Public Finance Test Bank by hyman

Test Bank Public Finance by hyman – A+ Graded

Click on the Link Below to Purchase (Chapter 1 – 18)

Instant Download

http://budapp.net/Public-Finance-by-hyman-Exam-and-Quizzes-458.htm

 

For more help Contact us at budapp247@gmail.com

All Possible Questions With Answers

Chapter 1
Individuals and Government
True/False Questions
1. On average, persons in the United States devote more of their annual budgets to taxes than they do to food.
2. A universally observed function of government is the establishment of property rights.
3. The total share of GDP accounted for by government spending in the United States has declined significantly since 1980.
4. In 1929, the federal government spent more than was spent by state and local governments.
5. Since 1930, the percent of GDP devoted to government expenditures has more than tripled.
6. The costs imposed by government regulations on business firms are included in budget data on government expenditures.
7. Government consumption does not require resources to be reallocated from private to government use.
8. Since 1959, the percent of federal government expenditures devoted to transfers has increased by more than 50 percent.
9. Transfer payments, including Social Security and welfare and medical assistance, account for nearly 60 percent of federal government expenditures.
10. Interest on the federal government’s debt accounts for about 20 percent of federal government expenditure.
11. Federal grants-in-aid to state and local governments finance about 20 percent of annual spending by these governments.
12. The federal government allocates about 10 percent of its budget to Social Security.
13. State and local governments in the United States spend a bit more than one-third of their budgets on education.
14. Sales taxes account for about 22 percent of state and local government revenue in the United States.
15. The federal government obtains about half of its revenue annually from retail sales taxes.
16. State governments do not fund any part of Medicaid.
17. The social compact is an 18th century idea by political theorists.
18. The proportion of revenue received by the federal government from payroll taxes is higher than the proportion of revenue received by state and local governments from payroll taxes.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The real cost of government goods and services is:
a. money.
b. taxes.
c. the private goods and services foregone.
d. inflation.
2. If the economy is currently operating on a point on the production possibility curve for government goods and services versus private goods and services,
a. an annual increase in government goods and services can be obtained without any sacrifice of annual private goods and services.
b. it will be impossible to increase annual output of government goods and services.
c. a decrease in the annual output of government goods and services will have no effect on the annual output of private goods and services.
d. a decrease in the annual output of government goods and services will allow an increase in annual output of private goods and services.
3. Government goods and services are usually:
a. not rationed by prices.
b. sold in markets.
c. made available to persons according to their willingness and ability to pay.
d. financed by revenue obtained from sales.
4. Taxes:
a. are prices paid for the right to consume government goods and services.
b. are compulsory payments not directly related to the benefits received from government goods and services.
c. never affect economic incentives.
d. are used by private firms to raise revenue.
5. A mixed economy is one in which:
a. there are no markets.
b. government activity accounts for a significant proportion of the value of goods and services produced.
c. there is no government.
d. all goods and services are sold in markets.
6. Government purchases for consumption and investment:
a. are made to acquire resources necessary to produce government goods and services.
b. are designed to redistribute purchasing power among citizens.
c. have increased in importance as a percent of federal spending since 1959.
d. do not withdraw resources from private use.
7. Transfer payments by the federal government in the United States account for about:
a. 25 percent of federal government expenditures.
b. 10 percent of federal government expenditures.
c. 40 percent of GDP.
d. 60 percent of federal government expenditures.
8. Total annual expenditures by federal, state, and local governments in the United States in the 1990s accounted for roughly:
a. 20 percent of annual GDP.
b. 30 percent of annual GDP.
c. 50 percent of annual GDP.
d. 75 percent of annual GDP.
9. Federal government expenditures in the United States account for about:
a. 23 percent of annual GDP.
b. 33 percent of annual GDP.
c. 43 percent of annual GDP.
d. 53 percent of annual GDP.
10. About 80 percent of federal receipts are accounted for by:
a. corporate profits taxes.
b. sales taxes.
c. excise taxes.
d. payroll and personal income taxes.
11. If the economy is operating at full employment and using resources efficiently, then an increase in spending for homeland security this year will:
a. require that resources be reallocated to homeland security services without sacrificing any alternative goods and services.
b. be possible if resources are reallocated to homeland security services, but it will also mean that the output of some other goods and services will have to fall.
c. be impossible.
d. be possible only if there is an improvement in technology or more resources made available.
12. Which of the following is an example of a political institution?
a. a market
b. elections with winners determined by majority rule
c. representative government
d. both (b) and (c)

13. Nonmarket rationing means that:
a. those willing to pay can buy as much of a product as they choose.
b. prices are used to sell products.
c. goods and services are not rationed by prices.
d. willingness to pay is not a factor in determining who can enjoy a good or service.
e. both (c) and (d)
14. The U.S. economy is best characterized as a:
a. pure market economy.
b. socialist economy.
c. pure capitalistic, free-enterprise system.
d. mixed economy.
15. State and local government expenditure in the United States accounts for about:
a. 32 percent of GDP.
b. 22 percent of GDP.
c. 12 percent of GDP.
d. 7 percent of GDP.
16. Following the circular flow of a mixed economy, firms receive a flow of dollars from and send goods and services to:
a. Output Markets.
b. Input Markets.
c. Households.
d. Government.

17. Following the circular flow of a mixed economy, which entity or entities distribute resources?
a. Firms only.
b. Input Markets only.
c. Government and Households.
d. Households and Input Markets.

18. When has the U.S. experienced government expenditures in the range of 40% to 50% of GDP?
a. 2000 to 2009.
b. 1950 to 1959.
c. 1940 to 1949.
d. It has never happened.

19. In 2008, which country listed below has the highest percentage of government spending relative to GDP?
a. France.
b. Ireland.
c. Japan.
d. Canada.

20. The old-age dependency ratio is:
a. the proportion of the population that is 60 years or older over the proportion of the population that is less than 60 years of age.
b. the proportion of the population that is 65 years or older over the proportion of the population that is 15 to 64 years of age.
c. the proportion of the population that is 70 years or older over the proportion of the population that is 20 to 69 years of age.
d. the total government expenditure on programs for the elderly over the number of citizens that are 65 years or older.

CHAPTER 2
Efficiency, Markets,and Government
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. The normative approach to public finance prescribes certain actions to achieve predetermined criteria.
2. Positive economic analysis is based on underlying value judgments.
3. “The government should abolish tariffs to achieve efficiency” is a normative statement.
4. It is possible for efficiency not to be attained even if all production is carried on without waste.
5. Efficiency is attained when resources are used each year in such a way that no further net gain is possible.
6. The efficient annual output of any given good is attained if that good is made available in amounts up to the point at which the total social benefit of the good equals the total social cost.
7. If the marginal social benefit of smoke detectors exceeds its marginal social cost, then additional net gains are possible from an increased annual smoke detector production.
8. Monopoly power causes losses in efficiency because the marginal social benefit of output exceeds its marginal social cost at the monopoly output.
9. Government regulations that require airlines to serve routes for which the maximum price that pas¬sengers are willing to pay for a trip fall short of the minimum price that sellers are willing to accept are likely to cause losses in efficiency.
10. Points lying below a utility possibility curve are efficient.
11. Government programs can achieve efficiency when the gains to gainers from those policies exceed the losses to those who bear the costs.
12. If the marginal social cost of beer production exceeds its marginal social benefit, then more than the efficient about of beer is being produced.
13. Efficient outcomes are often viewed as inequitable.
14. If it is not possible to make someone better off without harming another, then resource allocation is efficient.
15. Compensation criteria are used to argue that changes in resource allocation should be made if the gains to some groups outweigh the losses to others, even though compensation for losses is not actually made.
16. All points on a utility possibility curve are efficient but differ in terms of the distribution of well-being.
17. A tax on a product shifts the demand curve.
18. A government subsidized price for a commodity that is higher than the market driven price results in oversupply relative to the efficient allocation.
19. When comparing the allocation of two goods relative to two consumers with individual utility functions, multiple points of Pareto efficiency can exist.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Positive economics:
a. makes recommendations designed to achieve certain goals.
b. establishes cause-and-effect relationships between economic variables.
c. is based on value judgments.
d. can never be used to make predictions.
2. If the efficient output of a good is produced each week, then the:
a. marginal social benefit of the good equals its marginal social cost each week.
b. marginal social benefit of the good is at a maximum.
c. total social benefit of the good is at a maximum.
d. total social benefit of the good equals its total social cost.
3. If the marginal social benefit of a good exceeds the marginal social cost at the current monthly output, then:
a. it will be possible to make buyers of the good better off without harming sellers of the good.
b. it will be possible to make sellers of the good better off without harming buyers of the good.
c. either (a) or (b)
d. a reduction in monthly output will be required for efficiency.
4. The marginal social cost of bread exceeds the marginal social benefit at the current weekly output. Therefore,
a. the marginal net benefit of bread is positive.
b. the output of bread is efficient.
c. a reduction in weekly output of bread is necessary to achieve efficiency.
d. an increase in weekly output of bread is necessary to achieve efficiency.
5. The total social benefit of automobiles equals the total social cost at current annual output. Then it follows that:
a. the annual output of automobiles is efficient.
b. the annual output of automobiles exceeds the efficient amount.
c. less than the efficient annual output of automobiles is produced.
d. it is not possible to make buyers of automobiles better off without harming sellers.
e. both (a) and (d)
6. Eggs are sold in a perfectly competitive market. No persons other than the buyers and sellers of eggs are affected in any way when eggs are traded in the market. Then it follows that:
a. the price of eggs equals the marginal social cost of eggs.
b. the price of eggs equals the marginal social benefit of eggs.
c. the price of eggs exceeds the marginal social benefit of eggs.
d. both (a) and (b)
7. Diamonds are sold by a monopoly firm that maximizes profits. Then it follows that:
a. the marginal social benefit of diamonds exceeds its marginal social cost.
b. the marginal social cost of diamonds exceeds its marginal social benefit.
c. the price of diamonds equals its marginal social cost.
d. the price of diamonds exceeds its marginal social benefit.
e. both (c) and (d)
8. Points on a utility possibility curve represent:
a. a given distribution of well-being between two persons.
b. an efficient allocation of resources.
c. the maximum well-being of any one person, given the resources available and the well-being of another person.
d. all of the above
9. If efficiency has been attained,
a. it will be possible to make any one person better off without harming another.
b. it will not be possible to make any one person better off without harming another.
c. perfect competition must exist.
d. the opportunity cost of any change in resource use must be zero.
10. A move from an inefficient resource allocation to an efficient one:
a. will always be unanimously approved, even if gainers do not compensate losers.
b. will be unanimously opposed.
c. will be unanimously approved if gainers compensate losers.
d. can never result in losers.
11. Which of the following is a normative statement?
a. When interest rates rise, the quantity of loanable funds demanded for new mortgages will decline.
b. To achieve efficiency, governments should prevent monopoly in markets.
c. Unemployment increases during a recession.
d. When governments increase income tax rates, people work less.
12. Normative economics:
a. is not based on underlying value judgments.
b. makes recommendations to achieve efficient outcomes.
c. establishes cause-and-effect relationships between economic variables.
d. makes “if…then” type statements and checks them against the facts.

13. The extra benefit on one more unit of a good or service is its:
a. marginal cost.
b. marginal benefit.
c. total benefit.
d. total cost.
14. If the efficient output of computers is achieved this year, then market price of computers is equal to:
a. the marginal social benefit of computers.
b. the marginal social cost of computers.
c. the total social cost of computers.
d. the total social benefit of computers.
e. both (a) and (b)
15. Suppose the efficient output currently prevails in the market for ice cream. A tax on ice cream con¬sumption will:
a. allow efficiency to continue to prevail in the market.
b. result in more than the efficient output in the market.
c. result in less than the efficient output in the market.
d. cause the marginal social cost of ice cream to exceed its marginal social benefit at the market equilibrium output.
16. Positive economics is:
a. an equity based approach in which income should be redistributed.
b. an objective approach without a particular goal based on underlying values.
c. a goal oriented approach based on desired policy outcomes.
d. a belief that governments can implement economic policies for the greater good of society.
17. Normative economics is:
a. completely free of any value system.
b. completely objective.
c. based on a a conscious effort to implement a particular social goal.
d. an approach that determines the effect of particular actions without judgment of the result being good or bad.
18. An efficient level of output means:
a. the total social benefit less the total social cost is maximized.
b. the total social benefit is below the total social cost.
c. the total social cost equals the total social benefit.
d. the total social benefit less the total social cost can be improved.
19. If a government desires to increase production beyond the current competitively determined efficient level, the government should:
a. tax the good.
b. subsidize the good at a price higher than its current price.
c. set the price below its current price.
d. impose a fixed fee whenever the good is purchased.
20. Pareto efficiency between two consumers is achieved:
a. only when the individual marginal rates of substitution are equal to the marginal rate of transformation.
b. only when the individual marginal rates of substitution are less than one, but not necessarily equal.
c. only when the individual marginal rates of substitution are greater than one and equal.
d. only when the individual marginal rates of substitution are equal.

CHAPTER 3
Externalities and Government Policy
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. If a negative externality exists for sales of gasoline in a competitive market, more than the efficient amount of gasoline will be sold per year.
2. If the marginal external cost of pollution increases with the annual output of polluting goods, then the total external cost will increase at a constant rate with annual output.
3. When a positive externality exists, benefit to third parties other than the buyers and sellers of a good will result from market exchange of the good.
4. The marginal external benefit of the sale of smoke detectors in a city declines with annual output. The total external benefit of smoke detectors will therefore eventually become zero.
5. When a negative externality exists, the marginal social cost of annual output sold in a competitive market will exceed the marginal social benefit of that output in equilibrium.
6. If a negative externality is associated with the sale of wood stoves, then the marginal private cost of those stoves is less than their marginal social cost.
7. If a positive externality is associated with college enrollment, then when college instruction is pro¬vided in a competitive market, the marginal social benefit of enrollment will exceed its marginal social cost in equilibrium.
8. At the current level of annual supply of inoculations against polio, the marginal external benefit of an inoculation is zero. To achieve efficiency, a corrective subsidy must be provided to those being inoculated.
9. To internalize an externality, a corrective tax must be set equal to the marginal external cost.
10. According to the Coase theorem, corrective taxes are necessary to internalize negative externalities when the transactions costs of exchanging property rights to use resources are zero.
11. The efficient amount of pollution abatement is likely to be 100 percent.
12. Pollution rights can be used to price the right to emit pollutants and to provide incentives to reduce emissions by profit-maximizing firms.
13. Emissions standards allow businesses to emit waste at zero cost until the limits set by the standards are reached.
14. The market for sulfur dioxide allowance trading has lowered the cost of achieving a given reduc¬tion in sulfur dioxide emissions by electric power-generating plants.
15. Command-and-control regulation to reduce emissions is likely to be a less costly way of reducing a given amount of emissions than tradeable emissions permits.
16. When negative externalities exist, perfectly competitive markets produce less than the efficient output.
17. A toll road used to subsidize public transportation in an effort to reduce pollution is an example of a corrective tax.
18. Assuming no externalities and a competitive environment, the marginal private cost is equal to the marginal social cost.
19. Assuming a negative externality, the price of a good will be lower than if the price was set in a competitive environment without an externality.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A negative externality results from the sale of firewood in competitive markets. Then it follows that:
a. the marginal private cost of firewood is less than its marginal social cost.
b. the marginal private cost of firewood exceeds its marginal social cost.
c. the marginal private benefit of firewood is less than its marginal social benefit.
d. the marginal private benefit of firewood exceeds its marginal social benefit.
2. If a negative externality prevails in a competitive market for air travel, then:
a. more than the efficient amount of annual air travel will be consumed in equilibrium.
b. less than the efficient amount of annual air travel will be consumed in equilibrium.
c. the marginal social cost of air travel will exceed its marginal social benefit in equilibrium.
d. both (a) and (c)
e. both (b) and (c)
3. A positive externality results from the purchase of smoke detectors. If smoke detectors are sold in a competitive market,
a. the marginal social benefit of smoke detectors is less than the marginal private benefit received by any consumer.
b. the marginal social benefit will exceed the marginal private benefit received by any consumer.
c. in equilibrium the marginal social cost of smoke detectors will equal the marginal social benefit.
d. in equilibrium the marginal social benefit of smoke detectors is zero.
4. The marginal external cost associated with air pollution increases with the annual output of a pollut¬ing industry. At the current competitive equilibrium level of output per year, the marginal external cost is $10 per unit of output. To achieve efficiency,
a. a corrective tax of $10 per unit of output is required.
b. a corrective tax of more than $10 per unit of output is required.
c. a corrective tax of less than $10 per unit of output is required.
d. a corrective subsidy of $10 per unit of output is required.
e. a corrective subsidy of less than $10 per unit of output is required
.
5. The marginal external cost associated with paper production is constant at $10 per ton per year. The competitive market equilibrium for paper production is currently 10 million tons per year. A corrective tax on paper production:
a. will collect $100 million annually.
b. will collect more than $100 million annually.
c. will collect less than $100 million annually.
d. will reduce annual damages to those other than buyers and sellers of paper to zero.
e. both (a) and (d)
6. The marginal external cost per unit of effluent discharged into a river by a perfectly competitive chemical industry is currently estimated to be $50 per ton per year. Which of the following state¬ments is true?
a. Efficiency can be achieved with a $50 per ton annual effluent charge.
b. At the competitive equilibrium output, the marginal social benefit of discharging effluent is $50.
c. Efficiency can be achieved by banning discharge of effluent.
d. At the efficient output, the marginal social benefit of discharging effluent will be zero.
7. Electric power is produced by an unregulated monopoly in a certain region. The monopolistic elec¬tric power company’s production of electricity results in $10 per kilowatt hour of pollution damage to parties other than the buyers of electricity in the region. To achieve efficiency,
a. a $10 per kilowatt hour corrective tax is required.
b. more than $10 per kilowatt hour corrective tax is required.
c. a $10 corrective subsidy is required.
d. less than $10 per kilowatt hour corrective tax is required.
8. The competitive market equilibrium price of sanitation services in a small town with no government-supplied sanitation services is $2 per trash pickup. There is a $1 marginal external benefit associated with each trash pickup. The elasticity of supply of trash pickups is infinite in the long run, implying a horizontal supply curve. To achieve the efficient output of sanitation services,
a. a corrective subsidy must increase the price received by suppliers to $3 per pickup.
b. a corrective subsidy must decrease the price paid by consumers of sanitation services to $1 per pickup.
c. a corrective tax of $1 per pickup is required.
d. a corrective subsidy must increase the price paid by buyers to $3 per pickup.
9. The current competitive market price of fish is $3 per pound. A chemical producer emits effluent into a lake used by a commercial fishing firm. Each ton of chemical output causes a 20-pound reduction in the annual catch of the fishing firm. Assuming that transactions costs are zero and the chemical firm has the legal right to dump effluent into the lake,
a. the fishing firm would be willing to pay up to $60 per ton of chemicals per year to induce the chemical firm to reduce chemical output.
b. the fishing firm would be willing to pay up to $3 per ton of chemicals per year to induce the chemical firm to reduce chemical output.
c. the chemical firm would never consider the damage caused by its effluent.
d. government intervention is required to achieve efficiency.
10. According to the Coase theorem, externalities can be internalized when transactions costs are zero through:
a. corrective taxes and subsidies.
b. effluent fees.
c. assigning property rights to resource use but outlawing their exchange.
d. assignment of property rights to use resources and allowing free exchange of assigned property rights.
11. Which of the following is true if a negative externality is associated with the sale of gasoline?
a. Third parties other than the buyers and sellers of gasoline receive benefits.
b. Third parties other than the buyers and sellers of gasoline bear costs.
c. The marginal social cost of gasoline exceeds its marginal private cost.
d. both (b) and (c)
12. If a positive externality prevails in the market for smoke detectors, then when the market is in equilibrium,
a. the marginal social benefit of smoke detectors exceeds the marginal social cost.
b. the marginal social cost of smoke detectors exceeds the marginal social benefit.
c. the marginal social cost of smoke detectors is equal to the marginal social benefit.
d. more than the efficient amount of smoke detectors is sold.
13. Regulations require that emissions of carbon monoxide be limited to 1,000 tons per 100 square miles for all regions of the nation. If the marginal external cost of the emissions varies among regions in the nation, then the regulations will:
a. achieve the efficient amount of pollution abatement.
b. achieve more than the efficient amount of pollution abatement.
c. achieve less than the efficient amount of pollution abatement.
d. be likely to achieve more than the efficient amount of abatement in some regions, but less than the efficient amount in others.
14. If the marginal costs of reducing emissions varies among regions, then regulations requiring all regions in a nation to reduce emissions by the same amount will achieve:
a. the efficient amount of pollution abatement.
b. more than the efficient amount of pollution abatement.
c. less than the efficient amount of pollution abatement.
d. more than the efficient amount of pollution abatement in some regions, but less than the efficient amount in other regions.
15. Which of the following is true about command-and-control regulation that allows businesses to emit pollutants up to a certain point and bans emissions after that limit is reached?
a. They are equivalent to emissions charges.
b. They make firms pay the marginal cost of the damages done by their emissions, no matter what the level.
c. They allow firms to emit some pollutants at zero charge.
d. They are likely to minimize the cost of achieving any given reduction in emissions.
16. Assuming a product can be manufactured competitively without any externalities at an efficient quantity of 1,000 units and an efficient price of $100.00 per unit, what efficient quantity-price combination would be consistent with a negative externality?
a. 1,000 units, $95.00 per unit price.
b. 950 units, $102.00 per unit price.
c. 900 units, $90.00 per unit price.
d. 1,100 units, $105 per unit price.
17. The effect of a negative externality is similar to:
a. A supply curve (marginal social cost) shifting to the left.
b. A supply curve (marginal social benefit) shifting to the right.
c. A demand curve (marginal social cost) shifting to the left.
d. A demand curve (marginal social benefit) shifting to the right.
18. Assuming a product can be manufactured competitively without any externalities at an efficient quantity of 1,500 units and an efficient price of $50.00 per unit, what efficient quantity-price combination would be consistent with a positive externality?
a. 1,500 units, $60.00 per unit price.
b. 1,300 units, $45.00 per unit price.
c. 1,600 units, $40.00 per unit price.
d. 1,700 units, $56.00 per unit price.
19. The effect of a positive externality is similar to:
a. A supply curve (marginal social cost) shifting to the left.
b. A supply curve (marginal social benefit) shifting to the right.
c. A demand curve (marginal social cost) shifting to the left.
d. A demand curve (marginal social benefit) shifting to the right.
20. Assuming a product can be manufactured competitively without any externalities at an efficient quantity of 500 units and an efficient price of $150.00 per unit, what efficient quantity-price net subsidy combination would be consistent with a corrective subsidy for a positive externality?
a. 500 units, $150.00 per unit price net subsidy.
b. 300 units, $120.00 per unit price net subsidy.
c. 600 units, $160.00 per unit price net subsidy.
d. 700 units, $100.00 per unit price net subsidy.

CHAPTER 4
Public Goods
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. Bread is an example of a good that is nonrival in consumption.
2. A pure public good is one for which it is easy to exclude consumers from benefits if they refuse to pay.
3. The marginal social cost of producing another unit of a pure public good will always be positive.
4. To obtain a demand curve for a pure public good, the marginal benefit of each consumer must be summed for each possible quantity produced per time period.
5. If the efficient amount of a pure public good is produced, each person consumes it up to the point at which his or her marginal benefit equals the marginal social cost of the good.
6. In a Lindahl equilibrium, each consumer of a pure public good consumes the same quantity and pays a tax share per unit of the good equal to his or her marginal benefit.
7. If the marginal social cost of a pure public good exceeds its marginal social benefit, additional units of the good can still be financed by voluntary contributions.
8. The free-rider problem is less acute in small groups than it is in large groups.
9. A congestible public good is one for which the marginal cost of allowing an additional consumer to enjoy the benefits of a given quantity is always zero.
10. Television programming is a good example of a price-excludable public good.
11. It is possible to price a pure public good and sell it by the unit.
12. The demand curve for a pure public good is obtained by adding the quantities demanded by each individual consumer at each possible price.
13. A Lindahl equilibrium usually has each participant paying the same tax share per unit of a public good even though their marginal benefit of that unit varies.
14. Internet service is an example of a price-excludable public good.
15. Clubs are a means of providing congestible public goods through markets.
16. A common way to fund a public good is through a government that raises funds through taxation.
17. Private education is an example of a price-excludable public good.
18. A congestible good has no limits in how much it can be consumed.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A pure public good is:
a. one that can easily be sold by the unit.
b. one that is nonrival in consumption.
c. one whose benefits are not subject to exclusion.
d. both (b) and (c)
2. The marginal cost of providing a certain quantity of a pure public good to an additional consumer after it is provided to any one consumer is:
a. zero.
b. positive and increasing.
c. positive and decreasing.
d. positive and constant.
3. The nonrival property of pure public goods implies that the:
a. benefits enjoyed by existing consumers decline as more consumers enjoy a given quantity of the good.
b. benefits enjoyed by existing consumers are unaffected as more consumers enjoy a given quan¬tity of the good.
c. good cannot be priced.
d. marginal cost of producing the good is zero.
4. The demand curve for a pure public good is:
a. a horizontal line.
b. obtained by adding the quantities individual consumers would purchase at each possible price.
c. obtained by adding the marginal benefit obtained by each consumer at each possible quantity.
d. the marginal cost curve for the pure public good.
5. The efficient output of a pure public good is achieved at the point at which:
a. the marginal benefit obtained by each consumer equals the marginal social cost of producing the good.
b. the sum of the marginal benefits of all consumers equals the marginal social cost of producing the good.
c. the marginal benefit of each consumer equals zero.
d. the marginal social cost of producing the good is zero.
e. both (c) and (d)

6. The monthly rental rate for a satellite dish antenna is $200. The maximum marginal benefit that any resident of a condominium community will obtain per month from the antenna is $50. There are 100 residents in the community, none of whom values the antenna at less than $25 per month. Assuming that the antenna is a pure public good for residents of the community,
a. each resident of the community will rent his own antenna.
b. it is inefficient for the community to rent an antenna.
c. it is efficient for the members of the community to rent an antenna for their common use.
d. it is efficient for each resident to rent his own antenna.
7. In a Lindahl equilibrium,
a. each consumer purchases a pure public good up to the point at which his or her marginal bene¬fit equals the marginal social cost of the good.
b. each person pays a tax per unit of the pure public good equal to his or her marginal benefit.
c. the sum of the marginal benefits of all consumers equals the marginal social cost of the good.
d. both (a) and (c)
e. both (b) and (c)
8. The free-rider problem:
a. becomes more serious as the number of persons involved in voluntarily financing a pure public good decreases.
b. becomes more serious as the number of persons involved in voluntarily financing a pure public good increases.
c. is independent of the number of persons involved in a scheme to voluntarily finance a pure public good.
d. does not prevent voluntary cooperation from efficiently providing pure public goods.
9. The marginal cost of making a given quantity of a congestible public good available to more con¬sumers is:
a. always zero.
b. positive and increasing.
c. positive and decreasing.
d. zero at first but eventually becomes positive and increasing.
10. Cable TV programming is an example of a:
a. congestible public good.
b. price-excludable public good.
c. pure public good.
d. pure private good.
11. A major distinction between pure public goods and pure private goods is that:
a. pure private goods can easily be priced and sold in markets.
b. pure public goods can easily be divided into units.
c. pure public goods can only be collectively consumed.
d. both (a) and (c)
12. The principle of nonexclusion for pure public goods means that the benefits of the good:
a. are shared.
b. can be priced.
c. cannot be withheld from consumers even if they refuse to pay.
d. are not reduced to any one consumer when a given quantity is consumed by another.
13. Which of the following is true in a Lindahl equilibrium for cooperative supply of a pure public good?
a. The sum of the tax shares per unit paid by each consumer is equal to the marginal social cost of the public good.
b. The sum of the tax shares per unit paid by each consumer is equal to the marginal social benefit of the good.
c. The sum of the tax shares per unit paid by each consumer is maximized.
d. both (a) and (b)
14. Which of the following is a good example of a congestible public good?
a. TV programming
b. a road
c. a loaf of bread
d. homeland security
15. Education is:
a. a pure public good.
b. a pure private good.
c. a good that has characteristics of both public goods and private goods.
d. not subject to the exclusion principle.
16. An example of an undesirable public good (or public “bad”) is:
a. government.
b. private trash hauling.
c. poor air quality.
d. private property.
17. Public transportation is:
a. a congestible good.
b. a pure private good.
c. a good without limits to the number of consumers who desire to use it.
d. not subject to the exclusion principle.
18. A baseball field is:
a. a pure public good.
b. a pure private good.
c. a good that has characteristics of both public goods and private goods.
d. not subject to the exclusion principle.
19. A means of creating a price-excludable public good is:
a. allowing food and beverages when entering.
b. requiring costly tickets.
c. to fund through taxation.
d. requiring identification.
20. A free concert in a public arena is:
a. a non-congestible public good.
b. a good that can be consumed by all.
c. a private good.
d. subject to consumption limits.

CHAPTER 5
Public Choice and the Political Process
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. A political equilibrium for a pure public good is generally independent of the collective choice rule used.
2. A voter’s most-preferred political outcome will change if, other things being equal, that person’s tax share per unit of the public good is changed.
3. A proposal is put forward to increase the number of police officers. You estimate that your mar¬ginal benefit from police protection just equals your tax per police officer at the number of officers that would constitute the police force if the proposal passes. You will therefore vote in favor of the proposal.
4. If all voters have the identical most-preferred political outcome, given their tax shares, then the political equilibrium under majority rule will be identical to the political equilibrium under unani¬mous consent.
5. The median voter is the one whose most-preferred political outcome is the median of the most-preferred outcome of all those voting.
6. If all voters have single-peaked preferences, a political equilibrium will not be possible under majority rule.
7. A person with multiple-peaked preferences is always made worse off as the quantity of a pure public good is increased, or decreased, once he or she attains his or her most-preferred political outcome.
8. Logrolling always succeeds in passing two paired issues that could not pass if voted on separately.
9. A bureaucrat who seeks to maximize the annual size of his budget each year will propose annual output levels corresponding to the amount for which MSB = MSC.
10. Political transactions costs are likely to be greater under unanimous consent than under majority rule.
11. Political externalities are likely to be negligible when collective choices are made under majority rule.
12. Unanimous consent is a collective choice rule that will protect the rights of minorities.
13. A person for whom the marginal benefit of a public good declines as more is made available has single-peaked preferences.
14. Cycling can occur in elections under majority rule if some voters have multiple-peaked prefer¬ences.
15. Special interest groups are more likely to gain income through the political process if they are a large percentage of the population.
16. A ration person’s most preferred political outcome is when the cost of the quantity of government-supplied goods is below the marginal benefit.
17. A budget-maximizing bureaucrat seeks funding levels where the total social cost equals the total social benefit.
18. Logrolling can allow more than one issue of minority interest to be passed.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A community currently hires 10 security guards per week to patrol their neighborhood. Each secu¬rity guard costs $300 per week. Assuming that the tax-sharing arrangement agreed to results in each of 300 voters paying the same tax share, each voter pays a weekly tax bill of:
a. $1.
b. $3.
c. $10.
d. $30.
2. A small community currently taxes residents to provide monthly community concerts. Voter A currently pays a tax per concert equal to $50 per month. This voter receives a marginal benefit of $75 at the current political equilibrium number of concerts per month. Voter A:
a. is the median voter.
b. would be made better off if the number of monthly concerts were increased.
c. would be made worse off if the number of monthly concerts were increased.
d. has achieved his most-preferred political outcome for monthly concerts.
3. A proposal to build new roads in a small town is up for a vote. Voter B estimates that his marginal benefit of roads at the proposed new level would be $80 per year. This voter will vote against the proposal:
a. no matter what her tax share.
b. if her tax share is $80.
c. if her tax share is less than $80.
d. if her tax share exceeds $80.
4. Currently eight security guards patrol a condominium community each week. The number of guards has been determined by majority rule. Each voter pays a tax share of $50 per guard. If Voter M is the median voter,
a. his marginal benefit from security guards is $50.
b. his marginal benefit exceeds that of any other voter.
c. the difference between his marginal benefit and $50 is at a maximum.
d. he would be made better off if more security guards were hired per week.
5. If all voters have single-peaked preferences, then under majority rule:
a. cycling of political outcomes can occur.
b. a political equilibrium exists.
c. the political equilibrium is the median most-preferred outcome.
d. both (b) and (c)
6. If a person has multiple-peaked preferences for a pure public good,
a. that person is always made worse off when moving away from his or her most-preferred polit¬ical outcome.
b. that person will become worse off at first, but then become better off, when moving away from his or her most-preferred political equilibrium.
c. the marginal benefit of the pure public good always declines for that person as more is made available.
d. both (b) and (c)
7. Implicit logrolling results when:
a. any two issues are paired on a ballot.
b. two voters succeed in pairing two issues on a ballot that can pass together but would fail indi¬vidually.
c. voters agree to trade votes on an issue.
d. the pairing of two issues on a ballot allows the achievement of efficiency.
8. Voter A will normally vote in favor of one security guard per week because his marginal benefit is $125 and his tax share is $100 per week. Voter A receives zero marginal benefit from one concert a week and would vote against it. Voter B receives $125 marginal benefit from one concert per week but no marginal benefit from one security guard. One concert per week also will fail to gain a majority when put to the vote. Assuming that both Voter A and Voter B will pay $100 per week in tax for each concert and each security guard,
a. they can both gain by engaging in logrolling on the two issues.
b. pairing the issues on one ballot will result in both Voter A and Voter B voting in favor of the combined issue.
c. pairing the issues on one ballot will result in both Voter A and Voter B voting against the com¬bined issue.
d. implicit logrolling will result in Voter A voting in favor of the combined issue, but in Voter B voting against it.
9. A voter may choose not to vote in an election between two alternatives because:
a. he or she is indifferent between the two alternatives.
b. his or her probability of influencing the result is zero.
c. his or her most-preferred alternative is far from the two offered on the ballot.
d. all of the above
10. If bureaucrats seek to maximize the size of their budgets, they will:
a. seek to fund levels of services up to the point at which MSC = MSB.
b. seek to fund levels of services for which TSB > TSC.
c. seek to fund levels of services for which MSC > MSB.
d. both (b) and (c)
11. The demand curve for a pure public good is:
a. obtained by adding the quantity demanded at each possible price for all consumers.
b. obtained by summing the marginal benefits of each consumer for each possible quantity.
c. always upward sloping.
d. always a flat line.
12. A voter’s most-preferred political outcome will be that for which the:
a. marginal benefit of a pure public good is equal to the voter’s tax share per unit.
b. total benefit per unit of a pure public good is equal to the voter’s tax share per unit.
c. difference between the marginal benefit of a pure public good and the voter’s tax share per unit is maximized.
d. marginal benefit of a pure public good is equal to zero, no matter what the voter’s tax share per unit.
13. If all voters have single-peaked preferences for a pure public good, then the political equilibrium under majority rule:
a. cannot be defined.
b. is the median outcome.
c. is the median most-preferred outcome of all voter’s voting.
d. will not change if tax shares change.
14. Which of the following collective choice rules is likely to have the lowest political externalities?
a. two-thirds majority rule
b. simple majority rule
c. plurality rule
d. unanimous consent
15. Which of the following collective choice rules is likely to incur the highest political transactions costs?
a. two-thirds majority rule
b. simple majority rule
c. plurality rule
d. unanimous consent
16. If the marginal social benefit of one more unit of a good is 10 and the marginal social cost of one more unit of a good is 11, then:
a. the output of the good is efficient.
b. a bureaucrat can still increase the bureau’s budget.
c. a bureaucrat can increase the bureau’s budget if the total social cost exceeds the total social benefit.
d. a bureaucrat can increase the bureau’s budget if the total social cost is below the total social benefit.
17. The plurality rule is:
a. a collective bargaining rule.
b. a rule that is guaranteed to have majority decision.
c. a means of determining between only two possible outcomes.
d. a rule that cannot lead to a minority decision.
18. Arrow’s impossibility theorem states:
a. a unique political equilibrium for a public choice never exists.
b. a unique political equilibrium for a public choice cannot exist under majority rule.
c. a unique political equilibrium can exist if there is majority rule and multi-peaked preferences.
d. a unique political equilibrium for a public good cannot exist under unanimous consent.
19. Suppose tax shares are evenly distributed for a particular service at the amount of $100.00 per person. Which taxpayer suffers a political externality based on the taxpayer’s marginal benefit for the service?
a. Taxpayer A has a marginal benefit of $100.00.
b. Taxpayer B has a marginal benefit of $200.00.
c. Taxpayer C has a marginal benefit of $90.00.
d. Taxpayers B and C.
20. A public choice is:
a. free of any political interaction or process.
b. by majority rule only.
c. one made through political interaction of many people according to established rules.
d. by unanimous consent only.

CHAPTER 6
Cost-Benefit Analysis and Government Investments
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. A cost-effective program mix is one that accomplishes a given mission at minimum cost.
2. Cost-benefit analysis is a technique for determining the net benefits of alternative government projects.
3. An increase in the profits of gasoline dealers on an improved road is a benefit of the road project.
4. If increases in agricultural land values are viewed as a benefit of an irrigation project, then the market value of projected increased crops should also be included as a benefit of the project.
5. The social rate of discount must equal the opportunity cost of funds used to finance a project.
6. If a project has a B/C ratio of 0.9, its approval will result in net benefits to citizens of the nation.
7. The benefits of widening a road consist only of the cost savings to existing users of the road.
8. If the benefits of a new bridge exceed the costs, then there will be a net social gain from building the bridge.
9. If the marginal social cost of a new road exceeds its marginal social benefit, then building the road will result in a net social gain.
10. The higher the social rate of discount, the more government projects for which benefits will exceed costs.
11. A lower discount rate favors more capital-intensive investments that yield net benefits further into the future.
12. The present value of a stream of net benefits for 20 years will be less than the sum of those benefits unless the social rate of discount is zero.
13. Building a new sports stadium results in food sales at the facility. These food sales should be con¬sidered a benefit of the new stadium.
14. Program budgeting seeks to group agencies with similar purposes for budgeting, independent of the government department to which they belong.
15. Cost-benefit analysis can be viewed as a way of minimizing the cost of any given government output.
16. Assuming costs are paid immediately, an increase in the social discount rate will lower the benefit-cost rate.
17. The marginal rate of technical substitution (where the slope of the isocost and isoquant lines are equal) is the ratio of the prices of the two goods.
18. The marginal rate of technical substitution is the slope of the isoquant line.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. In program budgeting, an agency’s program is:
a. its mission.
b. a combination of government activities designed to produce a distinguishable output.
c. its output.
d. the cost of its output.
2. Program budgeting differs from line budgeting in that:
a. all agencies with similar missions are budgeted for together, irrespective of the government department to which they belong.
b. proposed expenditures in a given government department are compared only with other pro¬grams in the same department.
c. a computer program is used.
d. the effect of programs on the distribution of income is explicitly considered.
3. The mission of a government agency is:
a. its program.
b. its output.
c. its cost.
d. a measure of the inputs it uses.
4. Assuming a full-employment economy, which of the following should not be included as a benefit of a government project to build a new highway when doing a cost-benefit analysis?
a. the income of construction workers employed to build the highway
b. the value of the time saved on trips between points to be served by the new highway
c. the increase in retail sales at sites bordering the highway
d. both (a) and (c)
5. A cost-benefit analysis of an irrigation project shows that the ratio of the discounted present value of benefits to costs is less than one. This implies that:
a. the net benefit of the project is positive.
b. the net benefit of the project is negative.
c. efficiency can be attained by undertaking the project.
d. the project will redistribute income to the poor.
6. The social rate of discount is currently 10 percent. This implies that:
a. all government projects will yield a 10-percent return.
b. the opportunity cost of funds for all government projects is 10 percent.
c. more capital-intensive projects will be ranked over less capital-intensive projects.
d. the opportunity cost of funds for all government projects is 20 percent.
7. The social rate of discount used in cost-benefit analysis measures the:
a. benefits of a project.
b. cost of a project.
c. rate of return on the project.
d. opportunity cost of displaced private saving or investment.
8. Suppose that a business investment is subject to a 50-percent tax but that the return to private savings is not taxed. The after-tax rate of return on business investment is currently 9 percent. If a proposed government project is predicted to displace business investment, then the social rate of discount is:
a. 9 percent.
b. 18 percent.
c. 36 percent.
d. infinite.
9. A proposed road improvement project is expected to increase pollution in an urban area. The pollu¬tion damage should:
a. be considered a cost of the project.
b. be considered a benefit of the project.
c. not be considered in evaluation of the project.
d. be used as a justification to increase the social rate of discount.
10. A new road will lower the cost of a trip between two cities from $20 to $10. Currently, 100,000 trips per year are made between the two points. The benefit of the new road will:
a. be $1 million per year.
b. exceed $1 million per year.
c. be less than $1 million per year.
d. accrue only to current users.
11. Program budgeting is a way to:
a. minimize the cost of producing a given amount of government services.
b. rank projects according to their marginal net benefits.
c. maximize the output of government.
d. increase government spending.
12. Cost-benefit analysis is a way to:
a. minimize the cost of producing a given amount of government services.
b. rank projects according to their marginal net benefits.
c. maximize the output of government.
d. increase government spending.
13. If the social rate of discount falls, then the efficient amount of government capital spending will:
a. increase.
b. decrease.
c. be unaffected.
d. fall to zero.
14. A government agency has a new hydroelectric project that will take 15 years to build before it pro¬vides any benefits. The net present value of the project will be highest under which of the following discount rates?
a. 0 percent
b. 1 percent
c. 3 percent
d. 5 percent
15. Which of the following techniques is used by economists to value years of life saved by a highway safety program?
a. measuring the increased income that it allows
b. trying to get those affected by the improved safety to reveal their willingness to pay for the reduced risk of death
c. either (a) or (b)
d. none of the above, because economists believe that it is impossible to put a value on life
16. If the quantity of good A is on the vertical axis and the quantity of good B is on the horizontal axis, the slope of the corresponding isocost line is:
a. the price of good B divided by the price of good A.
b. the negative of the price of good B divided by the price of good A.
c. the price of good A divided by the price of good B.
d. the negative of the price of good A divided by the price of good B.
17. If the quantity of good A is on the vertical axis and the quantity of good B is on the horizontal axis, the marginal rate of technical substitution of the corresponding isoquant line is:
a. the marginal product of good B divided by the marginal product of good A.
b. the negative of the marginal product of good B divided by the marginal product of good A.
c. the marginal product of good A divided by the marginal product of good B.
d. the negative of the marginal product of good A divided by the marginal product of good B.
18. If the quantity of good A is on the vertical axis and the quantity of good B is on the horizontal axis, then the cost-effective mix between the two goods occurs when:
a. the slope of the associated isoquant line equals the price of A divided by the price of B.
b. the marginal rate of technical substitution equals the price of A divided by the price of B.
c. the marginal rate of technical substitution equals the price of B divided by the price of A.
d. either (a) or (c).
19. The process of taking a previous period’s budget and making minor changes to produce the current year’s budget is called:
a. zero based budgeting.
b. enumerated budgeting.
c. developmental budgeting.
d. incremental budgeting.
20. The nominal interest rate is:
a. the real rate of interest when there is inflation.
b. less than the real rate of interest when there is inflation.
c. inflation adjusted.
d. not adjusted by inflation.

CHAPTER 7
Government Subsidies and Income Support for the Poor
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. The poverty threshold is independent of the size of a family and the age of a household head.
2. The rate of poverty has increased in the United States since 1959.
3. In calculating the official poverty rate, cash transfers to the poor are included in their income, but in-kind transfers are not.
4. All persons in the United States with income below the poverty level are eligible for TANF or for SSI transfers designed to assist the poor.
5. The cash benefit and eligibility for payments under TANF varies considerably from state to state.
6. Cash transfers currently account for much less of the total transfers to the poor than in-kind transfers do.
7. Medicaid is likely to result in incentives for recipients to consume medical services up to a point at which the marginal social cost of such services exceeds their marginal benefit.
8. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance (formerly called food stamps) lower the price of food to recipients.
9. A person receiving a lump-sum annual transfer is likely to work less than would otherwise be the case.
10. The annual income guarantee under a negative income tax is $10,000 per family of four. This transfer declines by 50 cents for each dollar of annual earnings. The transfer received by a family of four will decline to zero when its annual earnings is $20,000.
11. The Earned Income Tax Credit (EITC) is a way of subsidizing those who are unable to work and have no earnings.
12. The Earned Income Tax Credit (EITC) is a form of wage-rate subsidy that increases the incomes of low-income people with earnings.
13. The Earned Income Tax Credit (EITC) is a form of negative tax that increases the incomes of workers with earnings but is eventually phased out to zero as earnings rise above a certain level.
14. Medicaid is jointly financed by the federal government and the state governments in the United States and now absorbs more than 20 percent of state government budgets.
15. Since TANF has been introduced in the United States, welfare caseloads have declined and labor force participation of less-skilled single mothers has increased.
16. A two-person household headed by a person over 65 is classified as poor at the same level as a two-person household not headed by an elderly person.
17. The poverty threshold stays constant from year to year.
18. Less than one-third of the people classified as poor in the United States are children.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. In the United States, the poverty threshold is:
a. the same for all households of a given size independent of the age of the household head.
b. the cost of a minimally accepted diet for persons in the family.
c. three times the cost of a minimally accepted diet for persons in the family, for families with household heads under the age of 65.
d. five times the cost of a minimally accepted diet for persons in the family, for families with household heads under the age of 65.
2. Government transfers to the poor in the United States:
a. are always in the form of cash.
b. are available to all persons whose income is below the poverty threshold.
c. succeed in eliminating poverty in the United States.
d. are available only to poor persons who fall into certain demographic categories.
3. The most expensive program of assistance to the poor in the United States in recent years has been:
a. TANF.
b. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance (formerly called food stamps).
c. Medicaid.
d. public housing.
4. Cash transfers are:
a. the dominant method of providing assistance to the poor in the United States.
b. included in the income of recipients when calculating the official poverty rate.
c. available only to the elderly in the United States.
d. both (a) and (b)
5. If the supply of medical services is perfectly elastic, then the effect of Medicaid is to:
a. increase the market price of medical services.
b. result in the efficient amount of medical services.
c. cause recipients to consume medical services beyond the point at which their marginal benefits per year equal the marginal social costs of medical services.
d. both (a) and (c)
6. The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance (formerly called food stamps):
a. reduces the market price of food to those eligible for Supplemental Nutrition Assistance.
b. is likely to increase the market price of food to all consumers.
c. is likely to increase food purchases by recipients but not other purchases.
d. is likely to increase both food and nonfood purchases by recipients.
7. The value of a price-distorting subsidy for a three-bedroom apartment is $100 per month. This means that the person choosing to live in an apartment of that size would have to pay an extra $100 per month at the market rent. Then it follows that:
a. that person would be worse off if she received a cash subsidy of $100 per month.
b. that person would be better off if she received a cash subsidy of $100 per month.
c. that person would be just as well off if she received a cash subsidy of less than $100 per month.
d. both (b) and (c)
8. Suppose a welfare recipient is given a cash grant that increases his monthly income. That grant will never be taken away no matter how much the recipient earns. The grant will result in a(n):
a. substitution effect favorable to work.
b. substitution effect unfavorable to work.
c. income effect favorable to work.
d. income effect unfavorable to work.
9. A welfare recipient receives a cash transfer of $100 per week. This grant is not reduced if the recipient earns less than $20 per week. However, after the recipient earns more than $20 per week, the grant is reduced by 66 cents for each dollar of earnings. The cash transfer will be reduced to zero if the recipient earns:
a. $151.52 per week.
b. $171.52 per week.
c. $131.52 per week.
d. $100.00 per week.
10. An income guarantee of $10,000 per year for all families is established with a phase-out rate of benefits of 50 cents per dollar of earnings. Then it follows that:
a. only families with earnings of less than $10,000 per year will receive transfers.
b. all families with earnings of less than $20,000 per year will receive transfers.
c. all families with income of less than $30,000 per year will receive transfers.
d. all families will receive transfers.
11. The Earned Income Tax Credit (EITC) is:
a. a transfer to low-income people who are unable to work.
b. a flat grant that increases by $4,000 the income of all workers below the poverty level.
c. a subsidy to the poor who have low earnings that increases as they earn more, reaches a maxi¬mum, and then is phased out to zero as earnings increase above a certain maximum.
d. available to all persons whose incomes are below the poverty level, whether they work or not.
12. The Earned Income Tax Credit (EITC):
a. is a negative tax that transfers income to the poor who have earnings.
b. can increase the incomes of those eligible by as much as 40 percent.
c. is never phased out as the earnings of the recipients increase.
d.both (a) and (b)
13. Which of the following is true about Temporary Assistance to Needy Families (TANF)?
a. It is an entitlement program administered by the federal government.
b. It provides temporary and limited support for poor families through federal grants to state governments.
c. State governments determine eligibility for its benefits and administer it.
d. both (b) and (c)

14. Under Temporary Assistance to Needy Families (TANF),
a. federal spending is capped and is allocated to states as a block grant.
b. federal spending is an open-ended entitlement program that requires federal payments to all eligible recipients who meet means and status tests.
c. the states do not determine eligibility and benefit levels; instead, the federal government sets these levels as national standards.
d. recipients are not required to work and will receive benefits as long as they meet a means test.

15. Which of the following is true about the Medicaid program in the United States?
a. It is entirely financed by the federal government.
b. It is a means-tested entitlement program that mandates payment for medical services, mainly to those with low incomes.
c. It is jointly financed by the federal and state governments and is absorbing a significant share of the state government budgets.
d. both (b) and (c)
16. In the United Stated, which of the following years had the highest poverty rate?
a. 2000
b. 1993
c. 1980
d. 1873

17. Temporary Assistance to Needy Families (TANF) replaced:
a. no existing programs.
b. one existing program.
c. two existing programs.
d. three existing programs.

18. Medicaid was enacted by Congress in:
a. 1965.
b. 1972.
c. 1977.
d. 1980.

19. Why rely on the government to aid the poor rather than private charities?
a. The government can establish uniform standards for eligibility.
b. Voluntary donations will most likely be inadequate.
c. The government will most likely be able to meet all needs to the satisfaction of all citizens.
d. both (a) and (b)

20. An EITC program is more likely to encourage working when compared to NIT program because:
a. participants are guaranteed income even if they are not working.
b. participants must work to receive benefits.
c. participants are eligible for work training.
d. participants receive a wage rate subsidy.

Chapter 8
Social Security and Social Insurance
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. The Social Security pension system is a fully funded retirement plan.
2. Social Security pension benefits are transfers from workers to retirees.
3. Social Security pensions are financed by voluntary contributions by workers.
4. The gross replacement rate measures the ratio of taxes paid per year by workers to their annual Social Security pension when they retire.
5. In the year prior to retirement, a worker earned $20,000 and paid $5,000 in taxes on those earnings. His annual Social Security pension is $10,000 per year. Then it follows that his net replacement rate is 50 percent.
6. The gross replacement rate for Social Security pensions is the same for all workers independent of their preretirement earnings.
7. The annual growth in wages subject to Social Security taxes is 3 percent. Given the payroll tax rate, the growth in funds available to pay pension benefits is also 3 percent.
8. The asset-substitution effect of Social Security pensions discourages saving.
9. The availability of Social Security pensions to workers over normal retirement age results in an income effect unfavorable to work but no substitution effect.
10. The bequest effect of Social Security encourages workers to save less.
11. The normal retirement age for Social Security old-age pensions is 67 for people born in the United States in 1960 or later.
12. Workers in the United States can retire under Social Security at age 62 with lower pensions than they would receive at their normal retirement age.
13. As of 2009, retired workers between the ages of 62 and their normal retirement age were subject to an “earnings test” that reduced their pension by $1 for each $2 of earnings after a certain minimum level of earnings.
14. Reducing the replacement rate will have no effect on the tax rate necessary to finance pensions under a pay-as-you-go, tax-financed pension system.
15. Workers who quit their jobs are eligible for unemployment insurance benefits in the United States.
16. By 2050, the expected percentage of the U.S. population that is considered elderly will be less than 20%.
17. Social Security was created in 1965.
18. On average, the elderly are less likely to be poor when compared to the rest of the U.S. population.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The Social Security retirement system:
a. is a fully funded pension system.
b. is a tax-financed system that pays benefits from taxes that are invested to return principal and interest to workers when they retire.
c. is a tax-financed retirement system that finances pensions by taxing workers each year and transferring the bulk of revenues obtained directly to retirees.
d. does not use taxes on workers to pay pensions to retirees.
2. The gross replacement rate:
a. measures a worker’s monthly retirement benefit divided by monthly earnings before taxes in the year prior to retirement.
b. measures a worker’s monthly retirement benefit divided by monthly earnings after taxes in the year prior to retirement.
c. is an increasing function of gross monthly earnings prior to retirement.
d. is independent of gross monthly earnings prior to retirement.
3. A worker earns $2,000 per month before taxes. He pays $140 per month payroll tax on those wages. In addition, the income taxes on those wages are $360 per month. On retirement, the worker receives a Social Security pension of $750 per month. Which of the following statements is true?
a. The worker’s gross replacement rate is 50 percent.
b. The worker’s net replacement rate is 50 percent.
c. The worker’s net replacement rate is 38 percent.
d. The worker’s net replacement rate is 75 percent.
4. The growth in hourly wages over the past 50 years has averaged about 2 percent per year. How¬ever, the growth in Social Security pensions has far exceeded this 2-percent rate. The growth in tax revenue to finance Social Security benefits in excess of 2 percent per year can be accounted for by:
a. increases in payroll tax rates.
b. use of other taxes beside the payroll tax to pay Social Security benefits.
c. an increase in the number of workers paying Social Security taxes.
d. either (a) or (b)
e. either (a) or (c)
5. Given the structure and level of gross replacement rates and the expected future growth of labor earnings subject to the payroll tax, the tax rates used to tax payrolls were increased in the 1980s because:
a. the number of retirees per worker will increase.
b. the number of retirees per worker will decrease.
c. wages are expected to decline.
d. the size of the work force is expected to increase.
6. Which of the following is likely to increase the net federal debt as a share of GDP?
a. a federal budget surplus.
b. a federal budget deficit.
c. a recession.
d. either b or c.
7. The asset-substitution effect of the Social Security retirement system leads all workers to:
a. save more for retirement.
b. save less for retirement.
c. save absolutely nothing for retirement.
d. work more
8. Which of the following is a consequence of a growing federal budget deficit in the United States?
a. A decrease in the federal debt outstanding.
b. An increase in the federal debt outstanding.
c. A decrease in the portion share of federal government expenditures that must be allocated to interest in the future.
d. An increase in national saving.
9. The induced-retirement effect of the Social Security pension system induces workers to:
a. save less for retirement.
b. save more for retirement.
c. reduce savings for retirement to zero.
d. work more after retirement.
10. Unemployment insurance benefits are:
a. financed by payroll taxes levied on workers.
b. financed by payroll taxes levied on employers.
c. both (a) and (b)
d. financed by sales taxes.
11. Which of the following is true about the Social Security pension system in the United States?
a. Pensions received by retired workers are based entirely on their contributions to the Social Security pension trust fund and the investment return on that fund.
b. Pensions received by married retirees with dependents are greater than that received by those without dependents.
c. Gross replacement rates are inversely related to preretirement earnings.
d. both (b) and (c)
12. Which of the following can decrease tax rates necessary to pay pensions for a pay-as-you-go pension system?
a. an increase in replacement rates
b. a decrease in the retirement age
c. an increase in the size of the work force
d. an increase in the number of retirees
13. Unless legislation is introduced to change the normal retirement age, people born in 1960 or later will be able to retire with full Social Security benefits at age:
a. 62.
b. 65.
c. 66.
d. 67.
14. The earnings test for retirees:
a. increases their incentive to work.
b. is applied to all retirees.
c. is applied only to retirees below normal retirement age.
d. reduces pension benefits by $1 for each $2 of earnings.
e. both (c) and (d)
15. A nation has 40 million current retirees and a work force of 100 million. Which of the following is true?
a. The replacement rate is 40 percent.
b. The replacement is 2.5.
c. The dependency ratio is 0.4.
d. The dependency ratio is 2.5.
16. Social Security tax rates can be reduced if:
a. taxable wages decline.
b. the retirement age is lowered.
c. the retirement age is raised.
d. the work force decreases in size.
17. A retiree subject to the earnings test under Social Security:
a. can earn as much as he or she chooses without losing Social Security pension benefits.
b. has his or her Social Security pension benefits reduced by one dollar for each dollar of labor earnings.
c. has his or her Social Security pension benefits reduced immediately by one dollar for each three dollars of labor earnings.
d. has his or her Social Security pension benefits reduced by one dollar for each two dollars of earnings after a certain minimum amount per year.
18. A pay-as-you-go social security retirement system is:
a. exemplified by the current U.S. social security system.
b. exemplified by the current Chilean social security system.
c. designed to have retirees set aside a contribution specifically for themselves during their earlier working life.
d. both (a) and (b).
19. Approximately, what percentage of beneficiaries of U.S. Social Security are retired workers?
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 80%
20. The Social Security Act was implemented in the United States in:
a. 1927.
b. 1935.
c. 1947.
d. 1965.

CHAPTER 9
Government and Health Care

TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. In the United States the government pays the health bills of 90 percent of the population.
2. The American system of health care is financed by a mix of private and government insurance programs that pay over 80 percent of the health care bills for U.S. citizens.
3. Spending per person on health care in the United States is less than in the United Kingdom where national health insurance finances health expenditures.
4. Government spending on health care is declining as a percent of total government spending.
5. Medicare is a government program of health insurance for the elderly.
6. Exclusion of employer-provided health insurance to employees is an indirect subsidy to private provision of health insurance.
7. Third-party payments for health care services increase the quantity of health care demanded by reducing out-of-pocket costs to patients.
8. An increase in coinsurance and deductibles for health insurance can contribute to a reduction in expenditures on health care.
9. Half of Americans do not have health insurance coverage.
10. Under national health insurance in Great Britain, the price system is used to ration health care.
11. Approximately 16 percent of GDP was allocated to provision of health care in the United States as of 2006.
12. Individuals in the United States, on average, pay 50 percent of their health care costs out-of-pocket, and the remaining 50 percent is paid by insurance, governments, and charity.
13. Asymmetric information in the market for health care occurs when sellers of medical care are better informed about cost and quality of care than buyers.
14. Because of third-party payment for services in the market for health care, the price paid by buyers is less than the payment sellers receive, and the marginal social cost of health care exceeds its mar¬ginal social benefit.
15. Medicaid costs are paid entirely by the federal government.
16. Healthcare expenditures in the U.S. are projected to be 20% of GDP by 2017.
17. Asymmetric information can occur when the provider of a service is better informed than the consumer of the service.
18. A risk averse individual prefers to pay certain modest costs in exchange for possible unforeseen high costs.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Most of the medical bills of Americans in the United States are paid by:
a. the patients.
b. private and government health insurance.
c. charities.
d. Medicaid.
2. Since 1960, expenditures on health care as a percent of GDP has:
a. been cut in half.
b. nearly tripled.
c. remained the same.
d. doubled.
3. The government program that provides the health insurance to the poor in the United States is called:
a. national health insurance.
b. Medicare.
c. Medicaid.
d. employer-provided health insurance.
4. Which of the following programs accounts for the greatest amount of government expenditures on public health in the United States?
a. Medicare
b. worker’s compensation
c. the Public Health Service
d. medical research
5. Which of the following subsidizes private provision of health insurance?
a. Medicare
b. Medicaid
c. the Public Health Service
d. tax exclusion of the value of employer-provided health insurance to workers
6. Which of the following could help decrease the rate of increase of spending on health care in the United States?
a. a reduction in the deductibles on private health insurance policies
b. an increase in the coinsurance rate on health insurance and subjecting a larger volume of ser¬vices to coinsurance
c. extension of Medicaid insurance to all persons who are poor
d. a reduction in the coinsurance rate on health insurance and subjecting a smaller volume of ser¬vices to coinsurance
7. Which of the following is an example of the “moral hazard of health insurance”?
a. an increase in the number of surgeries prescribed for benign prostate disease beyond the point at which the marginal benefit equals the marginal cost
b. a decreased willingness of individuals to go to the doctor for minor ailments because of increases in coinsurance rates
c. an underallocation of resources to medical care because of monopoly power of hospitals
d. experience rating of health insurance groups by health insurers
8. A third-party payment system for health care:
a. results because of externalities in the production of health care services.
b. encourages more than the efficient amount of resources to be allocated to health care.
c. encourages patients and health care providers to economize on the use of health care resources.
d. means that patients pay the full price for health care services they consume.
9. Which of the following services is typically not covered under private health insurance and Medicare in the United States?
a. treatment for heart attack
b. surgery
c. office visits to physicians
d. long-term care services
10. Under national health insurance as operated in Great Britain,
a. the British system pays fees equal to half of the costs of services provided to them.
b. general practice physicians are paid on a per-patient rather than on a per-unit-of-service basis.
c. patients requiring surgery can pick their surgeons and can usually obtain the surgery in a matter of days, even if it is not an emergency.
d. there are no government limits on health care spending by hospitals.
11. Which of the following is true about the Medicaid program in the United States?
a. It is a program of health insurance for the elderly.
b. Its costs are paid entirely by the federal government.
c. It is a program of health insurance for the poor.
d. Its costs have been declining in recent years.
12. In the United States, individuals pay approximately what percent of the cost of their medical care directly to providers?
a. 100 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 15 percent
d. zero
13. The percent of total health care costs in the United States paid for by governments is approximately:
a. 90 percent.
b. 45 percent.
c. 25 percent.
d. 10 percent.
14. The system of third-party payment for medical care in the United States has which of the following effects in the market for health care?
a. It improves efficiency in the market.
b. It causes the marginal social benefit of health care to exceed its marginal social cost.
c. It causes the marginal social cost of health care to exceed its marginal social benefit.
d. It results in less than the efficient quantity of health care services.
15. Which of the following is true about the Medicare program in the United States?
a. It is only available to those who pass a means test.
b. It is available to all citizens over the age of 65.
c. The costs are completely financed by fees paid by insurees.
d. It places no limits on reimbursement to medical care providers.
16. What would be the effect of having no health insurance available?
a. The quantity of healthcare would be set at where the marginal benefit and marginal cost are equal.
b. Excess demand for healthcare would be the result because the quantity supplied would be at a level where the marginal benefit exceeds the marginal cost.
c. Excess supply for healthcare would be the result because the quantity supplied would be at a level where the marginal benefit would be below the marginal cost.
d. the quantity of healthcare would be at an inefficient level.
17. The elderly are what proportion of beneficiaries of Medicare?
a. 95%
b. 85%
c. 77%
d. 70%
18. What is the moral hazard associated with third party payment for health services?
a. The recipient of the service is not as informed as the provider of the service.
b. The recipient of services tends to decline more services than they should.
c. The recipient of services tends to have more services than what is needed relative to the efficient level of services.
d. There is no moral hazard.
19. Which is not reason for excalating healthcare costs in the U.S.?
a. Increase in malpractice insurance.
b. Cross-subsidization of patients who cannot pay for healthcare or insurance.
c. Overuse of new technology.
d. Both (b) and (c).
20. If the quantity of healthcare is more than the efficient quantity, what is the consequence?
a. Some will not have access to healthcare that would have access at the efficient level.
b. The healthcare will suffer in quality.
c. Capital could be more efficiently spent elsewhere leading to less overall productivity.
d. Lower marginal costs and marginal benefits.

CHAPTER 10
Introduction to Government Finance
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. Taxes simultaneously ration and finance government goods and services.
2. The federal government finances only half of its expenditures with taxes.
3. The benefit principle argues that the means of financing government goods and services should be linked to the benefits received from those goods and services.
4. Horizontal equity is achieved when individuals of the same economic capacity pay the same amount of taxes over a given period.
5. A flat-rate income tax is a proportional tax on an income base.
6. The marginal tax rate will eventually exceed the average tax rate if the tax rate structure is propor¬tional.
7. The marginal tax rate for a payroll tax is 7 percent on all wages up to $60,000 per year. The marginal tax rate for wages in excess of $60,000 per year is zero. The payroll tax is therefore a regressive tax.
8. Tax evasion would be less of a problem if tax rates were lowered.
9. The user charge for a congestible public good should be zero at all times.
10. Zero prices for price-excludable government services provide benefits only to the poor.
11. The gasoline tax is an example of a general tax on consumption.
12. For a proportional tax, the marginal tax rate is always equal to the average tax rate.
13. Tax avoidance is an illegal activity in the United States.
14. An increase in marginal tax rates is likely to increase tax evasion.
15. Most studies indicate that state-run lotteries are equivalent to a progressive tax on gambling.
16. Government activity requires the reallocation of resources from government to private use.
17. A flat income tax (i.e. a fixed amount paid by every taxpayer) is an example of a selective tax.
18. The average tax rate and marginal tax rate are the same under a progressive tax rate structure.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. According to the benefit principle,
a. taxes should be distributed according to ability to pay.
b. user charges are an ideal source of finance for government goods and services.
c. the progressive income tax represents the ideal way of distributing taxes among citizens.
d. flat-rate taxes are always the best kind.
2. If horizontal equity is achieved in taxation,
a. vertical equity will also be achieved.
b. individuals of equal economic capacity will pay equal taxes.
c. a flat-rate tax will be used.
d. the tax system will not result in losses in efficiency in markets.
3. The tax base of a payroll tax is:
a. consumer expenditures.
b. interest income.
c. labor income.
d. both (b) and (c)
4. A 5-percent retail sales tax on all consumer purchases in a state is imposed. The sales tax is:
a. a flat-rate tax.
b. a tax with a regressive rate structure.
c. levied on an income base.
d. all of the above
5. A tax on the value of real estate holdings is a:
a. selective tax on wealth.
b. general tax on wealth.
c. general tax on income.
d. selective tax on income.
6. An excise tax is a:
a. general consumption tax.
b. selective consumption tax.
c. general wealth tax.
d. selective tax on wealth.

7. A proportional income tax has an average tax rate that:
a. always is less than the marginal tax rate.
b. always exceeds the marginal tax rate.
c. equals the marginal tax rate at first and then becomes less than the marginal tax rate.
d. always equals the marginal tax rate.
8. A payroll tax taxes a worker’s wages at 14 percent until the worker earns $60,000 per year. All labor earnings in excess of $60,000 are not subject to tax. The tax rate structure of the payroll tax is therefore:
a. proportional.
b. progressive.
c. regressive.
d. flat-rate.
9. A bridge becomes congested after 100 vehicles per hour use it on any day. To achieve efficiency, a toll:
a. that charges all users of the bridge, no matter how many vehicles use it per hour, should be imposed.
b. on additional users in excess of 100 per hour should be imposed.
c. on all users should be imposed, if more than 100 users per hour are expected.
d. is not required.
10. A government prints money to finance its expenditures. As a result,
a. the economy can operate at a point outside its production possibility curve.
b. inflation will occur.
c. consumers will give up private goods to finance the increased government expenditures.
d. both (b) and (c)
11. Taxes are likely to affect:
a. market equilibrium.
b. political equilibrium.
c. the distribution of income.
d. all of the above
12. Taxes:
a. are voluntary payments to governments.
b. are unlikely to affect market supply and demand.
c. never affect efficiency in the allocation of resources.
d. are compulsory payments associated with certain activities.
13. A tax on real estate is a:
a. general wealth tax.
b. general consumption tax.
c. selective wealth tax.
d. selective income tax.
14. The marginal tax rate will eventually exceed the average tax rate for a:
a. proportional tax.
b. regressive tax.
c. progressive tax.
d. flat-rate tax.
15. Marginal tax rates were reduced in 2001. Other things being equal, this is likely to:
a. increase tax evasion.
b. decrease tax evasion.
c. have no effect on tax evasion.
d. increase tax avoidance.

16. What is an example of a normative criterion that a government must trade-off in its method of
taxation?
a. Equity
b. Efficiency
c. Administrative ease
d. all of the above
17. Tax avoidance is:
a. a means of tax evasion.
b. a means of decreasing taxes paid by adjusting behavior.
c. a political process explicitly for the reduction of taxation.
d. a means to avoid tax owed.
18. If the marginal tax rate is 20% under a proportional tax rate structure, the average tax rate:
a. should be 20%.
b. should be above 20%.
c. should be below 20%.
d. cannot be determined.
19. If the average tax rate under a progressive tax rate structure is 35%, a possible marginal tax rate is:
a. 30%.
b. 25%.
c. 42%.
d. not able to be determined.
20. Which of the following countries has the highest average tax rate relative to GDP?
a. Japan
b. Sweden
c. Iceland
d. United Kingdom

CHAPTER 11
Taxation, Prices, Efficiency,
and the Distribution of Income
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. A lump-sum tax results in both income and substitution effects.
2. A consumer currently pays $500 a year retail sales taxes. She would be better off if she paid the same amount annually as a lump-sum tax.
3. Clothing is sold in perfectly competitive markets where no externalities prevail. An excise tax on clothing will result in a market price for clothing that equals the marginal social benefit and mar¬ginal social cost of service.
4. Assuming that the income effects are negligible and that beer is sold in a competitive market, a 10 cent per can tax on beer that causes a 10,000 can per month decline in sales will result in an excess burden of $1,000 per month.
5. A tax on land results in an income effect on landlords but no substitution effect. Then it follows that the excess burden of a tax on land will be zero.
6. The excess burden of a tax on interest income is $5 billion per year. Total interest income per year is $50 billion. The tax currently collects $15 billion in revenue per year. The efficiency-loss ratio of the tax is therefore 0.33.
7. A payroll tax results in a difference between the gross wages paid by employers and the net wages received by workers.
8. If the market supply of labor services is perfectly inelastic, a tax on labor income will reduce the net wages received by workers by the full amount of the tax per labor hour.
9. If a $10 per unit tax is levied on the output of a monopolist, more of that tax will be shifted to con¬sumers than would be the case if the same good were produced by a competitive industry.
10. A study indicates that taxes in the United States reduce the Gini coefficient for the nation by 10 percent. This implies that taxes make the income distribution more equal.
11. A lump-sum tax only results in income effects.
12. An income tax is an example of a price-distorting tax.
13. The more price-elastic the demand of a taxed item, the lower the excess burden of a tax on the sale of that item.
14. If the tax on the sale of gasoline is doubled from 20 cents per gallon to 40 cents per gallon, the excess burden of the tax will quadruple.
15. If the compensated elasticity of supply of labor is zero, then a tax on labor earnings will have zero excess burden.
16. Lump-sum taxes do not prevent prices from equaling the marginal social cost and benefit of any goods and services.
17. Lump-sum taxes can vary in amount based on income level.
18. A lump-sum tax can distort prices and affect consumption behavior.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A lump-sum tax:
a. distorts market prices so that they do not simultaneously equal MSB and MSC.
b. can result in price changes but does not prevent prices from simultaneously being equal to MSB and MSC.
c. results in substitution effects that change prices.
d. results in both substitution effects and income effects that change prices.
2. The current price of compact discs, which are traded in perfectly competitive markets, is $10. A $1 per unit tax is levied on the discs. Annual record sales decline from five million to four million as a result of the tax. Assuming that the income effect of the tax-induced price change is negligible, the excess burden of the tax will be:
a. $500,000 per year.
b. $1 million per year.
c. $2 million per year.
d. $2.5 million per year.
3. The elasticity of supply of land is zero. A tax on land results only in an income effect to landlords. Then it follows that a 10-percent tax on land rents will:
a. have a positive excess burden.
b. be shifted forward to tenants.
c. be paid entirely by landlords.
d. have zero excess burden.
e. both (c) and (d)
4. Currently, a 10-cent per gallon tax is levied on gasoline consumption. The tax is increased to 20 cents per gallon. The excess burden of the tax will:
a. remain the same.
b. double.
c. increase four times.
d. decline.
5. The supply of new cars is perfectly elastic. A $400 per car tax is levied on buyers. As a result of the tax,
a. the price received by sellers will fall by $400.
b. the price paid by buyers, including the tax, will increase by $400.
c. the quantity of cars sold per year will be unchanged.
d. the excess burden of the tax will be zero.
e. both (c) and (d)
6. Other things being equal, the more inelastic the demand for a taxed good,
a. the greater the portion of the tax paid by sellers.
b. the greater the excess burden of the tax.
c. the greater the portion of the tax paid by buyers.
d. the less the portion of a tax on sellers that can be shifted to buyers.
7. The market supply of labor is perfectly inelastic. However, the income effect of tax-induced wage changes are believed to be substantial. Then it follows that a tax on labor income will:
a. have zero excess burden.
b. have positive excess burden.
c. be paid entirely by workers as a reduction in net wages.
d. both (a) and (c)
e. both (b) and (c)
8. Suppose an economy is comprised of only two markets: one for food and the other for housing. A tax on food used to finance transfer payments is likely to:
a. decrease the price of food.
b. increase the price of housing.
c. decrease the price of housing.
d. have no effect on either the price of food or housing.
9. Differential tax incidence measures the effect:
a. that a tax and the expenditures it finances have on the distribution of income.
b. that one tax alone has on the distribution of income.
c. on the distribution of income of substituting one tax for another while holding the size and composition of the budget fixed.
d. on the distribution of income of substituting one tax for another while changing the kinds of government services financed.
10. Most studies of tax incidence assume that taxes on labor income and other input services are borne entirely by the workers and other input owners that supply the services. This implies that the:
a. supply of those input services is very elastic.
b. supply of those input services is of unitary elasticity.
c. supply of those input services is perfectly inelastic.
d. demand for those input services is perfectly elastic.
11. Most studies show that the price elasticity of demand for gasoline is –0.2. If the price elasticity of supply is 2, then a tax on gasoline will:
a. have no effect on the market equilibrium price of gasoline.
b. cause the market equilibrium price of gasoline to fall.
c. cause the market equilibrium price paid by buyers to rise.
d. cause the net price received by sellers to fall.
e. both (c) and (d)
12. The demand for medical care is very inelastic. If a 10-percent tax is levied on the sale of medical services and is collected from medical-care providers, then:
a. the incidence of the tax is likely to be borne entirely by medical-care providers.
b. most of the tax is likely to be shifted to those who purchase medical care.
c. the market equilibrium price of medical care will fall.
d. the excess burden of the tax is likely to be very high.
13. Which of the following is true about a lump-sum tax?
a. It prevents efficiency from being attained in competitive markets.
b. It causes substitution effects.
c. It causes income effects.
d. It causes both income effects and substitution effects.
14. Housing construction is generally believed to be an industry of constant costs. In the long run, which of the following is true if a $10 per square foot tax on housing construction is collected directly from builders?
a. The incidence of the tax will be borne by builders.
b. The excess burden of the tax will be zero.
c. The quantity of new construction supplied will be unaffected.
d. The tax will be fully shifted to buyers of new construction.
15. If the price elasticity of supply of labor is equal to 0.5 and the price elasticity of demand for labor is –2, then which of the following is likely to result from a tax on labor earnings?
a. The tax will be fully borne by workers.
b. Some of the tax will be shifted to employers as market equilibrium wages increase.
c. Market equilibrium wages will decline.
d. There will be no effect on market equilibrium wages.
16. If a lump-sum tax is imposed, the slope of the new budget line relative to the budget line prior to the tax:
a. remains unchanged.
b. increases.
c. decrease.
d. can increase and decrease in different regions.
17. Viewed from origin a price distorting tax creates a new budget line with a ______ slope relative to the budget line without the tax.
a. less steep
b. more steep
c. similar
d. varying
18. A $0.30 per unit tax is imposed on a good that reduces the quantity supplied and demanded by 1000 units. What is the deadweight loss (ignore price elasticities)?
a. $300.00
b. $100.00
c. $150.00
d. Cannot be determined.
19. If a per unit tax is imposed, but the quantity supplied and demanded does not change then:
a. the demand is perfectly inelastic.
b. the supply is perfectly inelastic.
c. there is no deadweight loss.
d. All of the above.
20. The efficiency-loss ratio relative to tax is:
a. the deadweight loss less the tax revenue.
b. the deadweight loss divided by the tax revenue reduced by one.
c. the excess burden divided by the tax revenue.
d. None of the above.

CHAPTER 12
Budget Balance and
Government Debt
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. From 1950 to 2009, the federal government budget has been in balance in most years.
2. The high employment budget deficit implies that increases in economic activity will not eliminate the actual deficit.
3. Other things being equal, an increase in government borrowing is likely to increase interest rates.
4. If taxpayers anticipate future tax increases when government borrows to finance deficits, increased government borrowing will increase interest rates.
5. As of 2008, the amount of federal debt outstanding was equal to twice the annual GDP.
6. From 1950 to 1980, the value of the federal debt as a percent of GDP declined.
7. More than 50 percent of the federal debt in recent years has been outside debt.
8. An increase in market rates of interest tends to decrease the market value of outstanding govern¬ment debt.
9. Deficit finance postpones taxation from the present to the future.
10. The burden of the debt is borne by those who purchase government bonds.
11. The federal government budget recorded surpluses between 1998 and 2001.
12. State and local governments are usually required by state law to keep the budgets in balance.
13. If business and personal saving are constant, then a federal budget deficit will have no impact on national saving.
14. Other things being equal, a government surplus increases the supply of loanable funds available for investment.
15. State revenue bonds are backed by the taxing power of state governments.
16. A federal budget surplus can lead to more credit being available for productive activity.
17. A federal budget deficit can strain credit markets forcing the real rate of interest to decrease.
18. The U.S. deficit in the 1980s was structural in the sense that federal spending would exceed federal revenue even at a level of full employment.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The outstanding federal debt will decline in value if:
a. budget deficits continue.
b. the government runs a budget surplus.
c. the market rate of interest increases.
d. either (b) or (c)
2. The federal budget has been in deficit:
a. for every year between 1970 and 1997.
b. for every year between 1950 and 1997.
c. only since 1980.
d. for every year between 1960 and 1997.
3. The high employment deficit is estimated at $100 billion. Assuming that the economy is operating below full employment and that it will not overheat during the year,
a. the actual budget is not in deficit.
b. increasing GDP will eliminate the deficit.
c. increasing GDP will not eliminate the deficit.
d. the actual budget is in surplus.
4. An increase in government borrowing has no effect on the willingness of citizens to save or on the demand for credit. Increased borrowing to cover deficits will therefore:
a. reduce interest rates.
b. increase interest rates.
c. have no effect on interest rates.
d. not require increased taxes in the future.
5. As a result of government borrowing to cover deficits, citizens increase the supply of savings to provide themselves with funds to pay anticipated increases in future taxes. Then it follows that increased government borrowing will:
a. reduce private investment.
b. increase private investment.
c. have no effect of private investment.
d. increase interest rates.
e. both (a) and (d)
6. The total dollar value of the federal debt outstanding is:
a. more than 50 percent of GDP.
b. more than 100 percent of GDP.
c. less than 50 percent of GDP.
d. less than 10 percent of GDP.
7. The federal government, its agencies, and the Federal Reserve System:
a. are not permitted to hold outstanding federal debt.
b. hold 50 percent of the outstanding federal debt.
c. hold between 15 and 25 percent of the outstanding federal debt.
d. hold 75 percent of the outstanding federal debt.
8. The largest portion of the net federal debt outstanding is owed to:
a. foreigners.
b. U.S. citizens and companies.
c. federal government agencies.
d. state and local governments.
9. The debt of state and local governments is mostly:
a. internal.
b. external.
c. owed to citizens of other nations.
d. worthless.
10. Government borrowing will:
a. postpone taxation to the future.
b. increase government interest cost.
c. both (a) and (b)
d. eliminate taxes.
11. Which of the following is true about the federal government budget balance in the United States?
a. The federal budget has never had a surplus.
b. The federal budget had a surplus every year from 1970 to 2008.
c. The federal budget had a surplus from 1998 until 2001.
d. The federal budget had a deficit from 1998 until 2001.
12. Which of the following can contribute to a decrease in national saving?
a. a federal budget deficit
b. an increase in the state and local government aggregate surplus
c. a federal budget surplus
d. an increase in personal saving
13. Other things being equal, a government budget surplus:
a. increases the demand for loanable funds.
b. increases the supply of loanable funds.
c. is likely to increase market equilibrium interest rates.
d. is unlikely to affect market equilibrium interest rates.
14. If the federal government runs a surplus consistently, then which of the following is likely to occur?
a. National saving will decline.
b. The gross federal debt will increase.
c. The gross federal debt will decrease.
d. Market equilibrium interest rates are likely to rise as a result of the surpluses.
15. General obligation bonds of state and local governments are:
a. backed by revenue from public facilities such as sports stadiums.
b. backed by the taxing power of state and local governments.
c. usually used to finance transfer payments.
d. usually used to finance capital expenditures.
e. both (b) and (d)
16. A bond that is backed by the tolls collected from a bridge to be constructed from the proceeds of the bond is an example of:
a. a general obligation bond.
b. a non-obligation bond.
c. a revenue bond.
d. none of the above.
17. Evidence of “crowding out” in the market for loanable funds at a rate of 8% could be:
a. private investors who will borrow only at a rate lower than 8%.
b. private investors who are willing to accept a rate higher than 8% for borrowing.
c. a government surplus.
d. a social security surplus.
18. High-employment deficit or surplus is:
a. an extreme economic situation requiring emergency measures.
b. the amount of deficit or surplus available assuming current employment levels.
c. the amount of deficit or surplus available when employment is at its approximately full capacity.
d. the amount of deficit or surplus available when unemployment is at a relatively high level.
19. A government’s internal debt is:
a. debt owed to other government agencies.
b. debt owed to other governments.
c. debt owed to its citizens.
d. both (a) and (c).
20. The National Income and Product Accounts budget balance reflects:
a. an inflation-adjusted budget balance less social security surplus.
b. new debt resulting from a federal budget deficit.
c. the real budget balance.
d. the nominal budget balance.

CHAPTER 13
The Theory of Income Taxation
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. The actual federal income tax currently taxes all income irrespective of its source or use at the same tax rate.
2. Comprehensive income excludes unrealized capital gains.
3. Under a comprehensive income tax, transfer payments received by Social Security recipients would be fully taxable.
4. Homeowners earn rental income-in-kind from their home that would be taxable under a compre¬hensive income tax.
5. A comprehensive income tax is a lump-sum tax.
6. A comprehensive income tax will result in a divergence between gross wages paid by employers and net wages received by workers.
7. A comprehensive income tax will always reduce work effort by taxpayers.
8. The substitution effect of a tax-induced decline in wages always leads workers to work less.
9. The market wage elasticity of labor is zero. If this is the case, the excess burden of a tax on labor income will also be zero.
10. Points on a compensated labor supply curve are always more elastic than points for corresponding wage levels on a regular labor supply curve.
11. Comprehensive income is the sum of annual consumption and the change in net worth.
12. A tax on interest income does not prevent credit market from efficiently allocating resources.
13. If an individual is subject to a 30-percent income tax, then the net interest on a certificate of deposit yielding 5 percent would be 3.5 percent after taxes.
14. Because a tax on interest income results in income and substitution effects, it is not possible to pre¬dict the effect it will have on saving.
15. Most empirical studies indicate that the interest elasticity of supply of savings is close to zero.
16. Income tax became a permanent fixture in the United States starting in the early nineteenth century.
17. The Haig-Simons definition of income is different from comprehensive income.
18. Comprehensive income equals consumption plus the change in net worth.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Comprehensive income:
a. is the sum of annual consumption and realized capital gains.
b. is the sum of annual consumption and changes in net worth.
c. excludes corporation income.
d. is the sum of annual consumption and net worth.
2. A tax on labor income:
a. results only in an income effect that always decreases hours worked per year.
b. results in a substitution effect that always decreases hours worked per year.
c. results in an income effect that increases hours worked per year if leisure is a normal good.
d. both (a) and (b)
e. both (b) and (c)
3. The market supply of labor is perfectly inelastic. Then it follows that:
a. the substitution effect of wage changes is zero.
b. the income effect of wage changes is zero.
c. leisure is a normal good and the income effect of wage changes exactly offsets the substitution effect.
d. the excess burden of a tax on labor income will be zero.
4. The compensated labor supply curve:
a. will always be vertical.
b. will always be upward sloping.
c. will always be downward sloping.
d. reflects both the income and substitution effects of wage changes.
5. Using a regular labor supply curve instead of a compensated supply curve to calculate the excess burden of a tax on labor income will:
a. result in an accurate estimate of the excess burden.
b. overestimate the excess burden.
c. underestimate the excess burden.
d. accurately estimate the excess burden only if the market supply of labor is perfectly inelastic.
6. Most empirical research indicates that the market supply curve of labor hours by prime-age males is:
a. very elastic.
b. almost perfectly inelastic.
c. always upward sloping.
d. perfectly elastic.
7. A flat-rate tax on labor income will:
a. always reduce hours worked per year.
b. always increase hours worked per year.
c. either increase or decrease hours worked per year.
d. never have any effect on the amount of leisure hours per year.
8. A tax on interest income:
a. causes the gross interest rate paid by investors to exceed the net interest rate received by savers.
b. will always reduce saving.
c. will always increase saving.
d. is equivalent to a lump-sum tax.
9. If the market supply curve of savings is upward sloping, a tax on interest income will:
a. increase the amount of saving.
b. increase the market rate of interest.
c. decrease the market rate of interest.
d. have no effect on the market rate of interest.
10. If the supply of labor is perfectly inelastic, then the incidence of a payroll tax levied entirely on employers will be:
a. borne by employers as a reduction in profits.
b. split between workers and employers.
c. paid entirely by workers.
d. shifted forward to consumers.
11. Which of the following is true about comprehensive income?
a. Only labor income is included.
b. Only capital income is included.
c. Capital gains are not included.
d. Both realized and unrealized capital gains are included.
12. Which of the following will increase a person’s comprehensive income?
a. an increase in the market value of the person’s home
b. a decrease in the value of the person’s stock portfolio
c. a decrease in labor income
d. a decrease in consumption
13. A tax on labor income will:
a. increase the net wage received by workers.
b. decrease the net wage received by workers.
c. cause that net wage received by workers to decline below the gross wage paid by employers.
d. both (b) and (c)
14. If the return to savings, r, is subject to taxation at rate t, then in equilibrium a saver’s marginal rate of time preference will equal:
a. r
b. t
c. (1 + r)
d. [1 + r(1 – t)]
15. The higher the compensated elasticity of supply of savings,
a. the lower the excess burden of a tax on capital income.
b. the higher the excess burden of a tax on capital income.
c. the higher the excess burden of a tax on labor income.
d. both (b) and (c)
16. The Haig-Simons definition of income:
a. is the sum of annual consumption and realized capital gains.
b. is the sum of annual consumption and changes in net worth.
c. excludes corporation income.
d. is the sum of annual consumption and net worth.
17 Comprehensive income:
a. includes realized capital gains, but not unrealized capital gains
b. includes both realized and unrealized capital gains.
c. excludes cash from the sale of assets.
d. excludes increases in the value of assets.
18. Income-in-kind:
a. is exemplified by nonpecuniary returns.
b. is generally non-taxable because there is no monetary transaction.
c. is generally taxable.
d. both (a) and (b).
19. An example of a nonpecuniary return is:
a. job satisfaction.
b. unemployment benefits.
c. employer contributions to a retirement plan.
d. both (b) and (c).

20. Income from labor services (wages) account for what percentage of gross income in the U.S.?
a. 90%
b. 75%
c. 60%
d. 50%

CHAPTER 14
Taxation of Personal Income
in the United States
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. Taxable income in the United States exceeds adjusted gross income.
2. Taxable income in the United States includes all capital gains earned, whether or not they are realized.
3. Taxable income in the United States amounts to less than 50 percent of personal income.
4. Tax preferences are really subsidies to certain activities.
5. A tax deduction allowed for an activity for which positive externalities are not likely to exist (such as home ownership) is likely to cause the marginal social cost of the activity to exceed its marginal social benefit.
6. The value of a personal exemption to a taxpayer varies with his or her marginal tax rate.
7. The U.S. personal income tax is not a progressive tax.
8. The highest statutory marginal tax rate under the federal personal income tax is 50 percent.
9. Under current rules, only real interest earned is subject to income tax.
10. Realized, long-term capital gains that reflect inflation are currently exempt from taxation.
11. The tax base under the personal income tax in the United States is the Haig-Simons definition of comprehensive income.
12. Tax credits vary with a person’s marginal tax rate.
13. The cuts in marginal tax rates initiated in 2001 are likely to reduce the excess burden of tax pref¬erences.
14. The earned income tax credit is a negative tax the subsidizes the earnings of low-income workers.
15. If a progressive income tax is replaced with an equal-yield, flat-rate tax, then work effort will unequivocally increase.
16. As of 2009, there is no marriage penalty for an adjusted gross income of $60,000.
17. Tax preferences are exclusions, exemptions, and deductions from the tax base.
18. Income-in-kind is not considered a tax preference.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Adjusted gross income, as defined by the United States Tax Code,
a. exceeds taxable income.
b. equals taxable income.
c. is less than taxable income.
d. is greater than comprehensive income.
2. Tax preferences:
a. are exclusions, exemptions, and deductions from the tax base.
b. are in the tax code by accident.
c. are extra taxes on certain taxpayers.
d. increase the amount of income that is taxable.
e. both (a) and (d)
3. Currently, the tax treatment of capital gains in the United States is such that:
a. all capital gains are taxed.
b. all realized capital gains are taxed.
c. most realized capital gains are taxed.
d. only capital gains adjusted for inflation are taxed.
4. The exclusion of interest of state and local bonds from taxation by the federal government:
a. decreases interest costs for state and local governments.
b. increases interest costs for state and local governments.
c. benefits lower-income taxpayers more than upper-income taxpayers.
d. discourages borrowing by local governments.
5. The value of personal exemptions in terms of taxes saved:
a. is the same for all taxpayers.
b. varies with family size.
c. varies with taxpayers’ marginal tax rates.
d. both (b) and (c)
6. A taxpayer is in a 33-percent tax bracket and itemizes deductions. He obtains a mortgage from a bank at 9-percent interest. The actual rate of interest he pays is:
a. 6 percent.
b. 9 percent.
c. 20 percent.
d. 25 percent.
7. Tax expenditures are:
a. expenditures made to collect taxes.
b. losses in revenue due to tax preferences.
c. less than 1 percent of tax revenue.
d. both (b) and (c)
8. Under the federal personal income tax rules prevailing as of 2009,
a. all interest expense is tax deductible.
b. the interest expense for mortgages on first and second homes is tax deductible.
c. the interest expense for mortgages only on first homes is tax deductible.
d. no interest is tax deductible.
9. The reduction in marginal tax rates will:
a. increase the excess burden of tax preferences.
b. increase tax expenditures.
c. decrease the excess burden of tax preferences.
d. have no effect of tax expenditures.
10. “Bracket creep” is no longer a problem in the United States because:
a. the tax brackets are indexed.
b. capital gains are now fully taxable.
c. only real interest is taxed.
d. capital gains are indexed.
11. Which of the following is true for the federal income tax in the United States?
a. All income irrespective of its source or use is taxed at the same rate.
b. Comprehensive income is the tax base.
c. The tax base is less than 50 percent of comprehensive income.
d. All realized and unrealized capital gains are included in the tax base.
12. Because of the Earned Income Tax Credit, the effective tax rate for the lowest-income taxpayers in the United States is:
a. only 15 percent.
b. higher than that paid by upper-income taxpayers.
c. zero.
d. negative.
13. The excess burden of tax preferences:
a. depends on average tax rates.
b. will be higher, the higher the marginal tax rate is.
c. will be lower, the higher the marginal tax rate is.
d. is independent of marginal tax rates.
14. A shift to an equal-yield, flat-rate personal income tax from the current progressive income tax rate structure will:
a. reduce the tax burden on upper-income groups.
b. increase the tax burden on upper-income groups.
c. increase the share of taxes paid by lower-income groups.
d. both (a) and (c)
15. Removing savings from the tax base of the personal income tax is likely to:
a. increase work effort.
b. decrease work effort.
c. lower market equilibrium interest rates by increasing the supply of loanable funds.
d. increase market equilibrium interest rates, thereby increasing the demand for loanable funds.
16. Which is a justification for tax preferences?
a. administrative difficulties
b. improving equity
c. encouraging private expenditures that create external benefits
d. all of the above
17. If the excess burden from tax is $10 million, lowering marginal tax rates should make the excess burden:
a. more than $10 million.
b. less than $10 million.
c. remain at $10 million.
d. none of the above is certain to occur
18. Which of the following is the result of The Economic Growth and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act enacted in 2001?
a. reduction of the highest marginal tax rate
b. increased the marriage penalty
c. created a new 40% tax bracket
d. both (a) and (c)
19. As of 2009, the highest marginal tax rate is:
a. 39.6%
b. 38%
c. 35%
d. 32.5%
20. Which is an example of an itemized deduction under the U.S. code as of 2009?
a. state and local income tax
b. state and local property tax
c. all medical expenses
d. both (a) and (b)

CHAPTER 15
Taxation of Corporate Income
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. The corporate income tax in the United States is levied only on economic profits.
2. Imputed interest from retained earnings are not deducted when computing taxable corporate income.
3. In general, the shorter the depreciation period allowed for tax purposes, the higher the tax burden on corporations.
4. Accelerated depreciation allows a firm to deduct more than the actual economic depreciation from its income each year.
5. Inflation causes an understatement of true depreciation cost.
6. If a corporation maximizes profits, an ad valorem tax on its profits will result in a reduction in output in the short run.
7. Assuming that the corporate income tax is not shifted to consumers in the short run, the long-run effect will be a reduction in the return to investment in both the corporate and noncorporate sector.
8. The excess burden of the corporate income tax stems from a misallocation of investment between the corporate and noncorporate sectors when the supply of savings is perfectly inelastic.
9. When the supply of savings is not perfectly inelastic, the corporate income tax can be shifted to workers.
10. In the long run the corporate income tax has no effect on the price of products produced by corporations.
11. The corporate income tax in the United States is levied on the sum of economic and normal profits.
12. The corporate income tax is levied only on retained earnings with dividends paid out exempt from taxation.
13. Because the corporate income tax base includes dividends, those dividends are taxed twice if they are also included in the personal income tax base.
14. Because the opportunity cost of a corporate equity is not tax deductible, the corporate income tax encourages borrowing, which allows interest cost to be deducted from corporate income.
15. If the corporate income tax is not shifted in the short run, then in the long run it will reduce the return to capital in the corporate sector only.
16. Depreciation is based on historic cost.
17. During periods of inflation historic cost overstates replacement cost.
18. Corporate dividends are paid from post-tax income.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The tax base for the corporate income tax in the United States is:
a. the sum of normal and economic profits of corporations.
b. economic profits of corporations.
c. normal profits of corporations.
d. retained earnings of corporations.
2. Accelerated depreciation allows corporations to:
a. earn more interest on their capital costs.
b. reduce capital costs to zero.
c. reduce labor costs.
d. increase the time period over which assets are depreciated.
3. If corporations maximize profits, the short-run incidence of a tax on its profits will be borne by:
a. consumers.
b. all investors.
c. corporate shareholders.
d. workers.
4. Assuming that corporations maximize profits and investors seek to maximize the return to their investments, the long-run impact of a corporate income tax is to:
a. reduce the incomes of corporate shareholders only.
b. reduce the incomes of workers only.
c. reduce the incomes of all investors.
d. increase the price of both corporate and noncorporate goods.
5. Assuming that the supply of savings is perfectly inelastic, the corporate income tax prevents the attainment of efficiency by:
a. reducing annual savings.
b. reducing annual investment.
c. reducing wages.
d. causing a misallocation of investment between the corporate and noncorporate sectors
6. Assuming that corporations maximize profits and investors maximize the return from their invest¬ment, a corporate income tax is likely to:
a. increase the price of corporate goods.
b. decrease the price of noncorporate goods.
c. both (a) and (b)
d. have no effect on output prices.
7. Inflation affects corporate income by:
a. understating depreciation and inventory costs.
b. overstating capital gains.
c. both (a) and (b)
d. always increasing taxes.
8. Assuming that corporations maximize profits, that investors maximize the return to their invest¬ments, and that the supply of savings is not perfectly inelastic, in the long run a corporate income tax will:
a. not prevent investment markets from achieving efficiency.
b. reduce investment.
c. reduce wages.
d. both (b) and (c)
9. Which of the following is true about the economic effects of the corporate income tax?
a. Its incidence is likely to be borne entirely by workers.
b. Its incidence is likely to be borne only by shareholders of corporations.
c. Its incidence is likely to be borne only by consumers of corporate products.
d. Its incidence is likely to be shared by owners of capital, workers, and consumers of corporate products.
10. According to the Harberger model of the incidence of the corporate income tax, the tax:
a. reduces the return to capital in the corporate sector of the economy only.
b. reduces the return to capital in all uses.
c. has no effect on the return to capital.
d. increases the return to capital.
11. If corporations maximize profit, a corporate income tax:
a. has no affect on the profit-maximizing output in the short run.
b. reduces the profit, maximizing output in the short run.
c. increase the profit, maximizing output in the short run.
d. increases the supply of corporate output in the short run.

12. Under the corporation income tax in the United States,
a. interest on borrowed money cannot be deducted from the tax base.
b. only economic profits are taxed.
c. only normal profit is taxed.
d. the opportunity cost of equity cannot be deducted from the tax base.
13. If the supply of savings is not perfectly elastic, the corporate income tax is likely to:
a. increase investment.
b. decrease investment.
c. increase the supply of labor.
d. decrease the supply of labor.
14. In the long run a corporate income tax that initially reduces the return to investment in the corpo¬rate sector will also:
a. reduce the return to capital in noncorporate sectors.
b. increase the output of corporate goods.
c. decrease the output of noncorporate goods.
d. both (b) and (c)
15. Under the corporate income tax,
a. dividends paid out to shareholders are deducted from corporate income.
b. dividends are included in corporate income.
c. retained earnings are included in corporate income.
d. both (b) and (c)
16. The double taxation of dividends under U.S. tax code means:
a. dividends are taxed while not being adjusted for inflation.
b. dividends are paid from after-tax corporate income and then taxed again as personal income
c. dividends are deducted as an expense at the corporate level, but as a gain at the personal level
d. both (a) and (b)
17. If an all-equity firm has after-tax income of $100,000 based on a 34% income tax, what is the after-tax income of an equivalent firm that pays $15,000 in interest that is tax deductible?
a. $85,000.00
b. $105,100.00
c. $90,100.00
d. $100,000.00
18. If interest on corporate debt is tax deductible, a firm’s return on equity increases because:
a. after-tax income increases with the presence of debt.
b. generally, the presence of debt reduces the amount of equity to a greater effect than the reduction in after-tax.
c. debt reduces equity and increases after-tax income.
d. the presence of debt to lead to increases in dividends.

19. Assuming no change in the payout structure, what measure would reduce corporate financing costs?
a. allowing dividends to be deducted from income prior to assessing tax.
b. a reduction in the tax rate.
c. limiting the amount of interest that can be deducted from income prior to assessing tax.
d. both (a) and (b)
20. The effective tax rate is:
a. the same as the statutory tax rate.
b. based on real economic profits.
c. based on the nominal profits.
d. not inflation adjusted.

CHAPTER 16
Taxes on Consumption and Sales
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. Comprehensive consumption is measured by excluding increments in net worth from comprehen¬sive income.
2. If two persons have equal labor earnings over their lifetimes and never receive any gifts or inheri¬tances, then the discounted present value of income taxes that they pay will be the same despite any differences in their rates of saving.
3. A tax on comprehensive consumption will not prevent the attainment of efficiency in investment markets.
4. Under a comprehensive consumption tax, liability for payment of taxes on the amount of income saved in any year is deferred rather than eliminated.
5. Under a consumption tax, borrowing money will increase taxes that are due in the year the funds are borrowed.
6. If a flat-rate tax on comprehensive consumption yields the same revenue as a flat-rate tax on com¬prehensive income, the tax rate for the two taxes must be equal.
7. Substituting a comprehensive consumption tax for an equal-yield comprehensive income tax will reduce excess burden in the labor market.
8. Sales taxes in the United States generally tax all personal services.
9. The value-added tax as used in Western Europe generally exempts investment goods from taxation.
10. The value-added tax, collected through the invoice method, exempts intermediate purchases from taxation.
11. A comprehensive income tax is more favorable to the incentive to save than a comprehensive con¬sumption tax.
12. A comprehensive consumption tax is equivalent to a comprehensive tax on labor income.
13. A comprehensive consumption tax will not prevent labor markets from attaining efficiency.
14. The retail sales tax is a major source of revenue for the federal government in the United States.
15. As used in Europe, the value-added tax typically excludes services from the tax base.
16. A consumption tax is the same as an income tax.
17. Annual comprehensive consumption is equal to annual comprehensive income if there is no annual savings.
18. A sales tax encourages saving and discourages consumption.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A flat-rate tax on comprehensive consumption:
a. will reduce the market rate of interest.
b. will reduce net interest received by savers in any given year.
c. will not result in any difference between the gross interest rate paid by borrowers and the net interest rate received by savers.
d. causes no loss of efficiency in labor markets.
2. Assuming that a person never receives any cash gifts or bequests, a tax on comprehensive con¬sumption is equivalent to a(n):
a. tax on capital income.
b. tax on labor income.
c. income tax.
d. wealth tax.
3. A tax on comprehensive consumption:
a. will not influence a taxpayer’s work-leisure choice.
b. will not affect the incentive to save in ways that cause losses in efficiency.
c. is likely to reduce saving.
d. will exempt consumption of personal services from taxation.
4. Substitution of an equal-yield general consumption tax for an income tax will:
a. improve efficiency in investment markets.
b. impair efficiency in the labor market.
c. increase taxes paid by those earning interest on income.
d. both (a) and (b)
e. both (b) and (c)
5. The differential incidence of substituting a tax on comprehensive consumption for a tax on compre¬hensive income is likely to be:
a. regressive.
b. progressive.
c. proportional.
d. uncertain.
6. Suppose two individuals earn the same salary each year over their lifetimes. One individual saves 25 percent of his income each year, while the other saves nothing. Over their lifetimes under a comprehensive income tax,
a. the discounted present value of taxes paid will be the same for both.
b. the discounted present value of taxes paid will be greater for the saver.
c. the discounted present value of taxes paid will be greater for the nonsaver.
d. the saver will pay no tax on his interest income.
7. In most states, the retail sales tax can be regarded as equivalent to a:
a. comprehensive tax on consumption.
b. comprehensive tax on income.
c. set of selective excise taxes.
d. tax on the profits of retailers.
8. A consumption-type, value-added tax:
a. will not cause losses in efficiency in labor markets.
b. will not cause losses in efficiency in investment markets.
c. both (a) and (b)
d. taxes interest income.
9. The invoice method of collecting the value-added tax:
a. requires firms to compute value added.
b. taxes a firm’s sales at a fixed rate but allows a credit for taxes paid on purchases of interme¬diate goods.
c. requires firms to pay a fixed rate of taxation on both sales and purchases.
d. taxes only intermediate purchases at a fixed rate.
10. Which of the following statements about taxes on consumption are true?
a. Taxes on consumption do not distort choices between current and future consumption in ways that impair efficiency.
b. Taxes on consumption have the same economic effects as taxes on income.
c. Taxes on consumption are likely to reduce saving.
d. Taxes on consumption have no effect on real wages.
11. Comprehensive consumption is:
a. equal to comprehensive income.
b. is comprehensive income plus savings.
c. is comprehensive income minus savings.
d. excludes services.
12. A direct tax on comprehensive consumption:
a. requires taxpayers to report their annual income.
b. requires taxpayers to report their annual savings.
c. taxes savings.
d. both (a) and (b)
13. Which of the following taxes is likely to be most favorable for capital accumulation?
a. a comprehensive income tax
b. a comprehensive tax on wealth
c. a comprehensive tax on consumption
d. an excise tax on gasoline
14. As administered in most states in the United States, the retail sales tax:
a. has zero excess burden.
b. distorts the choice between taxed goods and untaxed services, resulting in some efficiency loss.
c. taxes all services.
d. discourages saving.
15. The value-added tax used in the European Union:
a. generally exempts services from taxation.
b. requires all taxpayers to report value added.
c. exempts investment purchases from taxation.
d. taxes all transactions at the same low rate.
16. Nicholas Kaldor argued:
a. consumption is a better index of the ability to pay than income.
b. savings entails sacrifice and results in no increase in well-being.
c. consumption provides little personal satisfaction and should be taxed for that reason.
d. both (a) and (b)
17. An adult’s life cycle is considered to begin:
a. 18 years old.
b. 21 years old.
c. upon earning fulltime employment.
d. none of the above
18. Consumption-in-kind:
a. is exemplified by services provided and consumed in the household.
b. is the same as income-in-kind
c. is easily determined.
d. both (a) and (b)
19. What below is taxable under a consumption tax system?
a. savings
b. contributions to social security
c. contributions to retirement funds
d. a bequest at death
20. A cash-flow tax is:
a. a modified version of a consumption tax.
b. a modified version of an income tax.
c. a tax that allows some savings to be excluded from tax.
d. both (a) and (c)

CHAPTER 17
Taxes on Wealth,
Property, and Estates
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. Wealth is a flow.
2. A wealth tax is equivalent to a tax on the return to saving.
3. If the supply of savings is perfectly inelastic, a comprehensive wealth tax will increase the market rate of interest.
4. Assuming that the supply curve of savings is upward sloping, a comprehensive wealth tax will reduce annual investment.
5. As administered in the United States, the local property tax is mainly a tax on real estate.
6. The property tax in the United States is likely to reduce the equilibrium return to investment.
7. The town of Oz has raised its property tax rates considerably above the national average. Other things being equal, capital is likely to flow into Oz in the long run because of the tax.
8. If a real estate tax causes rents to rise, it cannot be fully capitalized.
9. A tax on the value of land is likely to be fully capitalized.
10. The local property tax is likely to result in less than the efficient amount of investment in real estate.
11. A general tax on wealth will cause efficiency loss in labor markets.
12. The local property tax, as administered in the United States, is a general tax on wealth.
13. The local property tax in the United States will reduce the return to real estate only in the long run.
14. Other things being equal, if the property tax rate is above the national average for a jurisdiction, capital can be expected to flow out of the region in that area.
15. If a local property tax increase is fully capitalized, property owners at the time of the increase can¬not shift any of the current or future tax increase to buyers if they sell the property.
16. A person who never saves any income and receives no gifts and inheritances will never accumulate wealth.
17. Wealth taxes are a relatively new form of taxation.
18. Total wealth definitions never include intangible personal property.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Wealth is:
a. a flow.
b. a stock.
c. the market value of accumulated assets.
d. both (b) and (c)
2. A comprehensive wealth tax base includes:
a. all real tangible, intangible, and human wealth, less any claims against those assets.
b. only real property.
c. only intangible assets.
d. only tangible assets.
3. If the interest elasticity of supply of savings is zero, a comprehensive wealth tax will:
a. increase the market rate of interest.
b. reduce the income of savers.
c. reduce the income of workers.
d. both (b) and (c)
4. If the supply curve of savings is upward sloping, a comprehensive wealth tax will:
a. increase the market rate of interest.
b. reduce the market rate of interest.
c. have zero excess burden.
d. have no effect on investment.
5. A comprehensive wealth tax will:
a. impair efficiency in labor markets.
b. impair efficiency in investment markets.
c. both (a) and (b)
d. have no excess burden.
6. Assuming that investors seek to maximize the return on their investment, the long-run effect of a national tax on real estate will be to:
a. reduce the return to investment in real estate only.
b. reduce the return to investment in all assets.
c. reduce wages only.
d. increase the return to all investors.
7. A local property tax, such as that used in the United States, is likely to:
a. increase investment in the economy.
b. cause a flow of investment among jurisdictions.
c. decrease the return to saving in all uses.
d. both (b) and (c)
8. If a property tax on real estate is capitalized,
a. the price of real estate will rise.
b. the price of real estate will fall.
c. the price of real estate will be unaffected.
d. the burden of the tax will be transferred to buyers of real estate.
e. both (b) and (d)
9. Suppose that the current market rate of interest is 10 percent. The market rent on a parcel of land is $6,000 per year. A 10-percent land tax is imposed. As a result of the tax, the price of the land parcel:
a. falls from $60,000 to $30,000.
b. increases from $30,000 to $60,000.
c. falls 10 percent.
d. falls 20 percent.
10. If a tax on real estate results in a decrease in the supply of housing, the tax will be:
a. fully capitalized.
b. only partially capitalized.
c. not capitalized at all.
d. borne entirely by renters.
11. If the supply of saving is not perfectly inelastic in the nation, then which of the following taxes will cause efficiency loss in capital markets?
a. a general wealth tax
b. a national tax on real estate
c. a consumption tax
d. both (a) and (b)
12. The local property tax in the United States is levied primarily on:
a. personal property.
b. intangible property.
c. business property.
d. real estate.
13. Which of the following would not be included in a comprehensive wealth tax base?
a. real estate
b. personal property
c. intangible assets
d. residential rents
14. If the supply of real estate is not perfectly inelastic, then the local real estate property tax differentials:
a. cannot be shifted to tenants.
b. can be shifted to tenants through increases in rents.
c. will be fully capitalized.
d. both (a) and (c)
15. If the supply of saving is not perfectly inelastic, then substituting a value-added tax for an equal-yield general wealth tax will:
a. decrease market equilibrium interest rates.
b. increase the efficiency loss in labor markets.
c. decrease the efficiency loss in labor markets.
d. decrease efficiency in capital markets.
e. both (a) and (b)
16. Intangible personal property includes:
a. stock in companies.
b. corporate bonds.
c. cash.
d. all of the above
17. If the annual amount of savings is $10 billion, what is the effect of a wealth tax assuming supply is perfectly inelastic?
a. annual savings remains $10 billion
b. annual savings increases above $10 billion
c. annual savings falls below $10 billion
d. no particular effect is guaranteed to happen
18. If the annual amount of savings is $10 billion, what is the effect of a wealth tax assuming supply is responsive?
a. annual savings remains $10 billion
b. annual savings increases above $10 billion
c. annual savings falls below $10 billion
d. no particular effect is guaranteed to happen
19. From the point of view of the locality, increasing property taxes:
a. increases the price of locally produced goods.
b. decreases income of owners of land in the associated community.
c. does not affect buyers of locally produced goods fro outside of the community.
d. both (a) and (b)
20. Tax capitalization is:
a. a decrease in the value of a taxed asset at a level related to the discounted value of the future tax liability.
b. partially recognized when the supply of taxed asset is perfectly inelastic.
c. only partially recognized on assets like land.
d. both (b) and (c)

CHAPTER 18
Fiscal Federalism and State and Local Government Finance
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. A federal system of government allows a wider diversity of preferences for government-provided services to be accommodated when compared to nonfederal, centralized government.
2. Income redistribution is a service likely to be most effectively administered by the federal govern¬ment.
3. Economic stabilization can be easily supplied to citizens by local governments.
4. When each local government supplies goods and services to its citizens, the political equilibrium in each jurisdiction corresponds to the median most-preferred outcome of all national voters.
5. A federal system of government allows both centralized and decentralized collective choices.
6. Local tax bases are less elastic than national tax bases.
7. Tax exporting occurs if the price of goods produced in the state and purchased by out-of-state residents rises as a result of in-state taxes.
8. Matching categorical grants can be used to internalize interjurisdictional positive externalities.
9. Matching grants only result in income effects.
10. A matching grant will increase local government expenditures by more than an equal-value, general purpose grant.
11. A federal system of government only has a central government that supplies all public goods and services.
12. According to the Tiebout model of fiscal federalism, a system of many local governments improves the efficiency of allocation of resources to and among public goods.
13. If a local jurisdiction’s tax base is elastic, an increase in tax rates will decrease tax revenue.
14. Taxing hotel rooms and restaurant meals in a city with lots of tourism is an example of tax exporting.
15. Financing local schooling with the local property tax can guarantee equality of opportunity in education.
16. According to Tiebout, individuals will self-select into communities where the government budget best satisfies their own personal preferences.
17. Mobility between communities is not critical to the Tiebout model.
18. Interjurisdictional externalities are costs or benefits of local government goods and services to residents in other political jurisdictions.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Under a federal system of government,
a. all government goods and services are supplied by a central government.
b. all government goods and services are supplied by local governments.
c. both central and noncentral governments supply goods and services.
d. all public choices are made nationally.
2. Economic stabilization is most effectively provided by:
a. a central government.
b. state governments.
c. local governments.
d. regional governments.
3. A decentralized system of government:
a. tends to result in uniformity in the quantity and quality of government services in all jurisdic¬tions.
b. allows diversity in the quantity and quality of government goods and services.
c. conducts national elections on all issues.
d. is undemocratic.
4. The political equilibrium in a local jurisdiction for a given public good corresponds to the median most-preferred outcome of:
a. all national voters.
b. the President.
c. local voters.
d. both (a) and (c)
5. In general, local tax bases tend to be:
a. less elastic than national tax bases.
b. more elastic than national tax bases.
c. equally elastic when compared with national tax bases.
d. very inelastic.
6. According to the Tiebout model of local government expenditure,
a. all local governments will supply the same kinds and amounts of services.
b. mobile citizens respond to differences in taxes and expenditures by moving to the jurisdiction that maximizes their well-being.
c. the average costs of government services is constant.
d. tax rates do not influence a citizen’s choice of residence.
7. A categorical grant:
a. does not restrict the use of transferred funds.
b. usually specifies the use to which the funds must be applied.
c. is used rarely in the United States.
d. is not used at all in the United States.
8. A federal highway grant will provide funds for roads supplied by state and local governments if these governments pay 50 percent of the cost of the roads. This grant is an example of:
a. revenue sharing.
b. a matching categorical grant.
c. a general purpose grant.
d. a nonmatching block grant.
9. A grant received by a local government will:
a. not affect the political equilibrium in that jurisdiction.
b. change the political equilibrium in that jurisdiction.
c. always increase government expenditures in the recipient jurisdiction by the amount of grant.
d. both (b) and (c)
10. Matching grants:
a. will not increase government spending in recipient jurisdictions.
b. increase government expenditures in recipient jurisdictions more than nonmatching grants of an equal amount.
c. increase government expenditures in recipient jurisdictions less than nonmatching grants of an equal amount.
d. increase tax rates in recipient jurisdictions.
11. Which of the following is true about a federal system of government?
a. There is only one level of government.
b. There are several levels of government.
c. A central government directs local governments to supply all public goods at levels determined nationally.
d. There are only local governments.
12. The central economic problem of fiscal federalism is:
a. the division of taxing and expenditure functions among different levels of government.
b. the choice of the collective choice rule for central governments only.
c. the level of public goods to be provided by a central government only.
d. how to achieve an equitable distribution of income.
13. Which of the following is best supplied by local governments?
a. national defense
b. income redistribution
c. money
d. fire protection
14. Local public goods:
a. are pure public goods for the entire nation.
b. are those whose benefits are nonrival only for the population of a particular geographical area.
c. have benefits that are subject to exclusion by pricing for local consumers.
d. are best provided by a central government.
15. An increase in the local retail sales tax rate will increase revenue collected by a local government:
a. if the tax base is elastic.
b. if the tax base is unit elastic.
c. if the tax base in inelastic.
d. no matter what the value of the elasticity of the tax base.
16. Which is an example of a interjurisdictional externality?
a. residential property tax
b. local sales tax
c. wage tax on all workers in a community
d. both (b) and (c)
17. Mobility:
a. is not essential to the Tiebout model.
b. can hamper a jurisdiction’s ability to raise revenues.
c. may be part of the reason for the reliance on local property taxes for the raising of local government revenue.
d. both (b) and (c)
18. A local wage tax can:
a. create tax competition if a neighboring jurisdiction does not have such a tax.
b. export tax onto workers in the local jurisdiction who live outside of the local jurisdiction.
c. prevent tax competition among other local jurisdictions.
d. both (a) and (b)
19. Fiscal capacity:
a. decreases with the ability of the jurisdiction to export tax.
b. is a measure of the ability of a jurisdiction to finance government-provided services.
c. is always enhanced by mobility.
d. is not dependent on the wealth of the community.
20. What is generally the best measure of fiscal capacity for local governments?
a. income per capita
b. per capita retail sales
c. assessed valuation per capita
d. per capita expenditure