 the United States enacted the Comprehensive Anti-Apartheid Act which provided for all of the following except the termination of:
a. New U.S. loans to the South African government
b. New U.S. investment in South Africa
c. U.S. imports of South African gold coins
d. U.S. imports of all South African goods

Assume Boeing Inc. (of the United States) and Airbus Industrie (of Europe) rival for monopoly profits in the Canadian aircraft market. Suppose the two firms face identical cost and demand conditions, as seen in Figure 6.1.

Figure 6.1. Strategic Trade Policy: Boeing versus Airbus

40. Referring to Figure 6.1, assume that Boeing is the first to enter the Canadian market. Without a governmental subsidy, the firm maximizes profits by selling ____ aircraft at a price of $____, and realizes profits totaling $____.
a. 4, $12 million, $16 million
b. 4, $16 million, $12 million
c. 8, $12 million, $16 million
d. 8, $16 million, $12 million

41. Consider Figure 6.1. At the monopoly price as established by Boeing, Canadian consumers realize $____ of consumer surplus from the availability of aircraft.
a. $4 million
b. $8 million
c. $12 million
d. $16 million

42. Consider Figure 6.1. Suppose the European government provides Airbus a subsidy of $4 million on each aircraft manufactured, and that the subsidy convinces Boeing to exit the Canadian market. As the monopoly seller, Airbus maximizes profit by selling ____ aircraft at a price of $____, and realizes profits totaling $____.
a. 6, $10 million, $36 million
b. 6, $12 million, $24 million
c. 12, $10 million, $36 million
d. 12, $12 million, $24 million

43. Referring to Figure 6.1, the total cost of the Airbus subsidy to the European taxpayer equals:
a. $16 million
b. $20 million
c. $24 million
d. $28 million

44. Referring to Figure 6.1, the Airbus subsidy leads to a (an) increase/decrease in Canadian consumer surplus of $____, as compared to the consumer surplus that existed in the absence of a subsidy.
a. Increase of $8 million
b. Increase of $10 million
c. Decrease of $8 million
d. Decrease of $10 million

45. Consider Figure 6.1. For Europe as a whole (Airbus and European taxpayers), the subsidy leads to a (an) increase/decrease in net revenues of $____.
a. Increase of $12 million
b. Increase of $16 million
c. Decrease of $12 million
d. Decrease of $16 million

Figure 6.2 illustrates the calculator market for Mexico, assumed to be a small nation that is unable influence the South Korean (world) price. Assume the South Korean price to be $60 per calculator.

Figure 6.2. Effects of an Export Subsidy

46. Consider Figure 6.2. With free trade, Mexican consumers purchase ____ calculators, Mexican firms produce ____ calculators, and ____ calculators are imported.
a. 10, 4, 6
b. 10, 6, 4
c. 10, 8, 2
d. 10, 2, 8

47. Consider Figure 6.2. With free trade, Mexicans attain $____ of consumer surplus from the availability of calculators, while Mexican producer surplus equals $____.
a. $400, $200
b. $200, $400
c. $500, $180
d. $500, $240

48. Consider Figure 6.2. To help its firms further penetrate export markets, suppose the South Korean government provides them a production subsidy of $20 per calculator. With the subsidy, South Korean firms charge a price of $____ and export ____ calculators to Mexico.
a. $40, 8
b. $40, 10
c. $20, 8
d. $20, 10

49. Consider Figure 6.2. The South Korean subsidy helps/hurts Mexican manufacturers, since their producer surplus rises/falls by $____.
a. Helps, rises, $60
b. Helps, rises, $100
c. Hurts, falls, $60
d. Hurts, falls, $100

50. Consider Figure 6.2. As a result of the South Korean subsidy, Mexicans find their consumer surplus:
a. Rising by $160
b. Rising by $220
c. Falling by $160
d. Falling by $220

51. Consider Figure 6.2. For Mexico’s producers and consumers as a whole, the South Korean subsidy leads to a:
a. $120 welfare gain
b. $320 welfare gain
c. $120 welfare loss
d. $320 welfare loss

Figure 6.3 represents the Iraqi computer market. Assume Iraq purchases all of its computers from the United States.

Figure 6.3 Iraqi Computer Market and Economic Sanctions

52. Consider Figure 6.3. With free trade, Iraq purchases ____ computers at a price of $____, and realizes $____ of consumer surplus from the availability of computers.
a. 30, $3,000, $25,000
b. 30, $3,000, $35,000
c. 30, $3,000, $45,000
d. 30, $3,000, $55,000

53. Consider Figure 6.3. In response to Iraq’s armed invasion of neighboring countries, suppose the United States imposes a partial embargo that limits exports to Iraq to 10 computers. The export quota leads to an increase/decrease in the price of computers equal to $____, and an increase/decrease in consumer surplus equal to $____.
a. Increase, $2000, decrease, $40,000
b. Increase, $4000, decrease, $60,000
c. Decrease, $2000, increase, $40,000
d. Decrease, $4000, increase, $60,000

54. Consider Figure 6.3. Of the quota-induced change in Iraqi consumer surplus, $____ is not transferred to other sectors of Iraq’s economy and represents deadweight loss.
a. $5000
b. $10,000
c. $15,000
d. $20,000

55. Consider Figure 6.3. Of the quota-induced change in Iraqi consumer surplus, the amount of the change in Iraq’s consumer surplus that is transferred to other sectors of Iraq’s economy is captured by the United States as:
a. Tax revenue
b. Export revenue
c. Producer surplus
d. Consumer surplus

56. Consider Figure 6.3. For the United States, the export quota results in a (an):
a. Improvement in its terms of trade with Iraq
b. Increase in its export revenue
c. Increase in domestic computer prices
d. Decrease in domestic consumer surplus

57. The implicit industrial policies of the U.S. government have included:
a. Formulating industry-specific economic policies designed to promote national champions
b. Nationalizing basic industries such as steel and autos
c. Encouraging cartelization of aircraft and aluminum manufacturers
d. Improving the setting for industry such as communications and infrastructure

58. Economic sanctions are most effective in causing the target nation to modify its behavior when the:
a. Target nation had negligible economic relationships with the imposing nation prior to the sanctions
b. People of the target nation have weak cultural ties to the people of the imposing nation
c. Sanctions are levied by a large number of nations
d. Target government is supported by the majority of its people

59. In 1995 the ____ was established to administer the new global trade rules agreed in the Uruguay Round of multilateral trade negotiations.
a. World Trade Organization
b. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
c. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
d. United Nations

60. In 1995 the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade was replaced by the ____.
a. Agency for International Development
b. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
c. United Nations Center for Trade and Development
d. World Trade Organization

61. The most important determinants of sanctions include
a. Cultural factors including nationalistic attitudes
b. Strength of political opposition in the targeting nation
c. The number of nations imposing sanctions
d. All of the above

62. Industrial policies
a. Require formal explicit efforts by governments
b. May be implicit
c. Have never been used by the U.S. government
d. Both a and b

63. Trade adjustment assistance policies
a. Can resolve all workers’ challenges to free trade
b. Attempt to share gains from free trade with disadvantaged workers
c. Have never been used to sustain a losing business concern
d. Are financed by state and local tax revenues

64. The United States
a. Has been a heavy user of antidumping laws to protect domestic producers
b. Has rarely used antidumping laws to protect domestic producers
c. Has targeted antidumping action against China, Japan, Canada, Italy, and Germany
d. Both a and c

TRUE/FALSE

1. The high point of U.S. protectionism occurred with the passage of the Kennedy Act in the 1960s.

2. With the passage of the Smoot-Hawley Act in 1930, U.S. average tariffs were raised to over 50 percent on protected imports.

3. Proponents of the Smoot-Hawley Act of 1930 viewed it as a means of combating domestic unemployment.

4. It is generally agreed that the Smoot-Hawley Act of 1930 led to improvements in U.S. exports and an overall increase in U.S. output and employment.

5. According to the Reciprocal Trade Agreements Act of 1934, the President could lower tariffs by up to 10 percent of the existing level without congressional approval.

6. Under the normal-trade-relations (most-favored-nation) principle, two nations agree to apply tariffs to each other at rates as low as those applied to any other nation.

7. According to the normal-trade-relations (most-favored-nation) principle, if the United States extends MFN treatment to China and then grants a low tariff on imports of shirts from South Korea, the United States is obligated to provide the identical low-tariff on imports of shirts from China.

8. U.S. tariffs on imports from countries issued normal-trade-relations (most-favored-nation) status are often three or four times as high as those on comparable imports from nations not receiving that status.

9. According to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade and its successor, the World Trade Organization, only bilateral trade negotiations can take place between a country and its trading partners.

10. Members of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade and its successor, the World trade through Trade Organization, agree to the principle of nondiscrimination in trade and the reduction of trade barriers by multilateral negotiations.

11. The Uruguay Round of trade negotiations resulted in the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade being succeeded by the World Trade Organization.

12. The only members of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade and its successor, the World Trade Organization, are developing countries rather than developed countries.

13. According to the fast-track provision of U.S. trade law, once the President has completed trade negotiations, their outcome is subject to a vote (without amendment) in Congress within 90 legislative days of submission.

14. The fast-track provision of U.S. trade law has the affect of speeding up the timetable during which the President negotiates trade agreements with foreign governments.

15. The main focus of the Uruguay Round of multilateral trade negotiations was on tariff barriers rather than nontariff trade barriers.

16. Although the Uruguay Round of multilateral trade negotiations succeeded in reducing nontariff trade barriers, it could not achieve reductions in tariff trade barriers.

17. Among the codes of conduct addressed at the Tokyo Round of multilateral trade negotiations were customs valuation, product standards, subsidies and countervailing duties, government procurement policies, and import licensing procedures.

18. Under the government procurement policy of the World Trade Organization, federal-state-local governments are prevented from discriminating in favor of the products of domestic suppliers on contracts valued at $1 million and more.

19. Unlike the Tokyo Round of multilateral trade negotiations, the Uruguay Round addressed the issues of intellectual property protection, trade barriers in services, and agricultural subsidies.

20. The U.S. trade-remedy laws attempt to redress hardships for U.S. firms resulting from actions and policies of foreign firms and governments.

21. According to U.S. trade law, the escape clause provides relief to U.S. firms due to unfair foreign competition.

22. According to the escape clause, temporary trade restrictions may be imposed in industries where domestic producers are substantially being harmed by surging imports.

23. The purpose of “countervailing duties,” as levied by the domestic government, is to neutralize import tariffs imposed by foreign governments.

24. Under the provisions of the World Trade Organization, Canada would have the right to impose countervailing duties on imports of South Korean steel when the South Korean government provides export subsidies to its steelmakers.

25. Economic theory suggests that if France is a net importer of automobiles, whose production is subsidized by the Korean government, the overall welfare of France decreases because of the Korean subsidy.

26. An antidumping duty levied on imports of foreign-produced steel leads to an increase in consumer surplus in the home country.

27. U.S. antidumping duties are intended to neutralize exports to the United States at prices below average total cost or exports to the United States at prices lower than those charged in the exporter’s home market.

28. Intellectual property refers to holdings of rare books and pieces of art that are traded on the world market.

29. Copyrights, trademarks, and patents are used to protect the intellectual property of a nation from foreign imitators.

30. Under the trade adjustment assistance program, a domestic firm or worker can file for governmental assistance only if it demonstrates that it suffered economic hardship due to imports of foreign-subsidized goods.

31. Industrial policy attempts to foster the development of industries that offer long-run comparative disadvantages and which are insulated from other sectors of the economy.

32. During the post World War II era, the United States has adopted explicit industrial policies similar to those of France and Japan.

33. Industrial policies of the U.S. government have included subsidizing particular firms to promote national champions, nationalizing basic industries, and encouraging cartelization of industries.

34. The Export-Import Bank provides export-credit subsidies to U.S. producers of agricultural goods.

35. Major beneficiaries of export-credit subsidies, granted by the Export-Import Bank, have included U.S. producers of aircraft, telecommunications, and power-generating equipment.

36. The Commodity Credit Corporation makes available export credit financing for U.S. agricultural exports.

37. As a way of helping U.S. business firms trade in the world market on a more equal terms with their organized foreign competitors, the U.S. government permits them to form export trade associations and export trading companies.

38. If the U.S. government pursued a “knowledge-based growth policy,” it would subsidize particular firms to help them compete in the world economy.

39. In the post World War II era, the Japanese government formed industrial policies to encourage the development of its steel, auto, shipbuilding, and machine tool industries.

40. Unlike Japan and the United States, France has refrained from forming explicit industrial policies to enhance the competitiveness of its national champions.

41. According to the strategic- trade- policy hypothesis, governmental subsidies granted to domestic producers can help them in capturing economic profits from foreign competitors.

42. The strategic-trade-policy hypothesis assumes that domestic firms operate under increasing cost conditions as well as in perfectly competitive markets.

43. According to the strategic-trade-policy hypothesis, government can alter the terms of competition to favor domestic companies, thus increasing their profits at the expense of their rivals.

44. The classical theory of comparative advantage assumes that firms operate in imperfectly competitive markets, while the theory of strategic trade policy assumes that firms operate in perfectly competitive markets.

45. According to the strategic-trade-policy hypothesis, a subsidy granted to domestic exporters may lead to increased export profits which more than offset the cost of the subsidy to domestic taxpayers.

46. By reducing available supplies of a product, an export embargo leads to falling prices in the target nation and increasing target-nation consumer surplus.

47. Assume that the United States is the only supplier of grain to China and that it levies a partial export embargo against China. The embargo leads to increased U.S. welfare if the resulting improvement in the U.S. terms of trade with China more than offset the costs of the lower export volume to China.

48. Economic sanctions are most effective in pressuring the target country to modify its behavior when the sanctions are imposed by a small number of countries and when the target country had weak economic ties to the imposing countries before the sanctions were initiated.

49. It is widely recognized that the economic sanctions levied against Iraq in 1990 were a major factor causing Iraq to withdraw its military forces from Kuwait.

50. Assume that Russia has a comparative advantage in vodka. If the United States extends Russia the benefits of the normal-trade-relations (most favored nation)principle, U.S. consumer surplus decreases in the vodka market.

51. Assume that the United States imports chemicals from Germany. Trade theory predicts that if the German government grants an export subsidy to its chemical firms, the overall welfare of the United States will increase.

52. Concerning industrial policy, the United States has nationalized its major industries in an attempt to promote global champions.

53. The Uruguay Round of multilateral trade negotiations succeeded in establishing the World Trade Organization.

54. Established in 1995, the World Trade Organization took charge of administering the new global trade rules agreed in the Uruguay Round of multilateral trade negotiations.

55. The World Trade Organization brings into the multilateral trading system manufactured goods and agricultural products, but not trade in services, intellectual property protection, and investment.

56. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade was founded in 1995 as a successor to the World Trade Organization.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is the essential idea behind strategic trade policy?

2. What is the basis for trade adjustment assistance?

ESSAY

1. Has industrial policy contributed significantly to Japan’s economic growth?

2. Explain how advocates of strategic trade policy differ from the classical free traders in their treatment of externalities?

ECO 305 Week 5 Quiz

CHAPTER 7—TRADE POLICIES FOR THE DEVELOPING NATIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is not a major factor that encourages developing nations to form international commodity agreements?
a. Inelastic commodity supply schedules
b. Inelastic commodity demand schedules
c. Export markets that tend to be unstable
d. Secular increases in their terms of trade

2. International commodity agreements do not:
a. Consist of consuming and producing nations who desire market stability
b. Levy export cutbacks so as to offset rising commodity prices
c. Utilize buffer stocks to generate commodity price stability
d. Increase the supply of commodities to prevent rising prices

3. Concerning the price elasticities of supply and demand for commodities, empirical estimates suggest that most commodities have:
a. Inelastic supply schedules and inelastic demand schedules
b. Inelastic supply schedules and elastic demand schedules
c. Elastic supply schedules and inelastic demand schedules
d. Elastic supply schedules and elastic demand schedules

4. If the demand schedule for bauxite is relatively inelastic to price changes, an increase in the supply schedule of bauxite will cause a:
a. Decrease in price and a decrease in sales revenue
b. Decrease in price and an increase in sales revenue
c. Increase in price and a decrease in sales revenue
d. Increase in price and an increase in sales revenue

5. A primary goal of international commodity agreements has been the:
a. Maximization of members’ revenues via export taxes
b. Nationalization of corporations operating in member nations
c. Adoption of tariff protection against industrialized nation sellers
d. Moderation of commodity price fluctuations when markets are unstable

6. Which device has the International Tin Agreement utilized as a way of stabilizing tin prices?
a. Multilateral contracts
b. Export subsidies
c. Buffer stocks
d. Export tariffs

7. Which method has not generally been used by the international commodity agreements to stabilize commodity prices?
a. Production quotas applied to the level of commodity output
b. Buffer stock arrangements among producing nations
c. Export restrictions applied to international sales of commodities
d. Measures to nationalize foreign-owned production operations

8. The OPEC nations during the 1970s manifested their market power by utilizing:
a. Export tariffs levied for revenue purposes
b. Export tariffs levied for protective purposes
c. Import tariffs levied for protective purposes
d. Import tariffs levied for revenue purposes

9. One factor that has prevented the formation of cartels for producers of commodities is that:
a. The demand for commodities tends to be price inelastic
b. Substitute products exist for many commodities
c. Commodity produces have been able to dominate world markets
d. Production of most commodities is capital intensive

10. Which device has been used by the International Wheat Agreement to stipulate the minimum prices at which importers will buy stipulated quantities from producers and the maximum prices at which producers will sell stipulated quantities to importers?
a. Buffer stocks
b. Export controls
c. Multilateral contracts
d. Production controls

11. If the bauxite exporting countries form a cartel to boost the price of bauxite so as to increase sales revenue, they believe that the demand for bauxite:
a. Is inelastic with respect to price changes
b. Is elastic with respect to price changes
c. Will increase in response to a price increase
d. Will not change in response to a price change

12. If the supply schedule for tin is relatively inelastic to price changes, a decrease in the demand schedule for tin will cause a:
a. Decrease in price and an increase in sales revenue
b. Decrease in price and a decrease in sales revenue
c. Increase in price and an increase in sales revenue
d. Increase in price and a decrease in sales revenue

13. Which of the following could partially explain why the terms of trade of developing countries might deteriorate over time?
a. Developing-country exports mainly consist of manufactured goods
b. Developing-country imports mainly consist of primary products
c. Commodity export prices are determined in highly competitive markets
d. Commodity export prices are solely determined by developing countries

14. Which terms-of-trade concept emphasizes a nation’s capacity to import?
a. Income terms of trade
b. Commodity terms of trade
c. Barter terms of trade
d. Price terms of trade

15. Which trade strategy have developing countries used to restrict imports of manufactured goods so that the domestic market is preserved for home producers, who thus can take over markets already established in the country?
a. International commodity agreement
b. Export promotion
c. Multilateral contract
d. Import substitution

16. Which trade strategy have developing countries used to replace commodity exports with exports such as processed primary products, semi-manufacturers, and manufacturers?
a. Multilateral contract
b. Buffer stock
c. Export promotion
d. Export quota

17. To help developing countries expand their industrial base, some industrial countries have reduced tariffs on designated manufactured imports from developing countries below the levels applied to imports from industrial countries. This scheme is referred to as:
a. Generalized system of preferences
b. Export-led growth
c. International commodity agreement
d. Reciprocal trade agreement

18. Which nation accounts for the largest amount of OPEC’s oil reserves and production?
a. Iran
b. Libya
c. Iraq
d. Saudi Arabia

19. Assuming identical cost and demand curves, OPEC as a cartel will, in comparison to a competitive industry:
a. Produce greater output and charge a lower price
b. Produce greater output and charge a higher price
c. Produce less output and charge a higher price
d. Produce less output and charge a lower price

20. Which of the following situations reduces the likelihood of successful operation of a cartel?
a. Cartel sales experience a rapid expansion
b. The demand for cartel output is price inelastic
c. The number of firms in the cartel is large
d. It is very difficult for new firms to enter the market

21. Which industrialization policy used by developing countries places emphasis on the comparative advantage principle as a guide to resource allocation?
a. Export promotion
b. Import substitution
c. International commodity agreements
d. Multilateral contract

22. A widely used indicator to differentiate developed countries from developing countries is:
a. International trade per capita
b. Real income per capita
c. Unemployment per capita
d. Calories per capita

23. Concerning the hypothesis that there has occurred a long-run deterioration in the developing countries’ terms of trade, empirical studies provide:
a. Mixed evidence that does not substantiate the deterioration hypothesis
b. Overwhelming support for the deterioration hypothesis
c. Overwhelming opposition to the deterioration hypothesis
d. None of the above

24. For the oil-importing countries, the increases in oil prices in 1973-1974 and 1979-1980 resulted in all of the following except:
a. Balance of trade deficits
b. Price inflation
c. Constrained economic growth
d. Improving terms of trade

25. Hong Kong and South Korea are examples of developing nations that have recently pursued industrialization policies.
a. Import substitution
b. Export promotion
c. Commercial dumping
d. Multilateral contract

26. Stabilizing commodity prices around long-term trends tends to benefit importers at the expense of exporters in markets characterized by:
a. Demand-side disturbances
b. Supply-side disturbances
c. Demand-side and supply-side disturbances
d. None of the above

27. Stabilizing commodity prices around long-term trends tends to benefit exporters at the expense of importers in markets characterized by:
a. Demand-side disturbances
b. Supply-side disturbances
c. Demand-side and supply-side disturbances
d. None of the above

28. To be considered a good candidate for an export cartel, a commodity should:
a. Be a manufactured good
b. Be a primary product
c. Have a high price elasticity of supply
d. Have a low price elasticity of demand

29. To be considered a good candidate for an export cartel, a commodity should:
a. Be a manufactured good
b. Be a primary product
c. Have a low price elasticity of supply
d. Have a high price elasticity of demand

30. To help developing nations strengthen their international competitiveness, many industrial nations have granted nonreciprocal tariff reductions to developing nations under the:
a. International commodity agreements program
b. Multilateral contract program
c. Generalized system of preferences program
d. Export-led growth program

The diagram below illustrates the international tin market. Assume that producing and consuming countries establish an international commodity agreement under which the target price of tin is $5 per pound.

Figure 7.1. Defending the Target Price in Face of Changing Demand Conditions

31. Consider Figure 7.1. Suppose the demand for tin increases from D0 to D1. Under a buffer stock system, the buffer-stock manager could maintain the target price by:
a. Selling 15 pounds of tin
b. Selling 30 pounds of tin
c. Buying 15 pounds of tin
d. Buying 30 pounds of tin

32. Consider Figure 7.1. Suppose the demand for tin decreases from D0 to D2. Under a buffer stock system, the buffer-stock manager could maintain the target price by:
a. Selling 15 pounds of tin
b. Selling 30 pounds of tin
c. Buying 15 pounds of tin
d. Buying 30 pounds of tin

33. Consider Figure 7.1. Suppose the demand for tin decreases from D0 to D2. Under a system of export quotas, the tin producers could maintain the target price by:
a. Increasing the quantity of tin supplied by 15 pounds
b. Increasing the quantity of tin supplied by 30 pounds
c. Decreasing the quantity of tin supplied by 15 pounds
d. Decreasing the quantity of tin supplied by 30 pounds

The diagram below illustrates the international tin market. Assume that the producing and consuming countries establish an international commodity agreement under which the target price of tin is $5 per pound.

Figure 7.2. Defending the Target Price in Face of Changing Supply Conditions

34. Consider Figure 7.2. Suppose the supply of tin increases from S0 to S1. Under a buffer stock system, the buffer-stock manager could maintain the target price by:
a. Purchasing 15 pounds of tin
b. Purchasing 30 pounds of tin
c. Selling 15 pounds of tin
d. Selling 30 pounds of tin

35. Consider Figure 7.2. Suppose the supply of tin decreases from S0 to S2. Under a buffer stock system, the buffer-stock manager could maintain the target price by:
a. Purchasing 15 pounds of tin
b. Purchasing 30 pounds of tin
c. Selling 15 pounds of tin
d. Selling 30 pounds of tin

36. Consider Figure 7.2. Assume there exists a cartel of several producers that is maximizing total profit. If one producer cheats on the cartel agreement by decreasing its price and increasing its output, rational action of the other producers is to:
a. Increase their price in order to regain sacrificed profits
b. Decrease their price as well
c. Keep on selling at the agreed-upon price
d. Give the product away for free

37. A reason why it is difficult for producers to maintain a cartel is that:
a. The elasticity of demand for the cartel’s output decreases over time
b. Producers in the cartel have the economic incentive to cheat
c. Economic profits discourage other producers from entering the industry
d. Producers in the cartel have the motivation to lower price but not to raise price

38. Once a cartel establishes its profit-maximizing price:
a. Entry into the industry of new competitors will not affect the cartel’s profits
b. Output changes by cartel members have no effect on the market price
c. Each cartel member is tempted to cheat on the cartel price in order to add to its profit
d. All cartel members have a strong incentive to adhere to the agreed-upon price

Figure 7.3. World Oil Market

39. Consider Figure 7.3. Under competitive conditions, the quantity of oil produced equals:
a. 40 barrels
b. 70 barrels
c. 90 barrels
d. 110 barrels

40. Consider Figure 7.3. Under competitive conditions, the price of a barrel of oil equals:
a. $7
b. $11
c. $12
d. $16

41. Consider Figure 7.3. Under competitive conditions, producer profits total:
a. $0
b. $140
c. $200
d. $280

42. Consider Figure 7.3. Under a profit-maximizing cartel, the quantity of oil produced equals:
a. 40 barrels
b. 70 barrels
c. 90 barrels
d. 110 barrels

43. Consider Figure 7.3. Under a profit-maximizing cartel, the price of a barrel of oil equals:
a. $7
b. $11
c. $16
d. $19

44. Consider Figure 7.3. Under a profit-maximizing cartel, producers realize:
a. Profits totaling $280
b. Profits totaling $360
c. Losses totaling $140
d. Losses totaling $180

45. Import substitution policies make use of:
a. Tariffs that discourage goods from entering a country
b. Quotas applied to goods that are shipped abroad
c. Production subsidies granted to industries with comparative advantages
d. Tax breaks granted to industries with comparative advantages

46. Export-led growth tends to:
a. Exploit domestic comparative advantages
b. Discourage competition in the global economy
c. Lead to unemployment among domestic workers
d. Help firms benefit from diseconomies of large-scale production

47. All of the following nations except ____ have recently utilized export-led (outward oriented) growth policies.
a. Hong Kong
b. South Korea
c. Argentina
d. Singapore

48. The characteristics that have underlaid the economic success of the “high-performing Asian Economies” have included all of the following except:
a. High rates of domestic investment
b. Diseconomies of scale occurring at low output levels
c. Large endowments of human capital
d. High levels of labor productivity

49. The development of countries like South Korea and Singapore has been underlaid by all of the following except:
a. High domestic interest rates
b. R&D and product innovation
c. Education and on-the-job training
d. High levels of saving and investment

50. For most developing countries:
a. Productivity is high among domestic workers
b. Population-growth and illiteracy rates are low
c. Saving and investment levels are high
d. Agricultural goods and raw materials constitute much of domestic output

51. East Asian economies have performed well by
a. Obtaining foreign technology
b. Remaining open to international trade
c. Investing in their people
d. All of the above

52. East Asian economies started enacting export-push strategies
a. By late 1950s and 1960s
b. Immediately after World War II
c. In the late 1980s
d. In the early 2000s

53. Prior to the formation of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries, individual oil producing nations,
a. Operated like sellers in a competitive market
b. Behaved like individual sellers in a monopoly market
c. Had considerable control over the price of oil
d. Both b and c.

54. A key factor underlying the instability of primary product prices and export receipts of developing nations is the
a. Low price elasticity of the demand of primary products
b. High price elasticity of supply of primary products
c. High price elasticity of demand of primary products
d. None of the above

TRUE/FALSE

1. The developing nations are most of those in Africa, Asia, North America, and Western Europe.

2. Most developing-nation exports go to industrial nations while most developing-nation imports originate in industrial nations.

3. The majority of developing-nation exports are primary products such as agricultural goods and raw materials; of the manufactured goods exported by developing nations, most are labor-intensive goods.

4. Developing nations overwhelmingly acknowledge that they have benefited from international trade according to the principle of comparative advantage.

5. Among the economic problems facing developing countries have been low dependence on primary-product exports, unstable export markets, and worsening terms of trade.

6. For developing countries, a key factor underlying the instability of primary-product prices and export receipts is the high price elasticity of demand for products such as tin and copper.

7. Empirical research indicates that the demand and supply schedules for most primary products are relatively inelastic to changes in price.

8. If the demand for coffee is price inelastic, an increase in the supply of coffee leads to falling prices and rising sales revenues.

9. Not only do changes in demand induce relatively wide fluctuations in price when supply is inelastic, but changes in supply induce relatively wide fluctuations in price when demand is inelastic.

10. Developing countries have complained that because their commodity terms of trade has deteriorated in recent decades, they should receive preferential tariff treatment from industrialized countries.

11. To promote stability in commodity markets, International Commodity Agreements have utilized production and export controls, buffer stocks, and multilateral contracts.

12. During periods of falling demand for coffee, an International Commodity Agreement could offset downward pressure on price by implementing policies to increase the supply of coffee.

13. To prevent the market price of tin from rising above the target price, the manager of a buffer stock will purchase excess supplies of tin from the market.

14. To prevent the market price of tin from falling below the target price, the manager of a buffer stock would purchase any excess supply of tin that exists at the target price.

15. Prolonged defense of a price ceiling tends to increase the supply of a commodity held by a buffer stock manager, thus putting downward pressure on price.

16. Rather than conduct massive stabilization operations, buffer stock officials will periodically revise target prices should they move out of line with long-term price trends.

17. A multilateral contract stipulates the maximum price at which importing nations will purchase guaranteed quantities from producing nations and the minimum price at which producing nations will sell guaranteed amounts to importing nations.

18. It is widely agreed that import-substitution policies have been a main contributor to above-average growth rates in developing countries.

19. Under the Generalized System of Preferences program, the major industrial countries agree to temporarily reduce tariffs on designated imports from other industrial countries.

20. The “newly industrializing countries” of East Asia have emphasized the implementation of import-substitution policies to insulate their industries from international competition.

21. In recent decades, the East Asian “newly industrializing countries” have pursued export-led growth (outward orientation) as an industrialization strategy.

22. The purpose of a cartel is to support prices higher than would occur under more competitive conditions, thus increasing the profits of cartel members.

23. A cartel tends to be most successful in maximizing the profits of its members when there are a large number of producers in the cartel and these producers’ cost and demand conditions greatly differ from each other.

24. When cartel members agree to restrict output to increase the price of their product, a single member of the cartel has an economic incentive to violate the agreement by increasing its output so as to increase profits.

25. Developing countries have often felt that it is easier to protect their manufacturers, via import-substitution policies, against foreign competitors than to force industrial nations to reduce trade restrictions on products exported by developing countries.

26. Import-substitution policies are supported by the fact that many developing countries have small domestic markets and thus their producers enjoy the benefits of diseconomies of small-scale production.

27. Export-led growth industrialization suffers a major problem: it depends on the willingness and ability of foreign nations to absorb the goods exported by the country pursuing such a policy.

28. The so-called Four Tigers include Australia, South Korea, Taiwan, and Hong Kong.

29. By the 1990s, China had departed from a capitalistic economy and shifted to a Soviet-type economy encompassing small-scale, labor-intensive industry.

30. During the late 1980s and early 1990s, China dismantled much of its centrally-planned economy and permitted free enterprise to replace it.

31. In its transition toward capitalism, by the 1990s China permitted free enterprise as well as democracy for its people.

32. Most of China’s manufactured exports have constituted labor-intensive goods.

33. In 1999 the United States revoked the normal-trade-relations (most-favored-nation) status it provided China in retaliation for China’s suppression of human rights.

34. A multilateral contract specifies the maximum price at which exporting countries agree to sell a product and the minimum price at which importing countries agree to buy a product.

35. As a profit-maximizing cartel, the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries would produce a greater output and charge a lower price than what would occur in a competitive market.

36. The success of buffer stocks is limited by the fact that stockpiles of a product may be exhausted after prolonged sales, while funds may be exhausted after prolonged purchases.

37. The United Nation Conference on Trade and Development in 1964 was successful in convincing developing countries to switch from export-led industrialization to import-substitution industrialization.

38. Under the Generalized System of Preferences program, the industrialized countries agree to maintain lower tariffs on imports of natural resources and higher tariffs on imports of manufactured goods.

39. The replacement of imports of one nation with imports of another nation is known as “import substitution.”

40. During periods of weak demand, the Organization of Petroleum Countries has implemented production (export) quotas to ensure that excess oil supplies be kept off the market.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What are some major trade problems faced by developing nations?

2. Are economic downturns helpful to cartels?

ESSAY

1. What are some of the growth strategies that have been employed by the developing nations? How successful are these strategies?

2. Describe the flying-geese pattern of economic growth? What countries have pursued this strategy?

ECO 305 Week 6 Quiz

CHAPTER 8—REGIONAL TRADING ARRANGEMENTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The European Union is primarily intended to permit:
a. Countries to adopt scientific tariffs on imports
b. An agricultural commodity cartel within the group
c. The adoption of export tariffs for revenue purposes
d. Free movement of resources and products among member nations

2. Which of the following represents the stage where economic integration is most complete?
a. Economic union
b. Customs union
c. Monetary union
d. Common market

3. Which of the following represents the stage where economic integration is least complete?
a. Free trade area
b. Monetary union
c. Common market
d. Customs union

4. Customs union theory reasons that the formation of a customs union will decrease members’ real welfare when the:
a. Trade diversion effect exceeds the trade creation effect
b. Trade production effect exceeds the trade consumption effect
c. Trade consumption effect exceeds the trade production effect
d. Trade creation effect exceeds the trade diversion effect

5. Which economic integration scheme is solely intended to abolish trade restrictions among member countries, while setting up common tariffs against nonmembers?
a. Economic union
b. Common market
c. Free trade area
d. Customs union

6. By 1992 the European Union had become a full-fledged:
a. Economic union
b. Monetary union
c. Common market
d. Fiscal union

7. Which device has the European Union used to equalize farm-product import prices with politically determined European Union prices, regardless of shifts in world prices?
a. Variable levies
b. Import quotas
c. Import subsidies
d. Domestic content regulations

8. Which trade instrument has the European Union used to insulate its producers and consumers of agricultural goods from the impact of changing demand and supply conditions in the rest of the world?
a. Domestic content regulations
b. Variable import levies
c. Voluntary export quotas
d. Orderly marketing agreements

9. Assume that the formation of a customs union turns out to include the lowest-cost world producer of the product in question. Which effect could not occur for the participating countries?
a. Trade creation-production effect
b. Trade creation-consumption effect
c. Trade diversion
d. Scale economies and competition

10. Which organization of nations permits free trade among its members in industrial goods, while each member maintains freedom in its trade policies toward non-member countries?
a. European Union
b. Benelux
c. Council for Mutual Economic Assistance
d. North American Free Trade Association

11. Which of the following organizations is considered a regional trading arrangement?
a. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries
b. North Atlantic Treaty Organization
c. Benelux
d. International Tin Agreement

12. When products from high-cost suppliers within a customs union replace imports from a low-cost nation that is not a member of the customs union, there exist(s):
a. Dynamic welfare losses
b. Dynamic welfare gains
c. Trade creation
d. Trade diversion

13. Which form of economic integration occurs when participating countries abolish tariffs on trade among themselves, establish a common tariff on imports from nonmembers, and permit free movement of capital and labor within the organization?
a. Free trade area
b. Economic union
c. Common market
d. Monetary union

14. A static welfare effect resulting from the formation of the European Union would be:
a. Economies of scale
b. Trade diversion
c. Investment incentives
d. Increased competition

15. A dynamic welfare gain resulting from the formation of the European Union would be:
a. Trade diversion
b. Trade creation
c. Diseconomies of scale
d. Economies of scale

16. Which organization was founded in 1957 whose objective was to create an economic union among its members?
a. General Agreements on Tariffs and Trade
b. Organization of Economic Cooperation and Development
c. European Union
d. Latin American Free Trade Association

17. The common agriculture policy of the European Union has supported European farmers via:
a. Export tariffs and domestic content regulations
b. Variable levies and voluntary export agreements
c. Content regulations and export subsidies
d. Export subsidies and variable levies

18. Which nation is not a member of the North American Free Trade Association?
a. Canada
b. Greenland
c. Mexico
d. United States

19. Suppose a communist country agrees to pay for delivery of machinery with goods produced by the machinery. This arrangement refers to:
a. Countertrade
b. International commodity agreements
c. Coproduction agreements
d. Trade diversion

20. NAFTA is a:
a. Monetary union
b. Free trade area
c. Common market
d. Customs union

21. Under the European Union’s common agricultural policy, a variable import levy equals the:
a. Amount by which the EU’s support price exceeds the world price
b. Amount by which the world price exceeds the EU’s support price
c. Support price of the EU
d. World price

22. Members of the European Union find that “trade creation” is fostered when their economies are:
a. Highly competitive
b. Highly noncompetitive
c. Small in economic importance
d. Geographically distant

23. The European Union has achieved all of the following except:
a. Adopted a common fiscal policy for member nations
b. Established a common system of agricultural price supports
c. Disbanded all tariffs among its member countries
d. Levied common tariffs on products imported from nonmembers

24. When the United States, Canada, and Mexico form a free trade area, and Mexico begins importing a product from Canada rather than from the lowest cost world producer.
a. Trade diversion occurs
b. Trade creation occurs
c. World welfare rises
d. World welfare falls to zero

25. When the formation of a free trade area results in the reduction of trade with nonmember nations in favor of member countries, ____ occurs.
a. Trade devaluation
b. Trade revaluation
c. Trade destruction
d. Trade diversion

26. Which country is not a member of the European Union?
a. Spain
b. Germany
c. France
d. Iceland

27. The implementation of the European Union has:
a. Made it harder for Americans to compete against the Germans in the British market
b. Made it easier for Americans to compete against the Germans in the British market
c. Made it harder for Americans to compete against the Japanese in the British market
d. Made it easier for Americans to compete against the Japanese in the British market

28. The common agricultural policy of the European Union has:
a. Increased American farm exports to the EU
b. Decreased American farm exports to the EU
c. Lowered the price of American farm exports to the EU
d. Not affected the price of American farm exports to the EU

29. The implementation of a common market involves all of the following except:
a. Elimination of trade restrictions among member countries
b. A common tax system and monetary union
c. Prohibition of restrictions on factor movements
d. A common tariff levied in imports from nonmembers

30. Under the common agricultural policy, exports of any surplus quantities of EU produce are encouraged through the usage of:
a. Variable levies
b. Export subsidies
c. Import quotas
d. Countertrade

Figure 8.1 depicts the supply and demand schedules of calculators for Greece, a “small” country that is unable to affect the world price. Greece’s supply and demand schedules of calculators are respectively depicted by SG and DG. Assume that Greece imports calculators from either Germany or France. Suppose Germany is the world’s low-cost producer who can supply calculators to Greece at $20 per unit, while France can supply calculators at $30 per unit.

Figure 8.1. Effects of a Customs Union

31. Consider Figure 8.1. With free trade, Greece imports:
a. 3 calculators from France
b. 5 calculators from France
c. 3 calculators from Germany
d. 5 calculators from Germany

32. Consider to Figure 8.1. Assume Greece levies a per-unit tariff of $20 on imports from both Germany and France.

Greece will import:
a. 1 calculator from Germany
b. 1 calculator from France
c. 3 calculators from Germany
d. 3 calculators from France

33. Consider Figure 8.1. Assume Greece levies a per-unit tariff of $20 on imports from both Germany and France.

As a result of the $20 tariff, Greece’s consumer surplus falls by:
a. $90
b. $100
c. $110
d. $120

34. Consider Figure 8.1. Assume Greece levies a per-unit tariff of $20 on imports from both Germany and France.

The deadweight welfare loss to Greece, resulting from the $20 tariff, equals:
a. $20
b. $40
c. $60
d. $80

35. Referring to Figure 8.1, suppose Greece forms a customs union with France. Greece will import:
a. 3 calculators at a per-unit price of $30
b. 3 calculators at a per-unit price of $40
c. 6 calculators at a per-unit price of $30
d. 6 calculators at a per-unit price of $40

36. Consider Figure 8.1. The value of the trade diversion effect, resulting from the Greece/France customs union, equals:
a. $5
b. $10
c. $15
d. $20

37. Consider Figure 8.1. The value of the trade creation effect, resulting from the Greece/France customs union, equals:
a. $5
b. $10
c. $15
d. $20

38. Consider Figure 8.1. Comparing the trade creation and trade diversion effects, the impact of the Greece/France customs union on the welfare of Greece is:
a. A $5 increase in economic welfare
b. A $10 increase in economic welfare
c. A $5 decrease in economic welfare
d. No change in economic welfare

39. Consider Figure 8.1. Suppose Greece had formed a customs union with Germany, rather than France. The value of the trade diversion effect would be:
a. Zero
b. $5
c. $10
d. $15

40. According to Figure 8.1, the formation of a Greece/Germany customs union would result in:
a. $20 of trade diversion
b. $40 of trade diversion
c. $20 of trade creation
d. $40 of trade creation

41. In 1989 Canada and the United States agreed to implement a (an) ____ over a ten year period.
a. Customs union
b. Common market
c. Free trade area
d. Economic union

42. In the United States, the proposed North American Free Trade Agreement was generally supported by:
a. Labor unions
b. Electronics firms
c. Environmentalists
d. Citrus producers

43. At the Maastricht Summit of 1991, European Union negotiators called for the pursuit of a:
a. Free trade area
b. Customs union
c. Common market
d. Monetary union

44. By removing discriminatory government procurement laws within the European Union, member nations hoped to benefit from all of the following except:
a. EU governments could purchase from the cheapest foreign suppliers
b. Increased competition occurs as domestic firms compete with foreign firms previously shut out of the domestic market
c. Industries are restructured which permits surviving firms to achieve economies of scale
d. Agricultural prices fall as more farmers are allowed to produce their commodities

45. Suppose that government procurement liberalization results in the U.K. government importing automobiles from Germany, the low-cost EU manufacturer. Cost savings could result from all of the following except:
a. Competition effect
b. Scale-economy effect
c. Protective effect
d. Trade effect

46. Suppose that steel from Japan faces a 20 percent tariff in France and a 25 percent tariff in Italy, while France and Italy maintain free trade between each other. France and Italy are therefore part of a (an):
a. Free trade area
b. Customs union
c. Common market
d. Economic union

47. Suppose that Mexico and Canada form a free-trade area and Canada begins importing steel from Mexico rather than from Germany. There occurs:
a. Trade diversion
b. Trade creation
c. Trade destruction
d. Trade exhaustion

48. Suppose that Mexico and Canada form a free-trade area. Mexicans then decrease auto manufacturing and increase imports of autos from Canada, while the Canadians decrease computer production and import more computers from Mexico. This is an example of:
a. Trade diversion
b. Trade creation
c. Trade destruction
d. Trade exhaustion

49. If the United States and Canada abolish all tariffs on each other’s goods and implement a common tariff on goods imported from other countries, there occurs a (an):
a. Free-trade area
b. Customs union
c. Common market
d. Economic union

50. Suppose that the United Kingdom and Italy abolish all tariffs on each other’s goods and all restrictions on movements of factors of production between them. They also implement a common protectionist policy toward other countries. This is an example of a (an):
a. Free-trade area
b. Customs union
c. Common market
d. Economic union

51. The North American Free Trade Agreement was expected to benefit ____ the most.
a. Canada
b. Mexico
c. Greenland
d. United States

52. The North American Free-Trade Agreement was most strongly opposed by U.S.:
a. Electronics manufacturers
b. Labor unions
c. Commercial banks
d. Engineering companies

53. In the United States, which group was most likely to be hurt by the North American Free Trade Agreement?
a. Unskilled labor
b. Skilled labor
c. Owners of capital equipment
d. Owners of financial capital

54. By joining NAFTA, the United States, Canada, and Mexico would find their short-run welfare decreasing due to the:
a. Economies of scale effect
b. Business investment effect
c. Trade creation effect
d. Trade diversion effect

55. When Mexico became a part of NAFTA, along with Canada and the United States, it:
a. Eliminated tariffs against Canada and the United States but maintained them against nonmembers
b. Eliminated tariffs against Canada, the United States, and all nonmember countries
c. Increased tariffs against Canada the United States, and all nonmember countries
d. Increased tariffs against Canada and the United States, but did not change them against nonmember countries

56. In a centrally-planned economy:
a. Commercial decisions are made by independent buyers and sellers acting in their own interest
b. Market-determined prices are used for allocating scarce resources
c. Prices play a rationing role so that the availability of goods is made consistent with buyer preferences and income
d. Government controls prices and output of goods bought and sold, with minimal recognition given to considerations of efficiency

57. The failure of the centrally-planned economies was exemplified by all of the following except:
a. Interest rates that were below free-market levels
b. Consumer and producer goods of inferior quality
c. Declining rates of economic growth
d. Shortages of essential goods and services

58. The transition of the former communist countries to market economies requires:
a. Implementation of governmental price controls
b. Privatization of public property
c. Transforming competitive industries into monopolies
d. The sale of private industries to the government

59. The transition of the former communist countries to market economies would likely result in:
a. The implementation of price ceilings
b. The implementation of price floors
c. Price inflation
d. Price deflation

60. In the former Soviet Union, major manufacturing firms were typically:
a. Owned and operated by employee labor unions
b. Owned and operated by the government
c. Privately owned, but operated by the government
d. Publically owned, but operated by the private sector

61. The transition of the former communist countries to market economies requires all of the following except:
a. Removing domestic price controls
b. Opening economies to international competition
c. Establishing private property rights
d. Terminating the convertibility of their currencies

62. The former communist countries included all of the following except:
a. East Germany
b. Soviet Union
c. Austria
d. Poland

63. The regional trade block of the former communist countries, which lasted from 1949-1991, was known as the:
a. Eastern European Economic Area
b. Nordic Preferential Trade Agreement
c. Council for Mutual Economic Assistance
d. European Industrial Cooperation Union

64. The economic reforms of the early 1990s that occurred in the former Soviet Union and Eastern Europe resulted in:
a. The formation of the Council for Mutual Economic Assistance
b. Multinational firms refusing to operate in these nations
c. A movement from centrally-planned economies toward market economies
d. A movement from market economies toward centrally-planned economies

65. The transition from government-controlled prices to market-determined prices in the former communist countries would be expected to result in:
a. Price stability
b. Price deflation
c. Price inflation
d. None of the above

66. Suppose that Canada has domestic firms that could supply its entire market for radios at a price of $50, while U.S. firms could supply radios at $40 and Mexico at $30. Suppose that Canada initially has a 50 percent tariff on imports of radios and then forms a free trade area with the United States. As a result, Canada realizes:
a. Trade creation, no trade diversion, and overall welfare gains
b. Trade creation, no trade diversion, and overall welfare losses
c. Trade diversion, no trade creation, and potential overall welfare losses
d. Trade diversion, trade creation, and potential overall welfare gains

67. Suppose that Canada has domestic firms that could supply its entire market for radios at a price of $50, while U.S. firms could supply radios at $40 and Mexico at $30. Suppose that Canada initially has a 50 percent tariff on imports of radios and then forms a free trade area with Mexico. As a result, Canada realizes:
a. Trade creation, no trade diversion, and overall welfare gains
b. Trade creation, no trade diversion, and overall welfare losses
c. Trade diversion, no trade creation, and potential overall welfare losses
d. Trade diversion, trade creation, and potential overall welfare gains

68. As of 2002, members of the European Monetary Union agreed to replace their currencies with the:
a. mark
b. dollar
c. franc
d. euro

69. The formation of the European Monetary Union is expected to entail benefits for member countries which include all of the following except:
a. Greater certainty for investors within the EMU
b. Lower costs of transactions within the EMU
c. Independent monetary policies run by the central bank of each member country
d. Enhanced competition among companies in member countries

70. According to the theory of optimum currency areas, a currency area has the least chance for success when:
a. Countries of the currency area have differing business cycles
b. Workers have a high degree of mobility across borders of the currency area
c. Prices and wages can be adjusted in response to economic disturbances
d. A single monetary policy affects all member countries in the same manner

71. A main disadvantage of the European Monetary Union is that:
a. Each member country loses the use of monetary policy as to tool to combat recession
b. There is a high degree of labor mobility among the member countries
c. Prices are highly flexible in response to changing economic conditions
d. Wages are highly flexible in response to changing economic conditions

72. World welfare under a customs union
a. Increases due to a trade creation effect
b. Decreases due to a trade diversion effect
c. Depends on the relative strength of the trade creation effect and the trade diversion effect
d. All of the above

73. A common market
a. Allows the imposition of common external trade barriers against non-members
b. Represents less economic integration than a free trade area
c. Does not permit free movement of goods among member nations
d. Does not allow free movement of factors of production among nations

74. The gains from having an optimum currency include
a. Price differentiation
b. Lower competition
c. Lower transaction costs
d. Both b and c

75. For decades, the Eastern European countries have suffered from
a. Widespread price controls
b. Excessive competition
c. Lack of enforceable property rights
d. Both a and c

TRUE/FALSE

The figure below depicts the steel market for Portugal, a small nation that is unable to affect the world price. Assume that Germany and France can supply steel to Portugal at a price of $200 and $300 respectively.

Figure 8.2. Portugal’s Steel Market

1. Consider Figure 8.2. With free trade, Portugal will import 25 tons of steel from Germany at a price of $200 per ton.

2. Consider Figure 8.2. With free trade, Portugal produces 15 tons of steel, consumes 30 tons of steel, and imports 15 tons of steel.

3. Consider Figure 8.2. If Portugal levies a 100 percent nondiscriminatory tariff on its steel imports, it will purchase 5 tons of steel from France at a price of $500 per ton.

4. Consider Figure 8.2. If Portugal forms a customs union with France, the resulting trade-creation effect equals $500.

5. Consider Figure 8.2. If Portugal forms a customs union with France, the resulting trade-diversion effect equals $400.

6. Consider Figure 8.2. As a result of a customs union formed with France, Portugal’s overall welfare rises by $900.

7. Consider Figure 8.2. If Portugal had formed a customs union with Germany, Portugal’s welfare would have decreased by $500.

8. The European Union protects its agricultural producers from import competition by the use of tariff rates that vary directly with world prices.

9. Under the variable levy system of the European Union, EU farmers are protected against import competition by tariffs that vary inversely with the world price.

10. Trade creation tends to more than offset trade diversion for a home country forming a customs union with partner countries when: (1) the tariff rate in the home country is high prior to the formation of the customs union; (2) there are a large number of countries forming the customs union.

11. If Chile and Mexico form a free-trade agreement, the welfare of the two countries will necessarily increase.

12. If Chile and Mexico abolish all tariffs on each other’s products while maintaining their own tariffs against other countries, these two countries have formed a customs union.

13. With a preferential trading arrangement, a group of countries agrees to unilaterally reduce tariffs applied to imports from all countries of the world.

14. Economic integration is the process of eliminating restrictions on international trade, payments, and factor mobility.

15. When a group of countries establish a free-trade area, they achieve the highest stage of economic integration.

16. A free-trade area is an association of trading countries whose members agree to remove all trade restrictions among themselves, while each member country imposes identical trade restrictions against nonmember countries.

17. If the United Kingdom and Italy eliminate all tariffs on each other’s goods and all restrictions to factor movements between them, and implement a uniform system of import restrictions against the rest of the world, these countries have formed a common market.

18. The highest stage of economic integration is a monetary union.

19. Trade creation would occur if Canada and the United States form a free-trade area, and Canadians then import less steel from the United States while importing more steel from Japan.

20. Suppose that Mexico and Canada form a free-trade area. The Mexicans then decrease refrigerator manufacturing and increase imports of refrigerators from Canada, while the Canadians decrease auto manufacturing and import more autos from Mexico. This is an example of trade creation.

21. Trade creation and trade diversion refer to the short run (static) effects of economic integration while economies of scale, stimulus to investment, and effects on competition refer to the long run (dynamic) effects.

22. For countries forming a customs union, the trade-creation effect represents a welfare loss and the trade-diversion effect represents a welfare gain.

23. In the short run, Mexico would realize overall welfare gains from becoming a member of the North American Free Trade Agreement if the resulting diseconomies of scale effect more than offset the competition effect.

24. Trade creation occurs when imports from a low-cost supplier outside of a customs union are replaced by purchases from a higher-cost supplier within the union.

25. If a customs union includes the low-cost supplier of the world, there would be no adverse trade-diversion effect that would counteract the positive trade-creation effect.

26. The potential for trade diversion is smaller when a custom union’s external tariff is lower rather than higher.

27. If a customs union included all of the countries in the world, there could exist only trade creation, not trade diversion.

28. The larger the size and the greater the number of countries in a customs union, the greater will be the trade-diversion effect.

29. Over the long run, the formation of a customs union may yield welfare gains due to economies of scale, greater competition, and stimulus to investment.

30. By the mid-1990s, the European Union had essentially achieved the common market stage of economic integration.

31. At the Maastricht Summit of 1991, members of the European Union expressed the goal of achieving the common market stage of economic integration.

32. To protect its farmers from foreign competition, the European Union has utilized variable import levies and export subsidies.

33. To protect its farmers from imports of agricultural goods, the European Union has implemented tariff rates that vary directly with world prices.

34. As of 1992, the European Union had achieved the monetary union stage of economic integration.

35. The Maastricht Treaty of 1991 established a blueprint for economic union and monetary union for European Union members.

36. It is generally agreed that completing the common market stage of integration for the European Union contributed to overall welfare losses due to trade diversion exceeding trade creation.

37. Government procurement liberalization permits a country to realize cost savings resulting from the trade effect, competition effect, and economies-of-scale effect.

38. During the 1980s and 1990s, the United States negotiated free-trade agreements with Israel, Mexico, and Canada.

39. Forming a free-trade agreement with the United States provided Canadian producers a danger and an opportunity. The danger was that U.S. producers might be more price competitive than Canadian producers; the opportunity was that longer production runs for Canadian producers, made possible by a free-trade agreement, would result in cost reductions due to economies of scale.

40. Some trade creation was expected to occur as a result of the U.S.-Canada free-trade agreement, since Canadian exports to the United States and U.S. exports to Canada were expected to expand at the expense of imports from Germany and Japan that faced trade restrictions.

41. Negotiating the North American Free Trade Agreement was relatively easy since it involved meshing two large industrial countries with a developing country.

42. Critics of the North American Free Trade Agreement maintained that it would result in manufacturing firms fleeing Mexico’s stringent pollution-control policies and relocating in the United States and Canada.

43. U.S. labor unions argued against the North American Free Trade Agreement on the grounds that it would result in U.S. companies relocating in Mexico in order to take advantage of lower wage rates.

44. The North American Free Trade Agreement was expected to provide proportionately smaller benefits to Mexico than to the United States or Canada.

45. In the former Soviet Union, production of capital goods was determined by the free market while consumer-goods production was determined by central planning.

46. The former Soviet Union was characterized by central economic planning and public ownership of manufacturing enterprises.

47. Pricing of consumer goods in the former Soviet Union was typically regulated by price ceilings which led to shortages.

48. The transition of the former Soviet Union from a planned economy to a market economy would require the elimination of price controls, the privatization of public property, and the promotion of business competition.

49. From the 1940s to the 1980s, the former communist countries remained isolated from the world economy, primarily due to different tariff systems among the former communist countries.

50. A political dilemma facing the former communist countries in the 1990s was that the transition from a centrally-planned economy to a market economy would result in short-run costs but long-run benefits.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is meant by economic integration?

2. What factors influence the extent of trade creation and trade diversion?

ESSAY

1. Explain the theory of optimum currency areas.

2. Concerning transition economies, what do the advocates of shock therapy propose?

ECO 305 Week 7 Quiz

CHAPTER 9—INTERNATIONAL FACTOR MOVEMENTS AND MULTINATIONAL ENTERPRISES

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. “Risk spreading” is a motive most likely to be served when firms undergo:
a. Horizontal integration
b. Vertical integration
c. Conglomerate integration
d. None of the above

2. The source (home) location of most of the world’s leading multinational enterprises is:
a. North America and Europe
b. North America and Asia
c. Europe and South America
d. Europe and Asia

3. Which type of multinational diversification occurs when the parent firm establishes foreign subsidiaries to produce intermediate goods going into the production of finished goods?
a. Forward vertical integration
b. Backward vertical integration
c. Forward horizontal integration
d. Backward horizontal integration

4. Suppose that an American automobile manufacturer establishes foreign subsidiaries to market the automobiles. This practice is referred to as:
a. Forward vertical integration
b. Forward conglomerate integration
c. Backward vertical integration
d. Backward conglomerate integration

5. Suppose that a steel manufacturer headquartered in Japan sets up a subsidiary in Canada to produce steel. This practice is referred to as:
a. Conglomerate integration
b. Forward vertical integration
c. Backward vertical integration
d. Horizontal integration

6. During the 1970s, American oil companies acquired nonenergy companies (e.g., copper, auto components) in response to anticipated decreases in investment opportunities in oil. This type of diversification is referred to as:
a. Horizontal integration
b. Conglomerate integration
c. Forward vertical integration
d. Backward vertical integration

7. Which of the following best refers to the outright construction or purchase abroad of productive facilities, such as manufacturing plants, by domestic residents?
a. Direct investment
b. Portfolio investment
c. Short-term capital investment
d. Long-term capital investment

8. In recent years, the largest amount of U.S. direct investment abroad has occurred in:
a. Central America
b. South America
c. Europe
d. Japan

9. In recent years, most foreign direct investment in the United States has come from:
a. Western Europe
b. Central America
c. South America
d. Asia

10. Most U.S. direct investment abroad occurs in:
a. Communications
b. Petroleum
c. Finance and insurance
d. Manufacturing

11. Most foreign direct investment in the United States occurs in:
a. Public utilities
b. Communications
c. Manufacturing
d. Mining and smelting

12. Which of the following is not a significant motive for the formation of multinational enterprises?
a. Avoiding tariffs by obtaining foreign manufacturing facilities
b. Obtaining the benefits from overseas comparative advantages
c. The acquisition of natural resource supply sources
d. Subsidies granted by the home government to overseas corporations

13. Suppose General Motors charges its Mexican subsidiary $1 million for auto assembly equipment that could be purchased on the open market for $800,000. This practice is best referred to as:
a. International dumping
b. Cost-plus pricing
c. Transfer pricing
d. Technological transfer

14. Multinational enterprises may provide benefits to their source (home) countries because they may:
a. Secure raw materials for the source country
b. Shift source country technology overseas via licensing
c. Export products which reflect source-country comparative disadvantage
d. Result in lower wages for source-country workers

15. Trade analysis involving multinational enterprises differs from our conventional trade analysis in that multinational enterprise analysis emphasizes:
a. Absolute cost differentials rather than comparative cost differentials
b. The international movement of factor inputs rather than finished goods
c. Purely competitive markets rather than imperfectly competitive markets
d. Portfolio investments rather than direct foreign investments

16. Direct foreign investment has taken all of the following forms except:
a. Investors buying bonds of an existing firm overseas
b. The creation of a wholly owned business enterprise overseas
c. The takeover of an existing company overseas
d. The construction of a manufacturing plant overseas

17. Which of the following would best explain why foreign direct investment might be attracted to the United States?
a. U.S. price ceilings that hold down the price of energy
b. U.S. wage rates exceeding the productivity of U.S. labor
c. Artificially high prices being charged for the stock of U.S. firms
d. Anticipations of future reductions in U.S. tariff levels

18. Both Coca-Cola Co. and Pepsi-Cola Co. are multinational firms in that their soft drinks are bottled throughout the world. This practice illustrates:
a. Backward vertical integration
b. Forward vertical integration
c. Horizontal integration
d. Conglomerate integration

19. The market power effect of an international joint venture can lead to welfare losses for the domestic economy unless offset by cost reductions. Which type of cost reduction would not lead to offsetting welfare gains for the overall economy?
a. R&D generating improved technology
b. Development of more productive machinery
c. New work rules promoting worker efficiency
d. Lower wages extracted from workers

20. All of the following are potential advantages of an international joint venture except:
a. Sharing research and development costs among corporations
b. Forestalling protectionism against imports
c. Establishing work rules promoting higher labor productivity
d. Operating at diseconomy-of-scale output levels

21. Which term best describes the New United Motor Manufacturing Co.?
a. Multinational enterprise
b. International joint venture
c. Multilateral contract
d. International commodity agreement

22. Multinational enterprises:
a. Increase the transfer of technology between nations
b. Make it harder for nations to foster activities of comparative advantage
c. Always enjoy political harmony in nations where their subsidiaries operate
d. Require governmental subsidies in order to conduct worldwide operations

23. Firms undertake multinational operations in order to:
a. Hire low-wage workers
b. Manufacture in nations they have difficulty exporting to
c. Obtain necessary factor inputs
d. All of the above

24. Multinational enterprises face problems since they:
a. Cannot benefit from the advantages of comparative advantage
b. May raise political problems in countries where their subsidiaries operate
c. Can invest only at home, but not overseas
d. Can invest only overseas, but not at home

25. American labor unions have recently maintained that U.S. multinational enterprises have been:
a. Exporting American jobs by investing overseas
b. Exporting American jobs by keeping investment in the United States
c. Importing cheap foreign workers by shifting U.S. investment overseas
d. Importing cheap foreign workers by keeping U.S. investment at home

26. American labor unions accuse U.S. multinational firms of all of the following except: that such firms
a. Enjoy unfair advantages in taxation
b. Export jobs by shifting technology overseas
c. Export jobs by shifting investment overseas
d. Operate at output levels where scale economies occur

27. Which of the following refers to the price charged for products sold to a subsidiary of a multinational enterprise by another subsidiary in another nation?
a. Transfer pricing
b. International dumping
c. Price discrimination
d. Full-cost pricing

28. Which business device involves the creation of a new business by two or more companies, often for a limited period of time?
a. Multinational enterprise
b. International joint venture
c. Horizontal merger
d. Vertical merger

29. International joint ventures can lead to welfare losses when the newly established firm:
a. Adds to the preexistent productive capacity
b. Enters markets neither parent could have entered individually
c. Yields cost reductions unavailable to parent firms
d. Gives rise to increased amounts of market power

30. Multinational enterprises:
a. Always produce primary goods
b. Always produce manufactured goods
c. Produce primary goods or manufactured goods
d. None of the above

Figure 9.1 illustrates the market conditions facing Sony Company and American Company initially operating as competitors in the domestic ball bearing market. Each firm realizes constant long-run costs, MC0=AC0.

Figure 9.1. International Joint Venture

31. Consider Figure 9.1. With Sony Company and American Company behaving as competitors, the equilibrium price and output respectively equal:
a. $4 and 2 units
b. $4 and 4 units
c. $6 and 2 units
d. $6 and 4 units

32. Consider Figure 9.1. At the equilibrium price, domestic households attain ____ of consumer surplus:
a. $4
b. $8
c. $12
d. $16

33. Consider Figure 9.1. Suppose that Sony Company and American Company jointly form a new firm, Venture Company, whose ball bearings replace the output sold by the parents in the domestic market. Assuming that Venture Company operates as a monopoly and that its costs equal MC0=AC0, the firm’s price, output, and total profit would respectively equal:
a. $6, 2 units, $4
b. $4, 2 units, $2
c. $6, 4 units, $4
d. $4, 4 units, $2

34. Consider Figure 9.1. Compared to the market equilibrium position achieved by Sony Company and American Company as competitors, Venture Company as a monopoly leads to a deadweight loss of consumer surplus of:
a. $2
b. $4
c. $6
d. $8

35. Consider Figure 9.1. Assume Venture Company’s formation yields new cost reductions, indicated by MC1=AC1, which result from technological advances. Realizing that Venture Company results in a deadweight loss of consumer surplus, the net effect of Venture Company’s formation on the welfare of the domestic economy is:
a. No change
b. Gain of $2
c. Gain of $4
d. Loss of $2

36. Consider Figure 9.1. Assume Venture Company’s formation yields new cost reductions, indicated by MC1=AC1, which result from wage concessions accepted by Venture Company employees. The net effect of Venture Company’s formation on the welfare of the domestic economy is:
a. No change
b. Gain of $2
c. Loss of $2
d. Loss of $4

37. Consider Figure 9.1. Assume Venture Company’s formation yields new cost reductions, indicated by MC1=AC1, which result from changes in work rules by Venture Company employees that led to higher worker productivity. The net effect of Venture Company’s formation on the welfare of the domestic economy is:
a. No change
b. Gain of $2
c. Gain of $4
d. Loss of $2

Figure 9.2 represents the U.S. labor market. Assume that labor and capital are the only factors of production. Also assume the initial supply schedule of labor is denoted by S0 and consists entirely of native U.S. workers. The demand schedule of labor is denoted by D0.

Figure 9.2. U.S. Labor Market

38. Consider Figure 9.2, at labor market equilibrium, workers are hired at a wage rate of $____ per hour, while total wages equal ____.
a. 2, $12, $24
b. 2, $12, $36
c. 3, $9, $27
d. 3, $9, $36

39. Consider Figure 9.2. At labor market equilibrium, the payment to U.S. capital owners equals:
a. $3
b. $6
c. $9
d. $12

40. Consider Figure 9.2. If Mexican migration to the United States results in the labor force increasing to 3 workers, denoted by schedule S1, the:
a. Wage rate for native U.S. workers decreases and the payments to U.S. capital owners increases
b. Wage rate for native U.S. workers decreases and the payments to U.S. capital owners decreases
c. Wage rate for native U.S. workers increases and the payments to U.S. capital owners increases
d. Wage rate for native U.S. workers increases and the payments to U.S. capital owners decreases

41. Consider Figure 9.2. As the result of the Mexican migration to the United States:
a. U.S. capital owners lose
b. Native U.S. workers lose
c. U.S. capital owners and native U.S. workers lose
d. U.S. capital owners and native U.S. workers gain

42. Consider Figure 9.2. Policies that permit Mexican workers to freely migrate to the United States would likely be resisted by:
a. U.S. capital owners
b. Native U.S. workers
c. U.S. capital owners and native U.S. workers
d. Neither U.S. capital owners nor native U.S. workers

43. ____ refers to highly educated and skilled people who migrate from poor developing countries to wealthy industrial countries.
a. Direct investment
b. Portfolio investment
c. Transfer pricing
d. Brain drain

44. “Guest worker” programs generally result in temporary migration of workers from:
a. Wealthy nations to wealthy nations
b. Wealthy nations to impoverished nations
c. Impoverished nations to wealthy nations
d. Impoverished nations to impoverished nations

45. Mexico’s ____ refer to an assemblage of U.S.-owned companies that use U.S.-owned parts and Mexican assembly to manufacture goods that are exported to the United States.
a. Multinational corporations
b. International joint ventures
c. Maquiladoras
d. Transplants

46. Critics of U.S. trade and immigration policy maintain that
a. It has depressed wages for many Americans
b. It has increased the supply of less educated workers in the United States
c. It has an adverse impact on the employment opportunities of less-skilled, American workers
d. All of the above

47. American critics of U.S. multinational enterprises contend that they promote
a. Runaway jobs
b. Technology transfers abroad
c. Tax evasion
d. All of the above

48. Joint ventures may lead to
a. Welfare increases
b. Welfare decreases
c. No changes in welfare
d. All of the above

49. Foreign direct investment typically occurs when
a. The earnings of the parent company are invested in plant expansion overseas
b. The parent company transfers jobs overseas
c. The parent company closes its foreign production plants
d. The parent company purchases bonds of foreign governments

TRUE/FALSE

1. International trade in goods and services and flows of productive factors are substitutes for each other.

2. Most multinational corporations have a low ratio of foreign sales to total sales, usually 5 percent or less.

3. Vertical integration occurs if a parent multinational corporation establishes foreign subsidiaries to produce intermediate goods or inputs that go into the production of a finished good.

4. Exxon Oil Co. would undertake forward vertical integration if its retailing division acquired oil wells in the Middle East.

5. Forward vertical integration would occur if a U.S. automobile manufacturer acquired a German subsidiary.

6. Most vertical foreign investment, as implemented by multinational corporations, is “forward” in nature rather than “backward.”

7. Horizontal integration would occur if General Motors sets up a subsidiary in Mexico to produce automobiles identical to those that it produces in the United States.

8. Multinational corporations sometimes locate manufacturing subsidiaries abroad to avoid tariff barriers which would place their products at a competitive disadvantage in a foreign country.

9. Foreign direct investment would occur if Mobile Inc. of the United States acquired sufficient common stock in a foreign oil company to assume voting control.

10. Foreign direct investment would occur if Microsoft Inc. of the United States purchased securities of the French government.

11. Conglomerate integration would occur if General Motors Inc. of the United States acquired a controlling interest in a British chemical company.

12. Both economic theory and empirical studies support the notion that foreign direct investment is conducted in anticipation of future profits.

13. Multinational corporations often locate manufacturing operations abroad in order to take advantage of foreign resource endowments or wage scales.

14. If the size of the Canadian market is large enough to permit efficient production in Canada, a U.S. firm would profit by establishing a Canadian manufacturing subsidiary or licensing rights to a Canadian firm to manufacture and sell its product in Canada.

15. There is virtually universal agreement among economists that foreign direct investment in the United States has reduced the economic welfare of the average U.S. citizen.

16. Foreign-owned companies in the United States operate under more strict antitrust, environmental, and other regulations than U.S.-owned companies.

17. During the 1980s and 1990s, Japanese auto firms established manufacturing facilities in the United States known as “transplants.”

18. By establishing transplant factories in the United States, Japanese automakers were able to avoid export restrictions imposed by the Japanese government, but not import restrictions imposed by the U.S. government.

19. Mergers differ from joint ventures in that they involve the creation of a new business firm, rather than the union of two existing companies.

20. Developing countries, such as Mexico and India, often close their borders to foreign companies unless they are willing to take on partner companies in developing countries.

21. In natural-resource oriented industries, such as oil and copper, joint ventures have often been formed by several companies since the cost of resource-extraction may be prohibitively large for a particular company.

22. International joint ventures tend to yield a welfare increasing market-power effect and a welfare decreasing cost-reduction effect.

23. A joint venture leads to increases in national welfare if the cost-reduction effect is due to wage concessions and if it more than offsets the market-power effect.

24. A joint venture leads to increases in national welfare if its cost-reduction effect is due to productivity gains and if it more than offsets the market-power effect.

25. Joint ventures lead to losses in national welfare when the newly established business adds to pre-existing production capacity and fosters additional competition.

26. Joint ventures lead to national welfare gains if the newly established business yields productivity increases that would have been unavailable if each parent performed the same function separately.

27. A joint venture along two large competing companies tends to yield a market-power effect, which results in a reduction in consumer surplus, that is not offset by a corresponding gain to producers.

28. If a joint venture among competing firms is able to cut costs by extracting wage concessions from domestic workers, national welfare increases.

29. Critics of multinational corporations maintain that they often abandon domestic workers in order to take advantage of lower wage scales abroad.

30. The theory of multinational enterprise is totally inconsistent with the principle of comparative advantage.

31. Due to transfer-pricing problems, multinational corporations must shift profits away from countries with low corporate tax rates to high tax-rate countries, thus absorbing a larger tax bite.

32. Maquiladoras refer to an assemblage of U.S.-owned companies that combine Mexican parts and U.S. assembly to manufacture goods that are exported to Mexico.

33. Opposition to Mexico’s maquiladoras has come from U.S. labor unions which claim that maquiladoras have resulted in job losses for U.S. workers.

34. As workers migrate from low-wage Mexico to high-wage United States, wages tend to rise in Mexico and fall in the United States.

35. The migration of workers from Mexico to the United States tends to exert downward pressure on the wages of native U.S. workers that compete against Mexican workers for jobs.

36. The effect of workers migrating from low-wage Mexico to high-wage United States is to redistribute income from capital to labor in the United States and from labor to capital in Mexico.

37. In the United States, labor unions have generally resisted efforts to implement restrictions on the number of foreigners allowed into the country.

38. Developing countries have sometimes feared open immigration policies of developed countries on the grounds that highly educated and skilled people may emigrate to the developed countries, thus limiting the growth potential of the developing countries.

39. The United States has discouraged the “brain drain” problem by permitting the immigration of unskilled workers while restricting the immigration of skilled persons.

40. Labor migration tends to increase output and decrease wages in the country of immigration while decreasing output and increasing wages in the country of emigration.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What are the typical ways in which multinational enterprises have diversified their operations?

2. What are Mexican maquiladoras?

ESSAY

1. Are there any differences between the theory of multinational enterprises and conventional trade theory?

2. What are the disadvantages of forming joint ventures?

ECO 305 Week 8 Quiz

CHAPTER 10—THE BALANCE OF PAYMENTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. On the balance-of-payments statements, merchandise imports are classified in the:
a. Current account
b. Capital account
c. Unilateral transfer account
d. Official settlements account

2. The balance of international indebtedness is a record of a country’s international:
a. Investment position over a period of time
b. Investment position at a fixed point in time
c. Trade position over a period of time
d. Trade position at a fixed point in time

3. Which balance-of-payments item does not directly enter into the calculation of the U.S. gross domestic product?
a. Merchandise imports
b. Shipping and transportation receipts
c. Direct foreign investment
d. Service exports

4. Which of the following is considered a capital inflow?
a. A sale of U.S. financial assets to a foreign buyer
b. A loan from a U.S. bank to a foreign borrower
c. A purchase of foreign financial assets by a U.S. buyer
d. A U.S. citizen’s repayment of a loan from a foreign bank

5. Which of the following would call for inpayments to the United States?
a. American imports of German steel
b. Gold flowing out of the United States
c. American unilateral transfers to less-developed countries
d. American firms selling insurance to British shipping companies

6. In a country’s balance of payments, which of the following transactions are debits?
a. Domestic bank balances owned by foreigners are decreased
b. Foreign bank balances owned by domestic residents are decreased
c. Assets owned by domestic residents are sold to nonresidents
d. Securities are sold by domestic residents to nonresidents

7. Which of the following is classified as a credit in the U.S. balance of payments?
a. U.S. exports
b. U.S. gifts to other countries
c. A flow of gold out of the U.S.
d. Foreign loans made by U.S. companies

Table 10.1 gives hypothetical figures for U.S. International Transactions.

Table 10.1. U.S. International Transactions

Amount
Transaction (billions of dollars)

Merchandise imports 110
Military transactions, net -5
Remittances, pensions, transfers -20
U.S. private assets abroad -50
Merchandise exports 115
Investment income, net 15
U.S. government grants -5
(excluding military)
Foreign private assets in the U.S. 25
Compensation of employees -5
Allocation of SDRs 5
Travel and transportation receipts, net 20

8. Referring to Table 10.1, the goods and services balance equals:
a. $5 billion
b. $15 billion
c. $20 billion
d. $25 billion

9. Referring to Table 10.1, the current account balance equals:
a. $5 billion
b. $10 billion
c. $15 billion
d. $20 billion

10. Unlike the balance of payments, the balance of international indebtedness indicates the international:
a. Investment position of a country at a given moment in time
b. Investment position of a country over a one-year period
c. Trade position of a country at a given moment in time
d. Trade position of a country over a one-year period

11. Which of the following indicates the international investment position of a country at a given moment in time?
a. The balance of payments
b. The capital account of the balance of payments
c. The current account of the balance of payments
d. The balance of international indebtedness

12. Concerning the U.S. balance of payments, which account is defined in essentially the same way as the net export of goods and services, which comprises part of the country’s gross domestic product?
a. Merchandise trade account
b. Goods and services account
c. Current account
d. Capital account

13. If an American receives dividends from the shares of stock she or he owns in Toyota, Inc., a Japanese firm, the transaction would be recorded on the U.S. balance of payments as a:
a. Capital account debit
b. Capital account credit
c. Current account debit
d. Current account credit

14. If the United States government sells military hardware to Saudi Arabia, the transaction would be recorded on the U.S. balance of payments as a:
a. Current account debit
b. Current account credit
c. Capital account debit
d. Capital account credit

15. The U.S. balance of trade is determined by:
a. Exchange rates
b. Growth of economies overseas
c. Relative prices in world markets
d. All of the above

16. U.S. military aid granted to foreign countries is entered in the:
a. Merchandise trade account
b. Capital account
c. Current account
d. Official settlements account

17. If the U.S. faces a balance-of-payments deficit on the current account, it must run a surplus on:
a. The official settlements account
b. The capital account
c. Either the official settlements account or the capital account
d. Both the official settlements account and the capital account

18. The current account of the U.S. balance of payments does not include:
a. Investment income
b. Merchandise exports and imports
c. The sale of securities to foreigners
d. Unilateral transfers

19. The U.S. has a balance of trade deficit when its:
a. Merchandise exports exceed its merchandise imports
b. Merchandise imports exceed its merchandise exports
c. Goods and services exports exceed its goods and services imports
d. Goods and services imports exceed its goods and services exports

20. The value to American residents of income earned from overseas investments shows up in which account in the U.S. balance of payments?
a. Current account
b. Trade account
c. Unilateral transfers account
d. Capital account

Table 10.2. International Investment Position of the United States

U.S. assets abroad
U.S. government assets $800 billion
U.S. private assets $200 billion

Foreign assets in the U.S.
Foreign official assets $600 billion
Foreign private assets $300 billion

21. Consider Table 10.2. The U.S. balance of international indebtedness suggests that the United States is a net:
a. Debtor
b. Creditor
c. Spender
d. Exporter

22. For the first time since World War I, in 1985 the United States became a net international:
a. Exporter
b. Importer
c. Debtor
d. Creditor

23. A country that is a net international debtor initially experiences:
a. An augmented savings pool available to finance domestic spending
b. A higher interest rate, which leads to lower domestic investment
c. A loss of funds to trading partners overseas
d. A decrease in its services exports to other countries

24. Credit (+) items in the balance of payments correspond to anything that:
a. Involves receipts from foreigners
b. Involves payments to foreigners
c. Decreases the domestic money supply
d. Increases the demand for foreign exchange

25. Debt (-) items in the balance of payments correspond to anything that:
a. Involves receipts from foreigners
b. Involves payments to foreigners
c. Increases the domestic money supply
d. Decreases the demand for foreign exchange

26. When all of the debit or credit items in the balance of payments are combined:
a. Merchandise imports equal merchandise exports
b. Capital imports equal capital exports
c. Services exports equal services imports
d. The total surplus or deficit equals zero

27. In the balance of payments, the statistical discrepancy is used to:
a. Ensure that the sum of all debits matches the sum of all credits
b. Ensure that trade imports equal the value of trade exports
c. Obtain an accurate account of a balance-of-payments deficit
d. Obtain an accurate account of a balance-of-payments surplus

28. All of the following are credit items in the balance of payments, except:
a. Investment inflows
b. Merchandise exports
c. Payments for American services to foreigners
d. Private gifts to foreign residents

29. All of the following are debit items in the balance of payments, except:
a. Capital outflows
b. Merchandise exports
c. Private gifts to foreigners
d. Foreign aid granted to other nations

30. The role of ____ is to direct one nation’s savings into another nation’s investments:
a. Merchandise trade flows
b. Services flows
c. Current account flows
d. Capital flows

31. When a country realizes a deficit on its current account:
a. Its net foreign investment position becomes positive
b. It becomes a net demander of funds from other countries
c. It realizes an excess of imports over exports on goods and services
d. It becomes a net supplier of funds to other countries

32. Reducing a current account deficit requires a country to:
a. Increase private saving relative to investment
b. Increase private consumption relative to saving
c. Increase private investment relative to consumption
d. Increase private investment relative to saving

33. Reducing a current account deficit requires a country to:
a. Increase the government’s deficit and increase private investment relative to saving
b. Increase the government’s deficit and decrease private investment relative to saving
c. Decrease the government’s deficit increase private investment relative to saving
d. Decrease the government’s deficit and decrease private investment relative to saving

34. Reducing a current account surplus requires a country to:
a. Increase the government’s deficit and increase private investment relative to saving
b. Increase the government’s deficit and decrease private investment relative to saving
c. Decrease the government’s deficit and increase private investment relative to saving
d. Decrease the government’s deficit and decrease private investment relative to saving

35. Concerning a country’s business cycle, rapid growth of production and employment is commonly associated with:
a. Large or growing trade deficits and current account deficits
b. Large or growing trade deficits and current account surpluses
c. Small or shrinking trade deficits and current account deficits
d. Small or shrinking trade deficits and current account surpluses

36. The burden of a current account deficit would be the least if a nation uses what it borrows to finance:
a. Unemployment compensation benefits
b. Social Security benefits
c. Expenditures on food and recreation
d. Investment on plant and equipment

37. Concerning a country’s business cycle, ____ is commonly associated with large or growing current account deficits:
a. Rapid growth rates of production and employment
b. Slow growth rates of production and employment
c. Falling interest rates on government securities
d. Falling interest rates on corporate securities

38. According to researchers at the Federal Reserve, the loss of jobs associated with a deficit in the current account tends to be:
a. Offset by the increase of jobs associated with a surplus in the capital account
b. Reinforced by the decrease of jobs associated with a surplus in the capital account
c. A threat to the level of employment for the economy as a whole
d. Of no long-run economic consequence for workers who lose their jobs

TRUE/FALSE

Table 10.3 shows hypothetical transactions, in billions of U.S. dollars, that took place during a year.

Table 10.3. International Transactions of the United States

Amount
(billions of dollars)
Transaction

Allocation of SDRs 10
Changes in U.S. assets abroad 100
Statistical discrepancy -15
Merchandise imports -400
Payments on foreign assets in U.S. -20
Remittances, pensions, transfers -60
Travel and transportation receipts, net 30
Military transactions, net -10
Investment income, net 100
Merchandise exports 350
U.S. government grants (excluding military) -20
Changes in foreign assets in the U.S. 190
Other services, net 80
Receipts on U.S. investments abroad 30
Compensation of employees -10

1. Refer to Table 10.3. The merchandise-trade balance registered a deficit of $50 billion.

2. Refer to Table 10.3. The services balance registered a surplus of $100 billion.

3. Refer to Table 10.3. The goods-and-services balance registered a surplus of $50 billion.

4. Refer to Table 10.3. The unilateral-transfers balance registered a deficit of $40 billion.

5. Refer to Table 10.3. The current-account balance registered a surplus of $30 billion.

6. Refer to Table 10.3. The “net exports” component of the U.S. gross domestic product registered $-110 billion.

7. Refer to Table 10.3. The payments data suggest that the United States was a “net demander” of $30 billion from the rest of the world.

8. The balance of payments refers to the stock of trade and investment transactions that exists at a particular point in time.

9. Referring to the balance-of-payments statement, an international transaction refers to the exchange of goods, services, and assets between residents of one country and those abroad.

10. The balance of payments includes international transactions of households and businesses, but not government.

11. Because the balance of payments utilizes double-entry accounting, merchandise exports will always be in balance with merchandise imports.

12. On the U.S. balance-of-payments statement, the following transactions are credits, leading to the receipt of dollars from foreigners: merchandise exports, transportation receipts, income received from investments abroad, and investments in the United States by foreign residents.

13. On the U.S. balance of payments, the following transactions are debits, leading to payments to foreigners: merchandise imports, travel expenditures, gifts to foreign residents, and overseas investments by U.S. residents.

14. The “goods and services” account of the balance of payments shows the monetary value of international flows associated with transactions in goods, services, and unilateral transfers.

15. An increase in import restrictions by the U.S. government tends to promote a merchandise-trade surplus.

16. Services transactions on Canada’s balance-of-payments statement would include Canadian ships transporting lumber to Japan, foreign tourists spending money in Canada, and Canadian engineers designing bridges in China.

17. On the balance-of-payments statement, dividend and interest income are classified as capital-account transactions.

18. A surplus on Germany’s goods-and-services balance indicates that Germany has sold more goods and services to foreigners than it has bought from them over a one-year period.

19. The merchandise-trade account on the balance-of-payments statement is defined the same way as “net exports” which constitutes part of the nation’s gross domestic product.

20. A positive balance on the goods-and-services account of the balance of payments indicates an excess of exports over imports which must be added to the nation’s gross domestic product.

21. For the United States, merchandise trade has generally constituted the largest portion of its goods-and-services account.

22. Unilateral transfers refer to two-sided transactions, reflecting the movement of goods and services in one direction with corresponding payments in the other direction.

23. Unilateral transfers consist of private-sector transfers, such as church contributions to alleviate starvation in Africa, as well as governmental transfers, such as foreign aid.

24. Current-account transactions include direct foreign investment, purchases of foreign government securities, and commercial bank loans made abroad.

25. On the U.S. balance-of-payments statement, a capital inflow would occur if a Swiss resident purchases the securities of the U.S. government.

26. If Toyota Inc. of Japan builds an automobile assembly plant in the United States, the Japanese capital account would register an outflow.

27. If Bank of America receives repayment for a loan it made to a Mexican firm, the U.S. capital account would register an inflow.

28. On the balance-of-payments statement, a capital inflow can be likened to the import of goods and services.

29. The capital account of the balance of payments includes private-sector transactions as well as official-settlements transactions of the home country’s central bank.

30. If the current account of the balance of payments registers a deficit, the capital account registers a surplus, and vice versa.

31. Concerning the balance of payments, a current-account surplus means an excess of exports over imports of goods, services, investment income, and unilateral transfers.

32. If a country realizes a current-account deficit in its balance of payments, it becomes a net supplier of funds to the rest of the world.

33. Concerning the balance of payments, a current-account deficit results in a worsening of a country’s net foreign investment position.

34. In the balance-of-payments statement, statistical discrepancy is treated as part of the merchandise trade account because merchandise transactions are generally the most frequent source of error.

35. Because a large number of international transactions fail to get recorded, statisticians insert a residual, known as statistical discrepancy, to ensure that total debits equal total credits.

36. Concerning the balance of payments, the goods-and-services balance is commonly referred to as the “trade balance” by the news media.

37. Since the 1970s, the merchandise trade account of the U.S. balance of payments has registered deficit.

38. Although the United States has realized merchandise trade deficits since the early 1970s, its goods-and-services balance has always registered surplus.

39. In the past two decades, the U.S. services balance has generally registered surplus.

40. The U.S. unilateral-transfers balance has consistently registered surplus in the past two decades.

41. Because the balance of payments is a record of the economic transactions of a country over a period of time, it is a “flow” concept.

42. The United States would be a “net creditor” if the value of U.S. assets abroad exceeded the value of foreign assets in the United States.

43. If a country consistently realizes a current-account surplus in its balance of payments, it likely will become a “net debtor” in its balance of international indebtedness.

44. By the mid-1980s, the United States had evolved from the status of a net-creditor nation to a net-debtor nation in its balance of international indebtedness.

45. The net-debtor status, that the United States achieved in its balance of international indebtedness by the mid-1980s, reflected the continuous current-account surplus that the United States attained in its balance of payments during the 1970s.

46. Although a net-debtor country may initially benefit from an inflow of savings from abroad, over the long run continued borrowing results in growing dividend payments to foreigners and a drain on the debtor-country’s economic resources.

47. The official reserve assets of the United States consist of holdings of gold and foreign corporate securities.

48. That U.S. importers purchase bananas from Brazil constitutes a debit transaction on the U.S. balance of payments.

49. That German investors collect interest income on their holdings of U.S. Treasury bills constitutes a credit transaction on the U.S. balance of payments.

50. That U.S. charities donate funds to combat starvation in Africa constitutes a debit transaction on the U.S. balance of payments.

51. To reduce a current account deficit, a country should either decrease the budget deficit of its government or reduce investment spending relative to saving.

52. Most economists belief that in the 1980s, a massive outflow of capital caused a current account deficit for the United States.

53. A current account deficit for the United States necessarily reduces the standard of living for American households.

54. Rapid growth of production and employment is commonly associated with large or growing trade surpluses and current account surpluses.

55. Often, countries realizing rapid economic growth rates possess long-run current account deficits.

56. For the United States, a consequence of its current account deficit is a growing foreign ownership of the capital stock of the United States and a rising fraction of U.S. income that must be diverted abroad in the form of interest and dividends to foreigners.

57. Most economists contend that any reduction in the current account deficit is better achieved through increased national saving than through reduced domestic investment.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What are the components of the current account of the balance of payments?

2. Concerning the balance of international indebtedness, when is a country a net creditor or a net debtor?

ESSAY

1. How do we measure the international investment position of the United States at any point in time? How did the U.S. become a net debtor nation so rapidly?

2. What does a current account deficit mean?

CHAPTER 11—FOREIGN EXCHANGE

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Assume you are an American exporter and expect to receive 50 pounds sterling at the end of 60 days. You can remove the risk of loss due to a devaluation of the pound sterling by:
a. Selling sterling in the forward market for 60-day delivery
b. Buying sterling now and selling it at the end of 60 days
c. Selling the dollar equivalent in the forward market for 60-day delivery
d. Keeping the sterling in Britain after it is delivered to you

2. Which of the following tends to cause the U.S. dollar to appreciate in value?
a. An increase in U.S. prices above foreign prices
b. Rapid economic growth in foreign countries
c. A fall in U.S. interest rates below foreign levels
d. An increase in the level of U.S. income

3. Concerning the covering of exchange market risks–assuming that a depreciation of the domestic currency is anticipated, one can say that there is an incentive for:
a. Exporters to rush to cover their future needs
b. Importers to rush to cover their future needs
c. Both exporters and importers to rush to cover their future needs
d. Neither exporters nor importers to rush to cover their future needs

4. When short-term interest rates become lower in Tokyo than in New York, interest arbitrage operations will most likely result in a:
a. Increase in the spot price of the yen
b. Increase in the forward price of the dollar
c. Sale of dollars in the forward market
d. Purchase of yen in the spot market

5. An appreciation in the value of the U.S. dollar against the British pound would tend to:
a. Discourage the British from buying American goods
b. Discourage Americans from buying British goods
c. Increase the number of dollars that could be bought with a pound
d. Discourage U.S. tourists from traveling to Britain

6. Concerning the foreign exchange market, one can best say that:
a. There is a spot market for virtually every currency in the world
b. The market is highly centralized like the stock exchange
c. Most foreign exchange payments are made with bank notes
d. The values of the forward and spot rates are always in agreement

7. Suppose researchers discover that Swiss beer causes cancer when given in large amounts to British mice. This finding would likely result in a (an):
a. Increase in the demand for Swiss francs
b. Decrease in the demand for Swiss francs
c. Increase in the supply of Swiss francs
d. Decrease in the supply of Swiss francs

8. Suppose that real incomes increase more rapidly in the United States than in Mexico. In the United States, this situation would likely result in a (an):
a. Increase in the demand for pesos
b. Decrease in the demand for pesos
c. Increase in the supply of pesos
d. Decrease in the supply of pesos

9. A depreciation of the dollar refers to:
a. A fall in the dollar price of foreign currency
b. An increase in the dollar price of foreign currency
c. A loss of foreign-exchange reserves for the U.S.
d. An intervention in the international money market

10. If Canadian speculators believed the Swiss franc was going to appreciate against the U.S. dollar, they would:
a. Purchase Canadian dollars
b. Purchase U.S. dollars
c. Purchase Swiss francs
d. Sell Swiss francs

11. A major difference between the spot market and the forward market is that the spot market deals with:
a. The immediate delivery of currencies
b. The merchandise trade account
c. Currencies traded for future delivery
d. Hedging of international currency risks

12. The exchange rate is kept the same in all parts of the market by:
a. Forward cover
b. Hedging
c. Exchange speculation
d. Exchange arbitrage

13. If you have a commitment to pay a friend in Britain 1,000 pounds in 30 days, you could remove the risk of loss due to the appreciation of the pound by:
a. Buying dollars in the forward market for delivery in 30 days
b. Selling dollars in the forward market for delivery in 30 days
c. Buying the pounds in the forward market for delivery in 30 days
d. Selling the pounds in the forward market for delivery in 30 days

14. An increase in the dollar price of other currencies tends to cause:
a. U.S. goods to be cheaper than foreign goods
b. U.S. goods to be more expensive than foreign goods
c. Foreign goods to be more expensive to residents of foreign nations
d. Foreign goods to be cheaper to residents of the United States

15. The balance on merchandise trade:
a. Must be negative
b. Must be positive
c. Must be zero
d. May be negative, positive, or zero

16. Which of the following would not induce the U.S. demand curve for foreign exchange to shift backward to the left?
a. Worsening American tastes for goods produced overseas
b. Increasing interest rates in the U.S. compared to those overseas
c. A fall in the level of U.S. income
d. A depreciation in the U.S. dollar against foreign currencies

17. A U.S. export company scheduled to receive 1 million pounds six months from today can hedge its foreign exchange risk by:
a. Buying today 1 million pounds in the forward market for delivery in six months
b. Buying 1 million pounds in the spot market for delivery in six months
c. Selling 1 million pounds in the spot market for delivery in six months
d. Selling today 1 million pounds in the forward market for delivery in six months

18. Over time, a depreciation in the value of a nation’s currency in the foreign exchange market will result in:
a. Exports rising and imports falling
b. Imports rising and exports falling
c. Both imports and exports rising
d. Both imports and exports falling

19. Grain shortages in countries that buy large amounts of grain from the United States would increase the demand for American grain and:
a. Reduce the demand for dollars
b. Increase the demand for dollars
c. Reduce the supply of dollars
d. Increase the supply of dollars

20. Suppose the exchange rate between the Japanese yen and the U.S. dollar is 100 yen per dollar. A Japanese stereo with a price of 60,000 yen will cost:
a. $60
b. $600
c. $6000
d. None of the above

21. The supply of foreign currency may be:
a. Upward-sloping
b. Backward-sloping
c. Vertical
d. None of the above

22. Suppose that a Swiss watch that costs 400 francs in Switzerland costs $200 in the United States. The exchange rate between the franc and the dollar is:
a. 2 francs per dollar
b. 1 franc per dollar
c. $2 per franc
d. $3 per franc

23. In the early 1980s, the Federal Reserve pursued a tight monetary policy. All else being equal, the impact of that policy was to ____ interest rates in the United States relative to those in Europe and cause the dollar to ____ against European currencies.
a. Decrease, depreciate
b. Decrease, appreciate
c. Increase, depreciate
d. Increase, appreciate

24. Under a system of floating exchange rates, the Swiss franc would depreciate in value if which of the following occurs?
a. Price inflation in France
b. An increase in U.S. real income
c. A decrease in the Swiss money supply
d. Falling interest rates in Switzerland

25. A depreciation of the dollar will have its most pronounced impact on imports if the demand for imports is:
a. Constant
b. Inelastic
c. Elastic
d. Unitary elastic

26. During the era of dollar appreciation, from 1981 to 1985, a main reason why the dollar did not fall in value was:
a. Flows of foreign investment into the United States
b. Rising price inflation in the United States
c. A substantial decrease in U.S. imports
d. A substantial increase in U.S. exports

27. Which financial instrument provides a buyer the right to purchase or sell a fixed amount of currency at a prearranged price, within a few days to a couple of years?
a. Letter of credit
b. Foreign currency option
c. Cable transfer
d. Bill of exchange

28. Given the foreign currency market for the Swiss franc, the supply of francs slopes upward, because as the dollar price of the franc rises:
a. America’s demand for Swiss merchandise rises
b. America’s demand for Swiss merchandise falls
c. Switzerland’s demand for American merchandise rises
d. Switzerland’s demand for American merchandise falls

29. In a supply-and-demand diagram for Japanese yen, with the exchange rate in dollars per yen on the vertical axis, the demand schedule for yen is drawn sloping:
a. Upward
b. Vertical
c. Downward
d. Horizontal

30. Suppose there occurs an increase in the Canadian demand for Japanese computers. This results in:
a. An increase in the demand for yen
b. A decrease in the demand for yen
c. An increase in the supply of yen to Canada
d. A decrease in the supply of yen to Canada

Table 11.1 gives the exchange rate quotations for the U.S. dollar and the British pound.

Table 11.1. Foreign Exchange Quotations

U.S. Dollar Currency Per
Equivalent U.S. Dollar

Tuesday Monday Tuesday Monday

Britain (Pound) 1.4270 1.4390 .7008 .6949
30-day Forward 1.4211 1.4333 .7037 .6977
60-day Forward 1.4090 1.4220 .7097 .7032
180-day Forward 1.3930 1.4070 .7179 .7107

31. Consider Table 11.1. If one were to buy pounds for immediate delivery, on Tuesday the dollar cost of each pound would be:
a. $0.7008
b. $0.7037
c. $1.4211
d. $1.4270

32. Consider Table 11.1. If one were to sell dollars for immediate delivery, on Tuesday the pound cost of each dollar would be:
a. .7008 pounds per dollar
b. .7037 pounds per dollar
c. 1.4270 pounds per dollar
d. 1.4211 pounds per dollar

33. Consider Table 11.1. Comparing Tuesday to the previous Monday, by Tuesday the dollar had:
a. Depreciated against the pound
b. Appreciated against the pound
c. Not changed against the pound
d. None of the above

34. Consider Table 11.1. Concerning the Tuesday quotations: compared to the cost of buying 100 pounds on the spot market, if 100 pounds were bought for future delivery in 180 days the dollar cost of the pounds would be:
a. $3.40 higher
b. $3.40 lower
c. $6.80 higher
d. $6.80 lower

35. Which method of trading currencies involves the conversion of one currency into another at one point in time with an agreement to reconvert it back to the original currency at some point in the future?
a. Forward transaction
b. Futures transaction
c. Spot transaction
d. Swap transaction

36. Most foreign exchange trading occurs between banks and:
a. National governments
b. Other banks
c. Corporations
d. Household investors

37. The most important (in terms of dollar value) type of foreign exchange transaction by U.S. banks is the:
a. Spot transaction
b. Forward transaction
c. Swap transaction
d. Option transaction

38. In the interbank market for foreign exchange, the ____ refers to the price that a bank is willing to pay for a unit of foreign currency.
a. Offer rate
b. Bid rate
c. Spread rate
d. Transaction rate

39. In the interbank market for foreign exchange, the ____ refers to the price for which a bank is willing to sell a unit of foreign currency.
a. Offer rate
b. Option rate
c. Futures rate
d. Bid rate

40. In the interbank market for foreign exchange, the ____ refers to the difference between the offer rate and the bid rate.
a. Cross rate
b. Option
c. Arbitrage
d. Spread

41. A corporation dealing in foreign exchange may desire to obtain an exchange quote between the pound and franc, whose values are both expressed relative to the dollar. ____ are used to determine such a relationship.
a. Spot exchange rates
b. Forward exchange rates
c. Cross exchange rates
d. Option exchange rates

42. Suppose the exchange value of the British pound is $2 per pound while the exchange value of the Swiss franc is 50 cents per pound. The cross exchange rate between the pound and the franc is:
a. 1 franc per pound
b. 2 francs per pound
c. 3 francs per pound
d. 4 francs per pound

Exhibit 11.1

Assume the following: (1) the interest rate on 6-month treasury bills is 8 percent per annum in the United Kingdom and 4 percent per annum in the United States; (2) today’s spot price of the pound is $1.50 while the 6-month forward price of the pound is $1.485.

43. Refer to Exhibit 11.1. By investing in U.K. treasury bills rather than U.S. treasury bills, and not covering exchange rate risk, U.S. investors earn an extra return of:
a. 4 percent per year, 1 percent for the 6 months
b. 4 percent per year, 2 percent for the 6 months
c. 2 percent per year, 0.5 percent for the 6 months
d. 2 percent per year, 1 percent for the 6 months

44. Refer to Exhibit 11.1. If U.S. investors cover their exchange rate risk, the extra return for the 6 months on the U.K. treasury bills is:
a. 1.0 percent
b. 1.5 percent
c. 2.0 percent
d. 2.5 percent

45. Refer to Exhibit 11.1. If the price of the 6-month forward pound were to ____, U.S. investors would no longer earn an extra return by shifting funds to the United Kingdom.
a. Rise to $1.52
b. Rise to $1.53
c. Fall to $1.48
d. Fall to $1.47

46. Assume that you are the Chase Manhattan Bank of the United States, and you have 1 million Swiss francs in your vault that you will need to use in 30 days. Moreover, you need 500,000 British pounds for the next 30 days. You arrange to loan your francs to Barclays Bank of London for 30 days in exchange for 500,000 pounds today, and reverse the transaction at the end of 30 days. You have just arranged a:
a. Forward contract
b. Futures contract
c. Spot contract
d. Currency swap

Figure 11.1 illustrates the supply and demand schedules for the Swiss franc. Assume that exchange rates are flexible.

Figure 11.1. Supply and Demand Schedules of Francs

47. Refer to Figure 11.1. At the equilibrium exchange rate of ____ per franc, ____ francs will be purchased at a total dollar cost of ____.
a. $.50, 5 million, $2.5 million
b. $.50, 5 million, $1.5 million
c. $.70, 3 million, $2.1 million
d. $.70, 7 million, $4.9 million

48. Refer to Figure 11.1. Suppose the exchange rate is $.70 per franc. At this exchange rate there is an ____ of francs which leads to a ____ in the dollar price of the franc, a (an) ____ in the quantity of francs supplied, and a (an) ____ in the quantity of francs demanded.
a. Excess demand, rise, increase, decrease
b. Excess demand, rise, decrease, increase
c. Excess supply, fall, decrease, increase
d. Excess supply, fall, increase, decrease

49. Refer to Figure 11.1. Suppose the exchange rate is $.30 per franc. At this exchange rate there is an ____ of francs which leads to a ____ in the dollar price of the franc, a (an) ____ in the quantity of francs supplied, and a (an) ____ in the quantity of francs demanded.
a. Excess demand, rise, increase, decrease
b. Excess demand, rise, decrease, increase
c. Excess supply, fall, decrease, increase
d. Excess supply, fall, increase, decrease

50. Refer to Figure 11.1. Suppose the exchange rate is $.70 per franc. Free-market forces would lead to a (an) ____ of the dollar against the franc and a (an) ____ in U.S. international competitiveness.
a. Depreciation, improvement
b. Depreciation, worsening
c. Appreciation, improvement
d. Appreciation, worsening

51. Refer to Figure 11.1. Suppose the exchange rate is $.30 per franc. Free-market forces would lead to a (an) ____ of the dollar against the franc and a (an) ____ in U.S. international competitiveness:
a. Depreciation, improvement
b. Depreciation, worsening
c. Appreciation, improvement
d. Appreciation, worsening

The figure below illustrates the market for Swiss francs in a world of market-determined exchange rates. Assume the equilibrium exchange rate is $0.5 per franc, given by the intersection of schedules S0 and D0.

Figure 11.2. Market for Francs

52. Refer to Figure 11.2. A shift in the demand for francs from D0 to D1 or a shift in the supply of francs from S0 to S2, would result in a (an):
a. Depreciation in the dollar against the franc
b. Appreciation in the dollar against the franc
c. Unchanged dollar/franc exchange rate
d. None of the above

53. Refer to Figure 11.2. A shift in the demand for francs from D0 to D2, or a shift in the supply of francs from S0 to S1, would result in a (an):
a. Depreciation in the dollar against the franc
b. Appreciation in the dollar against the franc
c. No change in the dollar/franc exchange rate
d. None of the above

54. A (An) ____ is an arrangement by which two parties exchange one currency for another and agree that the exchange will be reversed at a stipulated date in the future:
a. Arbitrage
b. Swap
c. Option
d. Hedge

Table 11.2. Supply and Demand of British Pounds

Quantity Dollars Quantity
of Pounds per of Pounds
Supplied Pound Demanded

1,000 2.00 200
800 1.80 400
600 1.60 600
400 1.40 800
200 1.20 1,000

55. Refer to Table 11.2. The equilibrium exchange rate equals:
a. $1.20 per pound
b. $1.40 per pound
c. $1.60 per pound
d. $1.80 per pound

56. Refer to Table 11.2. At the exchange rate of $1.40 per pound, there is an ____ for pounds. This imbalance causes ____ in the price of the pound, which leads to ____ in the quantity of pounds supplied and ____ in the quantity of pounds demanded.
a. Excess supply, a decrease, an increase, a decrease
b. Excess supply, an increase, a decrease, an increase
c. Excess demand, an increase, an increase, a decrease
d. Excess demand, an increase, a decrease, an increase

57. Refer to Table 11.2. At the exchange rate of $1.80 per pound, there is an ____ for pounds. This imbalance causes ____ in the price of the pound, which leads to ____ in the quantity of pounds supplied and ____ in the quantity of pounds demanded.
a. Excess supply, a decrease, a decrease, an increase
b. Excess supply, an increase, a decrease, an increase
c. Excess demand, an increase, an increase, a decrease
d. Excess demand, an increase, a decrease, an increase

Table 11.3. Key Currency Cross Rates

Dollar Euro Pound Swiss Franc

Canada 1.5326 1.4400 2.2362 0.9790
Japan 124.48 116.96 181.63 79.515
Mexico 9.7410 9.1526 14.213 6.2223
Switzerland 1.5655 1.4709 2.2842 ……….
U.K. .68540 .6440 ………. .4378
Euro 1.06430 ………. 1.5529 .67984
U.S. ………. .9396 1.4591 .63877

58. Referring to Table 11.3, the cross exchange rate between the euro and Swiss franc is approximately:
a. .68 euros per franc
b. .68 francs per euro
c. .64 euros per franc
d. .64 francs per euro

59. Referring to Table 11.3, the yen cost of purchasing 100 British pounds is roughly:
a. 18,000 yen
b. 19,000 yen
c. 20,000 yen
d. 21,000 yen

Table 11.4. Forward Exchange Rates

U.S. Dollar Equivalent

Wednesday Tuesday

Switzerland (Franc) .6598 .6590
30-day Forward .6592 .6585
90-day Forward .6585 .6578
180-day Forward .6577 .6572

60. Refer to Table 11.4. On Wednesday, the 30-day forward franc was selling at a:
a. 1 percent premium per annum against the dollar
b. 2 percent premium per annum against the dollar
c. 1 percent discount per annum against the dollar
d. 2 percent discount per annum against the dollar

61. Refer to Table 11.4. On Wednesday, the 90-day forward franc was selling at a:
a. 0.8 percent premium per annum against the dollar
b. 1.6 percent premium per annum against the dollar
c. 0.8 percent discount per annum against the dollar
d. 1.6 percent discount per annum against the dollar

62. Refer to Table 11.4. On Wednesday, the 180-day forward franc was selling at a:
a. 0.6 percent premium per annum against the dollar
b. 1.6 percent premium per annum against the dollar
c. 0.6 percent discount per annum against the dollar
d. 1.6 percent discount per annum against the dollar

63. Refer to Table 11.4. Comparing the franc’s forward rates against the franc’s spot rate, the exchange market’s consensus is that over the period of a forward contract, the franc’s spot rate will:
a. Depreciate against the dollar
b. Appreciate against the dollar
c. Remain constant against the dollar
d. None of the above

64. The offer rate
a. Is the price at which the bank is willing to sell a unit of foreign currency
b. Is the price that the bank is willing to pay for a unit of foreign currency
c. Is synonymous with the spread rate
d. None of the above

65. When the dollar depreciates
a. U.S. exporters tend to sell more goods in foreign markets
b. U.S. consumers travel abroad more cheaply
c. More foreign tourists can afford to visit the United States
d. both a and c

66. When the dollar gets stronger
a. U.S. firms become more competitive in international market
b. Foreign tourists travel in the U.S. at a higher cost
c. U.S. inflation increases
d. U.S. consumers face higher prices on foreign goods

TRUE/FALSE

1. Similar to stock and commodity exchanges, the foreign exchange market is an organized structure with a central meeting place and formal licensing requirements.

2. Most foreign exchange transactions are conducted between commercial banks and household customers.

3. Foreign-exchange brokers help commercial banks carry out foreign exchange trading and maintain desired balances of foreign exchange.

4. A person needing foreign exchange immediately would purchase it on the spot market.

5. Most foreign exchange trading is carried out in the forward market.

6. Swap transactions among commercial banks involve the conversion of one currency to another at one point with an agreement to reconvert it back into the original currency at some point in the future.

7. The bid rate refers to the price at which a bank is willing to sell a unit of foreign currency; the offer rate is the price at which a bank is willing to buy a unit of foreign currency.

8. A commercial bank profits from foreign-exchange trading when its bid rate exceeds its offer rate.

9. The “spread” is a bank’s profit margin on foreign exchange trading and equals the difference between the bid rate and the offer rate.

10. If Citibank quoted bid and offer rates for the Swiss franc at $.4850/$.4854, the bank would be prepared to buy, say, 1 million francs for $485,000 and sell them for $485,400.

11. If Chase Manhattan Bank quotes bid and offer rates for the Swiss franc at $.5250/$.5260, the bank would realize profits of $1,000 on the purchase and sale of 1 million francs.

12. If a Citibank dealer expects the Swiss franc to appreciate against the U.S. dollar, she will attempt to lower both bid and offer rates for the franc, attempting to persuade other dealers to buy francs from Citibank and dissuade other dealers from selling francs to Citibank.

13. If a Citibank dealer expects the Swiss franc to depreciate in the future, he will lower bid and offer rates for the franc in order to discourage other dealers from selling francs to Citibank and persuade other dealers to buy francs from Citibank.

14. If it takes $0.18544 to purchase 1 French franc, it takes 5.3926 francs to purchase $1.

15. If it takes 113.28 yen to buy $1, it takes $.009624 to buy 1 yen.

16. If it takes $1.5515 to buy 1 pound and $0.6845 to buy 1 franc, it takes 2.27 francs to buy 1 pound.

17. “Futures” currency contracts are issued by commercial banks and are tailored in size to the needs of the exporter or importer, while “forward” currency contracts are issued by the International Monetary Market in standardized round lots.

18. A foreign currency option is an agreement between a holder (corporation) and a writer (commercial bank) giving the holder the right to buy or sell a certain amount of foreign currency at any time through some specified date.

19. A “call” option gives General Motors the right to sell pounds at a specified price, while a put option gives General Motors the right to buy pounds at a specified price.

20. The demand for foreign exchange is derived from credit transactions on the balance of payments.

21. The U.S. demand for pounds is derived from U.S. exports to the United Kingdom, U.K. investments in the United States, and U.K. tourist expenditures in the United States.

22. As the dollar’s exchange value appreciates against the pound, U.S. residents tend to import more British goods and thus demand more pounds.

23. As the dollar depreciates against the peso, U.S. residents tend to import more Mexican goods and thus demand more pesos.

24. The supply of francs is derived from the desire of the Swiss to purchase German goods, make investments in Germany, repay debts to German lenders, and extend transfer payments to German residents.

25. The demand schedule for Swiss francs is always downsloping while the supply schedule of francs is always upsloping.

26. The supply schedule of yen has a positive-sloping region which corresponds to the inelastic region on the Japanese demand schedule for foreign currency.

27. The supply schedule of pesos has a negative-sloping region corresponding to the inelastic region on the Mexican demand schedule for foreign currency.

28. If the Swiss demand for dollars is elastic, a depreciation of the dollar against the franc will lead to a greater quantity of francs being supplied to the foreign exchange market to obtain dollars.

29. If the Swiss demand for dollars is inelastic, an appreciation of the dollar against the franc will lead to a greater quantity of francs being supplied to the foreign exchange market to obtain dollars.

30. If the Swiss demand for dollars is elastic, an appreciation of the dollar against the franc will lead to a greater quantity of francs being supplied to the foreign exchange market to obtain dollars.

31. If the Swiss demand for dollars is inelastic, a depreciation of the dollar against the franc will lead to a greater quantity of francs being supplied to the foreign exchange market to obtain dollars.

32. Movements along the demand schedule for pounds are caused by changes in the pound’s exchange rate.

33. Given an upward-sloping supply schedule of pounds and a downward-sloping demand schedule for pounds, an increase in the demand schedule causes an appreciation of the dollar against the pound.

34. Given an upward-sloping supply schedule of pounds and a downward-sloping demand schedule for pounds, a decrease in the demand schedule causes an appreciation of the dollar against the pound.

35. Given an upward-sloping supply schedule of pounds and a downward-sloping demand schedule for pounds, an increase in the supply schedule causes an appreciation of the dollar against the pound.

36. Given an upward-sloping supply schedule of pounds and a downward-sloping demand schedule for pounds, a decrease in the supply schedule causes an appreciation of the dollar against the pound.

37. The trade-weighted dollar is the weighted average of the exchange rates between the dollar and the most important industrial-country trading partners of the United States.

38. If the trade-weighted dollar moves from an index value to 100 to 110, the dollar depreciates by 10 percent against the trade-weighted averages of the exchange rates of the major trading partners of the United States.

39. An increase in the trade-weighted value of the dollar indicates a dollar appreciation relative to the currencies of its major trading partners and a worsening of U.S. international competitiveness.

40. With arbitrage, a trader attempts to purchase a foreign currency at a low price and, at a later date, resell the currency at a higher price in order to make a profit.

41. Arbitrage results in a riskless profit since a trader purchases a currency at a low price and simultaneously resells it at a higher price.

42. If the exchange rate is $0.01 per yen in New York and $0.015 per yen in Tokyo, an arbitrager could profit by buying yen in Tokyo and simultaneously sell them in New York.

43. Currency arbitrage tends to result in identical yen/dollar exchange rates in New York and in Tokyo.

44. In the forward market, the exchange rate is agreed on at the time of the currency contract, but payment is not made until the future delivery of the currency actually takes place.

45. If the spot price of the Swiss franc is $0.4020 and the 90-day forward franc sells for $0.4026, the franc is at a 90-day forward discount of $0.0006, or at a 0.2 percent forward discount per annum against the dollar.

46. Suppose that Sears owes 1 million yen to a Japanese electronics manufacturer in 3 months. It could hedge against the risk of a depreciation of the dollar against the yen by contracting to purchase 1 million yen in the forward market, at today’s forward rate, for delivery in 3 months.

47. Assume that Boeing anticipates receiving 20 million yen in 3 months from exports of jumbo jets to a Japanese airline. The firm could hedge against the risk of a depreciation of the dollar against the yen by contracting to sell its expected yen proceeds for dollars in the forward market at today’s forward rate.

48. A U.S. investor’s extra rate of return on an investment in France, as compared to the United States, equals the interest-rate differential adjusted for any change in the dollar/franc exchange rate.

49. A currency speculator’s goal is to buy a currency at a low price and immediately resell it at a higher price, thus realizing a riskless profit.

50. Stabilizing speculation reinforces market forces by intensifying an appreciation or a depreciation in a currency’s exchange value.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What foreign exchange transactions do banks typically engage in?

2. How is the equilibrium rate of exchange determined?

ESSAY

1. Is it possible to trade foreign exchange in the futures market? How does such trading differ from the forward market?

2. Where are foreign currency options traded?

ECO 305 Week 9 Quiz

CHAPTER 12—EXCHANGE-RATE DETERMINATION

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The relationship between the exchange rate and the prices of tradable goods is known as the:
a. Purchasing-power-parity theory
b. Asset-markets theory
c. Monetary theory
d. Balance-of-payments theory

2. If the exchange rate between Swiss francs and British pounds is 5 francs per pound, then the number of pounds that can be obtained for 200 francs equals:
a. 20 pounds
b. 40 pounds
c. 60 pounds
d. 80 pounds

3. Low real interest rates in the United States tend to:
a. Decrease the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to depreciate
b. Decrease the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to appreciate
c. Increase the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to depreciate
d. Increase the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to appreciate

4. High real interest rates in the United States tend to:
a. Decrease the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to depreciate
b. Decrease the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to appreciate
c. Increase the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to depreciate
d. Increase the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to appreciate

5. Assume that the United States faces an 8 percent inflation rate while no (zero) inflation exists in Japan. According to the purchasing-power parity theory, the dollar would be expected to:
a. Appreciate by 8 percent against the yen
b. Depreciate by 8 percent against the yen
c. Remain at its existing exchange rate
d. None of the above

6. In the presence of purchasing-power parity, if one dollar exchanges for 2 British pounds and if a VCR costs $400 in the United States, then in Great Britain the VCR should cost:
a. 200 pounds
b. 400 pounds
c. 600 pounds
d. 800 pounds

7. If wheat costs $4 per bushel in the United States and 2 pounds per bushel in Great Britain, then in the presence of purchasing-power parity the exchange rate should be:
a. $.50 per pound
b. $1.00 per pound
c. $2.00 per pound
d. $8.00 per pound

8. A primary reason that explains the appreciation in the value of the U.S. dollar in the 1980s is:
a. Large trade surpluses for the United States
b. Relatively high inflation rates in the United States
c. Lack of investor confidence in the U.S. monetary policy
d. Relatively high interest rates in the United States

9. The high foreign exchange value of the U.S. dollar in the early 1980s can best be explained by:
a. Additional investment funds made available from overseas
b. Lack of investor confidence in U.S. fiscal policy
c. Market expectations of rising inflation in the United States
d. American tourists overseas finding costs increasing

10. When the price of foreign currency (i.e., the exchange rate) is below the equilibrium level:
a. An excess demand for that currency exists in the foreign exchange market
b. An excess supply of that currency exists in the foreign exchange market
c. The demand for foreign exchange shifts outward to the right
d. The demand for foreign exchange shifts backward to the left

11. When the price of foreign currency (i.e., the exchange rate) is above the equilibrium level:
a. An excess supply of that currency exists in the foreign exchange market
b. An excess demand for that currency exists in the foreign exchange market
c. The supply of foreign exchange shifts outward to the right
d. The supply of foreign exchange shifts backward to the left

12. The appreciation in the value of the dollar in the early 1980s is explained by all of the following except:
a. The United States being considered a safe haven by foreign investors
b. Relatively high real interest rates in the United States
c. Confidence of foreign investors in the U.S. economy
d. Relatively high inflation rates in the United States

13. Suppose Mexico and the United States were the only two countries in the world. There exists an excess supply of pesos on the foreign exchange market. This suggests that:
a. Mexico’s current account is in surplus
b. Mexico’s current account is in deficit
c. The U.S. current account is in deficit
d. The U.S. current account is in equilibrium

14. If Canada runs a trade surplus with Mexico and exchange rates are floating:
a. The peso will depreciate relative to the dollar
b. The dollar will depreciate relative to the peso
c. The prices of all foreign goods will fall for Canadians
d. The prices of all foreign goods will rise for Canadians

15. If Mexico’s labor productivity rises relative to Europe’s labor productivity:
a. The peso tends to depreciate against the euro in the short run
b. The peso tends to appreciate against the euro in the short run
c. The peso tends to depreciate against the euro in the long run
d. The peso tends to appreciate against the euro in the long run

16. The international exchange value of the U.S. dollar is determined by:
a. The rate of inflation in the United States
b. The number of dollars printed by the U.S. government
c. The international demand and supply for dollars
d. The monetary value of gold held at Fort Knox, Kentucky

17. For the United States, suppose the annual interest rate on government securities equals 8 percent while the annual inflation rate equals 4 percent. For Japan, suppose the annual interest rate on government securities equals 10 percent while the annual inflation rate equals 7 percent. These variables would cause investment funds to flow from:
a. The United States to Japan, causing the dollar to depreciate
b. The United States to Japan, causing the dollar to appreciate
c. Japan to the United States, causing the yen to depreciate
d. Japan to the United States, causing the yen to appreciate

18. For the United States, suppose the annual interest rate on government securities equals 12 percent while the annual inflation rate equals 8 percent. For Japan, suppose the annual interest rate equals 5 percent. These variables would cause investment funds to flow from:
a. The United States to Japan, causing the dollar to depreciate
b. The United States to Japan, causing the dollar to appreciate
c. Japan to the United States, causing the yen to depreciate
d. Japan to the United States, causing the yen to appreciate

19. Given a system of floating exchange rates, stronger U.S. preferences for imports would trigger:
a. An increase in the demand for imports and an increase in the demand for foreign currency
b. An increase in the demand for imports and a decrease in the demand for foreign currency
c. A decrease in the demand for imports and an increase in the demand for foreign currency
d. A decrease in the demand for imports and a decrease in the demand for foreign currency

20. Given a system of floating exchange rates, weaker U.S. preferences for imports would trigger:
a. An increase in the demand for imports and an increase in the demand for foreign currency
b. An increase in the demand for imports and a decrease in the demand for foreign currency
c. A decrease in the demand for imports and an increase in the demand for foreign currency
d. A decrease in the demand for imports and a decrease in the demand for foreign currency

21. Under a system of floating exchange rates, relatively low productivity and high inflation rates in the United States result in:
a. An increase in the demand for foreign currency, a decrease in the supply of foreign currency, and a depreciation in the dollar
b. An increase in the demand for foreign currency, an increase in the supply of foreign currency, and an appreciation in the dollar
c. A decrease in the demand for foreign currency, a decrease in the supply of foreign currency, and a depreciation in the dollar
d. A decrease in the demand for foreign currency, an increase in the supply of foreign currency, and an appreciation in the dollar

22. Under a system of floating exchange rates, relatively high productivity and low inflation rates in the United States result in:
a. An increase in the demand for foreign currency, a decrease in the supply of foreign currency, and a depreciation in the dollar
b. An increase in the demand for foreign currency, an increase in the supply of foreign currency, and an appreciation in the dollar
c. A decrease in the demand for foreign currency, a decrease in the supply of foreign currency, and a depreciation in the dollar
d. A decrease in the demand for foreign currency, an increase in the supply of foreign currency, and an appreciation in the dollar

23. Which example of market expectations causes the dollar to appreciate against the yen–expectations that the U.S. economy will have:
a. Faster economic growth than Japan
b. Higher future interest rates than Japan
c. More rapid money supply growth than Japan
d. Higher inflation rates than Japan

24. Which example of market expectations causes the dollar to depreciate against the yen–expectations that the U.S. economy will have:
a. Faster economic growth than Japan
b. Higher future interest rates than Japan
c. Less rapid money supply growth than Japan
d. Lower inflation rates than Japan

25. For an American investor, the expected rate of return on European securities depends on all of the following factors except the:
a. Rate of return on equivalent American securities
b. The current exchange rate between the dollar and the pound
c. Exchange rate anticipated to prevail when the securities mature
d. Interest rate paid on European securities

26. Which of the following is likely to result in long-run depreciation of the U.S. dollar relative to the euro?
a. Relatively low interest rates in the United States
b. Relatively high labor productivity in the United States
c. Tariffs levied by the United States on steel imports from Europe
d. Stronger American preferences for goods produced in Europe

27. Which of the following is likely to result in long-run appreciation of the U.S. dollar relative to the peso?
a. Relatively high interest rates in Mexico
b. Relatively high labor productivity in Mexico
c. Tariffs applied by Mexico on computer imports from the United States
d. Stronger Mexican preferences for goods produced in the United States

28. Long-run determinants of the dollar’s exchange value include all of the following except:
a. Preferences of Americans for foreign produced goods
b. U.S. tariffs placed on imports of foreign produced goods
c. Productivity of the American worker
d. Interest rates in U.S. financial markets

29. Which theory of exchange-rate determination best views the foreign exchange market as being similar to a stock exchange where future expectations are important and prices are volatile?
a. Balance-of-payments approach
b. Purchasing-power-parity approach
c. Asset-markets approach
d. Monetary approach

30. According to the purchasing-power-parity theory, the U.S. dollar maintains its purchasing-power parity if it depreciates by an amount equal to the excess of:
a. U.S. interest rates over foreign interest rates
b. Foreign interest rates over U.S. interest rates
c. U.S. inflation over foreign inflation
d. Foreign inflation over U.S. inflation

31. An exchange rate is said to ____ when its short-run response to a change in market fundamentals is greater than its long-run response.
a. Overshoot
b. Undershoot
c. Depreciate
d. Appreciate

32. Concerning exchange rate forecasting, ____ is a common sense approach based on a wide array of political and economic data.
a. Econometric analysis
b. Technical analysis
c. Judgmental analysis
d. Sunspot analysis

33. Concerning exchange rate forecasting, ____ involves the use of historical exchange rate data to estimate future values, while ignoring the economic determinants of exchange rate movements.
a. Econometric analysis
b. Judgmental analysis
c. Technical analysis
d. Sunspot analysis

34. Concerning exchange rate forecasting, ____ relies on econometric models which are based on macroeconomic variables likely to affect currency values.
a. Fundamental analysis
b. Technical analysis
c. Judgmental analysis
d. Sunspot analysis

35. Concerning exchange-rate determination, “market fundamentals” include all of the following except:
a. Monetary policy and fiscal policy
b. Profitability and riskiness of investments
c. Speculative opinion about future exchange rates
d. Productivity changes affecting production costs

36. In the short run, exchange rates respond to market forces such as:
a. Inflation rates
b. Expectations of future exchange rates
c. Investment profitability
d. Government trade policy

37. Long-run exchange rate movements are governed by all of the following except:
a. National productivity levels
b. Consumer tastes and preferences
c. Rates of inflation
d. Interest rate levels

38. Exchange rate determination in the short run is underlied by which of the following assumptions:
a. Tariffs and quotas affect trade patterns only in the short run
b. Prices of goods and services affect trade patterns only in the short run
c. Expected returns on financial assets affect investment flows in the short run
d. Preferences for goods and services affect trade flows only in the short run

39. That identical goods should cost the same in all nations, assuming it is costless to ship goods between nations and there are no barriers to trade, is a reflection of the:
a. Monetary approach to exchange-rate determination
b. Law of one price
c. Fundamentalist approach to exchange-rate determination
d. Exchange-rate-overshooting principle

40. The Canadian dollar would depreciate on the foreign exchange market if:
a. Canadian consumer tastes change in favor of goods produced domestically
b. The profitability of assets in Canada rises relative to the profitability of assets abroad
c. Canada experiences a disastrous wheat-crop failure, leading to imports of more wheat
d. Canada realizes technological improvements in the production of manufactured goods, leading to relatively low costs for Canada

41. The demand in the United States for yen will increase if, other things remaining equal:
a. Labor costs rise in Japan
b. Income rises in Japan
c. Prices rise in Japan
d. Interest rates rise in Japan

42. The quantity of Canadian dollars supplied to the foreign exchange market would increase if, other things remaining equal:
a. Preferences for imports rise in Canada
b. Labor productivity increases in Canada
c. Prices of goods and services decrease in Canada
d. Import tariffs rise in Canada

43. The U.S. demand for pesos would shift to the right if there occurred a (an):
a. Change in preferences toward U.S. manufactured goods
b. Increase in the dollar/peso exchange rate
c. Decrease in the U.S. population
d. Increase in the U.S. price level

44. The supply of francs, would shift to the right for all of the following reasons except:
a. An increase in Swiss real income
b. An increase in Swiss prices
c. An increase in the Swiss population
d. An increase in Swiss interest rates

The figure below illustrates the supply and demand schedules of Swiss francs in a market of freely-floating exchange rates.

Figure 12.1 The Market for Francs

45. Refer to Figure 12.1. Should preferences for imports rise in the United States and fall in Switzerland, there would occur a (an):
a. Increase in the demand for francs–decrease in the supply of francs-depreciation of the dollar
b. Increase in the demand for francs–decrease in the supply of francs-appreciation of the dollar
c. Decrease in the demand for francs–decrease in the supply of francs-appreciation of the dollar
d. Decrease in the demand for francs–increase in the supply of francs-depreciation of the dollar

46. Refer to Figure 12.1. Should real interest rates in the United States rise relative to real interest rates in Switzerland, there would occur a (an):
a. Increase in the demand for francs–decrease in the supply of francs-depreciation of the dollar
b. Increase in the demand for francs–decrease in the supply of francs-appreciation of the dollar
c. Decrease in the demand for francs–increase in the supply of francs-appreciation of the dollar
d. Decrease in the demand for francs–decrease in the supply of francs-depreciation of the dollar

47. Refer to Figure 12.1. Should the U.S. price level rise relative to the Swiss price level, there would occur a (an):
a. Increase in the demand for francs–increase in the supply of francs-appreciation of the dollar
b. Decrease in the demand for francs–decrease in the supply of francs-depreciation of the dollar
c. Increase in the supply of francs–decrease in the demand for francs-appreciation of the dollar
d. Decrease in the supply of francs–increase in the demand for francs-depreciation of the dollar

48. Refer to Figure 12.1. Should the United States impose tariffs on imports from Switzerland, there would occur a (an):
a. Increase in the demand for francs and a depreciation of the dollar
b. Decrease in the demand for francs and an appreciation of the dollar
c. Decrease in the supply of francs and an appreciation of the dollar
d. Increase in the supply of francs and a depreciation of the dollar

49. Refer to Figure 12.1. Should Swiss labor productivity rise, leading to a decrease in Swiss manufacturing costs, there would occur a (an):
a. Increase in the supply of francs and a depreciation of the dollar
b. Increase in the supply of francs and an appreciation of the dollar
c. Decrease in the demand for francs and an appreciation of the dollar
d. Increase in the demand for francs and a depreciation of the dollar

50. Refer to Figure 12.1. If Switzerland experienced a disastrous wheat-crop failure, leading to additional wheat imports from the United States, there would occur an:
a. Increase in the supply of francs and an appreciation of the dollar
b. Increase in the supply of francs and a depreciation of the dollar
c. Increase in the demand for francs and a depreciation of the dollar
d. Increase in the demand for francs and an appreciation of the dollar

51. Given floating exchange rates, if Japan increases its demand for Canadian goods at the same time that Canada increases its demand for Japanese goods, then we would expect the yen’s exchange value to:
a. Appreciate against the dollar
b. Depreciate against the dollar
c. Remain constant against the dollar
d. Appreciate, depreciate, or remain constant against the dollar

52. Given floating exchange rates, assume that the Swiss decrease their import purchases from Italy while at the same time the Italians increase their purchases of Swiss government securities. The first action by itself would lead to a (an) ____ of the franc against the lira while the second action by itself would lead to a (an) ____ of the franc against the lira.
a. Appreciation, appreciation
b. Depreciation, depreciation
c. Appreciation, depreciation
d. Depreciation, appreciation

53. Given floating exchange rates, a simultaneous decrease in the Canadian demand for British products and increase in the British desire to invest in Canadian government securities would cause a (an):
a. Appreciation of the pound against the dollar
b. Depreciation of the pound against the dollar
c. Unchanged pound/dollar exchange rate
d. None of the above

54. Assume a system of floating exchange rates. Due to a high savings rate, suppose the level of savings in Japan is in excess of domestic investment needs. If Japanese residents invest abroad, the yen’s exchange value will ____ and the Japanese trade balance will move toward ____.
a. Appreciate, deficit
b. Appreciate, surplus
c. Depreciate, deficit
d. Depreciate, surplus

55. Given a system of floating exchange rates, assume that Boeing Inc. of the United States places a large order, payable in yen, with a Japanese contractor for jet engine parts. The immediate effect of this transaction will be a shift in the:
a. Supply curve of yen to the left which causes the dollar to appreciate against the yen
b. Supply curve of yen to the right which causes the dollar to depreciate against the yen
c. Demand curve for yen to the left which causes the dollar to appreciate against the yen
d. Demand curve for yen to the right which causes the dollar to depreciate against the yen

56. For purchasing-power parity to exist:
a. Flows of currency in the trade account must be offset by flows of currency in the capital account
b. The nominal interest rate must be equal to the real interest rate in all countries
c. Converting a sum of funds from one currency to another does not alter its purchasing power
d. A country’s trade account must always be in balance

57. Assume that interest rates in the United States and Britain are the same. If a U.S. resident anticipates that the exchange value of the dollar is going to appreciate against the pound, she should:
a. Borrow needed funds from British banks rather than U.S. banks
b. Borrow needed funds from U.S. banks rather than British banks
c. Convert U.S. dollars into British pounds
d. Any of the above

58. Given a system of floating exchange rates, if Canada’s labor productivity rises relative to the labor productivity of its trading partners:
a. Canadian imports will fall and the dollar will appreciate
b. Canadian imports will fall and the dollar will depreciate
c. Canadian imports will rise and the dollar will appreciate
d. Canadian imports will rise and the dollar will depreciate

59. Assume that labor productivity growth is slower in the United States than in its trading partners. Given a system of floating exchange rates, the impact of this growth differential for the United States will be:
a. Increased exports and an appreciation of the dollar
b. Increased exports and a depreciation of the dollar
c. Increased imports and an appreciation of the dollar
d. Increased imports and a depreciation of the dollar

60. Suppose the exchange rate between the U.S. dollar and the Japanese yen is initially 90 yen per dollar. According to purchasing-power parity, if the price of traded goods rises by 10 percent in the United States and remains constant in Japan, the exchange rate will become
a. 72 yen per dollar
b. 81 yen per dollar
c. 99 yen per dollar
d. 108 yen per dollar

61. Suppose the exchange rate between the U.S. dollar and the Japanese yen is initially 90 yen per dollar. According to purchasing-power parity, if the price of traded goods rises by 5 percent in the United States and 15 percent in Japan, the exchange rate will become:
a. 72 yen per dollar
b. 81 yen per dollar
c. 99 yen per dollar
d. 108 yen per dollar

62. Suppose the exchange rate between the U.S. dollar and the Japanese yen is initially 90 yen per dollar. According to purchasing power parity, if the price of traded goods falls by 5 percent in the United States and rises by 5 percent in Japan, the exchange rate will become:
a. 72 yen per dollar
b. 81 yen per dollar
c. 99 yen per dollar
d. 108 yen per dollar

63. Suppose that the yen-dollar exchange rate changes from 85 yen per dollar to 80 yen per dollar. One can say that the:
a. Yen has appreciated against the dollar and the dollar has depreciated against the yen
b. Yen has depreciated against the dollar and the dollar has appreciated against the yen
c. Yen has appreciated against the dollar and the dollar has appreciated against the yen
d. Yen has depreciated against the dollar and the dollar has depreciated against the yen

64. Given a floating exchange rate system an increase in ____ would cause the dollar to appreciate against the euro.
a. U.S. labor costs
b. The U.S. money supply
c. U.S. prices of goods
d. U.S. real interest rates

65. Under a system of floating exchange rates, a Japanese trade surplus against Canada would result in a (an):
a. Rise in the dollar price of the yen
b. Fall in the dollar price of the yen
c. Rise in the yen price of the dollar
d. Unchanged dollar/yen exchange rate

66. When deciding between U.S. and British government securities, an American investor typically considers:
a. U.S. and British interest rates and anticipated changes in the exchange rate
b. Budget deficits of the U.S. government and British government
c. Shifts in the demand for U.S. goods and British goods
d. U.S. and British inflation rates and anticipated changes in the exchange rate

67. In the long run, exchange rates are primarily determined by:
a. Agreements among governments of the world’s industrial countries
b. Relative interest rates in developing countries and industrial countries
c. Economic fundamentals such as relative productivity levels
d. The rate at which country’s currencies exchange for gold

68. Increased tariffs on U.S. steel imports cause the dollar to ____ in the ____.
a. Appreciate, long run
b. Depreciate, long run
c. Appreciate, short run
d. Depreciate, short run

69. Lower tariffs on U.S. agricultural imports cause the dollar to ____ in the ____.
a. Appreciate, long run
b. Depreciate, long run
c. Appreciate, short run
d. Depreciate, short run

70. Relatively high interest rates in the United States causes the dollar to ____ in the ____.
a. Appreciate, long run
b. Depreciate, long run
c. Appreciate, short run
d. Depreciate, short run

71. The asset market theory of exchange rate determination suggests that the most important factor influencing the demand for domestic and foreign securities is:
a. Expected return on these assets relative to one another
b. Ability of these assets to easily be converted into cash
c. Riskiness of these assets relative to one another
d. Level of government restrictions on trade and investment flows

72. With floating exchange rates, easy credit and low short term interest rates lead to
a. Exchange rate depreciation in the short run
b. Exchange rate appreciation in the short run
c. Exchange rate depreciation in the long run
d. Exchange rate appreciation in the long run

73. With floating exchange rates, relatively high productivity growth for a nation leads to
a. Exchange rate depreciation in the short run
b. Exchange rate appreciation in the short run
c. Exchange rate depreciation in the long run
d. Exchange rate appreciation in the long run

74. All of the following are important long-run determinants of exchange rates except
a. Consumer tastes
b. Trade policy
c. Labor productivity
d. Interest rates

75. The purchasing-power parity theory suffers from the problem
a. Of choosing the appropriate price index
b. That it overlooks the influence of capital flows
c. That government policy may modify exchange rates
d. All of the above

TRUE/FALSE

1. In a free market, exchange rates are determined by market fundamentals and market expectations.

2. Concerning exchange-rate determination, market fundamentals include inflation rates, productivity levels, and speculative opinion about future exchange rates.

3. Market expectations include news about market fundamentals, speculative opinion about future exchange rates, and profitability and riskiness of investments.

4. In a free market, the equilibrium exchange rate occurs at the point where the quantity demanded of a foreign currency equals the quantity of that currency supplied.

5. Exchange rates are determined by the unregulated forces of supply and demand for foreign currencies as long as central banks do not intervene in the foreign exchange markets.

6. Over the long run, foreign exchange rates are determined by transfers of bank deposits that respond to differences in real interest rates and to shifting expectations of future exchange rates.

The figure below illustrates the supply and demand schedules of Swiss francs under a system of floating exchange rates.

Figure 12.2. The Market for Swiss Francs

7. Refer to Figure 12.2. If the United States decreases tariffs on imports from Switzerland, there would occur a decrease in the demand for francs and a decrease in the dollar price of the franc.

8. Refer to Figure 12.2. If Swiss manufacturing costs increase relative to those of the United States, there would occur an increase in the supply of francs and an appreciation in the dollar’s exchange value.

9. Refer to Figure 12.2. If the Federal Reserve adopts a restrictive monetary policy that leads to relatively high interest rates in the United States, the demand for francs would decrease, the supply of francs would increase, and the dollar’s exchange value would appreciate.

10. Refer to Figure 12.2. As the profitability of assets in Switzerland rises relative to the profitability of assets in the United States, U.S. residents make additional investments in Switzerland; this leads to an increased demand for francs and a depreciation of the dollar’s exchange value.

11. Refer to Figure 12.2. If the rate of inflation in the United States is higher than the rate of inflation in Switzerland, the demand for francs decreases, the supply of francs increases, and the dollar’s exchange value appreciates.

12. Under floating exchange rates, short-run exchange rates are primarily determined by national differences in real interest rates and shifting expectations of future exchange rates.

13. Day-to-day influences on foreign exchange rates always cause rates to move in the same direction as changes in long-term market fundamentals.

14. With floating exchange rates, a country experiencing faster economic growth than its trading partners find its currency’s exchange value appreciating.

15. If U.S. labor productivity growth is 2 percent per annum and Swiss labor productivity growth is 6 percent per annum, the dollar will depreciate against the franc under a system of floating exchange rates.

16. In 1985 and 1986 U.S. interest rates fell relative to interest rates in Japan. Under floating exchange rates, this would lead to the dollar’s exchange value depreciating against the yen.

17. A country having stronger preferences for imports than its trading partners have for its exports finds its demand for foreign exchange rising more rapidly than its supply of foreign exchange.

18. Economies with relatively high growth rates in labor productivity tend to find their currencies’ exchange values appreciating under a floating exchange-rate system.

19. Under floating exchange rates, relatively low domestic interest rates tend to promote depreciation of a currency’s exchange value while relatively high domestic interest rates lead to currency appreciation.

20. Suppose expansionary monetary policy in the United States leads to interest rates falling to 2 percent while tight monetary policy in Switzerland leads to interest rates rising to 8 percent. With floating exchange rates, the dollar would appreciate against the franc.

21. The purchasing-power-parity theory is used to predict exchange-rate movements in the short run.

22. According to the law of one price, identical goods should cost the same in all nations, assuming there are no shipping costs nor trade barriers.

23. The purchasing- power-parity theory predicts that if the U.S. inflation rate exceeds the Japanese inflation rate by 4 percent, the dollar’s exchange value will appreciate by 4 percent against the yen.

24. Assume the initial yen/dollar exchange rate to be 100 yen per dollar. If the U.S. inflation rate is 2 percent and the Japanese inflation rate is 7 percent, the exchange rate should move to 105 yen per dollar according to the purchasing-power-parity theory.

25. Assume the initial dollar/pound exchange rate to be $2 per pound. If the U.S. inflation rate is 8 percent and the U.K. inflation rate is 3 percent, the exchange rate should move to $2.10 per pound according to the purchasing-power-parity theory.

26. If consumer tastes in the United States change in favor of goods produced in France, the demand for francs will increase which causes an appreciation of the dollar against the franc under a floating exchange rate system.

27. As the profitability of Japanese assets rises relative to the profitability of Australian assets, Australian residents will make additional investments in Japan; this results in an increased demand for yen and a depreciation of the dollar under a system of floating exchange rates.

28. If the United States experiences an enormous wheat crop failure, it will have to import more wheat and the dollar’s exchange value will depreciate under a system of floating exchange rates.

29. If Japan realizes technological improvements in the production of automobiles, which lowers its production costs relative to foreign producers, Japanese exports will rise and the yen’s exchange value will appreciate under a system of floating exchange rates.

30. If Mexico applies tariffs to imports of manufactured goods, Mexico’s demand for foreign exchange will rise and the peso will depreciate under a system of floating exchange rates.

31. According to the “Big Mac” index, if a Big Mac costs $2.28 in the United States and 25.75 krone in Denmark (equivalent to $4.25), the Danish krone is an undervalued currency.

32. According to the “Big Mac” index, if a Big Mac costs $2.28 in the United States and 48 baht in Thailand (equivalent to $1.91), the baht is an undervalued currency.

33. Long-run determinants of exchange rate include labor productivity levels, inflation rates, consumer preferences for goods and services, and trade barriers.

34. In the short run, exchange rates are primarily determined by investor expectations of returns on assets such as government securities and bank accounts.

35. Changes in market expectations have their greatest impact on exchange-rate changes over the long run as opposed to the short run.

36. If it is widely expected that the British economy will experience more rapid inflation than the Australian economy, the pound will depreciate against the dollar under a system of floating exchange rates.

37. According to the asset-markets approach, adjustments among financial assets are a key determinant of long-run movements in exchange rates.

38. The asset-markets approach views exchange-rate determination as similar to the stock market in which prices are volatile and expectations are important.

39. According to the principle of exchange-rate overshooting, a short-run depreciation of a currency is likely to be greater than a long-run depreciation of that currency.

40. Exchange-rate overshooting is based on the notion that the supply schedule of a currency is more elastic in the short run than in the long run.

41. According to exchange-rate overshooting, an appreciation of the Australian dollar is likely to be greater over a long time period than over a short time period.

42. Concerning exchange rate forecasting, fundamental analysis involves consideration of a variety of macroeconomic variables and policies that tend to affect currency values.

43. Econometric models are best suited for forecasting long-run exchange rates rather than short-run exchange rates.

44. Concerning exchange rate forecasting, technical analysis extrapolates from past exchange-rate trends while ignoring economic and political determinants of exchange rates.

45. Given an efficient foreign exchange market, the spot rate is the rational approximation of the markets expectation of the forward rate that will exist at the end of the forward period.

46. A forward premium on the British pound serves as a rough benchmark of the expected rate of appreciation in the pound’s spot rate.

47. A forward discount on Mexico’s peso serves as a rough benchmark of the expected appreciation in the peso’s spot rate.

48. If you were considering hiring a forecasting firm to predict future spot rates of the yen, you would hope that the firm could predict better what would be implied by the yen’s forward rate.

49. Although the law of one price predicts that identical goods should cost the same in all nations, transportation costs and tariffs tend to prevent this prediction from actually occurring.

50. If real interest rates decline in the United States relative to real interest rates abroad, the dollar’s exchange value will appreciate under a floating exchange-rate system.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is the purchasing power parity approach to exchange rate determination?

2. What is exchange rate overshooting?

ESSAY

1. In a free market, what determines exchange rates in the long run and the short run?

2. What is the asset market approach to exchange rate determination?

CHAPTER 13—BALANCE-OF-PAYMENTS ADJUSTMENTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following does not represent an automatic adjustment in balance-of-payments disequilibrium? Variations in:
a. Domestic income
b. Foreign prices
c. Domestic prices
d. Foreign par values

2. The balance-of-payments adjustment mechanism developed during the 1700s by the English economist David Hume is the:
a. Income-adjustment mechanism
b. Flexible-exchange-rate-adjustment mechanism
c. Price-adjustment mechanism
d. Rank-reserve-adjustment mechanism

3. Which chain of events would promote payments equilibrium for a surplus nation, according to the price-adjustment mechanism?
a. Increasing money supply–increasing domestic prices–rising imports–falling exports
b. Increasing money supply–falling domestic prices–rising imports–falling exports
c. Decreasing money supply–increasing domestic prices–falling imports–rising exports
d. Decreasing money supply–decreasing domestic prices–falling imports–rising exports

4. Which chain of events would promote payments equilibrium for a deficit nation, according to the price-adjustment mechanism?
a. Increasing money supply–increasing domestic prices–rising imports–falling exports
b. Increasing money supply–falling domestic prices–rising imports–falling exports
c. Decreasing money supply–increasing domestic prices–falling imports–rising exports
d. Decreasing money supply–decreasing domestic prices–falling imports–rising exports

5. During the gold standard era, central bankers agreed to react positively to international gold flows so as to reinforce the automatic adjustment mechanism. Which of the following best represents the above statement?
a. Income-adjustment mechanism
b. Price-adjustment mechanism
c. Rules of the game
d. Discretionary fiscal policy

6. During the gold standard era, the “rules of the game” suggested that:
a. Surplus countries should increase their money supplies
b. Deficit countries should increase their money supplies
c. Surplus and deficit countries should increase their money supplies
d. Surplus and deficit countries should decrease their money supplies

7. Which of the following balance-of-payments adjustment mechanisms is most closely related to the quantity theory of money?
a. Income-adjustment mechanism
b. Price-adjustment mechanism
c. Interest-rate-adjustment mechanism
d. Output-adjustment mechanism

8. Under the gold standard, a surplus nation facing a gold inflow and an increase in its money supply would also experience a:
a. Rise in its interest rate and a short-term financial inflow
b. Rise in its interest rate and a short-term financial outflow
c. Fall in its interest rate and a short-term financial inflow
d. Fall in its interest rate and a short-term financial outflow

9. Under the gold standard, a deficit nation facing a gold outflow and a decrease in its money supply would also experience a:
a. Rise in its interest rate and a short-term financial inflow
b. Rise in its interest rate and a short-term financial outflow
c. Fall in its interest rate and a short-term financial inflow
d. Fall in its interest rate and a short-term financial outflow

10. Assume that Canada initially faces payments equilibrium in its merchandise trade account as well as in its capital and financial account. Now suppose that Canadian interest rates increase to levels higher than those abroad. For Canada, this tends to promote:
a. Net financial inflows
b. Net financial outflows
c. Net merchandise exports
d. Net merchandise imports

11. Assume that Canada initially faces payments equilibrium in its merchandise trade account as well as in its capital and financial account. Now suppose that Canadian interest rates fall to levels below those abroad. For Canada, this tends to promote:
a. Net financial inflows
b. Net financial outflows
c. Net merchandise exports
d. Net merchandise imports

12. Suppose the United States levies an interest equalization tax, which taxes Americans on dividend and interest income from foreign securities. Such a tax would be intended to:
a. Encourage financial movements from the United States to overseas
b. Discourage financial movements from the United States to overseas
c. Discourage financial movements from overseas to the United States
d. None of the above

13. Assume that interest rates on comparable securities are identical in the United States and foreign countries. Now suppose that investors anticipate that in the future the U.S. dollar will appreciate against foreign currencies. Investment funds would thus be expected to:
a. Flow from the United States to foreign countries
b. Flow from foreign countries to the United States
c. Remain totally in foreign countries
d. Not be affected by the expected dollar appreciation

14. Suppose Japan increases its imports from Sweden, leading to a rise in Sweden’s exports and income level. With a higher income level, Sweden imports more goods from Japan. Thus a change in imports in Japan results in a feedback effect on its exports. This process is best referred to as the:
a. Monetary approach to balance-of-payments adjustment
b. Discretionary income adjustment process
c. Foreign repercussion effect
d. Price-specie flow mechanism

Exhibit 13.1

Assume the marginal propensity to consume for U.S. households equals 0.9, and the marginal propensity to import for the United States equals 0.1. Suppose there occurs an increase in investment of $10 billion at each level of income.

15. Refer to Exhibit 13.1. The value of the multiplier for the United States equals:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

16. Refer to Exhibit 13.1. The change in the level of U.S. income resulting from the additional investment spending equals
a. $20 billion
b. $30 billion
c. $40 billion
d. $50 billion

17. Refer to Exhibit 13.1. The change in the level of U.S. imports resulting from the rise in U.S. income equals:
a. $5 billion
b. $10 billion
c. $15 billion
d. $20 billion

18. The monetary approach to balance-of-payments adjustments suggests that all payments deficits are the result of:
a. Too high interest rates in the home country
b. Too low interest rates in the home country
c. Excess money supply over money demand in the home country
d. Excess money demand over money supply in the home country

19. The monetary approach to balance-of-payments adjustments suggests that all payments surpluses are the result of:
a. Too high interest rates in the home country
b. Too low interest rates in the home country
c. Excess money supply over money demand in the home country
d. Excess money demand over money supply in the home country

20. Starting from a position where the nation’s money demand equals the money supply, and its balance of payments is in equilibrium, economic theory suggests that the nation’s balance of payments would move into a deficit position if there occurred in the nation a:
a. Decrease in the money supply
b. Increase in the money demand
c. Decrease in the money demand
d. None of the above

21. Which approach to balance-of-payments adjustment suggests that balance-of-payments surpluses are the result of excess money demand in the home country?
a. Absorption approach
b. Elasticities approach
c. Monetary approach
d. Purchasing-power-parity approach

22. According to the “rules of the game” of the gold standard era, a country’s central bank agreed to react to international gold flows so as to:
a. Officially devalue a currency during eras of payments surpluses
b. Officially revalue a currency during eras of payments deficits
c. Offset the automatic-adjustment mechanism (e.g., prices)
d. Reinforce the automatic-adjustment mechanism

23. According to the quantity theory of money, a change in the domestic money supply will bring about:
a. Inverse and proportionate changes in the price level
b. Inverse and less-than-proportionate changes in the price level
c. Direct and proportionate changes in the price level
d. Direct and less-than-proportionate changes in the price level

24. The formulation of the so-called income adjustment mechanism is associated with:
a. Adam Smith
b. David Ricardo
c. David Hume
d. John Maynard Keynes

25. The value of the foreign trade multiplier equals the reciprocal of the sum of the marginal propensities to:
a. Save plus import
b. Import plus invest
c. Consume plus export
d. Save plus import

26. Starting from a position where the nation’s money demand equals the money supply and its balance of payments is in equilibrium, economic theory suggests that the nation’s balance of payments would move into a deficit position if there occurred in the nation:
a. An increase in the money supply
b. A decrease in the money supply
c. An increase in money demand
d. None of the above

27. Starting from a position where the nation’s money demand equals the money supply and its balance of payments is in equilibrium, economic theory suggests that the nation’s balance of payments would move into a surplus position if there occurred in the nation:
a. A decrease in the money supply
b. An increase in the money supply
c. A decrease in the money demand
d. None of the above

28. Starting from a position where the nation’s money demand equals the money supply and its balance of payments is in equilibrium, economic theory suggests that the nation’s balance of payments would move into a surplus position if there occurred in the nation:
a. An increase in the money demand
b. A decrease in the money demand
c. An increase in the money supply
d. None of the above

29. Assume identical interest rates on comparable securities in the United States and foreign countries. Suppose investors anticipate that in the future the U.S. dollar will depreciate against foreign currencies. Investment funds would tend to:
a. Flow from the United States to foreign countries
b. Flow from foreign countries to the United States
c. Remain totally in foreign countries
d. Remain totally in the United States

30. Suppose that rising U.S. income leads to higher sales and profits in the United States. This would likely result in:
a. Increasing portfolio investment into the United States
b. Decreasing portfolio investment into the United States
c. Increasing direct investment into the United States
d. Decreasing direct investment into the United States

Figure 13.1. U.S. Capital and Financial Account

31. Refer to Figure 13.1. Upward movements along U.S. capital and financial account schedule CA0 would be caused by:
a. U.S. interest rates rising relative to foreign interest rates
b. U.S. interest rates falling relative to foreign interest rates
c. Taxes placed on income earned by U.S. residents from their foreign investments
d. Taxes placed on income earned by foreign residents from their U.S. investments

32. Refer to Figure 13.1. Downward movements along U.S. capital and financial account schedule CA0 would be caused by:
a. U.S. interest rates rising relative to foreign interest rates
b. U.S. interest rates falling relative to foreign interest rates
c. Taxes placed on income earned by U.S. residents from their foreign investments
d. Taxes placed on income earned by foreign residents from their U.S. investments

33. Refer to Figure 13.1. The U.S. capital and financial account schedule would shift upward from CA0 to CA1 if:
a. U.S. interest rates exceeded foreign interest rates
b. Foreign interest rates exceeded U.S. interest rates
c. Taxes were placed on income earned by U.S. residents from their foreign investments
d. Taxes were placed on income earned by foreign residents from their U.S. investments

34. Refer to Figure 13.1. The U.S. capital and financial account schedule would shift upward from CA0 to CA1 if:
a. U.S. residents receive subsidies to invest in foreign nations
b. U.S. interest rates rise relative to foreign interest rates
c. Taxes are reduced on income earned by U.S. residents from their foreign investments
d. Expected profits decline on U.S. investments in foreign manufacturing

35. Refer to Figure 13.1. The U.S. capital and financial account schedule would shift upward from CA0 to CA1 for all of the following reasons except:
a. U.S. political stability improves relative to foreign political stability
b. U.S. interest rates fall relative to foreign interest rates
c. Taxes are placed on income earned by U.S. residents from foreign investments
d. Restrictions are imposed on foreign loans granted by U.S. banks

36. Refer to Figure 13.1. U.S. capital and financial account schedule CA0 would shift upwards, or downwards, for all of the following reasons except:
a. U.S. residents being taxed on income earned from foreign investments
b. U.S. banks being restricted on loans that can be made abroad
c. U.S. political stability changing relative to foreign political stability
d. U.S. interest rates changing relative to foreign interest rates

Table 13.1. Canada’s Saving, Investment, Import, and Export Functions (in billions of dollars) Under a System of Fixed Exchange Rates

Export Function X = 3000
Investment Function I = 1000
Saving Function S = -1000 + 0.2Y
Import Function M = 500 + 0.25Y

37. Referring to Table 13.1, if Canada’s income rises by $200 billion, saving would rise by:
a. $10 billion
b. $20 billion
c. $30 billion
d. $40 billion

38. Referring to Table 13.1, if Canada’s income rises by $200 billion, imports would rise by:
a. $50 billion
b. $75 billion
c. $100 billion
d. $125 billion

39. Referring to Table 13.1, Canada’s foreign trade multiplier equals:
a. 1.75
b. 2.05
c. 2.22
d. 2.64

40. Referring to Table 13.1, Canada’s equilibrium level of income is:
a. $8000 billion
b. $9000 billion
c. $10,000 billion
d. $11,000 billion

41. Refer to Table 13.1. If improved business optimism leads to increases in Canada’s planned investment spending from $1000 billion to $1200 billion, Canada’s equilibrium income rises by approximately:
a. $444 billion
b. $555 billion
c. $666 billion
d. $777 billion

42. Refer to Table 13.1. If weak economic conditions abroad result in Canada’s exports falling from $3000 billion to $2500 billion, Canada’s equilibrium income falls by approximately:
a. $888 billion
b. $990 billion
c. $1110 billion
d. $1220 billion

Figure 13.2. Australian Economy Under a Fixed Exchange Rate System

43. Refer to Figure 13.2. The slope of the (X-M) schedule and (S-I) schedule indicates that Australia’s foreign trade multiplier is:
a. 0.5
b. 1.0
c. 1.5
d. 2.0

44. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S-I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that improving economic conditions abroad lead to an autonomous increase in Australian exports of $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $5 billion

45. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S- I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that worsening economic conditions abroad lead to an autonomous decrease in Australian exports of $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $5 billion

46. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S-I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that improving profit expectations lead to an autonomous increase in Australian investment of $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $5 billion

47. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S-I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that worsening profit expectations lead to an autonomous decrease in Australian investment of $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $5 billion

48. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S-I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that increased thriftiness leads to an autonomous increase in Australian saving of $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $5 billion

49. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S-I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that dwindling thriftiness leads to an autonomous decrease in Australian saving to $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $5 billion

50. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S-I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that changing preferences lead to an autonomous increase in Australian imports of $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $5 billion

51. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S-I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that changing preferences lead to an autonomous decrease in Australian imports of $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $5 billion

52. In explaining balance-of-payments adjustments, the classical economists
a. Focused on interest rates exclusively
b. Remained aware of the role of interest rates
c. Only focused their attention on short-term interest rates
d. Paid exclusive attention to long-tem interest rates

53. J. M. Keynes suggested that a trade deficit nation
a. Would experience a fall in income
b. Would experience a decline in imports
c. Would require active intervention by the government
d. Both a and b

54. The classical gold standard
a. Existed from early 1800’s to early 1900’s
b. Did not allow for imports and exports of gold
c. Led to the outflow of gold from surplus nations
d. Led to the inflow of gold to deficit nations

55. The classical economists assumed
a. That the volume of final output is fixed at the full-employment level in the long-run
b. The velocity of money is constant
c. The velocity of money depends on physical, structural, and institutional factors
d. All of the above

TRUE/FALSE

1. Under a fixed exchange rate system, adjustment mechanisms work for the automatic return to current-account balance after the initial balance has been disrupted.

2. When a country’s current account moves into disequilibrium, automatic adjustments in tariffs and quotas occur which move the current account back into equilibrium.

3. Prices, interest rates, and income are the automatic adjustment variables that help restore current-account equilibrium under a system of fixed exchange rates.

4. That the balance of payments could be adjusted by prices and interest rates, under a fixed exchange rate system, originated with Keynesian theory during the 1930s.

5. David Hume’s price-adjustment mechanism supported the mercantilist view that a nation could maintain a trade surplus indefinitely.

6. Under the price-adjustment mechanism, a government’s efforts to maintain a current-account surplus is self defeating over the long run because a nation’s current account automatically moves toward equilibrium.

7. Under the gold standard of the 1800s, exchange rates were allowed to float freely in the currency markets.

8. Under the gold standard, each participating nation defined the mint price of gold in terms of its national currency was prepared to buy and sell gold at that price.

9. Under the gold standard, a nation with a current-account surplus would realize gold outflows, a decrease in its money supply, and a fall in its domestic price level.

10. The essence of the classical price-adjustment mechanism is embodied in the quantity theory of money.

11. According to the equation of exchange, the total expenditures on final goods equals the monetary value of the final goods sold.

12. Regarding the equation of exchange, the classical economists assumed that final output was below its maximum level while the velocity of money was volatile.

13. According to the quantity theory of money, a change in the money supply will induce an inverse and less-than-proportionate change in the price level.

14. Under the price-adjustment mechanism, a trade-surplus nation would realize gold inflows, an increase in its money supply, and a loss of international competitiveness.

15. The price-adjustment mechanism’s relevance to the real world has been questioned on the grounds that national output is generally not at the full-employment level and that the velocity of money is not always constant.

16. According to the price-adjustment mechanism, trade deficits can occur only in the long run rather than in the short run.

17. Under the price-adjustment mechanism, trade-deficit nations realize price inflation and a loss of competitiveness while trade surplus nations realize price deflation and an improvement in competitiveness.

18. Under the classical gold standard, adjustments in domestic prices and short-term interest rates automatically promoted balance-of-payments equilibrium over the long run.

19. Under the classical gold standard, a trade surplus nation would realize gold inflows, an increase in its money supply, rising interest rates, and net investment inflows.

20. The gold standard’s “rules of the game” required central bankers in a surplus country to initiate contractionary monetary policies which lead to higher interest rates and net investment inflows.

21. The gold standard’s “rules of the game” required central bankers in a trade deficit nation to expand the money supply, leading to falling interest rates and net investment outflows.

22. The “rules of the game” served to reinforce and speed up the interest-rate-adjustment mechanism under a system of fixed exchange rates.

Figure 13.3. U.S. Capital and Financial Account Under a Fixed Exchange Rate System

23. Refer to Figure 13.3. As U.S. interest rates rise relative to foreign interest rates, the U.S. slides upward along schedule CA0, thus moving towards capital and financial account surplus.

24. Refer to Figure 13.3. Decreases in U.S. interest rates relative to foreign interest rates would shift U.S. capital and financial account schedule CA0 downward toward CA1, resulting in net financial outflows from the United States.

25. Refer to Figure 13.3. Falling investment profitability in the United States, relative to investment profitability abroad, would shift the U.S. capital and financial account schedule downward from CA0 to CA1, resulting in net financial outflows from the United States.

26. Refer to Figure 13.3. As the U.S. government decreases taxes on income earned by U.S. residents from foreign investments, the U.S. capital and financial account schedule shifts downward from CA0 to CA1 and the United States realizes net financial outflows.

27. Refer to Figure 13.3. If the political and economic stability of foreign countries worsens relative to that of the United States, the U.S. capital and financial account schedule would shift downward from CA0 to CA1, resulting in net financial outflows from the United States.

28. According to the Keynesian income-adjustment mechanism, income differentials among nations guarantee current-account equilibrium in a world of fixed exchange rates.

29. Keynesian theory asserts that, under a system of fixed exchange rates, the influence of income changes in surplus and deficit countries will automatically promote current-account equilibrium.

30. The Keynesian income-adjustment mechanism contends that a trade-surplus nation tends to realize falling income and falling imports, thus accentuating the trade surplus.

31. The foreign-trade multiplier equals the sum of the marginal propensity to import and the marginal propensity to save.

32. If the marginal propensity to save equals 0.2 and the marginal propensity to import equals 0.3, the foreign-trade multiplier equal 2.0.

33. For an open economy subject to international trade, equilibrium income occurs where saving plus investment equals imports plus exports.

34. If the marginal propensity to save equals 0.1 and the marginal propensity to import equals 0.3, an autonomous increase in exports of $1,000 would expand domestic income by $2,500 which leads to an increase in imports of $750.

35. If the marginal propensity to save equals 0.2 and the marginal propensity to import equals 0.3, an autonomous decrease in investment spending of $1 million leads to a $2 million decrease in domestic income and a $600,000 decrease in imports.

36. For the income adjustment mechanism to reverse a trade deficit, economic policymakers must be willing to permit domestic income to increase which leads to rising imports.

37. Reliance on an automatic adjustment process tends to be unacceptable in trade-deficit nations since it requires them to accept price deflation and/or falling income as a cost of reducing imports.

38. An “automatic” adjustment mechanism would require a trade-surplus nation to accept price deflation and/or falling income as the cost of increasing imports.

Figure 13.4. Canadian Economy Under a Fixed Exchange Rate System

39. Referring to Figure 13.4, Canada’s marginal propensity to save equals 0.25 and marginal propensity to import equal 0.5.

40. Referring to Figure 13.4, Canada’s foreign-trade multiplier equals 2.0.

41. Refer to Figure 13.4. Starting at equilibrium income $100 billion, where (S – I)0 intersects (X – M)0, an autonomous decrease in Canadian imports of $10 billion leads to a $20 billion decrease in income and a trade deficit of $5 billion.

42. Refer to Figure 13.4. Starting at equilibrium income $100 billion, where (S – I)0 intersects (X – M)0, an autonomous increase in Canadian investment of $10 billion leads to a $20 billion increase in income and no change in the country’s trade account.

43. Refer to Figure 13.4. Starting at equilibrium income $100 billion, where (S – I)0 intersects (X – M)0, an autonomous decrease in saving of $10 billion leads to a $20 billion increase in income and a trade deficit of $5 billion.

44. Refer to Figure 13.4. Starting at equilibrium income $100 billion, where (S – I)0 intersects (X – M)0, an autonomous decrease in Canadian exports of $10 billion leads to a $20 decrease in income and a trade deficit of $5 billion.

45. According to the monetary approach, balance-of-payments disequilibriums are the result of imbalances in a country’s money supply and money demand.

46. The monetary approach contends that, under a fixed exchange rate system, an excess supply of money leads to a trade surplus.

47. The monetary approach contends that, under a fixed exchange rate system, an excess demand for money leads to a trade deficit.

48. The monetary approach contends that, under a fixed exchange rate system, policies that increase the supply of money relative to the demand for money lead to a trade surplus.

SHORT ANSWER

1. Compared to classical economists, how did Keynesian economics change the discussion of trade adjustment?

2. What is the foreign repercussion effect?

ESSAY

1. Explain David Hume’s theory of automatic adjustment for balance of payments disequilibria.

2. Is the monetary approach to the balance-of-payments part of the traditional adjustment theories?

ECO 305 Week 10 Quiz

CHAPTER 14—EXCHANGE-RATE ADJUSTMENTS AND THE BALANCE OF PAYMENTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. According to the absorption approach, the economic circumstances that best warrant a currency devaluation is where the domestic economy faces:
a. Unemployment coupled with a payments deficit
b. Unemployment coupled with a payments surplus
c. Full employment coupled with a payments deficit
d. Full employment coupled with a payments surplus

2. According to the J-curve effect, when the exchange value of a country’s currency appreciates, the country’s trade balance:
a. First moves toward deficit, then later toward surplus
b. First moves toward surplus, then later toward deficit
c. Moves into deficit and stays there
d. Moves into surplus and stays there

3. Assume that Brazil has a constant money supply and that it devalues its currency. The monetary approach to devaluation reasons that one of the following tends to occur for Brazil:
a. Domestic prices rise–purchasing power of money falls–consumption falls
b. Domestic prices rise–purchasing power of money rises–consumption rises
c. Domestic prices fall–purchasing power of money rises–consumption falls
d. Domestic prices fall–purchasing power of money rises–consumption rises

4. According to the Marshall-Lerner approach, a currency depreciation will best lead to an improvement on the home country’s trade balance when the:
a. Home demand for imports is inelastic–foreign export demand is inelastic
b. Home demand for imports is inelastic–foreign export demand is elastic
c. Home demand for imports is elastic–foreign export demand is inelastic
d. Home demand for imports is elastic–foreign export demand is elastic

5. Assume an economy operates at full employment and faces a trade deficit. According to the absorption approach, currency devaluation will improve the trade balance if domestic:
a. Interest rates rise, thus encouraging investment spending
b. Income rises, thus stimulating consumption
c. Output falls to a lower level
d. Spending is cut, thus freeing resources to produce exports

6. An appreciation of the U.S. dollar tends to:
a. Discourage foreigners from making investments in the United States
b. Discourage Americans from purchasing foreign goods and services
c. Increase the number of dollars that could be bought with foreign currencies
d. Discourage Americans from traveling overseas

7. The Marshall-Lerner condition deals with the impact of currency depreciation on:
a. Domestic income
b. Domestic absorption
c. Purchasing power of money balances
d. Relative prices

8. According to the J-curve concept, which of the following is false–that the effects of a currency depreciation on the balance of payments are:
a. Transmitted primarily via the income adjusted mechanism
b. Likely to be adverse or negative in the short run
c. In the long run positive, given favorable elasticity conditions
d. Influenced by offsetting devaluations made by other countries

9. Which of the following is true for the J-curve effect? It:
a. Applies to the interest rate effects of currency depreciation
b. Applies to the income effects of currency depreciation
c. Suggests that demand tends to be most elastic over the long run
d. Suggests that demand tends to be least elastic over the long run

10. American citizens planning a vacation abroad would welcome:
a. Appreciation of the dollar
b. Depreciation of the dollar
c. Higher wages extended to foreign workers
d. Lower wages extended to foreign workers

11. Assume the Canadian demand elasticity for imports equals 0.2, while the foreign demand elasticity for Canadian exports equals 0.3. Responding to a trade deficit, suppose the Canadian dollar depreciates by 20 percent. For Canada, the depreciation would lead to a:
a. Worsening trade balance–a larger deficit
b. Improving trade balance–a smaller deficit
c. Unchanged trade balance
d. None of the above

12. Assume the Canadian demand elasticity for imports equals 1.2, while the foreign demand elasticity for Canadian exports equals 1.8. Responding to a trade deficit, suppose the Canadian dollar depreciates by 10 percent. For Canada, the depreciation would lead to a(n):
a. Worsening trade balance–a larger deficit
b. Improving trade balance–a smaller deficit
c. Unchanged trade balance
d. None of the above

13. From 1985 to 1988 the U.S. dollar depreciated over 50 percent against the yen, yet Japanese export prices to Americans did not come down the full extent of the dollar depreciation. This is best explained by:
a. Partial currency pass-through
b. Complete currency pass-through
c. Partial J-curve effect
d. Complete J-curve effect

14. Because of the J-curve effect and partial currency pass-through, a depreciation of the domestic currency tends to increase the size of a:
a. Trade surplus in the short run
b. Trade surplus in the long run
c. Trade deficit in the short run
d. Trade deficit in the long run

15. According to the Marshall-Lerner condition, a currency depreciation is least likely to lead to an improvement in the home country’s trade balance when:
a. Home demand for imports is inelastic and foreign export demand is inelastic
b. Home demand for imports is elastic and foreign export demand is inelastic
c. Home demand for imports is inelastic and foreign export demand is elastic
d. Home demand for imports is elastic and foreign export demand is elastic

16. If foreign manufacturers cut manufacturing costs and profit margins in response to a depreciation in the U.S. dollar, the effect of these actions is to:
a. Shorten the amount of time in which the depreciation leads to a smaller trade deficit
b. Shorten the amount of time in which the depreciation leads to a smaller trade surplus
c. Lengthen the amount of time in which the depreciation leads to a smaller trade deficit
d. Lengthen the amount of time in which the depreciation leads to a smaller trade surplus

17. The shift in focus toward imperfectly competitive markets in domestic and international trade questions the concept of:
a. Official exchange rates
b. Complete currency pass-through
c. Exchange arbitrage
d. Trade-adjustment assistance

18. The extent to which a change in the exchange rate leads to changes in import and export prices is known as:
a. The J-curve effect
b. The Marshall-Lerner effect
c. The absorption effect
d. Pass-through effect

19. Complete currency pass-through arises when a 10 percent depreciation in the value of the dollar causes U.S.:
a. Import prices to fall by 10 percent
b. Import prices to rise by 10 percent
c. Export prices to rise by 10 percent
d. Export prices to rise by 20 percent

20. Which approach predicts that if an economy operates at full employment and faces a trade deficit, currency devaluation (depreciation) will improve the trade balance only if domestic spending is cut, thus freeing resources to produce exports?
a. The absorption approach
b. The Marshall-Lerner approach
c. The monetary approach
d. The elasticities approach

21. Which approach analyzes a nation’s balance of payments in terms of money demand and money supply?
a. Expenditures approach
b. Absorption approach
c. Elasticities approach
d. Monetary approach

22. The ____ effect suggests that following a currency depreciation a country’s trade balance worsens for a period before it improves.
a. Marshall-Lerner
b. J-curve
c. Absorption
d. Pass-through

23. The J-curve effect implies that following a currency appreciation, a country’s trade balance:
a. Worsens before it improves
b. Continually worsens
c. Improves before it worsens
d. Continually improves

24. Which analysis considers the extent by which foreign and domestic prices adjust to a change in the exchange rate in the short run:
a. Monetary analysis
b. Absorption analysis
c. Expenditures analysis
d. Pass-through analysis

25. The longer the currency pass-through period, the ____ required for currency depreciation to have the intended effect on the trade balance.
a. Shorter the time period
b. Longer the time period
c. Larger the spending cut
d. Smaller the spending cut

26. The shorter the currency pass-through period, the ____ required for currency depreciation to have the intended effect on the trade balance.
a. Shorter the time period
b. Longer the time period
c. Larger the spending cut
d. Smaller the spending cut

27. Assume that Ford Motor Company obtains all of its inputs in the United States and all of its costs are denominated in dollars. A depreciation of the dollar’s exchange value:
a. Enhances its international competitiveness
b. Worsens its international competitiveness
c. Does not affect its international competitiveness
d. None of the above

28. Assume that Ford Motor Company obtains all of its inputs in the United States and all of its costs are denominated in dollars. An appreciation of the dollar’s exchange value:
a. Enhances its international competitiveness
b. Worsens its international competitiveness
c. Does not affect its international competitiveness
d. None of the above

29. Assume that Ford Motor Company obtains some of its inputs in Mexico (foreign sourcing). As the peso becomes a larger portion of Ford’s total costs, a dollar appreciation leads to a ____ in the peso cost of a Ford vehicle and a ____ in the dollar cost of a Ford compared to the cost changes that occur when all input costs are dollar denominated.
a. Smaller increase, larger decrease
b. Smaller increase, smaller decrease
c. Larger increase, smaller decrease
d. Larger increase, larger decrease

30. Assume that Ford Motor Company obtains some of its inputs in Mexico (foreign sourcing). As the peso becomes a larger portion of Ford’s total costs, a dollar depreciation leads to a (an) ____ in the peso cost of a Ford vehicle and a (an) ____ in the dollar cost of a Ford compared to the cost changes that occur when all input costs are dollar denominated.
a. Decrease, increase
b. Increase, decrease
c. Decrease, decrease
d. Increase, increase

31. Given favorable elasticity conditions, an appreciation of the yen results in
a. A smaller Japanese trade deficit
b. A larger Japanese trade surplus
c. Decreased prices for imported products for Japan
d. Increased prices for imported products for Japan

32. Given favorable elasticity conditions, a depreciation of the lira tends to result in:
a. Lower prices of imported products for Italy
b. Higher prices of imported products for Italy
c. A larger trade deficit for Italy
d. A smaller trade surplus for Italy

33. According to the J-curve effect, a depreciation of the pound’s exchange value has:
a. No impact on a U.K. balance-of-trade deficit in the short run
b. No impact on a U.K. balance-of-trade deficit in the long run
c. An immediate negative effect on the U.K. balance of trade
d. An immediate positive effect on the U.K. balance of trade

34. According to the J-curve effect, an appreciation of the yens exchange value has:
a. No impact on the Japanese trade balance in the short run
b. No impact on the Japanese trade balance in the long run
c. An immediate negative effect on the Japanese trade balance
d. An immediate positive effect on the Japanese trade balance

35. According to the Marshall-Lerner condition, currency depreciation has no effect on a country’s trade balance if the elasticity of demand for its exports plus the elasticity of demand for its imports equals:
a. 0.1
b. 0.5
c. 1.0
d. 2.0

36. According to the Marshall-Lerner condition, currency depreciation would have a positive effect on a country’s trade balance if the elasticity of demand for its exports plus the elasticity of demand for its imports equals:
a. 0.2
b. 0.5
c. 1.0
d. 2.0

37. According to the Marshall-Lerner condition, currency depreciation would have a negative effect on a country’s trade balance if the elasticity of demand for its exports plus the elasticity of demand for its imports equals:
a. 0.5
b. 1.0
c. 1.5
d. 2.0

38. The absorption approach suggests that one of the following causes a trade deficit to decrease following currency depreciation:
a. A decline in domestic interest rates
b. A rise in domestic imports
c. A rise in government spending
d. A decline in domestic absorption

39. The absorption approach to currency depreciation is represented by one of the following equations:
a. B = Y – A
b. Y = C + I + G + (X-M)
c. I + X = S + M
d. S – I = X – M

40. The time period that it takes for companies to form new business connections and place new orders in response to currency depreciation is known as the:
a. Recognition lag
b. Replacement lag
c. Decision lag
d. Production lag

41. The time period that it takes for companies to increase output of commodities for which demand has increased due to currency depreciation is known as the:
a. Recognition lag
b. Decision lag
c. Replacement lag
d. Production lag

42. According to the J-curve effect, currency appreciation:
a. Decreases a trade surplus
b. Increases a trade surplus
c. Decreases a trade surplus before increasing a trade surplus
d. Increases a trade surplus before decreasing a trade surplus

43. According to the J-curve effect, currency depreciation:
a. Decreases a trade deficit
b. Increases a trade deficit
c. Decreases a trade deficit before increasing a trade deficit
d. Increases a trade deficit before decreasing a trade deficit

44. The analysis of the effects of currency depreciation include all of the following except the:
a. Absorption approach
b. Elasticity approach
c. Fiscal approach
d. Monetary approach

45. According to the absorption approach (B = Y – A), currency devaluation improves a nation’s trade balance if:
a. Y increases and A increases
b. Y decreases and A decreases
c. Y increases and/or A decreases
d. Y decreases and/or A increases

46. The effect of currency depreciation on the purchasing power of money balances and the resulting impact on domestic expenditures is emphasized by the:
a. Absorption approach
b. Monetary approach
c. Fiscal approach
d. Elasticity approach

47. The Marshall-Lerner condition suggests that depreciation of the franc leads to a worsening of France’s trade account if the:
a. Elasticity of demand for French exports is 0.4 while the French elasticity of demand for imports is 0.2
b. Elasticity of demand for French exports is 0.6 while the French elasticity of demand for imports is 0.4
c. Elasticity of demand for French exports is 0.5 while the French elasticity of demand for imports is 0.7
d. Elasticity of demand for French exports is 0.6 while the French elasticity of demand for imports is 0.7

Table 14.1. Hypothetical Costs of Producing an Automobile for Toyota Inc. of Japan

Cost Component Yen Cost Dollar-Equivalent Cost

Labor 1,200,000
Materials
Steel 800,000
Other materials 1,600,000
Total material costs 2,400,000
Other costs 400,000
Total costs 4,000,000

48. Refer to Table 14.1. Assuming that Toyota obtains all inputs from Japanese suppliers and that the yen/dollar exchange rate is 200 yen per dollar. The dollar-equivalent cost of a Toyota automobile equals:
a. $5000
b. $10,000
c. $15,000
d. $20,000

49. Refer to Table 14.1. Assume that Toyota Inc. obtains all of its automobile inputs from Japanese suppliers. If the yen’s exchange value appreciates from 200 yen = $1 to 100 yen = $1, the yen cost of a Toyota automobile equals:
a. 4,000,000 yen
b. 6,000,000 yen
c. 8,000,000 yen
d. 10,000,000 yen

50. Refer to Table 14.1. Assume that Toyota Inc. obtains all of its automobile inputs from Japanese suppliers. If the yen’s exchange value appreciates from 200 yen = $1 to 100 yen = $1, the dollar-equivalent cost of a Toyota automobile equals:
a. $10,000
b. $20,000
c. $30,000
d. $40,000

51. Refer to Table 14.1. Assume that Toyota Inc. imports steel from U.S. suppliers, whose costs are denominated in dollars, while all other inputs are obtained from Japanese suppliers whose costs are denominated in yen. If the yen’s exchange value appreciates from 200 yen = $1 to 100 yen = $1, the yen cost of a Toyota automobile equals:
a. 2,400,000 yen
b. 3,000,000 yen
c. 3,600,000 yen
d. 4,200,000 yen

52. Refer to Table 14.1. Assume that Toyota Inc. imports steel from U.S. suppliers, whose costs are denominated in dollars, while all other inputs are obtained from Japanese suppliers whose costs are denominated in yen. If the yen’s exchange value appreciates from 200 yen = $1 to 100 yen = $1, the dollar-equivalent cost of a Toyota automobile equals:
a. $24,000
b. $30,000
c. $36,000
d. $42,000

53. The lag that occurs between changes in relative prices and the quantities of goods traded is the
a. Recognition lag
b. Recovery lag
c. Implementation lag
d. Legislative lag

54. The Marshall-Lerner condition illustrates
a. The price effects of a nation’s currency depreciation on its trade deficit
b. The price effects of a nation’s currency appreciation on its trade deficit
c. The effect of fixed exchange rate systems on the trade balance
d. None of the above

55. The absorption approach to currency depreciation focuses on the
a. Purchasing power of money
b. Relative price effects
c. Income effects
d. Price elasticity of demand

56. Reversing balance of payments disequilibria may came at the expense of
a. Economic relations with our trading partners
b. Domestic recession
c. Price inflation
d. All of the above

TRUE/FALSE

1. Currency devaluation is initiated by governmental policy rather than the free-market forces of supply and demand.

2. If a currency’s exchange rate is overvalued, a government would likely initiate actions to revalue the currency.

3. If a currency’s exchange rate is undervalued, a government would likely initiate actions to devalue the currency.

4. The purpose of currency devaluation is to cause a depreciation in a currency’s exchange value.

5. The purpose of currency revaluation is to cause an appreciation in a currency’s exchange value.

6. Assume that General Motors employs labor and materials, whose costs are denominated in dollars, in the production of automobiles. If the dollar’s exchange value depreciates by 10 percent against the yen, the yen-denominated cost of a GM vehicle rises by 10 percent.

7. Assume that General Motors employs labor and materials, whose costs are denominated in dollars, in the production of automobiles. If the dollar’s exchange value appreciates by 10 percent against the yen, the yen-denominated cost of a GM vehicle falls by 10 percent.

8. Appreciation of the dollar’s exchange value worsens the international competitiveness of Boeing Inc., whereas a dollar depreciation improves its international competitiveness.

9. When manufacturing automobiles, suppose that General Motors uses labor and materials whose costs are denominated in dollars and pounds respectively. If the dollar’s exchange value appreciates by 15 percent against the pound, the pound-denominated cost of a GM vehicle rises by 15 percent.

10. According to the absorption approach, currency devaluation best improves a country’s trade balance when its economy is at maximum capacity.

11. When manufacturing computer software, suppose that Microsoft Inc. uses labor and materials whose costs are denominated in dollars and francs respectively. If the dollar’s exchange value depreciates 10 percent against the franc, the franc-denominated cost of the firm’s software falls by 10 percent.

12. When producing jetliners, suppose that Boeing employs labor and materials whose costs are denominated in dollars and marks respectively. If the dollar’s exchange value depreciates 20 percent against the mark, the mark-denominated cost of a Boeing jetliner falls by an amount less than 20 percent.

13. As yen-denominated costs become a larger portion of Ford’s total costs, a dollar appreciation results in a smaller increase in the yen-denominated cost of a Ford auto than occurs when all input costs are dollar denominated.

14. A depreciation of the dollar results in Whirlpool dishwashers becoming less competitive in Europe.

15. By decreasing the relative production costs of U.S. companies, a dollar appreciation tends to lower U.S. export prices in foreign-currency terms, which induces an increase in the amount of U.S. goods exported abroad.

16. By increasing relative U.S. production costs, a dollar depreciation tends to increase U.S. export prices in foreign-currency terms, which results in an increase in the quantity of U.S. goods exported abroad.

17. Suppose the exchange value of the franc rises against the currencies of Switzerland’s major trading partners. To protect themselves from decreases in foreign sales caused by the mark’s appreciation, Swiss companies could shift production to countries whose currencies had depreciated against the mark.

18. In the early 1990s, the yen sharply appreciated against the dollar. To protect themselves from export reductions caused by the yen’s appreciation, Japanese auto companies transferred increasing amounts of auto production from the United States to Japan.

19. The elasticity approach to currency depreciation emphasizes the income effects of depreciation.

20. The elasticity approach to currency depreciation emphasizes the relative price effects of depreciation and suggests that depreciation best improves a country’s trade balance when the elasticities of demand for the country’s imports and exports are high.

21. The absorption approach to currency devaluation deals with the income effects of devaluation while the elasticity approach to devaluation deals with the price effects of devaluation.

22. According to the absorption approach, an increase in domestic expenditures must occur for currency devaluation to promote balance of trade equilibrium.

23. The monetary approach emphasizes the effects of currency depreciation on the purchasing power of money, and the resulting impact on domestic expenditure levels.

24. According to the Marshall-Lerner condition, currency depreciation will worsen a country’s balance of trade if the country’s elasticity of demand for imports plus the foreign demand elasticity for the country’s exports exceeds 1.0.

25. The Marshall-Lerner condition asserts that if the sum of a country’s elasticity of demand for imports and the foreign elasticity of demand for the country’s exports equals 1.0, a depreciation of the country’s currency will not affect its balance of trade.

26. Suppose the U.S. price elasticity of demand for imports equals 0.4 and the foreign demand elasticity for the U.S. exports equals 0.2. According to the Marshall-Lerner condition, a depreciation of the dollar’s exchange value will improve the U.S. balance of trade.

27. The Marshall-Lerner condition suggests that if the sum of a country’s elasticity of demand for imports and the foreign elasticity of demand for the country’s exports exceeds 1.0, an appreciation of the country’s exchange rate will worsen its balance of trade.

28. Suppose the U.S. price elasticity of demand for imports equals 1.2 and the foreign elasticity of demand for U.S. exports equals 1.5. According to the Marshall-Lerner condition, an appreciation of the dollar’s exchange value would worsen the U.S. balance of trade.

29. Empirical research suggests that most countries’ price elasticities of demand for imports and exports are very inelastic, suggesting that currency depreciation would result in a worsening of a country’s balance of trade.

30. The J-curve effect implies that in the short run a currency depreciation will result in a balance of trade surplus for the home country. As time passes, however, the home country’s balance of trade will move toward deficit.

31. Suppose the dollar appreciates 10 percent against the Swiss franc. According to the J-curve effect, the U.S. balance of trade will initially worsen, but then improve as time passes.

32. The J-curve effect implies that the price elasticity of demand for imports and exports is more elastic in the short run than in the long run.

33. The extent to which changing currency values result in changing prices of imports and exports is known as the J-curve effect.

34. Complete currency pass through suggests that if the dollar’s exchange value depreciates by 10 percent, imports will become 10 percent more expensive to Americans while U.S. exports will become 10 percent cheaper to foreigners.

35. Partial currency pass-through implies that if the dollar’s exchange value appreciates by 10 percent, imports would become, say, 6 percent more expensive to Americans while U.S. exports would become, say, 8 percent cheaper to foreigners.

36. Suppose the U.S. economy is operating at full capacity and the dollar’s exchange value depreciates. According to the absorption approach, the United States would have to accept reductions in domestic spending if the U.S. trade balance is to improve as a result of the depreciation.

SHORT ANSWER

1. How do demand elasticities influence a country’s trade position when exchange rates change?

2. How is the absorption approach used for analyzing the effects of currency devaluation?

ESSAY

1. What is a pass-through relationship?

2. How do movements in exchange rates affect domestic costs, in the presence of foreign sourcing?

CHAPTER 15—EXCHANGE-RATE SYSTEMS AND CURRENCY CRISES

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The exchange-rate system that best characterizes the present international monetary arrangement used by industrialized countries is:
a. Freely fluctuating exchange rates
b. Adjustable pegged exchange rates
c. Managed floating exchange rates
d. Pegged or fixed exchange rates

2. Which exchange-rate mechanism is intended to insulate the balance of payments from short-term capital movements while providing exchange rate stability for commercial transactions?
a. Dual exchange rates
b. Managed floating exchange rates
c. Adjustable pegged exchange rates
d. Crawling pegged exchange rates

3. Which exchange-rate mechanism calls for frequent redefining of the par value by small amounts to remove a payments disequilibrium?
a. Dual exchange rates
b. Adjustable pegged exchange rates
c. Managed floating exchange rates
d. Crawling pegged exchange rates

4. Under managed floating exchange rates, if the rate of inflation in the United States is less than the rate of inflation of its trading partners, the dollar will likely:
a. Appreciate against foreign currencies
b. Depreciate against foreign currencies
c. Be officially revalued by the government
d. Be officially devalued by the government

5. Under adjustable pegged exchange rates, if the rate of inflation in the United States exceeds the rate of inflation of its trading partners:
a. U.S. exports tend to rise and imports tend to fall
b. U.S. imports tend to rise and exports tend to fall
c. U.S. foreign exchange reserves tend to rise
d. U.S. foreign exchange reserves remain constant

6. Under a pegged exchange-rate system, which does not explain why a country would have a balance-of-payments deficit?
a. Very high rates of inflation occur domestically
b. Foreigners discriminate against domestic products
c. Technological advance is superior abroad
d. The domestic currency is undervalued relative to other currencies

7. Which exchange-rate system does not require monetary reserves for official exchange-rate intervention?
a. Floating exchange rates
b. Pegged exchange rates
c. Managed floating exchange rates
d. Dual exchange rates

8. A primary objective of dual exchange rates is to allow a country the ability to insulate its balance of payments from net:
a. Current account transactions
b. Unilateral transfers
c. Merchandise trade transactions
d. Capital account transactions

9. During the 1970s, the European Union, in its quest for monetary union, adopted what came to be referred to as the “Community Snake.” This device was a:
a. Adjustable pegged exchange rate system
b. Dual exchange rate system
c. Jointly floating exchange rate system
d. Freely floating exchange rate system

10. Under the historic adjustable pegged exchange-rate system, member countries were permitted to correct persistent and sizable payment deficits (i.e., fundamental disequilibrium) by:
a. Officially revaluing their currencies
b. Officially devaluing their currencies
c. Allowing their currencies to depreciate in the free market
d. Allowing their currencies to appreciate in the free market

11. Which exchange-rate system involves a “leaning against the wind” strategy in which short-term fluctuations in exchange rates are reduced without adhering to any particular exchange rate over the long run?
a. Pegged or fixed exchange rates
b. Adjustable pegged exchange rates
c. Managed floating exchange rates
d. Freely floating exchange rates

12. In 1973, the reform of the international monetary system resulted in the change from:
a. Adjustable pegged rates to managed floating rates
b. Managed floating rates to adjustable pegged rates
c. Crawling pegged rates to freely floating rates
d. Freely floating rates to crawling pegged rates

13. The Bretton Woods Agreement of 1944 established a monetary system based on:
a. Gold and managed floating exchange rates
b. Gold and adjustable pegged exchange rates
c. Special Drawing Rights and managed floating exchange rates
d. Special Drawing Rights and adjustable pegged exchange rates

14. Rather than constructing their own currency baskets, many nations peg the value of their currencies to a currency basket defined by the International Monetary Fund. Which of the following illustrates this basket?
a. IMF tranche
b. Special Drawing Rights
c. Primary reserve asset
d. Swap facility

15. Small nations (e.g., the Ivory Coast) whose trade and financial relationships are mainly with a single partner tend to utilize:
a. Pegged exchange rates
b. Freely floating exchange rates
c. Managed floating exchange rates
d. Crawling pegged exchange rates

16. Small nations (e.g., Tanzania) with more than one major trading partner tend to peg the value of their currencies to:
a. Gold
b. Silver
c. A single currency
d. A basket of currencies

17. Under a floating exchange-rate system, if American exports increase and American imports fall, the value of the dollar will:
a. Appreciate
b. Depreciate
c. Be officially revalued
d. Be officially devalued

18. Under a floating exchange-rate system, if American exports decrease and American imports rise, the value of the dollar will:
a. Appreciate
b. Depreciate
c. Be officially revalued
d. Be officially devalued

19. Under a floating exchange rate system, an increase in U.S. imports of Japanese goods will cause the demand schedule for Japanese yen to:
a. Increase, inducing a depreciation in the yen
b. Decrease, inducing a depreciation in the yen
c. Increase, inducing an appreciation in the yen
d. Decrease, inducing an appreciation in the yen

20. Given an initial equilibrium in the money market and foreign exchange market, suppose the Federal Reserve increases the money supply of the United States. Under a floating exchange-rate system, the dollar would:
a. Appreciate in value relative to other currencies
b. Depreciate in value relative to other currencies
c. Be officially devalued by the government
d. Be officially revalued by the government

21. Given an initial equilibrium in the money market and foreign exchange market, suppose the Federal Reserve decreases the money supply of the United States. Under a floating exchange rate system, the dollar would:
a. Appreciate in value relative to other currencies
b. Depreciate in value relative to other currencies
c. Be officially devalued by the government
d. Be officially revalued by the government

22. Under a floating exchange-rate system, if the U.S. dollar depreciates against the Swiss franc:
a. American exports to Switzerland will be cheaper in francs
b. American exports to Switzerland will be more expensive in francs
c. American imports from Switzerland will be cheaper in dollars
d. None of the above

23. If the Japanese yen depreciates against other currencies in the exchange markets, this will:
a. Have no effect on the Japanese balance of trade
b. Tend to worsen the Japanese balance of trade
c. Tend to improve the Japanese balance of trade
d. None of the above

24. If the Japanese yen appreciates against other currencies in the exchange markets, this will:
a. Have no effect on the Japanese balance of trade
b. Tend to improve the Japanese balance of trade
c. Tend to worsen the Japanese balance of trade
d. None of the above

25. Suppose Sweden’s inflation rate is less than that of its trading partner. Under a floating exchange rate system, Sweden would experience a:
a. Appreciation in its currency
b. Depreciation in its currency
c. Fall in the level of its exports
d. Rise in the level of its imports

26. Assume that interest rates in London rise relative to those in Switzerland. Under a floating exchange-rate system, one would expect the pound (relative to the franc) to:
a. Depreciate due to the increased demand for pounds
b. Depreciate due to the increased demand for francs
c. Appreciate due to the increased demand for francs
d. Appreciate due to the increased demand for pounds

27. Under a floating exchange-rate system, which of the following best leads to a depreciation in the value of the Canadian dollar?
a. A decrease in the Canadian money supply
b. A fall in the Canadian interest rate
c. An increase in national income overseas
d. Rising inflation overseas

28. A market-determined increase in the dollar price of the pound is associated with:
a. Revaluation of the dollar
b. Devaluation of the dollar
c. Appreciation of the dollar
d. Depreciation of the dollar

29. A market-determined decrease in the dollar price of the pound is associated with:
a. Revaluation of the dollar
b. Devaluation of the dollar
c. Appreciation of the dollar
d. Depreciation of the dollar

30. Which of the following is not a potential disadvantage of freely floating exchange rates?
a. They require larger amounts of international reserves than other exchange systems
b. Demand schedules for imports and exports may be price speculation
c. There may occur large amounts of destabilizing speculation
d. Capital movements among nations may be hindered via exchange rate fluctuations

31. Proponents of freely floating exchange rates maintain that:
a. Central banks can easily modify fluctuations in exchange rates
b. The system allows policy makers freedom in pursuing domestic economic goals
c. Inelastic demand schedules prevent large fluctuations in exchange rates
d. Inelastic supply schedules prevent large fluctuations in exchange rates

32. A potential disadvantage of freely floating exchange rates is that there would:
a. Exist excessive amounts of hedging in the foreign exchange markets
b. Be a lack of incentive to initiate exchange arbitrage
c. Be excessive amounts of destabilizing speculation
d. Exist a devaluation bias in the exchange markets

33. Under a floating exchange rate system, if there occurs a fall in the dollar price of the franc:
a. American exports to France will be cheaper in francs
b. American exports to France will be more expensive in francs
c. American imports from France will be more expensive in dollars
d. None of the above

34. Under a system of floating exchange rates, a U.S. trade deficit with Japan will cause:
a. A flow of gold from the United States to Japan
b. The U.S. government to ration yen to U.S. importers
c. An increase in the dollar price of yen
d. A decrease in the dollar price of yen

35. A potential limitation of freely floating exchange rates is that:
a. Countries require a larger amount of international reserves than otherwise
b. Countries are unable to initiate economic policies to combat unemployment
c. Exchange rates may experience wide and frequent fluctuations
d. Demand tends to be highly sensitive to price movements

36. To temporarily offset an appreciation in the dollar’s exchange value, the Federal Reserve could ____ the U.S. money supply which would promote a (an) ____ in U.S. interest rates and a ____ in investment flows to the United States.
a. Increase, decrease, decrease
b. Increase, increase, decrease
c. Decrease, decrease, decrease
d. Decrease, increase, decrease

37. To temporarily offset a depreciation in the dollar’s exchange value, the Federal Reserve could ____ the U.S. money supply which would promote a (an) ____ in U.S. interest rates and a (an) ____ in investment flows to the United States.
a. Increase, decrease, decrease
b. Increase, increase, increase
c. Decrease, decrease, increase
d. Decrease, increase, increase

38. In a managed floating exchange-rate system, temporary stabilization of the dollar’s exchange value requires the Federal Reserve to adopt a (an) ____ monetary policy when the dollar is appreciating and a (an) ____ policy when the dollar is depreciating.
a. Expansionary, expansionary
b. Expansionary, contractionary
c. Contractionary, expansionary
d. Contractionary, contractionary

39. The central bank of the United Kingdom could prevent the pound from appreciating by:
a. Selling pounds on the foreign exchange market
b. Buying pounds on the foreign exchange market
c. Reducing its inflation rate relative to its trading partners
d. Promoting domestic investment and technological development

40. A surplus nation can reduce its payments imbalance by:
a. Applying tariffs and trade restrictions on imports
b. Revaluing its national currency
c. Increasing its labor productivity
d. Setting higher interest rates than its trading partners

41. A main purpose of exchange stabilization funds is to:
a. Permit a country to overvalue its currency in the exchange markets
b. Permit a country to undervalue its currency in the exchange markets
c. Increase the supply of foreign currency when imports exceed exports
d. Decrease the supply of foreign currency when imports exceed exports

42. As a policy instrument, currency devaluation may be controversial since it:
a. Imposes hardships on the exporters of foreign countries
b. Imposes hardships on exporters of the devaluing country
c. Is generally followed by unemployment in the devaluing country
d. Is generally followed by price deflation in the devaluing country

43. Given a two-country world, assume Canada and Sweden devalue their currencies by 20 percent. This would result in:
a. An appreciation in the Canadian currency
b. An appreciation in the Swedish currency
c. An appreciation in both currencies
d. An appreciation in neither currency

44. Suppose that Japan maintains a pegged exchange rate that overvalues the yen. This would likely result in:
a. Japanese exports becoming cheaper in world markets
b. Imports becoming expensive in the Japanese market
c. Unemployment for Japanese workers
d. Full employment for Japanese workers

45. To defend a pegged exchange rate that overvalues its currency, a country could:
a. Discourage commodity exports
b. Encourage commodity imports
c. Purchase its own currency in international markets
d. Sell its own currency in international markets

46. Given a two-country world, suppose Japan devalues the yen by 20 percent and South Korea devalues the won by 15 percent. This results in:
a. An appreciation in the value of both currencies
b. A depreciation in the value of both currencies
c. An appreciation in the value of the yen against the won
d. A depreciation in the value of the yen against the won

47. Given a two-country world, suppose Japan revalues the yen by 15 percent and South Korea revalues the won by 12 percent. This results in:
a. An appreciation in the value of both currencies
b. A depreciation in the value of both currencies
c. An appreciation in the value of the yen against the won
d. A depreciation in the value of the yen against the won

Figure 15.1 shows the market for the Swiss franc. In the figure, the initial demand for marks and supply of marks are depicted by D0 and S0 respectively.

Figure 15.1. The Market for the Swiss Franc

48. Refer to Figure 15.1. With a system of floating exchange rates, the equilibrium exchange rate is:
a. $0.40 per franc
b. $0.50 per franc
c. $0.60 per franc
d. $0.70 per franc

49. Refer to Figure 15.1. Suppose that the United States increases its imports from Switzerland, resulting in a rise in the demand for francs from D0 to D1. Under a floating exchange rate system, the new equilibrium exchange rate would be:
a. $0.40 per franc
b. $0.50 per franc
c. $0.60 per franc
d. $0.70 per franc

50. Refer to Figure 15.1. Suppose the United States decreases investment spending in Switzerland, thus reducing the demand for francs from D0 to D2. Under a floating exchange rate system, the new equilibrium exchange rate would be:
a. $0.40 per franc
b. $0.50 per franc
c. $0.60 per franc
d. $0.70 per franc

51. Refer to Figure 15.1. Suppose the demand for francs increases from D0 to D1. Under a fixed exchange rate system, the U.S. exchange stabilization fund could maintain a fixed exchange rate of $0.50 per franc by:
a. Selling francs for dollars on the foreign exchange market
b. Selling dollars for francs on the foreign exchange market
c. Decreasing U.S. exports, thus decreasing the supply of francs
d. Stimulating U.S. imports, thus increasing the demand for francs

Table 15.1. The Market for Francs

Quantity of Dollar price Quantity of
francs demanded of francs francs supplied

600 $0.05 0
500 0.10 100
400 0.15 200
300 0.20 300
200 0.25 400
100 0.30 500
0 0.35 600

52. Refer to Table 15.1. Under a system of floating exchange rates, the equilibrium exchange rate equals:
a. $0.15 per franc
b. $0.20 per franc
c. $0.25 per franc
d. $0.30 per franc

53. Refer to Table 15.1. If monetary authorities fix the exchange rate at $0.10 per franc, there would be a:
a. Shortage of 200 francs
b. Shortage of 400 francs
c. Surplus of 200 francs
d. Surplus of 400 francs

54. Refer to Table 15.1. If monetary authorities fix the exchange rate at $0.30 per franc, there will be a:
a. Shortage of 200 francs
b. Shortage of 400 francs
c. Surplus of 200 francs
d. Surplus of 400 francs

55. Under managed floating exchange rates, the Federal Reserve could offset an appreciation of the dollar against the yen by:
a. Increasing the money supply which promotes falling interest rates and net investment outflows
b. Increasing the money supply which promotes rising interest rates and net investment inflows
c. Decreasing the money supply which promotes falling interest rates and net investment outflows
d. Decreasing the money supply which promotes rising interest rates and net investment inflows

56. Under managed floating exchange rates, a central bank would initiate:
a. Contractionary monetary policy to offset a depreciation of its currency
b. Contractionary monetary policy to offset an appreciation of its currency
c. Expansionary monetary policy to offset a depreciation of its currency
d. None of the above

57. To offset an appreciation of the dollar against the yen, the Federal Reserve would:
a. Sell dollars on the foreign exchange market and lower domestic interest rates
b. Sell dollars on the foreign exchange market and raise domestic interest rates
c. Buy dollars on the foreign exchange market and lower domestic interest rates
d. Buy dollars on the foreign exchange market and raise domestic interest rates

58. To help insulate their economies from inflation, currency depreciation, and capital flight, developing countries have implemented:
a. Regional trading blocs
b. Currency boards
c. Central banks
d. Regional fiscal policies

59. If Mexico dollarizes its economy, it essentially
a. Allows the Federal Reserve to be its lender of last resort
b. Accepts the monetary policy of the Federal Reserve
c. Ensures that its business cycle was identical to that of the U.S.
d. Abandons its ability to run governmental balanced budgets

60. If Mexico fully dollarizes its economy, it agrees to
a. Print pesos only to finance deficits of its national government
b. Use the U.S. dollar alongside its peso to finance transactions
c. Have the U.S. Treasury be in charge of its tax collections
d. Replace pesos with U.S. dollars in its economy

61. An objective of the dollarization of the Mexican economy would be to:
a. Shield its economy from hyperinflation, currency depreciation, and capital flight
b. Allow the Federal Reserve to be its lender of last resort
c. Ensure that its monetary policy is independent of the Federal Reserve
d. Permit it to benefit from tariffs and subsidies imposed by the U.S. government

62. In order to stabilize a currency, the central bank will need to adopt
a. An expansionary monetary policy to offset currency depreciation
b. An expansionary monetary policy to offset currency appreciation
c. A contractionary policy to offset currency appreciation
d. Both b and c

63. The crawling peg is a
a. Fixed exchange rate system
b. Floating exchange rate system
c. Compromise between fixed and floating exchange rates
d. Exchange rate system used by nations experiencing no inflation

64. Exchange rate controls
a. Achieved prominence during the economic crises of the late 1930’s
b. Were popular immediately after World War II
c. Are widely used by the developing nations
d. All of the above

65. The flexibility of floating rates may generate the problem of
a. Inflationary bias
b. Deflationary bias
c. Continuous depreciation
d. Both a and c

TRUE/FALSE

1. By the early 1970s, gold had been phased out of the international monetary system.

2. Since 1974, the major industrial countries have operated under a system of fixed exchange rates based on the gold standard.

3. Today, fixed exchange rates are used primarily by small, developing countries that tie their currencies to a key currency such as the U.S. dollar.

4. Smaller nations with relatively undiversified economies and large trade sectors tend to peg their currencies to one of the world’s key currencies.

5. Large industrial nations with diversified economies and small trade sectors have generally pegged their currencies to one of the world’s key currencies.

6. Small nations, such as Angola and Barbados, peg their currencies to the U.S. dollar since the prices of many of their traded goods are determined in markets in which the dollar is the key currency.

7. Many developing nations with low inflation rates have pegged their currencies to the U.S. dollar as a way of allowing modest increases in domestic inflation rates.

8. Pegging to a single currency is generally done by developing nations whose trade and financial relationships are mainly with a single industrial-country partner.

9. Developing countries with more than one major trading partner often peg their currencies to a group or basket of those trading partner currencies.

10. Most developing countries have chosen to allow their currencies to float independently in the foreign exchange market.

11. Today, special drawing rights (SDRs) represent the most important currency basket against which developing countries maintain pegged exchange rates.

12. The special drawing right is a currency basket of five major industrial country currencies.

13. The Australian dollar is currently regarded is the key currency of the international monetary system.

14. A “key currency” is one that is widely traded on world money markets, has demonstrated relative stable values over time, and has widely been accepted as a means of international settlement.

15. The U.S. dollar is generally regarded as the major “key currency” of the international monetary system.

16. Most nations currently allow their currencies’ exchange values to be determined solely by the forces of supply and demand in a free market.

17. Under the gold standard, the official exchange rate would be $2.80 per pound as long as the United States bought and sold gold at a fixed price of $35 per ounce and Britain bought and sold gold at 12.5 pounds per ounce.

18. The par values of most developing-country currencies are currently defined in terms of gold.

19. The purpose of an exchange stabilization fund is to ensure that the market exchange rate does not deviate beyond unacceptable levels from the official exchange rate.

20. To keep the pound’s exchange value from depreciating against the franc, the British exchange stabilization fund would sell pounds for francs on the foreign exchange market.

21. To keep the yen’s exchange value from appreciating against the dollar, Japan’s exchange stabilization fund would buy yen for dollars on the foreign exchange market.

22. The purpose of currency devaluation is to cause the home country’s exchange value to appreciate, thus reducing a balance of trade surplus.

23. If Uganda devalues its shilling by 10 percent and Burundi devalues its franc by 5 percent, the shilling’s exchange value appreciates 10 percent against the franc.

24. If Uganda sets its par value at 400 shillings per SDR and Burundi sets its par value at 200 francs per SDR, the official exchange rate is 1 franc = o.5 shillings.

25. If Uganda revalues its shilling by 20 percent and Burundi devalues its franc by 5 percent, the shillings exchange value will appreciate by 25 percent against the franc.

26. Unlike floating exchange rates, fixed exchange rates are not characterized by par values and central bank intervention in the foreign exchange market.

27. Because there is no exchange stabilization fund under floating exchange rates, any holdings of international reserves serve as working balances rather than to maintain a given exchange rate for any currency.

28. Under an adjustable-pegged system, market exchange rates are intended to be maintained within a narrow band around a currency’s official exchange rate. In the case of fundamental disequilibrium, the currency can be devalued or revalued to promote current-account equilibrium.

29. In 1973 the major industrial countries terminated managed-floating exchange rates and adopted an adjustable-pegged exchange rates.

30. A “dirty float” occurs when a nation used central bank intervention in the foreign exchange market to promote a depreciation of its currency’s exchange value, thus gaining a competitive advantage compared to its trading partners.

31. Under managed-floating exchange rates, market forces are allowed to determine exchange rates in the short run while central bank intervention is used to stabilize exchange rates in the long run.

32. Under managed floating exchange rates, central bank intervention is used to offset temporary fluctuations in exchange rates that contribute to uncertainty in carrying out transactions in international trade and finance.

33. To offset an appreciation in the dollar’s exchange value, the Federal Reserve can nudge interest rates down in the United States which results in net investment outflows.

34. When pursued over the long run, a policy of increasing the domestic money supply to offset an appreciation of the home country’s currency results in inflation and a decrease in home-country competitiveness in key industries.

35. At the Maastricht Treaty of 1991, members of the European Community established a blueprint for an Economic and Monetary Union with a single currency and a European central bank overseeing a single monetary policy.

36. It is universally recognized that Europe fulfills the conditions of an optimum currency area.

SHORT ANSWER

1. Which nations use multiple exchange rates the most and why?

2. What is an SDR?

ESSAY

1. What is the difference between the crawling peg and adjustable pegged exchange rates?

2. How can currency boards and dollarization prevent currency crises?

ECO 305 Week 11 Quiz

CHAPTER 16—MACROECONOMIC POLICY IN AN OPEN ECONOMY

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A nation experiences internal balance if it achieves:
a. Full employment
b. Price stability
c. Full employment and price stability
d. Unemployment and price instability

2. A nation experiences external balance if it achieves:
a. No net changes in its international gold stocks
b. Productivity levels equal to those of its trading partners
c. An increase in its money supply equal to increases overseas
d. Equilibrium in its balance of payments

3. A nation experiences overall balance if it achieves:
a. Balance-of-payments equilibrium, full employment, and price stability
b. Balance-of-payments equilibrium, maximum productivity, and price stability
c. Full employment, price stability and no change in its money supply
d. Full employment, price stability, and maximum productivity

4. Most industrial countries generally considered ____ as the most important economic goal.
a. External balance
b. Internal balance
c. Maximum efficiency for business
d. Maximum efficiency for labor

5. Which policies are expenditure-changing policies?
a. Currency devaluation and revaluation
b. Import quotas and tariffs
c. Monetary and fiscal policy
d. Wage and price controls

6. Which policy is an expenditure-switching policy?
a. Increase in the money supply
b. Decrease in government expenditures
c. Increase in business and household taxes
d. Decrease in import tariffs

7. An expenditure-increasing policy would consist of an increase in:
a. Import tariffs
b. Import quotas
c. Governmental taxes
d. The money supply

8. An expenditure-reducing policy would consist of a decrease in:
a. The par value of a currency
b. Government expenditures
c. Import duties
d. Business or household taxes

9. Given fixed exchange rates, assume Mexico initiates expansionary monetary and fiscal policies to combat recession. These policies will also:
a. Increase both imports and exports
b. Increase exports and reduce imports
c. Reduce a balance-of-payments surplus
d. Reduce a balance-of-payments deficit

10. Given fixed exchange rates, assume Mexico initiates contractionary monetary and fiscal policies to combat inflation. These policies will also:
a. Reduce a balance-of-payments surplus
b. Reduce a balance-of-payments deficit
c. Increases both imports and exports
d. Decrease both imports and exports

11. The appropriate expenditure-switching policy to correct a current account surplus is:
a. Currency revaluation
b. Currency devaluation
c. Expansionary monetary policy
d. Contractionary fiscal policy

12. The appropriate expenditure-switching policy to correct a current account deficit is:
a. Contractionary monetary policy
b. Expansionary fiscal policy
c. Currency devaluation
d. Currency revaluation

13. Suppose the United States faces domestic recession and a current account deficit. Should the United States devalue the dollar, one would expect the:
a. Recession to become less severe–deficit to become less severe
b. Recession to become more severe–deficit to become less severe
c. Recession to become less severe–deficit to become more severe
d. Recession to become more severe–deficit to become more severe

14. Suppose the United States faces domestic inflation and a current account surplus. Should the United States revalue the dollar, one would expect the:
a. Inflation to become more severe–surplus to become less severe
b. Inflation to become less severe–surplus to become less severe
c. Inflation to become less severe–surplus to become more severe
d. Inflation to become more severe–surplus to become more severe

15. Suppose Brazil faces domestic recession and a current account surplus. Should Brazil revalue its currency, one would expect the:
a. Recession to become less severe–surplus to become less severe
b. Recession to become more severe–surplus to become more severe
c. Recession to become more severe–surplus to become less severe
d. Recession to become less severe–surplus to become more severe

16. Suppose that Brazil faces domestic inflation and a current account deficit. Should Brazil devalue its currency, one would expect the:
a. Inflation to become more severe–deficit to become less severe
b. Inflation to become more severe–deficit to become more severe
c. Inflation to become less severe–deficit to become less severe
d. Inflation to become less severe–deficit to become more severe

17. In a closed economy, which of the following will cause the economy’s aggregate demand curve to shift to the right?
a. decreases and wages and salaries paid to employees
b. increases in the prices of oil and natural gas
c. decreases in income taxes for households
d. decreases in the productivity of labor

18. Given an open economy with high capital mobility and floating exchange rates, suppose an expansionary monetary policy is implemented to combat recession. The initial and secondary effects of the policy
a. cause aggregate demand to increase, thus strengthening the policy’s expansionary effect on real output
b. cause aggregate demand to decrease, thus eliminating the policy’s expansionary effect on real output
c. have conflicting effects on aggregate demand, thus weakening the policy’s expansionary effect on real output
d. have conflicting effects on aggregate demand, thus strengthening the policy’s expansionary effect on real output

19. A problem that economic policy makers confront when attempting to promote both internal and external balance for the nation is that monetary or fiscal policies aimed at the domestic sector also have impacts on:
a. Trade flows only
b. Capital flows only
c. both trade flows and capital flows
d. Neither trade flows nor capital flows

20. Given an open economy with high capital mobility and floating exchange rates, suppose an expansionary fiscal policy is implemented to combat recession. The initial and secondary effects of the policy
a. cause aggregate demand to increase, thus strengthening the policy’s expansionary effect on real output
b. cause aggregate demand to decrease, thus eliminating the policy’s expansionary effect on real output
c. have conflicting effects on aggregate demand, thus weakening the policy’s expansionary effect on real output
d. have conflicting effects on aggregate demand, thus strengthening the policy’s expansionary effect on real output

21. A system of fixed exchange rates and high capital mobility strengthens which policy in combating a recession:
a. Expansionary fiscal policy
b. Expansionary monetary policy
c. Contractionary fiscal policy
d. Contractionary monetary policy

22. A system of floating exchange rates and high capital mobility strengthens which policy in combating a recession:
a. Expansionary fiscal policy
b. Expansionary monetary policy
c. Contractionary fiscal policy
d. Contractionary monetary policy

23. Given an open economy with high capital mobility, all of the following statements are true except:
a. fiscal policy is strengthened under fixed exchange rates
b. monetary policy is weakened under fixed exchange rates
c. monetary policy is strengthened under floating exchange rates
d. fiscal policy is strengthened under floating exchange rates

24. Under a system of managed-floating exchange rates with heavy exchange rate intervention:
a. Fiscal policy is successful in promoting internal balance, while monetary policy is unsuccessful
b. Monetary policy is successful in promoting internal balance, while fiscal policy is unsuccessful
c. Both fiscal policy and monetary policy are successful in promoting internal balance
d. Neither fiscal policy nor monetary policy are successful in promoting internal balance

25. Given a system of floating exchange rates, an expansionary monetary policy by the Federal Reserve will cause
a. the dollar to appreciate and will decrease U.S. net exports
b. the dollar to appreciate and will increase U.S. net exports
c. the dollar to depreciate and will increase U.S. net exports
d. the dollar to depreciate and will decrease U.S. net exports

26. Given a system of floating exchange rates, a contractionary monetary policy by the Federal Reserve will cause
a. the dollar to appreciate and will decrease U.S. net exports
b. the dollar to appreciate and will increase U.S. net exports
c. the dollar to depreciate and will increase U.S. net exports
d. the dollar to depreciate and will decrease U.S. net exports

27. All of the following are obstacles to international economic policy coordination except:
a. Different national objectives and institutions
b. Different national political climates
c. Different phases in the business cycle
d. Different national currencies

28. Suppose a central bank prevents a depreciation of its currency by intervening in the foreign exchange market and buying its currency with foreign currency. This causes the
a. domestic money supply to decrease and a decline in aggregate demand
b. domestic money supply to increase and a decline in aggregate demand
c. domestic money supply to decrease and a rise in aggregate demand
d. domestic money supply to increase and a rise in aggregate demand

29. At the ____, the Group-of-Five nations agreed to intervene in the currency markets to promote a depreciation in the U.S. dollar’s exchange value.
a. Plaza Agreement of 1985
b. Louvre Accord of 1987
c. Bonn Summit of 1978
d. Tokyo Summit of 1962

30. The Plaza Agreement of 1985 and Louvre Accord of 1987 are examples of:
a. Tariff trade barrier formation
b. Nontariff trade barrier formation
c. International economic policy coordination
d. Beggar-thy-neighbor policies

Exhibit 16.1

At the Plaza Accord of 1985, the Group-of-Five nations agreed to drive the value of the dollar downward (i.e., depreciation) so as to help reduce the U.S. trade deficit. Answer the following question(s) on the basis of this information.

31. Refer to Exhibit 16.1. To help drive the dollar’s exchange value downward, the Federal Reserve would:
a. Reduce taxes
b. Increase taxes
c. Decrease the money supply
d. Increase the money supply

32. Refer to Exhibit 16.1. The Federal Reserve might refuse to support the accord on the grounds that when helping to drive the dollar’s exchange value downward, it promotes an increase in the U.S.:
a. Rate of inflation
b. Budget deficit
c. Unemployment level
d. Economic growth rate

33. Under a fixed exchange-rate system and high capital mobility, an expansion in the domestic money supply leads to:
a. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account surplus
b. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account deficit
c. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account surplus
d. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account deficit

34. Under a fixed exchange-rate system and high capital mobility, a contraction in the domestic money supply leads to a:
a. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account surplus
b. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account deficit
c. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account surplus
d. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account deficit

35. Under a fixed exchange-rate system and high capital mobility, an expansionary fiscal policy leads to a:
a. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account surplus
b. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account deficit
c. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account surplus
d. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account deficit

36. Under a fixed exchange-rate system and high capital mobility, a contractionary fiscal policy leads to a:
a. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account surplus
b. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account deficit
c. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account surplus
d. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account deficit

37. Suppose a central bank prevents a depreciation of its currency by intervening in the foreign exchange market and buying its currency with foreign currency. This causes the
a. domestic money supply to decrease and a decline in aggregate demand
b. domestic money supply to increase and a decline in aggregate demand
c. domestic money supply to decrease and a rise in aggregate demand
d. domestic money supply to increase and a fall in aggregate demand

38. Suppose a central bank prevents an appreciation of its currency by intervening in the foreign exchange market and selling its currency for foreign currency. This causes the
a. domestic money supply to decrease and a decline in aggregate demand
b. domestic money supply to increase and a decline in aggregate demand
c. domestic money supply to decrease and a rise in aggregate demand
d. domestic money supply to increase and a fall in aggregate demand

39. Assume a system of floating exchange rates. In response to relatively high interest rates abroad, suppose domestic investors place their funds in foreign capital markets. The result would be
a. a depreciation of the domestic currency and a rise in net exports
b. a depreciation of the domestic currency and a fall in net exports
c. an appreciation of the domestic currency and a rise in net exports
d. an appreciation of the domestic currency and a fall in net exports

40. Assume a system of floating exchange rates. In response to relatively high domestic interest rates, suppose that foreign investors place their funds in domestic capital markets. The result would be
a. a depreciation of the domestic currency and a rise in net exports
b. a depreciation of the domestic currency and a fall in net exports
c. an appreciation of the domestic currency and a rise in net exports
d. an appreciation of the domestic currency and a fall in net exports

41. When a nation realizes external balance
a. it can have a current account deficit
b. it can have a current account surplus
c. it has neither a current account deficit nor a current account surplus
d. Both a and b

42. Direct controls may take the form of
a. Tariffs
b. Export subsidies
c. Export quotas
d. All of the above

43. With a fixed exchange rate system, internal balance is most effectively achieved by using
a. Expansionary monetary policy to combat recession
b. Expansionary fiscal policy to combat inflation
c. Contractionary monetary policy to combat recession
d. Contractionary fiscal policy to combat recession

44. Policy coordination is complicated by
a. Different economic objectives
b. Different national institutions
c. Different phases in the business cycle
d. All of the above

TRUE/FALSE

1. A nation realizes internal balance if economy achieves full employment and price stability.

2. Nations have typically placed greater importance to the goal of internal balance than to the goal of external balance.

3. A nation realizes external balance when its current account is in equilibrium.

4. A nation realizes overall balance when it achieves full employment and current account equilibrium.

5. Expenditure-changing policies modify the direction of aggregate demand, shifting it between domestic output and imports.

6. Expenditure-switching policies include fiscal policy and monetary policy.

7. Economic policymakers have typically adopted expenditure-increasing policies to combat inflation and expenditure-reducing policies to combat recession.

8. Expenditure-switching policies alter the level of total spending (aggregate demand) for goods and services produced domestically and those imported.

9. Currency devaluation and revaluation are considered to be expenditure-changing policies since they alter a country’s aggregate demand for goods and services.

10. Expenditure-switching policies include currency revaluation, currency devaluation, and direct controls such as tariffs, quotas, and subsidies.

11. Given an open economy with high capital mobility and floating exchange rates, suppose an expansionary monetary policy is implemented to combat recession. The initial and secondary effects of the policy have conflicting effects on aggregate demand, thus weakening the policy’s expansionary effect.

12. Given an open economy with high capital mobility and fixed exchange rates, suppose an expansionary fiscal policy is implemented to combat recession. The initial and secondary effects of the policy cause aggregate demand to increase, thus strengthening the policy’s expansionary effect.

13. When the economy is in deep recession or depression, it is operating on that portion of its aggregate supply curve that is horizontal.

14. Changes in a country’s net exports, investment spending, or government spending will cause its aggregate demand curve to shift.

15. Given an open economy with high capital mobility, fiscal policy is strengthened under fixed exchange rates.

16. Given an open economy with high capital mobility, monetary policy is strengthened under fixed exchange rates.

17. Under floating exchange rates and high capital mobility, an expansionary monetary policy would help a country resolve a recession and a current account deficit.

18. Exchange rate management policies require international policy coordination because a depreciation of one nation’s currency implies an appreciation of its trading partner’s currency.

19. Currency devaluation and revaluation primarily affect the economy’s current account and have secondary effects on domestic employment and inflation.

20. Fiscal and monetary policies are generally used to combat domestic recession and inflation and have secondary effects on the balance of payments.

21. The Group of five (G-5) nations include Japan, Germany, China, and Australia.

22. The Bonn Summit of 1978 and Plaza Accord of 1985 are examples of international policy coordination.

23. International policy coordination is plagued by differing national economic objectives, institutions, political climates, and phases in the business cycle.

24. The goals of the Plaza Agreement of 1985 were to combat protectionism in the U.S. Congress, promote world economic expansion by stimulating demand in Germany and Japan, and to ease the burden of the U.S. debt service.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What policy instrument should be used when demand-pull inflation exists?

2. What happens to the balance of payments under a fixed exchange rate system, when expansionary or contractionary monetary policy is used?

ESSAY

1. Was the Plaza Agreement of 1985 a success?

2. What is international economic policy coordination?

CHAPTER 17—INTERNATIONAL BANKING: RESERVES, DEBT, AND RISK

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following assets makes use of the basket valuation technique?
a. Swap agreements
b. Oil facility
c. Buffer stock facility
d. Special drawing rights

2. Swap agreements are generally conducted by the:
a. Federal Reserve with foreign central banks
b. Federal Reserve with foreign commercial banks
c. U.S. Treasury with foreign central banks
d. U.S. Treasury with foreign commercial banks

3. Which of the following is a main central bank function of the International Monetary Fund?
a. The conduct of open market operations
b. The issuance of gold certificates
c. The provision of monetary policy for member nations
d. The granting of loans to member nations

4. The Federal Reserve’s swap network represents:
a. Efforts to stabilize only the value of the dollar
b. Efforts to stabilize only the value of foreign currencies
c. Long-term borrowing among countries
d. Short-term borrowing among countries

5. International trade and investment are most frequently financed by the U.S. dollar and the:
a. Japanese yen
b. British pound
c. Australian dollar
d. Swiss franc

6. The purpose of international reserves is to finance:
a. Short-term surpluses in the balance of payments
b. Long-term surpluses in the balance of payments
c. Short-term deficits in the balance of payments
d. Long-term deficits in the balance of payments

7. The currencies generally referred to as “reserve currencies” are the:
a. Japanese yen and U.S. dollar
b. Swiss franc and Japanese yen
c. British pound and U.S. dollar
d. Swiss franc and British pound

8. Which of the following does not represent a form of international liquidity?
a. IMF reserve positions
b. General arrangements to borrow
c. U.S. government securities
d. Reciprocal currency arrangements

9. Which of the following is not considered an “owned” reserve?
a. National currencies
b. Gold
c. Special drawing rights
d. Oil facility

10. Which of the following is not considered a “borrowed” reserve?
a. Special drawing rights
b. Oil facility
c. IMF drawings
d. Reciprocal currency arrangement

11. Eurodollars are:
a. Dollar-denominated deposits in overseas banks
b. European currencies used to finance transactions in the United States
c. Dollars that U.S. residents spend in Europe
d. European currencies used to finance imports from the United States

12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Eurodollar market? It:
a. Is mainly located in the United Kingdom and continental Europe
b. Operates as a financial intermediary, bringing together lenders and borrowers
c. Deals in interest-bearing time deposits and loans to governments
d. Grew in response to the deregulation of interest rate ceilings on U.S. savings accounts

13. Which of the following assets was (were) created in 1970 to provide additional international liquidity, in the belief that increasing world trade requires more liquidity for larger expected payments imbalances?
a. Eurodollar market
b. Special drawing rights
c. Reciprocal currency arrangements
d. General arrangements to borrow

14. Which of the following constitute(s) the largest component of the world’s international reserves?
a. Gold
b. Special drawing rights
c. IMF drawings
d. Foreign currencies

15. With an international gold standard, if a country ended up with a deficit from the balances on its current and capital accounts, it would:
a. Import gold to settle the balance
b. Export gold to settle the balance
c. Officially decrease the price of gold
d. Officially increase the price of gold

16. Which of the following is not a condition of the international gold standard? That a nation must:
a. Convert gold into paper currency, and vice versa, at a stipulated rate
b. Permit gold to be freely imported and exported
c. Tolerate wide fluctuations in its exchange rate
d. Define its monetary unit in terms of a stipulated amount of gold

17. All of the following exchange-rate systems require international reserves to finance balance-of-payments disequilibriums except:
a. Pegged or fixed exchange rates
b. Managed floating exchange rates
c. Adjustable pegged exchange rates
d. Freely floating exchange rates

18. A dollar shortage would indicate that the dollar is:
a. Undervalued in international markets
b. Overvalued in international markets
c. Overvalued in terms of gold
d. Overvalued in terms of special drawing rights

19. The U.S. gold outflow that began in the late 1940s and continued through the 1960s was due in part to:
a. Crawling pegged exchange rates
b. Freely floating exchange rates
c. An undervalued dollar
d. An overvalued dollar

20. The U.S. dollar glut of the 1960s was due in part to:
a. An undervalued dollar
b. An overvalued dollar
c. Freely floating exchange rates
d. Crawling pegged exchange rates

21. For developing countries such as Mexico and Brazil, severe economic problems in the 1980s were caused by:
a. A fall in the world demand for products produced by developing countries
b. High prices of basic raw materials and other commodities
c. Low real interest rates in the United States
d. High levels of income and imports for the United States

22. In response to the international debt problem, the United States set up a special fund in 1986 to help make up for lost oil revenues. Under the plan, the United States would make more money available as world oil prices fell. This plan was designed to help:
a. Argentina
b. Saudi Arabia
c. Mexico
d. Brazil

23. Which indicator of international debt burden schedules interest and principal payments on long-term debt as a percent of export earnings?
a. Debt service ratio
b. Debt-to-export ratio
c. Ratio of external debt to gross domestic product
d. Ratio of external debt to gross national product

24. Which term best describes the process in which the International Monetary Fund provides loans to countries facing balance-of-payments difficulties provided that they initiate programs holding promise of correcting these difficulties?
a. Conditionality
b. Debt service
c. Reciprocal currency arrangement
d. Swap agreement

25. All of the following are major goals of the International Monetary Fund except:
a. Promoting international cooperation among member countries
b. Fostering a multilateral system of international payments
c. Making long-term development and reconstruction loans
d. Promoting exchange-rate stability and the elimination of exchange restrictions

26. Which international reserve asset was officially phased out of the international monetary system by the United States in the early 1970s?
a. Special drawing rights
b. Swap agreements
c. General arrangements to borrow
d. Gold

27. Bilateral agreements between central banks, which provide for an exchange of currencies to help finance temporary balance-of-payments disequilibriums, are referred to as:
a. IMF drawings
b. Special drawing rights
c. Buffer stock facility
d. Swap agreements

28. Which organization is largely intended to make long-term reconstruction loans to developing nations?
a. Export-Import Bank
b. World Bank
c. International Monetary Fund
d. United Nations

29. “Owned” international reserves consist of:
a. Special drawing rights
b. Oil facility
c. IMF drawings
d. Reciprocal currency arrangements

30. “Borrowed” international reserves consist of:
a. IMF drawings
b. Foreign currencies
c. Gold
d. Special drawing rights

31. Concerning international lending risk of commercial banks, ____ refers to the probability that part/all of the interest/principal of a loan will not be repaid.
a. Country risk
b. Credit risk
c. Currency risk
d. Presidential risk

32. Concerning international lending risk of commercial banks, ____ is closely related to political developments in a borrowing country, especially the government’s views concerning international investments and loans.
a. Economic risk
b. Credit risk
c. Country risk
d. Currency risk

33. Concerning international lending risk of commercial banks, ____ is associated with possible changes in the exchange value of a nation’s currency.
a. Political risk
b. Country risk
c. Credit risk
d. Currency risk

34. To reduce their exposure to developing country debt, lending commercial banks have practiced all of the following except:
a. Making outright loan sales to other commercial banks
b. Reducing their capital base as a cushion against losses
c. Dealing in debt-for-debt swaps with foreign governments
d. Dealing in debt/equity swaps with foreign governments

35. To reduce losses on developing country loans, commercial banks sometimes sell their loans, at a discount, to a developing country government for local currency which is then used to finance purchases of ownership shares in developing country industries. This practice is known as:
a. Debt forgiveness
b. Debt buyback
c. Debt-for-debt swap
d. Debt/equity swap

36. Concerning international debt, ____ refers to a negotiated reduction in the contractual obligations of the debtor country and includes schemes such as markdowns and write-offs of debt.
a. Debt/equity swap
b. Debt-for-debt swap
c. Debt forgiveness
d. Debt sales

37. The exchange of borrowing country debt for an ownership position in the borrowing country is known as:
a. Debt forgiveness
b. Debt-for-debt swap
c. Debt reduction
d. Debt/equity swap

38. “Country risk” analysis is concerned with all of the following except:
a. Depreciation of the borrowing country’s currency
b. Political instability in the borrowing country
c. Economic growth in the borrowing country
d. External debt of the borrowing country

39. Debt reduction
a. Refers to any voluntary scheme that lessens the burden on the debtor nation
b. May be accomplished through debt rescheduling
c. May be achieved through debt/equity swaps
d. All of the above

40. Most analysts feel that the financial difficulties in East Asia were triggered by
a. Misallocation of investment
b. Unavailability of cheap foreign labor
c. Lack of alignment of the exchange rate with the dollar
d. Surpluses in the trade accounts of the Asian countries

41. A nation may experience debt-servicing problems because of
a. Pursuit of improper macroeconomic policies
b. Inadequate borrowing
c. Adverse economic events
d. Both a and c

42. Swap arrangements
a. Are agreements between governments
b. Require repayment within a stipulated period
c. Are usually multilateral agreements
d. Are never initiated by telephone

TRUE/FALSE

1. Under a system of fixed exchange rates, international reserves are needed to bridge the gap between monetary receipts and monetary payments.

2. International reserves allow a country to finance disequilibria in its balance-of-payments position.

3. An advantage of international reserves is that they allow countries to sustain temporary balance-of-payments deficits until acceptable adjustment measures can operate to correct the disequilibrium.

4. With floating exchange rates, countries require sizable amounts of international reserves for the stabilization of exchange rates.

5. When exchange rates are fixed by central bankers, the need for international reserves disappears.

6. When exchange rates are fixed by central bankers, international reserves are necessary for financing payments imbalances and the stabilization of exchange rates.

7. There exists a direct relationship between the degree of exchange rate flexibility and the need for international reserves.

8. With floating exchange rates, payments imbalances tend to be corrected by market-induced fluctuations in the exchange rate, and the need for exchange-rate stabilization and international reserves disappears.

The diagram below represents the exchange market position of the United States in trade with the United Kingdom. Starting at the equilibrium exchange rate of $3 per pound, suppose the demand for pounds rises from D0 to D1.

Figure 17.1 Foreign Exchange Market

9. Refer to Figure 17.1. Under a fixed exchange rate system, U.S. monetary authorities would have to supply 8 million pounds in exchange for dollars to keep the exchange rate at $3 per pound.

10. Refer to Figure 17.1. If the exchange rate was allowed to rise to $4 per pound, U.S. monetary authorities would have to supply 6 million pounds to the foreign exchange market in exchange for dollars to maintain this rate.

11. Refer to Figure 17.1. Under a floating exchange rate system, the exchange rate would rise to $4 and U.S. monetary authorities would have to supply 4 million pounds to the foreign exchange market in exchange for dollars to maintain this rate.

12. To the extent that adjustments in prices, interest rates, and income levels promote balance-of-payments equilibrium, the demand for international reserves decreases.

13. The greater a nation’s propensity to apply tariffs and quotas to key sectors, the greater will be the need for international reserves.

14. The demand for international reserves is negatively related to the level of world prices and income.

15. The demand for international reserves tend to increase with the level of world income and trade activity.

16. If a nation with a balance-of-payments deficit is willing and able to initiate quick actions to increase export receipts and decrease import payments, the amount of international reserves needed will be relatively large.

17. The supply of international reserves consists of owned reserves and borrowed reserves.

18. Foreign currencies constitute the smallest component of the world’s international reserves.

19. Gold constitutes the largest component of the world’s international reserves.

20. The U.S. dollar has been considered a reserve (key) currency because trading nations have been willing to hold it as an international reserve asset.

21. The U.S. dollar, Japanese yen, British pound, and Mexican peso are the major reserve currencies of the international monetary system.

22. By the 1990s, the British pound had replaced the U.S. dollar as the world’s key currency.

23. A goal of the International Monetary Fund is to make short-term loans to member nations so as to allow them to correct balance of payments disequilibriums without resorting to measures that would destroy national prosperity.

24. When granting loans to financially troubled nations, the International Monetary Fund requires some degree of conditionality, meaning that the borrowing nation must agree to implement economic policies as mandated by the IMF.

25. The International Monetary Fund has sometimes demanded that financially-troubled nations, that borrow from the IMF, undergo austerity programs including slashing of public spending and private consumption.

26. The main purpose of the International Monetary Fund is to grant long-term loans to developing nations to help them finance the development of infrastructure such as roads, dams, and bridges.

27. Gold is currently the most widely used asset in the international monetary system.

28. In 1974 the United States revoked a 41-year ban on U.S. citizen’s ownership of gold.

29. In 1975 the official price of gold was abolished as the unit of account for the international monetary system. As a result, gold was demonetized as an international reserve asset.

30. In the 1970s, the major industrial countries abandoned the managed-floating exchange rate system and adopted a system of fixed exchange rates tied to the price of gold.

31. Created by the International Monetary Fund, special drawing rights (SDRs) are unconditional rights to draw currencies of other nations, thus enabling countries to finance their current-account deficits.

32. The value of the SDR is tied to a currency basket consisting of the U.S. dollar, German mark, Japanese yen, French franc, and British pound.

33. The SDR has replaced the dollar, yen, and mark as the key asset of the international financial system.

34. Because the value of the SDR is tied directly to the value of the U.S. dollar, a 10 percent dollar depreciation would result in a 10 percent decrease in the SDR’s value.

35. A main purpose of the International Monetary Fund is to make loans of foreign currencies to member countries which are experiencing current-account surpluses.

36. When a deficit nation borrows from the International Monetary Fund, it purchases with its currency the foreign currency required to help finance the payments deficit.

37. The so-called General Arrangements to Borrow provide a permanent increase in the supply of international reserves.

38. Swap arrangements are bilateral agreements between central banks to allow countries to temporarily borrow funds to ease current-account deficits and discourage speculative capital flows.

39. IMF drawings, swap arrangements, buffer stock facility, and compensatory financing for exports are classified as owned reserves rather than borrowed reserves.

40. Concerning international lending risk, credit risk refers to the probability that part or all of the interest rate or principal of a loan will not be repaid.

41. Concerning international lending risk, country risk refers to the risk that part or all of the interest or principal of a loan will not be repaid.

42. Concerning international lending risk, currency risk is the risk of asset losses due to changing currency values.

43. A country with a high debt/export ratio and a high debt service/export ratio would likely be considered as an attractive place in which to invest by foreign residents.

44. A debt buyback is a debt-reduction technique in which a government of a debtor nation buys loans from commercial banks at a discount.

45. Under a debt-for-debt swap, a commercial bank sells its loans at a discount to a developing country government for local currency which it then uses to finance an equity investment in the debtor country.

46. A debt-equity swap results in a trade surplus nation forgiving the loans made to a trade-deficit nation.

47. Eurocurrencies are deposits, denominated and payable in dollars and other foreign currencies, in banks outside the United States, primarily in London, the market’s center.

SHORT ANSWER

1. Why do countries hold international reserves?

2. How can a bank reduce its exposure to the debt of developing nations?

ESSAY

1. Describe the eurocurrency market.

2. Are international reserve needs different for different exchange rate regimes?

ECO 405 Complete Test Bank – Strayer A+ Graded

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ECO 405 Week 2 Quiz Solution

Chapter 01

Alleviating Human Misery: The Role Of Economic Reasoning

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The Fundamental Economic Problem Is
A. Inflation
B. That Resources Are Scarce Relative To Wants
C. Supply And Demand
D. How To Make More Money
E. Unemployment

2. Which Of The Follow Best Describes Human Wants And Desires? They
A. Are Unlimited In The Aggregate
B. Stop After A Person Attains The Things Necessary For Life
C. Do Not Include “Extras” Like Variety
D. Are Not Affected By What Others Have
E. Do Not Change Once We Attain Our Desired Set Of Goods

3. The Means For Satisfying Wants Are
A. Insatiable
B. Unlimited
C. Infinite
D. Scarce
E. Unavailable

4. Economic Reasoning Would Not Be Necessary If
A. Our Wants Were Limited
B. Resources Were Expansive
C. Scarcity Were Decreased
D. We Could Have Everything We Wanted
E. Politicians Were Better At Running The Economy

5. A Three-Year-Old Learns About The Fundamental Economic Problem When She
A. Gets Presents For Her Birthday
B. Is Punished For Drawing On The Walls
C. Has To Eat Green Beans For Dinner
D. Is Told She Can’t Have A Toy At The Store
E. Watches Her Favorite Cartoon

6. Which Of The Following Is The Primary Goal Of An Economy?
A. Maximizing Economic Growth
B. Minimizing Unemployment
C. Minimizing The Effects Of Scarcity
D. Minimizing The National Debt
E. Maximizing Gdp

7. The Fundamental Economic Problem Involves
A. Overpopulation
B. Inflation And Unemployment
C. Scarce Resources And Unlimited Wants
D. Cheap Foreign Labor
E. Supply And Demand

8. Labor Resources Include
A. The Equipment Workers Use To Complete Their Work
B. Only Non-Management Personnel
C. Any Efforts Of A Person To Produce Goods
D. Only The Physical Efforts Of An Economy’s People
E. All Of The Above

9. Which Of The Following Is An Example Of A Capital Resource?
A. A Firm’s Employee
B. Money In A Firm’s Bank Account
C. Agricultural Land
D. A Worker’s Productivity
E. All Of The Above

10. Which Of The Following Is Not An Example Of A Capital Resource?
A. Forests
B. A Printing Press
C. Semi-Finished Materials
D. A Computer Technician
E. Inventories

11. The Know-How And The Means And Methods Of Production Available In An Economy Are Known As
A. Technology
B. Capital
C. Human Capital
D. Labor
E. Management

12. Which Of The Following Is Not A Capital Resource?
A. Land
B. Stocks And Bonds
C. Buildings
D. Tools
E. Mineral Deposits

Questions 13 – 17 Refer To The Graph Below.

13. Given Production Possibilities Curve (A), Point N Suggests That
A. The Economy Is Attaining Full Employment, But Not Full Production
B. The Economy Is Attaining Full Production, But Not Full Employment
C. The Economy Is Using Its Available Resources Inefficiently
D. The Economy Is Attaining Both Full Employment And Full Production
E. Point N Is Unattainable

14. The Movement From Curve (A) To Curve (B) Suggests
A. A Movement From Unemployment To Full Employment
B. An Improvement In Capital Good Technology, But Not In Consumer Good Technology
C. An Improvement In Consumer Good Technology, But Not In Capital Good Technology
D. A Decline In The Total Output Of Society
E. The Society Becomes Worse Off

15. At Which Of The Following Points Is The Economy Producing Efficiently?
A. Q
B. G
C. N
D. B
E. E

16. If The Economy Were Producing Combination G Initially, The Cost Of Producing Additional Bd Units Of Capital Goods Is The Value Of
A. The Resources Used In Producing Od Of Capital Goods
B. The Resources Used In Producing Ef Of Consumer Goods
C. The Resources Used In Producing Oe Of Consumer Goods
D. Bd Units Of Capital Goods
E. Bd Units Of Consumer Goods

17. Given Production Possibilities Curve (B), Point Q
A. Can Be Reached Through An Improvement In Technology
B. Represents Some Degree Of Inefficiency In The Use Of Resources
C. Can Be Reached If The Birth Rate Is Reduced
D. Can Be Reached If The Output Of Consumer Goods Is Increased While The Output Of Capital Goods Is Reduced
E. Is Undesirable

18. The Bow Shape Of The Production Possibilities Curve Reflects
A. The Opportunity Cost Concept
B. The Concept Of Increasing Opportunity Costs
C. The Concept Of Diminishing Marginal Returns
D. The Marginal Social Cost/Marginal Social Benefit Principle
E. None Of The Above

19. A Production Possibilities Curve Represents All Of An Economy’s Combinations For Production That Are
A. Possible
B. Efficient
C. Attainable
D. Inefficient
E. Desirable

20. If An Economy Is Experiencing Unemployment, It Is Operating At A Point
A. On Its Ppc
B. Below Its Ppc
C. Beyond Its Ppc
D. At The Horizontal Intercept Of Its Ppc
E. At The Vertical Intercept Of Its Ppc

21. A Point On A Country’s Ppc That Can Not Be Reached, Given The Current Situation, Is
A. On Its Ppc
B. Below Its Ppc
C. Beyond Its Ppc
D. At The Horizontal Intercept Of Its Ppc
E. At The Vertical Intercept Of Its Ppc
22. The Negative Slope Of A Ppc Illustrates
A. Limited Wants
B. Unlimited Wants
C. The Law Of Increasing Opportunity Cost
D. Scarcity
E. Unlimited Resources

Questions 23 – 27 Refer To The Graph Below.

23. Which Point Does Not Represent Efficient Production For Sharpland In 2007?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

24. Which Of The Following Points Is Unattainable For Sharpland In 2012?
A. A
B. G
C. F
D. D
E. H

25. In 2007, Sharpland Can Increase Its Production Of Food Without Decreasing Its Production Of Education By Moving From Point
A. C To D
B. C To E
C. D To A
D. E To B
E. E To G

26. Which Of The Following Best Explains The Shift Of Sharpland’s Ppc Between 2007 And 2012? An Increase In
A. The Number Of Tractors
B. General Technology
C. Agricultural Land Resources
D. The Quality And Quantity Of Teachers
E. The Demand For Schooling

27. A Movement From Point G To Point E In 2012 Is Optimal Only If
A. People In Sharpland Like Education More Than Food
B. People In Sharpland Like Food More Than Education
C. The Msc > Msb
D. The Msc < Msb E. Point C Is Not An Option Questions 28 - 31 Refer To The Graph Below. 28. For Mary Ann, The Opportunity Cost Of 100 Coconut Cream Pies Is Equal To How Many Grass Huts? A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 100 E. 120 29. Mary Ann's Straight Line Ppc Indicates That The Opportunity Cost Of Coconut Cream Pies Is A. Increasing B. Decreasing C. Constant D. 100 E. 0 30. Which Of The Following Would Allow Mary Ann To Produce 110 Coconut Cream Pies? A. Decrease In Production Of Grass Huts B. An Improvement In Her Means And Methods Of Pie Production C. A Decrease In The Resources Used For Making Grass Huts D. Putting All Of Her Resources Into Producing Coconut Cream Pies E. Finding A Better Way To Produce Grass Huts 31. If Mary Ann Decides To Swim In The Lagoon In The Afternoon, Instead Of Working, She Will Move To A Point A. Beyond Her Ppc B. Below Her Ppc C. Higher On Her Ppc D. Lower On Her Ppc E. Off The Ppc Graph 32. If Education And Food Are The Two Goods That Society Can Produce, An Increase In The Production Technology For Food Will Result In A. An Increase In General Economic Growth B. A Decrease In The Production Of Education C. An Increase In Specific Economic Growth D. A Decrease In The Production Of Education E. A Decrease In The Opportunity Cost Of Education 33. Why Is There "No Such Thing As A Free Lunch"? A. You End Up Buying The Next Time B. You Often Get Stuck With The Check C. The Time You Spend Eating Lunch Could Be Spent Some Other Way D. "Free" Lunches Often Aren't Good And Make You Sick Later On E. You Don't Always Get What You Want To Eat 34. If A Country's Gdp Increases From $1,000 To $2,000 At The Same Time Prices Double, Real Gdp Will A. Rise B. Fall C. Stay The Same D. Fluctuate E. Be Unable To Be Determined 35. If A Country's Gdp Increases From $1m To $2m At The Same Time Prices Increase By Half (50%), Real Gdp Will A. Rise B. Fall C. Stay The Same D. Fluctuate E. Be Unable To Be Determined 36. If A Country's Gdp Increases From $1m To $2m At The Same Time Prices Remain The Same, Real Gdp Will A. Rise B. Fall C. Stay The Same D. Fluctuate E. Be Unable To Be Determined 37. Gross Domestic Product (Gdp) Is Defined As A. The Total Volume Of Goods And Services Produced In The Economy In A Year's Time B. The Value Of All Goods Produced In The Economy In A Year's Time, Minus Production Of Capital Goods C. The Value Of All Goods And Services Produced In Final Form In The Economy In A Year's Time Using Domestically Owned Resources D. The Value Of All Goods And Services That Could Possibly Be Produced In The Economy In A Year's Time E. None Of The Above 38. If Population In A Country Falls While Gdp Stays The Same, The Country's A. Real Gdp Falls B. Real Gdp Rises C. Per Capita Gdp Rises D. Per Capita Gdp Falls E. Welfare Falls 39. Which Of The Following Provides The Best Measure Of The Standard Of Living In An Economy In A Single Year? A. The Consumer Price Index B. The Wholesale Price Index C. Gross Domestic Product (Gdp) D. Per Capita Real Gdp E. None Of The Above 40. While Per Capita Gdp Is A Useful Measure Of Economic Well-Being, It Fails To Take Into Account A. The Population Of The Economy B. The Value Of Capital Goods Produced Within The Economy C. The Value Of Goods Produced For Export D. The Distribution Of Gdp Within The Economy E. Whether Goods Were Produced Within The Country 41. Which Of The Following Would Not Be Counted As Part Of U.S. Gdp? A. A Mazda Mx6 Produced In Detroit B. An Apple Computer Produced In California C. A Dodge Intrepid Produced In Canada D. A Six-Pack Of Sam Adams Brewed In Pittsburgh E. A Haircut Given In Washington D.C. 42. If Ford Motors Shifts All Production Outside Of The U.S., Which Of The Following Is ? A. Gnp Would Remain Unchanged And Gdp Would Decline B. Gdp Would Remain Unchanged C. Both Gnp And Gdp Would Remain Unchanged D. Gdp Would Remain Unchanged And Gnp Would Decline E. Gnp Would Increase 43. Suppose That Gross Domestic Product For 2012 Is $600 Million And The Price Index For That Year (2005 = 100) Is 300. Gdp For 2012 In Constant (2005) Dollars Is A. Impossible To Determine With This Information B. $200,000,000 C. $20,000 D. $200,000 E. $2,000,000 44. In 2011, A Country Produces 2 Bushels Of Wheat, Each Selling For $5. In 2012, The Country Also Produces 2 Bushels Of Wheat, But Each Bushel Sells For $10. Which Of The Following Is ? A. Real Gdp Did Not Change Between 2011 And 2012 B. Real Gdp Doubled Between 2011 And 2012 C. Gdp Did Not Change Between 2011 And 2012 D. Gdp Increased By 50% Between 2011 And 2012 E. None Of The Above Is 45. Given The Amounts Of Resources Available For An Economy, Gdp A. Will Be Determined Solely By The Amounts Of Labor And Capital Present B. Will Be Larger The Better The Techniques Of Production Used C. Can Increase Only If There Is An Increase In The Quantities Of These Resources D. Will Usually Be Equitably Divided Among The Population E. Will Not Change Over Time 46. In Year 1, An Economy Produces 10m Cars At A Price Of $15,000 Each. In Year 2, The Economy Produces 10m Cars, But The Price Of Each Car Is $20,000. Which Of The Following Is ? A. Real Gdp Has Increased B. Real Gdp Has Decreased C. Current Dollar Gdp Has Increased D. Current Dollar Gdp Has Decreased E. Productivity Has Increased 47. To Correct For Inflation, Gdp Numbers Must Be Converted Using The Price Level In A Given Year Known As The A. Base Year B. Real Year C. Current Year D. Constant Year E. Inflation Year 48. When Analyzing The Performance Of A Single Economy Over Time, Which Measure Is Most Appropriate? A. Real Gdp B. Gdp C. Real Gdp Per Capita D. Gdp Per Capita E. Base Year Gdp 49. When Comparing The Performance Of Economies In Terms Of The Average Well-Being Of Their Inhabitants, Which Measure Is Most Appropriate? A. Real Gdp B. Gdp C. Real Gdp Per Capita D. Gdp Per Capita E. Base Year Gdp 50. Real Per Capita Gdp Is Defined As A. Population/Real Gdp B. Gdp/Population C. Real Gdp/Price Index D. Real Gdp/Population E. Price Index/Gdp 51. The Well-Being Of Ldcs, As Measured By Per Capita Real Gdp, Is Probably Overstated Due To A. Inflation B. Population Increases C. Unemployment D. Income Distribution E. Life Expectancy 52. In A Lesser-Developed Country, A High Rate Of Population Growth A. Stimulates Demand For Products And Accelerates The Development Process B. Seldom Occurs C. Is Not A Serious Problem, Since The Rate Of Growth In Gdp Always Exceeds The Rate Of Population Increase D. May Be A Problem Since, As Development Begins, The Higher Rate Of Population Growth Impedes The Growth Of Per Capita Income E. Is Beneficial For Economic Development 53. The Efficiency Of Resource Usage In Ldcs Can Be Improved By All Of The Following Except: A. The Adaptation Of New Technology B. Increased Capital Investment C. Adopting More Flexible Wage Structures D. Maintaining The Existing Land Ownership, Or Tenure, System E. Upgrading Transportation Networks 54. Increases In A Country's Population Will Always Have Which Of The Following Effects? A. The Ppc Will Shift Out B. Welfare Will Decline C. Economic Development Will Be Slowed D. Death Rates Will Increase E. None Of The Above 55. The Most Important Key To Improvement In The Quality Of A Country's Labor Force Is A. Health Care B. Nutrition C. Mobility D. Education E. Population Growth 56. Developing Countries Can Shift Their Production Possibility Curves Out Through A. Improvements Of Labor Force Quality B. Capital Accumulation C. Technological Development D. Discovery Of New Natural Resources E. All Of The Above 57. Which Of The Following Are Potential Obstacles To Economic Development In Ldcs? A. Lack Of Resources B. Lack Of An Education C. War And Political Instability D. Traditional Methods Of Production And Ownership Of Resources E. All Of The Above 58. A Movement Along A Production Possibilities Curve Will Lead To An Increase In Social Well-Being, As Long As A. There Is Enough Labor And Capital Available To Make The Move B. The Msb Of The Move Is Greater Than The Msc C. The Msb Of The Move Is Equal To The Msc D. The Msb Of The Move Is Less Than The Msc E. No One In The Economy Is Left Worse Off By The Move 59. Marginal Social Cost Refers To The A. Cost Incurred Due To An Action Undertaken By Society B. Total Expenditures By Society On A Good Like A Public Park C. Cost Borne By Society When 1 More Unit Of A Good Is Produced D. Cost To Society Of Sub-Standard Production E. Cost To Society When An Additional Unit Of A Social Good Is Produced 60. The Opportunity Cost Borne By Society When An Additional Unit Of A Good Is Produced Is A. Marginal Social Cost B. Marginal Social Benefit C. Cost/Benefit Analysis D. Scarcity Rent E. Gdp 61. If 10 Units Of Food Must Be Given Up To Produce An Additional Unit Of Education, Which Of The Following Is ? A. The Msc Of The Unit Of Education Is 10 B. The Msb Of The Unit Of Education Is 10 C. The Msc Of The Food Is 10 D. The Msb Of The Food Is 10 E. None Of The Above 62. What Is The Msb Of A Shift From The Production Of 20 Units Of Food And 2 Units Of Education To 10 Units Of Food And 3 Units Of Education? A. 20 Units Of Food B. 10 Units Of Food C. 1 Unit Of Education D. 2 Units Of Education E. 3 Units Of Education 63. Which Of The Following Is A Technique Used To Determine The Optimal Level Of An Economic Activity? A. Cost/Benefit Analysis B. Production Possibilities Curve Analysis C. Gdp Analysis D. Opportunity Cost Analysis E. None Of The Above 64. Any Change For Which Msb>Msc Will
A. Increase Social Well-Being
B. Decrease Social Well-Being
C. Not Change Social Well-Being
D. Cost More Than It Is Worth To Society
E. Increase Gdp

65. If The Msc Of An Additional Hour Of An Activity Is Greater Than The Msb, You Should
A. Do More Of The Activity
B. Do Less Of The Activity
C. Not Change Your Level Of The Activity
D. Do Less Of Another Activity
E. Do More Of The Activity If You Like Doing It

66. Cost-Benefit Analysis
A. Is Only Useful When Making Economic Choices
B. Applies Best To Financial Decisions
C. Suggests That An Activity Should Be Expanded If It Yields Greater Marginal Benefits Than Costs
D. Is Useful In Correcting Gdp Numbers For Inflation
E. Suggests An Activity Should Be Expended If Msc > Msb

67. Which Of The Following Is Not A Cause Of Poverty In Ldcs? The
A. Quality Of Labor
B. Stock Of Capital
C. Level Of Technology
D. Population Density
E. Capital Accumulation Rates

68. The Quality Of The Labor Force Is Often Measured By
A. Illiteracy Rates
B. Gdp Per Capita
C. Capital-To-Labor Ratios
D. Life Expectancy
E. Infant Mortality Rates

69. Which Of The Following Is Related To Poverty In Ldcs?
A. Low Capital-To-Labor Ratios
B. Few Available Capital Resources
C. Poor Transportation Networks
D. Limited Mineral Deposits
E. All Of The Above

70. Which Of The Following Is An Example Of Social Infrastructure?
A. The Transportation Network
B. The Communication Network
C. A Power System
D. An Airport
E. All Of The Above

71. With Private Property Rights, The Decision About How To Use Resources Are Made By
A. The Government
B. Private Firms
C. Individual Resource Owners
D. Resource Committees
E. All Of The Above

72. To Promote Development, The Governments Of Ldcs Should Pursue Policies That
A. Improve The Quality Of Labor
B. Enhance Capital Accumulation
C. Raise Technology Levels
D. Increase Efficiency
E. Do All Of The Above

73. Which Of The Following Policies Will Not Contribute To Economic Development In An Ldc?
A. Pursue Economic Stability
B. Promote Capital Accumulation Through Tax Incentives
C. Provide Social Infrastructure
D. Promote Efficiency
E. Pursue Policies Designed To Increase Birth Rates

74. To Help Ldcs Develop, Governments Of Dcs Provide
A. Loans
B. Grants
C. Humanitarian Aid
D. Technical Assistance
E. All Of The Above

75. Which Of The Following Is An Organization Through Which Dcs Jointly Assist Ldcs?
A. The World Bank
B. Nato
C. The Federal Reserve
D. Nafta
E. The Wto

76. A Country Can Shift Out Its Production Possibilities Curve By
A. Improving Its Technology
B. Shifting Its Production From One Good To Another
C. Experiencing A Population Drop
D. Using Its Farmland More Productively
E. All Of The Above

77. The Purpose Of A Base Year When Constructing A Price Index Is:
A. Showing How The Output Values Rise From Year To Year
B. Encourage Inflation
C. Providing A Means To Compare The Economy’s Output Across Different Time Periods
D. To Show Why Expenditures On Government Goods And Services Need To Increase
E. Indicate The Progress In Keeping Prices Low

True / False Questions

78. Approximately Two Thirds Of The World’s Population Goes To Sleep Hungry At Night.

79. Approximately One Fifth Of The World Survives On Less Than $1 Per Day.

80. Nowhere In The World Today Experiences Famine.

81. The Developed Countries Are Approaching The Point At Which The Wants Of Their Population Are Fully Satisfied.

82. The Fundamental Economic Problem Is How To Make Money.

83. Economic Problems Arise Because Human Wants Are Unlimited And The Means Available For Satisfying Them Are Limited.

84. If Everyone Could Have Everything He Or She Wanted, There Would Be No Need For Economics.

85. The Quantity Of Goods And Services Per Year That An Economic System Can Produce Is Limited.

86. If Expanding An Activity Leads To Greater Msb Than Msc, Social Well-Being Is Increased By The Expansion.

87. Cost/Benefit Analysis Compares The Msc And Msb Of An Activity To Determine If The Level Of An Activity Should Be Changed.

88. Gdp Measures The Market Value Of All Final Goods And Services Produced Within An Economy During A Time Period, Regardless Of Who Owns The Resources Used In Production.

89. Gnp Would Include The Value Of Value Of Honda Accords Built In Ohio.

90. Per Capita Gdp Is A Near-Perfect Measure Of An Economy’s Standard Of Living Because It Takes Into Account The Distribution Of The Economy’s Income Among The Population.

91. If Data For A Series Of Years Shows Increases In Current Dollar Gdp, We Can Assume The Economy’s Output Is Increasing.

92. Price Index Numbers Are Used To Correct Data Series For Inflation.

93. Current Dollar Gdp Can Increase While Real Gdp Decreases.

94. If Current Dollar Gdp Remains The Same While The Population Declines, Per Capita Gdp Will Decrease.

95. When Comparing Welfare In Two Different Countries, Per Capita Gdp Is A Better Measure Than Current Dollar Gdp.

96. Given That Two Countries, Alpha And Beta, Have The Same Per Capita Gdp, We Can Be Sure That The People Of The Two Countries Are Equally Well-Off.

97. The Expression, “There Ain’t No Such Thing As A Free Lunch,” Only Applies To Goods, Such As Cars, Not To Services, Such As Health Care And Education.

98. Inefficiency Exists Whenever The Economy’s Output Combination Lies Inside Its Production Possibilities Curve.

99. Countries Will Always Produce Outside Their Production Possibilities Curves.

100. Education Is An Example Of A Good That Is “Free,” Since An Improvement In Education Leads To An Outward Shift In The Production Possibilities Curve.

101. Unemployment Will Move An Economy To A Point Below Its Production Possibilities Curve.

102. A Production Possibilities Curve Shows The Possible Trade-Off Of One Good For Another In Production Under Conditions Of Full Employment.

103. An Increase In The Labor Force Will Bring About An Outward Shift In An Economy’s Production Possibilities Curve.

104. An Improvement In Education Leads To An Outward Shift In The Production Possibilities Curve.

105. If A Movement Along The Production Possibilities Curve Yields Greater Benefits To Society Than Costs, The Movement Will Increase Social Well-Being.

106. The Marginal Social Cost Of A Movement Along A Production Possibilities Curve Is The Same As The Opportunity Cost Of The Move.

107. The Fact That Resources Are Rarely Perfectly Substitutable Gives The Production Possibilities Curve Its Bow Shape.

108. Without Increasing Opportunity Costs, A Production Possibilities Curve Will Be A Straight Line.

109. The Term Capital As Used By An Economist Refers To The Money Or The Stocks And Bonds That Are Used To Finance A Business Enterprise.

110. Technology Refers To The Known Means And Methods Available For Combining Resources To Produce Goods And Services.

111. Labor Resources Consist Of All Efforts Of Mind And Muscle That Are Available For Use In Production Processes.

112. Mineral Deposits Found In The Ground Are Not Considered Resources.

113. Population Growth Appears To Be The Major Problem Of Less Developed Countries.

114. The Available Data On Various Countries Of The World Show That There Is An Inverse Relationship Between Population Densities And Per Capita Gdp.

115. The Major Function Of The Federal Reserve Bank Is To Provide Low Interest Loans To Ldcs.

116. In Developing Countries, Reductions In The Death Rate Usually Lag Behind Reductions In The Birth Rate.

117. For Economic Development To Occur In Less-Developed Countries, It Is Important That Their Governments Establish An Economic Climate In Which Education Is Stressed And Capital Accumulation Is Encouraged.

118. A Broad-Based Education Is Generally Ineffective In Improving The Quality Of A Country’s Labor Force.

119. Technological Development Goes Hand In Hand With Advancing Educational Levels And Capital Accumulation.

120. Roads And Bridges Are Examples Of Social Infrastructure.

121. When A Private Firm Builds A New Plant In An Ldc, The Country’s Social Infrastructure Is Increased.

122. Income Inequality Is A Problem Faced By The Developed Countries, As Well As The Developing Countries, Of The World.

123. A Significant Problem Faced By Developing Countries Is The Tendency For Their Relatively Well-Educated Citizens To Leave Their Homes To Work And Live In The Developed World Where Compensation For Their Skills Is High.

124. Capital Flight From Less Developed To Developed Countries Tends To Offset Capital Infusions From Developed Countries.

125. The Governments Of Developed Countries Will Not Help Ldcs Develop By Providing Them With Capital And Technical Assistance Because Ldcs Must Learn To Develop On Their Own.

126. The “Brain Drain” Refers To The Deterioration Of Educational Attainment In Less Developed Countries Due To Poor Nutrition And Sanitation.

127. Poverty Is Primarily A Result Of Rapid Population Growth In Much Of The Underdeveloped World.

ECO 405 Week 3 Quiz Solution

Chapter 02
Economic Systems, Resource Allocation, And Social Well-Being: Lessons From China’s Transition

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which Of The Following Descriptions Fits The American Economy Best?
A. A Pure Market Economy
B. A Mixed Economy
C. Purely Competitive Economy
D. A Command Economy
E. A Monopoly Economy

2. In A Market Economy,
A. Resources Are Allocated By The Private Parties Who Own The Resources
B. Resources Are Allocated By The Various Local, State, And Federal Planning Committees And Zoning Commissions
C. Shortages Never Exist
D. Surpluses Never Exist
E. Both C) And D)

3. In 1978, The Chinese Economy
A. Opened Ties To The Noncommunist World
B. Became A Strictly Centralized Economy Under Joseph Stalin
C. Became Communist Under Mao Zedong
D. Moved To The Island Of Taiwan
E. Became A Purely Market-Oriented Economy

4. In Both The U.S. And Canada, Most, But Not All, Of Economic Resources Are Owned And Controlled By Private Parties Who Make Decisions As To How To Use Those Resources With Somewhat Limited Interference From Government. As Such, These Economies Are Examples Of
A. The Pure Command Economy
B. Mixed Economies, Though Closer To The Market End Of The Spectrum
C. Mixed Economies, Though Closer To The Command End Of The Spectrum
D. The Pure Market Economy
E. The Communist Economy

5. In The Market Economy, Markets Serve The Function Of
A. Coordinating Resource Use Decisions Made By Individual Owners Of Resources
B. Bringing About Resource Allocation Changes Desired By Resource Owners
C. Determining Prices
D. All Of The Above
E. Both (A) And (B)

6. Which Of The Following Is Least Consistent With The Pure Market Economy?
A. An Established Legal System That Arbitrates Contract Disputes
B. An Individual Accepting A Job For $1 Per Hour
C. The Institution Of Private Property Rights
D. The Existence Of A Minimum Wage
E. Private Property Rights

7. Which Of The Following Is Not A Characteristic Of A Purely Competitive Market?
A. Enough Sellers And Buyers So That No One Of Them Acting Alone Can Influence The Price Of This Product
B. The Ability Of A Single Seller To Block Potential Competitors Out Of The Market
C. Freedom Of The Price To Move Up Or Down, That Is, No Price Fixing
D. Mobility Of Buyers And Sellers
E. A Standardized Product

8. A Market With Only One Seller Of A Product That Has No Good Substitutes Is Called
A. A Pure Monopoly
B. A Pure Command Economy
C. Purely Competitive
D. Imperfectly Competitive
E. An Oligopoly

9. Which Of The Following Is Of Monopoly Firms? They
A. Can Manipulate The Price Of Their Product
B. Beat Their Competitors’ Prices
C. Must Constantly Deal With The Entry Of New Firms
D. Never Receive Government Help Blocking Entry Into The Market
E. Do All Of The Above

10. Markets That Fall Between Pure Competition And Monopoly Are Called:
A. Anti-Competitive
B. Imperfectly Competitive
C. Command Markets
D. Tweener Markets
E. Monopsonistic

11. If A Consumer Always Eats Cheese With Macaroni, Then For That Consumer Macaroni And Cheese Are Examples Of:
A. Substitutes
B. Complements
C. Normal Goods
D. Inferior Goods
E. Standardized Products

12. If An Increase In The Price Of Cookies Leads To A Decrease In The Demand For Ice Cream, Then Ice Cream And Cookies Must Be
A. Substitutes
B. Complements
C. Normal Goods
D. Inferior Goods
E. Standardized Products

13. If An Increase In The Price Of Bicycles Leads To An Increase In The Demand For Bus Transportation, The Bicycles And Bus Rides Must Be
A. Substitutes
B. Complements
C. Normal Goods
D. Inferior Goods
E. Standardized Products

14. A Student Graduates From College And Gets A High-Paying Job. As A Result Of The Increase In Income, The Student Buys More Frozen Pizzas. For The Student, Frozen Pizzas Must Be A(N)
A. Substitute
B. Complement
C. Normal Good
D. Inferior Good
E. Standardized Product

15. You Receive A Big Raise At Work. As A Result Of Your Now Higher Income, You Stop Bringing Your Lunch From Home And Start Eating Lunch At A Nearby Restaurant. Your Homemade Lunches Must Be
A. A Substitute
B. A Complement
C. Normal Goods
D. Inferior Goods
E. Standardized Products

16. The Law Of Demand States That Price And
A. Demand Are Positively Related
B. Quantity Demanded Are Positively Related
C. Demand Are Negatively Related
D. Quantity Demanded Are Negatively Related
E. None Of The Above

17. The Law Of Supply States That Price And
A. Supply Are Positively Related
B. Quantity Supplied Are Positively Related
C. Supply Are Negatively Related
D. Quantity Supplied Are Negatively Related
E. Quantity Demanded Are Negatively Related

18. An Increase In The Price Of A Good Will Cause Which Of The Following?
A. Quantity Demanded To Demand To Rise
B. Demand To Fall
C. Quantity Supplied To Fall
D. Supply To Rise
E. None Of The Above

19. Which Of The Following Will Cause Demand To Rise?
A. A Decrease In Price
B. A Decrease In The Price Of A Substitute Good
C. A Decrease In The Price Of A Complementary Good
D. An Increase In Supply
E. An Increase In The Cost Of Production

20. Given A Downward-Sloping Demand Curve And An Upward-Sloping Supply Curve, An Increase In Supply Together With An Increase In Demand Will Cause The
A. Equilibrium Quantity Purchased To Increase, But The Effect On Price Will Be Indeterminate
B. Equilibrium Quantity Purchased To Decrease, But The Effect On Price Will Be Indeterminate
C. Price To Rise, But The Effect On The Equilibrium Quantity Purchased Will Be Indeterminate
D. Price To Fall, But The Effect On The Quantity Bought And Sold Will Be Indeterminate
E. Equilibrium Price To Rise And The Equilibrium Quantity Purchased Will Rise

21. A Situation In Which The Demand For A Product Is Decreasing While The Price Is Simultaneously Increasing Can Be Explained By
A. A Decrease In Supply
B. An Increase In Supply
C. Unchanged Supply
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

Questions 22 – 24 Refer To The Graph Below.

22. At Price P1 There Is A
A. Surplus Of X1x2
B. Shortage Of X1x2
C. Surplus Of Xx2
D. Surplus Of Ab
E. Shortage Of X1x

23. At A Price Of P1, What Quantity Will Be Sold In The Market?
A. 0
B. X
C. X1
D. X2
E. X1x2

24. If The Market Is In Equilibrium, The Price And Quantity Will Be
A. P1 And X1
B. P And X1
C. P1 And X
D. P And X
E. P And X2

Questions 25 – 30 Refer To The Graph Below.

25. The Demand Curve And Supply Curve For Beef Are Dd And Ss. The Demand Curve Shifts To D1d1 And A Price Ceiling Is Placed On Beef At Price P. The Result Will Be
A. A Surplus Equal To X1x
B. A Shift In The Supply Curve To S1s1
C. An Increase In The Quantity Placed On The Market To X1
D. Both (B) And (C) Above
E. A Shortage Equal To X1x

26. The Demand Curve And Supply Curve For Beef Are Dd And Ss. Which Of The Following Could Not Cause Demand To Shift To D1d1?
A. An Increase In The Price Of A Substitute Good
B. An Increase In The Price Of A Complementary Good
C. An Increase In Consumer Income
D. A Change In Consumer Tastes
E. A Change In Consumer Expectations

27. The Demand Curve And Supply Curve For Beef Are Dd And Ss. Which Of The Following Could Cause Supply To Shift To S1s1?
A. An Increase In The Cost Of Production
B. A Decrease In The Cost Of Production
C. An Increase In The Price Of A Substitute In Production
D. An Increase In Income
E. All Of The Above

28. Which Of The Following Statements Is Incorrect?
A. If Supply Decreases And Demand Remains Constant, Equilibrium Price Will Rise
B. If Demand Decreases And Supply Increases, Equilibrium Price Will Rise
C. If Supply Increases And Demand Decreases, Equilibrium Price Will Fall
D. If Demand Increases And Supply Decreases, Equilibrium Price Will Rise
E. If Supply Is Constant And Demand Increases, Price Will Rise

29. If Demand And Supply Shift To D1d1 And S1s1, Market Price Will Be
A. P
B. Above P
C. Below P
D. Indeterminate
E. The Price That Goes With The Quantity X

30. Which Of The Following Will Cause A Change In The Demand For Beer?
A. A Change In The Average Income In The Economy
B. A Change In The Price Of Hops (Used To Make Beer)
C. A Change In The Price Of Beer
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

31. The Law Of Demand Suggests That
A. Higher Prices Automatically Result In Higher Profits
B. Demand Determines Supply
C. The Lower The Price Of A Product, The More Consumers Will Wish To Purchase, Other Things Equal
D. Without Laws, Markets Would Not Reach Equilibrium
E. Both (A) And (C)

32. A Change In The Quantity Supplied Of A Good May Be Caused By
A. A Change In Technology
B. A Change In The Number Of Firms Selling The Good
C. A Change In The Price Of The Good
D. A Change In The Demand For The Good
E. Either (C) Or (D)

Questions 33 – 37 Refer To The Graph Below.

33. Equilibrium Price And Quantity Are
A. 20 And 100
B. 20 And 200
C. 15 And 300
D. 15 And 200
E. 10 And 200

34. A Price Of $10 Will Lead To A
A. Shortage Of 200
B. Surplus Of 200
C. Shortage Of 100
D. Surplus Of 100
E. Surplus Of 300

35. A Price Of $20 Will Lead To A
A. Shortage Of 200
B. Surplus Of 200
C. Shortage Of 100
D. Surplus Of 100
E. Surplus Of 300

36. When Price Is $10, How Much Will Be Sold In The Market?
A. 0
B. 100
C. 200
D. 300
E. It Can Not Be Determined

37. Which Of The Following Could Lead To A Price Of $20 In The Market?
A. An Increase In Demand
B. A Decrease In Supply
C. A Decrease In Demand
D. An Increase In Supply
E. An Increase In Both Supply And Demand

Questions 38 – 43 Refer To The Graph Below.

38. If The Market Starts In Equilibrium With D1 And S1, Price And Quantity Are
A. 13 And 55
B. 10 And 40
C. 10 And 65
D. 7 And 55
E. 10 And 55

39. If The Market Starts In Equilibrium With D1 And S1, And The Price Of Pepsi Increases, The New Equilibrium Price And Quantity Are
A. 13 And 55
B. 10 And 40
C. 10 And 65
D. 7 And 55
E. 10 And 55

40. If The Market Starts In Equilibrium With D1 And S1, And The Price Of Carbonated Water (The Main Ingredient In Dr. Pepper) Increases, The New Equilibrium Price And Quantity Are
A. 13 And 55
B. 10 And 40
C. 10 And 65
D. 7 And 55
E. 10 And 55

41. If The Market Starts In Equilibrium With D1 And S1, And More Consumers Develop A Preference For Dr. Pepper, The New Equilibrium Price And Quantity Are
A. 13 And 55
B. 10 And 40
C. 10 And 65
D. 7 And 55
E. 10 And 55

42. If The Market Starts In Equilibrium With D1 And S1, And Equilibrium Price And Quantity Increase To $10 And 65, Which Of The Following Could Have Caused The Change?
A. An Increase In Consumer Income
B. An Increase In Production Costs
C. The Discovery That Dr. Pepper Causes Health Problems
D. A Technological Advance In Dr. Pepper Production
E. All Of The Above

43. Which Of The Following Is Not One Of The “Other Things Equal” Underlying The Demand Curve?
A. Prices Of Resources
B. Purchasing Power Of Buyers
C. Buyers’ Tastes And Preferences
D. Numbers Of Buyers
E. Buyers’ Expectations

44. A Change In The Quantity Demanded
A. Results Whenever One Of The “Other Things Equal” Underlying The Demand Curve Changes
B. Results When The Price Of The Product Increases Or Decreases
C. Means A Shift In The Position Of The Demand Curve
D. Means Movement Along A Given Demand Curve
E. Is Both (B) And (D)

45. Suppose That All Workers Receive A Wage Reduction. What Would The Impact On The Market For Autos Be?
A. The Supply Of Autos Would Decrease
B. The Demand For Autos Would Increase
C. The Supply Of Autos Would Increase And The Demand For Autos Would Fall
D. Both A) And B)
E. It Can Not Be Determined

46. There Is An Increase In The Quantity Of Pizza Purchased But No Change In The Price Of Pizza. Which Of The Following Is Most Likely To Have Occurred?
A. Supply Increased While Demand Remained Unchanged
B. Both Supply And Demand Increased
C. Supply Increased While The Quantity Demanded Increased
D. Demand Increased While Supply Remained Unchanged
E. Both Supply And Demand Decreased

47. Two Goods Are Said To Be Substitutes In Consumption If
A. An Increase In The Price Of One Leads To A Fall In The Demand For The Other
B. An Increase In The Price Of One Leads To An Increase In The Demand For The Other
C. An Increase In The Price Of One Leads To An Increase In The Supply Of The Other
D. A Fall In The Price Of One Leads To An Increase In The Demand For The Other
E. A Decrease In The Price Of One Leads To A Decrease In The Supply Of The Other

48. Assume Lettuce And Salad Dressing Are Complements In Consumption. An Increase In The Price Of Lettuce Will
A. Lead To A Fall In The Demand For Salad Dressing
B. Lead To A Fall In The Quantity Demanded Of Salad Dressing
C. Have No Impact On The Demand For Salad Dressing
D. Lead To A Fall In The Supply Of Salad Dressing
E. Lead To A Rise In The Supply Of Salad Dressing

49. Which Of The Following Is For Inferior Goods?
A. The Law Of Demand Does Not Hold
B. They Are Of Low Quality
C. The Demand For Them Falls As Consumer Income Rises
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

50. An Increase In The Wages Of Orange Pickers Will Have What Effect In The Market For Oranges?
A. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Decrease
B. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Increase
C. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Decrease
D. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Increase
E. The New Equilibrium Price And Quantity Can Not Be Determined

51. An Increase In Consumer Income Will Have What Effect On The Equilibrium Price And Quantity Of Hot Dogs?
A. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Decrease
B. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Increase
C. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Decrease
D. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Increase
E. The New Equilibrium Price And Quantity Can Not Be Determined

52. An Increase In The Price Of Cars Will Have What Effect On The Equilibrium Price And Quantity Of Gasoline?
A. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Decrease
B. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Increase
C. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Decrease
D. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Increase
E. The New Equilibrium Price And Quantity Can Not Be Determined

53. A Technological Advance In The Production Of Computers Will Have What Effect On The Equilibrium Price And Quantity In The Computer Market?
A. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Decrease
B. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Increase
C. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Decrease
D. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Increase
E. The New Equilibrium Price And Quantity Can Not Be Determined

54. A Publicized Report That Finds Orange Juice Prevents Certain Diseases Will Have What Effect On The Equilibrium Price And Quantity Of Orange Juice?
A. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Decrease
B. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Increase
C. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Decrease
D. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Increase
E. The New Equilibrium Price And Quantity Can Not Be Determined

55. As The Baby Boom Generation Continues To Age, What Will Happen To The Equilibrium Price And Quantity Of Homes In Retirement Communities?
A. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Decrease
B. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Increase
C. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Decrease
D. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Increase
E. The New Equilibrium Price And Quantity Can Not Be Determined

56. If Consumers Expect An Increase In The Price Of Coffee Next Month, What Will Happen To The Equilibrium Price And Quantity Of Coffee This Month?
A. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Decrease
B. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Increase
C. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Decrease
D. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Increase
E. The New Equilibrium Price And Quantity Can Not Be Determined

57. The Entry Of New Firms Into A Market, All Other Things Equal, Will Have What Effect On Equilibrium Price And Quantity?
A. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Decrease
B. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Increase
C. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Decrease
D. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Increase
E. The New Equilibrium Price And Quantity Can Not Be Determined

58. An Increase In The Price Of Flashlights Will Have What Effect On The Equilibrium Price And Quantity Of Batteries?
A. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Decrease
B. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Increase
C. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Decrease
D. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Increase
E. The New Equilibrium Price And Quantity Can Not Be Determined

59. If The Price Of Film Increases At The Same Time The Cost Of Camera Production Increases, What Will Happen To The Equilibrium Price And Quantity In The Camera Market?
A. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Decrease
B. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Increase
C. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Decrease
D. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Increase
E. The New Equilibrium Price And Quantity Can Not Be Determined

60. If There Is A Technological Advance In The Production Of Paper At The Same Time Consumer Income Increases (Assume Paper Is A Normal Good), What Will Happen In The Market For Paper?
A. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Decrease
B. Price Will Increase, Quantity Will Increase
C. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Decrease
D. Price Will Decrease, Quantity Will Increase
E. The New Equilibrium Price And Quantity Can Not Be Determined

61. Suppose The United Auto Workers Union Successfully Lobbies Congress To Enact An Import Quota On All Foreign Cars Imported Into The U.S. Which Of The Following Is Most Likely To Occur In The U.S.?
A. A Fall In The Price Of Imported Cars And Increase In The Price Of Domestics
B. An Increase In The Demand For Domestic Cars
C. A Decrease In American Autoworker Wages
D. Higher Unemployment Among American Autoworkers
E. A Fall In The Demand For Imports

62. As Consumer Incomes Rise, The Demand Curve For Good X Shifts To The Right. Given This, Good X Must Be
A. Produced By A Competitive Firm
B. A High Quality Product
C. A Substitute Good
D. A Normal Good
E. An Inferior Good

63. Since 1990, China’s Growth Has Been
A. Roughly Equal To That Of The United States
B. Declining
C. In The Double Digits
D. About 3% Per Year
E. None Of The Above

64. China’s Growth Has Been A Result Of
A. Increased Domestic Demand
B. Rapidly Increasing Inflation
C. Investment In Other Economies
D. Trade Deficits
E. Trade Surpluses

65. Since 1990, Foreign Investment In China Has
A. Increased Slightly
B. Increased Significantly
C. Been Unchanged
D. Decreased Slightly
E. Decreased Significantly

66. China Can Be Best Described As A
A. Market Economy
B. Mixed Economy
C. Transitional Economy
D. Competitive Economy
E. Monopoly Economy

67. From A Standpoint Of Resource Allocation, A Surplus Of Corn Implies
A. Consumers Would Prefer Some Of The Resources Used To Produce Corn Be Used To Produce Something Else
B. The Market For Agricultural Products Is Failing
C. Government Should Purchase The Surplus To Protect The Farmers
D. The Price Of Corn Is Too Low And Should Be Increased
E. The Quantity Demanded Of Corn Exceeds The Quantity Supplied

68. After Establishing The Republic Of China In 1949, Mao’s Communist Party Patterned The Chinese Economy After
A. Japan
B. Taiwan
C. The Ussr
D. The United States
E. Europe

69. Following The Establishment Of A Soviet Style Society In 1949, The State Planning Commission Was Created By
A. Chiang Kai-Shek
B. Deng Xiaoping
C. Mao Zedong
D. Joseph Stalin
E. Wen Jiabao

70. The State Planning Commission In China Has The Task Of
A. Determining What Goods And Services Should Be Produced
B. Determining What Quantities Of Goods And Services Are Produced
C. Determining The Allocation Of Resources Used In The Production Of Goods And Services
D. How The Goods And Services Are To Be Distributed
E. Performing All Of The Tasks Listed Above

71. The Economy Of The People’s Republic Of China Operated As A Command Economy
A. From 1917 Until 1949
B. From 1949 Until 1978
C. Since 1990
D. From 1949 Until 1962
E. Which Started China’s Transition To A Market Economy

72. China’s Transition To A Market-Oriented Economy
A. Was Completed By Around 2004
B. Was Abandoned In 2010 And The Country Has Returned To Command Economy
C. Has Resulted In Relatively Low Rates Of Economic Growth
D. Did Not Lead To Any Problems With Inflation Or Unemployment
E. Did Not Lead To Any Problems With Corruption
73. In A Market Economy, A Shortage Of Wheat Will Cause The
A. Price Of Bread To Rise
B. Price Of Bread To Fall
C. Price Of Wheat To Fall
D. Supply Of Bread To Increase
E. Supply Of Wheat To Fall


74. Which Of The Following Was Not A Problem For China’s Centralized Economy?
A. Informational Requirements
B. Incentives For Efficiency
C. The Emphasis On Heavy Machinery Production
D. Low Quality Products
E. None Of The Above (They Were All Problems)

75. If The Demand Curve For Bran Muffins Has Shifted Out Due To A Medical Study That Indicates That Regular Consumption Of Bran Lowers Cholesterol, Then We Can Conclude That There Has Been
A. A Response To The Increase Demand For A Complementary Good
B. A Change In Consumer Tastes
C. A Reduction In The Production Costs Of Bran
D. An Increase In Consumer Expectations
E. An Improvement In The Economy, Resulting In Higher Incomes

76. Consumer Purchases Of Hybrid Cars Have Risen Sharply In Recent Years. One Important Factor In This Increased Demand For These Vehicles Is
A. It’s Cool To Be “Green” And Drive A Hybrid
B. Decreasing Prices Of A Complementary Good
C. Change In Expectations Based Upon The Belief That Energy Prices Will Rise In The Future
D. Reduced Availability Of A Substitute
E. Government Fuel Mandates

True / False Questions

77. Mao Zedong Started China’s Transition To A Market Economy

78. Private Ownership Of An Economy’s Resources Is A Defining Feature Of The Pure Market Economy

79. The Institution Of Private Property Rights Is An Essential Feature Of The Market Economy

80. The U.S. Is Best Described As A Pure Market Economy

81. In The Pure Command Economy, Most Resource Use Decisions Are Made By Government

82. In A Market Economy, Price Fluctuations Indicate There Is A Lack Of Effective Competition

83. For A Market To Be Considered Purely Competitive, New Rivals Must Be Free To Enter If They Feel They Can Effectively Compete

84. Blocked Entry Is Essential For A Purely Competitive Market

85. Entry Is Blocked In Monopoly Markets

86. In Response To An Increase In The Price Of Beer, Bob Reduces His Consumption From 3 To 2 Beers Per Day. This Reflects A Reduction In Bob’s Demand For Beer


87. Surpluses Tend To Drive Competitive Prices Downward Toward Equilibrium, And Shortages Tend To Drive Competitive Prices Upward Toward Equilibrium

88. When The Entire Demand Curve Shifts Out To The Right, We Say There Has Been An Increase In Demand

89. A Change In Supply Occurs When One Of The Other Things Equal Changes And Is Represented As Movement Along The Supply Curve

90. A Change In The Price Of Automobiles Will Cause A Change In The Demand For Automobiles

91. Demand Is The Quantity Of A Product Per Time Period That Buyers Will Buy At The Prevailing Price, Other Things Equal

92. The Law Of Demand States That Consumers Will Buy Less At Lower Prices, But Only If A Number Of Other Things Are Held Constant

93. The Law Of Supply States That Sellers Will Sell More At High Prices Than At Low Prices

94. When An Economist Says That The Demand For A Product Has Increased, This Means That Consumers Are Now Willing To Purchase More Of The Product At Each Alternative Price

95. An Increase In The Price Of A Good Will Decrease Demand For The Good

96. An Increase In The Supply Of A Good Will Increase Demand For The Good

97. An Increase In Consumer Income Can Either Increase Or Decrease Demand For A Good

98. During December Each Year, The Number Of Christmas Trees Sold Increases, As Does The Price Of The Trees. This Clearly Violates The Law Of Demand

99. An Increase In The Demand For Gasoline Accompanied By A Decrease In The Supply Of Gasoline Will Cause The Price To Rise, But May Cause The Quantity Purchased To Increase, Decrease, Or Remain The Same

100. Fluctuating Prices Tend To Confuse Consumers, So Prices Should Be Government Controlled Whenever Possible

101. An Increase In The Price Of Gas Will Cause An Increase In The Supply Of Gas Since It Will Be More Profitable To Sell

102. The Demand Curve For An Inferior Good Is Upward Sloping, Like A Typical Supply Curve

103. When There Is An Increase In Both Supply And Demand, It Is Impossible To Determine What Happens To The Equilibrium Price Unless The Magnitudes Of The Supply And Demand Changes Are Known

104. During The 1992 Presidential Campaign, Ross Perot Recommended A 50-Cents-Per-Gallon Increase In The Tax On Gasoline. Such An Increase Would Have Little Or No Effect On The Quantity Of Gas Sold Since We Have Few Options To Driving

105. If You Buy More Of A Good As A Result Of An Increase In Income, The Good Is Known As A Consumer Good

106. Appliances And Electricity Are An Example Of Complementary Goods

107. An Increase In The Supply Of A Good Will Increase The Price Of The Good, Other Things Being Equal

108. When Both Supply And Demand Increase, Price And Quantity Will Increase

109. Shortages Of A Particular Good Can Be Expected To Lead To Rising Prices And Increased Production For That Good In A Market Economy


110. Shortages Of A Particular Good Can Be Expected To Lead To Decreasing Prices And Lower Production For That Good In A Market Economy

111. In The Short Run, An Increase In Demand For A Good Will Result In Higher Prices In A Market Economy

112. In The Short Run, An Increase In Demand For A Good Will Result In Long Lines In A Command Economy

113. In The Long Run, An Increase In The Demand For A Good Will Result In An Increase In Supply Of The Good In A Market Economy

114. In The Long Run, An Increase In The Demand For A Good Will Result In An Increase In Supply Of The Good In A Command Economy

115. If The Demand For A Good Increases In A Monopoly Market, Price Will Rise And Firms Will Enter The Industry In The Long Run

116. China’s Transition To A Market Economy Began In 1990.

117. Command Economies Introduce Incentives For Efficient Production

118. Under The Great Leap Forward, The Task Of Determining How Much To Produce Fell On The State Planning Commission

119. The Chinese Communist Party Favored Production In The Heavy Industry Sectors Of The Economy

120. In 1978, Deng Xiaoping Started The Process Of Transitioning China To A “Socialist Market Economy.”

121. While The Superiority Of The Market Orientation Seems Clear, It Is Equally Clear That The Transition From A Command To A Market Economy Is Very Difficult

122. China’s Transition To A Market Orientation Has Been Relatively Problem-Free

123. China’s Transition To A Market Orientation Began With Agricultural Reform

124. China’s Transitional Economy Is Free Of Unemployment And Inflation

125. 15 Of The 20 Cities With The Highest Levels Of Air Pollution Are In China.

Chapter 03

Government Control Of Prices In Mixed Systems: Who Are The Winners And Losers?

Multiple Choice Questions

1. In A Market Economy, If The Market Supply Of A Product Decreases Relative To Its Demand, The Product’s Price Will
A. Fall
B. Rise
C. Be Unchanged
D. Fall And Then Rise
E. Rise And Then Fall

2. In A Mixed Economy, Governments May Intervene In Markets In Which Of The Following Ways?
A. Price Ceilings
B. Minimum Wages
C. Agricultural Price Supports
D. Both A) And B)
E. All Of The Above

3. Which Of The Following Is Of How Markets React To Government Intervention? They React
A. To Provide The Intended Results
B. In Ways That Offset Intended Impacts
C. Quickly To Reverse Intended Effects
D. In Completely Unpredictable Ways
E. So Slowly That Policies Never Work As They Are Intended

4. The Consequences Of Government Intervention
A. Are Generally As Planned By Policy Makers
B. Often Involve Unintended Consequences
C. Fall On Low Income Individuals
D. Are Not Felt Until The Next Fiscal Year
E. Serve To Increase Efficiency In Markets

5. A Maximum Allowable Price For A Good Or Service Is A
A. Price Ceiling
B. Price Floor
C. Minimum Wage
D. Market Equilibrium
E. Price Support

6. To Be Effective, A Price Ceiling Must Be Set
A. By The Market
B. Above Equilibrium
C. Below Equilibrium
D. At Equilibrium
E. By Producers

7. The Purpose Of A Price Ceiling May Be To Hold Down
A. Inflation
B. Unemployment
C. Interest Rates
D. Wages
E. All Of The Above

8. Price Ceilings May Be Used On A Selective Basis To
A. Control Inflation In The Economy
B. Make A Good Cheaper To Produce
C. Boost The Income Of Firms
D. Make A Good Accessible To All Income Levels
E. Increase Workers’ Incomes

9. During The 1970’s About How Many Cities In The U.S. Had Rent Controls?
A. 1,000
B. 200
C. 50
D. 15
E. 5

10. One Of The Earliest Known Rent Control Laws Was Instituted In Which City And When?
A. New York At The Start Of Wwii
B. Washington D.C. During The Civil War
C. Paris In The 1700s
D. Rome In The 1400s
E. Chicago During The Great Depression

11. A Minimum Allowable Price For A Good Or Service Is Known As
A. A Price Floor
B. A Minimum Wage
C. A Price Support
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

12. Price Floors Are Often Instituted For Which Of The Following Purposes?
A. To Prevent Inflation
B. To Make Goods And Services Accessible To All Income Levels
C. To Increase The Income Of Sellers
D. To Increase The Wages Of Workers
E. To Do All Of The Above

13. Which Of The Following Is Of The First U.S. Minimum Wage?
A. It Was Set Under The Fair Labor Standards Act
B. It Was Instituted In 1938
C. It Set The Minimum Wage At 25 Cents Per Hour
D. It Applied Only To Certain Designated Industries
E. All Of The Above

14. In 1981, The U.S. Federal Minimum Wage Was Increased To
A. $2.00 Per Hour
B. $2.50 Per Hour
C. $3.35 Per Hour
D. $4.00 Per Hour
E. $5.15 Per Hour

15. Which Of The Following Is Of The U.S. Minimum Wage Over The 1980s And 1990s?
A. It Was Unchanged
B. It Increased Significantly Through The 1980s And Was Constant Through The 1990s
C. It Was Constant Through The 1980s And Then Increased Significantly Through The 1990s
D. It Fell During The 1990s
E. It Was Eliminated In The 1990s

16. As Of Summer 2009, The U.S. Federal Minimum Wage Is Set At What Rate Per Hour?
A. $5.15
B. $5.85
C. $6.55
D. $7.25
E. $8.00

17. Some States Also Have Their Own Minimum Wage Legislation. Generally These Laws Set The State Minimum Wage
A. Above The Federal Minimum Wage
B. Below The Federal Minimum Wage
C. Equal To The Federal Minimum Wage
D. To Either A) Or C)
E. To Any Of The Above

18. As The Price Of Rental Housing Falls, Which Of The Following Occurs?
A. The Quantity Demanded Of Housing Increases
B. People Take In Roommates To Share Costs
C. Individuals Move Back In With Their Families
D. More Rental Housing Is Constructed
E. All Of The Above

19. As The Price Of Rental Housing Increases, Which Of The Following Will Happen?
A. Property Will Be Switched From Commercial Property To Rental Housing
B. More Rental Housing Will Be Built
C. Renters Will Be Induced To Buy Housing
D. The Average Number Of Renters Per Rental Unit Will Increase
E. All Of The Above

Questions 20 – 24 Refer To The Graph Below.

20. If The Demand For Rental Housing Is Dd And The Supply Of Rental Housing Is Ss, The Equilibrium Rent And Quantity (Number Of Units In Thousands) Are
A. $800 And 25
B. $625 And 30
C. $600 And 20
D. $400 And 25
E. $600 And 25
21. If Demand And Supply Are Dd And Ss And Demand Increases To D1d1, The New Equilibrium Rent And Quantity (Number Of Units In Thousands) Are
A. $800 And 25
B. $625 And 30
C. $600 And 20
D. $400 And 25
E. $600 And 25

22. An Increase In Rent That Leads To Increased Profitability Of Producing Rental Housing Will Lead To Which Of The Following Shifts In The Long Run?
A. Dd To D1d1
B. D1d1 To Dd
C. S1s1 To Ss
D. Ss To S1s1
E. None Of The Above

23. If The Supply And Demand For Rental Housing Are Dd And Ss, What Effect Will A Rent Control Law That Sets The Maximum Allowable Rent At $400 Have On The Market? It Will Lead To
A. A Surplus Of 5 Thousand Units
B. A Shortage Of 5 Thousand Units
C. A Surplus Of 10 Thousand Units
D. A Shortage Of 10 Thousand Units
E. No Change In Equilibrium Rent Or Quantity

24. If The Supply And Demand For Rental Housing Are Dd And Ss, What Effect Will A Rent Control Law That Sets The Maximum Allowable Rent At $800 Have On The Market? It Will Lead To
A. A Surplus Of 5 Thousand Units
B. A Shortage Of 5 Thousand Units
C. A Surplus Of 10 Thousand Units
D. A Shortage Of 10 Thousand Units
E. No Change In Equilibrium Rent Or Quantity

25. If People Are Forced To Commute As A Result Of A Rent Control Law In A City, Which Of The Following Results? An Increase In
A. Rent Paid By Commuters
B. Direct Commuting Costs
C. Opportunity Costs For Commuters
D. Pollution And Traffic Congestion In Cities
E. All Of The Above

26. Rent Control Laws Will _____________ The Search Costs Of Potential Renters.
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Eliminate
D. Mitigate
E. Reimburse

Questions 27 – 32 Refer To The Graph Below.

27. The Equilibrium Rent And Quantity (1,000s Of Units) Are
A. $900 And 30
B. $750 And 40
C. $600 And 30
D. $900 And 50
E. $600 And 50

28. If Rent Is Controlled At $900, The Quantity Of Rental Housing Demanded Will Be
A. 0
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50
E. More Than 50

29. If Rent Is Controlled At $600, The Quantity Of Rental Housing Demanded Will Be
A. 0
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50
E. More Than 50

30. If Rent Is Controlled At $900, The Quantity Of Rental Housing Supplied Will Be
A. 0
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50
E. More Than 50

31. If Rent Is Controlled At $600, The Quantity Of Rental Housing Supplied Will Be
A. 0
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50
E. More Than 50

32. If Rent Is Controlled At $600, There Will Be A ______ Equal To ____ Thousand Units In The Market.
A. Surplus; 10
B. Surplus; 20
C. Shortage; 10
D. Shortage; 20
E. Excess Supply; 10

33. Rent Control Laws May Lead To Which Of The Following Unintended Effects?
A. Under-The-Table Payments
B. Increased Forced Commuting
C. Higher Search Costs
D. Lost Profit Incentives To Change The Supply Of Rental Housing
E. All Of The Above

34. Owners Of Rent Controlled Property May Attempt To Increase Profits By
A. Raising Rents
B. Improving The Quality Of Their Rental Units
C. Taking Under-The-Table Payments
D. Converting Commercial Properties To Rental Properties
E. All Of The Above

35. In The Short-Run, Who “Wins” From Rent Control Laws?
A. All People Who Want To Rent Housing
B. Owners Of Rent Controlled Property
C. People Who Buy Housing
D. Governments That Pay To Enforce Rent Control Laws
E. None Of The Above

36. In The Short-Run, Who “Loses” From Rent Control Laws?
A. Those Who Cannot Find Rental Housing
B. People Who Are Forced To Commute
C. Individuals Who Experience Increased Search Costs For Rental Housing
D. Those Who Must Make Under-The-Table Payments To Secure Rental Housing
E. All Of The Above

37. The Demand For Labor Is A Derived Demand Because It Is Dependent On
A. The Demand For The Product Being Produced
B. The Marginal Revenue Of The Product Being Produced
C. The Marginal Productivity Of The Workers Producing The Product
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

38. The Additional Revenue That Accrues To A Firm When An Additional Worker Is Hired Is
A. The Marginal Revenue Product Of Labor
B. The Marginal Product Of Labor
C. The Marginal Revenue Of Labor
D. The Marginal Utility Of Labor
E. None Of The Above

39. The Marginal Product Of Labor Is The Additional
A. Revenue Received When A Worker’s Output Is Sold
B. Production Cost Of Hiring An Additional Labor
C. Output Produced As A Result Of Giving Workers Additional Capital
D. Output Produced As A Result Of Hiring An Additional Worker
E. Product Developed As A Result Of Ideas Generated By Workers

40. The Additional Revenue A Firm Receives As A Result Of Selling An Additional Unit Of Output Is Called
A. Price
B. Profit
C. Total Revenue
D. Marginal Revenue
E. Marginal Revenue Product

41. A Firm Increases The Number Of Workers It Hires From 50 To 52 And, As A Result, Output Increases From 100 To 110. Each Of The Additional Units Of Output Can Be Sold For $2. What Is The Marginal Product Of The 52nd Worker?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 20
E. 50

42. A Firm Increases The Number Of Workers It Hires From 50 To 52 And, As A Result, Output Increases From 100 To 110. Each Of The Additional Units Of Output Can Be Sold For $2. What Is Marginal Revenue For The Last 10 Units Produced?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 20
E. 50

43. A Firm Increases The Number Of Workers It Hires From 50 To 52, And As A Result, Output Increases From 100 To 110. Each Of The Additional Units Of Output Can Be Sold For $2. What Is The Marginal Revenue Product Of The 52nd Worker?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. 20
E. 50

44. The Law Of Diminishing Returns States That, As Additional Units Of A Variable Input Are Added To A Given Amount Of A Fixed Input, Increases In Output Will
A. Increase
B. Decline
C. Stay The Same
D. Accelerate
E. Become Erratic

45. A Firm Has A Given Amount Of Capital. When It Hires 10 Workers, Output Is 30. When It Hires 11 Workers, Output Is 40. If The Law Of Diminishing Returns Applies, Which Of The Following Is The Most Likely Amount Of Output When The Firm Hires 12 Workers?
A. 70
B. 60
C. 50
D. 45
E. -10

46. Which Of The Following Represents The Demand Curve For Labor For A Firm?
A. The Mr Curve
B. The Mp Curve
C. The Mrp Curve
D. The Mc Curve
E. None Of The Above

Questions 47 – 51 Refer To The Table Below.

47. The Marginal Product Of The 4th Worker Is
A. 20
B. 40
C. 100
D. 140
E. 160
48. If Each Unit Of Output Is Sold For $5, The Marginal Revenue Of The Second Unit Of Output Sold Is
A. $5
B. $10
C. $40
D. $50
E. $200

49. The Marginal Product Of The First Worker Is
A. 0
B. 10
C. 40
D. 50
E. Unable To Be Determined

50. If Each Unit Of Output Is Sold For $5, The Marginal Revenue Product Of The 3rd Worker Is
A. 5
B. 50
C. 200
D. 250
E. 300

51. If Each Unit Of Output Is Sold For $2, The Marginal Revenue Product Of The 6th Worker Is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 10
D. 20
E. 170

52. As The Wage Increases, A Worker Will Choose To Work
A. More
B. Less
C. The Same Amount
D. Overtime
E. An Amount That Cannot Be Determined

53. A Change In The Hours Of Work That Occurs In Response To A Wage Change, Other Things Equal, Is Known As The
A. Supply Of Labor
B. Substitution Effect
C. Income Effect
D. Wage Effect
E. Opportunity Cost Of Labor

54. An Increase In The Wage From $6 Per Hour To $6.50 Per Hour Causes A Worker To Increase Her Hours Worked From 40 To 45 Hours Per Week. For This Worker, Which Effect Dominates?
A. Substitution
B. Income
C. Wage
D. Wealth
E. Leisure

55. Which Of The Following Measures The Change In The Hours Of Work That Occurs When There Is A Change In Income, Other Things Equal?
A. The Supply Of Labor Curve
B. The Substitution Effect
C. The Income Effect
D. Marginal Productivity
E. The Wage Effect

56. If An Increase In The Wage Rate From $6.00 Per Hour To $6.50 Per Hour Causes A Worker To Decrease His Hours Worked From 40 To 35 Hours Per Week, Which Effect Dominates?
A. Substitution
B. Income
C. Wage
D. Wealth
E. Leisure

57. Which Effect Dominates If A Workers Supply Curve For Labor Is Negatively Sloped?
A. Substitution
B. Income
C. Wage
D. Wealth
E. Leisure

Questions 58 – 63 Refer To The Graph Below.

58. Equilibrium Wage And Quantity In The Labor Market Are
A. $3 And 8
B. $5 And 22
C. $7 And 16
D. $10 And 8
E. $10 And 22
59. At A Wage Of $10, The Mrp Of Labor Is
A. $8
B. $10
C. $80
D. $216
E. Impossible To Determine Using This Graph

60. If The Wage Rate Is $10, What Is The Quantity Of Labor Demanded?
A. 0
B. 8
C. 16
D. 22
E. 25

61. If The Wage Rate Is $10, What Is The Quantity Of Labor Supplied?
A. 0
B. 8
C. 16
D. 22
E. 25

62. If The Wage Rate Is $3, Which Of The Following Will Occur?
A. A Shortage Of 8
B. A Surplus Of 8
C. A Shortage Of 17
D. A Surplus Of 17
E. A Surplus Of 16
63. To Be Effective, A Minimum Wage In This Market Would Have To Be Set
A. Above $7
B. Above $10
C. Below $5
D. Below $7
E. Below $10

Questions 64 – 68 Refer To The Graph Below.

64. A Minimum Wage Set At $12 Per Hour Would Result In A Surplus Of
A. 0
B. 10
C. 20
D. 35
E. None Of The Above

65. A Minimum Wage Of $12 Would Lead To A Quantity Of Labor Demanded Equal To
A. 0
B. 15
C. 25
D. 35
E. More Than 35

66. A Minimum Wage Of $12 Would Lead To A Quantity Of Labor Supplied Equal To
A. 0
B. 15
C. 25
D. 35
E. More Than 35

67. A Minimum Wage Set At $4 Would Result In A Shortage Of
A. 0
B. 10
C. 20
D. 35
E. None Of The Above

68. If A Minimum Wage Is Set At $4, The Quantity Of Labor Demanded In The Market Will Be
A. 0
B. 15
C. 25
D. 35
E. More Than 35

69. Which Of The Following Groups Most Suffers The Costs Of Minimum Wage Laws?
A. College Graduates
B. Senior Citizens
C. Teenagers
D. Manufacturing Workers
E. Agricultural Workers

70. Which Of The Following Is Of The Minimum Wage?
A. It Has Significantly Reduced Poverty In The United States
B. A Worker Earning The Minimum Wage Will Keep A Family Of Three Out Of Poverty
C. It Results In A Much More Equal Distribution Of Income In The United States
D. Unemployment Rates Are Unaffected By The Minimum Wage
E. None Of The Above Is

71. Research Suggests That As The Minimum Wage Is Increased By 10%, The Associated Increase In The Teenage Unemployment Rate Is Nearly
A. 1 Percent
B. 10 Percent
C. 20 Percent
D. 25 Percent
E. 30 Percent

72. The Alternative Analysis Of The Minimum Wage Indicates That Which Of The Following May Be ?
A. The Demand Curve Is Vertical Over The Relevant Range
B. The Supply Curve Is Vertical Over The Relevant Range
C. There Is Only A Very Slight Unemployment Effect Of A Minimum Wage
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

73. According To The Alternative Analysis Of The Minimum Wage, Which Of The Following Might Lead The Demand Curve For Labor To Be Vertical Over The Relevant Range?
A. Firms Offset Higher Wages By Allowing Longer Lines During Peak Hours
B. Higher Wages Are Offset By Increased Efficiency
C. Prices Are Increased For Goods That Are Not Price-Sensitive
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

74. Which Of The Following Individuals Lose As A Result Of An Effective Minimum Wage Law?
A. Those Who Remain Employed After The Minimum Wage Is Instituted
B. Teenagers Who Lose Their Jobs And Valuable On-The-Job Training
C. Skilled Workers Who Earn Wages Above The Minimum Wage
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

75. If There Is A Price Ceiling Set For Milk At $2.50 Per Gallon And The Current Equilibrium Price Is $2.25 Per Gallon, Then We Can Conclude
A. That The Price Ceiling Is Doing Its Job, Keeping Prices Low
B. That The Price Ceiling Is Non-Binding And Has No Effect On The Market Equilibrium
C. That Milk Imports Are Reducing The Price
D. That Grocery Stores Are Afraid To Raise The Price To The Ceiling Level, For Fear Of Prosecution By The Government
E. That Price Ceilings Set A Minimum Price

76. Given That A Firm Is Selling Its Product In A Competitive Market, Meaning That Its Marginal Revenue Is Constant, What Would The Law Of Diminishing Returns To Labor Inputs Imply About The Demand For Labor?
A. That The Demand For Labor Would Be Constant If The Market Is Stable
B. That The Firm Would Pay Increasing Wages To Attract Qualified Employees
C. The Demand Would Diminish With The Output Of New Workers
D. The Demand Curve For Labor Has A Negative Slope Resulting From Declining Marginal Product
E. The Law Of Diminishing Returns Has No Effect On Labor Demand

77. The Fact That We Observe Positively Sloped Market Labor Supply Curves Implies That
A. The Substitution Effect Is Stronger That The Income Effect For Most Workers
B. The Income Effect Is Stronger Than The Substitution Effect For Most Workers
C. Most Workers Don’t Have Income Or Substitution Effects
D. The Income Effect Plus Substitution Effect Results In The Positive Slope
E. Labor Laws Require Workers To Work At Least 40 Hours Per Week

True / False Questions

78. In A Mixed Economy, Markets Adjust Freely And All Markets Are Cleared.

79. In A Mixed Economy, Governments Intervene In Markets To Affect The Prices Of Individual Goods.

80. In A Mixed Economy, Governments Intervene In Markets To Control Inflation.

81. Approximately 20 U.S. Cities Have Rent Control Laws.

82. There Are Examples Of Rent Controls From As Early As The 1700s.

83. Many Rent Controls Were Established As A Result Of World War Ii And Were Kept Even After The War Ended.

84. Some Universities Have Rent Controlled Student Housing.

85. Price Floors Are Instituted To Increase The Income Of Sellers.

86. The 1938 Fair Labor Standards Act Created The First U.S. Rent Control Law.

87. The First U.S. Minimum Wage Was Set At 25 Cents An Hour.

88. The U.S. Minimum Wage Did Not Change Throughout The 1980s And 1990s.

89. All U.S. Workers Are Covered Under The U.S. Minimum Wage Law.

90. Some States Enact Their Own Minimum Wage Laws.

91. The Quantity Of Housing Demanded Does Not Change When Prices Increase Because People Have To Live Somewhere.

92. In The Short-Run, The Supply Of Housing Can Increase Quickly.

93. A Price Ceiling Must Be Set Above Equilibrium To Have Any Effect On The Market For Housing.

94. Rent Controls Result In Illegal Payments To Acquire Housing.

95. Rent Controls Decrease Renters’ Housing Search Costs.

96. Rent Controls Lead To Increased Commuting.

97. 6 Of The 10 Cities With The Highest Homelessness Have Rent Control Laws.

98. Rent Controls Create Profit Incentives To Increase The Supply Of Rental Housing.

99. Minimum Housing Standards Prevent Any Property Deterioration In Rent Controlled Housing.

100. Rent Controls Result In A Misallocation Of Resources.

101. The Majority Of Individuals Support The Minimum Wage.

102. The Minimum Wage Allows An Individual To Earn Enough To Keep A Family Of Three Above The Poverty Line.

103. Rent Controls Lead To Housing Shortages.

104. Rent Controls Lead To Conversion Of Rental Housing To Commercial Uses.

105. Rent Controls Make Housing More Accessible To Homeless Individuals.

106. The Demand For A Product Is A Derived Demand.

107. If 10 Workers Produce 100 Units Of Output And 11 Workers Produce 108 Units Of Output, The Marginal Product Of The 11th Worker Is 8.

108. If All Units Of A Firm’s Output Sell For $10 Each, Marginal Revenue Is Constant.

109. The Additional Revenue A Firm Receives As A Result Of Hiring An Additional Worker Is Mrp.

110. Limited Amounts Of Capital Eventually Lead To Diminishing Returns To Labor.

111. A Firm’s Marginal Revenue Curve Is Also Its Demand Curve.

112. As The Wage Increases, The Quantity Of Labor An Individual Supplies Will Increase.

113. As The Wage Increases, The Quantity Of Labor An Individual Supplies May Decrease.

114. If A Worker Works More As The Wage Increases, The Substitution Effect Is Dominating.

115. If A Worker Works More As The Wage Increases, The Income Effect Is Dominating.

116. If The Supply Of Labor Curve Is Positively Sloped, The Substitution Effect Is Dominating.

117. If The Supply Curve Of Labor Is Positively Sloped, The Income Effect Is Dominating.

118. Evidence Indicates The Supply Curve Of Labor Is Positively Sloped.

119. A Surplus Of Labor Is Unemployment.

120. Teenagers Are The Group Most Likely To Work For Minimum Wage.

121. Working For The Minimum Wage Provides Valuable On-The-Job-Training.

122. The Minimum Wage In 2008 Was Approximately 37% Of Average Earnings.

123. The Minimum Wage Is 100% Of The Poverty Level.

124. A 10% Increase In The Minimum Wage Is Estimated To Increase Teenage Unemployment By 15%.

125. Firms Can Offset Increased Wage Costs Due To An Increase In The Minimum Wage By Increasing Efficiency.

126. Evidence Indicates The Minimum Wage Has Little Effect On The Income Distribution.

127. The Supply Of Labor Is Very Responsive To Changes In The Wage.

ECO 405 Week 4 Quiz Solution

Chapter 04

Pollution Problems: Must We Foul Our Own Nests?

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Pollution
A. Like Air And Water Pollution Became An Issue In The U.S. During The 1960’s
B. Tends To Be Worse In More Populated Than In Less Populated Areas
C. Occurs Because Large Portions Of The Environment Are Owned By Polluters
D. Increases The Cost Of Producing All Goods
E. Issues Are Represented In All Of The Above Answers

2. The Level Of Pollution Increases When
A. A Person Breathes
B. Wastes Are Dumped Into The Environment
C. Wastes Are Dumped Into The Environment At A Higher Rate Than Wastes Are Recycled
D. New Industrial Plant Opens
E. Recycling Increases

3. Which Of The Following Is A Service Provided By The Environment?
A. Use As A Habitat
B. Provision Of Amenities
C. Provision Of Raw Materials
D. Waste Disposal
E. All Of The Above

4. Which Of The Following Best Describes Why Pollution Exists In The Environment?
A. The Environment Has No Capacity To Recycle Waste
B. All Materials Take A Very Long Time To Recycle In The Environment
C. No Waste Can Be Completely Recycled
D. Recycling Processes Fail To Prevent Wastes From Accumulating In The Environment
E. The Environment’s Capacity To Recycle Exceeds The Rate Of Waste Disposal

5. Human Production Processes Do Not Include Which Of The Following Services?
A. Mineral Deposits, Such As Coal And Iron
B. Renewable Resources, Like Timber And Plant Products
C. Technological Advances In Production
D. Recycling Of Waste Materials, Such As Chemical Wastes
E. All Of The Above

6. Marginal Private Cost (Mpc) Always Includes:
A. The Price Of A Good In The Market
B. The Extra Costs Of Production Of One More Unit Of A Good
C. The Additional Benefits Received By Consumers From The Consumption Of The Good
D. The Costs Imposed On Society From Pollution
E. The Expenditures By Government To Control Negative Externalities

7. The Term “Marginal Social Benefit” Means
A. Benefits That Are Just Above The Margin Of Being Zero
B. The Entire Benefits Obtainable From The Activity
C. That Part Of The Benefits Covered By The Costs Of Carrying On The Activity
D. The Change In Total Social Benefits Per Unit Change In The Amount Of The Activity
E. The Benefits Of Minimal Quality Goods And Services

8. If All Benefits From Consuming A Good Go To Consumers, The Demand Curve Is The Same As The
A. Mpc Curve
B. Msc Curve
C. Mpb Curve
D. Supply Curve
E. Benefit Curve

9. When There Are No Externalities, Equilibrium In A Market
A. Maximizes Social Well-Being
B. Equates Quantity Supplied And Quantity Demanded
C. Equates Msb And Msc
D. Equates Mpb And Mpc
E. Does All Of The Above


10. When The Cost Of An Action Falls On Other Than The Person (Or Persons) Responsible For The Action, Which Of The Following Exists?
A. Positive Externality
B. Negative Externality
C. Externality In Consumption
D. Externality In Production
E. External Cost

11. When A Benefit Of An Action Falls On Other Than The Person (Or Persons) Responsible For The Action, Which Of The Following Exists?
A. Positive Externality
B. Negative Externality
C. Externality In Consumption
D. Externality In Production
E. External Cost

12. When The Marginal Private Benefit Of An Activity Does Not Equal The Marginal Social Benefit, Which Of The Following Exists?
A. Positive Externality
B. Negative Externality
C. Externality In Consumption
D. Externality In Production
E. External Cost

13. When The Marginal Private Cost Of An Activity Does Not Equal The Marginal Social Cost, Which Of The Following Exists?
A. Positive Externality
B. Negative Externality
C. Externality In Consumption
D. Externality In Production
E. External Cost


14. Which Of The Following Creates A Positive Externality In Consumption?
A. Polluting A River
B. Playing Loud Music
C. Vaccinations
D. Reducing The Cost Of Producing Of Another Good
E. Strip Mining

15. Which Of The Following Creates A Positive Externality In Production?
A. Polluting A River
B. Playing Loud Music
C. Vaccinations
D. Reducing The Cost Of Producing Of Another Good
E. Strip Mining

16. Which Of The Following Creates A Negative Externality In Consumption?
A. Polluting A River
B. Playing Loud Music
C. Vaccinations
D. Reducing The Cost Of Producing Of Another Good
E. Strip Mining

17. People Have An Incentive To Pollute When
A. There Is Collective Consumption Of An Environmental Service
B. No One Has Property Rights To The Environment
C. It Is Less Expensive To Pollute Than To Clean Up
D. The Mpc Of Polluting < Mpc Of Cleanup E. All Of The Above 18. As Additional Units Of Pollution Control Are Added, At Some Point Each Additional Unit Adds A. Less Than The Previous Unit To Total Benefits B. More Than The Previous Unit To Total Benefits C. Less Than The Previous Unit To Total Costs D. More To Total Benefits Than To Total Costs E. Less To Total Costs Than Total Benefits   19. When Mpc Is Less Than Msc, A. Firms Will Tend To Produce More Than Is Socially Optimal B. The Price Of The Product Will Be Higher Than The Competitive Price C. The Firm Must Be A Monopolist D. The Firm Will Produce Less Than Is Socially Optimal E. There Are Positive Externalities In Production 20. Complete Elimination Of Pollution Is Economically Rational When A. Pollution Is Associated With Illness In Humans B. For Each Unit Of Pollution, The Cost Of Clean-Up Is Less Than The Benefit From Its Elimination C. The Pollution Will Likely Affect Future Generations D. Msc Of Cleanup < Msb Of Cleanup E. None Of The Above; Complete Elimination Is Never Rational 21. Pollution Should Be Completely Eliminated A. When The Marginal Social Benefit Of Control Is Greater Than Or Equal To The Marginal Social Cost Of Control For All Units Of Pollution B. When The Marginal Social Cost Of Control Is Zero C. At No Time, From An Economic Perspective D. All Of The Above E. (A) And (B) 22. The Optimal Level Of Pollution Control Occurs When A. Msb Of Control Equals Msc B. Pollution Is Zero C. Msb Of Control Just Exceeds Msc D. Msb Of Control Is Less Than Msc E. None Of The Above 23. The Market Output Level Tends To Be Socially Optimal When A. Demand Equals Supply In The Market B. All Costs And Benefits Are Private And Msb=Msc C. There Is Neither A Shortage Nor A Surplus Of The Product D. There Are Externalities In Production E. There Are Externalities In Consumption 24. Costs Incurred By The Producer For The Use Of Self-Owned Resources Are Called A. Implicit Costs B. Explicit Costs C. Accounting Costs D. Total Costs E. Marginal Costs 25. Costs Incurred By The Producer To Buy Or Hire Resources Are Called A. Implicit Costs B. Explicit Costs C. Opportunity Costs D. Total Costs E. Marginal Costs 26. Another Term For Implicit Cost Is A. Out-Of-Pocket Costs B. Explicit Costs C. Opportunity Cost D. Total Cost E. Marginal Cost 27. Payment By A Firm To Hire A Worker Is An Example Of A(N) A. Implicit Cost B. Explicit Cost C. Opportunity Cost D. Total Cost E. Marginal Cost 28. An Upstream Paper Mill Pollutes Water Used By A Downstream Water Bottling Plant, Forcing The Latter To Clean The Water It Uses. Which Of The Following Is ? A. Both Will Over-Produce B. The Paper Mill Will Under-Produce And The Bottling Plant Will Over-Produce C. The Paper Mill Will Over-Produce And The Bottling Plant Will Under-Produce D. Both Will Under-Produce E. Neither Will Over-Produce Or Under-Produce 29. Which Of The Following Is A Factor Leading To Pollution? A. People Are Inherently Dirty B. There Are Property Rights To The Environment C. The Environment Is Collectively Consumed D. The Law Of Increasing Returns E. All Of The Above Questions 30 - 34 Refer To The Graph Below. 30. Given The Ppc Tt1, The Cost Of Increasing Pollution Control From C1 To C2 Is A. A1a2 Dollars' Worth Of Other Goods And Services B. Q1q2 Dollars' Worth Of Other Goods And Services C. C1c2 Dollars' Worth Of Pollution Control D. Tq1, Dollars' Worth Of Other Goods And Services E. Unable To Be Determined Without Additional Information 31. Which Of The Following Could Explain A Shift In The Production Possibilities Curve From Tt1 To Tt2? A. Over-Utilization Of Pollution Control Activities B. Better Techniques Of Pollution Control C. Higher Prices For Other Goods And Services D. Increased Benefits From Pollution Control E. Better Technology For Producing Other Goods And Services 32. A Technological Advance That Improves Pollution Control Methods Would Cause Which Of The Following Changes On The Graph? A Movement From A. A1 To A2 B. C1 To C2 C. Q1 To Q2 D. Tt1 To Tt2 E. 0 To C2 33. Assuming That The Economy Is Operating On The Ppc Tt1, The Benefit Of Increasing Pollution Is Shown On The Graph As A Movement From A. A2 To A1 B. C2 To C1 C. Q2 To Q1 D. Tt2 To Tt1 E. C2 To 0 34. Operating At Which Point On The Ppc Tt1 Will Result In The Most Environmental Degradation? A. T B. T1 C. T2 D. A1 E. A2 Questions 35 - 39 Refer To The Graph Below. 35. Assume That The Current Market Demand And Supply Curves For Z Are D2 And S2. If There Are Negative Social Spillovers Associated With The Production Of Z, A. Government Should Levy A Per Unit Tax On Z To Shift The Supply Curve Toward S1 B. An Output Greater Than 0g Would Improve Resource Allocation C. Government Should Levy A Per Unit Tax On Z To Shift The Demand Curve Toward D1 D. An Output Smaller Than 0g Would Improve Resource Allocation E. Both (A) And (D) 36. Assume That The Current Market Demand And Supply Curves For Z Are D2 And S2. If There Are Positive Social Spillovers Associated With The Production Of Z: A. Government Should Levy A Per Unit Tax On Z To Shift The Supply Curve Toward S1 B. An Output Greater Than 0g Would Improve Resource Allocation C. Government Should Levy A Per Unit Tax On Z To Shift The Demand Curve Toward D1 D. An Output Smaller Than 0g Would Improve Resource Allocation E. Both (A) And (D) 37. Assume That The Current Market Demand And Supply Curves For Z Are D1 And S1 And There Are Positive Social Spillovers Associated With The Consumption Of Z. Which Curve Could Represent The Msb Curve For Z? A. D1 B. D2 C. S1 D. S2 E. None Of The Above 38. Assume That The Current Market Demand And Supply Curves For Z Are D1 And S1 And There Are Positive Social Spillovers Associated With The Production Of Z. Which Curve Could Represent The Msc Curve For Z? A. D1 B. D2 C. S1 D. S2 E. None Of The Above 39. If "Z" Is Pollution Control, Which Of The Following Shifts Illustrates The Effect On The Market For Pollution Control If New Technology To Control Pollution Is Developed? A. D1 To D2 B. D2 To D1 C. S1 To S2 D. S2 To S1 E. None Of The Above Questions 40 - 44 Refer To The Graph Below. 40. If The Discharge Of The Firm Is Q1 Units Per Day And A Tax Of T1 Per Unit Is Placed On Polluted Discharge, The Firm Will A. Clean All Of Its Discharge Of Wastes B. Clean None Of Its Discharge Of Wastes C. Spend A0b0 Dollars On Cleaning The Discharge D. Spend A0q0 Dollars On Cleaning The Discharge E. (A) And (D) 41. A Tax Of T1 Per Unit On Polluted Discharge Will Induce The Firm To A. Clean Its Discharge Up To Q1 Units Per Day Rather Than Pay The Tax B. Pay The Tax Rather Than Clean Discharge Up To Q1 Units Per Day C. Clean Its Discharge Exceeding Q1 Units Per Day Rather Than Pay The Tax D. Pay The Tax On All Units E. (A) And (D) 42. A Tax Of More Than T1 Per Unit On Polluted Discharge Will Induce The Firm To Clean Up A. Q1 B. More Than Q1 C. Q D. More Than Q But Less Than Q1 E. Zero 43. A Tax Of M0 Per Unit On Polluted Discharge Will Induce The Firm To Clean Up A. Q1 B. More Than Q1 C. Q D. More Than Q But Less Than Q1 E. Zero 44. Suppose The Current Tax Is T1 And The Government Wishes To Allow Less Pollution. It Should A. Raise The Tax Above T1 B. Lower The Tax Below T1 C. Shift The Mpc Curve To The Left D. Shift The Mpc Curve To The Right E. Do None Of The Above Questions 45 - 49 Are Based On The Following Information. In A Small City Located On A Lake, The Raw Sewage Of The City Is Dumped Directly Into The Lake. This Has Been A Source Of Distress For Citizens Who Like To Swim, Fish, And Water Ski. A Study Has Been Instituted To Determine What Value The Citizens Place On Pollution Control, And The Results Are Listed In The Following Table. Costs Of Pollution Control Are Also Listed. 45. The Marginal Social Benefit Of The Sixth Unit Of Pollution Control Is A. $495,000 B. $180,000 C. $80,000 D. $60,000 E. $40,000 46. The Marginal Social Cost Of The Fourth Unit Of Pollution Control Is A. Zero B. $30,000 C. $90,000 D. $100,000 E. $120,000 47. At The Economically Efficient Level Of Control, Msb A. Equals Msc B. Equals $30,000 C. Is Lower Than At One Unit Less Pollution Control D. Is Higher Than At One Unit More Pollution Control E. Is All Of The Above 48. As The Units Of Pollution Control Increase, The Msb Of Controlling Pollution Is A. Increasing B. Decreasing C. Constant D. Harder To Define E. Impossible To Determine 49. The Economically Efficient Level Of Pollution Control Is A. 10 Units B. 9 Units C. 8 Units D. 4 Units E. 2 Units Questions 50 - 54 Refer To The Graph Below. 50. Which Curve Is The Firm's Mpb Curve? A. D B. S C. X1 D. X2 E. None Of The Above 51. Given That The Firm’s Demand And Supply Curves Are D And S, Respectively, Which Curve Is The Msc Curve For The Polluting Firm's Product? A. D B. S C. X1 D. X2 E. None Of The Above 52. What Is The Equilibrium Quantity Of The Polluting Firm's Product In A Market With No Pollution Regulation? A. Q1 B. Q2 C. Q3 D. 0 E. It Cannot Be Determined 53. What Is The Efficient Quantity Of The Polluting Firm's Product? A. Q1 B. Q2 C. Q3 D. 0 E. It Cannot Be Determined 54. The Value Of Well-Being Lost Due To Over-Production Of The Polluting Firm's Product Is Equal To Area A. Acd B. Abd C. Deg D. Dgf E. This Cannot Be Shown In The Diagram Questions 55-59 Refer To The Graph Below. 55. Which Curve Is The Msc Curve For The Water-Using Firm's Product? A. D B. S C. X1 D. X2 E. None Of The Above 56. What Is The Quantity Of The Firm's Product In A Market With No Pollution Regulation? A. Q1 B. Q2 C. Q3 D. 0 E. It Cannot Be Determined 57. What Is The Efficient Quantity Of The Water-Using Firm's Product? A. Q1 B. Q2 C. Q3 D. 0 E. It Cannot Be Determined 58. The Value Of Well-Being Lost Due To Under-Production Of The Water-Using Firm's Product Is Equal To Area A. Acd B. Abd C. Bed D. Deg E. Dgf 59. Social Well-Being Would Be Enhanced If Output Of The Water-Using Firm Were To A. Increase From The Equilibrium Output B. Decrease From The Equilibrium Output C. Be Equal To The Equilibrium Output D. Be Greater Than Q3 E. Be Less Than Q1 60. Those Who Suffer From Pollution May Find It To Their Advantage To A. Have The Government Enact Legislation Compelling The Polluters To Take Antipollution Measures B. Bribe The Polluters To Control Their Pollution C. Have The Government Tax Pollution At A Rate That Increases With The Amount Of Pollution Generated D. Do All Of The Above E. Do None Of The Above 61. The Efficient Level Of Pollution Is Zero Only If The A. Marginal Cost Of Pollution Control Is Zero B. Marginal Benefit Of Pollution Control Is Zero C. Mpb Of Pollution Control Equals Msb D. Mpc Of Pollution Control Equals Msc E. Mpc Of Pollution Control Equals Mpb 62. Requiring Automobiles To Pass Emissions Tests Before Being Allowed On The Road Is An Example Of A(N) A. Direct Pollution Control B. Indirect Pollution Control C. Pollution Tax D. Market Solution To Pollution E. Positive Externality In Consumption 63. If A Pollution Tax Is Placed On A Firm Emitting Pollution, The Firm Will Pay The Tax, Rather Than Reduce Its Emissions, As Long As The Tax Is A. Above Its Mpc Of Pollution Control B. Below Its Mpc Of Pollution Control C. Above The Msc Of Pollution Control D. Below The Msc Of Pollution Control E. Reasonable 64. If A Pollution Tax Is Placed On A Firm Emitting Pollution, The Firm Will Treat Pollution, Rather Than Pay The Tax, As Long As The Tax Is A. Above Its Mpc Of Pollution Control B. Below Its Mpc Of Pollution Control C. Above The Msc Of Pollution Control D. Below The Msc Of Pollution Control E. Reasonable 65. In A Pollution Rights Market, A. Firms Buy Licenses To Pollute B. Firms Sell Licenses To Pollute C. Environmental Groups Can Reduce Pollution By Buying Licenses To Pollute D. The Government Can Determine The Level Of Pollution By The Number Of Licenses It Issues E. All Of The Above 66. Pollution Rights Markets A. Have Been Shown To Work In Theory, But Not In Practice B. Have Never Been Used In The Real World C. Are Used Around The World, But Not In The United States D. Have Been Used To Reduce Sulfur Dioxide Emissions E. Have Not Been Effective In Controlling Sulfur Dioxide Emissions 67. Direct Or Mandatory Control Imposed By Government On Polluters Presupposes That The Regulatory Body Can A. Determine What The Desirable Limits Of Pollution Are B. Determine Where The Marginal Costs Of Pollution Are Greatest C. Enforce Standards D. B) And C) E. All Of The Above 68. An Advantage Of Direct Regulation As A Method Of Controlling Pollution Is That A. The Optimal Level Of Pollution Control Can Be Easily Determined B. Pollution Reduction Quotas Can Be Varied To Remove Pollution Where It Is Least Costly C. Emission Control Standards Can Be Enforced Readily D. Changes In The Market Are Automatically Reflected In The Regulation E. It Seems Straightforward And Fair 69. Which Of The Following Approaches Would An Economist Propose To Address Industrial Pollution Of A River? A. Ban All Dumping Of Pollutants Near Or Into The River B. Limit Each Plant To A Maximum Amount Of Pollutant Emission C. Charge Each Polluter A Fixed Amount For Each Unit Of Pollutant Dumped Into The River D. Direct Pollution Control Regulation E. Command And Control Pollution Regulation 70. With Tradable Pollution Licenses To Control Pollution, Reductions In Total Pollution A. Can Be Achieved By Having Government Buy Back Some Of The Licenses B. Can Be Achieved By Having Government Sell More Licenses C. Requires The Government To Buy Back All Existing Licenses And Re-Issue New Licenses D. Cannot Be Achieved E. Is Never Economically Optimal 71. A Market For Pollution Rights Is An Efficient Approach To Pollution Control Because A. It Is Cheap To Implement B. It Leads To The Complete Elimination Of Pollution C. It Causes The Pollution To Be Eliminated At The Lowest Cost D. It Is Easy To Enforce E. None Of The Above 72. Production And Consumption In The Cigarette Market Is Too High Because A. Producers Do Not Care About The Health Of Their Customers B. Mpc Is Greater Than The Msc C. Mpb Is Greater Than Msb D. Msb Is Greater Than Mpb E. Mpb Is Less Than Msb 73. When Pollution Is Not Regulated In The Market, Polluting Firms Will A. Under-Utilize Resources And Charge High Prices B. Under-Utilize Resources And Charge Low Prices C. Use The Appropriate Level Of Resources, But Charge High Prices D. Be Very Profitable E. Over-Utilize Resources And Charge Low Prices 74. For A Tax On Pollution To Be Effective, It Must Be A. Placed On The Firm Polluting B. Greater Than The Cost Of Cleaning-Up The Pollution C. Placed On The Consumer D. Less Than The Cost Of Cleaning Up The Pollution E. Set At A Reasonable Rate 75. Suppose The Government Imposes A Tax On Electric Companies For Each Unit Of Sulfur They Emit. Which Of The Following Would Not Occur? A. Higher Prices For Electricity B. Lower Prices For Electricity C. Electric Companies Shifting To Low Sulfur Oil D. A Decrease In The Amount Of Electricity Produced E. A Shift To Alternative Energy Resources 76. If Jim Starts A Landscape Business And Uses A Truck And A Tractor That He Owns To Perform Landscaping Projects, We Can Conclude That A. The Costs Of The Truck And The Tractor Are Low B. That The Costs Of The Truck And The Tractor Are Explicit Costs C. There Is No Cost To The Business Since He Owns Both The Truck And The Tractor D. That The Costs Associated With Both The Truck And The Tractor Are Implicit Costs E. He Should Ask His Accountant How To Handle The Costs 77. When Firms Make Decisions About Output And About The Amount Of Pollution That They Produce, Without Government Regulation A. Firms Only Consider Their Private Benefits And Costs When Making Their Choices B. Firms Choose Not To Pollute Because It's Bad For Their Public Image C. Social Costs Are Always Reflected In The Market Prices Firms Pay For Their Inputs D. Pollution Costs Are Passed On To Consumers In The Form Of Higher Prices E. Government Regulation Is Used Only In Command Economies 78. The Use Of Pollution Rights Licenses Can Improve Efficiency And Reduce Pollution Since A. Pollution Rights Licenses Do Not Improve Efficiency Nor Reduce Pollution B. The Licenses Give Environmental Groups Pollution Reducing Permits C. The Cost To Purchase These Licenses Means That Social Costs Are Reflected In The Firm's Costs, Giving The Firm An Incentive To Reduce Pollution When It Is Economically Beneficial D. Such Licenses Improve Efficiency By Pricing Pollution But The Licenses Do Not Reduce Pollution E. There Is No Amount Of Pollution That Is Desirable Or Efficient True / False Questions 79. Pollution Occurs When The Environment Cannot Recycle All The Waste Dumped Into It. 80. Air Pollution Did Not Cause Great Concern Until The Last Few Decades. 81. Water Pollution Is Measured In Terms Of The Amount Of Toxins In The Water. 82. The Level Of Dissolved Oxygen Is An Important Measure Of Water Quality. 83. Pollution Is Generated Because Firms Use Inefficient Production Processes. 84. Pollution Consists Of Loading The Environment With Wastes That Are Not Completely Recycled, Are Not Recycled Fast Enough, Or Are Not Recycled At All. 85. Pollution Results In Resource Misallocation. 86. The "Marginal Social Benefit" Of An Economic Activity Is The Benefit That Is Just Above The Margin Of Being Zero. 87. If The Marginal Social Cost Of Attaining A Certain Level Of Water Purity Exceeds The Marginal Social Benefit, The Level Of Water Purity Should Be Decreased. 88. Net Social Benefits Will Always Be Increased By Increasing Pollution Control If The Marginal Social Benefit Of The Increase In Pollution Control Is Greater Than The Marginal Social Cost Of Additional Control Efforts. 89. Pollution Did Not Exist In Any Appreciable Amounts Prior To The Industrial Revolution. 90. The Optimum Level Of Pollution Is Zero. 91. The Costs Of Pollution Control To A Society Are Measured By The Value Of The Goods And Services That Must Be Given Up To Have The Control. 92. Complete Elimination Of Pollution Would Only Make Economic Sense If The Cost To Eliminate The Last Unit Of Pollution Is Less Than The Benefit From Its Elimination. 93. The Socially Optimal Level Of Production For Any Good Or Service Is Found Where Mpb=Mpc. 94. Deodorant May Be An Example Of A Good For Which Msb > Mpb.

95. If The Mpc Of Production Is Less Than The Msc, The Market Will Produce Too Much Of The Product.

96. Enjoying The Smell Of Bread Baking From Your Neighbor’s House Is An Example Of A Negative Externality.

97. If Your Snoring Keeps Your Roommate From Sleeping, You Roommate Is Experiencing A Negative Externality.

98. Pollution Is An Example Of A Negative Externality In Consumption.

99. Implicit Costs Are Opportunity Costs.

100. Explicit Costs Are Equal To The Value Of Self-Owned Resources.

101. Implicit Costs Are Also Known As Accounting Costs.

102. Direct Controls, Such As Setting Emission Standards For Automobiles, Will Achieve A Pollution Free Environment.

103. When A Firm Pollutes, Its Product Will Be Under-Priced And Over-Produced.

104. An Increase In A Tax Per Unit Of Polluted Discharge Will Decrease The Amount Of Pollution.

105. If Polluters Were Forced To Pay The Full Cost Of Their Activities, The Price Of Goods Produced By Polluting Firms Would Rise.

106. Direct Prohibition Of Pollution Has The Disadvantage Of Providing Economic Incentives For Polluters Not To Pollute.

107. In The Case Of An Upstream Paper Mill That Pollutes Water Used By A Downstream Power Plant Forcing The Latter To Clean The Water It Uses, The Costs Of Pollution By The Paper Industry Are Borne By Both The Consumers And Producers Of Electricity.

108. Whenever Consumers Are Willing To Pay More For An Item Than It Costs To Produce It, It Is Efficient To Expand Output.

109. Governmental Regulations Requiring Anti-Pollution Devices On Automobiles Result In A Decrease In The Demand For Automobiles And An Increase In Price.

110. Federal Grants Made To State And Local Governments For The Construction Of Sewage Treatment Facilities Encourage Private Industries To Develop Low Pollution Methods Of Production.

111. The Optimum Level Of Pollution Control Is Where Marginal Social Benefit Equals Marginal Social Cost.

112. Incentives To Pollute Stem From An Absence Of Property Rights In The Environment And From The Collectively Consumed Nature Of Whatever Is Being Polluted.

113. A Major Advantage Of Using Taxes To Control Pollution Is That They Provide An Incentive To The Polluter To Seek Improved Ways To Clean Up Discharge.

114. The Most Efficient Way To Control Pollution Is Direct Prohibition Of Polluting Activities By The Government.

115. Under The Private Property Rights Approach To Pollution Control, The Industry Or Firm That Most “Values” The Right To The Environment Will Control Environmental Services.

116. It Is Efficient For Regulatory Bodies To Induce Reduction In Pollution When The Marginal Social Cost Is Lowest, Regardless Of Which Firms Are The Worst Polluters.

117. A Pollution Rights Market Can Be An Efficient Method Of Pollution Control.

118. When Pollution Rights Markets Are Created, Those Firms Who Can Reduce Pollution Most Cheaply Will Do So.

119. When Pollution Rights Markets Are Used, The Overall Level Of Pollution Is Reduced If The Government Sells Additional Licenses.

120. The Establishment Of Clearly Defined Property Rights To The Environment Would Lead To An Elimination Of Pollution.

121. The Establishment Of Property Rights To The Environment Would Not, On Its Own, Lead To The Optimal Level Of Pollution Control.

122. Deodorant Is An Example Of A Collectively Consumed Good.

123. Polluting Firms Charge Prices Below What Would Exist Without Pollution.

124. The Creation Of A Market For Pollution Rights Eliminates Pollution Where It Is Cheapest To Do So.

125. When A Firm Has To Clean Environmental Resources Prior To Using Them, The Consumers Of That Firm’s Products Are Charged Higher Prices Than Would Exist In The Absence Of Pollution.

126. To Date, There Has Been No Formal Use Of Pollution Rights Markets.

127. Enforcement Is A Problem With All Methods Of Pollution Regulation.

128. Pollution Regulation Works Well Because Economists, Not Politicians, Are In Charge Of Regulatory Bodies.

Chapter 05

Economics Of Crime And Its Prevention: How Much Is Too Much?

Multiple Choice Questions

1. An Immoral Act Is
A. Easy To Define
B. Always Illegal
C. Different In Different Societies
D. Defined Consistently Across The United States
E. All Of The Above

2. Illegal Acts Are
A. Also Immoral
B. Ones That Society Has Determined That It Is Better Off Allowing
C. Designated As Such By The Criminal Justice System
D. Prevented Once A Law Is Passed
E. All Of The Above

3. Aggravated Assault Is An Example Of A(N)
A. Violent Crime
B. Crime Against Property
C. Illegal Trafficking Of Goods And Services
D. “Other” Crime
E. None Of The Above

4. Arson Is An Example Of A(N)
A. Violent Crime
B. Crime Against Property
C. Illegal Trafficking Of Goods And Services
D. “Other” Crime
E. None Of The Above

5. Prostitution Is An Example Of A(N)
A. Violent Crime
B. Crime Against Property
C. Illegal Trafficking Of Goods And Services
D. “Other” Crime
E. None Of The Above

6. Which Of The Following Statements Is Correct?
A. Criminal Acts Are Illegal Acts Whether Or Not Those Acts Are Immoral
B. Some Immoral Acts Are Criminal Acts And Some Are Not
C. Some Acts Are Criminal Because They Lead To Consequences The Criminal Is Unaware Of
D. Some Acts That Might Result In Chaotic Conditions Are Made Criminal By Legislative Bodies
E. All Of The Above

7. Which Of The Following Exists When An Individual Consumes Benefits From A Public Good But Does Not Pay For Its Cost?
A. Free-Riding
B. A Negative Externality In Consumption
C. A Negative Externality In Production
D. Implicit Costs
E. Psychic Costs

8. The Free-Rider Problem Refers To
A. Those Who Receive The Benefits Of A Public Good Without Paying A Part Of Its Cost
B. Those Who Ride Public Transportation Without Paying Their Fares
C. Those Who Ride In Rodeos And Do Not Win Prizes
D. Jockeys Who Are Not Paid
E. None Of The Above

9. Which Of The Following Goods Or Services Is A Public Good?
A. Polio Immunization
B. Stamp Collection
C. A Smoke Detector
D. National Defense
E. A Burglar Alarm

10. Government Can Effectively Remedy The Free-Rider Problem By
A. Requiring All Who Receive The Benefits Of A Public Good Or Service To Pay Appropriate Taxes For It
B. Imposing A Tax On Automobiles And All Other Forms Of Transportation
C. Eliminating All Forms Of Transportation
D. Banning Private Crime Prevention Activities
E. None Of The Above

11. A Characteristic Of A Public Good Or Service Is
A. That No Individual Can Identify Specifically The Part Of It That He Or She Consumes
B. Once The Good Is Provided, It Is Difficult Or Impossible To Exclude Anyone From Using It
C. If It Is Provided Privately, It Generates A “Free-Rider” Problem
D. One Person’s Use Does Not Decrease The Quantity Available For Others
E. All Of The Above

12. Which Of The Following Is Most Likely A Public Good?
A. A College Education
B. A Smoke Detector
C. Smallpox Immunization
D. Elementary Education
E. Space Exploration

13. A Group Project Has Been Assigned And Most Of The Work Ends Up Being Produced By Only One Or Two Of The Group’s Members. This Is An Example Of
A. The Free-Rider Problem
B. Diminishing Marginal Returns
C. The Opportunity Cost Principle
D. Equimarginal Principle
E. An Immoral Act

14. Immunization For Polio Is An Example Of A(N)
A. Semi Private Good
B. Public Good
C. Private Good
D. Good Which The Market Will Efficiently Produce
E. Externality In Production

15. Which Of The Following Statements Is ?
A. The Government In A Private Enterprise Economy Confines Its Production Of Goods And Services To Public Goods
B. A Major Difference Between Private Enterprise Economic System And A Socialistic Economic System Is That The Government Of The Latter Is Responsible For The Production Of Most Private, As Well As Public And Semi-Private, Goods
C. Governments Of Private Enterprise Systems Leave The Bulk Of Private Goods To Be Produced By Private Businesses
D. Governments Of Private Enterprise Economies Play A Relatively Important Role In The Provision Of Semi-Private Goods
E. None Of The Above

16. The Costs Of Resources Used In Crime Prevention
A. Are Equal To The Value Those Resources Would Have Provided In Their Best Alternative Use
B. Are Equal To The Value Of These Resources In Reducing Crime
C. Can Be Approximated By The Expenditures On Criminal Activities
D. Both (A) And (C)
E. All Of The Above

17. From An Economic Point Of View, Crime Prevention Activities Should Be Expanded To The Point At Which
A. Their Marginal Social Benefit No Longer Exceeds Their Marginal Social Cost
B. All Crime Is Stamped Out
C. All Crimes Against Persons Are Eliminated
D. Their Total Gross Benefits Are Maximum
E. None Of The Above

18. The Marginal Cost Of A Good Is
A. The Change In Total Product Associated With The Change In Resource Inputs
B. The Average Cost Of The Product
C. The Total Cost Of The Good Divided By Output
D. The Change In Total Cost Per Unit Change In Output
E. None Of The Above

19. According To The Equimarginal Principle, A City’s Crime Prevention Budget Should Be Allocated Such That
A. The Last Dollar Spent On Detection And Apprehension Of Criminals Should Yield The Same Addition To People’s Benefits As The Last Dollar Spent Determining Guilt Or Innocence And The Last Dollar Spent On Corrections And Punishment
B. Total Benefits Of Crime Prevention Are Equal To Total Costs
C. Expenditure On Court Services Proceeds Exceed Those On The Police Force Because Services Of A Lawyer Are More Expensive Than Those Of A Policeman Or Policewoman
D. The Same Number Of Police Officers Patrol Each Square Block At The Margins Of The City’s Residential Area
E. The Same Number Of Police Officers Are Used Per Square Block In The City’s Suburbs As In Its Downtown Area

20. Suppose An Auto Worth $25,000 Is Stolen. The Economic Cost Of This Theft, From Society’s Point Of View, Does Not Include
A. The $25,000 The Auto Is Worth
B. The Value Of The Resources Expended By Society Attempting To Capture The Thief
C. The Value Of The Inconvenience Caused To The Owner
D. The Cost Of Resources Used To Reduce Car Theft
E. All Of The Above

21. Suppose The Total Social Benefits Of Crime Protection Increase From $800,000 To $900,000 And Total Social Costs Increase From $650,000 To $800,000, With The Addition Of Another Unit Of Crime Prevention Services.
A. The Msb>Msc And Crime Prevention Activities Should Be Expanded
B. The Msb=Msc And The Level Of Crime Prevention Is Optional
C. The MsbTsc And Crime Prevention Should Be Expanded
E. None Of The Above

22. Police Officers Should Be Hired Up To The Point Where
A. The Public Feels Safe In Their Homes
B. The Crime Rate Falls To Zero
C. The Benefit Of The Last Officer Hired Is Just Equal To What Its Cost To Hire Her
D. The Benefit Of The Last Officer Hired Exceeds The Cost
E. It Is Not Possible To Tell Without Further Information

23. Which Of The Following Is Not An Economic Cost Of Crime? The
A. Lost Earnings Of Victims Of Crime
B. Value Of Property Destroyed By Criminal Activities
C. Dollars Spent On Illegal Drugs
D. Tax Dollars Spent On Crime Prevention
E. Suffering Experienced By Crime Victims

24. Economic Analysis Of Crime Can
A. Determine What Activities Should Be Considered Illegal
B. Determine What The Economic Impact Will Be Of Making Certain Activities Illegal
C. Tell Us Which Activities Should Be Punishable
D. Tell Us How Much It Will Cost To Eliminate Crime
E. Do All Of The Above

25. Marginal Social Benefits Of Crime Prevention Activities
A. Are The Increase In The Value Of Such Activities To The Community Resulting From A One-Unit Increase In Such Activities
B. Are Difficult To Calculate
C. Usually Decrease With Additional Units Of Those Activities
D. Include A Decrease In The Suffering Of Crime Victims
E. All Of The Above

26. If Society Receives No Additional Benefit From Increasing Crime Prevention Activities, The Msb Of Crime Prevention
A. Equals 0
B. Is Increasing
C. Is Decreasing
D. Is Equal To The Msc Of Crime Prevention
E. Must Rise In The Long Run.

27. If Increasing Police Patrols In A Neighborhood Requires Paying Officers Overtime, Then The Marginal Cost Of Additional Police Patrols
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Equals Msb
D. Must Fall Before It Is Efficient To Have More Patrols
E. Are Too High

28. Assume Police Officers And Prison Guards Earn $30,000. Hiring A Police Officer Changes The Total Benefits Of Crime Prevention From 100 To 120, While Hiring A Prison Guard Increases Total Benefits From 100 To 115. If The Crime Prevention Budget Is Increased By $30,000, Which Of The Following Is The Most Efficient Way To Spend The Money?
A. Hire A Guard
B. Hire A Police Officer
C. Hire One Guard And One Police Officer
D. Hire A Half Time Guard And A Half Time Police Officer
E. Do Not Spend The Additional Money

29. If The Private Benefit Of Buying A Car Alarm Is $250 And The Social Benefit Of The Car Alarm Is $350, Is It Optimal For You To Buy A Car Alarm If It Costs $300?
A. Yes, Because Benefits Exceed The Cost
B. Yes, Because Msb > Msc
C. No, Because Private Benefits Are Less Than Private Cost
D. No, Because Mpb < Msc E. The Outcome Is The Same Whether You Buy The Alarm Or Not 30. Additional Expenditures Should Not Be Made On Police Protection If The Additional Cost Of Police Protection A. Is Less Than The Additional Benefit B. Would Increase The Msb Of Fire Protection By More C. Is More Than The Change Total Social Benefits As A Result Of The Additional Police Protection D. Would Cause A Larger Increase In Total Social Benefits If Spent Elsewhere E. Is All Of The Above 31. An Additional Expenditure On Crime Prevention Should Be Allocated To The Activity Where A. Msb Is Greatest B. Msc Is Lowest C. Tsb Is Greatest D. Tsc Is Lowest E. Tsc Is Highest Questions 32 - 36 Refer To The Table Below. 32. The Marginal Social Benefit Of The Third Unit Of Crime Prevention Is A. 200 B. 180 C. 160 D. 140 E. 90 33. The Marginal Social Cost Of The Fourth Unit Of Crime Prevention Is A. 270 B. 180 C. 160 D. 90 E. 60 34. The Efficient Number Of Units Of Crime Prevention Is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 35. As More Crime Prevention Is Added, The Msb Of Crime Prevention A. Increases B. Decreases C. Becomes Higher Than Mcs D. Does Not Change E. Is More Difficult To Determine 36. The Net Benefit Of An Additional Unit Of Crime Prevention To Society Is Highest With How Many Units Of Crime Prevention? A. 0 B. 1 C. 3 D. 5 E. 6 Questions 37 - 41 Refer To The Table Below. The Cost Of Each Police Officer Is $20,000; The Cost Of Each Patrol Car Is $10,000. 37. If The Total Budget Is $100,000, What Is The Most Efficient Allocation Of The Crime Prevention Budget? A. 1 Police Officer; 8 Patrol Cars B. 2 Police Officers; 6 Patrol Cars C. 3 Police Officers; 4 Patrol Cars D. 4 Police Officers; 2 Patrol Cars E. 5 Police Officers; 0 Patrol Cars 38. If The Police Department Gets An Additional Allocation Of $40,000, How Should The Money Be Allocated Between Police Officers And Patrol Cars? A. 2 Police Officers; 0 Patrol Cars B. 2 Police Officers; 1 Patrol Car C. 1 Police Officer; 1 Patrol Car D. 1 Police Officer; 2 Patrol Cars E. 0 Police Officers; 4 Patrol Cars 39. The Net Social Benefit Of The Third Patrol Car Is A. $11,000 B. $15,000 C. $20,000 D. $36,000 E. $45,000 40. The Total Benefit Of Hiring Three Police Officers Is A. $18,000 B. $48,000 C. $60,000 D. $148,000 E. $249,000 41. The Net Social Benefit Of Hiring One Police Officer And Buying One Patrol Car Is A. $40,000 B. $41,000 C. $80,000 D. $120,000 E. $150,000 42. If Abortion Were Made Illegal Throughout The United States, A. The Cost Of Abortion Services Would Rise B. The Quality Of Abortion Services Would Fall And Become Less Standardized C. The Supply Of Abortion Services Would Decrease D. The Demand For Abortion Services Would Decrease E. All Of The Above 43. The More Abortions A Doctor Performs, The Fewer The Appendectomies He Can Perform. Measuring The Cost Of An Abortion In Terms Of The Number Of Appendectomies He Must Forego Performing Is An Illustration Of The A. Economies Of Mass Production B. Law Of Diminishing Returns C. Opportunity Cost Principle D. Law Of Comparative Advantage E. Law Of Demand 44. In Any City With A Given Crime Prevention Budget, Additional Suppression Of Prostitution A. Will Necessarily Result In Unemployment B. Is Always Economically And Morally Defensible C. Is Never Defensible Economically Or Morally D. Will Usually Be Achieved At The Expense Of An Increase In Other Kinds Of Crime E. All Of The Above 45. Which Of The Following Is An Economic Effect Of Prohibition Of Alcohol? A. A Reduction In The Supply, A Decrease In Price, And A Decrease In The Quality Of Liquor B. An Increase In Supply, A Decrease In Price, And An Increase In The Quality Of Liquor C. A Decrease In Supply, An Increase In Price, And No Change In The Quality D. A Decrease In Supply, An Increase In Price, And A Decrease In Quality E. None Of The Above 46. If A Law Is Passed Making It Illegal For Unlicensed Barbers To Cut Hair, Which Of The Following Will Result? A. Higher Quality Haircuts B. Higher Priced Haircuts C. Cleaner, More Sanitary Barber Shops D. Lower Priced Haircuts E. More Barbers In The Trade 47. Suppose A Poor Person Steals $10,000 From A Middle Income Person. Economic Analysis Tells Us That A. There Is An Economic Loss For The Society As A Whole B. There Is An Economic Gain For The Society As A Whole C. A Public Good Will Usually Be Purchased With The Money D. We Cannot Be Sure Whether There Is Economic Gain Or Loss For The Society As A Whole E. The Benefit To The Poor Person Exceeds The Cost To The Middle Income Person 48. The Most Likely Economic Effects Of The Legalization Of Marijuana Are A. An Increase In Both Supply And Demand B. A Fall In The Price Of Marijuana C. An Increase In Marijuana Use D. An Increase In The Quality Of Marijuana E. All Of The Above Questions 49 - 53 Refer To The Graph Below. 49. Which Of The Following Shifts Best Represents The Likely Effect Of Legalizing Marijuana? A. D1 To D2 B. D2 To D1 C. S2 To S1 D. D1 To D2 And S1 To S2 E. D2 To D1 And S1 To S2 50. If The Market For Marijuana Changes From Illegal To Legal, Supply Will A. Increase B. Decrease C. Shift To The Left D. Not Be Affected E. Become Steeper 51. Curves D1 And S1 Represent The Market For Marijuana If It Is Illegal. Legalization Of Marijuana Will Cause Equilibrium Price And Quantity To Change To A. P1 And Q2 B. P2 And Q1 C. P3 And Q4 D. P4 And Q3 E. None Of The Above 52. If The Market For Marijuana Changes From Legal To Illegal, Demand Will A. Increase B. Decrease C. Shift To The Right D. Not Be Affected E. Become Steeper 53. In Addition To The Change In Supply, Demand, Price, And Quantity, Legalization Of Marijuana Would Have Which Of The Following Effects? A. Improved Quality B. Less Criminal Activity C. A Decrease In Resources Needed For Crime Prevention D. All Of The Above E. None Of The Above Questions 54 - 58 Refer To The Graph Below. 54. Which Of The Following Shifts Best Represents The Likely Effect Of Prohibition On The Market For Beer? A. D1 To D2 B. D2 To D1 C. S2 To S1 D. D1 To D2 And S1 To S2 E. D2 To D1 And S2 To S1 55. With Prohibition, Supply In The Market For Beer Will A. Increase B. Decrease C. Shift To The Right D. Not Be Affected E. Become Flatter 56. With Prohibition, Demand In The Market For Beer Will A. Increase B. Decrease C. Shift To The Right D. Not Be Affected E. Become Flatter 57. Curves D2 And S2 Represent The Market For Beer If It Is Legal. Prohibition Will Cause Equilibrium Price And Quantity To Change To A. P1 And Q2 B. P2 And Q1 C. P3 And Q4 D. P4 And Q3 E. None Of The Above 58. In Addition To The Change In Supply, Demand, Price, And Quantity Of Beer, Prohibition Would Have Which Of The Following Effects? A. Improved Quality B. Less Criminal Activity C. A Decrease In Resources Needed For Crime Prevention D. All Of The Above E. None Of The Above 59. Which Of The Following Would Not Result From The Legalization Of Marijuana? A. A Fall In The Price Of Marijuana B. An Increase In The Quality Of Marijuana C. A Significant Increase In The Supply Of Marijuana D. A Significant Increase In The Demand For Marijuana E. A Decrease In The Supply Of Marijuana 60. People Choose To Participate In Criminal Activities Because A. Their Implicit Costs Are Low B. They Have A Strong, Unrestrained Emotion C. The Probability Of Getting Caught Is Low D. The Potential Return Is High E. All Of The Above 61. Economics Explains The Decision To Participate In Criminal Activities Most Often In The Case Of A. Violent Crimes B. Crimes Of Passion C. Murder D. Trafficking In Illegal Substances E. Vandalism 62. If You Are Willing To Take A Pay Cut To Live Near A Ski Resort, The Ski Resort Provides You With A. Free Ski Lessons B. Psychic Benefits C. Opportunities For Advancement D. Marginal Social Benefits E. Marginal Social Costs 63. If Income From The Sale Of Illegal Goods Exceeds The Production Costs Of The Goods, Which Of The Following Is ? A. The Criminal Earns A Profit B. Crime "Pays" C. Revenue Plus Psychic Income Exceeds All Costs D. Income More Than Covers Explicit, Implicit, And Psychic Costs E. All Of The Above 64. Which Of The Following Is An Explicit Cost Of An Illegal Marijuana Growing Operation? The Cost Of A. Land B. Electricity C. Fertilizer And Pesticides D. Labor E. All Of The Above 65. Which Of The Following Is An Implicit Cost Of An Illegal Marijuana Growing Operation? A. Foregone Income Due To Time Spent Managing The Operation B. Lost Time If The Manager Is Caught C. Lost Liberty If The Manager Is Jailed D. The Value Of The Time Spent Avoiding Detection E. All Of The Above 66. Which Of The Following Does Not Go Into The Calculation Of The Implicit Cost Of A Marijuana Growing Operation? A. The Probability Of Getting Caught B. The Severity Of Potential Jail Sentences C. The Time It Takes To Tend The Crop D. Payments For Fertilizer And Pesticides E. None Of The Above (They All Go Into The Calculation Of Implicit Costs) 67. Which Of The Following Decreases A Person's Implicit Cost Of Engaging In The Illegal Production Of Marijuana? A. Concern About Social Standing B. Unemployment C. An Intense Fear Of Incarceration D. A High Probability Of Getting Caught E. All Of The Above 68. When An Individual Incurs Costs In The Form Of Negative Personal Satisfaction, The Costs Are A. Opportunity Costs B. Implicit Costs C. Psychic Costs D. Psychic Income E. Externalities 69. Which Of The Following Increases The Chances That A Person Will Engage In Criminal Activity? A. A High Perceived Probability Of Getting Caught B. A Low Potential Pay-Off From The Crime C. The Ability To Restrain Emotions D. A Low Opportunity Cost E. None Of The Above 70. When An Individual Receives Benefits From A Business Endeavor In The Form Of Personal Satisfaction, The Benefits Are Known As A. Opportunity Costs B. Implicit Costs C. Psychic Costs D. Psychic Income E. Externalities 71. Which Of The Following Will Increase The Implicit Costs Of Committing A Crime? A. Decreased Crime Prevention Expenditures B. Decreased Probability Of Getting Caught C. Improved Job Opportunities D. More Lenient Sentencing E. Less Severe Penalties 72. Which Of The Following Could Explain Why Criminals Commit Crimes That Are Punished By The Death Penalty? A. They Perceive That The Probability Of Getting Caught Is Zero B. The Crime Is A "Crime Of Passion." C. Their Opportunity Cost Is Zero D. The Benefit Of The Crime Is Infinite E. All Of The Above 73. Which Of The Following Policies Could Increase The Cost Of Committing Crimes? A. Job Training Programs B. Increased Employment Opportunities C. Higher Crime Prevention Budgets D. More Severe Penalties E. All Of The Above 74. Some People Give Up High-Paying City Jobs To Live Much Simpler, Rural Lives. Which Of The Following Is A Sound Economic Explanation For This? A. The Very High Psychic Income They Receive From The Simple Way Of Life B. The Lower Cost Of Living In The Country C. The Fear Of Crime In The City D. The Fact That Rural Jobs Are Easier E. None Of The Above 75. Job Training Programs, Remedial Education Courses, And Recreational Activities Might Lead To Reduced Crime Rates In Depressed Areas By A. Providing Jobs To Instructors And Counselors B. Increasing The Opportunity Costs Of Committing Crimes C. Improving The Public's View Of Their Community D. Providing Psychic Income To Organizers E. None Of The Above 76. An Example Of A Semi-Private Good Would Be A. Measles Inoculation Programs B. A Neighborhood Crime Watch Group C. Talking On A Cell Phone During The Screening Of A Movie D. All Of The Above Are Semi-Private Goods E. None Of The Choices Are Semi-Private Goods 77. Consumer Ratings Of Products Online, Like The Zagat's Restaurant Guide And Epinions Can Be Considered Examples Of A. Private Goods B. Public Goods C. Semi-Private Goods D. Experience Goods E. Worthless, Since You Don't Know Who Is Doing The Reviewing 78. Economists Think That You Can Analyze Why Individuals Commit Crimes Because A. Criminals Are Always Trying To Obtain Monetary Gains B. Criminals Weigh The Costs And Benefits Associated With The Costs Of Committing A Crime C. Crime Has Costs To Society D. All Of The Above E. It Is Not Possible To Analyze The Commission Of Crimes Using Economic Analysis True / False Questions 79. Murder Is Both Illegal And Immoral. 80. Current Reports On Crime Are Concerned Solely With The Number Of Crimes Committed And Not With Dollar Estimates Of Their Cost. 81. The Criminality Of Specific Acts Can Be Ascertained By Evaluating Their Morality Or Immorality. 82. Vandalism Is A Violent Crime. 83. Violent Crimes Are Crimes Against Persons. 84. Crime Prevention Is A Public Good And Is Subject To The Free-Rider Problem. 85. The Free-Rider Problem Occurs When People Cannot Be Excluded From The Benefits Of A Public Good Even Though They Do Not Help Pay For Production Of It. 86. Government Can Effectively Remedy The Free-Rider Problem By Taxing All Who Receive Benefits Of A Public Good. 87. Automobiles Can Be Considered Semiprivate Goods, Since They Produce Positive Externalities. 88. Semi-Private Goods And Services Yield Identifiable Benefits To The One Who Consumes Them, But Their Consumption By One Person Yields Spillover Benefits To Other Persons. 89. Thanks To The Data-Collecting Activities Of The U.S. Department Of Justice, We Now Have Very Good Estimates Of The Costs Of Crime. 90. Society's Standards Of Social Values Are An Important Determinant Of The Level Of Criminal Activity. 91. Laws Prohibiting Abortions Rest On Moral Grounds Rather Than Economic Grounds. 92. Group Projects Can Suffer From A Free-Rider Problem. 93. A Polio Vaccine Is An Example Of A Good That Is Semi-Private. 94. Public Goods Include Things Like Concerts And Theater Performances. 95. Free-Riders Can Be Useful In Group Work Situations Because They Cause The Work To Be Completed By Those Members Of The Group Who Are Best At The Assigned Tasks. 96. From The Viewpoint Of A Society As A Whole, Theft Represents A Transfer Of Income To Thieves From Victims Of Theft. 97. If The Correct Amount Has Been Budgeted For Crime Prevention Activities, The Last Dollar Spent Should Yield Approximately One Dollar's Worth Of Additional Benefits. 98. Crime Prevention Activities Should, If Effective, Raise Gdp Above The Level That It Would Be In Their Absence. 99. The Economic Cost Of Crime Prevention Is The Value Of The Goods And Services That Could Have Been Produced Using Resources Put Into Crime Prevention. 100. Marginal Social Benefits Are The Positive Social Spillovers In Consumption That Result From The Consumption Of Public Goods. 101. The Costs Of Being Apprehended And Convicted Of A Crime Are Less For Those Living In Poverty Than For Those From Middle And Upper Income Groups. 102. The Ultimate Economic Goal Of Crime Prevention Is Complete Suppression Of Crime. 103. More Criminal Justice Expenditures Should Be Made For Detection And Apprehension Of Criminals. 104. Crime Prevention Activities Should Be Expanded To The Point At Which Their Marginal Social Benefit Is Equal To Their Marginal Social Costs. 105. In The United States, The Federal Government Spends More For Corrections Than State And Local Governments. 106. Crime Prevention Is An Example Of A "Free" Good Since It Raises Gdp Above The Level That It Would Be In The Absence Of Prevention. 107. The Equimarginal Principle May Be Applied Effectively Any Time A Fixed Budget Must Be Allocated Among Competing Uses. 108. The Equimarginal Principle Is Satisfied When We Spend The Same Amount Of Money On The Police, Courts, And Prisons. 109. Trafficking In Illegal Goods And Services Adds To The Well-Being Of Consumers. 110. If Abortion Is Made Illegal, Demand And Supply Will Fall. 111. The Economic Effects Of Prohibition Of Alcoholic Beverages Include A Decrease In Supply, An Increase In Price, And A Decrease In Quality. 112. The Legalization Of Marijuana Would Be Unlikely To Greatly Increase The Demand For The Good. 113. Trafficking In Illegal Goods And Services Necessarily Reduces The Economic Welfare Of A Society. 114. A Budget Is Allocated Efficiently When All Functions Within The Budget Receive The Same Amount Of Funding. 115. The Demand For Abortions Would Fall Significantly If The Service Were Made Illegal. 116. Psychic Income Refers To The Satisfaction Received From Attending Cultural Events Like Special Showings At An Art Gallery. 117. The Total Revenue From A Business Includes The Money Income The Business Takes In And Any Psychic Income The Owners Receive. 118. If The Likelihood Of Being Caught Committing A Crime Is Low, The Severity Of The Penalty Is Of Little Importance To Potential Criminals. 119. The Legalization Of Marijuana Would Cause A Big Increase In The Demand For The Drug. 120. The Legalization Of Marijuana Would Lead To A Significant Increase In The Quality Of The Drug Available On The Streets. 121. Making Abortion Services Illegal Would Lead To A Large Decrease In The Demand For The Service. 122. Recreational Activities For Youths In Depressed Areas Might Help Reduce Criminal Activities By Increasing The Opportunity Cost Of Committing Crimes. 123. The Value Of Property Damage From A Crime Is An Implicit Cost Of The Crime. 124. The Negative Personal Satisfaction Received Because You Have To Drive A Different Car Than You Would Otherwise Choose Because It Is Harder To Steal Is An Example Of A Psychic Cost Of Crime. 125. If You Love Your Job, You Are Receiving Psychic Income. 126. The Opportunity Cost Of A Doctor Who Spends One-Half Hour Performing An Abortion Might Be The $2,000 He Could Earn During The Same Amount Of Time Performing An Appendectomy. 127. People Are More Likely To Commit Crimes If They Perceive The Probability Of Getting Caught Is Low. 128. The Opportunity Cost Of Jail Time Is What You Could Have Done Had You Not Been In Jail. ECO 405 Week 5 Quiz Solution Chapter 06 The Economics Of Education: Crisis And Reform Multiple Choice Questions 1. According To The Census Bureau, High School Graduates Can Expect To Earn How Much During Their Working Years? A. $45,000 B. $1.2 M C. $2.1 M D. $2.5 M E. $4.4 M 2. According To The Census Bureau, A College Education Adds How Much To Earnings Over A Person's Work-Life? A. Nearly $1m B. $2.1 M C. $2.5m D. $4.4 M E. Over $5 M 3. According To The Census Bureau, Someone With A Professional Degree Can Earn Approximately How Much During A Typical Work-Life? A. $1 M B. $1.2 M C. $2.5 M D. $4.4 M E. Over $5m 4. Where Did U.S. Eighth Grade Students Rank Internationally In Terms Of Average Math Scores In 2007? A. At The Top B. Second C. Near The Middle D. Next To The Bottom E. At The Bottom 5. Where Did U.S. Eighth Grade Students Rank Internationally In Terms Of Average Science Scores In 2007? A. At The Top B. Second C. In The Middle D. In The Bottom Half E. At Bottom 6. Which Of The Following Is An Important Difference Between The United States And Other Countries In Terms Of Their K-12 Education System? A. The United States Spends Less On Education Per Pupil Than Most Other Countries B. The United States Spends A Higher Percentage Of Its Gdp On Education Than Other Countries C. The United States Has A Shorter School Year Than Most Other Countries D. The United States Has A Purely Private Market For Education E. All Of The Above 7. About How Much Does The United States Spend On Education, Per Pupil? A. $6,000 B. $7,000 C. $8,000 D. $9,000 E. $10,000 8. Approximately What Percent Of Its Gdp Does The United States Spend On Education? A. 2.0 B. 3.0 C. 3.9 D. 4.2 E. 5.3 9. Which Of The Following Best Describes The U.S. K-12 Educational System? A. It Is Largely Private B. It Is Mainly Private With Some Public Education C. It Is About Half Public And Half Private D. It Is Predominantly Public E. It Is Exclusively Public   10. Which Of The Following Is Of The U.S. K-12 Education System Relative To The K-12 Education System Of Other Developed Countries? A. It Has Lower Expenditures Per Pupil And Lower Achievement B. It Has Lower Expenditures Per Pupil And Higher Achievement C. It Has Higher Expenditures Per Pupil And Lower Achievement D. It Has Higher Expenditures Per Pupil And Higher Achievement E. It Has Equivalent Expenditures Per Pupil And Achievement 11. In 2003, Approximately What Percent Of School Aged Children Attended Public Schools? A. 90% B. 75% C. 50% D. 25% E. 10% Questions 12 - 17 Refer To The Graph Below. 12. What Assumption Is Shown By The Fact That Mpc = Msc On The Graph? A. This Graph Is For Public Education B. There Are No Positive Externalities Associated With Education C. Education Has Positive Spillover Benefits For Society D. The Market Will Produce The Socially Optimal Quantity Of Education E. This Graph Illustrates A Private Market For Education 13. What Is This Family's Willingness To Pay For A First Year Of Education? A. $0 B. $4,000 C. $6,000 D. $8,000 E. $10,000 14. What Is The Equilibrium Level Of Education In This Market? A. 0 Years B. 1 Year C. 12 Years D. 16 Years E. Between 12 And 16 Years 15. What Tuition Would Result In The Family Demanding 16 Years Of Education? A. $0 B. Less Than $4,000 C. $4,000 D. $6,000 E. $10,000 16. Which Of The Following Is For The First Years Of Education? A. Mpb < Mpc B. Mpb > Mpc
C. Msb > Msc
D. Msb < Msc E. Mpb = Msb   17. Which Of The Following Is For The 16th Year Of Education? A. Mpb < Mpc B. Mpb > Mpc
C. Msb > Msc
D. Msb < Msc E. Mpb = Msb Questions 18 - 23 Refer To The Graph Below. 18. For Which Level Of Education Is The Family's Mpb > Mpc?
A. 1 Year
B. Between 0 And E1 Years
C. Between E1 And E* Years
D. Exactly E1 Years
E. Exactly E* Years

19. The Negative Slope Of The Demand Curve Shows That
A. The Marginal Cost Of Education Increases As More Is Purchased
B. The Marginal Benefit Of Education Increases As More Is Purchased
C. The Marginal Benefit Of Each Additional Year Of Education Decreases
D. There Are Positive Spillover Benefits Of Education
E. Tuition Can Be Raised Above T1 Dollars


20. The Socially Optimal Level Of Education
A. Is 0 Years
B. Is 1 Year
C. Is E1 Years
D. Is E* Years.
E. Cannot Be Determined From The Diagram.

21. For Which Year Of Education Is The Family’s Mpb < Mpc? A. 0 Years B. 1 Year C. E1 Years D. E* Years E. None Of The Above 22. The Slope Of The Supply Curve Indicates That The A. Marginal Cost Of A Year Of Education Is Constant B. Marginal Benefit Of An Additional Year Of Education Increases C. Marginal Benefit Of An Additional Year Of Education Is Constant D. Marginal Benefit Of An Additional Year Of Education Increases E. Cost Of Education Is Subsidized By The Public 23. In The Diagram, The Equilibrium Level Of Education Is A. 0 Years B. 1 Year C. E1 Years D. E* Years E. Between E1 And E* Years 24. What Happens To The Marginal Benefit Of Education As A Child Gets More Schooling? It Will A. Increase B. Decrease C. Stay The Same D. Become Infinite E. Become Negative 25. Which Of The Following Is A Benefit Of Increased Education? A. Improved Literacy B. Increased Earnings C. Improved Health D. Greater Satisfaction E. All Of The Above 26. A Family's Demand For Education For A Child Reflects The Family's A. Income B. Preferences For Education C. Mpb Received From The Education D. Opportunity Cost Of Tuition E. All Of The Above 27. Which Of The Following Happens As Tuition Increases? A. The Demand For Education Increases B. The Demand For Education Decreases C. The Supply Of Education Increases D. The Years Of Education Demanded Fall E. The Cost Of Education Increases 28. The Supply Of Private Education Is Represented By A. The Mpb Curve B. The Mpc Curve C. The Msc Curve D. The Msb Curve E. None Of The Above 29. An Increase In The Demand For Education Will A. Increase The Supply Of Education B. Decrease The Equilibrium Tuition C. Decrease The Equilibrium Quantity Of Education D. Increase The Equilibrium Quantity Of Education E. Shift The Demand Curve For Education To The Left 30. A Decrease In The Cost Of Education Will A. Increase The Supply Of Education B. Increase The Equilibrium Tuition C. Decrease The Equilibrium Quantity Of Education D. Increase The Equilibrium Quantity Of Education E. Shift The Demand Curve For Education To The Left 31. Which Of The Following Will Decrease The Equilibrium Quantity Of Education In A Market? A. An Increase In The Demand For Education B. A Decrease In The Demand For Education C. A Decrease In Production Costs D. An Increase In The Supply Of Education E. None Of The Above 32. An Increase In Family Income Will A. Increase The Demand For Education B. Decrease The Demand For Education C. Increase The Quantity Of Education Supplied D. Increase The Quantity Of Education Demanded E. Decrease The Equilibrium Level Of Tuition 33. An Increase In The Marginal Benefit Of Education Will Cause Which Of The Following? A. The Demand Curve For Education Shifts Right B. The Demand Curve For Education Shifts Left C. The Supply Curve For Education Shifts Right D. The Supply Curve For Education Shifts Left E. The Equilibrium Number Of Years Of Education Will Decrease 34. The Creation Of New Learning Technologies Will Cause Which Of The Following To Decrease? A. The Demand For Education B. The Supply Of Education C. The Cost Of Education D. The Equilibrium Quantity Of Education E. The Number Of Children In School   35. If The Earnings Expected From A College Education Increase, It Will Lead To An Increase In A. The Demand For K-12 Education B. The Supply Of K-12 Education C. The Cost Of Education D. The Teacher Salaries E. All Of The Above 36. Education Is Said To Be Which Of The Following? A. Individually Consumed B. Individually Produced C. A Semi-Private Good D. A Private Good E. A Public Good 37. I Benefit Because You Become More Educated. This Is An Example Of A A. Negative Externality In Consumption B. Spillover Cost C. Positive Externality In Production D. Positive Externality In Consumption E. Negative Externality In Production 38. As The Number Of Years Of Education Increases, The Spillover Benefits Will A. Increase B. Decrease C. Stay The Same D. Become Negative E. None Of The Above 39. Which Of The Following Is An Example Of A Possible Spillover Benefit From Education? A. An Improved Democratic Process B. Improved Health C. Improved Public Safety D. More Charitable Giving E. All Of The Above 40. Students Learn About Health And Nutrition In School. This Provides A A. Positive Externality In Production B. Positive Externality In Consumption C. Negative Externality In Production D. Negative Externality In Consumption E. Cost To Society 41. Marginal Social Benefits Equal A. Mpb + Spillover Benefits B. Mpb - Spillover Benefits C. Mpcs D. Total Benefits + Positive Externalities In Consumption E. None Of The Above 42. With Positive Externalities In Consumption, The Market Equilibrium Quantity Will Be A. Greater Than Socially Optimal B. Less Than Socially Optimal C. Equal To The Socially Optimal Level D. Higher Than Otherwise E. None Of The Above 43. Educated Citizens Are More Likely To Be Informed Voters. This Is An Example Of A A. Positive Externality In Production B. Positive Externality In Consumption C. Negative Externality In Production D. Negative Externality In Consumption E. Cost To Society. 44. To Be Socially Optimal, Education Should Be Provided To The Point Where A. Mpb = Mpc B. Mpb = Msc C. Msb = Mpc D. Msb = Msc E. Mpb = Msb   45. The Existence Of Spillover Benefits Results In An Equilibrium Quantity In The Market That Is Socially Optimal. A. Higher Than B. Lower Than C. Equal To D. Better Than E. More Expansive Than 46. The Argument For Government Provision Of Education Hinges On The Existence Of A. Spillover Costs. B. Spillover Benefits. C. Voucher Programs. D. Negative Externalities In Production. E. Negative Externalities In Consumption Questions 47 - 50 Refer To The Graph Below. 47. The Socially Optimal Years Of Education Is A. 1 B. Between 1 And 11 C. 11 D. 12 E. 16 48. What Is The Equilibrium Number Of Years Of Education The Market Will Provide? A. 0 B. 1 C. 11 D. 12 E. 16 49. Which Of The Following Government Actions Will Move The Market Equilibrium To The Socially Optimal Number Of Years Of Education? A. A Tax On Education Equal To $1,000 B. A Tax On Education Equal To $3,000 C. A Tuition Subsidy Equal To $1,000 D. A Tuition Subsidy Equal To $3,000 E. Government Provision Of All Education 50. A Tuition Subsidy Of $6,000 Would Lead To A. The Socially Optimal Quantity Of Education B. Greater Than The Socially Optimal Quantity Of Education C. Less Than The Socially Optimal Quantity Of Education D. More Public Education E. A Budget Surplus Questions 51 - 54 Refer To The Graph Below. 51. The Socially Optimal Level Of Education Is A. 0 B. Between 0 And E1 C. E1 D. E2 E. E3 52. The Market Equilibrium Level Of Education Is A. 0 B. Between 0 And E1 C. E1 D. E2 E. E3 53. A Tuition Subsidy Equal To How Much Will Move The Market To The Socially Optimal Level Of Education? A. T3 - T2 B. T2 - T1 C. T3 - T1 D. T1 E. T2 54. A Tuition Subsidy Equal To T3 Would Result In Which Of The Following? A. The Socially Optimal Quantity Of Education B. Greater Than The Socially Optimal Quantity Of Education C. Less Than The Socially Optimal Quantity Of Education D. More Public Education E. A Budget Surplus 55. Greater Segregation Along Racial Lines Is A Likely Result Of A. Purely Private K-12 Education B. No Public K-12 Education C. Voucher Programs D. Tuition Subsidies E. All Of The Above 56. A Purely Private K-12 System Will Lead To A. Lower Private Costs B. Increased Public Costs C. Decreased Racial Segregation D. Increased Inequality E. Greater Social Benefits 57. In A Purely Private K-12 Education System, Spaces Would Be Allocated Based On A. Ability B. Equity C. Income D. Geographic Boundaries E. None Of The Above 58. In The Existing Public K-12 Education System, Spaces Are Allocated Based On A. Ability B. Equity C. Income D. Geographic Boundaries E. None Of The Above 59. A Program To Provide Public Funding For Students In Poor Performing Public Schools To Attend Other Schools Is Known As A. A Voucher Program B. A Charter School C. A Tuition Tax D. A Welfare Program E. Privatization 60. The Current K-12 Education System Can Be Described As A. Private B. Centralized C. Decentralized D. State Owned E. None Of The Above 61. Centralized Planning Leads To Which Of The Following? A. Limited Consumer Choice B. Decreased Quality C. Increased Prices D. Lack Of Responsiveness E. All Of The Above 62. Schools In Which Parents Or Other Groups Were Permitted To Create A New School With State Funding And Were Given Control Over Operations Are Known As A. Private Schools B. Voucher Schools C. Magnet Schools D. Experimental Schools E. Charter Schools 63. The Empirical Evidence Of The Effectiveness Of Voucher Programs Is Best Described As A. Positive B. Negative C. Inconsistent D. Substantial E. Nonexistent 64. Which Of The Following Is An Argument Against Voucher Programs? A. Cream Skimming B. Reduced Social Segregation C. Decreased Efficiency D. Increased Special Education E. All Of The Above 65. The Cream Skimming Argument Says That The Students Who Choose A Voucher Program Will Be A. Higher Income B. Lower Income C. Higher Achieving D. Non-Minority E. None Of The Above 66. Poor Students Are Less Likely To Participate In Voucher Programs Because Of A. Less Information B. Higher Transportation Costs C. Fewer Financial Resources D. A Weaker Tradition Of Education E. All Of The Above 67. Private School Cost Per Pupil Is Lower Because Of A. Fund Raising B. Private Contributions C. Student Fees D. Volunteer Labor E. All Of The Above 68. What Is The Relationship Between School Funding And Student Achievement? A. Positive B. Negative C. Mixed D. Unrelated E. Inverse 69. What Is The Relationship Between Student Achievement And Teacher Pay? A. Positive B. Negative C. Mixed D. Unrelated E. Inverse 70. What Is The Relationship Between Teacher Pay And A Shortage Of Teachers? A. Positive B. Negative C. Mixed D. Unrelated E. Direct 71. Public Schools Must Pay For Which Of The Following Expenses That Private Schools Do Not? A. Transportation B. Food C. Special Education D. All Of The Above E. None Of The Above 72. A Reduction In Class Size Should Be Undertaken As Long As The Marginal Benefit Of The Decrease Is A. Positive B. Negative C. Greater Than The Marginal Cost D. Less Than The Marginal Cost E. Increasing 73. Decreasing Average Class Size Without Changing Teacher Pay Leads To A. Lower Quality Teachers B. A Surplus Of Teachers C. Lower Costs Per Pupil D. Increased Segregation E. All Of The Above 74. Which Of The Following Statements Does Not Enjoy Widespread Agreement? A. Achievement Per Dollar In U.S. Education Is Too Low B. Reform Of The U.S. Education System Is Necessary To Maintain High Level Human Capital C. Smaller Class Sizes Can Improve Student Performance D. Voucher Programs Are The Most Effective Way To Improve The U.S. Education System E. Increased Teacher Pay Increases Teacher Quality 75. Education Could Be Considered A Semi-Private Good, Since A. There Are Spillover Benefits To Other Members Of Society Resulting From The Education Of A Child B. Education Of The Population Improves Everyone's Lives Since It Results In Greater Productivity And Income For All Members Of Society C. There Are Benefits To Society From Education, Since It Reduces The Crime Rate D. Education Produces Positive Externalities To Society E. All Of The Above 76. If Government Wishes To Increase The Quantity Of Higher Education Consumed, What Can Be Done To Accomplish This? A. Charge Tuition That Is Below The Full Costs Of Providing The Educational Services B. Operate Public Colleges C. Provide Reduced Tuition To Students D. Any Of The Above Alternatives Would Increase The Consumption Of Education E. The Government Should Not Attempt To Increase Education, Since It Is A Private Good 77. Studies Of Voucher Programs Indicate That The Effects Of Vouchers On Student Achievement A. Are Small But Have Negative Impact On Student Performance B. Are Received Primarily By African-American And Economically Disadvantaged Children C. Have Yet To Be Examined In Large-Scale Programs D. Both B And C E. None Of The Above 78. Research On The Effects Of Charter Schools Show A. There Are Significantly Positive Impacts On Student Performance B. There Are Significantly Negative Impacts On Student Performance C. There Are Mixed Results, With Positive Impacts In Some Schools And Negative In Others D. Research Has Yet To Be Undertaken On These New Types Of Schools E. None Of The Above True / False Questions 79. A College Education Does Not Improve Earnings Over A High School Degree. 80. A Master's Degree Increases Lifetime Earnings Over A Bachelor's Degree By $2.5m Over High School Graduates. 81. More Education Will Increase The Revenue A Worker Adds To A Firm. 82. Improved Education Will Lead To Higher Economic Growth In A Country. 83. American High School Graduates Outperform All Other Countries On Math And Science Exams. 84. The Length Of The School Year In The United States Is Longer Than In Most Other Developed Countries. 85. The United States Spends Over $8,000 Per Pupil On Secondary Education. 86. The United States Is Toward The Middle Of Countries In Rankings Of Percent Of Gdp Per Capita Spent On Education. 87. Ninety Percent Of School-Aged Children Attend Public Schools In The United States. 88. There Are Approximately 50 Million School-Aged Children In The United States. 89. The Marginal Benefit Of Education Increases As A Student Completes More Years Of Education. 90. More Education Leads To Improved Decision-Making In Families. 91. The Move From Illiteracy To Literacy Has High Marginal Benefits. 92. A Family's Demand For Education Comes From Its Marginal Private Benefits. 93. The Demand Curve For Education Has A Positive Slope. 94. Lower Tuition Rates Lead To Less Education. 95. Without Public Schools, There Would Be No K-12 Education. 96. Without Market Provision Of Education, There Is No Mechanism For Quality Control. 97. A Family Will Purchase Private Education As Long As The Mpb > Mpc.

98. Increased Income Will Increase The Demand For Education.

99. New Learning Technologies Will Increase The Cost Of Providing K-12 Education.

100. Everyone Agrees That Education Provides Significant Positive Spillover Benefits.

101. Years Of Education Completed Are Negatively Related To Criminal Activities.

102. The Greatest Positive Externalities Accrue In The Early Years Of K-12 Education.

103. Msb Of Education = Mpb + Positive Externalities.

104. If There Are Positive Externalities From Education, The Market Will Not Produce The Socially Optimal Level Of Education.

105. The Government Can Increase The Equilibrium Quantity Of Education In A Market Through Tuition Subsidies.

106. A Significant Positive Externality Of Education Would Support The Argument Against Public Education.

107. Public K-12 Education Facilitates Equal Opportunity.

108. A Purely Private K-12 Education System Would Increase Existing Segregation.

109. Markets Ration Education Based On A Price/Quality Trade-Off.

110. Public Schools Ration Education Based On A Price/Quality Tradeoff.

111. Voucher Programs Fund Students To Attend Poor Performing Schools.

112. Charter Schools Are Privately Funded And Community Controlled.

113. High-Income Students And Their Families Are More Likely To Benefit From Voucher Programs.

114. Voucher Programs Have Been Accused Of “Cream Skimming.”

115. The Costs Of Private Schools Are Greater Than Their Tuition.

116. Private Schools Must Pay Some Types Of Costs That Public Schools Do Not.

117. Economists Agree That Voucher Programs Improve K-12 Education.

118. Smaller Class Size Increases Student Achievement.

119. Higher Teacher Salaries Do Not Change Student Achievement.

120. The Achievement Of Low-Income Students Improves More With Smaller Class Sizes, Relative To Higher Income Students.

121. Smaller Class Size Is Always Cost-Effective.

122. Increased School Funding Increases Student Achievement.

123. Increasing Teachers’ Salaries Does Not Affect Student Achievement.

124. The Opportunity Cost Of Becoming A Teacher Is The Salary Of Similarly Trained Professionals.

125. Increased Spending On K-12 Education Is Certain To Be Cost-Effective.

126. The United States’ K-12 Education System Has An Efficient Level Of Achievement Per Dollar Spent.

127. Increased Competition In K-12 Education Can Lead To An Improved Education System.

128. Targeting Increased Funding To Programs For Disadvantaged Children Is The Most Cost-Effective.

ECO 405 Week 6 Quiz Solution

Chapter 07

Poverty And Discrimination: Why Are So Many Still So Poor?

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The Government’s Method Of Calculating The Official Poverty Rate
A. Does Not Take Into Account Differences In The Cost Of Living In Different Parts Of The Country
B. Does Not Account For The Value Of In-Kind Benefits Received By Poor Families
C. Is Based On Pre-Tax Household Income
D. Does All Of The Above
E. Does None Of The Above

2. The Incidence Of Poverty Is Highest Among
A. Black Families
B. Families Headed By A Female
C. Young Families
D. White Families
E. Small Families

3. The Percentage Of The U.S. Population Living In Poverty
A. Shows A Long-Term Increase
B. Is Holding Steady Over The Long Run
C. Is Not A Serious Economic Problem
D. Decreased Significantly In The Past Decade
E. Fluctuates Dramatically From Year To Year

4. The Official U.S. Poverty Definition Is An Income Sufficient To Provide
A. Minimum Biological Needs
B. Three Times The Cost Of An Economy Food Budget
C. The Income Of The Poorest 8% Of The Families
D. The Average U.S. Welfare Allowance
E. None Of The Above

5. How Is The Official “Poverty Threshold” Calculated?
A. Determine The Minimum Income Necessary For A Family To Purchase Clothing And Shelter, And Then Multiply By Three
B. Determine The Minimum Income Necessary For A Family To Live At A “Subsistence Level” In A Rural Community
C. Determine The Amount Of Income Necessary For A Family To Live On Without Becoming Eligible For Food Stamps
D. Determine The Minimum Income Necessary For A Family To Purchase An Adequate Diet, And Then Multiply By Three
E. None Of The Above

6. Which Of The Following Demographic Groups Historically Has The Highest Incidence Of Poverty?
A. White, Married Couples With No Children Living At Home
B. Black Families, Headed By A Male Income Earner, With Children Living At Home
C. Female Headed Black Families With Children Living At Home
D. Hispanic Families In Rural Areas With Children Living At Home
E. White, Female Headed Families In Urban Areas With No Children Living At Home

7. Critics Have Argued That The Official Definition Of Poverty Should
A. Account For Differences In The Cost Of Living In Different Regions Of The Country
B. Be Revised To Reflect The Fact That The Average Family Now Spends Less Than A Third Of Its Income On Food
C. Make Allowances For In-Kind Benefits Received By Poor Families
D. Be Based On A Family’s After-Tax Income
E. All Of The Above

8. The Incidence Of Poverty Falls Most Heavily On
A. Families With A Young Person As Head
B. Families With A Female As Head
C. Minority Groups
D. Children
E. All Of The Above

9. Most Poor People Are Poor Because They
A. Are Lazy
B. Are Exploited
C. Own Resources That Are Not Worth Much
D. Are Old
E. Are All Of The Above

10. Poverty In The Us Occurs As A Result Of
A. Inadequate Gdp
B. A Shortage Of Resources
C. The Occurrence Of Wars And Natural Disasters
D. Unequal Distribution Of Income
E. None Of The Above

11. Since 1960, Income Inequality Has
A. Stayed The Same
B. Fallen, Then Risen
C. Steadily Declined
D. Steadily Increased
E. Decreased Rapidly

12. The Distribution Of Income Among Persons Is Determined By
A. The Distribution Of Resource Ownership
B. The Prices Paid For Resources Of Different Kinds In Different Employments
C. Government Income-Support Programs
D. Both (A) And (B).
E. All Of The Above

13. Which Of The Following Statements Is Concerning Income Equality?
A. The Share Of Income Received By The Top 5% Remained Declined Between 1960 And 2000
B. The Share Of Income Received By The Top 5% Increased By About 20% Between 1960 And 2000
C. The Share Of Income Received By The Lower 20% Of Families Increased Significantly Between 1960 And 2000
D. The United States Has Achieved Income Inequality
E. None Of The Above

14. The Official “Poverty Threshold” Used By The U.S. Government Is Based On A(N) ______________ Definition Of Poverty.
A. Relative
B. Comparative
C. Absolute
D. Abstract
E. Economic

15. A Number Of Reasons Have Been Given To Explain Increasing Income Inequality In The Us Over The Last Few Decades. One Of These Is
A. The Decline Of The Us Manufacturing Sector
B. The Growth Of Unionization Through The Us
C. Increases In Tax Rates On The Wealthy
D. Improvements In Productivity
E. The Use Of Computers In The Workplace

16. The Ownership Of Capital Resources Varies Widely Among Individuals. Which Of The Following Is Not A Reason For This Variation?
A. Ethnic Background
B. Inheritance
C. Motivation To Accumulate
D. Luck
E. All Of The Above

17. Which Of The Following Best Describes The Trend In The Share Of Income Received By The Lowest 20% Of Families In The United States? The Lowest 20% Of Families Receive
A. 15% Of The Income, And Their Share Has Been Rising Since Wwii
B. 25% Of The Income, And Their Share Has Been Falling Since The 1960s
C. Less Than 5% Of The Income, And Their Share Has Been Slowly Declining Since The 1970s
D. A Share Of Income Approximately Equal To That Received By The Top 20% Of Families, And Their Share Has Remained Stable Since The 1960s
E. 10% Of The Income, But Their Share Has Been Falling Since Wwii

18. Skill Levels Vary Among Individuals Because Of
A. Differences In Location
B. Differences In Education And Training
C. The Industry The Person Works In
D. The Capital Labor Ratio In The Economy
E. All Of The Above

19. Why Might An Individual’s Labor Resource Holdings Differ?
A. Mental Talents Are Not Equally Distributed Among People
B. Physical Talents Are Not Equally Distributed Among People
C. People Have Different Preferences For Income And Leisure
D. Skill Levels Vary Among Individuals
E. All Of The Above

20. The Income Of A Person Depends On
A. The Price Of Labor Owned
B. The Quantity Of Labor Owned
C. The Quantity Of Capital Owned
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

21. Which Of The Following Results In Differences In Labor Resource Ownership?
A. Preferences For Work And Leisure
B. Propensities To Accumulate
C. Skill Levels
D. Both (A) And (C)
E. All Of The Above

22. Which Of The Following Factors Contribute To Differences In Labor Resource Ownership Between People?
A. Unequal Mental And Physical Genetic Inheritances
B. Differences In Skills Due To Human Capital Investments
C. Differences In Attitudes Toward Working
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

23. Which Of The Following Could Reduce Poverty?
A. Eliminating Discrimination In Educational Policies
B. Increasing The Productivity Of Poor Workers
C. A Negative Income Tax Structure
D. Education And Training Programs For The Poor
E. All Of The Above

24. A Government Transfer Payment Is A Payment
A. Made To Transfer Workers Form One Area To Another
B. To A Person Not In Return For Goods Or Services
C. Made To A Person Who Works For The Government
D. For Roads Built By The Government
E. Made To Move Troops From One Combat Area To Another

25. An Advantage Of The Negative Income Tax Proposal Is That
A. It Would Allow For The Free Exercise Of Consumer Choice
B. A Family’s Size Would Be The Fundamental Criterion Of Eligibility
C. It Would Be Favored By Middle-Income Groups
D. Inequalities In Present Antipoverty Programs Would Be Eliminated By Concentrating Transfer Payments On The Poor
E. None Of The Above

26. Under A Negative Income Tax, Government Payments To A Family
A. Are Positive At All Levels Of Income
B. Increase As Income Increases
C. Decrease To Zero As Income Decreases
D. Eventually Become Zero As Income Increases
E. Do None Of The Above

27. One Of The Problems In Paying Subsidies To The Poor Is That
A. It May Reduce Incentives To Work
B. The Poor Will Not Spend It On The Right Things
C. It Will Cause Inflation
D. It Will Require A Cutback In The Farm Price Support Programs
E. It Will Do None Of The Above

28. An Advantage Of Replacing All Income-Support Programs With A Negative Income Tax Is That
A. It Discourages Low-Income Workers From Working More
B. Households With Income Above The Poverty Threshold Pay Positive Taxes
C. It Is More Difficult To Administer Than Other Antipoverty Programs
D. Households Lose Benefits When They Choose To Work
E. All Of The Above

29. Under A Negative Income Tax,
A. Only The Poor Would Receive Negative Taxes
B. We Would Experience A Loss In Efficiency Relative To The Current Public Assistance Programs
C. The Recipients Of Government Subsidies Are Encouraged To Earn Income
D. Both (A) And (C)
E. All Of The Above

30. Families Are Not Eligible For The Earned Income Tax Credit (Eitc) Program When
A. Household Income Is Greater Than $34,700
B. No One In The Household Works
C. The Household Has No Children
D. The Household Receives Food Stamps
E. The Household Owns Its Own Home

31. The Supplemental Social Insurance (Ssi) Program Is Not Available To
A. Households With Children
B. Elderly Households
C. The Blind And Other Disabled Individuals
D. Households Comprised Of Illegal Residents
E. It Is Available To All Of The Households Listed Above

32. Which Of The Following Statements Is Concerning The Earned Income Tax Credit (Eitc)?
A. The Eitc Is A Non-Refundable Credit That Can Be Claimed By Poor Families With Children
B. The Eitc Lifts Many People Out Of Poverty, But It Does Not Change Official Poverty Rates
C. The Eitc Is A Negative Income Tax Scheme
D. The Eitc Was Introduced As Part Of The Welfare Reform Measures Enacted During The Mid-1990s
E. None Of The Above


33. Medicare, Medicaid, And Food Stamps Are Examples Of Programs That Provide
A. “In-Kind” Assistance To The Poor
B. Guaranteed Levels Of Income For The Poor
C. Training And Job Experience For The Poor
D. Income Transfers From The Poor To Business Firms
E. Non-Economic Support Of The Poor

34. Most Federal Assistance To The Poor Is In The Form Of
A. Cash Payments
B. Provision Of Health Services
C. Personnel Programs
D. Training Programs
E. Housing Programs

35. Under The Jtpa, The Federal Government Gave Money To States For Programs That Provided
A. Guaranteed Income Support For The Poor
B. Employment Training For Disadvantaged Workers
C. “In-Kind” Assistance Such As Food Stamps And Health Care For The Poor
D. Guaranteed Child Care Facilities For Poor Working Mothers
E. College Scholarships For Children From Impoverished Households

36. In 1996, The Personal Responsibility And Work Opportunity Act Established Which Of The Following Programs?
A. Food Stamps
B. Medicaid And Medicare
C. Aid To Families With Dependent Children (Afdc)
D. Temporary Assistance For Needy Families (Tanf)
E. Supplemental Security Income (Ssi)


37. Which Of The Following Effects Creates An Incentive For Poor Workers To Reduce Their Hours Of Work When They Receive Cash Assistance?
A. Income
B. Substitution
C. Lorenz
D. Supply
E. Welfare

38. The Record-Breaking Economic Expansion In The 1990s
A. Reduced Significantly The Incidence Of Poverty
B. Increased Incidence Of Poverty
C. Did Not Alter Significantly The Incidence Of Poverty
D. Led To A Change In How Poverty Is Calculated
E. Did None Of The Above

39. Income Support Programs Have
A. Had No Effect In Alleviating The Problem Of Poverty
B. Provided A Minimum Level Of Income To Millions Of People
C. Been Completely Unsuccessful
D. Actually Led To Increased Poverty
E. Done None Of The Above

40. Which Of The Following Statements Concerning The Earned Income Tax Credit (Eitc) Is ?
A. The Eitc Has Significantly Reduced Official Poverty Rates In The U.S. Since Enacted In 1975
B. If A Family’s Tax Liability Is Less Than Its Eitc, The Family Will Receive A Check For The Difference From The Irs
C. The Eitc Is Eventually Phased Out As Family Income Increases
D. More Than 20 Million American Households Now Claim The Eitc On Tax Returns Each Year
E. None Of The Above


41. Critics Have Claimed That The Eitc
A. Creates An Incentive For Families To Have Fewer Children
B. Causes Poor Families With Children To Pay More In Taxes Than Poor Families Without Children
C. Creates A Disincentive To Work For Those Who Find Themselves In The Phase-Out Range Of Income Eligibility
D. Distorts The Economic Incentives For Poor Families To Work Their Way Out Of Poverty
E. Does None Of The Above

42. Unlike The Old Afdc Program Of Income Support, Tanf Requires Recipients To
A. Be Physically Unable To Work Or Go To School
B. Be Retired
C. Be Women With Children Living At Home
D. Work
E. Be Blind Or Disabled

43. Which Of The Following Statements About The New Welfare System Is ?
A. Recipients Have No Time Limits On How Long They Can Receive Income Support
B. In General, Non-Citizens Do Not Qualify For Most Public Support Programs
C. Single Mothers Must Help Officials Identify The Fathers Of Their Dependent Children
D. Time Limits Are Imposed On The Receipt Of Food Stamps
E. States Determine If Tanf Recipients Qualify For Medicaid Assistance

44. According To Recent Studies, Which Of The Following Programs Is Most Likely To Pull The Average Poor Family Above The Official Poverty Threshold?
A. Earned Income Tax Credit (Eitc)
B. Temporary Assistance For Needy Families (Tanf)
C. Supplemental Security Income
D. Aid To Families With Dependent Children (Afdc)
E. The Job Training Partnership Act (Jtpa)


45. Which Of The Following Describes The Earned Income Tax Credit (Eitc)?
A. All Poor Families With Children Are Eligible For A Non-Refundable Tax Credit Based On The Number Of Children Living At Home
B. Poor Families With Two Or More Children Are Eligible For A Refundable Tax Credit If Household Income Is Less Than Some Predetermined Threshold. Beyond The Threshold, The Credit Is Gradually Phased Out
C. Poor Families Without Children Receive A Non-Refundable Tax Credit If Household Income Is Less Than Some Predetermined Threshold. Beyond The Threshold, The Credit Is Gradually Phased Out
D. Poor Families With Household Income Below A Predetermined Threshold Receive A Refundable Tax Credit Equal To A Guaranteed Minimum Income. Above That Threshold, All Households Must Pay Taxes
E. None Of The Above

46. Which Of The Following Problems Arise From The Earned Income Tax Credit (Eitc)?
A. In The Phase-Out Range Of Income, Workers May Experience A Disincentive To Work
B. The Eitc May Cause Some Households To Falsely Claim The Refundable Credit
C. It Is Too Complicated And Cumbersome
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

47. Suppose A Male And Female Teacher Have The Same Education And Experience, But The Female Is Paid More For Teaching The Same Course. This Would Indicate That
A. The Female Must Be More Productive
B. The Female Works Harder Than The Male
C. The Employer Is Male
D. The Employer Is Female
E. Discrimination May Exist


48. Ending Discrimination Against Minority Groups In Educational Processes And In Employment Situations Would Cause Gdp To
A. Fall Because Of The Increased Costs Of Training
B. Fall Since Trained Minority Workers Would Knock Some Of The Present Workers Out Of Their Jobs
C. Rise Because Of An Increase In The Quality And Productivity Of The Labor Force
D. Rise Because Minority Groups Would Consume More Goods And Services
E. Do None Of The Above

49. Discrimination Occurs
A. When Everyone Is Treated Arbitrarily
B. When Equals Are Treated Equally And When Unequals Are Treated Unequally
C. When Equals Are Treated Unequally And When Unequals Are Treated Equally
D. Whenever Two Workers In The Same Occupation Are Paid Different Wages
E. Only In Social Situations, Not In Economic Markets

50. Median Earnings Of Year-Round, Full-Time Women Workers Are Considerably Less Than Those For Men Because Women Have
A. Lower Productivity In Jobs
B. Higher Absence Rates
C. Less Permanent Attachment To Jobs
D. A Different Distribution Among Various Occupations
E. None Of The Above

51. From The Point Of View Of Economics, Discrimination
A. Results In An Actual Gdp That Is Below Potential Gdp
B. Results In An Actual Gdp That Is No Different From Potential Gdp Provided Resources Are Fully Employed
C. No Longer Exists In The U.S. Economy
D. Provides Incentives For Minority Groups To Work Harder At Their Jobs
E. Does None Of The Above


52. In The Past, Women Were Usually Taught Early In Life To Believe Their Economic Role Was Unimportant. The Effect Of This Was To
A. Freeze The Wages Of Women
B. Reduce The Mobility Of Women
C. Segregate Women To Certain Occupations
D. Enhance The Productivity Of Males
E. Do All Of The Above

53. Discrimination Is Indicated When
A. Whites Are Paid More Than Blacks
B. People Having Equal Productivity Receive Unequal Pay
C. Incomes Differ Between Males And Females
D. People Are Treated Differently On The Basis Of Individual Merit
E. Older Workers Are Paid More Than Younger Workers

54. Discrimination Occurs Because
A. Some People Have The Power To Discriminate
B. People Are Just Not Aware Of It
C. People Have The Desire To Discriminate
D. All Of The Above
E. Only (A) And (C)

55. Which Of The Following Does Not Exhibit A High Degree Of Occupational Segregation?
A. Professional Tennis Players
B. Plumbers
C. Secretaries
D. Teachers
E. Nurses


56. Spending On Education, Training, And Health Are Examples Of
A. Nonmarket Discrimination
B. Investments In Human Capital
C. Welfare
D. Transfer Payments
E. None Of The Above

57. Discrimination Means That
A. Equals Are Treated Unequally
B. Unequals Are Treated Unequally
C. Equals Are Treated Equally
D. Individuals Are Treated Differently
E. All Of The Above

58. Major Sources Of Discrimination Include
A. Competitive Markets
B. Low Wages
C. Labor Mobility
D. Scarce Labor Market Information
E. All Of The Above

59. Discrimination May Be Reduced By
A. Government Subsidies
B. Investment In Human Capital
C. Vigorous Enforcement Of Antimonopoly Laws
D. Education Related To Tastes For Discrimination
E. All Of The Above


60. Suppose That Group Z Workers Earn Only 75% Of What Group A Workers Earn. Discrimination Is
A. Equal To 25%
B. Equal To The Portion Of The Gap Created By Differences In Personal Characteristics
C. Equal To The Portion Of The Gap That Cannot Be Explained By Productivity Differences Between The Groups
D. Readily Apparent Between The Two Groups
E. Subject To A Variety Of Different Economic Measurements

61. The Major Piece Of Legislation That Makes It Illegal To Discriminate In The Labor Market On The Basis Of Race, Gender, Or Religion Is The
A. Anti-Discrimination In Employment Act (Adea)
B. Civil Rights Act Of 1964
C. Affirmative Action Act
D. Sherman Anti-Trust Act
E. Equal Employment Opportunity Act

62. What Is The Primary Source Of An Individual’s Taste For Discrimination?
A. Monopoly Power
B. The Law Of Diminishing Returns
C. Personal Prejudice
D. Market Imperfections
E. None Of The Above

63. Which Of The Following Is Charged With Enforcing The Federal Government’s Anti-Discrimination Laws?
A. The Ofcc
B. The Bureau Of Labor Statistics
C. The U.S. Department Of Justice
D. The Eeoc
E. The U.S. Senate


64. The Civil Rights Act Of 1964 Protects Workers From Discrimination Based On All The Following Characteristics Except One? Which One?
A. Race
B. Color
C. Gender
D. Religion
E. Age

65. Which Of The Following Minority Groups Is Not Covered By The Civil Rights Act Of 1964?
A. Black Workers
B. Female Workers
C. Older Workers
D. Jewish Workers
E. None Of The Above – All Of These Groups Are Covered

66. Which Of The Following Factors Contributes To Wage Differentials In Our Economy?
A. Workers Exhibit Different Degrees Of Experience And Skill
B. Some Workers Are More Productive Than Others
C. The Level Of Demand Varies Across Markets For Different Products
D. Prices Of Different Products Vary Tremendously In A Market Economy
E. All Of The Above

Questions 67- 71 Refer To The Information Given Below.
Suppose The Government Implements A Negative Income Tax Plan To Deal With The Poverty Problem. The Negative Income Tax Rate Is Set At 50%, And The Break-Even Level Of Income Is Set At $5,000.

67. The Guaranteed Annual Income Level Assured Each Family, Regardless Of The Amount Of Income Earned By The Family Is
A. $0
B. $1,500
C. $2,500
D. $5,000
E. $7,500

68. If A Family Earns $2,000 Income, Their Negative Income Tax Subsidy Will Be
A. $0
B. $1,500
C. $2,500
D. $5,000
E. $7,500

69. If The Negative Income Tax Rate Were Reduced From 50% To 40% While The Guaranteed Income Level Is Held Constant, The Cost Of The Plan Would
A. Increase
B. Decrease By More Than 10%
C. Decrease By 10%
D. Not Change
E. Not Be Able To Be Determined

70. If A Family Earns $5,000 Income, Their Negative Income Tax Subsidy Will Be
A. $0
B. $1,500
C. $2,500
D. $5,000
E. $7,500

71. If A Family Earns $3,000 Income, Their Disposable Income Is
A. $3,000
B. $4,000
C. $5,000
D. $6,000
E. $8,000

True / False Questions

72. The Incidence Of Poverty As It Is Officially Defined In The United States Is High Among Rural People And Southern People.

73. A Problem Arising From Transferring Income To The Poor Is That It May Reduce Their Incentive To Work.

74. Within The Next Three Years, The Elimination Of Poverty, As Currently Defined By The U.S. Department Of Labor, Is Possible In All Countries If The Rich Countries Help Out The Poor Ones.

75. The Earned Income Tax Credit (Eitc) Lifts Millions Of People Out Of Poverty Each Year.

76. The Earned Income Tax Credit (Eitc) Results In A Reduction In The Official Number Of People Living Below The Poverty Threshold.

77. The Social Security System Makes Payments To Individuals Over 65 Years Of Age, On The Basis Of Need.

78. The Unequal Distribution Of Income In The United States Is Due To An Unequal Distribution Of Resource Ownership.

79. In A Private Enterprise System A Sound Comprehensive Antipoverty Program Must Include Measures To Increase The Productivity Of The Poor.

80. Transfers Of Income To The Poor Sufficient To Eliminate Poverty Are Not Possible In The United States Without Substantially Decreasing The Well-Being Of All Taxpayers.

81. A Government Transfer Payment Is A Payment For Which No Goods Or Services Are Rendered By The Person Receiving It.

82. Poverty Is More Widespread Among Black Families Than Among White Families.

83. The Poverty Problem In The United States Is Essentially An Income Distribution Problem.

84. An Individual’s Income Depends Upon The Prices And Quantities Of Resources Owned.

85. Most Government Transfer Payments Go To Families That Live In Poverty.

86. Costs To Taxpayers Of A Negative Income Tax Plan Vary Inversely With The Guaranteed Level Of Income And Directly With The Income Tax Rate On Earned Income.

87. The Incidence Of Poverty Is Highest Among Minority Groups, The Young, The Aged, And The Uneducated.

88. Family Income In The United States Has Become More Equal Over The Last Forty Years.

89. The Negative Income Tax Proposal Calls For Families With Earned Incomes Below A Certain Minimum To Receive Payments From The Government, While Families With Earned Income Above The Minimum Make Payments To The Government.

90. Income Support Programs Designed To Alleviate Poverty Have Mitigated The Economic Hardship Of Low-Income Families And Individuals.

91. The Official Poverty Level For A Family Of Four Is Defined As The Cost Of The Family’s Food Budget Times Three.

92. The Poverty Problem In This Country Is Mainly One Of Low Production.

93. The Distribution Of Income Depends Upon The Distribution Of Resource Ownership And The Prices Paid For Resources In Different Kinds Of Employment.

94. Income Tax Cuts In The 1980’s And In The Early 2000’s Had No Impact On The Distribution Of Income.


95. The Aim Of Job Creation Programs Is To Increase The Number Of Jobs For The Poor And Disadvantaged In Private Industry And Government.

96. Jtpa Stands For The Job Training Partnership Act.

97. The Primary Objectives Of The Food Stamp Program Are To Improve The Diets Of Low-Income Families And To Increase The Demand For Food Products.

98. The Poverty Level Of Income Is Defined As Being Five Times The Minimum Food Budget For An Urban Family Of Four.

99. Some Workers Receive Higher Incomes Because They Have Greater Physical Strength, Have Greater Training Or Are Working In Industries Where The Value Of The Product Produced Is Greater.

100. The Poverty Problem In The United States Is Essentially A Problem Of Laziness.

101. The Eitc Is A Refundable Tax Credit Administered By The Irs.


102. During The Last Few Decades, The Income Shares Of The Low, Middle, And High Income Groups Have Changed Significantly.

103. In 1996, The Personal Responsibility And Work Opportunity Act Replaced The Old Afdc Program With The Tanf Program.

104. Through The Income Effect, Any Form Of Cash Assistance Will Generate Negative Incentives To Work.

105. No Work Requirement Is Placed On Those Who Receive Tanf Income Support Payments.

106. The Welfare Reform Measures Of The Mid-1990s Eliminated The Time Limits For Receipt Of Food Stamps By Poor Families.

107. Under The Tanf Program, Most Welfare Recipients Are Required To Work After Two Years Of Assistance.

108. The Income Effect Creates An Incentive For Welfare Recipients To Increase Their Earnings Through Extra Work.


109. In Most Cases, New Immigrants And Illegal Aliens Are No Longer Eligible To Receive Welfare Benefits.

110. The Welfare Reform Measures Of The Mid-1990s Created A Negative Income Tax Structure In The U.S. To Assist The Poor.

111. The Welfare Reforms Enacted In 1996 Places A Maximum Time Limit On The Number Of Years That A Welfare Recipient May Receive Income Support.

112. Relative Poverty Will Always Exist In A Market-Based Economy.

113. Even Though The Earned Income Tax Credit (Eitc) Incorporates Some Of The Features Of A Negative Tax Structure, It Is Not A Pure Negative Income Tax.

114. The Official Poverty Statistics For The U.S. Do Not Take Into Account The Differences In The Cost Of Living In Different Regions Of The Country.

115. The Primary Source Of An Individual’s Desire To Discriminate Is Personal Prejudice.


116. Discrimination Means That Equals Are Treated Unequally Or That Unequals Are Treated Equally.

117. Discrimination Exists In A Labor Market When Persons With Different Productivity Levels Are Paid Different Wages.

118. Differences In The Wages And Incomes Received By Males And Females Are Sufficient Evidence That Discrimination Exists.

119. Discrimination Is Present In The Cases Of Southern Textile Workers Being Paid Less Than Their Northern Counterparts.

120. Discrimination Exists When Two People Perform A Job Equally Well In A Factory And Receive Different Hourly Pay Because Of Seniority Considerations.

121. Employment Discrimination Means That Some Persons Are Not Hired Because Of Non-Economic Considerations Such As Race And Sex.

ECO 405 Week 7 Quiz Solution

Chapter 08

The Economics Of Monopoly Power: Can Markets Be Controlled?

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Imperfect Competition Can Best Be Described As A Situation In Which
A. A Few Large Firms Produce And Sell A Particular Product
B. Many Firms Produce And Sell A Product
C. Only One Firm Produces And Sells A Product
D. Firms Exercise Some Monopoly Power
E. Both (A) And (D)

2. The Monopoly Power Of A Firm Can Be Measured By The Firm’s
A. Profits Relative To Other Firms In The Industry
B. Control Over The Demand For Its Product
C. Revenues As A Percent Of Industry Revenues
D. Prices Compared To Average Prices In The Industry
E. Control Over The Market Supply Of Its Product

3. Which Of The Following Is Likely To Have The Most Monopoly Power?
A. Ford Motor Corporation
B. Your Local Water Company
C. Mobil Oil Corporation
D. Avon Products (Cosmetics)
E. A Fast Food Restaurant

4. Concentration Ratios Are Used To Measure The
A. Potential Monopoly Power Within An Industry
B. Strength Of The Demand For An Industry’s Product
C. Potential Monopoly Power Of A Firm
D. Degree Of Competition Between Firms In Different Markets
E. Level Of Perfection In A Competitive Market

5. Suppose The U.S. Auto Industry Sells 1,000 Autos Per Year. Of This, Gm Sells 400, Ford 300, And Dodge 250. Given This Information, The Four-Firm Concentration Ratio Of The Industry Must Be At Least
A. 95%
B. 5%
C. 50%
D. 100%
E. Cannot Tell Without Further Information

Questions 06 – 08 Refer To The Table Below.

6. The 4-Firm Concentration Ratio In This Industry Is
A. 0.5
B. 0.6
C. 0.7
D. 0.8
E. 0.9

7. The 6-Firm Concentration Ratio In This Industry Is
A. 0.6
B. 0.7
C. 0.8
D. 0.9
E. 1.0

8. Assume That No Firm In This Industry Accounts For Less Than 5% Of Industry Sales. What Is The Largest Number Of Firms That Could Be In This Industry?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10

9. Which Of The Following Would Cause An Industry’s Concentration Ratio To Make It Appear Less Competitive Than It Really Is?
A. Firms In The Industry Are Located In One Area Of The Country
B. Transporting The Industry’s Output Is Very Easy
C. Foreign Firms Export The Industry’s Product To The United States
D. High Barriers To Entry
E. All Of The Above

10. A Pure Monopoly Industry Has A 4-Firm Concentration Ratio Equal To
A. 0
B. 0.25
C. 050
D. 0.9
E. 1.0

11. To Maximize Profits, A Monopolist Produces The Output Level At Which
A. Its Total Receipts Are Greatest
B. Its Total Costs Are Minimum
C. Its Marginal Cost Equals Its Marginal Revenue
D. Its Total Costs Equal Its Total Receipts
E. None Of The Above

12. To Maximize Profits, A Competitive Firm Produces The Output Level At Which
A. Its Total Receipts Are Greatest
B. Its Total Costs Are Minimum
C. Its Marginal Cost Equals Its Marginal Revenue
D. Its Total Costs Equal Its Total Receipts
E. None Of The Above

13. One Difference Between A Competitive Seller And A Monopolistic Seller Is That The
A. Competitive Firm Faces A Horizontal Supply Curve
B. Monopolist Tries To Maximize Profit
C. Monopolist Has Some Price Setting Ability
D. Competitive Firm Is Free To Vary Output
E. Market Demand Curve Is Positively Sloped For A Monopoly

14. Monopoly Refers To
A. A Large Firm
B. A Firm That Is One Of A Few Firms In An Industry
C. A Single Seller Of A Product For Which There Are No Good Substitutes
D. A Firm That Refuses To Lower Its Price
E. All Of The Above

15. In A Competitive Market, The Single Firm
A. Competes With Other Firms For Its Share Of The Market
B. Is Unable To Raise The Price Of The Product
C. Can Increase Its Sales By Advertising
D. Can Increase Its Sales By Lowering Its Price
E. Is All Of The Above

16. A Major Objective Of Firms In All Types Of Market Structures Is
A. Output Restriction
B. Output Maximization
C. To Raise Prices
D. Profit Maximization
E. To Maximize Revenues

17. A Firm’s Total Revenue Equals Its
A. Income Minus Expenses
B. Pre-Tax Net Income
C. Income For Tax Purposes
D. Quantity Times Price
E. Quantity Times Costs

18. Profit Equals
A. Total Revenue Minus Total Cost
B. Marginal Revenue Minus Marginal Cost
C. Quantity Times Price
D. Marginal Cost Minus Marginal Revenue
E. Income Minus Opportunity Cost

19. Profits And Losses In A Private Enterprise Economic System
A. Contribute Toward A Breakdown Of The System
B. Lead To A Monopolization Of The Industries In Which They Occur
C. Show Where Productive Capacity Should Be Expanded And Where It Should Be Contracted
D. Do All Of The Above
E. Do Both (A) And (B)

20. For A Firm, At The Output Level At Which Marginal Revenue Equals Marginal Cost,
A. Profits Are Highest
B. There Is Neither Unemployment Nor Inflation
C. Output Is Maximized
D. Revenues Are Maximized
E. Costs Are Minimized

21. The Most Common Forms Of Nonprice Competition Are
A. Profit Maximization And Loss Minimization
B. Monopolization And Output Restriction
C. Advertising And Changes In Product Quality And Design
D. Inflation And Unemployment
E. None Of The Above

Questions 22-26 Refer To The Following Graph. For Each Question, Disregard Any Irrelevant Lines.

22. Suppose The Market Is Competitive. Equilibrium Market Price And Output Will Be
A. P1, X2
B. P2, X3
C. P3, X1
D. P1, X4
E. P3, X2

23. Now Suppose The Same Market Is Monopolized. Equilibrium Market Price And Output Would Be
A. P3, X1
B. P3, X2
C. P2, X3
D. P1, X2
E. P1, X4

24. The Area Of The Triangle Abc Reflects The
A. Dead-Weight Welfare Loss Due To Monopoly
B. Increase In Production Costs Due To Monopoly
C. Increase Price To The Consumer Due To Monopoly
D. Impact Of Barriers To Entry On The Market
E. Effect Of Monopoly On Income Distribution

25. If This Industry Changes From Pure Competition To Monopoly, Output Changes From
A. X4 To X1
B. X4 To X2
C. X2 To X4
D. X3 To X2
E. X2 To X3

26. If This Industry Changes From Pure Competition To Monopoly, Price Changes From
A. P3 To P2
B. B. P3 To P1
C. C. P2 To P1
D. D. P1 To P3
E. E. P2 To P3

27. If The Demand Curve Faced By A Firm Is Downward Sloping And The Market Price Of The Product Is Above Marginal Cost Of Production, Which Of The Following Is Correct?
A. Not Enough Of The Economy’s Resources Are Being Allocated To Producing The Good
B. Too Much Of The Economy’s Resources Are Being Allocated To Producing The Good
C. The Firm Is In A Competitive Market
D. The Firm Is Making Profits
E. The Firm Is Losing Money

28. A Monopoly Is Not Efficient Because
A. Price Exceeds Marginal Cost
B. Entry Into The Market Is Blocked
C. Output Is Too Large
D. Monopoly Is Illegal
E. Price Is Too Low

29. The Dead-Weight Welfare Loss Due To Monopoly Is
A. Too Small To Be Important
B. About 10% Of Gdp Per Year
C. Unable To Be Determined In A Complex Economy Such As Our Own
D. About 1% Of Gdp Per Year
E. About .01% Of Gdp Per Year

30. The Dead-Weight Welfare Loss Due To Monopoly
A. Results From The Monopolist’s Tendency To Reduce Output Below The Competitive Level
B. Is A Measure Of The Cost To Society From The Monopolistic Misallocation Of Resources
C. Is Estimated To Be About 1% Of Gdp Per Year
D. Is A Loss To Consumers Not Offset By Anyone Else’s Gain
E. All Of The Above

31. Monopolization Of A Previously Competitive Market Leads To
A. Reduced Production And Product Quality And Increased Costs And Prices
B. Increased Production And Higher Prices
C. Increased Production, Product Quality And Prices
D. Government Regulation
E. None Of The Above

32. Patents And Copyright Laws
A. Are Governmental Barriers To Market Entry
B. Encourage Orderly Market Entry
C. Discourage Research And Development
D. Reduce Monopoly Power
E. Do All Of The Above

33. When Firms Earn Profits,
A. They Will Likely Expand
B. New Firms Will Have An Incentive To Enter The Market
C. They Are Providing A Good Or Service That Consumers Want More Of
D. The Market Is Signaling More Firms To Enter
E. All Of The Above

34. In A Competitive Market In The Short Run, Firms
A. May Earn Profits Or Losses
B. Always Break Even
C. Earn Neither Profits Nor Losses
D. Must Be Free To Enter Or Exit The Market
E. Charge A High Price And Produce A Low Quantity

Questions 35 – 39 Refer To The Graph Below, Which Is For A Firm In A Competitive Market.

35. Since This Is A Competitive Market, The Firm’s Marginal Revenue Is
A. $5
B. $7
C. $20
D. $100
E. $150

36. The Profit-Maximizing Price And Quantity For This Competitive Firm Are
A. $5 And 100
B. $5 And 150
C. $7 And 100
D. $7 And 150
E. $7 And More Than 150

37. Equilibrium Price And Quantity In The Market Are
A. $5 And 100
B. $5 And 150
C. $7 And 150
D. $7 And More Than 150
E. None Of The Above

38. The Firm’s Total Revenue Is
A. $5
B. $7
C. $100
D. $150
E. $500

39. If The Firm Has A Total Cost Of $400, It Is Earning A
A. Profit Of $0
B. Profit Of $100
C. Loss Of $100
D. Loss Of $200
E. Loss Of $500

Questions 40 – 44 Refer To The Graph Below, Showing A Monopoly Market.

40. For The Firm Shown On The Graph, Profit Maximization Occurs At What Price And Quantity?
A. $20 And 50
B. $15 And 70
C. $15 And 50
D. $10 And 50
E. $10 And 70

41. At The Profit Maximizing Quantity, The Firm’s Total Revenue Equals
A. $10
B. $15
C. $20
D. $1,000
E. $1,400

42. If The Firm Has Total Costs Of $1,200 At The Profit Maximizing Output, Then It Is Earning A
A. Profit Of $0
B. Profit Of $100
C. Profit Of $200
D. Loss Of $100
E. Loss Of $200

43. If This Were A Perfectly Competitive Market, Equilibrium Price And Quantity Would Be
A. $20 And 50
B. $15 And 70
C. $15 And 50
D. $10 And 50
E. $10 And 70

44. Monopolization Of This Market Leads To A Deadweight Loss Equal To
A. $0
B. $50
C. $100
D. $150
E. Cannot Be Determined

45. If A Firm Sells 100 Units Of Output At A Price Of $5 And Each Unit Costs $3 To Produce, The Firm Is Earning A
A. Profit Of $200
B. Loss Of $2 Per Unit
C. Loss Of $200
D. Profit Of $500
E. Loss Of $300

46. Which Of The Following Is Of A Firm’s Total Costs? They
A. Do Not Include Opportunity Costs
B. Become Lower As More Is Produced
C. Are Greater Than Total Revenue When The Firm Is Earning A Profit
D. Are Equal To The Cost Per Unit Times The Number Of Units Produced
E. All Of The Above

47. If A Firm Sells 100 Units Of Output At A Price Of $5 And Each Unit Costs $3 To Produce, The Firm’s Total Revenue Equals
A. $3
B. $5
C. $200
D. $300
E. $500

48. A Perfectly Competitive Firm’s Supply Curve Is Its
A. Demand Curve
B. Marginal Revenue Curve
C. Total Revenue Curve
D. Marginal Cost Curve
E. Total Cost Curve

49. The Supply Curve For A Monopoly
A. Is Its Marginal Revenue Curve
B. Is Its Total Revenue Curve
C. Is Its Marginal Cost Curve
D. Is Its Total Cost Curve
E. Does Not Exist

50. The Demand Curve For A
A. Monopoly Firm Is Downward Sloping
B. Monopoly Industry Is Downward Sloping
C. Perfectly Competitive Firm Is Horizontal
D. Perfectly Competitive Industry Is Downward Sloping
E. All Of The Above

51. If A Firm Sells 100 Units At A Price Of $5 And Each Unit Costs $3 To Produce, Its Total Cost Equals
A. $3
B. $5
C. $200
D. $300
E. $500

Questions 52 – 56 Refer To The Graph Below.

52. If This Industry Is Perfectly Competitive, Equilibrium Price And Output In The Market Will Be
A. $16 And 10
B. $12 And 10
C. $12 And 14
D. $8 And 14
E. $8 And 10

53. If This Industry Is A Monopoly, Equilibrium Price And Output In The Market Will Be
A. $16 And 10
B. $12 And 10
C. $12 And 14
D. $8 And 14
E. $8 And 10

54. If This Industry Starts As Perfectly Competitive And Then Becomes A Monopoly, Market Price Will Change From
A. $16 To $12
B. $16 To $8
C. $12 To $8
D. $8 To $16
E. $12 To $16

55. If This Industry Starts As Perfectly Competitive And Then Becomes A Monopoly, The Deadweight Loss To Society Is Equal To Area
A. Abc
B. Adc
C. Bdec
D. Adec
E. None Of The Above

56. Society’s Net Benefits Are Maximized When Price And Quantity In The Market Are
A. $16 And 10
B. $12 And 10
C. $12 And 14
D. $8 And 14
E. $8 And 10

57. Which Of The Following Is A Private Barrier To Entry?
A. An Occupational License
B. A Patent
C. Ownership Of Raw Materials
D. A Regulatory Commission
E. All Of The Above

58. Which Of The Following Is A Government Barrier To Entry?
A. An Occupational License
B. Ownership Of Raw Materials
C. Product Differentiation
D. Advertising
E. All Of The Above

59. Which Of The Following Is A Barrier To Entry?
A. Import Restrictions
B. Copyright Laws
C. Exclusive Franchises
D. Zoning Ordinances
E. All Of The Above

60. Firms May Advertise Their Products In Order To
A. Create A Barrier To Entry
B. Provide Consumers With Information
C. Increase Demand For Their Product
D. Differentiate Their Product
E. Do All Of The Above

61. A Telephone Is Much More Useful To A Consumer When Other People Also Have Telephones. This Illustrates Which Of The Following Concepts?
A. Economies Of Scale
B. Diseconomies Of Scale
C. Natural Monopoly
D. Network Economies
E. Constant Returns To Scale

62. Which Of The Following Is An Example Of Nonprice Competition?
A. Advertising
B. Changing The Design Of A Product
C. Incorporating New Technology In A Product
D. Improving The Quality Of A Product
E. All Of The Above

63. The Loss To Society Caused By Monopoly Power May Be Greater Than Simply The Losses Associated With Deadweight Losses Because It Also Includes Losses Due To
A. Private Barriers To Entry
B. Government Barriers To Entry
C. Extensive Product Differentiation
D. Occupational Licensing
E. All Of The Above

64. With A Natural Monopoly,
A. The Long-Run Average Cost Curve Of The Firm Declines Over The Range Of Production
B. Government Regulation Ensures That Consumer’s Interests Will Be Served
C. Government Regulation Will Fail
D. There Are No Significant Economies Of Scale In Producing The Good
E. None Of The Above

65. The Government’s Regulation Of Pollution
A. Is Justified Because Of Natural Monopoly
B. Is Justified By Poorly Defined Property Rights
C. Is Justified By Concentration Ratios
D. Is Not Likely To Improve On The Market Outcome
E. Cannot Be Defended On Economic Grounds

66. The Capture Theory Of Regulation Suggests
A. In The Absence Of Regulation, Consumer Welfare Is Often Captured By Firms In The Market
B. The Lost Consumer Welfare Due To Unfair Business Practices Can Be Offset Through Government Regulation
C. When Market Failure Exists, Regulation Is Appropriate
D. The Regulators Of An Industry Are Often “Captured” By The Firms In The Market
E. None Of The Above

67. Which Of The Following Is Likely To Reduce Monopoly Power In The United States The Most?
A. Placing An Absolute Limit On The Total Assets That Any One Company Can Have
B. Removing All Government-Imposed Entry Barriers To Industries And Occupations
C. Placing A Government Ban On Television Advertising
D. Placing A Special Tax On Monopolists’ Outputs
E. None Of The Above

68. Which Of The Following Provides The Strongest Economic Justification For Regulation?
A. Natural Monopoly
B. Excess Consumer Information
C. Shortages And High Prices
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

69. The Best Estimate Of The Dead-Weight Welfare Loss Due To Monopoly Is Biased Downward Because It Does Not Take Into Account
A. Reductions In Product Quality
B. Higher Costs Of Production
C. Decreases In Product Variety
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

Questions 70 – 73 Refer To The Graph Below.

70. At What Level Of Output Does The Firm Experience Economies Of Scale?
A. 0
B. 0 – Q0
C. Q0
D. Above Q0
E. This Firm Does Not Experience Economies Of Scale

71. Increasing Output Beyond Q0 Will Cause The Firm To Experience
A. Economies Of Scale
B. Diseconomies Of Scale
C. Constant Returns To Scale
D. Network Economies
E. Decreasing Total Costs

72. At What Level(S) Of Output Do Reductions In The Average Costs Of Production Cease?
A. 0
B. 0 – Q0
C. Q0
D. Above Q0
E. There Are No Reductions In The Average Costs Of Production

73. It Is Cheaper Per Unit To Produce Higher Quantities When Output Is
A. High
B. Between 0 And Q0
C. Q0
D. Above Q0
E. Decreasing

74. Which Of The Following Is A Negative Consequence Of Allowing Competition In An Industry That Is A Natural Monopoly?
A. Deadweight Welfare Loss
B. Lower Prices
C. Restricted Output
D. Higher Average Costs
E. All Of The Above

75. Which Of The Following Is A Negative Consequence Of Allowing An Unregulated Natural Monopoly?
A. Deadweight Welfare Loss
B. Higher Prices
C. Restricted Output
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

76. Corporations
A. Are Legal Entities Separate From Their Owners
B. Are Owned By Stockholders
C. Finance Their Operations Through Many Small Investors
D. Account For 20% Of All Businesses In The United States
E. All Of The Above

77. Approximately What Percent Of Sales In The United States Are Made By Corporations?
A. 40
B. 50
C. 60
D. 70
E. 90

78. The “Agency Problem” Is Caused By
A. Corporate Managers Pursuing Goals Different From Stockholder’s Goals
B. Stockholders Attempting To Micromanage Corporations
C. Regulatory Agencies Interfering With Corporate Operations
D. Sudden Declines In Stock Prices
E. Over-Investment In New Capital

79. A Guarantee That Allows The Purchase Of Shares Of Stock At A Fixed Price Is A(N)
A. Non-Pecuniary Benefit Of Employment
B. Stock Option
C. Disincentive To Expand A Corporation
D. Illegal Means To Compensate Ceos
E. Stock Split

80. Some Would Argue That One Of The Primary Benefits Of Possessing A Monopoly Is
A. The Chance To Erect Entry Barriers
B. The Opportunity To Live The Quiet Life
C. The Ability To Restrict Output
D. The Chance To Create Deadweight Losses
E. The Ability To Jack Up Prices To Consumers

81. There Is The Possibility That The Sheer Size Of Some Firms—Their “Bigness”—Is A Problem For An Economy Because
A. Big Firms Possess Larger Entry Barriers
B. Bigness Implies That The People Who Run Such Firms Are Unethical
C. Bigger Firms Are More Inefficient
D. The Effects That The Failure Of Large Firms Can Have On The Us Economy
E. The Number Of Shares Of Stock That Are Traded In Large Firms

82. The Us Government In 2008 Did Not Step Into The Market To Bail Out Which Firm?
A. Chrysler
B. General Motors
C. Ford
D. Aig
E. The Government Stepped In To Bail Out All Of These Firms

True / False Questions

83. Firms With Monopoly Power Yield Higher Than Average Returns To Investors.

84. The Monopoly Power Of A Firm In An Imperfectly Competitive Market Is Greater The Larger The Firm’s Output Relative To The Industry Output.

85. The More Sellers There Are In, The Less Control Any One Seller Has Over The Price It Can Charge.

86. Shortages Are Important Evidence That Firms Are Exercising Monopoly Power.

87. A Four-Firm Concentration Ratio Of 0.9 Indicates That The Four Largest Firms In The Industry Control 90% Of The Industry’s Sales.

88. In A Perfectly Competitive Industry The Four-Firm Concentration Ratio Is Close To Zero.

89. Concentration Ratios Provide A Good Measure Of A Firm’s Potential For Exercising Monopoly Power.

90. Ford Motors More Closely Resembles A Monopoly Than Does Your Local Electric Company.

91. Concentration Ratios Tend To Be Biased Downward Because They Do Not Account For International Competition.

92. Profit Maximization As An Objective Of A Firm Is A Logical Extension Of The General Principle That People Prefer More To Less.

93. Sellers In A Competitive Market Must Take Into Account What Buyers Will Do And Those In The Monopolized Market Do Not.

94. Generally Monopolists Will Be More Concerned With Profit Maximization And Competitive Firms Will Be More Concerned With Earning A Fair Rate Of Return On Investment.

95. To Maximize Profits A Firm Tends To Produce An Output Level At Which Its Marginal Revenue Equals Its Marginal Costs.

96. Marginal Revenue For A Monopolist Is Less Than The Price It Charges For Its Product.

97. Marginal Revenue For A Competitive Firm Is Equal To The Price It Charges For Its Product.

98. If Its Marginal Revenue Is Less Than Its Marginal Cost, A Firm Should Reduce Its Output Product.

99. Like Other Demand Curves, The Demand Curve Facing A Competitive Firm Slopes Downward.

100. A Firm That Sells In A Competitive Market Restricts Output And Charges Higher Prices Than It Would If It Were A Monopolist.

101. Profits Serve No Useful Purpose In A Private Enterprise Economy And Should Be Taxed Away By The Government.

102. A Firm In A Competitive Market Has No Price Setting Capability.

103. Some Monopolists Block Entry Into Their Markets Through Their Control Of The Raw Materials Needed To Produce The Product.

104. Licensing Of Barbers Insures That We Will Get Better Haircuts At The Same Prices Or The Same Quality Of Haircuts At Lower Prices.

105. Licensing Of M.D.’S Has Nothing To Do With The Fact That They Are Among The Economy’s Highest Paid Professionals.

106. Changes In The Design And Quality Of A Product Often Results In Greater Consumer Satisfaction From The Product.

107. Monopoly Power In The U.S. Does Not Pose A Significant Economic Problem.

108. Unlike In Competition, The Monopolist Is Driven By A Desire To Maximize Profit.

109. Any Firm, Whether Monopolistic Or Competitive, Must Produce Where Marginal Cost Equals Marginal Revenue In Order To Maximize Profit.

110. The Monopolization Of A Previously Competitive Industry Will Lead To Restricted Production And Higher Prices.

111. Without Barriers To Entry, A High-Profit Monopoly Is Unlikely To Be Able To Maintain Its Monopoly Status.

112. Monopoly Firms Typically Have Lower Costs Than Competitive Firms Because They Receive Bulk-Buying Discounts For Their Inputs.

113. In Addition To Reducing Production And Raising Prices, Monopoly Decreases Product Quality.

114. Monopolies Will Have Higher Production Costs Than Competitive Firms.

115. Monopoly Can Lead To A Perverse Redistribution Of Income If The Owners Of The Monopoly Are Wealthier Than Buyers.

116. Severe Competition In A Market Leads To A Dead Weight Welfare Loss To Society.

117. Extremely Large Firms Cause Dead Weight Loss To Increase.

118. Monopolies In The U.S. Economy Are Estimated To Reduce Gdp By About 1% Per Year.

119. With Natural Monopolies, Consumers May Be Better Off With A Monopoly Than Competition.

120. Market Failure, By Itself, Is Enough To Justify Government Regulation Of Business.

121. Government Regulation Is Appropriate When There Is Market Failure And Regulation Is Cost-Effective.

122. Consumers Rarely Have Complete Information About Products And This Lack Of Information Doesn’t Keep The Market From Maximizing Welfare.

123. The Capture Theory Suggests That Regulators May End Up Working For The Interests Of The Firms Being Regulated Rather Than The Consuming Public.

124. Barriers To Entry Are Often Created By Governments.

125. A Benefit Of Monopoly Is That Costs Are Lower.

126. The Capture Theory Of Regulation Suggests That Government Regulation Of Business Represents An Unfair Attack On Private Firms By Government.

127. Natural Monopolies Are Common In The Modern World Economy.

128. In Their Desire To Achieve The Quiet Life, Monopolists Tend To Allow Costs To Rise Above Competitive Levels.

129. When A Firm’s Average Costs Fall As Output Is Increased, The Firm Is Experiencing Economies Of Scale.

130. When The Value Of A Product To A Consumer Is Enhanced When Others Also Consume The Good, Economies Of Scale Exist.

Chapter 09

The Economics Of Professional Sports: What Is The Real Score?

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Professional Sports Clubs Differ From Most Other Business Firms In Their
A. Organizational Structure And Relationship With Employees
B. Location And Emphasis On The Competitive Spirit
C. Ownership And Profitability
D. Legal Status As Corporations And Limited Tax Liability
E. Ability To Operate In Both The Product And Resource Market

2. In A Product Market,
A. Producers Sell Goods And Services
B. Consumers Buy Goods And Services
C. Final Goods And Services Are Exchanged
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

3. In A Resource Market,
A. Buyers And Sellers Exchange Goods And Services
B. Resourceful Buyers Find Goods That Are Otherwise Unavailable
C. Buyers And Sellers Exchange Factors Of Production
D. Firm Managers Exchange Production Techniques And Ideas
E. Workers Exchange Their Labor For The Firm’s Output

4. Firms That Coordinate Their Actions To Maximize Joint Profits Are Said To Have Formed A(N)
A. Monopsony
B. Cartel
C. Product Market
D. Oligopoly
E. Economic Treaty

5. Which Of The Following Sports Leagues Can Be Considered A Cartel?
A. The National Football League (Nfl)
B. The National Hockey League (Nhl)
C. The National Basketball Association (Nba)
D. (A) And (B)
E. All Of The Above

6. Which Of The Following Is Not Necessary For A Successful Cartel? Members Must
A. Produce Most Of The Industry’s Output
B. Produce A Homogeneous Output
C. Produce Heterogeneous Outputs
D. Be Able To Divide The Market
E. Have A Way To Prevent Cheating

7. Which Of The Following Best Characterizes A Cartel Arrangement?
A. Open Competition
B. Shared Competition
C. Monopsony
D. Shared Monopoly
E. Oligopoly

8. To Maximize Joint Profits, A Cartel Will Set The Market Price And Output Such That
A. Each Firm’s Marginal Revenue Equals Its Marginal Cost
B. The Market’s Marginal Revenue Equals The Market’s Marginal Cost
C. Each Firm’s Demand Schedule Is Equal To The Market Marginal Cost
D. The Market’s Marginal Revenue Is Equal To Each Firm’s Marginal Cost
E. None Of The Above

9. In A Product Market With A Cartel, Prices Will Be _____ And Output Will Be _____ Than In A Competitive Market.
A. Higher; Lower
B. Lower; Higher
C. Higher; Higher
D. Lower; Lower
E. Both Price And Quantity Will Be The Same

10. Which Of The Following Statements Is ?
A. Anti-Trust Laws Make Most Cartels Illegal In The U.S
B. Formation Of A Cartel Ensures That Each Firm Will Earn Greater Profits Than Without A Cartel
C. Cartels Maximize Joint Profits Not Individual Firm Profits
D. Professional Sports Leagues Insure The Stability Of Teams By Cooperating Through Cartel Arrangements
E. Cartels Are Difficult To Maintain When Cheating Is Possible

11. A Resource Market With Only One Buyer Of A Factor Of Production Is Called A(N)
A. Imperfect Monopoly
B. Monopoly
C. Competitive Market
D. Monopsony
E. Cartel

12. A Monopsony Is A Market With Only One
A. Buyer
B. Employer
C. Product
D. All Of The Above
E. A) And B)

13. The Additional Cost Incurred As A Result Of Hiring An Additional Worker Is The Firm’s
A. Total Cost Of Labor
B. Marginal Cost Of Labor
C. Average Cost Of Labor
D. Labor Cost
E. Human Capital Cost Of Labor

14. Which Of The Following Conditions Can Give Rise To A Monopsony Employer?
A. Mobile Workers With Limited Skills
B. Legal Protection From Anti-Trust Laws And A Mobile Workforce
C. Immobile Workers With Highly Specialized Skills
D. A Cartel Agreement That Results In Raising Joint Profits
E. A Merger Between Two Unrelated Firms

15. Why Does A Monopsony’s Marginal Cost Of Labor (Mcl) Curve Lie Above The Market Supply Of Labor Curve? Because The Monopsony
A. Must Raise The Wage It Pays All Employees In Order To Attract And Hire Additional Workers
B. Must Pay Higher Wages To Only The Last Workers Hired In Order To Attract And Hire Additional Workers
C. Faces The Market Demand And Marginal Revenue Curves
D. Must Lower The Wage It Pays All Employees In Order To Maintain Profitability
E. Has Such High Labor Costs Relative To The Supply Of Labor

16. If A Firm’s Workers Add $1,000 To The Firm’s Receipts And Total Wages Equal $500, Then Monopsonistic Profit Equals
A. $500
B. $1,000
C. $1,500
D. $500,000
E. A Number Unable To Be Determined With The Information Given

17. Under Which Of The Following Conditions Will A Monopsony Hire An Additional Worker? When
A. Mcl > Mrp
B. Mcl < Mrp C. Mrp = D D. Mc = Mr E. D > S

18. To Maximize Profit, A Monopsony Will Hire Workers Up To The Point Where
A. Mc = Mr
B. D = S
C. Mcl = Mrp
D. Mcl = P
E. Mr = P

19. A Monopsony Will Hire ______ Workers At A _____ Wage Than An Employer In A Competitive Labor Market.
A. More; Lower
B. More; Higher
C. Fewer; Higher
D. Fewer; Lower
E. The Same Number Of; Higher

20. The Difference Between A Worker’s Contribution To The Firm’s Receipts And The Wage Is
A. Monopsony Profit
B. Monopoly Profit
C. Cartel Profit
D. Economic Profit
E. Marginal Revenue Profit

21. Which Of The Following Releases Professional Athletes From Some Of The Monopsony Powers Of The Sports Leagues?
A. Player Drafts
B. Long-Term Contracts
C. Free Agency
D. Expanded Playing Seasons
E. Minimum Wage Laws

22. Why Does The Average Professional Baseball Player Earn More Than The Average Doctor?
A. The Baseball Player Has A Lower Mcl
B. The Doctor Has A Higher Mrp
C. The Baseball Player Has A Higher Mrp
D. There Are More Professional Baseball Players Than Doctors
E. The Demand For Baseball Is Higher Than The Demand For Medical Care

Questions 23 – 27 Refer To The Graph Below.

23. This Graph Represents The Labor Market For A(N)
A. Monopolist
B. Competitive Firm
C. Product Market Cartel
D. Monopsonist
E. Oligopoly

24. What Wage Will Maximize This Firm’s Economic Profit?
A. W1
B. W2
C. W3
D. W4
E. A Wage Above W4

25. How Many Workers Will This Firm Hire?
A. 0
B. L1
C. L2
D. L3
E. More Than L3

26. If This Labor Market Is Competitive, How Many Workers Will Be Hired?
A. 0
B. L1
C. L2
D. L3
E. More Than L3

27. If This Labor Market Is Competitive, What Wage Will Workers Be Paid?
A. W1
B. W2
C. W3
D. W4
E. A Wage Above W4

Questions 28 – 32 Refer To The Graph Below.

28. This Graph Represents The Labor Market For A(N)
A. Monopolist
B. Competitive Firm
C. Product Market Cartel
D. Monopsonist
E. Oligopoly

29. What Wage Will Maximize This Firm’s Economic Profit?
A. $500
B. $800
C. $1,000
D. Less Than $1,000 But Greater Than $0
E. $0

30. How Many Workers Will This Firm Hire?
A. 0
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15
E. More Than 15

31. If This Labor Market Is Competitive, How Many Workers Will Be Hired?
A. 0
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15
E. More Than 15

32. If This Labor Market Is Competitive, What Wage Will Workers Be Paid?
A. $0
B. $500
C. $800
D. $1,000
E. More Than $1,000

33. A Labor Union
A. Bargains On Behalf Of All Workers
B. Conducts Lock-Outs As A Bargaining Tool
C. Is Concerned With Salaries Rather Than Work Conditions
D. Does All Of The Above
E. Does None Of The Above

34. Which Of The Following Is A Work Stoppage Initiated By Workers?
A. Lockout
B. Strike
C. Mediation
D. Arbitration
E. Monopsony

35. Which Of The Following Is A Work Stoppage Initiated By Management?
A. Lockout
B. Strike
C. Mediation
D. Arbitration
E. Monopsony

36. One Way In Which Professional Sports Leagues Enforce The Monopsonistic Employment Of Players Is Through
A. Free Agency
B. Open Arbitration
C. League Expansion
D. Salary Caps
E. A Talent Agency

37. The Relatively High Salaries Paid To Professional Athletes Reflect
A. Their Contribution To Team Revenue
B. The Exploitation Of Fans
C. Their Contribution To Society’s General Well-Being
D. The Success Of Labor Union Representation
E. The Social Value Of Professional Sports

38. The Average Baseball Player Earns A Salary Greater Than The Average College Professor Because
A. Baseball Players Contribute More To Society’s General Well-Being
B. College Professors Contribute Less To Their Employer’s Revenues Than Baseball Players
C. Colleges Are Better Able To Enforce Their Monopsonistic Market Positions
D. The Market For Baseball Players Is More Competitive
E. Colleges Are Owned By The State

39. If A Worker Adds 20 Units To A Firm’s Total Output, The Output Is Sold For $2 Per Unit, And The Worker Is Paid $100, Then The Worker’s Marginal Revenue Product Is
A. 20
B. 40
C. 60
D. 100
E. 200

40. Which Of The Following Statements Is Not ?
A. Even Though The Essence Of Sports Is Competition, Professional Sports Clubs Cooperate With Each Other In The Marketplace
B. Professional Sports Leagues Are Economic Cartels
C. From An Economic Perspective, The Nfl, Nhl, Nba And Mlb Are Competitive Markets
D. Professional Sports Leagues Have Monopsony Power In The Resource Market
E. Owners Of Professional Sports Clubs Attempt To Maximize Their Joint Profits By Joining Leagues

41. Professional Baseball Enjoys An Exemption From ________ Laws That Make Cartels Illegal In Most Other Industries.
A. Minimum Wage
B. Antitrust
C. Common
D. Labor
E. Anti-Competition

42. A Cartel Is More Likely To Be Successful If
A. Cartel Members Produce Most Of The Output In The Market
B. Market Output Is Heterogeneous
C. Members Overlap In Their Control Of Market Territories
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

43. Which Of The Following Factors Is Not Necessary To Form A Successful Cartel?
A. Members Must Be Responsible For Most Of The Industry’s Output
B. Member Firms Should Produce Homogeneous Output
C. Members Must Be Located In Close Proximity To Each Other
D. The Cartel Must Be Able To Divide The Marketplace Between Member Firms
E. There Must Be A Mechanism To Prevent Cheating By Member Firms

44. Today, The Primary Source Of Revenue For Most Major League Clubs Is
A. Ticket Sales
B. Concession Sales
C. Merchandising
D. Broadcast Rights
E. Parking

45. To Maximize Joint Profits, A Cartel Will Produce Output Up To The Point Where
A. Mr = Mc
B. Tr = Tc
C. Mr = Tc
D. Tr = Mc
E. P = Mr

46. When A Professional Sports League Sells Broadcast Rights For The Entire League,
A. The Selling Price Will Be Higher Than The Price That Would Be Charged If Each Team Individually Sold Broadcast Rights
B. Fewer Games Will Be Broadcast Than Would Be If Each Team Individually Sold Broadcast Rights
C. Joint Profits Among All Teams In The League Can Be Maximized
D. (A) And (B)
E. All Of The Above

47. For A Cartel, The
A. Demand Curve Is Also The Marginal Revenue Curve
B. Marginal Revenue Curve Lies Above The Demand Curve
C. Marginal Revenue Curve Lies Below The Demand Curve
D. Marginal Cost Curve Lies Below The Demand Curve At All Points
E. Supply Curve Lies Above The Demand Curve At All Points

48. A Monopsony Exists Whenever There
A. Are Many Buyers In A Market
B. Is Only One Buyer In A Market
C. Is Only One Seller In A Market
D. Are Many Sellers In A Market
E. Are No Barriers To Enter Or Leave A Market

49. In The Resource Market, Professional Sports Clubs Must Face The
A. Upward Sloping Market Supply Of Labor Curve
B. Downward Sloping Market Supply Of Labor Curve
C. Horizontal Marginal Cost Of Labor Curve
D. Industry-Level Demand For Labor Curve
E. Upward Sloping Marginal Revenue Product Of Labor Curve

50. A Profit Maximizing Sports Club Will Hire Players Up To The Point Where The
A. Demand Of Labor Equals Marginal Revenue Product Of Labor
B. Supply Of Labor Equals The Marginal Cost Of Labor
C. Marginal Revenue Product Of Labor Equals The Marginal Cost Of Labor
D. Marginal Cost Of Labor Equals The Wage Rate
E. Wage Equals The Quantity Of Labor Available

51. In A Monopsony, The Difference Between The Marginal Revenue Product Of Labor And The Wage Rate Is Known As
A. Joint Profit
B. Monopsonistic Profit
C. Monopsonistic Cost
D. Cartel Profit
E. Competitive Returns

52. The Additional Revenue That A Player Generates For His Employing Team Is Called
A. Total Player Revenue
B. Marginal Revenue Product
C. Marginal Product
D. Marginal Revenue
E. Monopsonistic Revenue Product

53. Over The Past Twenty Years, Free Agency In Professional Sports Has
A. Increased The Monopsonistic Power Of Leagues And Caused Salaries To Stagnate
B. Reduced The Bargaining Power Of Players And Raised Owner Profits
C. Reduced The Monopsonistic Power Of Leagues And Caused Salaries To Rise
D. Improved The Economic Position Of Owners By Increasing The Competition For Good Players
E. Had Little Effect On The Sports Industry

54. Which Of The Following Statements Is ?
A. From An Economic Perspective, Most Professional Athletes Do Not Earn Their Pay
B. Salaries In Any Industry Reflect Labor’s Contribution To The Overall Health And Well-Being Of Society
C. Professional Sports Clubs Operate In Highly Competitive Product And Resource Markets
D. The Cartel Behavior Of Professional Sports Leagues Keeps Ticket Prices Low
E. The Salary Of A Professional Athlete Reflects His Contribution To His Employing Club’s Revenue

55. From An Economic Perspective, Which Of The Following Is The Best Reason For A City To Attract A Professional Sports Team?
A. A Professional Sports Team Generates Publicity And Creates Public Relations Opportunities For Businesses Located In The City
B. A Professional Sports Team Generates A Significant Number Of New Jobs For The Community
C. Professional Sports Teams Pay Large Sums Of Money In City Taxes
D. A New Team Will Increase The Demand For Other Entertainment Related Activities Within The Local Community
E. Sports Enhance The Tax Base Of Large Cities By Generating Significant Numbers Of New Professional Jobs

56. Which Of The Following Statements Is ?
A. Even Though Professional Athletes May Earn Millions Of Dollars Each Year, It Is Possible For Them To Be Exploited By Their Employers
B. From An Economic Perspective, Professional Athletes Do Not Earn Their Pay
C. The Economic Impact Of A Professional Sports Team On Their Home Community Is Relatively Small
D. Free Agency Has Caused The Salaries Of Professional Athletes To Rise Over Time
E. By Limiting Expansion, Professional Sports Leagues Ensure Greater Profits For The Existing Teams

57. A Monopsony Will Continue To Hire Workers Up To The Point Where The
A. Marginal Cost Of Labor Is Equal To Total Revenue
B. Total Cost Of Labor Is Equal To The Marginal Revenue Product Of Labor
C. Marginal Cost Of Labor Is Equal To The Marginal Revenue Product Of Labor
D. Marginal Profit Of Production Equals The Total Cost Of Production
E. Marginal Revenue Product Of Labor Is Maximized

58. Which Of The Following Factors Helps Professional Sports Teams To Exercise Monopsony Power Over The Players That They Hire?
A. Player Drafts
B. Exclusive Contracts That Limit Free Agency
C. The Specialized Skills Of Players
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

59. Which Of The Following Factors Reduces The Monopsony Power Of Professional Sports Teams In The Employment Of Players?
A. Player Drafts
B. The Reserve Clause
C. The Long-Term Employment Contracts
D. Cartel Agreements Between Teams
E. Free Agency

60. A Professional Sports League Can Maximize The Revenue It Generates From Selling Broadcast Rights By Playing Enough Games Such That
A. Demand Equals Supply
B. Total Revenue Equals Total Costs
C. Marginal Revenue Equals Marginal Costs
D. Marginal Revenue Equals Total Costs
E. Total Revenue Equals Marginal Costs

61. If A Cartel Discovers That Its Marginal Revenue Is Greater Than Its Marginal Cost Of Production, The Cartel Should
A. Increase Production
B. Shut Down
C. Reduce Production
D. Hire Fewer Workers
E. Increase The Number Of Cartel Members

62. If A Cartel Discovers That Its Marginal Cost Is Greater Than Marginal Revenue, The Cartel Should
A. Increase Production
B. Shut Down
C. Reduce Production
D. Hire Fewer Workers
E. Increase The Number Of Cartel Members

63. Teams That Belong To Professional Sports Leagues Are
A. Cartel Members
B. In Business To Make A Profit
C. Monopsony Employers
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

64. Approximately What Percent Of Funding For Stadium Construction And Renovation Has Come From Public Sources In Recent Years?
A. 1
B. About 10
C. Less Than 20
D. Over 50
E. Nearly 100

65. According To Economist Andrew Zimbalist, The Jacksonville Jaguars Expansion Football Team Has An Economic Impact On The Local Area Comparable To A
A. New Department Store
B. Major Hurricane
C. Large Military Installation
D. State University
E. City Park

66. The Primary Benefits Of A Professional Sports Team Are
A. Massive Economic Development
B. Privately Funded
C. Salaries And Wages
D. Intangible
E. All Of The Above

67. When Professional Sports Leagues Seek To Achieve Parity, They Are Seeking
A. Fair Wages
B. Competitive Balance
C. Teams With An Athletic Advantage
D. Equal Marginal Revenue Product Across Teams
E. Homogeneous Views On League Policies

68. Which Of The Following Contributes To Monopsony Power In Professional Sports?
A. Player Mobility
B. Free Agency
C. Player Drafts
D. All Of The Above
E. None Of The Above

69. Which Of The Following Is The Best Economic Reason For Taxpayers To Support The Development Of Facilities For Professional Sports Teams?
A. The Intangible Spillover Benefits Of The Team, Such As Civic Pride
B. The Number Of Jobs That Will Be Created By The Team
C. The Economic Impact On The City Due To Ticket Sales
D. The New Taxes That Will Be Paid By The Players And Coaches
E. The Tourists That Will Visit Town While Attending Home Games

70. When Does A Firm Experience Monopsony Profits?
A. Only When The Marginal Cost Of Labor Is Greater Than The Marginal Revenue Product Of Labor
B. When The Total Revenue Exceeds The Marginal Cost Of Production
C. Only When The Marginal Revenue Product Of Labor Exceeds The Marginal Cost Of Labor
D. Only When The Firm Is A Member Of A Cartel
E. When The Firm Is A Monopoly In Its Product Market

True / False Questions

71. Professional Sports Clubs Are Businesses Operated For Profit.

72. Professional Sports Leagues, Like The Nfl, Were Formed By Teams In An Effort To Earn Greater Profits And To Ensure Survival.

73. All Professional Sports Clubs Must Operate Independently To Guarantee A Competitive Economic Environment.

74. Unlike Other Workers, It Is Difficult To Measure The Productivity Of A Professional Athlete.

75. When A Player Is Drafted By A Team, That Team Acquires The “Property Rights” To The Player’s Employment Contract.

76. In Football, New Players Can Sell Their Services To The Highest Bidding Nfl Team.

77. Tickets And Broadcast Rights To Baseball Games Are Bought And Sold In The Product Market.

78. A Cartel Exists When Firms Coordinate Their Actions In A Manner To Maximize Joint Profits.

79. Antitrust Laws Make Most Cartels Legal Forms Of Business In The United States.

80. The National Basketball Association Is A Cartel.

81. A Cartel Is A “Shared Monopoly.”

82. Prices And Output Are Greater With A Cartel Than Under Competition.

83. Profits Are More Equally Distributed In A Competitive Industry Than In An Industry Dominated By A Cartel.

84. Professional Sports Leagues Do Not Regulate The Employment Of Players By Member Teams.

85. A Monopsony Is A Single Buyer In A Resource Market.

86. The Immobility Of Players Between Teams And The Athletes’ Highly Specialized Skills Generate Monopsony Power For Professional Sports Clubs.

87. The Marginal Cost Of Labor Curve (Mcl) Represents The Change In A Firm’s Total Labor Cost Due To Selling An Additional Unit Of Output.

88. If A Player’s Mrp> Mcl, The Player Should Be Hired By The Team.

89. The Mcl Curve Lies Above The Supply Of Labor Curve And Is More Steeply Sloped.

90. A Monopsony Must Face The Market Supply Of Labor Schedule Because It Is The Only Employer In The Market.

91. A Firm Can Maximize Its Economic Position By Hiring Workers Up To The Point Where Mcl = Mrp.

92. A Monopoly Must Face The Market Supply Of Labor Schedule Because It Is The Only Employer In The Market.

93. Monopsony Profit Is The Difference Between A Worker’s Mrp And The Mcl.

94. Economic Analysis Suggests That A Free Agent Baseball Player Will Earn Less Than An Equally Talented Player Who Is Not A Free Agent.

95. Professional Athletes Do Not Earn Their Pay From An Economic Perspective.

96. A Strike Is A Work Stoppage Initiated By Management.

97. A Labor Union Bargains On Behalf Of Workers For Better Wages And Working Conditions.

98. Salary Caps Enforce Monopsonistic Employment Of Players Across Teams In A Professional Sports League.

99. A Recently Drafted Player Will Most Likely Command A Higher Salary Than A Free Agent.

100. Labor Disputes Are Rare In Professional Sports And Are Likely To Become Even Less Common.

101. Most Economists Argue That Professional Sports Teams Should Be Used As An Economic Development Tool For Local Communities.

102. The Public Relations Benefit Of A City’s Professional Sports Team Is Generally More Valuable Than