FIN 350 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer University – *New*

FIN 350 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

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Chapter 22—Finance Company Operations

1. ____ finance companies concentrate on purchasing credit contracts from retailers and dealers.
a. Consumer
b. Sales
c. Commercial
d. None of the above

2. Which of the following is not a source of finance company funds to support operations?
a. loans from banks
b. commercial paper
c. federal funds
d. bonds

3. When a finance company’s assets are ____ interest rate sensitive than its liabilities and when interest rates are expected to ____, bonds can provide long-term financing at a rate that is completely insulated from rising market rates.
a. less; increase
b. less; decrease
c. more; increase
d. more; decrease

4. Finance companies differ from commercial banks, savings institutions, and credit unions in that they
a. normally do not obtain funds from deposits.
b. focus on financing acquisitions by companies.
c. focus on providing residential mortgages.
d. use most of their funds to purchase stocks.

5. Which of the following is not a main source of funds for finance companies?
a. bank loans
b. commercial paper issues
c. bonds
d. capital

6. Finance companies are more likely to issue bonds when their assets are presently ____ interest-rate sensitive than their liabilities, and when interest rates are expected to ____.
a. more; decrease
b. less; increase
c. more; increase
d. less; decrease

7. If finance companies were confident about projections of ____ interest rates, they may consider using the funds obtained from issuing bonds to offer loans with ____ rates.
a. declining; variable
b. rising; fixed
c. rising; variable
d. A and B

8. Finance companies would prefer to increase their long-term debt most once interest rates
a. have declined.
b. have increased.
c. were stable for several years.
d. were projected to decline.

9. The main competition for finance companies in the consumer loan market comes from
a. pension funds.
b. life insurance companies and property and casualty insurance companies.
c. commercial banks and savings and institutions.
d. mutual funds.

10. When finance companies purchase a firm’s receivables at a discount, and are responsible for processing and collecting the balances of these accounts, they act as a
a. leasing agent.
b. lessor.
c. lessee.
d. factor.

11. When a finance company purchases equipment for use by another business, the finance company provides financing in the form of
a. factoring.
b. leasing.
c. a banker’s acceptance.
d. a letter of credit.

12. Finance companies are exempt from state regulations.
a. True
b. False

13. Finance companies are not subject to state regulations on intrastate business.
a. True
b. False

14. Finance companies are subject to
a. a maximum limit on loan size.
b. ceiling interest rates on loans provided.
c. a maximum length on loan maturity.
d. regulations on intra-state banking.
e. all of the above

15. If finance companies with a greater rate-sensitivity of liabilities than assets wanted to reduce interest-rate risk, they could
a. shorten their average asset life.
b. lengthen their average asset life.
c. shorten the maturity of debt that they issue.
d. make greater use of fixed-rate loans.

16. Overall, the liquidity risk of finance companies is higher than that of other financial institutions.
a. True
b. False

17. Compared to other lending financial institutions, finance companies have a ____ loan delinquency rate, and the average rate charged on loans is ____ on average.
a. lower; lower
b. lower; higher
c. higher; higher
d. higher; lower

18. A wholly owned subsidiary whose primary purpose is to finance sales of the parent company’s products and services, provide wholesale financing to distributors of the parent company’s products, and purchase receivables of the parent company is a
a. captive finance subsidiary.
b. factor.
c. leasing agent.
d. captive factoring agent.

19. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. A captive finance subsidiary’s purpose is to finance sales of the parent company’s products and services.
b. An operating agreement between the parent and the captive specifies the type of receivables that qualify for same and specific services provided by the parent.
c. A captive can be used to finance distributor or dealer inventories until a sale occurs.
d. A captive is rarely used to finance products leased to others.

20. ____ provide loans to firms that cannot obtain financing from commercial banks.
a. Consumer finance companies
b. Sales finance companies
c. Commercial finance companies
d. None of the above

21. Which of the following is not a use of finance company funds?
a. consumer loans
b. business loans
c. commercial paper
d. real estate loans
e. All of the above are uses of finance company funds.

22. Finance companies commonly act as ____ for accounts receivable; that is, they purchase a firm’s receivables at a discount and are responsible for processing and collecting the balances of these accounts.
a. brokers
b. dealers
c. market makers
d. factors
e. none of the above

23. Most finance companies are commonly exposed to all forms of risk below except ____ risk.
a. exchange rate
b. interest rate
c. liquidity
d. credit

24. Changes in economic growth are ____ related to a finance company’s cash flows, and changes in the risk-free rate are ____ related to a finance company’s cash flows.
a. positively; negatively
b. negatively; positively
c. negatively; negatively
d. positively; positively

25. Finance companies participate in the ____ market to reduce interest rate risk.
a. money
b. bond
c. options
d. swap

26. Many consumer finance companies also provide personal loans, directly to individuals to finance purchases of large household items.
a. True
b. False

27. Business finance companies focus on loans to very large businesses.
a. True
b. False

28. Consumer finance companies sometimes provide Business finance companies to individuals.
a. True
b. False

29. Although commercial paper is available only for short-term financing, finance companies can continually roll over their issues to create a permanent source of funds.
a. True
b. False

30. After interest rates increase, finance companies tend to use more long-term debt to lock in the cost of funds over an extended period of time.
a. True
b. False

31. Some finance companies offer credit card loans through a particular retailer.
a. True
b. False

32. The main competition for finance companies in the consumer loan market comes from pension funds and insurance companies.
a. True
b. False

33. The value of a finance company can be modeled as the present value of its future cash flows.
a. True
b. False

34. The most important risk for finance companies is ____ risk.
a. settlement
b. accounting
c. credit
d. exchange rate

35. Finance companies can accumulate capital by doing all of the following except
a. retaining earnings.
b. issuing stock.
c. issuing commercial paper.
d. Finance companies can build their capital base by doing all of the above.

36. Consumer finance companies primarily focus on for
a. consumer loans.
b. consumer advising.
c. consumer regulation.
d. none of the above

37. Finance companies are regulated by the states but are not subject to regulation by an agency of the federal government.
a. True
b. False

38. Historically, captive finance subsidiaries were associated with:
a. the automobile industry.
b. the oil and gas industry.
c. the textile industry.
d. department stores.

Chapter 23—Mutual Fund Operations

1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Mutual funds serve as a key financial intermediary.
b. Managers of mutual funds do not analyze economic and industry trends.
c. Because of their diversification, management expertise, and liquidity, mutual funds have grown at a rapid pace.
d. Some mutual funds offer check-writing privileges.

2. No-load mutual funds are normally promoted by ____. Load funds are promoted by ____.
a. registered representatives of a brokerage firm; registered representatives of a brokerage firm
b. registered representatives of a brokerage firm; the mutual fund of concern
c. the mutual fund of concern; registered representatives of a brokerage firm
d. the mutual fund of concern; the mutual fund of concern

3. To cover managerial expenses, mutual funds typically charge
a. management fees of less than 2 percent of total assets per year.
b. commissions of typically 8 to 10 percent of transaction market value per year.
c. management fees of typically more than 10 percent of total assets per year.
d. commissions of typically 3 to 5 percent of the transaction market value per year.

4. Mutual funds that are willing to repurchase their shares from investors at any time are referred to as
a. closed-end funds.
b. load mutual funds.
c. no-load mutual funds.
d. open-end mutual funds.

5. ____ funds do not normally repurchase their shares from investors.
a. Closed-end
b. Load mutual
c. No-load mutual
d. Open-end mutual

6. Most closed-end funds invest in
a. stock and bonds.
b. money market securities.
c. gold.
d. derivatives.

7. Exchange-traded funds are like open-end funds in the sense that
a. their shares are traded on an exchange, and their share price changes throughout the day.
b. they have a fixed number of shares.
c. they are not actively managed.
d. none of the above

8. Hedge funds differ from open-end mutual funds in the sense that
a. they require a much smaller initial investment.
b. they are open to additional investments at any time.
c. their investors cannot sell shares back to the fund at any time they desire.
d. they invest in very limited set of securities.

9. Shares of open-end mutual funds are purchased and sold on exchanges.
a. True
b. False

10. Mutual funds
a. are unregulated.
b. are required to disclose the names of their portfolio managers in the prospectus.
c. are not required to disclose any information about their past performance.
d. are exempt from all taxes.

11. Which of the following is not disclosed in the prospectus?
a. the minimum amount of investment required
b. the investment objective of the funds
c. the fees incurred by the mutual fund
d. all of the above are disclosed

12. The net asset value of a mutual fund is estimated once every week.
a. True
b. False

13. Mutual funds with ____ expense ratios tend to ____ others that have a similar investment objective.
a. lower; underperform
b. higher; outperform
c. lower; outperform
d. A and B

14. A front-end load is a withdrawal fee assessed when you withdraw money from the mutual fund.
a. True
b. False

15. Money market funds invest mostly in
a. stocks.
b. long-term bonds.
c. real estate.
d. short-term securities.

16. If investors sell their mutual fund shares after the net asset value of the fund increases, the return is called
a. share price appreciation.
b. capital gains distribution.
c. dividends.
d. split net asset value.

17. Mutual funds composed of stocks that have potential for very high growth, but may also be unproven, are called
a. income funds.
b. capital appreciation funds.
c. specialty funds.
d. dividend funds.

18. Mutual funds composed of bonds that offer periodic coupon payments are
a. income funds.
b. specialty funds.
c. dividend funds.
d. growth funds.

19. Mutual funds whose bonds have a ____ average time to maturity are ____ sensitive to interest rate fluctuations.
a. longer; less
b. shorter; less
c. shorter; more
d. A and C

20. The net asset value of international stock mutual funds ____ as the dollar strengthens against foreign currencies. (Assume no change in the prices of foreign stocks.)
a. increases
b. decreases
c. is unaffected
d. can increase or decrease depending on the dollar’s degree of strength

21. Mutual funds that include some non-U.S. stocks and U.S. stocks are called ____ funds.
a. global
b. foreign
c. combined
d. mixed

22. A mutual fund consisting only of stocks of firms that are in a specific industry is an example of a ____ fund.
a. specialty
b. growth
c. capital appreciation
d. growth and income

23. The majority of mutual fund assets are in the form of
a. common stocks.
b. preferred stocks.
c. U.S. government bonds.
d. municipal bonds.

24. If a mutual fund distributes at least ____ percent of its taxable income to shareholders, the fund is exempt from taxes on dividends, interest, and capital gains distributed to shareholders.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 90

25. When the redemptions of money market mutual fund shares exceeds sales of shares, the fund accommodates the amount of excessive redemptions by
a. selling some of the assets contained in the portfolio.
b. issuing stock.
c. issuing bonds.
d. borrowing from banks.

26. Money market fund assets include all of the following, except
a. stocks.
b. repurchase agreements.
c. Treasury bills.
d. CDs.

27. If money market funds definitely expect interest rates to increase, they will ____ their average asset maturity.
a. not adjust
b. shorten
c. lengthen
d. shorten (if the expected change is small) or lengthen (if the expected change is large)

28. Money market funds are normally perceived to have ____ interest rate risk, and ____ default risk.
a. low; high
b. high; high
c. high; low
d. low; low

29. Equity real estate investment trusts invest
a. in mortgage and construction loans.
b. directly in properties.
c. in common stocks issued by construction companies.
d. in common stocks issued by real estate brokerage firms.

30. Because ____ real estate investment trusts essentially represent a fixed income portfolio, their market value will ____ as interest rates increase.
a. equity; increase
b. equity; decrease
c. mortgage; increase
d. mortgage; decrease

31. When interest rates decline, investors who want to earn a high return may tend to ____ in stock mutual funds, and ____ deposits in depository institutions.
a. reduce; reduce
b. reduce; increase
c. increase; reduce
d. increase; increase

32. The composition of asset allocation funds
a. is focused completely on one type of security as specified by the particular mutual fund.
b. is fixed and not altered by the mutual fund managers.
c. A and B
d. none of the above

33. A mutual fund prospectus does not contain
a. minimum amount of investment required.
b. return on the fund since its inception.
c. investment objective of the mutual fund.
d. exposure of the mutual fund to various types of risk.
e. fees incurred by the mutual fund.

34. The ____ of a mutual fund indicates the value per share.
a. net asset value
b. gross asset value
c. net stock value
d. net bond value
e. none of the above

35. Mutual funds whose funds are promoted strictly by the mutual fund of concern are called
a. closed-end funds.
b. load mutual funds.
c. no-load mutual funds.
d. open-end mutual funds.

36. Mutual funds that are composed of bonds that offer periodic coupon payments are called ____ mutual funds.
a. tax-free
b. income
c. high-yield
d. growth
e. none of the above

37. ____ are most likely to invest in mortgages.
a. Stock mutual funds
b. Bond mutual funds
c. Load funds
d. Closed-end funds

38. Hedge funds that exceed a specified size must register with the
a. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).
b. Federal Reserve.
c. Office of Thrift Supervision.
d. Federal Mutual Fund Board.

39. According to SEC regulations, the majority of the members on a mutual fund’s board of directors must be
a. employed by the fund.
b. outsiders (not employed by the fund).
c. certified public accountants.
d. certified financial analysts.

40. An expense ratio represents ____ divided by the fund’s ____.
a. annual fees charged to investors; 12b-1 fees
b. annual fees charged to investors; net asset value
c. initial sales charge (load); 12b-1 fees
d. initial sales charge (load); net asset value

41. The most common investment by closed-end funds is in
a. derivatives.
b. bonds.
c. money market securities.
d. international equity securities.

42. ____ are beneficial for investors who want to invest in tax-exempt securities.
a. Municipal bond funds
b. Growth and income funds
c. International and global funds
d. Money market funds

43. When the demand for a particular closed-end fund is ____, the fund is likely priced at a ____.
a. high; discount
b. low; discount
c. high; premium
d. B and C are correct

44. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Commercial paper is commonly purchased by money market funds.
b. From an investor’s perspective, money market funds usually have a low level of credit risk.
c. Money market funds tend to have low interest rate risk compared to bond funds.
d. If mutual fund managers expect interest rates to decrease in the future, they should use funds generated from maturing securities today to purchase new securities with shorter maturities.

45. The number of exchange-traded funds has declined over the last several years because the cost of managing them was excessive.
a. True
b. False

46. Exchange-traded funds can be purchased on margin.
a. True
b. False

47. Investors can sell exchange-traded funds short.
a. True
b. False

48. Mutual fund managers seek securities that have much liquidity so that they could easily sell them in the secondary market at any time.
a. True
b. False

49. Closed-end funds are closed to new investment but allow redemptions by shareholders.
a. True
b. False

50. Closed-end fund managers must hold more cash than mutual fund managers.
a. True
b. False

51. Index mutual funds are not traded throughout the day, while exchange-traded funds are.
a. True
b. False

52. Venture capital funds typically invest in stocks of publicly-traded companies.
a. True
b. False

53. Many businesses that go public are partially backed by venture capital before the IPO.
a. True
b. False

54. Private equity funds use most of their money to invest in stocks of publicly-traded companies.
a. True
b. False

55. Vulture funds are a type of private equity fund that purchase distressed assets of a firm that is in or near bankruptcy.
a. True
b. False

56. Hedge funds commonly engage in short selling.
a. True
b. False

57. ____ are not exchange-traded funds.
a. Spiders
b. Growth mutual funds
c. Diamonds
d. Sector Spiders

58. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. ETFs are like index mutual funds because the share price adjusts over time in response to the change in the index level.
b. Both ETFs and index mutual funds pay dividends in the form of additional shares to investors.
c. The portfolio management of both ETFs and index mutual funds is very complex.
d. ETFs can be traded throughout the day.

59. Funds that are designed to mimic particular stock indexes and are traded on a stock exchange are known as
a. index mutual funds.
b. exchange-traded funds.
c. money market funds.
d. none of the above

60. Exchange traded funds can be
a. traded throughout the day.
b. purchased on margin.
c. sold short.
d. all of the above

61. ____ trade at one-tenth of the S&P 500 value.
a. Spiders
b. Cubes
c. Diamonds
d. World Equity Benchmark Shares

62. Mutual funds must register with the U.S. Treasury and provide to interested investors a prospectus that discloses details about the components of the funds and risks involved.
a. True
b. False

63. The net asset value (NAV) is estimated each day by first determining the market value of all securities comprising the mutual fund.
a. True
b. False

64. Portfolio managers are hired by the mutual fund to invest in a portfolio of securities that satisfies the desires of investors.
a. True
b. False

65. The expenses incurred by a mutual fund are billed separately to investors, and are not included in the fund’s net asset value (NAV).
a. True
b. False

66. A front-end load is a withdrawal fee assessed when you withdraw money from the mutual fund.
a. True
b. False

67. Large mutual funds can exert some control over the management of firms because they commonly represent the largest shareholders.
a. True
b. False

68. Investors who feel capable of making their own investment decisions often prefer to invest in load funds.
a. True
b. False

69. The term “mutual funds” is normally used to represent closed-end funds, and does not include open-end funds.
a. True
b. False

70. Exchange-traded funds differ from open-end funds in that their share price is adjusted only at the end of every day.
a. True
b. False

71. Capital appreciation funds are suited for investors who are more willing to risk a possible loss in value.
a. True
b. False

72. The returns on international stock mutual funds are affected only by foreign companies’ stock prices, and are independent of currency movements.
a. True
b. False

73. Index funds are becoming increasingly unpopular because most mutual fund managers consistently outperform indexes.
a. True
b. False

74. A mutual fund’s performance is usually unrelated to market conditions.
a. True
b. False

75. The SEC requires that a majority of the directors of a mutual fund board be independent (not employed by the fund).
a. True
b. False

76. Diversification among types of mutual funds usually does little to reduce the volatility of returns on the overall investment.
a. True
b. False

77. Closed-end funds may sometimes engage in a stock repurchase, in which they purchase shares on the exchange where the shares are listed.
a. True
b. False

78. Because money market funds contain instruments with short-term maturities, their market values are not very sensitive to movements in market interest rates.
a. True
b. False

79. Equity REITs are sometimes purchased to hedge against inflation, as rents and property values tend to rise with inflation.
a. True
b. False

80. Equity REITs essentially represent fixed-income portfolios. Thus, their market values will be influenced by interest rate movements.
a. True
b. False

81. Hedge funds are more heavily regulated than mutual funds.
a. True
b. False

82. Which of the following is not true regarding mutual funds?
a. They are a key financial intermediary.
b. They provide an important service to individual investors seeking to invest funds.
c. Most mutual funds use experienced portfolio managers, so investors do not have to manage the portfolio themselves.
d. They provide a way for individual investors to diversify, but most individual investors are unable to afford the purchase of mutual fund shares.

83. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Exchange-traded funds (ETFs) are designed to mimic particular stock indexes and are traded on a stock exchange.
b. Unlike a closed-end fund, an ETF has a fixed number of shares.
c. ETFs differ from most open-end and closed-end funds in that they are not actively managed.
d. One disadvantage of ETFs is that each purchase of additional shares must be done through the exchange where they are traded.

84. A mutual fund prospectus does not contain the
a. minimum amount of investment required.
b. investment objective of the mutual fund.
c. exposure of the mutual fund to various types of risk.
d. return on the fund since its inception.
e. fees incurred by the mutual fund.

85. The ____ of a mutual fund represents the price at which shares can be purchased from a mutual fund.
a. gross asset value
b. net asset value
c. net stock value
d. net bond value

86. Which of the following is incorrect about money market funds (MMFs)?
a. The credit risk of MMFs is normally perceived to be lower than that of corporate bonds.
b. MMFs have higher interest rate risk than bond funds.
c. MMFs normally generate positive returns over time
d. All of the above are correct.

87. ____ are most likely to invest in mortgages.
a. Stock mutual funds
b. Real estate investment trusts (REITs)
c. Load funds
d. Closed-end funds
e. None of the above

88. Mutual funds are not required to disclose which of the following in the prospectus?
a. the names of the portfolio managers
b. the length of time that the portfolio managers have been employed by the fund in that position
c. the performance record in recent years
d. the number of investors currently investing in the mutual fund
e. Mutual funds are required to disclose all of the above in a prospectus

89. Which of the following is not a way in which mutual funds generate returns for their shareholders?
a. They can pass on any earned income as dividend payments to shareholders.
b. They distribute the capital gains resulting from the sale of securities within the fund.
c. The mutual fund price appreciates.
d. All of the above are ways in which a mutual fund generates returns to its shareholders.

90. A(n) ____ fund contains a sales charge.
a. load
b. no-load
c. closed-end
d. open-end
e. none of the above

91. ____ funds are open to investment from investors at any time.
a. Load
b. No-load
c. Open-end
d. Closed-end
e. None of the above

92. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Investors can purchase shares directly from an open-end fund at any time.
b. The number of shares of an open-end fund is always changing.
c. Open-end funds typically maintain some cash on hand in case investments exceed redemptions.
d. There are many different categories of open-end mutual funds.

93. ____ funds focus on a group of companies sharing a particular characteristic.
a. Specialty
b. Growth and income
c. Closed-end
d. Capital appreciation
e. None of the above

94. Bond portfolios with some bonds rated below Baa by Moody’s or BBB by Standard and Poor’s, available for investors desiring high return and willing to incur high risk, are called ____ funds.
a. growth
b. capital appreciation
c. junk bond
d. bond
e. none of the above

95. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. A mutual fund is usually run by an investment company.
b. Although many mutual funds have grown substantially over time, their expense ratios have generally increased over time.
c. For each mutual fund, all expenses charged and reflected in the expense ratio are always valid.
d. The SEC requires that a majority of the directors of a mutual fund board be independent.

96. Money market funds commonly invest in
a. stocks.
b. real estate.
c. commercial paper.
d. U.S. Treasury bonds.
e. none of the above

97. Which of the following is not true with respect to venture capital funds?
a. They typically invest in young, growing firms that need equity funding but are not ready or willing to go public.
b. More than half of all VC investing is in businesses that are being created.
c. Venture capital funds tend to focus on technology firms, which have the potential for high returns but also exhibit a high level of risk.
d. Because VC funds invest in fairly safe ventures, a low percentage of their ventures fail.
e. All of the above are correct with respect to venture capital funds.

98. ____ funds sell shares to wealthy individuals and financial institutions and use the proceeds to invest in securities.
a. Growth
b. Open-end
c. Capital appreciation
d. Hedge
e. Specialty

99. Exchange-traded funds distribute their capital gains to their shareholders, who must pay tax on the gains.
a. True
b. False

100. Shares of exchange-traded funds can be sold _________, and shares of open-end mutual funds can be sold _________.
a. at any time during trading hours; at any time via private trading networks
b. only at the end of the day; at any time during trading hours
c. at any time via private trading networks; at any time during trading hours
d. at any time during trading hours; only at the end of the day

101. The average annual fee on actively managed exchange-traded funds is ________, which is _________.
a. zero.
b. lower than the typical annual fee on open-end mutual funds.
c. higher than the typical annual fee on open-end mutual funds.
d. the same as the typical annual fee on open-end mutual funds.

102. An investor who believes that technology stocks will perform well but does not want to select individual technology stocks might invest in:
a. Spiders.
b. WEBs.
c. Cubes.
d. Diamonds.

103. If interest rates are expected to ________, mortgage real investment trusts (REITs) ___________.
a. decline; become less attractive
b. rise; become less attractive
c. rise; are not affected
d. decline; are not affected

104. Investors who invest in a hedge fund of funds essentially pay two layers of management fees.
a. True
b. False

105. Hedge funds commonly use financial leverage, which can:
a. magnify their returns and magnify their losses.
b. magnify their returns and limit their losses.
c. reduce their risk and limit their losses.
d. magnify their returns and not affect their risk.