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BUS 536 Final Exam

BUS 536 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

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Chapter 7 Through 12

CHAPTER 7 – MAKING STRATEGIC ALLIANCEE AND NETWORKS WORK
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. Examples of equity-based alliances include strategic investment.

2. A non-JV, equity-based alliance can be regarded as two firms “getting married,” but not having “children.”

3. The term “strategic networks” is derived from the term “social networks” highlighting the social aspects of interfirm relationships.

4. In regards to strategic alliances and networks, in the traditional industry-based view, firms are dependent players.

5. From the view of industry structure, in oligopolistic industries, there are an above average number of available players as potential partners.

6. From the perspective of network position, firms located in the center of interfirm networks accumulate less power and influence.

7. Firms with a high degree of network centrality are likely to be more attractive partners.

8. Successful alliances and networks normally avoid socially complex relations among partners.

9. The ad hoc approach to organization allows firms to systematically learn from the experience.

10. Since firms act to enhance or protect their legitimacy, copying other reputable organizations is not a way to gain legitimacy.

11. In finding organizational partners, it is desirable to identify candidates that present both strategic fit and organizational fit.

12. The more tacit the resources and capabilities are, the less likely firms will prefer equity involvement in establishing relationships.

13. A firm would prefer equity relationships if it fears that its intellectual property may be expropriated by partners.

14. As each firm is likely to have multiple interfirm relationships, it is important to not manage the relationships as a corporate portfolio.

15. Possible ways to minimize the threat of opportunism include swapping critical skills and technologies through credible commitments.

16. In international alliances, setting up a parallel and reciprocal relationship in the foreign partner’s home country may decrease the incentives for both partners to cooperate.

17. Weak ties excel at connecting with distant others who possess unique and novel information.

18. Strong ties are more beneficial to environments conductive for exploitation whereas weak ties are more suitable for exploration.

19. An increase in the experience of one partner may bring instability into the relationship as it reduces the need to rely on the other partner.

20. Higher level shared technology is associated with lower profitability for parent firms.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Strategic alliances involve:
a. Voluntary agreements between firms.
b. Compromises between short-term transactions and long-term solutions.
c. Contracts.
d. Equity-based arrangements.
e. All of the above.

2. Contractual alliances include all of the following except:
a. Co-marketing.
b. Research and development (R&D) contracts.
c. Cross-shareholding.
d. Turnkey projects.
e. Licensing/franchising.

3. A joint venture can be described as:
a. A special case of equity-based alliance.
b. A new legally independent entity.
c. A “corporate child” given birth by two (or more) parent firms.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

4. Which represents an alliance with suppliers?
a. Horizontal alliances.
b. Upstream vertical.
c. Downstream vertical.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

5. Which is not an advantage of strategic alliances and networks?
a. Reduce costs, risks and uncertainties.
b. Costs of negotiation and coordination.
c. Gain access to complementary assets and capabilities.
d. Opportunities to learn from partners.
e. Possibilities to use alliances and networks as real options.

6. Which of the following are not true regarding managers involved in alliances and networks?
a. They require relationship skills which foster trust with partners.
b. They must guard against opportunism.
c. They must recognize that interests of the firms fully overlap.
d. They have to represent the interests of their respective firms.
e. They must attempt to make the complex relationship work.

7. Institution-based considerations regarding organization include:
a. Collusion concerns.
b. Entry requirements.
c. The social pressures to find partners.
d. The internalized beliefs in the value of collaboration.
e. All of the above.
8. Cooperation between rivals is usually suspected of being:
a. Tacit collusion.
b. Explicit collusion.
c. Socialism.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
9. Emerging trends concerning formal government policies on entry mode requirements include:
a. More liberal policies.
b. Imposing considerable requirements.
c. A and B above.
d. Welcoming wholly owned subsidiaries.
e. Banning joint ventures.

10. Which (if any) of the following are not involved in the stages of forming business relationships?
a. The decision to cooperate.
b. The decision to not cooperate.
c. The choice of contract or equity.
d. Positioning the Relationship.
e. All of the above are involved.

11. The strategic choice concerning whether to form cooperative interfirm relationships or to rely on pure market transactions or M&As to grow the firm is part of:
a. Stage One.
b. Stage Two.
c. Stage Three.
d. Stage Four.
e. Stage Five.

12. In comparing M&As with alliances and networks, which of the following is not correct?
a. M&As are costly.
b. M&As have significant transaction costs.
c. Many M&As end up destroying value.
d. Alliances and networks preclude future upgrading into possible M&As.
e. Alliances and networks can be considered as a flexible intermediate solution.

13. Strategic fit refers to whether the partner firm possesses:
a. Technology.
b. Capital.
c. Distribution channels.
d. A through C above.
e. Goals, experiences, and behaviors that facilitate cooperation.

14. The first concern in determining whether a relationship should be based on contract or equity is:
a. The kind of resources and capabilities that are shared.
b. Direct monitoring and control.
c. Real options.
d. Institutional constraints.
e. None of the above.

15. Weak ties in organizational relationships:
a. Are more trustworthy and are cultivated over a long period of time.
b. Are associated with exchanging finer-grained information.
c. Provide an informal, social control mechanism.
d. A through C above.
e. Are less costly to maintain.

16. As a type of relationship tie, exploitation refers to such things as:
a. Selfishness.
b. Choice.
c. Efficiency.
d. Execution.
e. B through D above.

17. In measuring the performance of strategic alliances and networks, subjective measures include:
a. Market performance.
b. Stability.
c. A and B above.
d. The level of managers’ satisfaction.
e. Longevity.

18. Which (if any) of the following will not influence the performance of alliances and networks?
a. Equity.
b. Learning and experience.
c. Nationality.
d. Relational capabilities.
e. All can have an influence.

19. A lower level of ____contribution may indicate a firm’s relative lack of commitment:
a. Equity
b. Learning and experience
c. Nationality
d. Relational capabilities
e. All of the above

20. The stock market responds favorably to alliance activities, but only under which circumstances?
a. Complementary resources.
b. Previous alliance experience.
c. Ability to manage the host country’s political risk.
d. Partner buyouts.
e. All of the above.

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. How can an organizational alliance be “win-win?” How can the concept of “cooperative specialization” help?

2. Why and how might a “real option” be useful in a joint venture?

3. A friend of yours stated: “I would never want to be dependent on an alliance. I prefer an acquisition so that everything would be under my control.” How would you respond?
4. What are the limitations in trying to clearly identify rights and expectations for alliances and acquisitions among global corporations?

5. What can be done to maintain a successful alliance among global firms?

CHAPTER 8 – MANAGING GLOBAL COMPETITIVE DYNAMICS

TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
21. Strategy involves planning for actions rather than reactions or interaction.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

22. Multimarket competition occurs when firms engage the same rivals in multiple markets.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

23. Multimarket competition destroys mutual forbearance.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

24. If an attack is so subtle that rivals are not aware of it, the attacker’s objectives are not likely to have been attained.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

25. If the attacked market is of marginal value, managers may decide not to counterattack.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

26. The “strategy as action” perspective highlights the power of creative destruction.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

27. Bargaining can take place through signals and actions.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

28. Industry-based considerations are fundamentally concerned with the very first of the Porter five forces, interfirm rivalry.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

29. Barriers for entrants with similar products and with substitute products are involved in the other two of the five forces.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

30. Collusion survives because it does not have an incentive problem as is illustrated by the prisoner’s dilemma.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

31. The capability to attack in multiple markets throws the firm off balance leaving it vulnerable to rivals and thus reducing value.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

32. Firms that have a high degree of resource similarity are likely to have similar strengths and weaknesses.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy
33. Under antitrust law a company can be in trouble for setting prices too high but not for setting them too low.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

34. US courts have not sought to unilaterally punish non-US cartels (if they are legal elsewhere) simply because they may have a substantial adverse impact on US markets.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

35. Critics of US policy on dumping at least agree that our policy on predatory pricing is consistent both domestically and internationally.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

36. Thrust makes use of military theory that the attacker needs to have at least a three-to-one advantage to overcome a well-defended position through a conventional frontal assault.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

37. Local firms’ primary strengths lie in a deep understanding of local markets, and thus they would pursue a dodger strategy.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

38. A strategy that leverages local assets is called an extender strategy.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

39. An extender strategy may be appropriate in some industries where pressures for globalization are relatively low.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

40. An extender strategy is being used when local firms engage in rapid learning to approach the capabilities of the MNEs and then expand overseas.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
21. Which is true of strategy?
f. Business strategy has similarities with military strategy.
g. Military principles cannot be completely applied in business.
h. Militaries fight over territories, waters, and air spaces, firms compete in markets.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

22. Which of the following are least likely to result in collusion?
f. High concentration ratio.
g. Heterogeneous products.
h. High entry barriers.
i. High market commonality.
j. Industry price leader exists.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

23. The main types of attack include:
f. Thrust.
g. Feint.
h. Gambit.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

24. Issues affecting collaboration include:
f. Secrecy.
g. Exclusivity.
h. Informality.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

25. In developing a strategy regarding competition or cooperation, it would be useful to not:
f. Understand the nature of your industry.
g. Strengthen capabilities that more effectively compete and/or cooperate.
h. Understand the rules of the game governing competition.
i. “Look ahead, reason back
j. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-8; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

26. Industry-based considerations regarding strategy:
f. Focus on the nature of collusion.
g. Deal with the relationship between industry structures and firms’ propensity to collude.
h. Deal with the relationship between industry structures and firms’ propensity to collude to competing.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

27. Explicit collusion is exemplified by:
f. Cartels.
g. Trusts.
h. Users of game theory.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

28. Firm A may be more successful in imitating Firm B if Firm B:
f. Is competitively aggressive.
g. Carries out complex actions.
h. Uses difficult to execute maneuvers.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

29. Which of the following will enable a firm to be competitive even if there is a lack of top management commitment and employee involvement?
a. Organizational structure.
b. Use of stealth attacks.
c. Rapid responses, and willingness to answer challenges.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

30. “The extent to which a given competitor possesses strategic endowment comparable, in terms of both type and amount, to those of the focal firm” refers to similarity of:
f. Strategy.
g. Resources.
h. Markets.
i. Industry.
j. Economic environment.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

31. Which of the following aspects of U.S. competition/antitrust policy has been opposed by the EU?
f. Collusive price setting.
g. Predatory pricing.
h. Extraterritoriality.
i. Court decisions.
j. Changes in policy.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

32. Cartels:
f. Involvecollusion.
g. Are often outlawed.
h. A and B above.
i. Entail the “prisoner’s dilemma for participants.
j. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy
33. Which is not true concerning US anti trust policy today?
f. Legislation has legally permitted rivals to join hands in research and development (R&D).
g. There is increased permissiveness regarding mergers among rivals.
h. Clarity of policy has improved.
i. The legal standards for interfirm cooperation are no longer ambiguous in the United States.
j. The legal standards for interfirm cooperation are ambiguous in many other countries.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

34. Dumping is defined as:
f. Shipping hazardous waste to locations in other countries.
g. An exporter selling below cost abroad.
h. Unloading unsold inventory from the US in other countries.
i. Excessive criticism of international rivals.
j. Getting rid of unprofitable operations.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

35. Which of the following would not be considered an initial set of actions to gain competitive advantage:
a. Price cuts.
b. Advertising campaigns.
c. Market entries.
d. Counterattacks.
e. New product introductions.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

36. A firm’s attack on a focal arena important to a competitor, but not the attacker’s true target area, is referred to as:
f. Thrust.
g. Feint.
h. Gambit.
i. Miscalculation.
j. Practice attack.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

37. The three drivers of counterattacks do not include:
f. Awareness.
g. Motivation.
h. Capability.
i. B and C above.
j. Vengeance.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Motivation Concepts
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

38. Which of the following is not a legal means of signaling?
f. Nonaggression or fat cat.
g. Direct discussion of reduced rivalry with competitors.
h. Truce seeking.
i. Communication via governments.
j. Strategic alliances.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

39. In some industries where pressures for globalization are relatively low, local firms may possess some skills and assets that are transferable overseas, thus leading to a/an_____strategy.
f. Defender
g. Extender
h. Dodger
i. Contender
j. Transfer
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

40. Local firms in emerging economies typically can at least match the ________ of MNEs.
a. Expertise
b. Experience
c. Endowments
d. A and B above
e. None of the above
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. The text points out that modern ideas of strategy, pioneered by Michael Porter, have turned IO economics “on its head.” While IO economics attempts to prevent any firm from gaining sustained competitive advantage, the very purpose of strategy is to gain a sustainable advantage. Is that good or bad?

2. Dumping involves selling something below cost. Using what you have learned in accounting or economics (or perhaps by talking to someone familiar with these courses) point out why it might sometimes be difficult to prove that a firm is selling below cost.

3. In the interest of maintaining high standards for international trade, the U.S. has at various times attempted to legislate the behavior of U.S. based companies. It has even at times tried to apply U.S. standards to those from other countries. Does this make sense to you?

4. Can national policies that seek to promote the well being of its citizens by its attempts to maintain competition actually have the opposite effect? Why or why not?

5. In some of the discussions of strategy. It was suggested that a firm might attempt to mislead a rival as to the firm’s true objective – i.e. feint. Is that unethical? Explain.

CHAPTER 9 – DIVERSIFYING, ACQUIRING, AND RESTRUCTURING
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
41. Operational synergy involves economies of scale.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

42. Not all product-related diversifiers outperform product-unrelated diversifiers.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

43. Porter’s five forces affect the structural attractiveness of an industry.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

44. The economic benefits of the last unit of growth (such as the last acquisition) can be defined as MBC.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

45. The scope of the firm is thus determined by a comparison between MEB and MBC.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

46. In the United States between the 1950s and 1970s MEB decreased, resulting in a decreased scope of the firm into conglomeration.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

47. By the 1980s MBC began to decrease.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

48. Interest in conglomerates has declined in emerging economies due to their developed capital markets.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

49. You should understand that the nature of your industry might call for diversification, acquisitions, and restructuring.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

50. You and your firm need to develop policies that avoid acquisitions and restructuring.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

51. Answering why firms choose different diversification strategies does not help answer why firms differ and how they behave.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

52. A superior product-related diversification strategy does not require a centralized and cooperative organizational architecture in order to add value.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

53. Instead of operational synergy, conglomerates focus on financial synergy.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

54. Diversification discount is the situation when unrelated-product diversification enables conglomerate units to beat stand-alone rivals.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

55. When conglomerate units are better off competing as stand-alone entities, we call it diversification premium.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

56. Research shows that the linkage between product diversification and firm performance seems to be inverted-U shaped.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

57. Porter’s five forces model can be used in regards to the structural attractiveness of an industry.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

58. High entry barriers often result in green-field entries as opposed to acquisitions.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

59. An industry whose products can be easily substituted faces more threats from other firms currently not in the same industry.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

60. Although the term mergers and acquisitions (M&As) is often used, in reality, acquisitions dominate the scene.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
41. Sources of operational synergy include:
k. Technologies.
l. Marketing.
m. Manufacturing.
n. All of the above.
o. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

42. Conglomeration tends to provide all of the following except:
k. Product-unrelated diversification.
l. Financial synergy.
m. Economies of scale.
n. Economies of scope.
o. Internal capital market.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

43. Diversification premium is the same thing as:
k. Conglomerate advantage.
l. Diversification discount.
m. Conglomerate disadvantage.
n. Level of product diversification.
o. Measurement of firm performance.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

44. Which would be more characteristic of conglomerates?
k. “Putting one’s eggs in one basket.”
l. “Putting one’s eggs in similar baskets.”
m. “Putting one’s eggs in different baskets.”
n. A and B above.
o. B and C above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

45. Research regarding the relationship between product diversification and firm performance indicates that:
k. Performance may increase as firms shift from single business strategies to product-related diversification.
l. Performance may decrease as firms change from product-related to –unrelated.
m. The linkage between diversification and performance is inverted U shaped.
n. “Putting your eggs in similar baskets,” has emerged as a balanced way to both reduce risk and leverage synergy.
o. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Challenging

46. Which geographic diversification is most likely to reduce the liability of foreignness?
k. Culturally adjacent countries.
l. Extensive international scope.
m. Beyond geographically neighboring countries.
n. Beyond culturally neighboring countries.
o. All of the above
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

47. Which is not true regarding geographic diversification and firm performance?
k. U-shaped relationship at low level of internationalization.
l. Initially a negative effect of international expansion on performance.
m. Affected by the liability of foreignness.
n. Inverted-U shape at moderate to high levels of internationalization.
o. Positive only at high levels of internationalization.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

48. In combining product and geographic diversification, which is not one of the four possible combinations?
k. Anchored replicators.
l. Multinational replicators.
m. Far-flung conglomerates.
n. Classic replicators.
o. Classic conglomerates.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

49. At its core, diversification is essentially driven by all of the following except:
a. Economic benefits.
b. Bureaucratic costs.
c. Synergy.
d. Less complicated information systems.
e. MEB.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

50. Select the best choice: a company that is engaged in oil production, pipelines and tankers, refining, and gasoline stations has engaged in ______________ expansion.
k. Horizontal
l. Vertical
m. Conglomerate
n. Friendly M&A
o. Hostile M&A
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Application; Difficulty: Moderate

51. Which is one motive for M&A which does not necessarily increase shareholder value?
k. Synergistic.
l. Hubris.
m. Performance.
n. A and C above.
o. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Motivation Concepts
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

52. Corporate scope is shaped by:
k. Industry conditions.
l. Firm capabilities.
m. Institutional constraints.
n. Opportunities in both developed and emerging economies.
o. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

53. Product-related diversification involves all of the following except:
k. A single business strategy.
l. Entries into activities that are related to a firm’s existing markets and/or activities.
m. The emphasis is on economies of scale rather than scope.
n. Increases in competitiveness.
o. Synergy.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: ; Difficulty: Challenging

54. Sources of operation synergy:
k. Technologies.
l. Marketing.
m. Manufacturing.
n. All of the above.
o. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

55. Diversification can pay off in all of the following situations except:
a. Risk is spread over several (product or country) markets.
b. Core resources are leveraged.
c. The art of post-acquisition integration has been mastered.
d. Commonly shared industry skills are used.
e. Firms are organized to minimize the costs.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

56. The following managerial motives for conglomerations do not benefit shareholders except:
k. Norms.
l. Reducing managers’ employment risk.
m. Organizational stability.
n. Pursuing power, prestige, and income.
o. Empire building.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Motivation Concepts
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

57. Which of the following is true regarding M&As?
k. As many as 70 percent of M&As reportedly fail.
l. On average, the acquiring firms’ performance improves after acquisitions.
m. Target firms, after being acquired and becoming internal units, often perform better than when they were independent, stand-alone firms.
n. The only identifiable losers are the shareholders of target (acquired) firms.
o. The outstanding success of M&As is due to pre- and post acquisition phases.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

58. To ensure the success of the M&A, managers need to make sure of all the following except:
k. Be willing to walk out when premiums are too high.
l. Engage in adequate due diligence concerning strategic fit.
m. Seek organizational contrast and variety rather than organizational fit.
n. Address the concerns of multiple stakeholders.
O. Recognize that that integration management is a fulltime job.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

59. Which is true regarding restructuring?
k. There are two primary ways of restructuring namely downsizing and upsizing.
l. A rising level of competition within an industry normally prevents restructuring.
m. Corporate restructuring is not widely embraced around the world.
n. Restructuring is one of the first things to consider when trying to improve profitability.
o. Restructuring is easier in knowledge-intensive firms than capital intensive firms.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

60. Which is true of relatedness?
a. Measurement of product relatedness is no longer debatable.
b. A “product-related” firm will be considered related regardless of the measure used.
c. Some argue that product relatedness refers specifically to the visible product linkages.
d. Relatedness can be a common underlying dominant logic that connects various businesses in a diversified firm.
e. Product-unrelated conglomerates are not linked by institutional relatedness.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. You recently noticed a comment in a blog which stated: “By its very nature, restructuring is a violation of CSR!” How do you feel about that?

2. In that same blog another person stated: “Decisions about diversification and acquisition are not based on the well being of the shareholder but instead on the needs of the CEO such as ego and job security. As a result, all such decisions should be submitted to a government agency for approval.” Do you agree? Why or why not?

3. Other comments you saw in the blog are less hostile to business. In one, the person was claiming that recent developments in financial markets suggest that it is time to revive the use of conglomerates. Based on what is happening now, do you agree? Why or why not?

4. You are the CEO of International Widget and you are contemplating expanding into Lower Slobovia. You have the resources needed to start from scratch in that country but it would be possible to acquire the company that dominates the Lower Slobovian Widget industry. Which do you think would be best: start from scratch or an acquisition?

5. You are the CEO of Mega Global Corporation and you are weighing a number of decisions involving diversification, acquisition, and restructuring. Long ago you were the manager of a mutual fund and you decide to make your decisions using the same approach as you used in managing that fund. How would that affect your decisions and decision process?

CHAPTER 10 – STRATEGIZING, STRUCTURING, AND LEARNING
AROUND THE WORLD
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
61. Home replication strategy emphasizes the home country replication of international based competencies.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

62. Localization strategy is an extension of the home replication strategy.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

63. Transnational strategy supposedly is a trade off between being cost efficient and locally responsive but is really locally responsive.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

64. Global product division structure is the same as the geographic area structure.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

65. Many MNEs have phased out the geographical area structure.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

66. Strategy drives structure: a misfit, such as combining a global strategy with a geographic area structure, may have grave performance consequences.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

67. The Porter five forces are not helpful in understanding MNE structure.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

68. No one argues that knowledge management is the defining feature of MNEs.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

69. It is obviously a lot easier to imitate an intangible philosophy or mentality than to imitate a tangible structure.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

70. Knowledge management not only depends on IT, but also on informal social relationships within the MNE.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

71. In a transnational MNE, the role of subsidiaries is to adapt and leverage parent company competencies.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

72. The “not invented here” syndrome causes managers to accept ideas invented elsewhere.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Individual Dynamics
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

73. MNEs often must rely on a great deal of informal integrating mechanisms.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

74. Overall, the micro, informal interpersonal relationships among managers of various units may create a micro-macro link.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

75. It is hard to distinguish between subsidiary initiative and empire building.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

76. European MNE’s are more likely than Japanese MNE to appoint host-country or third country nationals as head of a foreign subsidiary.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 10-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

77. Customer-focused dimensions cut across all three existing mainstream dimensions.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

78. Transnational strategy aims to capture “the best of both worlds” by endeavoring to be both cost efficient and locally responsive.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

79. An international division serves as a means of coordination with the rest of the firm.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

80. The text recommended that firms avoid simplifying both product and geographic scope by downsizing and downscoping.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
61. Pressures for cost reductions and local responsiveness include:
p. The framework of how to simultaneously deal with these two sets of pressures.
q. Host country demands and expectations.
r. Being locally responsive makes local customers and governments happy but increase costs.
s. All of the above.
t. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

62. Four strategic choices for MNEs do not include:
p. Home replication.
q. Domestic.
r. Multidomestic.
s. Transnational.
t. Global.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

63. Multidomestic strategy involves all of the following except:
p. Focuses on a number of foreign countries/regions.
q. Each foreign country is regarded as a stand-alone “domestic” market.
r. Is effective when there are clear differences among national and regional markets.
s. A multidomestic strategy has high costs.
t. Global standardization strategy is the same as a multidomestic strategy.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

64. The structure that is typically set up when firms initially expand abroad is a:
p. International division structure.
q. Geographic area structure.
r. Global product division structure.
s. Global matrix structure.
t. Flexible matrix structure.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

65. In which of the following structures are foreign subsidiary managers not given sufficient voice relative to domestic managers?
p. International division structure.
q. Geographic area structure.
r. Global product division structure.
s. Global matrix structure.
t. Flexible matrix structure.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

66. The most appropriate structure for a multidomestic strategy is a:
p. International division structure.
q. Geographic area structure.
r. Global product division structure.
s. Global matrix structure.
t. Flexible matrix structure.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Application; Difficulty: Moderate

67. Which of the following is not true of the global matrix structure?
p. Is often used to alleviate the disadvantages associated with the geographic area structure.
q. Is often used to alleviate the disadvantages associated with the global product division structures.
r. Often used for sharing and coordinating responsibilities between product divisions and geographic areas.
s. This structure benefits front-line managers who now have only one boss – either a country manager or a product division manager.
t. The matrix structure may add layers of management.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

68. Which are not true in regards to institution-based considerations?
p. Externally, MNEs are subject to the formal institutional frameworks erected by various home- and host-country governments.
q. Host-country governments often encourage, or coerce MNEs into undertaking certain activities.
r. Strategists weigh the informal, backlash against activities which result in domestic job losses.
s. Formal organizational charts do not necessarily reveal the informal rules of the game, such as organizational norms, values, and networks.
t. To staff the position of the head of a subsidiary, MNEs, in the absence of formal regulations, essentially have only one choice: to use a home-country national as the head of a subsidiary.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

69. The type of knowledge that is codifiable (that is, it can be written down and transferred without losing much of its richness) is called:
a. Explicit.
b. Implicit.
c. Tacit.
d. Lucid.
e. Clear.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

70. Knowledge management uses “centers of excellence” in which type of MNE?
p. Home replication.
q. Local (multidomestic).
r. Global.
s. Transnational.
t. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

71. Which is true of globalized R&D?
p. Is often known as innovation-avoidance expense.
q. One way to access such a high technology and research-rich cluster is to avoid FDI.
r. R&D work performed by different locations and teams around the world virtually guarantees failure.
s. For large firms, there are actually diminishing returns for R&D.
t. Global virtual teams, which do not meet face to face, may overcome communication and relationship barriers.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

72. This structure is commonly used in professional service firms:
p. Global account structure.
q. An industry sector structure.
r. Solutions-based structure.
s. All of the above.
t. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

73. This structure is often used to supply customers (often other MNEs) in a coordinated and consistent way across various countries.
p. Global account structure.
q. An industry sector structure.
r. Solutions-based structure.
s. All of the above.
t. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

74. Which of the following is a solution rather than a problem in knowledge management?
p. Open innovation.
q. Knowledge leakage.
r. Not invented here syndrome.
s. All of the above.
t. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Environmental Influence
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

75. Which of the following is not an argument in favor of centralization in knowledge management but instead is an argument in favor of decentralization?
a. Capability to facilitate corporate-wide coordination.
b. Consistency in decision-making.
c. Permits greater speed, flexibility, and innovation.
d. Sufficient power for corporate-level managers to initiate necessary actions.
e. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

76. Which of the following is not an argument in favor of decentralization in knowledge management but instead is an argument in favor of centralization?
p. Better motivates subsidiary-level managers and employees through empowerment.
q. Reduces corporate level overload of responsibilities.
r. Better motivates subsidiary level managers.
s. Sufficient power for corporate-level managers to initiate necessary actions.
t. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

77. Which of the following is a customer-focused dimension?
a. Global account structure.
b. An industry sector structure.
c. Solutions-based structure.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate
78. Unique to international competition are the pressures for local responsiveness, which are reflected in:
p. Consumer preferences.
q. Distribution channels.
r. Host country demands.
s. A through C above.
t. Shareholder demands.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Environmental Influence
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

79. Which of the following is a key idea regarding the reciprocal relationship between strategies and structures within MNEs?
p. The fit between strategies and structures is crucial.
q. The relationship is two way.
r. Strategies and structures are not static.
s. All of the above.
t. A good strategy cancels the effect of a bad structure.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

80. Which is not one of the suggestions for international managersthat can be drawn from this chapter?
a. Create a common structure for all MNEs.
b. Understand the nature and evolution of your industry.
c. Actively develop learning and innovation capabilities.
d. Masterthe external rules of the game.
e. Understand and be prepared to change the internal rules of the game.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. To what extent should a firm be committed to a particular strategy versus making frequent changes in the strategy? If a strategy is likely to be changed, what is the point in having one?

2. Normally when a firm first expands overseas, it may use an international division and later use a different organizational structure. Under what circumstances might such a firm wish to shift back to the use of an international division?

3. Global R&D has pros and cons for the firm that uses that approach. However, suppose you are the leader of the country where that firm is based. How might you view having R&D being conducted by a global team in a matter that is vital to the nation’s economic health/and or security?

4. Suppose you are the leader of a nation which currently has few capabilities other than a well-educated populace that could contribute to economic growth. However, you think you have a bright idea. You are going to encourage MNEs from around the world to locate their headquarters in your country. What might attract them and how might that pay off if you are successful?

5. Mega Global Corporation has centralized all of its global operations. The firm’s manager in Lower Slobovia would like to see more decentralization. Her complaint: “We are the experts on what needs to be done in this country but we have to get approval from people who have no idea as to what is going on here. That makes neither sense nor dollars.” Evaluate her statement.

CHAPTER 11 – GOVERNING THE CORPORATION AROUND THE WORLD
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
81. Founders usually start up firms and completely own and control these enterprises.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

82. Since the 1980s, state ownership has expanded and privatization has declined.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Environmental Influence
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

83. The relationship between shareholders and professional managers is a relationship between principals and agents.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

84. Principal-Principal Conflicts: such conflicts are within one class of principals such as a disagreement among certain majority stockholders and other majority stockholders.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

85. Inside directors are top executives of the firm.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

86. The trend around the world is to introduce more inside directors and less outside directors.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

87. CEO duality refers to a situation in which two people share the role of CEO.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

88. Board interlocks refers to bonding and teamwork among the members of a board of directors.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

89. How directors strategically prioritize is about the same around the world.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

90. The Market for Corporate Control is another term for the stock market.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

91. The Market for Private Equity involves going private by tapping into private equity.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-4; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

92. Overall, governance practices need to fit with the nature of the industry in which firms are competing. This cautions against prescribing universal “best” practices.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

93. Managerial human capital refers to the skills and abilities of top managers and directors.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

94. Formal legal protection encourages founding families and their heirs to dilute their equity.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

95. Large shareholders in emerging economies usually need to have a significantly lower percentage of shares to ensure control than in the US.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

96. The rise of capitalism has not affected governance.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

97. FPI investors demand less protection.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

98. The thirst for global capital requires adherence to listing requirements.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

99. Recently, stewardship theory suggests that by and large managers can be viewed as stewards of owners’ interests.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-7; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

100. Convergence advocates argue that a “survival-of the-fittest” process will force firms globally to accept the best practices exemplified by Anglo-American practices.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-7; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
81. Ownership will likely be diffused under which of the following situations?
u. A start up firm.
v. Family owned firm.
w. State ownership.
x. All of the above.
y. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

82. Issues involved regarding how a board of directors can be established so as to be most effective include:
u. The insider/outsider mix.
v. CEO duality.
w. Board Interlocks.
x. The Role of Boards of Directors.
y. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

83. Boards of directors perform all of the following except:
u. Control.
v. Service.
w. Resource acquisition functions.
x. A through C above.
y. Day to day operations.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

84. Which of the following make up a governance package?
u. Internal Mechanisms + External Mechanisms.
v. Carrots to motivate managers such as stock options.
w. Sticks that may result in CEO and top management team turnover.
x. The Market for Corporate Control.
y. The Market for Private Equity.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

85. Three decades of privatization suggest all of the following except:
u. Privatization to insiders helps improve the performance of small firms.
v. In large corporations privatization to insiders, without external governance pressures, is hardly conducive for needed restructuring.
w. Outside ownership and control, preferably by blockholders, funds, foreigners, and/ or banks, are more likely to facilitate restructuring.
x. Such outside ownership and control does not happen frequently because incumbent managers do not necessarily welcome such outside “intrusion.”
y. When outside investors such as institutional investors do come in, they fail to assert their power.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-7; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

86. Industry-Based Considerations regarding corporate governance include all of the following except:
u. Having more outside directors on the board is often regarded as having a negative impact on performance because of their lack of understanding as compared to insiders.
v. In industries characterized by rapid innovation requiring significant R&D investments (such as information technology), outside directors may have a negative impact on firm performance.
w. Research finds that for firms in low-growth, stable industries, no relationship exists between inside management ownership and firm performance.
x. In relatively high-growth, turbulent industries, there is a relationship between inside management ownership and firm performance.
y. In industries experiencing great turbulence, the presence of a single leader may allow a faster and more unified response to changing events.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

87. Institution-based considerations in governance include all of the following except:
u. Formal institutional framework.
v. International experience of senior executives.
w. Formal legal protection and impact on founder’s dilution of equity.
x. Lack of legal protection and its impact regarding large shareholders in emerging economies.
y. Impact of informal norms and values.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

88. Which are not among the aspects of globalization?
u. Contact with different governance norms.
v. FPI investors demand more protection.
w. The focus on governance has been replaced by a focus on shareholder value.
x. The thirst for global capital requires adherence to listing requirements.
y. The global diffusion of “best practices.”
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

89. Agency theory assumes that managers:
a. Have a responsibility to the owners.
b. Are agents who are opportunistic and engage in self-serving activities.
c. A and B above.
d. Can be left to their own devices.
e. Are effective steward of the owners’ interests.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

90. In regards to global convergence:
u. Advocates argue that globalization will unleash a “survival-of the-fittest” process.
v. Advocates claim firms will be forced to adopt globally the best practices.
w. Others contend that governance practices will continue to diverge throughout the world.
x. The text indicates that complete divergence in corporate governance is probably unrealistic.
y. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 11-7; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

91. Strategists should:
u. Understand the nature of principal–agent and principal–principal conflicts to create better governance mechanisms.
v. Develop firm-specific capabilities to differentiate on governance dimensions.
w. Understand the rules, anticipate changes, and be aware of differences, especially when doing business abroad.
x. Use an understanding of corporate governance to help answer the four fundamental questions in strategy.
y. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 11-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

92. As the closing case points out, the positive side private equity firms excel in all the following ways except:
p. They always send experts to sit on the board and are hands-on in managing.
q. They use a high level of debt that imposes strong financial discipline.
r. Private equity turns managers from agents to principals with substantial equity, thus providing a powerful incentive to them.
s. They pay managers more generously, but also punish failure more heavily.
t. They reduce income inequality between financiers and the rest of us.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

93. As the closing case points out on the negative side, private equity firms have been accused of all of the following except:
u. Being “barbarians.”
v. Being “asset strippers,” and “locusts.”
w. Internationally, causing shock in countries suddenly facing the full rigor of Anglo-American private equity.
x. Placing CSR ahead of all rational economic decisions.
y. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

94. The defense of private equity includes all of the following points except:
u. While private equity results in job cuts, the same might happen if targets were acquired by public firms.
v. It would not be rational for private buyers to destroy their prize therefore they attempt to avoid doing that.
w. Their record as corporate citizens is no more barbaric than that of public firms.
x. They point to a Texas utility in which owners paid shareholders a 25% premium, gave retail customers a 10% price cut, and dropped plans to build eight dirty coal-fired power plants—hailed by environmentalists as a major victory.
y. The actions of U.S. private equity firms have enhanced the image of the U.S. and capitalism around the world.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

95. Diffused ownership is the opposite of concentrated ownership, and is more common in:
a. The US and UK.
b. South America.
c. Asia.
d. Africa.
e. The Pacific.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

96. Most large, publicly traded UK corporations are now characterized by all of the following except:
u. Diffused ownership.
v. Numerous small shareholders.
w. A separation of ownership and control.
x. Control is largely concentrated in the hands of salaried, professional managers.
y. Corporate managers who own a majority of the stock.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

97. Which of the following is not true regarding large institutional investors?
u. They include professionally managed mutual funds and pension pools.
v. They now own over 50 percent of the stock in major corporations.
w. They are the controlling stockholders in China.
x. Their ability to dump the stock is limited because selling out depresses the share price and harms the institutions.
y. They are more likely to exercise shareholder rights than smaller investors.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

98. In regards to family ownership, all of the following are true except:
u. Most small firms in the world are owned and controlled by families.
v. The vast majority of large corporations throughout continental Europe, Asia, Latin America, and Africa no longer feature concentrated family ownership and control.
w. Family ownership and control may provide better incentives for the firm to focus on long-run performance.
x. Such ownership may also minimize the conflict between owners and professional managers typically encountered in widely owned firms.
y. Family ownership and control may lead to the selection of less qualified managers who happen to be the sons, daughters, and relatives of owners.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

99. Which of the following is true in regards to outside directors?
u. The trend around the world is to introduce less outside directors.
v. In the United States, less than a half century ago, most boards were made up entirely or largely of outside directors.
w. Many US firms are now favoring a board that is entirely made of people who are insiders due the need for people who can understand the increasing complexity of MNEs.
x. Japanese boards have not waited until they are in financial difficulty to bring in outside directors from banks.
Y. Academic research has failed to empirically establish a link between the outsider/insider ratio and firm performance.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

100. Which of the following is true regarding CEO duality?
a. From an agency theory standpoint, if the board is to supervise agents such as the CEO, it seems imperative that the board be chaired by the same individual.
b. In US firms with CEO duality, the trend now is to appoint a lead independent director, who chairs the sessions held by outside directors that do not involve company executives.
c. A corporation led by two top leaders—a board chairman and a CEO – will at least have unity of command and experience less top-level conflict.
d. East Asia and Latin America where most firms have concentrated family ownership and control, there is less CEO duality.
e. Firms around the world are being pressured to combine the two top jobs.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. You are the founder of a firm that appears to have significant long-term growth potential. Right now you and your family own 100% of the firm’s shares and you are trying to figure out to keep things that way. How might you do that? Should you do that?

2. At this present time, what do you see happening in regards to privatization of SOEs?

3. Are there potential issues involving economic power and national sovereignty in the dominant stock ownership position of institutional investors?

4. Can interlocking directorates lead to unfair market advantages and investor exploitation? How?

5. What is the potential relationship between concern about a board dominated by insiders and concern about excess executive pay?

CHAPTER 12 – STRATEGIZING WITH CORPORATE SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
101. A stakeholder is “any group or individual who can affect or is affected by the achievement of the organization’s objectives.”
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

102. Nearly all CSR advocates argue for a revival of socialism in the world.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

103. The more concentrated an industry is, the more likely that competitors will recognize their mutual interdependence based on old ways of doing business that are not up to the higher CSR standards.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate
104. Companies have had their CSR policies certified by NGOs that might otherwise be hostile.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

105. Firms pursuing a reactive CSR strategy actively participate in policy discussions, build alliances with stakeholder groups, and voluntarily go beyond what the regulations require.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

106. Since each firm is different (a basic assumption of the resource-based view), not every firm’s economic performance is likely to benefit from CSR.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

107. A key goal for CSR is global sustainability, which is defined as the ability “to meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs.”
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

108. According to the text, one driver of CSR in the twenty-first century is the declining levels of population in some countries.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Environmental Influence
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

109. The anti-WTO protests in Seattle in 1999 are indicative of resentment against globalization and a perceived lack of CSR in firms, particularly those that relocate offices (and jobs) to foreign countries.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

110. Compared with the relatively expanded power of national governments in the wake of globalization, NGOs and other civil society stakeholders have lost the ability to affect firms and their management or to impact legislation.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

111. Suppliers and customers are typically considered primary stakeholders.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

112. Primary stakeholder groups are defined as “those who influence or affect, or are influenced or affected by, the corporation, but they are not engaged in transactions with the corporation and are not essential for its survival.”
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

113. Milton Friedman, a University of Chicago economist and Nobel laureate, suggested: “The business of business is business.”
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

114. Advocates of shareholder capitalism argue that if firms attempt to attain social goals, it will actually help them focus on profit maximization (and its derivative, shareholder value maximization).
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

115. The more concentrated an industry is, the more likely that competitors will recognize their mutual interdependence based on old ways of doing business that are not up to the higher CSR standards.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

116. The five forces framework reinforces the important point that all industries are equal in terms of their exposure to CSR challenges.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

117. There is no conclusive evidence of a direct, positive link between CSR and economic performance, such as profits and shareholder returns.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

118. Reactive Strategy often involves an “out of sight, out of mind” mentality.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

119. Although framed in a domestic versus overseas context, the heart of this debate boils down to the foundational thorny point that frustrates CSR advocates: In a capitalist society, the shareholders—otherwise known as capitalists—are the ones who matter at the end of the day.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

120. The idea that MNEs should not interfere in the domestic political affairs of the host country has been enshrined in a number of codes of MNE but CSR advocates have stressed the necessity for MNEs to engage in actions that often constitute political activity.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
101. CSR tends to be the least concerned with improving:
z. Global sustainability.
aa. Shareholder wealth maximization.
bb. Rising levels of population.
cc. Inequity.
dd. High levels of poverty in some countries.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

102. NGOs have the ability to:
z. Affect firms’practices.
aa. Influence firms’ management.
bb. Impact legislation.
cc. All of the above.
dd. None of the above
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

103. Secondary stakeholder groups are:
z. Constituents on whom the firm relies for its continuous survival and prosperity.
aa. Those who do not influence or affect the corporation.
bb. Not influenced or affected by the corporation.
cc. Not engaged in transactions with the corporation and are not essential for its survival.
dd. B through D above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

104. The CSR debate centers on the question:
z. Why does the firm exist?
aa. Why does private property exist?
bb. What laws are needed to control the firm’s behavior?
cc. What can be done to prevent unreasonable profits?
dd. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

105. Free market advocates tend to do all of the following except:
z. Argue that “the social responsibility of business is to increase its profits, which leads to efficient capital and product markets.”
aa. Argue that all stakeholders have an equal right to bargain for a “fair deal.”
bb. Believe that the first and foremost stakeholder group is shareholders.
cc. Argue that if firms attempt to attain social goals, managers will lose their focus on profit maximization.
dd. Fear that firms will become like SOEs.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

106. Those who advocate CSR:
z. Conduct their debate within the constraints of capitalism.
aa. Argue that a humane capitalism is an oxymoron and unattainable.
bb. Argue that the concepts justice and fairness are simply matters of opinion.
cc. Argue that the most important stakeholder is the stockholder.
dd. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

107. Using the five forces model, which will likely result in a higher level of CSR?
z. A highly concentrated industry.
aa. Existence of incumbents.
bb. Socially and environmentally conscious suppliers with standardized products that have multiple substitutes.
cc. No monitoring program for all supplier factories.
dd. Substitutes that are superior to existing products and costs are reasonable.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

108. Which is not true about CSR?
z. Some CSR policies may reduce the firm’s value.
aa. CSR policies may not pay off if common.
bb. CSR that is embedded in people is easier to imitate.
cc. Organization: a firm needs to tie together CSR activities.
dd. It is difficult to prove a link between CSR and economic performance.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

109. Which of the following is an accommodative CSR strategy?
a. Neither for or against CSR.
b. Resist imposition of what seems unreasonable.
c. View CSR as worthwhile.
d. Actively participate in CSR policy discussion.
e. Voluntarily go beyond what the regulations require.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

110. Those who feel that firms that expand into emerging economies are failing their CSR responsibilities are most likely to claim that it:
z. Potentially hurts corporate profits.
aa. Reduces shareholder returns.
bb. Fails to provide employment to host countries.
cc. Reduces the standard of living in host countries.
dd. Domestic employees and communities pay the price for the overseas expansion.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

111. There is agreement throughout society that:
z. Overseas expansion is good because it helps improve standards of living around the world.
aa. Overseas expansion is bad because it causes loss of jobs in the home country.
bb. Firms should stick strictly to business within a country and not seek to impose their views of human rights on other countries that have different views.
cc. Firms have a responsibility to do whatever is necessary to assure that the human rights that are respected in the home country are implemented in host countries.
dd. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

112. An example of a primary stakeholder group is:
u. Media.
v. Social activists.
w. Environmental groups.
x. Employees.
y. Fair labor practice groups.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate
113. An example of a secondary stakeholder group is:
z. Social and environmental groups.
aa. Suppliers.
bb. Customers.
cc. Governments.
dd. Communities.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

114. In regards to managers and CSR, the following is true except:
z. All sides of the CSR debate agree that they have a unique and central role.
aa. All sides of the CSR debate agree as to how they should implement their role.
bb. As a stakeholder group they are unique in terms of potential coordination.
cc. They are positioned at the center of all the stakeholder relationships.
dd. They make decisions on behalf of the firm that affect other stakeholders.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

115. In regard to the extent of CSR challenges, the following is true except:
a. All industries are equal in terms of their exposure to CSR challenges.
b. Energy- and materials-intensive industries (such as chemicals) have been criticized.
c. Firms that are major outsourcers in foreign countries have been criticized.
d. Some firms have turned to NGO critics to have the NGOs certify their policies.
e. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

116. In regards to the link between CSR and economic performance:
z. There is no conclusive evidence of a direct, positive link between CSR and economic performance.
aa. Some studies report a positive relationship.
bb. Some studies find a negative relationship or no relationship.
cc. It appears some firms are not cut out for a CSR-intensive strategy.
dd. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

117. The instrumental view of CSR advocates who are skeptical of CSR compliance claims:
z. That firms may not necessarily be sincere.
aa. That firms may be compelled to appear to be sensitive to CSR by impression management—in other words, “window dressing.”
bb. That many firms may chase fads by following what others are doing, while not having truly internalized the need for CSR.
cc. That CSR activities simply represent a useful means to help make good profits. Firms are not necessarily becoming more “ethical.”
dd. All of the above
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

118. Some CSR advocates who question motives of firms implementing CSR are pleased that:
z. Firms are embarking on some tangible CSR journey.
aa. CSR’s legitimacy is rising on the organizational agenda.
bb. By adopting codes of conduct (even if only for “window dressing” purposes), they create a set of criteria against which they can be judged.
cc. All of the above.
dd. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

119. Reactive firms:
z. Actively participate in regional, national, and international policy discussions.
aa. Often build alliances with stakeholder groups.
bb. Engage in voluntary activities that go beyond what the regulations require.
cc. React negatively to aspects of CSR that may increase costs.
dd. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

120. From an institutional perspective, proactive activities are indicative of all the following except:
a. Normative beliefs.
b. Cognitive beliefs.
c. The desire to do the right thing.
d. An absence of “window dressing.”
e. A quest for better profits.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
6. Your firm has sought to be a responsible part of the community and has sought out ways to implement CSR within your capabilities. However, a news organization that has been trying to boost its ratings has done a series on your organization that suggests that your product is harming consumers and the community’s environment. You believe the reports are totally false but protests have recently been directed toward your facilities and a politician who seeking an issue has been loudly condemning your organization? Some of your shareholders are suggesting that the company takes its losses on the product by discontinuing it rather than risk further damage to the company and its reputation. What should you do?

7. Last week you attended a series of lectures at the local university in which the speakers were discussing the role of corporations (such as yours) overseas. The first lecturer discussed the role of MNEs over the years as instruments of national power for the country in which they were based and discussed instances in which the firms became involved in local politics. The speaker condemned such companies as imperialists for attempting to impose U.S. values on foreign nations. The last speaker in the series argued that MNEs have a responsibility to identify injustice and violation of human rights in the nations where they operate and to use either persuasion or economic pressure to bring about change. Whose advice will you follow?

8. A representative of an NGO that has a very significant influence on some your key stakeholders (especially your customers) has met with you. The person has indicated that they are considering conducting a campaign against one of your policies. You feel the policy is totally justified but you have seen how the organization has smeared and destroyed others that it has targeted. The person seems to be hinting that perhaps they might launch a campaign against some other target if you demonstrated CSR by making a big contribution to the NGO. You feel that you are a victim of extortion but the cost of buying them off might be less than the damage that they could do to you. What should you do?

9. Your company has been active in CSR. It has even avoided shutting down its local factory and moving its production overseas where its labor costs could be significantly less because it recognizes the harm that would do the employees and the community. However, the CSR has resulted in a lower level of profitability and now a corporate raider appears to be ready to launch a takeover bid for your company. In the past, when that raider has taken over a company, payrolls have been slashed, all CSR has been discontinued, and nearly all stakeholders other than some investors have been harmed. What should you?

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Part 2: Chapter 11 Through 15

 

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Week 11 Quiz 10: Chapter 14

 

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Acc 206, acc 304, acc 350, acc 401, acc 410, acc 555, acc 557, acc 560, acc 563, acc 564, acc 571, acc 576, bus 230, bus 309, bus 310, bus 322, bus 335, bus 365, bus 402, bus 430, bus 508, bus 515, bus 517, bus 518, bus 519, bus 521, bus 536, cis 210, cis 499, cis 501, cis 502, cis 505, cis 513, cis 518, cis 519, cis 524, cis 562, eco 302, eco 305, eco 405, eco 410, eco 450, eco 550, fin 317, fin 350, fin 535, fin 540, hrm 500, hrm 510, hrm 522, hsa 590, leg 500, mgt 510, mkt 475, mkt 500, mkt 515, pad 500, pad 530,
Week 11 Final Exam, Assignments, Quiz, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems,

ACC 206, ACC 303, ACC 304, ACC 350, ACC 401, ACC 410, ACC 555, ACC 556, ACC 557, ACC 560, ACC 562, ACC 563, ACC 564, ACC 565, ACC 571, ACC 576, BUS 230, BUS 309, BUS 310, BUS 322, BUS 325, BUS 335, BUS 365, BUS 402, BUS 430, BUS 508, BUS 515, BUS 517, BUS 518, BUS 519, BUS 521,BUS 536, CIS 210, CIS 499, CIS 501,CIS 505,CIS 513, CIS 518, CIS 519, CIS 524, CIS 562, ECO 302, ECO 305, ECO 405, ECO 410,ECO 450, ECO 550, FIN 317, FIN 320, FIN 350, FIN 534, FIN 535, FIN 540, HRM 500, HRM 510, HRM 522, HSA 590, LEG 320, LEG 500, MGT 510, MKT 475, MKT 500, MKT 515, PAD 500,PAD 530, Week 5 Midterm Exam, Quiz, Assignments, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems – Strayer University New

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Week 5 DQ

 

 

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Week 5 DQ

 

 

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Week 5 DQ

ACC 206, ACC 303, ACC 304, ACC 350, ACC 401, ACC 410, ACC 555, ACC 556, ACC 557, ACC 560, ACC 562, ACC 563, ACC 564, ACC 565, ACC 571, ACC 576, BUS 230, BUS 309, BUS 310, BUS 322, BUS 325, BUS 335, BUS 365, BUS 402, BUS 430, BUS 508, BUS 515, BUS 517, BUS 518, BUS 519, BUS 521,BUS 536, CIS 210, CIS 499, CIS 501,CIS 505,CIS 513, CIS 518, CIS 519, CIS 524, CIS 562, ECO 302, ECO 305, ECO 405, ECO 410,ECO 450, ECO 550, FIN 317, FIN 320, FIN 350, FIN 534, FIN 535, FIN 540, HRM 500, HRM 510, HRM 522, HSA 590, LEG 320, LEG 500, MGT 510, MKT 475, MKT 500, MKT 515, PAD 500,PAD 530,

Week 5 Midterm Exam, Quiz, Assignments, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems,

Acc/206, acc/304, acc/350, acc/401, acc/410, acc/555, acc/557, acc/560, acc/563, acc/564, acc/571, acc/576, bus/230, bus/309, bus/310, bus/322, bus/335, bus/365, bus/402, bus/430, bus/508, bus/515, bus/517, bus/518, bus/519, bus/521, bus/536, cis/210, cis/499, cis/501, cis/502, cis/505, cis/513, cis/518, cis/519, cis/524, cis/562, eco/302, eco/305, eco/405, eco/410, eco/450, eco/550, fin/317, fin/320, fin/350, fin/535, fin/540, hrm/500, hrm/510, hrm/522, hsa/590, leg/500, mgt/510, mkt/475, mkt/500, mkt/515, pad/500, pad/530, Week 11 Final Exam, Assignments, Quiz, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems – Strayer University New

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Quiz (Chapter 15 – 16) Final Exam (Chapter 5, 8, and 10 – 16)

 

 

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Chapter 14

 

 

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Chapter 17 and 18

 

 

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Acc 206, acc 304, acc 350, acc 401, acc 410, acc 555, acc 557, acc 560, acc 563, acc 564, acc 571, acc 576, bus 230, bus 309, bus 310, bus 322, bus 335, bus 365, bus 402, bus 430, bus 508, bus 515, bus 517, bus 518, bus 519, bus 521, bus 536, cis 210, cis 499, cis 501, cis 502, cis 505, cis 513, cis 518, cis 519, cis 524, cis 562, eco 302, eco 305, eco 405, eco 410, eco 450, eco 550, fin 317, fin 320, fin 350, fin 535, fin 540, hrm 500, hrm 510, hrm 522, hsa 590, leg 500, mgt 510, mkt 475, mkt 500, mkt 515, pad 500, pad 530,
Week 11 Final Exam, Assignments, Quiz, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems,

Acc 206, acc 304, acc 350, acc 401, acc 410, acc 555, acc 557, acc 560, acc 563, acc 564, acc 571, acc 576, bus 230, bus 309, bus 310, bus 322, bus 335, bus 365, bus 402, bus 430, bus 508, bus 515, bus 517, bus 518, bus 519, bus 521, bus 536, cis 210, cis 499, cis 501, cis 502, cis 505, cis 513, cis 518, cis 519, cis 524, cis 562, eco 302, eco 305, eco 405, eco 410, eco 450, eco 550, fin 317, fin 320, fin 350, fin 535, fin 540, hrm 500, hrm 510, hrm 522, hsa 590, leg 500, mgt 510, mkt 475, mkt 500, mkt 515, pad 500, pad 530, Week 11 Final Exam, Assignments, Quiz, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems – Strayer University New

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Chapters 1 Through 9

 

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Chapters 1 Through 15

 

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Quiz 10 Chapter 15

 

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Chapter 9 Through 19

 

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Week 11 Final Exam, Assignments, Quiz, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems,

BUS 536 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer University New

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Chapter 7 Through 12

CHAPTER 7 – MAKING STRATEGIC ALLIANCEE AND NETWORKS WORK
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. Examples of equity-based alliances include strategic investment.

2. A non-JV, equity-based alliance can be regarded as two firms “getting married,” but not having “children.”

3. The term “strategic networks” is derived from the term “social networks” highlighting the social aspects of interfirm relationships.

4. In regards to strategic alliances and networks, in the traditional industry-based view, firms are dependent players.

5. From the view of industry structure, in oligopolistic industries, there are an above average number of available players as potential partners.

6. From the perspective of network position, firms located in the center of interfirm networks accumulate less power and influence.

7. Firms with a high degree of network centrality are likely to be more attractive partners.

8. Successful alliances and networks normally avoid socially complex relations among partners.

9. The ad hoc approach to organization allows firms to systematically learn from the experience.

10. Since firms act to enhance or protect their legitimacy, copying other reputable organizations is not a way to gain legitimacy.

11. In finding organizational partners, it is desirable to identify candidates that present both strategic fit and organizational fit.

12. The more tacit the resources and capabilities are, the less likely firms will prefer equity involvement in establishing relationships.

13. A firm would prefer equity relationships if it fears that its intellectual property may be expropriated by partners.

14. As each firm is likely to have multiple interfirm relationships, it is important to not manage the relationships as a corporate portfolio.

15. Possible ways to minimize the threat of opportunism include swapping critical skills and technologies through credible commitments.

16. In international alliances, setting up a parallel and reciprocal relationship in the foreign partner’s home country may decrease the incentives for both partners to cooperate.

17. Weak ties excel at connecting with distant others who possess unique and novel information.

18. Strong ties are more beneficial to environments conductive for exploitation whereas weak ties are more suitable for exploration.

19. An increase in the experience of one partner may bring instability into the relationship as it reduces the need to rely on the other partner.

20. Higher level shared technology is associated with lower profitability for parent firms.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Strategic alliances involve:
a. Voluntary agreements between firms.
b. Compromises between short-term transactions and long-term solutions.
c. Contracts.
d. Equity-based arrangements.
e. All of the above.

2. Contractual alliances include all of the following except:
a. Co-marketing.
b. Research and development (R&D) contracts.
c. Cross-shareholding.
d. Turnkey projects.
e. Licensing/franchising.

3. A joint venture can be described as:
a. A special case of equity-based alliance.
b. A new legally independent entity.
c. A “corporate child” given birth by two (or more) parent firms.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

4. Which represents an alliance with suppliers?
a. Horizontal alliances.
b. Upstream vertical.
c. Downstream vertical.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

5. Which is not an advantage of strategic alliances and networks?
a. Reduce costs, risks and uncertainties.
b. Costs of negotiation and coordination.
c. Gain access to complementary assets and capabilities.
d. Opportunities to learn from partners.
e. Possibilities to use alliances and networks as real options.

6. Which of the following are not true regarding managers involved in alliances and networks?
a. They require relationship skills which foster trust with partners.
b. They must guard against opportunism.
c. They must recognize that interests of the firms fully overlap.
d. They have to represent the interests of their respective firms.
e. They must attempt to make the complex relationship work.

7. Institution-based considerations regarding organization include:
a. Collusion concerns.
b. Entry requirements.
c. The social pressures to find partners.
d. The internalized beliefs in the value of collaboration.
e. All of the above.
8. Cooperation between rivals is usually suspected of being:
a. Tacit collusion.
b. Explicit collusion.
c. Socialism.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
9. Emerging trends concerning formal government policies on entry mode requirements include:
a. More liberal policies.
b. Imposing considerable requirements.
c. A and B above.
d. Welcoming wholly owned subsidiaries.
e. Banning joint ventures.

10. Which (if any) of the following are not involved in the stages of forming business relationships?
a. The decision to cooperate.
b. The decision to not cooperate.
c. The choice of contract or equity.
d. Positioning the Relationship.
e. All of the above are involved.

11. The strategic choice concerning whether to form cooperative interfirm relationships or to rely on pure market transactions or M&As to grow the firm is part of:
a. Stage One.
b. Stage Two.
c. Stage Three.
d. Stage Four.
e. Stage Five.

12. In comparing M&As with alliances and networks, which of the following is not correct?
a. M&As are costly.
b. M&As have significant transaction costs.
c. Many M&As end up destroying value.
d. Alliances and networks preclude future upgrading into possible M&As.
e. Alliances and networks can be considered as a flexible intermediate solution.

13. Strategic fit refers to whether the partner firm possesses:
a. Technology.
b. Capital.
c. Distribution channels.
d. A through C above.
e. Goals, experiences, and behaviors that facilitate cooperation.

14. The first concern in determining whether a relationship should be based on contract or equity is:
a. The kind of resources and capabilities that are shared.
b. Direct monitoring and control.
c. Real options.
d. Institutional constraints.
e. None of the above.

15. Weak ties in organizational relationships:
a. Are more trustworthy and are cultivated over a long period of time.
b. Are associated with exchanging finer-grained information.
c. Provide an informal, social control mechanism.
d. A through C above.
e. Are less costly to maintain.

16. As a type of relationship tie, exploitation refers to such things as:
a. Selfishness.
b. Choice.
c. Efficiency.
d. Execution.
e. B through D above.

17. In measuring the performance of strategic alliances and networks, subjective measures include:
a. Market performance.
b. Stability.
c. A and B above.
d. The level of managers’ satisfaction.
e. Longevity.

18. Which (if any) of the following will not influence the performance of alliances and networks?
a. Equity.
b. Learning and experience.
c. Nationality.
d. Relational capabilities.
e. All can have an influence.

19. A lower level of ____contribution may indicate a firm’s relative lack of commitment:
a. Equity
b. Learning and experience
c. Nationality
d. Relational capabilities
e. All of the above

20. The stock market responds favorably to alliance activities, but only under which circumstances?
a. Complementary resources.
b. Previous alliance experience.
c. Ability to manage the host country’s political risk.
d. Partner buyouts.
e. All of the above.

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. How can an organizational alliance be “win-win?” How can the concept of “cooperative specialization” help?

2. Why and how might a “real option” be useful in a joint venture?

3. A friend of yours stated: “I would never want to be dependent on an alliance. I prefer an acquisition so that everything would be under my control.” How would you respond?
4. What are the limitations in trying to clearly identify rights and expectations for alliances and acquisitions among global corporations?

5. What can be done to maintain a successful alliance among global firms?

CHAPTER 8 – MANAGING GLOBAL COMPETITIVE DYNAMICS

TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
21. Strategy involves planning for actions rather than reactions or interaction.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

22. Multimarket competition occurs when firms engage the same rivals in multiple markets.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

23. Multimarket competition destroys mutual forbearance.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

24. If an attack is so subtle that rivals are not aware of it, the attacker’s objectives are not likely to have been attained.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

25. If the attacked market is of marginal value, managers may decide not to counterattack.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

26. The “strategy as action” perspective highlights the power of creative destruction.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

27. Bargaining can take place through signals and actions.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

28. Industry-based considerations are fundamentally concerned with the very first of the Porter five forces, interfirm rivalry.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

29. Barriers for entrants with similar products and with substitute products are involved in the other two of the five forces.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

30. Collusion survives because it does not have an incentive problem as is illustrated by the prisoner’s dilemma.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

31. The capability to attack in multiple markets throws the firm off balance leaving it vulnerable to rivals and thus reducing value.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

32. Firms that have a high degree of resource similarity are likely to have similar strengths and weaknesses.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy
33. Under antitrust law a company can be in trouble for setting prices too high but not for setting them too low.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

34. US courts have not sought to unilaterally punish non-US cartels (if they are legal elsewhere) simply because they may have a substantial adverse impact on US markets.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

35. Critics of US policy on dumping at least agree that our policy on predatory pricing is consistent both domestically and internationally.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

36. Thrust makes use of military theory that the attacker needs to have at least a three-to-one advantage to overcome a well-defended position through a conventional frontal assault.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

37. Local firms’ primary strengths lie in a deep understanding of local markets, and thus they would pursue a dodger strategy.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

38. A strategy that leverages local assets is called an extender strategy.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

39. An extender strategy may be appropriate in some industries where pressures for globalization are relatively low.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

40. An extender strategy is being used when local firms engage in rapid learning to approach the capabilities of the MNEs and then expand overseas.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
21. Which is true of strategy?
f. Business strategy has similarities with military strategy.
g. Military principles cannot be completely applied in business.
h. Militaries fight over territories, waters, and air spaces, firms compete in markets.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

22. Which of the following are least likely to result in collusion?
f. High concentration ratio.
g. Heterogeneous products.
h. High entry barriers.
i. High market commonality.
j. Industry price leader exists.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

23. The main types of attack include:
f. Thrust.
g. Feint.
h. Gambit.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

24. Issues affecting collaboration include:
f. Secrecy.
g. Exclusivity.
h. Informality.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

25. In developing a strategy regarding competition or cooperation, it would be useful to not:
f. Understand the nature of your industry.
g. Strengthen capabilities that more effectively compete and/or cooperate.
h. Understand the rules of the game governing competition.
i. “Look ahead, reason back
j. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-8; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

26. Industry-based considerations regarding strategy:
f. Focus on the nature of collusion.
g. Deal with the relationship between industry structures and firms’ propensity to collude.
h. Deal with the relationship between industry structures and firms’ propensity to collude to competing.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

27. Explicit collusion is exemplified by:
f. Cartels.
g. Trusts.
h. Users of game theory.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

28. Firm A may be more successful in imitating Firm B if Firm B:
f. Is competitively aggressive.
g. Carries out complex actions.
h. Uses difficult to execute maneuvers.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

29. Which of the following will enable a firm to be competitive even if there is a lack of top management commitment and employee involvement?
a. Organizational structure.
b. Use of stealth attacks.
c. Rapid responses, and willingness to answer challenges.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

30. “The extent to which a given competitor possesses strategic endowment comparable, in terms of both type and amount, to those of the focal firm” refers to similarity of:
f. Strategy.
g. Resources.
h. Markets.
i. Industry.
j. Economic environment.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

31. Which of the following aspects of U.S. competition/antitrust policy has been opposed by the EU?
f. Collusive price setting.
g. Predatory pricing.
h. Extraterritoriality.
i. Court decisions.
j. Changes in policy.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

32. Cartels:
f. Involvecollusion.
g. Are often outlawed.
h. A and B above.
i. Entail the “prisoner’s dilemma for participants.
j. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy
33. Which is not true concerning US anti trust policy today?
f. Legislation has legally permitted rivals to join hands in research and development (R&D).
g. There is increased permissiveness regarding mergers among rivals.
h. Clarity of policy has improved.
i. The legal standards for interfirm cooperation are no longer ambiguous in the United States.
j. The legal standards for interfirm cooperation are ambiguous in many other countries.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

34. Dumping is defined as:
f. Shipping hazardous waste to locations in other countries.
g. An exporter selling below cost abroad.
h. Unloading unsold inventory from the US in other countries.
i. Excessive criticism of international rivals.
j. Getting rid of unprofitable operations.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

35. Which of the following would not be considered an initial set of actions to gain competitive advantage:
a. Price cuts.
b. Advertising campaigns.
c. Market entries.
d. Counterattacks.
e. New product introductions.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

36. A firm’s attack on a focal arena important to a competitor, but not the attacker’s true target area, is referred to as:
f. Thrust.
g. Feint.
h. Gambit.
i. Miscalculation.
j. Practice attack.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

37. The three drivers of counterattacks do not include:
f. Awareness.
g. Motivation.
h. Capability.
i. B and C above.
j. Vengeance.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Motivation Concepts
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

38. Which of the following is not a legal means of signaling?
f. Nonaggression or fat cat.
g. Direct discussion of reduced rivalry with competitors.
h. Truce seeking.
i. Communication via governments.
j. Strategic alliances.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

39. In some industries where pressures for globalization are relatively low, local firms may possess some skills and assets that are transferable overseas, thus leading to a/an_____strategy.
f. Defender
g. Extender
h. Dodger
i. Contender
j. Transfer
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

40. Local firms in emerging economies typically can at least match the ________ of MNEs.
a. Expertise
b. Experience
c. Endowments
d. A and B above
e. None of the above
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. The text points out that modern ideas of strategy, pioneered by Michael Porter, have turned IO economics “on its head.” While IO economics attempts to prevent any firm from gaining sustained competitive advantage, the very purpose of strategy is to gain a sustainable advantage. Is that good or bad?

2. Dumping involves selling something below cost. Using what you have learned in accounting or economics (or perhaps by talking to someone familiar with these courses) point out why it might sometimes be difficult to prove that a firm is selling below cost.

3. In the interest of maintaining high standards for international trade, the U.S. has at various times attempted to legislate the behavior of U.S. based companies. It has even at times tried to apply U.S. standards to those from other countries. Does this make sense to you?

4. Can national policies that seek to promote the well being of its citizens by its attempts to maintain competition actually have the opposite effect? Why or why not?

5. In some of the discussions of strategy. It was suggested that a firm might attempt to mislead a rival as to the firm’s true objective – i.e. feint. Is that unethical? Explain.

CHAPTER 9 – DIVERSIFYING, ACQUIRING, AND RESTRUCTURING
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
41. Operational synergy involves economies of scale.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

42. Not all product-related diversifiers outperform product-unrelated diversifiers.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

43. Porter’s five forces affect the structural attractiveness of an industry.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

44. The economic benefits of the last unit of growth (such as the last acquisition) can be defined as MBC.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

45. The scope of the firm is thus determined by a comparison between MEB and MBC.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

46. In the United States between the 1950s and 1970s MEB decreased, resulting in a decreased scope of the firm into conglomeration.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

47. By the 1980s MBC began to decrease.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

48. Interest in conglomerates has declined in emerging economies due to their developed capital markets.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

49. You should understand that the nature of your industry might call for diversification, acquisitions, and restructuring.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

50. You and your firm need to develop policies that avoid acquisitions and restructuring.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

51. Answering why firms choose different diversification strategies does not help answer why firms differ and how they behave.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

52. A superior product-related diversification strategy does not require a centralized and cooperative organizational architecture in order to add value.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

53. Instead of operational synergy, conglomerates focus on financial synergy.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

54. Diversification discount is the situation when unrelated-product diversification enables conglomerate units to beat stand-alone rivals.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

55. When conglomerate units are better off competing as stand-alone entities, we call it diversification premium.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

56. Research shows that the linkage between product diversification and firm performance seems to be inverted-U shaped.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

57. Porter’s five forces model can be used in regards to the structural attractiveness of an industry.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

58. High entry barriers often result in green-field entries as opposed to acquisitions.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

59. An industry whose products can be easily substituted faces more threats from other firms currently not in the same industry.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

60. Although the term mergers and acquisitions (M&As) is often used, in reality, acquisitions dominate the scene.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
41. Sources of operational synergy include:
k. Technologies.
l. Marketing.
m. Manufacturing.
n. All of the above.
o. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

42. Conglomeration tends to provide all of the following except:
k. Product-unrelated diversification.
l. Financial synergy.
m. Economies of scale.
n. Economies of scope.
o. Internal capital market.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

43. Diversification premium is the same thing as:
k. Conglomerate advantage.
l. Diversification discount.
m. Conglomerate disadvantage.
n. Level of product diversification.
o. Measurement of firm performance.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

44. Which would be more characteristic of conglomerates?
k. “Putting one’s eggs in one basket.”
l. “Putting one’s eggs in similar baskets.”
m. “Putting one’s eggs in different baskets.”
n. A and B above.
o. B and C above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

45. Research regarding the relationship between product diversification and firm performance indicates that:
k. Performance may increase as firms shift from single business strategies to product-related diversification.
l. Performance may decrease as firms change from product-related to –unrelated.
m. The linkage between diversification and performance is inverted U shaped.
n. “Putting your eggs in similar baskets,” has emerged as a balanced way to both reduce risk and leverage synergy.
o. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Challenging

46. Which geographic diversification is most likely to reduce the liability of foreignness?
k. Culturally adjacent countries.
l. Extensive international scope.
m. Beyond geographically neighboring countries.
n. Beyond culturally neighboring countries.
o. All of the above
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

47. Which is not true regarding geographic diversification and firm performance?
k. U-shaped relationship at low level of internationalization.
l. Initially a negative effect of international expansion on performance.
m. Affected by the liability of foreignness.
n. Inverted-U shape at moderate to high levels of internationalization.
o. Positive only at high levels of internationalization.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

48. In combining product and geographic diversification, which is not one of the four possible combinations?
k. Anchored replicators.
l. Multinational replicators.
m. Far-flung conglomerates.
n. Classic replicators.
o. Classic conglomerates.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

49. At its core, diversification is essentially driven by all of the following except:
a. Economic benefits.
b. Bureaucratic costs.
c. Synergy.
d. Less complicated information systems.
e. MEB.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

50. Select the best choice: a company that is engaged in oil production, pipelines and tankers, refining, and gasoline stations has engaged in ______________ expansion.
k. Horizontal
l. Vertical
m. Conglomerate
n. Friendly M&A
o. Hostile M&A
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Application; Difficulty: Moderate

51. Which is one motive for M&A which does not necessarily increase shareholder value?
k. Synergistic.
l. Hubris.
m. Performance.
n. A and C above.
o. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Motivation Concepts
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

52. Corporate scope is shaped by:
k. Industry conditions.
l. Firm capabilities.
m. Institutional constraints.
n. Opportunities in both developed and emerging economies.
o. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

53. Product-related diversification involves all of the following except:
k. A single business strategy.
l. Entries into activities that are related to a firm’s existing markets and/or activities.
m. The emphasis is on economies of scale rather than scope.
n. Increases in competitiveness.
o. Synergy.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: ; Difficulty: Challenging

54. Sources of operation synergy:
k. Technologies.
l. Marketing.
m. Manufacturing.
n. All of the above.
o. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

55. Diversification can pay off in all of the following situations except:
a. Risk is spread over several (product or country) markets.
b. Core resources are leveraged.
c. The art of post-acquisition integration has been mastered.
d. Commonly shared industry skills are used.
e. Firms are organized to minimize the costs.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

56. The following managerial motives for conglomerations do not benefit shareholders except:
k. Norms.
l. Reducing managers’ employment risk.
m. Organizational stability.
n. Pursuing power, prestige, and income.
o. Empire building.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Motivation Concepts
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

57. Which of the following is true regarding M&As?
k. As many as 70 percent of M&As reportedly fail.
l. On average, the acquiring firms’ performance improves after acquisitions.
m. Target firms, after being acquired and becoming internal units, often perform better than when they were independent, stand-alone firms.
n. The only identifiable losers are the shareholders of target (acquired) firms.
o. The outstanding success of M&As is due to pre- and post acquisition phases.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

58. To ensure the success of the M&A, managers need to make sure of all the following except:
k. Be willing to walk out when premiums are too high.
l. Engage in adequate due diligence concerning strategic fit.
m. Seek organizational contrast and variety rather than organizational fit.
n. Address the concerns of multiple stakeholders.
O. Recognize that that integration management is a fulltime job.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

59. Which is true regarding restructuring?
k. There are two primary ways of restructuring namely downsizing and upsizing.
l. A rising level of competition within an industry normally prevents restructuring.
m. Corporate restructuring is not widely embraced around the world.
n. Restructuring is one of the first things to consider when trying to improve profitability.
o. Restructuring is easier in knowledge-intensive firms than capital intensive firms.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

60. Which is true of relatedness?
a. Measurement of product relatedness is no longer debatable.
b. A “product-related” firm will be considered related regardless of the measure used.
c. Some argue that product relatedness refers specifically to the visible product linkages.
d. Relatedness can be a common underlying dominant logic that connects various businesses in a diversified firm.
e. Product-unrelated conglomerates are not linked by institutional relatedness.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. You recently noticed a comment in a blog which stated: “By its very nature, restructuring is a violation of CSR!” How do you feel about that?

2. In that same blog another person stated: “Decisions about diversification and acquisition are not based on the well being of the shareholder but instead on the needs of the CEO such as ego and job security. As a result, all such decisions should be submitted to a government agency for approval.” Do you agree? Why or why not?

3. Other comments you saw in the blog are less hostile to business. In one, the person was claiming that recent developments in financial markets suggest that it is time to revive the use of conglomerates. Based on what is happening now, do you agree? Why or why not?

4. You are the CEO of International Widget and you are contemplating expanding into Lower Slobovia. You have the resources needed to start from scratch in that country but it would be possible to acquire the company that dominates the Lower Slobovian Widget industry. Which do you think would be best: start from scratch or an acquisition?

5. You are the CEO of Mega Global Corporation and you are weighing a number of decisions involving diversification, acquisition, and restructuring. Long ago you were the manager of a mutual fund and you decide to make your decisions using the same approach as you used in managing that fund. How would that affect your decisions and decision process?

CHAPTER 10 – STRATEGIZING, STRUCTURING, AND LEARNING
AROUND THE WORLD
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
61. Home replication strategy emphasizes the home country replication of international based competencies.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

62. Localization strategy is an extension of the home replication strategy.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

63. Transnational strategy supposedly is a trade off between being cost efficient and locally responsive but is really locally responsive.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

64. Global product division structure is the same as the geographic area structure.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

65. Many MNEs have phased out the geographical area structure.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

66. Strategy drives structure: a misfit, such as combining a global strategy with a geographic area structure, may have grave performance consequences.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

67. The Porter five forces are not helpful in understanding MNE structure.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

68. No one argues that knowledge management is the defining feature of MNEs.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

69. It is obviously a lot easier to imitate an intangible philosophy or mentality than to imitate a tangible structure.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

70. Knowledge management not only depends on IT, but also on informal social relationships within the MNE.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

71. In a transnational MNE, the role of subsidiaries is to adapt and leverage parent company competencies.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

72. The “not invented here” syndrome causes managers to accept ideas invented elsewhere.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Individual Dynamics
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

73. MNEs often must rely on a great deal of informal integrating mechanisms.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

74. Overall, the micro, informal interpersonal relationships among managers of various units may create a micro-macro link.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

75. It is hard to distinguish between subsidiary initiative and empire building.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

76. European MNE’s are more likely than Japanese MNE to appoint host-country or third country nationals as head of a foreign subsidiary.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 10-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

77. Customer-focused dimensions cut across all three existing mainstream dimensions.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

78. Transnational strategy aims to capture “the best of both worlds” by endeavoring to be both cost efficient and locally responsive.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

79. An international division serves as a means of coordination with the rest of the firm.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

80. The text recommended that firms avoid simplifying both product and geographic scope by downsizing and downscoping.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
61. Pressures for cost reductions and local responsiveness include:
p. The framework of how to simultaneously deal with these two sets of pressures.
q. Host country demands and expectations.
r. Being locally responsive makes local customers and governments happy but increase costs.
s. All of the above.
t. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

62. Four strategic choices for MNEs do not include:
p. Home replication.
q. Domestic.
r. Multidomestic.
s. Transnational.
t. Global.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

63. Multidomestic strategy involves all of the following except:
p. Focuses on a number of foreign countries/regions.
q. Each foreign country is regarded as a stand-alone “domestic” market.
r. Is effective when there are clear differences among national and regional markets.
s. A multidomestic strategy has high costs.
t. Global standardization strategy is the same as a multidomestic strategy.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

64. The structure that is typically set up when firms initially expand abroad is a:
p. International division structure.
q. Geographic area structure.
r. Global product division structure.
s. Global matrix structure.
t. Flexible matrix structure.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

65. In which of the following structures are foreign subsidiary managers not given sufficient voice relative to domestic managers?
p. International division structure.
q. Geographic area structure.
r. Global product division structure.
s. Global matrix structure.
t. Flexible matrix structure.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

66. The most appropriate structure for a multidomestic strategy is a:
p. International division structure.
q. Geographic area structure.
r. Global product division structure.
s. Global matrix structure.
t. Flexible matrix structure.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Application; Difficulty: Moderate

67. Which of the following is not true of the global matrix structure?
p. Is often used to alleviate the disadvantages associated with the geographic area structure.
q. Is often used to alleviate the disadvantages associated with the global product division structures.
r. Often used for sharing and coordinating responsibilities between product divisions and geographic areas.
s. This structure benefits front-line managers who now have only one boss – either a country manager or a product division manager.
t. The matrix structure may add layers of management.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

68. Which are not true in regards to institution-based considerations?
p. Externally, MNEs are subject to the formal institutional frameworks erected by various home- and host-country governments.
q. Host-country governments often encourage, or coerce MNEs into undertaking certain activities.
r. Strategists weigh the informal, backlash against activities which result in domestic job losses.
s. Formal organizational charts do not necessarily reveal the informal rules of the game, such as organizational norms, values, and networks.
t. To staff the position of the head of a subsidiary, MNEs, in the absence of formal regulations, essentially have only one choice: to use a home-country national as the head of a subsidiary.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

69. The type of knowledge that is codifiable (that is, it can be written down and transferred without losing much of its richness) is called:
a. Explicit.
b. Implicit.
c. Tacit.
d. Lucid.
e. Clear.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

70. Knowledge management uses “centers of excellence” in which type of MNE?
p. Home replication.
q. Local (multidomestic).
r. Global.
s. Transnational.
t. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

71. Which is true of globalized R&D?
p. Is often known as innovation-avoidance expense.
q. One way to access such a high technology and research-rich cluster is to avoid FDI.
r. R&D work performed by different locations and teams around the world virtually guarantees failure.
s. For large firms, there are actually diminishing returns for R&D.
t. Global virtual teams, which do not meet face to face, may overcome communication and relationship barriers.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

72. This structure is commonly used in professional service firms:
p. Global account structure.
q. An industry sector structure.
r. Solutions-based structure.
s. All of the above.
t. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

73. This structure is often used to supply customers (often other MNEs) in a coordinated and consistent way across various countries.
p. Global account structure.
q. An industry sector structure.
r. Solutions-based structure.
s. All of the above.
t. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

74. Which of the following is a solution rather than a problem in knowledge management?
p. Open innovation.
q. Knowledge leakage.
r. Not invented here syndrome.
s. All of the above.
t. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Environmental Influence
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

75. Which of the following is not an argument in favor of centralization in knowledge management but instead is an argument in favor of decentralization?
a. Capability to facilitate corporate-wide coordination.
b. Consistency in decision-making.
c. Permits greater speed, flexibility, and innovation.
d. Sufficient power for corporate-level managers to initiate necessary actions.
e. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

76. Which of the following is not an argument in favor of decentralization in knowledge management but instead is an argument in favor of centralization?
p. Better motivates subsidiary-level managers and employees through empowerment.
q. Reduces corporate level overload of responsibilities.
r. Better motivates subsidiary level managers.
s. Sufficient power for corporate-level managers to initiate necessary actions.
t. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

77. Which of the following is a customer-focused dimension?
a. Global account structure.
b. An industry sector structure.
c. Solutions-based structure.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate
78. Unique to international competition are the pressures for local responsiveness, which are reflected in:
p. Consumer preferences.
q. Distribution channels.
r. Host country demands.
s. A through C above.
t. Shareholder demands.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Environmental Influence
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

79. Which of the following is a key idea regarding the reciprocal relationship between strategies and structures within MNEs?
p. The fit between strategies and structures is crucial.
q. The relationship is two way.
r. Strategies and structures are not static.
s. All of the above.
t. A good strategy cancels the effect of a bad structure.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

80. Which is not one of the suggestions for international managersthat can be drawn from this chapter?
a. Create a common structure for all MNEs.
b. Understand the nature and evolution of your industry.
c. Actively develop learning and innovation capabilities.
d. Masterthe external rules of the game.
e. Understand and be prepared to change the internal rules of the game.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. To what extent should a firm be committed to a particular strategy versus making frequent changes in the strategy? If a strategy is likely to be changed, what is the point in having one?

2. Normally when a firm first expands overseas, it may use an international division and later use a different organizational structure. Under what circumstances might such a firm wish to shift back to the use of an international division?

3. Global R&D has pros and cons for the firm that uses that approach. However, suppose you are the leader of the country where that firm is based. How might you view having R&D being conducted by a global team in a matter that is vital to the nation’s economic health/and or security?

4. Suppose you are the leader of a nation which currently has few capabilities other than a well-educated populace that could contribute to economic growth. However, you think you have a bright idea. You are going to encourage MNEs from around the world to locate their headquarters in your country. What might attract them and how might that pay off if you are successful?

5. Mega Global Corporation has centralized all of its global operations. The firm’s manager in Lower Slobovia would like to see more decentralization. Her complaint: “We are the experts on what needs to be done in this country but we have to get approval from people who have no idea as to what is going on here. That makes neither sense nor dollars.” Evaluate her statement.

CHAPTER 11 – GOVERNING THE CORPORATION AROUND THE WORLD
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
81. Founders usually start up firms and completely own and control these enterprises.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

82. Since the 1980s, state ownership has expanded and privatization has declined.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Environmental Influence
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

83. The relationship between shareholders and professional managers is a relationship between principals and agents.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

84. Principal-Principal Conflicts: such conflicts are within one class of principals such as a disagreement among certain majority stockholders and other majority stockholders.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

85. Inside directors are top executives of the firm.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

86. The trend around the world is to introduce more inside directors and less outside directors.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

87. CEO duality refers to a situation in which two people share the role of CEO.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

88. Board interlocks refers to bonding and teamwork among the members of a board of directors.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

89. How directors strategically prioritize is about the same around the world.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

90. The Market for Corporate Control is another term for the stock market.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

91. The Market for Private Equity involves going private by tapping into private equity.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-4; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

92. Overall, governance practices need to fit with the nature of the industry in which firms are competing. This cautions against prescribing universal “best” practices.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

93. Managerial human capital refers to the skills and abilities of top managers and directors.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

94. Formal legal protection encourages founding families and their heirs to dilute their equity.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

95. Large shareholders in emerging economies usually need to have a significantly lower percentage of shares to ensure control than in the US.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

96. The rise of capitalism has not affected governance.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

97. FPI investors demand less protection.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

98. The thirst for global capital requires adherence to listing requirements.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

99. Recently, stewardship theory suggests that by and large managers can be viewed as stewards of owners’ interests.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-7; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

100. Convergence advocates argue that a “survival-of the-fittest” process will force firms globally to accept the best practices exemplified by Anglo-American practices.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-7; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
81. Ownership will likely be diffused under which of the following situations?
u. A start up firm.
v. Family owned firm.
w. State ownership.
x. All of the above.
y. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

82. Issues involved regarding how a board of directors can be established so as to be most effective include:
u. The insider/outsider mix.
v. CEO duality.
w. Board Interlocks.
x. The Role of Boards of Directors.
y. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

83. Boards of directors perform all of the following except:
u. Control.
v. Service.
w. Resource acquisition functions.
x. A through C above.
y. Day to day operations.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

84. Which of the following make up a governance package?
u. Internal Mechanisms + External Mechanisms.
v. Carrots to motivate managers such as stock options.
w. Sticks that may result in CEO and top management team turnover.
x. The Market for Corporate Control.
y. The Market for Private Equity.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

85. Three decades of privatization suggest all of the following except:
u. Privatization to insiders helps improve the performance of small firms.
v. In large corporations privatization to insiders, without external governance pressures, is hardly conducive for needed restructuring.
w. Outside ownership and control, preferably by blockholders, funds, foreigners, and/ or banks, are more likely to facilitate restructuring.
x. Such outside ownership and control does not happen frequently because incumbent managers do not necessarily welcome such outside “intrusion.”
y. When outside investors such as institutional investors do come in, they fail to assert their power.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-7; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

86. Industry-Based Considerations regarding corporate governance include all of the following except:
u. Having more outside directors on the board is often regarded as having a negative impact on performance because of their lack of understanding as compared to insiders.
v. In industries characterized by rapid innovation requiring significant R&D investments (such as information technology), outside directors may have a negative impact on firm performance.
w. Research finds that for firms in low-growth, stable industries, no relationship exists between inside management ownership and firm performance.
x. In relatively high-growth, turbulent industries, there is a relationship between inside management ownership and firm performance.
y. In industries experiencing great turbulence, the presence of a single leader may allow a faster and more unified response to changing events.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

87. Institution-based considerations in governance include all of the following except:
u. Formal institutional framework.
v. International experience of senior executives.
w. Formal legal protection and impact on founder’s dilution of equity.
x. Lack of legal protection and its impact regarding large shareholders in emerging economies.
y. Impact of informal norms and values.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

88. Which are not among the aspects of globalization?
u. Contact with different governance norms.
v. FPI investors demand more protection.
w. The focus on governance has been replaced by a focus on shareholder value.
x. The thirst for global capital requires adherence to listing requirements.
y. The global diffusion of “best practices.”
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

89. Agency theory assumes that managers:
a. Have a responsibility to the owners.
b. Are agents who are opportunistic and engage in self-serving activities.
c. A and B above.
d. Can be left to their own devices.
e. Are effective steward of the owners’ interests.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

90. In regards to global convergence:
u. Advocates argue that globalization will unleash a “survival-of the-fittest” process.
v. Advocates claim firms will be forced to adopt globally the best practices.
w. Others contend that governance practices will continue to diverge throughout the world.
x. The text indicates that complete divergence in corporate governance is probably unrealistic.
y. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 11-7; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

91. Strategists should:
u. Understand the nature of principal–agent and principal–principal conflicts to create better governance mechanisms.
v. Develop firm-specific capabilities to differentiate on governance dimensions.
w. Understand the rules, anticipate changes, and be aware of differences, especially when doing business abroad.
x. Use an understanding of corporate governance to help answer the four fundamental questions in strategy.
y. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 11-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

92. As the closing case points out, the positive side private equity firms excel in all the following ways except:
p. They always send experts to sit on the board and are hands-on in managing.
q. They use a high level of debt that imposes strong financial discipline.
r. Private equity turns managers from agents to principals with substantial equity, thus providing a powerful incentive to them.
s. They pay managers more generously, but also punish failure more heavily.
t. They reduce income inequality between financiers and the rest of us.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

93. As the closing case points out on the negative side, private equity firms have been accused of all of the following except:
u. Being “barbarians.”
v. Being “asset strippers,” and “locusts.”
w. Internationally, causing shock in countries suddenly facing the full rigor of Anglo-American private equity.
x. Placing CSR ahead of all rational economic decisions.
y. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

94. The defense of private equity includes all of the following points except:
u. While private equity results in job cuts, the same might happen if targets were acquired by public firms.
v. It would not be rational for private buyers to destroy their prize therefore they attempt to avoid doing that.
w. Their record as corporate citizens is no more barbaric than that of public firms.
x. They point to a Texas utility in which owners paid shareholders a 25% premium, gave retail customers a 10% price cut, and dropped plans to build eight dirty coal-fired power plants—hailed by environmentalists as a major victory.
y. The actions of U.S. private equity firms have enhanced the image of the U.S. and capitalism around the world.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

95. Diffused ownership is the opposite of concentrated ownership, and is more common in:
a. The US and UK.
b. South America.
c. Asia.
d. Africa.
e. The Pacific.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

96. Most large, publicly traded UK corporations are now characterized by all of the following except:
u. Diffused ownership.
v. Numerous small shareholders.
w. A separation of ownership and control.
x. Control is largely concentrated in the hands of salaried, professional managers.
y. Corporate managers who own a majority of the stock.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

97. Which of the following is not true regarding large institutional investors?
u. They include professionally managed mutual funds and pension pools.
v. They now own over 50 percent of the stock in major corporations.
w. They are the controlling stockholders in China.
x. Their ability to dump the stock is limited because selling out depresses the share price and harms the institutions.
y. They are more likely to exercise shareholder rights than smaller investors.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

98. In regards to family ownership, all of the following are true except:
u. Most small firms in the world are owned and controlled by families.
v. The vast majority of large corporations throughout continental Europe, Asia, Latin America, and Africa no longer feature concentrated family ownership and control.
w. Family ownership and control may provide better incentives for the firm to focus on long-run performance.
x. Such ownership may also minimize the conflict between owners and professional managers typically encountered in widely owned firms.
y. Family ownership and control may lead to the selection of less qualified managers who happen to be the sons, daughters, and relatives of owners.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

99. Which of the following is true in regards to outside directors?
u. The trend around the world is to introduce less outside directors.
v. In the United States, less than a half century ago, most boards were made up entirely or largely of outside directors.
w. Many US firms are now favoring a board that is entirely made of people who are insiders due the need for people who can understand the increasing complexity of MNEs.
x. Japanese boards have not waited until they are in financial difficulty to bring in outside directors from banks.
Y. Academic research has failed to empirically establish a link between the outsider/insider ratio and firm performance.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

100. Which of the following is true regarding CEO duality?
a. From an agency theory standpoint, if the board is to supervise agents such as the CEO, it seems imperative that the board be chaired by the same individual.
b. In US firms with CEO duality, the trend now is to appoint a lead independent director, who chairs the sessions held by outside directors that do not involve company executives.
c. A corporation led by two top leaders—a board chairman and a CEO – will at least have unity of command and experience less top-level conflict.
d. East Asia and Latin America where most firms have concentrated family ownership and control, there is less CEO duality.
e. Firms around the world are being pressured to combine the two top jobs.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. You are the founder of a firm that appears to have significant long-term growth potential. Right now you and your family own 100% of the firm’s shares and you are trying to figure out to keep things that way. How might you do that? Should you do that?

2. At this present time, what do you see happening in regards to privatization of SOEs?

3. Are there potential issues involving economic power and national sovereignty in the dominant stock ownership position of institutional investors?

4. Can interlocking directorates lead to unfair market advantages and investor exploitation? How?

5. What is the potential relationship between concern about a board dominated by insiders and concern about excess executive pay?

CHAPTER 12 – STRATEGIZING WITH CORPORATE SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
101. A stakeholder is “any group or individual who can affect or is affected by the achievement of the organization’s objectives.”
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

102. Nearly all CSR advocates argue for a revival of socialism in the world.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

103. The more concentrated an industry is, the more likely that competitors will recognize their mutual interdependence based on old ways of doing business that are not up to the higher CSR standards.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate
104. Companies have had their CSR policies certified by NGOs that might otherwise be hostile.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

105. Firms pursuing a reactive CSR strategy actively participate in policy discussions, build alliances with stakeholder groups, and voluntarily go beyond what the regulations require.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

106. Since each firm is different (a basic assumption of the resource-based view), not every firm’s economic performance is likely to benefit from CSR.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

107. A key goal for CSR is global sustainability, which is defined as the ability “to meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs.”
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

108. According to the text, one driver of CSR in the twenty-first century is the declining levels of population in some countries.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Environmental Influence
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

109. The anti-WTO protests in Seattle in 1999 are indicative of resentment against globalization and a perceived lack of CSR in firms, particularly those that relocate offices (and jobs) to foreign countries.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

110. Compared with the relatively expanded power of national governments in the wake of globalization, NGOs and other civil society stakeholders have lost the ability to affect firms and their management or to impact legislation.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

111. Suppliers and customers are typically considered primary stakeholders.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

112. Primary stakeholder groups are defined as “those who influence or affect, or are influenced or affected by, the corporation, but they are not engaged in transactions with the corporation and are not essential for its survival.”
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

113. Milton Friedman, a University of Chicago economist and Nobel laureate, suggested: “The business of business is business.”
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

114. Advocates of shareholder capitalism argue that if firms attempt to attain social goals, it will actually help them focus on profit maximization (and its derivative, shareholder value maximization).
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

115. The more concentrated an industry is, the more likely that competitors will recognize their mutual interdependence based on old ways of doing business that are not up to the higher CSR standards.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

116. The five forces framework reinforces the important point that all industries are equal in terms of their exposure to CSR challenges.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

117. There is no conclusive evidence of a direct, positive link between CSR and economic performance, such as profits and shareholder returns.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

118. Reactive Strategy often involves an “out of sight, out of mind” mentality.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

119. Although framed in a domestic versus overseas context, the heart of this debate boils down to the foundational thorny point that frustrates CSR advocates: In a capitalist society, the shareholders—otherwise known as capitalists—are the ones who matter at the end of the day.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

120. The idea that MNEs should not interfere in the domestic political affairs of the host country has been enshrined in a number of codes of MNE but CSR advocates have stressed the necessity for MNEs to engage in actions that often constitute political activity.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
101. CSR tends to be the least concerned with improving:
z. Global sustainability.
aa. Shareholder wealth maximization.
bb. Rising levels of population.
cc. Inequity.
dd. High levels of poverty in some countries.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

102. NGOs have the ability to:
z. Affect firms’practices.
aa. Influence firms’ management.
bb. Impact legislation.
cc. All of the above.
dd. None of the above
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

103. Secondary stakeholder groups are:
z. Constituents on whom the firm relies for its continuous survival and prosperity.
aa. Those who do not influence or affect the corporation.
bb. Not influenced or affected by the corporation.
cc. Not engaged in transactions with the corporation and are not essential for its survival.
dd. B through D above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

104. The CSR debate centers on the question:
z. Why does the firm exist?
aa. Why does private property exist?
bb. What laws are needed to control the firm’s behavior?
cc. What can be done to prevent unreasonable profits?
dd. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

105. Free market advocates tend to do all of the following except:
z. Argue that “the social responsibility of business is to increase its profits, which leads to efficient capital and product markets.”
aa. Argue that all stakeholders have an equal right to bargain for a “fair deal.”
bb. Believe that the first and foremost stakeholder group is shareholders.
cc. Argue that if firms attempt to attain social goals, managers will lose their focus on profit maximization.
dd. Fear that firms will become like SOEs.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

106. Those who advocate CSR:
z. Conduct their debate within the constraints of capitalism.
aa. Argue that a humane capitalism is an oxymoron and unattainable.
bb. Argue that the concepts justice and fairness are simply matters of opinion.
cc. Argue that the most important stakeholder is the stockholder.
dd. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

107. Using the five forces model, which will likely result in a higher level of CSR?
z. A highly concentrated industry.
aa. Existence of incumbents.
bb. Socially and environmentally conscious suppliers with standardized products that have multiple substitutes.
cc. No monitoring program for all supplier factories.
dd. Substitutes that are superior to existing products and costs are reasonable.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

108. Which is not true about CSR?
z. Some CSR policies may reduce the firm’s value.
aa. CSR policies may not pay off if common.
bb. CSR that is embedded in people is easier to imitate.
cc. Organization: a firm needs to tie together CSR activities.
dd. It is difficult to prove a link between CSR and economic performance.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

109. Which of the following is an accommodative CSR strategy?
a. Neither for or against CSR.
b. Resist imposition of what seems unreasonable.
c. View CSR as worthwhile.
d. Actively participate in CSR policy discussion.
e. Voluntarily go beyond what the regulations require.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

110. Those who feel that firms that expand into emerging economies are failing their CSR responsibilities are most likely to claim that it:
z. Potentially hurts corporate profits.
aa. Reduces shareholder returns.
bb. Fails to provide employment to host countries.
cc. Reduces the standard of living in host countries.
dd. Domestic employees and communities pay the price for the overseas expansion.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

111. There is agreement throughout society that:
z. Overseas expansion is good because it helps improve standards of living around the world.
aa. Overseas expansion is bad because it causes loss of jobs in the home country.
bb. Firms should stick strictly to business within a country and not seek to impose their views of human rights on other countries that have different views.
cc. Firms have a responsibility to do whatever is necessary to assure that the human rights that are respected in the home country are implemented in host countries.
dd. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

112. An example of a primary stakeholder group is:
u. Media.
v. Social activists.
w. Environmental groups.
x. Employees.
y. Fair labor practice groups.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate
113. An example of a secondary stakeholder group is:
z. Social and environmental groups.
aa. Suppliers.
bb. Customers.
cc. Governments.
dd. Communities.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

114. In regards to managers and CSR, the following is true except:
z. All sides of the CSR debate agree that they have a unique and central role.
aa. All sides of the CSR debate agree as to how they should implement their role.
bb. As a stakeholder group they are unique in terms of potential coordination.
cc. They are positioned at the center of all the stakeholder relationships.
dd. They make decisions on behalf of the firm that affect other stakeholders.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

115. In regard to the extent of CSR challenges, the following is true except:
a. All industries are equal in terms of their exposure to CSR challenges.
b. Energy- and materials-intensive industries (such as chemicals) have been criticized.
c. Firms that are major outsourcers in foreign countries have been criticized.
d. Some firms have turned to NGO critics to have the NGOs certify their policies.
e. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

116. In regards to the link between CSR and economic performance:
z. There is no conclusive evidence of a direct, positive link between CSR and economic performance.
aa. Some studies report a positive relationship.
bb. Some studies find a negative relationship or no relationship.
cc. It appears some firms are not cut out for a CSR-intensive strategy.
dd. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

117. The instrumental view of CSR advocates who are skeptical of CSR compliance claims:
z. That firms may not necessarily be sincere.
aa. That firms may be compelled to appear to be sensitive to CSR by impression management—in other words, “window dressing.”
bb. That many firms may chase fads by following what others are doing, while not having truly internalized the need for CSR.
cc. That CSR activities simply represent a useful means to help make good profits. Firms are not necessarily becoming more “ethical.”
dd. All of the above
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

118. Some CSR advocates who question motives of firms implementing CSR are pleased that:
z. Firms are embarking on some tangible CSR journey.
aa. CSR’s legitimacy is rising on the organizational agenda.
bb. By adopting codes of conduct (even if only for “window dressing” purposes), they create a set of criteria against which they can be judged.
cc. All of the above.
dd. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

119. Reactive firms:
z. Actively participate in regional, national, and international policy discussions.
aa. Often build alliances with stakeholder groups.
bb. Engage in voluntary activities that go beyond what the regulations require.
cc. React negatively to aspects of CSR that may increase costs.
dd. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

120. From an institutional perspective, proactive activities are indicative of all the following except:
a. Normative beliefs.
b. Cognitive beliefs.
c. The desire to do the right thing.
d. An absence of “window dressing.”
e. A quest for better profits.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
6. Your firm has sought to be a responsible part of the community and has sought out ways to implement CSR within your capabilities. However, a news organization that has been trying to boost its ratings has done a series on your organization that suggests that your product is harming consumers and the community’s environment. You believe the reports are totally false but protests have recently been directed toward your facilities and a politician who seeking an issue has been loudly condemning your organization? Some of your shareholders are suggesting that the company takes its losses on the product by discontinuing it rather than risk further damage to the company and its reputation. What should you do?

7. Last week you attended a series of lectures at the local university in which the speakers were discussing the role of corporations (such as yours) overseas. The first lecturer discussed the role of MNEs over the years as instruments of national power for the country in which they were based and discussed instances in which the firms became involved in local politics. The speaker condemned such companies as imperialists for attempting to impose U.S. values on foreign nations. The last speaker in the series argued that MNEs have a responsibility to identify injustice and violation of human rights in the nations where they operate and to use either persuasion or economic pressure to bring about change. Whose advice will you follow?

8. A representative of an NGO that has a very significant influence on some your key stakeholders (especially your customers) has met with you. The person has indicated that they are considering conducting a campaign against one of your policies. You feel the policy is totally justified but you have seen how the organization has smeared and destroyed others that it has targeted. The person seems to be hinting that perhaps they might launch a campaign against some other target if you demonstrated CSR by making a big contribution to the NGO. You feel that you are a victim of extortion but the cost of buying them off might be less than the damage that they could do to you. What should you do?

9. Your company has been active in CSR. It has even avoided shutting down its local factory and moving its production overseas where its labor costs could be significantly less because it recognizes the harm that would do the employees and the community. However, the CSR has resulted in a lower level of profitability and now a corporate raider appears to be ready to launch a takeover bid for your company. In the past, when that raider has taken over a company, payrolls have been slashed, all CSR has been discontinued, and nearly all stakeholders other than some investors have been harmed. What should you?

BUS 536 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer University New

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Chapter 7 Through 12

CHAPTER 7 – MAKING STRATEGIC ALLIANCEE AND NETWORKS WORK
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. Examples of equity-based alliances include strategic investment.

2. A non-JV, equity-based alliance can be regarded as two firms “getting married,” but not having “children.”

3. The term “strategic networks” is derived from the term “social networks” highlighting the social aspects of interfirm relationships.

4. In regards to strategic alliances and networks, in the traditional industry-based view, firms are dependent players.

5. From the view of industry structure, in oligopolistic industries, there are an above average number of available players as potential partners.

6. From the perspective of network position, firms located in the center of interfirm networks accumulate less power and influence.

7. Firms with a high degree of network centrality are likely to be more attractive partners.

8. Successful alliances and networks normally avoid socially complex relations among partners.

9. The ad hoc approach to organization allows firms to systematically learn from the experience.

10. Since firms act to enhance or protect their legitimacy, copying other reputable organizations is not a way to gain legitimacy.

11. In finding organizational partners, it is desirable to identify candidates that present both strategic fit and organizational fit.

12. The more tacit the resources and capabilities are, the less likely firms will prefer equity involvement in establishing relationships.

13. A firm would prefer equity relationships if it fears that its intellectual property may be expropriated by partners.

14. As each firm is likely to have multiple interfirm relationships, it is important to not manage the relationships as a corporate portfolio.

15. Possible ways to minimize the threat of opportunism include swapping critical skills and technologies through credible commitments.

16. In international alliances, setting up a parallel and reciprocal relationship in the foreign partner’s home country may decrease the incentives for both partners to cooperate.

17. Weak ties excel at connecting with distant others who possess unique and novel information.

18. Strong ties are more beneficial to environments conductive for exploitation whereas weak ties are more suitable for exploration.

19. An increase in the experience of one partner may bring instability into the relationship as it reduces the need to rely on the other partner.

20. Higher level shared technology is associated with lower profitability for parent firms.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Strategic alliances involve:
a. Voluntary agreements between firms.
b. Compromises between short-term transactions and long-term solutions.
c. Contracts.
d. Equity-based arrangements.
e. All of the above.

2. Contractual alliances include all of the following except:
a. Co-marketing.
b. Research and development (R&D) contracts.
c. Cross-shareholding.
d. Turnkey projects.
e. Licensing/franchising.

3. A joint venture can be described as:
a. A special case of equity-based alliance.
b. A new legally independent entity.
c. A “corporate child” given birth by two (or more) parent firms.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

4. Which represents an alliance with suppliers?
a. Horizontal alliances.
b. Upstream vertical.
c. Downstream vertical.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

5. Which is not an advantage of strategic alliances and networks?
a. Reduce costs, risks and uncertainties.
b. Costs of negotiation and coordination.
c. Gain access to complementary assets and capabilities.
d. Opportunities to learn from partners.
e. Possibilities to use alliances and networks as real options.

6. Which of the following are not true regarding managers involved in alliances and networks?
a. They require relationship skills which foster trust with partners.
b. They must guard against opportunism.
c. They must recognize that interests of the firms fully overlap.
d. They have to represent the interests of their respective firms.
e. They must attempt to make the complex relationship work.

7. Institution-based considerations regarding organization include:
a. Collusion concerns.
b. Entry requirements.
c. The social pressures to find partners.
d. The internalized beliefs in the value of collaboration.
e. All of the above.
8. Cooperation between rivals is usually suspected of being:
a. Tacit collusion.
b. Explicit collusion.
c. Socialism.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
9. Emerging trends concerning formal government policies on entry mode requirements include:
a. More liberal policies.
b. Imposing considerable requirements.
c. A and B above.
d. Welcoming wholly owned subsidiaries.
e. Banning joint ventures.

10. Which (if any) of the following are not involved in the stages of forming business relationships?
a. The decision to cooperate.
b. The decision to not cooperate.
c. The choice of contract or equity.
d. Positioning the Relationship.
e. All of the above are involved.

11. The strategic choice concerning whether to form cooperative interfirm relationships or to rely on pure market transactions or M&As to grow the firm is part of:
a. Stage One.
b. Stage Two.
c. Stage Three.
d. Stage Four.
e. Stage Five.

12. In comparing M&As with alliances and networks, which of the following is not correct?
a. M&As are costly.
b. M&As have significant transaction costs.
c. Many M&As end up destroying value.
d. Alliances and networks preclude future upgrading into possible M&As.
e. Alliances and networks can be considered as a flexible intermediate solution.

13. Strategic fit refers to whether the partner firm possesses:
a. Technology.
b. Capital.
c. Distribution channels.
d. A through C above.
e. Goals, experiences, and behaviors that facilitate cooperation.

14. The first concern in determining whether a relationship should be based on contract or equity is:
a. The kind of resources and capabilities that are shared.
b. Direct monitoring and control.
c. Real options.
d. Institutional constraints.
e. None of the above.

15. Weak ties in organizational relationships:
a. Are more trustworthy and are cultivated over a long period of time.
b. Are associated with exchanging finer-grained information.
c. Provide an informal, social control mechanism.
d. A through C above.
e. Are less costly to maintain.

16. As a type of relationship tie, exploitation refers to such things as:
a. Selfishness.
b. Choice.
c. Efficiency.
d. Execution.
e. B through D above.

17. In measuring the performance of strategic alliances and networks, subjective measures include:
a. Market performance.
b. Stability.
c. A and B above.
d. The level of managers’ satisfaction.
e. Longevity.

18. Which (if any) of the following will not influence the performance of alliances and networks?
a. Equity.
b. Learning and experience.
c. Nationality.
d. Relational capabilities.
e. All can have an influence.

19. A lower level of ____contribution may indicate a firm’s relative lack of commitment:
a. Equity
b. Learning and experience
c. Nationality
d. Relational capabilities
e. All of the above

20. The stock market responds favorably to alliance activities, but only under which circumstances?
a. Complementary resources.
b. Previous alliance experience.
c. Ability to manage the host country’s political risk.
d. Partner buyouts.
e. All of the above.

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. How can an organizational alliance be “win-win?” How can the concept of “cooperative specialization” help?

2. Why and how might a “real option” be useful in a joint venture?

3. A friend of yours stated: “I would never want to be dependent on an alliance. I prefer an acquisition so that everything would be under my control.” How would you respond?
4. What are the limitations in trying to clearly identify rights and expectations for alliances and acquisitions among global corporations?

5. What can be done to maintain a successful alliance among global firms?

CHAPTER 8 – MANAGING GLOBAL COMPETITIVE DYNAMICS

TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
21. Strategy involves planning for actions rather than reactions or interaction.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

22. Multimarket competition occurs when firms engage the same rivals in multiple markets.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

23. Multimarket competition destroys mutual forbearance.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

24. If an attack is so subtle that rivals are not aware of it, the attacker’s objectives are not likely to have been attained.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

25. If the attacked market is of marginal value, managers may decide not to counterattack.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

26. The “strategy as action” perspective highlights the power of creative destruction.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

27. Bargaining can take place through signals and actions.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

28. Industry-based considerations are fundamentally concerned with the very first of the Porter five forces, interfirm rivalry.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

29. Barriers for entrants with similar products and with substitute products are involved in the other two of the five forces.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

30. Collusion survives because it does not have an incentive problem as is illustrated by the prisoner’s dilemma.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

31. The capability to attack in multiple markets throws the firm off balance leaving it vulnerable to rivals and thus reducing value.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

32. Firms that have a high degree of resource similarity are likely to have similar strengths and weaknesses.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy
33. Under antitrust law a company can be in trouble for setting prices too high but not for setting them too low.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

34. US courts have not sought to unilaterally punish non-US cartels (if they are legal elsewhere) simply because they may have a substantial adverse impact on US markets.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

35. Critics of US policy on dumping at least agree that our policy on predatory pricing is consistent both domestically and internationally.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

36. Thrust makes use of military theory that the attacker needs to have at least a three-to-one advantage to overcome a well-defended position through a conventional frontal assault.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

37. Local firms’ primary strengths lie in a deep understanding of local markets, and thus they would pursue a dodger strategy.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

38. A strategy that leverages local assets is called an extender strategy.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

39. An extender strategy may be appropriate in some industries where pressures for globalization are relatively low.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

40. An extender strategy is being used when local firms engage in rapid learning to approach the capabilities of the MNEs and then expand overseas.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
21. Which is true of strategy?
f. Business strategy has similarities with military strategy.
g. Military principles cannot be completely applied in business.
h. Militaries fight over territories, waters, and air spaces, firms compete in markets.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

22. Which of the following are least likely to result in collusion?
f. High concentration ratio.
g. Heterogeneous products.
h. High entry barriers.
i. High market commonality.
j. Industry price leader exists.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

23. The main types of attack include:
f. Thrust.
g. Feint.
h. Gambit.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

24. Issues affecting collaboration include:
f. Secrecy.
g. Exclusivity.
h. Informality.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

25. In developing a strategy regarding competition or cooperation, it would be useful to not:
f. Understand the nature of your industry.
g. Strengthen capabilities that more effectively compete and/or cooperate.
h. Understand the rules of the game governing competition.
i. “Look ahead, reason back
j. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-8; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

26. Industry-based considerations regarding strategy:
f. Focus on the nature of collusion.
g. Deal with the relationship between industry structures and firms’ propensity to collude.
h. Deal with the relationship between industry structures and firms’ propensity to collude to competing.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

27. Explicit collusion is exemplified by:
f. Cartels.
g. Trusts.
h. Users of game theory.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

28. Firm A may be more successful in imitating Firm B if Firm B:
f. Is competitively aggressive.
g. Carries out complex actions.
h. Uses difficult to execute maneuvers.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

29. Which of the following will enable a firm to be competitive even if there is a lack of top management commitment and employee involvement?
a. Organizational structure.
b. Use of stealth attacks.
c. Rapid responses, and willingness to answer challenges.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

30. “The extent to which a given competitor possesses strategic endowment comparable, in terms of both type and amount, to those of the focal firm” refers to similarity of:
f. Strategy.
g. Resources.
h. Markets.
i. Industry.
j. Economic environment.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

31. Which of the following aspects of U.S. competition/antitrust policy has been opposed by the EU?
f. Collusive price setting.
g. Predatory pricing.
h. Extraterritoriality.
i. Court decisions.
j. Changes in policy.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

32. Cartels:
f. Involvecollusion.
g. Are often outlawed.
h. A and B above.
i. Entail the “prisoner’s dilemma for participants.
j. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy
33. Which is not true concerning US anti trust policy today?
f. Legislation has legally permitted rivals to join hands in research and development (R&D).
g. There is increased permissiveness regarding mergers among rivals.
h. Clarity of policy has improved.
i. The legal standards for interfirm cooperation are no longer ambiguous in the United States.
j. The legal standards for interfirm cooperation are ambiguous in many other countries.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

34. Dumping is defined as:
f. Shipping hazardous waste to locations in other countries.
g. An exporter selling below cost abroad.
h. Unloading unsold inventory from the US in other countries.
i. Excessive criticism of international rivals.
j. Getting rid of unprofitable operations.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

35. Which of the following would not be considered an initial set of actions to gain competitive advantage:
a. Price cuts.
b. Advertising campaigns.
c. Market entries.
d. Counterattacks.
e. New product introductions.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

36. A firm’s attack on a focal arena important to a competitor, but not the attacker’s true target area, is referred to as:
f. Thrust.
g. Feint.
h. Gambit.
i. Miscalculation.
j. Practice attack.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

37. The three drivers of counterattacks do not include:
f. Awareness.
g. Motivation.
h. Capability.
i. B and C above.
j. Vengeance.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Motivation Concepts
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

38. Which of the following is not a legal means of signaling?
f. Nonaggression or fat cat.
g. Direct discussion of reduced rivalry with competitors.
h. Truce seeking.
i. Communication via governments.
j. Strategic alliances.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 8-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

39. In some industries where pressures for globalization are relatively low, local firms may possess some skills and assets that are transferable overseas, thus leading to a/an_____strategy.
f. Defender
g. Extender
h. Dodger
i. Contender
j. Transfer
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

40. Local firms in emerging economies typically can at least match the ________ of MNEs.
a. Expertise
b. Experience
c. Endowments
d. A and B above
e. None of the above
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 8-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. The text points out that modern ideas of strategy, pioneered by Michael Porter, have turned IO economics “on its head.” While IO economics attempts to prevent any firm from gaining sustained competitive advantage, the very purpose of strategy is to gain a sustainable advantage. Is that good or bad?

2. Dumping involves selling something below cost. Using what you have learned in accounting or economics (or perhaps by talking to someone familiar with these courses) point out why it might sometimes be difficult to prove that a firm is selling below cost.

3. In the interest of maintaining high standards for international trade, the U.S. has at various times attempted to legislate the behavior of U.S. based companies. It has even at times tried to apply U.S. standards to those from other countries. Does this make sense to you?

4. Can national policies that seek to promote the well being of its citizens by its attempts to maintain competition actually have the opposite effect? Why or why not?

5. In some of the discussions of strategy. It was suggested that a firm might attempt to mislead a rival as to the firm’s true objective – i.e. feint. Is that unethical? Explain.

CHAPTER 9 – DIVERSIFYING, ACQUIRING, AND RESTRUCTURING
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
41. Operational synergy involves economies of scale.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

42. Not all product-related diversifiers outperform product-unrelated diversifiers.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

43. Porter’s five forces affect the structural attractiveness of an industry.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

44. The economic benefits of the last unit of growth (such as the last acquisition) can be defined as MBC.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

45. The scope of the firm is thus determined by a comparison between MEB and MBC.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

46. In the United States between the 1950s and 1970s MEB decreased, resulting in a decreased scope of the firm into conglomeration.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

47. By the 1980s MBC began to decrease.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

48. Interest in conglomerates has declined in emerging economies due to their developed capital markets.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

49. You should understand that the nature of your industry might call for diversification, acquisitions, and restructuring.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

50. You and your firm need to develop policies that avoid acquisitions and restructuring.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

51. Answering why firms choose different diversification strategies does not help answer why firms differ and how they behave.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

52. A superior product-related diversification strategy does not require a centralized and cooperative organizational architecture in order to add value.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

53. Instead of operational synergy, conglomerates focus on financial synergy.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

54. Diversification discount is the situation when unrelated-product diversification enables conglomerate units to beat stand-alone rivals.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

55. When conglomerate units are better off competing as stand-alone entities, we call it diversification premium.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

56. Research shows that the linkage between product diversification and firm performance seems to be inverted-U shaped.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

57. Porter’s five forces model can be used in regards to the structural attractiveness of an industry.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

58. High entry barriers often result in green-field entries as opposed to acquisitions.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

59. An industry whose products can be easily substituted faces more threats from other firms currently not in the same industry.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

60. Although the term mergers and acquisitions (M&As) is often used, in reality, acquisitions dominate the scene.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
41. Sources of operational synergy include:
k. Technologies.
l. Marketing.
m. Manufacturing.
n. All of the above.
o. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

42. Conglomeration tends to provide all of the following except:
k. Product-unrelated diversification.
l. Financial synergy.
m. Economies of scale.
n. Economies of scope.
o. Internal capital market.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

43. Diversification premium is the same thing as:
k. Conglomerate advantage.
l. Diversification discount.
m. Conglomerate disadvantage.
n. Level of product diversification.
o. Measurement of firm performance.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

44. Which would be more characteristic of conglomerates?
k. “Putting one’s eggs in one basket.”
l. “Putting one’s eggs in similar baskets.”
m. “Putting one’s eggs in different baskets.”
n. A and B above.
o. B and C above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

45. Research regarding the relationship between product diversification and firm performance indicates that:
k. Performance may increase as firms shift from single business strategies to product-related diversification.
l. Performance may decrease as firms change from product-related to –unrelated.
m. The linkage between diversification and performance is inverted U shaped.
n. “Putting your eggs in similar baskets,” has emerged as a balanced way to both reduce risk and leverage synergy.
o. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Challenging

46. Which geographic diversification is most likely to reduce the liability of foreignness?
k. Culturally adjacent countries.
l. Extensive international scope.
m. Beyond geographically neighboring countries.
n. Beyond culturally neighboring countries.
o. All of the above
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

47. Which is not true regarding geographic diversification and firm performance?
k. U-shaped relationship at low level of internationalization.
l. Initially a negative effect of international expansion on performance.
m. Affected by the liability of foreignness.
n. Inverted-U shape at moderate to high levels of internationalization.
o. Positive only at high levels of internationalization.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

48. In combining product and geographic diversification, which is not one of the four possible combinations?
k. Anchored replicators.
l. Multinational replicators.
m. Far-flung conglomerates.
n. Classic replicators.
o. Classic conglomerates.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

49. At its core, diversification is essentially driven by all of the following except:
a. Economic benefits.
b. Bureaucratic costs.
c. Synergy.
d. Less complicated information systems.
e. MEB.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

50. Select the best choice: a company that is engaged in oil production, pipelines and tankers, refining, and gasoline stations has engaged in ______________ expansion.
k. Horizontal
l. Vertical
m. Conglomerate
n. Friendly M&A
o. Hostile M&A
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Application; Difficulty: Moderate

51. Which is one motive for M&A which does not necessarily increase shareholder value?
k. Synergistic.
l. Hubris.
m. Performance.
n. A and C above.
o. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Motivation Concepts
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

52. Corporate scope is shaped by:
k. Industry conditions.
l. Firm capabilities.
m. Institutional constraints.
n. Opportunities in both developed and emerging economies.
o. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

53. Product-related diversification involves all of the following except:
k. A single business strategy.
l. Entries into activities that are related to a firm’s existing markets and/or activities.
m. The emphasis is on economies of scale rather than scope.
n. Increases in competitiveness.
o. Synergy.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: ; Difficulty: Challenging

54. Sources of operation synergy:
k. Technologies.
l. Marketing.
m. Manufacturing.
n. All of the above.
o. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Creation of Value
LO: 9-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

55. Diversification can pay off in all of the following situations except:
a. Risk is spread over several (product or country) markets.
b. Core resources are leveraged.
c. The art of post-acquisition integration has been mastered.
d. Commonly shared industry skills are used.
e. Firms are organized to minimize the costs.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

56. The following managerial motives for conglomerations do not benefit shareholders except:
k. Norms.
l. Reducing managers’ employment risk.
m. Organizational stability.
n. Pursuing power, prestige, and income.
o. Empire building.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Motivation Concepts
LO: 9-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

57. Which of the following is true regarding M&As?
k. As many as 70 percent of M&As reportedly fail.
l. On average, the acquiring firms’ performance improves after acquisitions.
m. Target firms, after being acquired and becoming internal units, often perform better than when they were independent, stand-alone firms.
n. The only identifiable losers are the shareholders of target (acquired) firms.
o. The outstanding success of M&As is due to pre- and post acquisition phases.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

58. To ensure the success of the M&A, managers need to make sure of all the following except:
k. Be willing to walk out when premiums are too high.
l. Engage in adequate due diligence concerning strategic fit.
m. Seek organizational contrast and variety rather than organizational fit.
n. Address the concerns of multiple stakeholders.
O. Recognize that that integration management is a fulltime job.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 9-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

59. Which is true regarding restructuring?
k. There are two primary ways of restructuring namely downsizing and upsizing.
l. A rising level of competition within an industry normally prevents restructuring.
m. Corporate restructuring is not widely embraced around the world.
n. Restructuring is one of the first things to consider when trying to improve profitability.
o. Restructuring is easier in knowledge-intensive firms than capital intensive firms.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

60. Which is true of relatedness?
a. Measurement of product relatedness is no longer debatable.
b. A “product-related” firm will be considered related regardless of the measure used.
c. Some argue that product relatedness refers specifically to the visible product linkages.
d. Relatedness can be a common underlying dominant logic that connects various businesses in a diversified firm.
e. Product-unrelated conglomerates are not linked by institutional relatedness.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 9-5; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. You recently noticed a comment in a blog which stated: “By its very nature, restructuring is a violation of CSR!” How do you feel about that?

2. In that same blog another person stated: “Decisions about diversification and acquisition are not based on the well being of the shareholder but instead on the needs of the CEO such as ego and job security. As a result, all such decisions should be submitted to a government agency for approval.” Do you agree? Why or why not?

3. Other comments you saw in the blog are less hostile to business. In one, the person was claiming that recent developments in financial markets suggest that it is time to revive the use of conglomerates. Based on what is happening now, do you agree? Why or why not?

4. You are the CEO of International Widget and you are contemplating expanding into Lower Slobovia. You have the resources needed to start from scratch in that country but it would be possible to acquire the company that dominates the Lower Slobovian Widget industry. Which do you think would be best: start from scratch or an acquisition?

5. You are the CEO of Mega Global Corporation and you are weighing a number of decisions involving diversification, acquisition, and restructuring. Long ago you were the manager of a mutual fund and you decide to make your decisions using the same approach as you used in managing that fund. How would that affect your decisions and decision process?

CHAPTER 10 – STRATEGIZING, STRUCTURING, AND LEARNING
AROUND THE WORLD
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
61. Home replication strategy emphasizes the home country replication of international based competencies.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

62. Localization strategy is an extension of the home replication strategy.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

63. Transnational strategy supposedly is a trade off between being cost efficient and locally responsive but is really locally responsive.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

64. Global product division structure is the same as the geographic area structure.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

65. Many MNEs have phased out the geographical area structure.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

66. Strategy drives structure: a misfit, such as combining a global strategy with a geographic area structure, may have grave performance consequences.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

67. The Porter five forces are not helpful in understanding MNE structure.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

68. No one argues that knowledge management is the defining feature of MNEs.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

69. It is obviously a lot easier to imitate an intangible philosophy or mentality than to imitate a tangible structure.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

70. Knowledge management not only depends on IT, but also on informal social relationships within the MNE.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

71. In a transnational MNE, the role of subsidiaries is to adapt and leverage parent company competencies.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

72. The “not invented here” syndrome causes managers to accept ideas invented elsewhere.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Individual Dynamics
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

73. MNEs often must rely on a great deal of informal integrating mechanisms.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

74. Overall, the micro, informal interpersonal relationships among managers of various units may create a micro-macro link.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

75. It is hard to distinguish between subsidiary initiative and empire building.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

76. European MNE’s are more likely than Japanese MNE to appoint host-country or third country nationals as head of a foreign subsidiary.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 10-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

77. Customer-focused dimensions cut across all three existing mainstream dimensions.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

78. Transnational strategy aims to capture “the best of both worlds” by endeavoring to be both cost efficient and locally responsive.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

79. An international division serves as a means of coordination with the rest of the firm.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

80. The text recommended that firms avoid simplifying both product and geographic scope by downsizing and downscoping.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
61. Pressures for cost reductions and local responsiveness include:
p. The framework of how to simultaneously deal with these two sets of pressures.
q. Host country demands and expectations.
r. Being locally responsive makes local customers and governments happy but increase costs.
s. All of the above.
t. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

62. Four strategic choices for MNEs do not include:
p. Home replication.
q. Domestic.
r. Multidomestic.
s. Transnational.
t. Global.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

63. Multidomestic strategy involves all of the following except:
p. Focuses on a number of foreign countries/regions.
q. Each foreign country is regarded as a stand-alone “domestic” market.
r. Is effective when there are clear differences among national and regional markets.
s. A multidomestic strategy has high costs.
t. Global standardization strategy is the same as a multidomestic strategy.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

64. The structure that is typically set up when firms initially expand abroad is a:
p. International division structure.
q. Geographic area structure.
r. Global product division structure.
s. Global matrix structure.
t. Flexible matrix structure.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

65. In which of the following structures are foreign subsidiary managers not given sufficient voice relative to domestic managers?
p. International division structure.
q. Geographic area structure.
r. Global product division structure.
s. Global matrix structure.
t. Flexible matrix structure.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

66. The most appropriate structure for a multidomestic strategy is a:
p. International division structure.
q. Geographic area structure.
r. Global product division structure.
s. Global matrix structure.
t. Flexible matrix structure.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Application; Difficulty: Moderate

67. Which of the following is not true of the global matrix structure?
p. Is often used to alleviate the disadvantages associated with the geographic area structure.
q. Is often used to alleviate the disadvantages associated with the global product division structures.
r. Often used for sharing and coordinating responsibilities between product divisions and geographic areas.
s. This structure benefits front-line managers who now have only one boss – either a country manager or a product division manager.
t. The matrix structure may add layers of management.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

68. Which are not true in regards to institution-based considerations?
p. Externally, MNEs are subject to the formal institutional frameworks erected by various home- and host-country governments.
q. Host-country governments often encourage, or coerce MNEs into undertaking certain activities.
r. Strategists weigh the informal, backlash against activities which result in domestic job losses.
s. Formal organizational charts do not necessarily reveal the informal rules of the game, such as organizational norms, values, and networks.
t. To staff the position of the head of a subsidiary, MNEs, in the absence of formal regulations, essentially have only one choice: to use a home-country national as the head of a subsidiary.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

69. The type of knowledge that is codifiable (that is, it can be written down and transferred without losing much of its richness) is called:
a. Explicit.
b. Implicit.
c. Tacit.
d. Lucid.
e. Clear.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

70. Knowledge management uses “centers of excellence” in which type of MNE?
p. Home replication.
q. Local (multidomestic).
r. Global.
s. Transnational.
t. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

71. Which is true of globalized R&D?
p. Is often known as innovation-avoidance expense.
q. One way to access such a high technology and research-rich cluster is to avoid FDI.
r. R&D work performed by different locations and teams around the world virtually guarantees failure.
s. For large firms, there are actually diminishing returns for R&D.
t. Global virtual teams, which do not meet face to face, may overcome communication and relationship barriers.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

72. This structure is commonly used in professional service firms:
p. Global account structure.
q. An industry sector structure.
r. Solutions-based structure.
s. All of the above.
t. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

73. This structure is often used to supply customers (often other MNEs) in a coordinated and consistent way across various countries.
p. Global account structure.
q. An industry sector structure.
r. Solutions-based structure.
s. All of the above.
t. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

74. Which of the following is a solution rather than a problem in knowledge management?
p. Open innovation.
q. Knowledge leakage.
r. Not invented here syndrome.
s. All of the above.
t. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Environmental Influence
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

75. Which of the following is not an argument in favor of centralization in knowledge management but instead is an argument in favor of decentralization?
a. Capability to facilitate corporate-wide coordination.
b. Consistency in decision-making.
c. Permits greater speed, flexibility, and innovation.
d. Sufficient power for corporate-level managers to initiate necessary actions.
e. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

76. Which of the following is not an argument in favor of decentralization in knowledge management but instead is an argument in favor of centralization?
p. Better motivates subsidiary-level managers and employees through empowerment.
q. Reduces corporate level overload of responsibilities.
r. Better motivates subsidiary level managers.
s. Sufficient power for corporate-level managers to initiate necessary actions.
t. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-3; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

77. Which of the following is a customer-focused dimension?
a. Global account structure.
b. An industry sector structure.
c. Solutions-based structure.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 10-4; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate
78. Unique to international competition are the pressures for local responsiveness, which are reflected in:
p. Consumer preferences.
q. Distribution channels.
r. Host country demands.
s. A through C above.
t. Shareholder demands.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Environmental Influence
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

79. Which of the following is a key idea regarding the reciprocal relationship between strategies and structures within MNEs?
p. The fit between strategies and structures is crucial.
q. The relationship is two way.
r. Strategies and structures are not static.
s. All of the above.
t. A good strategy cancels the effect of a bad structure.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

80. Which is not one of the suggestions for international managersthat can be drawn from this chapter?
a. Create a common structure for all MNEs.
b. Understand the nature and evolution of your industry.
c. Actively develop learning and innovation capabilities.
d. Masterthe external rules of the game.
e. Understand and be prepared to change the internal rules of the game.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 10-5; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. To what extent should a firm be committed to a particular strategy versus making frequent changes in the strategy? If a strategy is likely to be changed, what is the point in having one?

2. Normally when a firm first expands overseas, it may use an international division and later use a different organizational structure. Under what circumstances might such a firm wish to shift back to the use of an international division?

3. Global R&D has pros and cons for the firm that uses that approach. However, suppose you are the leader of the country where that firm is based. How might you view having R&D being conducted by a global team in a matter that is vital to the nation’s economic health/and or security?

4. Suppose you are the leader of a nation which currently has few capabilities other than a well-educated populace that could contribute to economic growth. However, you think you have a bright idea. You are going to encourage MNEs from around the world to locate their headquarters in your country. What might attract them and how might that pay off if you are successful?

5. Mega Global Corporation has centralized all of its global operations. The firm’s manager in Lower Slobovia would like to see more decentralization. Her complaint: “We are the experts on what needs to be done in this country but we have to get approval from people who have no idea as to what is going on here. That makes neither sense nor dollars.” Evaluate her statement.

CHAPTER 11 – GOVERNING THE CORPORATION AROUND THE WORLD
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
81. Founders usually start up firms and completely own and control these enterprises.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

82. Since the 1980s, state ownership has expanded and privatization has declined.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Environmental Influence
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

83. The relationship between shareholders and professional managers is a relationship between principals and agents.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

84. Principal-Principal Conflicts: such conflicts are within one class of principals such as a disagreement among certain majority stockholders and other majority stockholders.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

85. Inside directors are top executives of the firm.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

86. The trend around the world is to introduce more inside directors and less outside directors.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

87. CEO duality refers to a situation in which two people share the role of CEO.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

88. Board interlocks refers to bonding and teamwork among the members of a board of directors.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

89. How directors strategically prioritize is about the same around the world.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

90. The Market for Corporate Control is another term for the stock market.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

91. The Market for Private Equity involves going private by tapping into private equity.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-4; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

92. Overall, governance practices need to fit with the nature of the industry in which firms are competing. This cautions against prescribing universal “best” practices.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

93. Managerial human capital refers to the skills and abilities of top managers and directors.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

94. Formal legal protection encourages founding families and their heirs to dilute their equity.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

95. Large shareholders in emerging economies usually need to have a significantly lower percentage of shares to ensure control than in the US.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

96. The rise of capitalism has not affected governance.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

97. FPI investors demand less protection.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

98. The thirst for global capital requires adherence to listing requirements.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Legal Responsibilities
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

99. Recently, stewardship theory suggests that by and large managers can be viewed as stewards of owners’ interests.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-7; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

100. Convergence advocates argue that a “survival-of the-fittest” process will force firms globally to accept the best practices exemplified by Anglo-American practices.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-7; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
81. Ownership will likely be diffused under which of the following situations?
u. A start up firm.
v. Family owned firm.
w. State ownership.
x. All of the above.
y. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

82. Issues involved regarding how a board of directors can be established so as to be most effective include:
u. The insider/outsider mix.
v. CEO duality.
w. Board Interlocks.
x. The Role of Boards of Directors.
y. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

83. Boards of directors perform all of the following except:
u. Control.
v. Service.
w. Resource acquisition functions.
x. A through C above.
y. Day to day operations.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

84. Which of the following make up a governance package?
u. Internal Mechanisms + External Mechanisms.
v. Carrots to motivate managers such as stock options.
w. Sticks that may result in CEO and top management team turnover.
x. The Market for Corporate Control.
y. The Market for Private Equity.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-4; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

85. Three decades of privatization suggest all of the following except:
u. Privatization to insiders helps improve the performance of small firms.
v. In large corporations privatization to insiders, without external governance pressures, is hardly conducive for needed restructuring.
w. Outside ownership and control, preferably by blockholders, funds, foreigners, and/ or banks, are more likely to facilitate restructuring.
x. Such outside ownership and control does not happen frequently because incumbent managers do not necessarily welcome such outside “intrusion.”
y. When outside investors such as institutional investors do come in, they fail to assert their power.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-7; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

86. Industry-Based Considerations regarding corporate governance include all of the following except:
u. Having more outside directors on the board is often regarded as having a negative impact on performance because of their lack of understanding as compared to insiders.
v. In industries characterized by rapid innovation requiring significant R&D investments (such as information technology), outside directors may have a negative impact on firm performance.
w. Research finds that for firms in low-growth, stable industries, no relationship exists between inside management ownership and firm performance.
x. In relatively high-growth, turbulent industries, there is a relationship between inside management ownership and firm performance.
y. In industries experiencing great turbulence, the presence of a single leader may allow a faster and more unified response to changing events.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

87. Institution-based considerations in governance include all of the following except:
u. Formal institutional framework.
v. International experience of senior executives.
w. Formal legal protection and impact on founder’s dilution of equity.
x. Lack of legal protection and its impact regarding large shareholders in emerging economies.
y. Impact of informal norms and values.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

88. Which are not among the aspects of globalization?
u. Contact with different governance norms.
v. FPI investors demand more protection.
w. The focus on governance has been replaced by a focus on shareholder value.
x. The thirst for global capital requires adherence to listing requirements.
y. The global diffusion of “best practices.”
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 11-6; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

89. Agency theory assumes that managers:
a. Have a responsibility to the owners.
b. Are agents who are opportunistic and engage in self-serving activities.
c. A and B above.
d. Can be left to their own devices.
e. Are effective steward of the owners’ interests.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

90. In regards to global convergence:
u. Advocates argue that globalization will unleash a “survival-of the-fittest” process.
v. Advocates claim firms will be forced to adopt globally the best practices.
w. Others contend that governance practices will continue to diverge throughout the world.
x. The text indicates that complete divergence in corporate governance is probably unrealistic.
y. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Operations Management
LO: 11-7; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

91. Strategists should:
u. Understand the nature of principal–agent and principal–principal conflicts to create better governance mechanisms.
v. Develop firm-specific capabilities to differentiate on governance dimensions.
w. Understand the rules, anticipate changes, and be aware of differences, especially when doing business abroad.
x. Use an understanding of corporate governance to help answer the four fundamental questions in strategy.
y. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 11-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

92. As the closing case points out, the positive side private equity firms excel in all the following ways except:
p. They always send experts to sit on the board and are hands-on in managing.
q. They use a high level of debt that imposes strong financial discipline.
r. Private equity turns managers from agents to principals with substantial equity, thus providing a powerful incentive to them.
s. They pay managers more generously, but also punish failure more heavily.
t. They reduce income inequality between financiers and the rest of us.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

93. As the closing case points out on the negative side, private equity firms have been accused of all of the following except:
u. Being “barbarians.”
v. Being “asset strippers,” and “locusts.”
w. Internationally, causing shock in countries suddenly facing the full rigor of Anglo-American private equity.
x. Placing CSR ahead of all rational economic decisions.
y. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

94. The defense of private equity includes all of the following points except:
u. While private equity results in job cuts, the same might happen if targets were acquired by public firms.
v. It would not be rational for private buyers to destroy their prize therefore they attempt to avoid doing that.
w. Their record as corporate citizens is no more barbaric than that of public firms.
x. They point to a Texas utility in which owners paid shareholders a 25% premium, gave retail customers a 10% price cut, and dropped plans to build eight dirty coal-fired power plants—hailed by environmentalists as a major victory.
y. The actions of U.S. private equity firms have enhanced the image of the U.S. and capitalism around the world.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

95. Diffused ownership is the opposite of concentrated ownership, and is more common in:
a. The US and UK.
b. South America.
c. Asia.
d. Africa.
e. The Pacific.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

96. Most large, publicly traded UK corporations are now characterized by all of the following except:
u. Diffused ownership.
v. Numerous small shareholders.
w. A separation of ownership and control.
x. Control is largely concentrated in the hands of salaried, professional managers.
y. Corporate managers who own a majority of the stock.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

97. Which of the following is not true regarding large institutional investors?
u. They include professionally managed mutual funds and pension pools.
v. They now own over 50 percent of the stock in major corporations.
w. They are the controlling stockholders in China.
x. Their ability to dump the stock is limited because selling out depresses the share price and harms the institutions.
y. They are more likely to exercise shareholder rights than smaller investors.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

98. In regards to family ownership, all of the following are true except:
u. Most small firms in the world are owned and controlled by families.
v. The vast majority of large corporations throughout continental Europe, Asia, Latin America, and Africa no longer feature concentrated family ownership and control.
w. Family ownership and control may provide better incentives for the firm to focus on long-run performance.
x. Such ownership may also minimize the conflict between owners and professional managers typically encountered in widely owned firms.
y. Family ownership and control may lead to the selection of less qualified managers who happen to be the sons, daughters, and relatives of owners.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

99. Which of the following is true in regards to outside directors?
u. The trend around the world is to introduce less outside directors.
v. In the United States, less than a half century ago, most boards were made up entirely or largely of outside directors.
w. Many US firms are now favoring a board that is entirely made of people who are insiders due the need for people who can understand the increasing complexity of MNEs.
x. Japanese boards have not waited until they are in financial difficulty to bring in outside directors from banks.
Y. Academic research has failed to empirically establish a link between the outsider/insider ratio and firm performance.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

100. Which of the following is true regarding CEO duality?
a. From an agency theory standpoint, if the board is to supervise agents such as the CEO, it seems imperative that the board be chaired by the same individual.
b. In US firms with CEO duality, the trend now is to appoint a lead independent director, who chairs the sessions held by outside directors that do not involve company executives.
c. A corporation led by two top leaders—a board chairman and a CEO – will at least have unity of command and experience less top-level conflict.
d. East Asia and Latin America where most firms have concentrated family ownership and control, there is less CEO duality.
e. Firms around the world are being pressured to combine the two top jobs.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 11-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. You are the founder of a firm that appears to have significant long-term growth potential. Right now you and your family own 100% of the firm’s shares and you are trying to figure out to keep things that way. How might you do that? Should you do that?

2. At this present time, what do you see happening in regards to privatization of SOEs?

3. Are there potential issues involving economic power and national sovereignty in the dominant stock ownership position of institutional investors?

4. Can interlocking directorates lead to unfair market advantages and investor exploitation? How?

5. What is the potential relationship between concern about a board dominated by insiders and concern about excess executive pay?

CHAPTER 12 – STRATEGIZING WITH CORPORATE SOCIAL RESPONSIBILITY
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
101. A stakeholder is “any group or individual who can affect or is affected by the achievement of the organization’s objectives.”
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

102. Nearly all CSR advocates argue for a revival of socialism in the world.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

103. The more concentrated an industry is, the more likely that competitors will recognize their mutual interdependence based on old ways of doing business that are not up to the higher CSR standards.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate
104. Companies have had their CSR policies certified by NGOs that might otherwise be hostile.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

105. Firms pursuing a reactive CSR strategy actively participate in policy discussions, build alliances with stakeholder groups, and voluntarily go beyond what the regulations require.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

106. Since each firm is different (a basic assumption of the resource-based view), not every firm’s economic performance is likely to benefit from CSR.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

107. A key goal for CSR is global sustainability, which is defined as the ability “to meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs.”
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

108. According to the text, one driver of CSR in the twenty-first century is the declining levels of population in some countries.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Environmental Influence
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

109. The anti-WTO protests in Seattle in 1999 are indicative of resentment against globalization and a perceived lack of CSR in firms, particularly those that relocate offices (and jobs) to foreign countries.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

110. Compared with the relatively expanded power of national governments in the wake of globalization, NGOs and other civil society stakeholders have lost the ability to affect firms and their management or to impact legislation.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

111. Suppliers and customers are typically considered primary stakeholders.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

112. Primary stakeholder groups are defined as “those who influence or affect, or are influenced or affected by, the corporation, but they are not engaged in transactions with the corporation and are not essential for its survival.”
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

113. Milton Friedman, a University of Chicago economist and Nobel laureate, suggested: “The business of business is business.”
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

114. Advocates of shareholder capitalism argue that if firms attempt to attain social goals, it will actually help them focus on profit maximization (and its derivative, shareholder value maximization).
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

115. The more concentrated an industry is, the more likely that competitors will recognize their mutual interdependence based on old ways of doing business that are not up to the higher CSR standards.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

116. The five forces framework reinforces the important point that all industries are equal in terms of their exposure to CSR challenges.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

117. There is no conclusive evidence of a direct, positive link between CSR and economic performance, such as profits and shareholder returns.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

118. Reactive Strategy often involves an “out of sight, out of mind” mentality.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

119. Although framed in a domestic versus overseas context, the heart of this debate boils down to the foundational thorny point that frustrates CSR advocates: In a capitalist society, the shareholders—otherwise known as capitalists—are the ones who matter at the end of the day.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

120. The idea that MNEs should not interfere in the domestic political affairs of the host country has been enshrined in a number of codes of MNE but CSR advocates have stressed the necessity for MNEs to engage in actions that often constitute political activity.
a. True b. False
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
101. CSR tends to be the least concerned with improving:
z. Global sustainability.
aa. Shareholder wealth maximization.
bb. Rising levels of population.
cc. Inequity.
dd. High levels of poverty in some countries.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Easy

102. NGOs have the ability to:
z. Affect firms’practices.
aa. Influence firms’ management.
bb. Impact legislation.
cc. All of the above.
dd. None of the above
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

103. Secondary stakeholder groups are:
z. Constituents on whom the firm relies for its continuous survival and prosperity.
aa. Those who do not influence or affect the corporation.
bb. Not influenced or affected by the corporation.
cc. Not engaged in transactions with the corporation and are not essential for its survival.
dd. B through D above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

104. The CSR debate centers on the question:
z. Why does the firm exist?
aa. Why does private property exist?
bb. What laws are needed to control the firm’s behavior?
cc. What can be done to prevent unreasonable profits?
dd. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

105. Free market advocates tend to do all of the following except:
z. Argue that “the social responsibility of business is to increase its profits, which leads to efficient capital and product markets.”
aa. Argue that all stakeholders have an equal right to bargain for a “fair deal.”
bb. Believe that the first and foremost stakeholder group is shareholders.
cc. Argue that if firms attempt to attain social goals, managers will lose their focus on profit maximization.
dd. Fear that firms will become like SOEs.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Moderate

106. Those who advocate CSR:
z. Conduct their debate within the constraints of capitalism.
aa. Argue that a humane capitalism is an oxymoron and unattainable.
bb. Argue that the concepts justice and fairness are simply matters of opinion.
cc. Argue that the most important stakeholder is the stockholder.
dd. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

107. Using the five forces model, which will likely result in a higher level of CSR?
z. A highly concentrated industry.
aa. Existence of incumbents.
bb. Socially and environmentally conscious suppliers with standardized products that have multiple substitutes.
cc. No monitoring program for all supplier factories.
dd. Substitutes that are superior to existing products and costs are reasonable.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

108. Which is not true about CSR?
z. Some CSR policies may reduce the firm’s value.
aa. CSR policies may not pay off if common.
bb. CSR that is embedded in people is easier to imitate.
cc. Organization: a firm needs to tie together CSR activities.
dd. It is difficult to prove a link between CSR and economic performance.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Analysis; Difficulty: Challenging

109. Which of the following is an accommodative CSR strategy?
a. Neither for or against CSR.
b. Resist imposition of what seems unreasonable.
c. View CSR as worthwhile.
d. Actively participate in CSR policy discussion.
e. Voluntarily go beyond what the regulations require.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

110. Those who feel that firms that expand into emerging economies are failing their CSR responsibilities are most likely to claim that it:
z. Potentially hurts corporate profits.
aa. Reduces shareholder returns.
bb. Fails to provide employment to host countries.
cc. Reduces the standard of living in host countries.
dd. Domestic employees and communities pay the price for the overseas expansion.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

111. There is agreement throughout society that:
z. Overseas expansion is good because it helps improve standards of living around the world.
aa. Overseas expansion is bad because it causes loss of jobs in the home country.
bb. Firms should stick strictly to business within a country and not seek to impose their views of human rights on other countries that have different views.
cc. Firms have a responsibility to do whatever is necessary to assure that the human rights that are respected in the home country are implemented in host countries.
dd. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-3; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

112. An example of a primary stakeholder group is:
u. Media.
v. Social activists.
w. Environmental groups.
x. Employees.
y. Fair labor practice groups.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate
113. An example of a secondary stakeholder group is:
z. Social and environmental groups.
aa. Suppliers.
bb. Customers.
cc. Governments.
dd. Communities.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

114. In regards to managers and CSR, the following is true except:
z. All sides of the CSR debate agree that they have a unique and central role.
aa. All sides of the CSR debate agree as to how they should implement their role.
bb. As a stakeholder group they are unique in terms of potential coordination.
cc. They are positioned at the center of all the stakeholder relationships.
dd. They make decisions on behalf of the firm that affect other stakeholders.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Leadership Principles
LO: 12-1; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

115. In regard to the extent of CSR challenges, the following is true except:
a. All industries are equal in terms of their exposure to CSR challenges.
b. Energy- and materials-intensive industries (such as chemicals) have been criticized.
c. Firms that are major outsourcers in foreign countries have been criticized.
d. Some firms have turned to NGO critics to have the NGOs certify their policies.
e. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Moderate

116. In regards to the link between CSR and economic performance:
z. There is no conclusive evidence of a direct, positive link between CSR and economic performance.
aa. Some studies report a positive relationship.
bb. Some studies find a negative relationship or no relationship.
cc. It appears some firms are not cut out for a CSR-intensive strategy.
dd. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Analytic; DISC: Strategy
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

117. The instrumental view of CSR advocates who are skeptical of CSR compliance claims:
z. That firms may not necessarily be sincere.
aa. That firms may be compelled to appear to be sensitive to CSR by impression management—in other words, “window dressing.”
bb. That many firms may chase fads by following what others are doing, while not having truly internalized the need for CSR.
cc. That CSR activities simply represent a useful means to help make good profits. Firms are not necessarily becoming more “ethical.”
dd. All of the above
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Group Dynamics
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

118. Some CSR advocates who question motives of firms implementing CSR are pleased that:
z. Firms are embarking on some tangible CSR journey.
aa. CSR’s legitimacy is rising on the organizational agenda.
bb. By adopting codes of conduct (even if only for “window dressing” purposes), they create a set of criteria against which they can be judged.
cc. All of the above.
dd. None of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Moderate

119. Reactive firms:
z. Actively participate in regional, national, and international policy discussions.
aa. Often build alliances with stakeholder groups.
bb. Engage in voluntary activities that go beyond what the regulations require.
cc. React negatively to aspects of CSR that may increase costs.
dd. All of the above.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Ethics; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Knowledge; Difficulty: Easy

120. From an institutional perspective, proactive activities are indicative of all the following except:
a. Normative beliefs.
b. Cognitive beliefs.
c. The desire to do the right thing.
d. An absence of “window dressing.”
e. A quest for better profits.
AACSB: BUSPROG: Reflective Thinking; DISC: Ethical Responsibilities
LO: 12-2; Bloom’s: Comprehension; Difficulty: Challenging

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
6. Your firm has sought to be a responsible part of the community and has sought out ways to implement CSR within your capabilities. However, a news organization that has been trying to boost its ratings has done a series on your organization that suggests that your product is harming consumers and the community’s environment. You believe the reports are totally false but protests have recently been directed toward your facilities and a politician who seeking an issue has been loudly condemning your organization? Some of your shareholders are suggesting that the company takes its losses on the product by discontinuing it rather than risk further damage to the company and its reputation. What should you do?

7. Last week you attended a series of lectures at the local university in which the speakers were discussing the role of corporations (such as yours) overseas. The first lecturer discussed the role of MNEs over the years as instruments of national power for the country in which they were based and discussed instances in which the firms became involved in local politics. The speaker condemned such companies as imperialists for attempting to impose U.S. values on foreign nations. The last speaker in the series argued that MNEs have a responsibility to identify injustice and violation of human rights in the nations where they operate and to use either persuasion or economic pressure to bring about change. Whose advice will you follow?

8. A representative of an NGO that has a very significant influence on some your key stakeholders (especially your customers) has met with you. The person has indicated that they are considering conducting a campaign against one of your policies. You feel the policy is totally justified but you have seen how the organization has smeared and destroyed others that it has targeted. The person seems to be hinting that perhaps they might launch a campaign against some other target if you demonstrated CSR by making a big contribution to the NGO. You feel that you are a victim of extortion but the cost of buying them off might be less than the damage that they could do to you. What should you do?

9. Your company has been active in CSR. It has even avoided shutting down its local factory and moving its production overseas where its labor costs could be significantly less because it recognizes the harm that would do the employees and the community. However, the CSR has resulted in a lower level of profitability and now a corporate raider appears to be ready to launch a takeover bid for your company. In the past, when that raider has taken over a company, payrolls have been slashed, all CSR has been discontinued, and nearly all stakeholders other than some investors have been harmed. What should you?

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ACC 206, ACC 303, ACC 304, ACC 350, ACC 401, ACC 410, ACC 555, ACC 556, ACC 557, ACC 560, ACC 562, ACC 563, ACC 564, ACC 565, ACC 571, ACC 576, BUS 230, BUS 309, BUS 310, BUS 322, BUS 325, BUS 335, BUS 365, BUS 402, BUS 430, BUS 508, BUS 515, BUS 517, BUS 518, BUS 519, BUS 521,BUS 536, CIS 210, CIS 499, CIS 501,CIS 505,CIS 513, CIS 518, CIS 519, CIS 524, CIS 562, ECO 302, ECO 305, ECO 405, ECO 410,ECO 450, ECO 550, FIN 317, FIN 320, FIN 350, FIN 534, FIN 535, FIN 540, HRM 500, HRM 510, HRM 522, HSA 590, LEG 320, LEG 500, MGT 510, MKT 475, MKT 500, MKT 515, PAD 500,PAD 530,

Week 5 Midterm Exam, Quiz, Assignments, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems,

BUS 536 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer University NEW

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Midterm Exam Chapter 1 Through 6

CHAPTER 1 – STRATEGIZING AROUND THE GLOBE
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. The opening case is an example of how the publishing industry now requires a simultaneous penetration of all markets rather than trying to win one market after another.

2. In the opening case, the formal rules in China stated that foreign companies could not publish books on their own.

3. In China, political correctness may need to be considered when making reference to Taiwan.
4. The closing case illustrates how to strategically focus on the base of the global economic pyramid and to do so successfully.

5. A SWOT analysis resonates very well with Sun Tzu’s teachings.

6. If a strategy (theory) is truly successful, it will work not just for one firm but for all others as well.

7. Determining the scope of the firm involves not only growth of the firm but also contraction.

8. The text stresses that realism indicates that all companies should “go global” and endeavor to do so as quickly as possible in view of the vast opportunities that exist.

9. The industry-based view posits that the degree of competitiveness in an industry largely determines firm performance.

10. The resource-based view suggests that firm-specific capabilities do not drive performance differences.

11. The institution-based view argues that institutional forces provide an answer to similarities in firm performance but not differences.

12. As illustrated by Cengage Learning’s penetration of the China market with Global Strategy (opening case), the idea that firms must “think global and act local” simultaneously is simply not possible.

13. The earliest MNEs existed in some form thousands of years ago in the Assyrian, Phoenician, and Roman empires.

14. According to the text, today’s most successful MNEs far exceed the historical clout of some MNEs such as Britain’s East India Company during colonial times.

15. During the second half of the twentieth century, Hong Kong, Singapore, South Korea, and Taiwan, refused to participate in the global economy and became known as the “Four Toothless Tigers.”

16. During the 1990s there was an increase in both global trade and opposition to global trade.

17. Semiglobalization involves doing business in either the northern or southern hemisphere but not both.

18. Beginning in the late 1990s and early twenty first century, a corporate governance crisis has developed.

19. According to the text, business students may tend to focus more on the economic gains of globalization, and be less concerned with its darker sides.

20. A lot of opponents of globalization are nongovernmental organizations (NGOs), such as environmentalists and consumer groups.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Multinational enterprises (MNEs) are firms that:
a. Engage in foreign direct investment (FDI).
b. Directly control value-adding activities in other countries.
c. Manage value-adding activities in other countries.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

2. Which of the following best describes foreign direct investment (FDI)?
a. A firm’s direct investment in production and/or service activities abroad.
b. The purchases of foreign securities by people within the U.S.
c. The purchases of U. S. securities by people from other countries.
d. Avoidance of brokers or other financial intermediaries when making foreign investments.
e. B and C above.

3. Which of the following best defines “Triad” as the term is used in the text?
a. The U.S., Japan, and Germany.
b. The U.S., Canada, and Mexico.
c. North America, Europe, and Japan.
d. North America, Europe, and Asia.
e. The U.S. dollar, the Euro, and the Yen.

4. According to the text, the current brand of “global strategy” seems relevant only for MNEs from:
a. BRIC.
b. The Triad.
c. OPEC nations.
d. NAFTA.
e. The E. U.

5. Emerging economies (or emerging markets):
a. Now command a full one-third of the worldwide FDI flow.
b. Command half of the global gross domestic product (GDP) measured at purchasing power parity.
c. A and B above
d. Despite their growth, they still command less than 10% of global GDP.
e. Consist of countries which are in a state of decline but which are believed to have potential for growth.

BRIC refers to:
a. Bahrain, Russia, Iran, and China.
b. Bolivia, Romania, India, and Columbia.
c. Bulgaria, Romania, Iraq, and China.
d. Bermuda, Rwanda, Iraq, and the Czech Republic.
e. Brazil, Russia, India, and China.

6. Many BRIC local firms are:
a. Effectively competing at home.
b. Launching offensives abroad.
c. Creating serious ramifications for Triad-based MNEs.
d. All of the above.
e. BRIC local firms have yet to become significant globally.

7. Strategy:
a. Dates back to 500bc and the work of the strategist Sun Tzu of China.
b. Applies concepts developed by the strategist von Clausewitz.
c. Includes application of principles of military strategy to business competition.
d. All of the above.
e. In this century, civilian companies no longer apply military theories and principles in dealing with competition.

8. A hallmark of theory building and development is:
a. The outcome of a test.
b. Replication.
c. Intuition.
d. Consensus.
e. Lack of controversy.

9. Overall, strategy is:
a. A rulebook.
b. A blueprint.
c. A set of programmed instructions.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
10. Much of our knowledge about “the firm” is from research on firms in:
a. Anglo-American capitalism.
b. Japan after World War II.
c. German mathematical models.
d. Emerging markets.
e. The early industrial era.

11. The word _______has now become the most famous Chinese business word to appear in English-language media.
a. Keiretsu
b. Guanxi
c. Chaebol
d. Blat
e. None of the above.
12. The _______ view primarily focuses on the ______ in a SWOT analysis.
a. Industry-based, OT
b. Resource-based, OT
c. Industry-based, SW
d. Resource-based, SW
e. Industry and resource, SWOT

13. As shown in the closing case, the informal rules of the game:
a. Must be avoided because global business is not a mere game.
b. Are not applicable in cultures in which tend to be very formal.
c. Often require that the firm seek to change the informal rules instead of going along with those rules.
d. Need to be understood by firms.
e. Are being replaced by formal rules.

14. Diversification:
a. Was acclaimed in the West during the 1960s and 1970s but was discredited twenty years later.
b. Is believed by Western media to destroy value in emerging economies.
c. Has resulted in higher profitability for some in emerging economies than independent firms.
d. In emerging economies may be a function of the level of institutional (under) development.
e. All of the above.

15. “Global strategy” refers to:
a. A particular theory on how to compete.
b. Offering standardized products and services on a worldwide basis.
c. Any strategy outside one’s home country.
d. Strategy of firms around the globe—essentially various firms’ theories about how to compete successfully.
e. All of the above.

16. Globalization is viewed as:
a. A new force sweeping through the world in recent times.
b. A long-run historical evolution since the dawn of human history.
c. A pendulum that swings from one extreme to another from time to time.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

17. Which of the following were the first to express concern about international competition from low-cost countries?
a. American political leaders in the twenty first century.
b. Union leaders in the last half of the twentieth century.
c. American business leaders in the late 1800s.
d. The King of England in the late 1700s.
e. A first century Roman emperor.

18. The current era of globalization originated in the aftermath of:
a. World War I.
b. World War II.
c. The Korean Conflict.
d. The Vietnam Conflict.
e. The Gulf War.

19. At the dawn of the 21st century, __________ had significant ramifications for companies and strategists around the world.
a. Antiglobalization protests
b. Terrorist attacks
c. Corporate governance crisis
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. How can principles of military strategy be useful in developing a global business strategy? Explain by using SWOT analysis.

2. The text points out that not all firms should go global. In view of the vast opportunities, why should some firms not pursue international business?

3. Having valuable, unique, and hard-to-imitate capabilities may be advantageous in doing business globally. However, what is the problem with trying to maintain that advantage?

4. Why is there a backlash against globalization, and how do aspects of that backlash actually enhance globalization?

5. As you examine the current political, social, and economic environment of your country and the world as of the moment you are reading the text, what is your estimate of the extent to which globalization will increase or decrease in the short run? In the long run?

CHAPTER 2 – MANAGING INDUSTRY COMPETITION
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
21. Mass markets tend to be characterized by low profit margins.

22. An industry is defined as a group of firms producing goods and/or services that are similar to each other.

23. A key proposition of the five forces framework is that industry structure is unrelated to firm performance and the strength of the five forces.

24. A key indicator of intense rivalry among firms is low cost competitive actions and reactions.

25. High exit costs from an industry tend to reduce the intensity of rivalry.

26. Product proliferation is a potential strategy used to reduce the threat of potential entry.

27. Substantial switching costs reduce the threat of potential entry.

28. The threat of substitutes (products from different industries that satisfy customer needs being met by focal firms) is greater if there are low switching costs.

29. Core features of the five forces model remain remarkably insightful when analyzing old industries but not new phenomena, such as e-commerce.

30. Japanese firms do not tend to maintain close relationships with their suppliers.

31. One of the benefits of having a cost advantage is that it serves as barrier to entry.

32. If there are many buyers but only a few sellers, the buyers tend to have the most bargaining power.

33. If there are many sellers but only a few buyers, the sellers tend to have the most bargaining power.

34. The three generic strategies can strengthen a focal firm’s position relative to the five forces.

35. A focused firm avoids being either a specialized differentiator or a specialized cost leader.

36. Choosing whether to perform activities differently than rivals or to perform different activities than competitors is the essence of the Three Generic Strategies.

37. Telecommunications is an example of one industry in which one can determine exact boundaries.

38. Strategic alliances are on the decline.

39. The five forces model overemphasizes threats and downplays opportunities.

40. If a low-cost firm has already achieved the maximum efficient scale, it must turn to differentiation to distinguish itself from competitors.

41. Strategies of firms within a strategic group tend to be differentand so does their performance.

42. Recent success of firms in unattractive industries suggests that firm-specific resources and capabilities are not needed to determine firm performance.

43. The industry-based view ignores the impact of industry history and institutions on firm performance.

44. The traditional view recommends avoidance of integration.

45. Recent work favors outsourcing and willingness to collaborate with suppliers/buyers, as well as competitors.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
20. The luxury market is characterized by:
a. Fewer competitors than in a mass market.
b. Less use of incentives and price cuts to induce purchases.
c. Healthier profit margins than in a mass-market segment.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

21. The ultra luxury automobile market is characterized by:
a. Little competition in the past – but that is changing.
b. A small number of cars produced each year – but they are very expensive.
c. Being the same as the luxury market.
d. A and B above.
e. None of the above.

22. Which of the following is NOT true of the industrial organization (IO) economics model?
a. Industry structure determines firm conduct (strategy), which determines firm performance.
b. Original goal – help regulators set policy to minimize the ability of firms to earn excess profits.
c. Strategists use the IO model to try to earn above-average returns (excess profits).
d. All of the above are NOT true.
e. All of the above ARE true.

23. Which of the following tends to reduce the intensity of rivalry?
a. Similarity of firms in terms of size, market influence and product offerings.
b. Products are big-ticket items and purchased infrequently.
c. New capacity must be added in large increments.
d. Slow industry growth or decline in demand.
e. None of the above.

24. Which of the following are scale-based low cost advantages?
a. Experience curves.
b. Proprietary technology.
c. Favorable access to raw materials and distribution channels.
d. Favorable locations.
e. None of the above.

25. Which of the following would tend to reduce the bargaining power of suppliers?
a. Dominance of the supplier industry by a few firms.
b. Suppliers provide unique, differentiated products with few or no substitutes.
c. Focal firm is not an important customer.
d. Unwillingness and inability of suppliers to integrate forward.
e. None of the above.

26. Which of the follow would tend to reduce the bargaining power of buyers?
a. Large number of buyers.
b. Products of the industry do not produce clear cost advantages or enhance the quality of life for buyers.
c. Purchase standard, undifferentiated commodity products from suppliers.
d. Willingness and ability of buyers to integrate backward.
e. All of the above.

27. Which of the following are true concerning cost leadership?
a. Targets average customers for mass market – little differentiation.
b. Key functional areas are manufacturing and materials management.
c. Relentless drive to cut costs might compromise value that customers desire.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

28. Which is generally NOT true of differentiation?
a. Difficult to sustain basis of differentiation in the long run.
b. Relentless efforts of competitors to duplicate differentiation.
c. Key areas of application include research and development, marketing/sales and after-sale services.
d. It is a challenge to identify attributes that are valued by customers in each market segment.
e. Inability to pass on suppliers’ price increases to buyers.

29. Related and supporting industries are called _________ and they are an additional force that can impact the competitiveness of an industry.
a. Complementors
b. All-rounders
c. Customizers
d. Flexible manufacturing
e. Supporters

30. One noncontroversial issue with strategic groups is:
a. Stability of strategic groups.
b. Mobility barriers between strategic groups.
c. The requirement for large quantities of objective data.
d. All of the above are controversial issues.
e. None of the above is controversial.

31. The industry-based view recommends:
a. Backward integration as a way to defend against the power of suppliers.
b. Backward integration as a way to defend against the power of buyers.
c. Forward integration as a way to defend against the power of suppliers.
d. Forward integration as a way to defend against the power of buyers.
e. Backward or forward integration as a way to defend against the power of suppliers and buyers.

32. Which is a reason for integration as opposed to outsourcing?
a. Greater expense.
b. Strategic flexibility is enhanced.
c. Those within the firm are often more competitive.
d. The activity is crucial to the core business.
e. All of the above.

33. Which is a reason for outsourcing as opposed to integration?
a. Less expense.
b. Strategic flexibility is enhanced.
c. Those outside the firm are often more competitive.
d. The activity is not crucial to the core business.
e. All of the above.

34. Which of the following is NOT true regarding supplier relationships?
a. Supplier relationships that are too close may introduce rigidities, including loss of flexibility.
b. In Japan suppliers may become trusted members of the keiretsu.
c. In Japan, instead of treating suppliers as adversaries, they are treated as collaboration partners.
d. In view of A through C above, supplier relationships in Japan tend to be ineffective.
e. In view of A through C above, close supplier relationships are not necessarily good or bad.

35. Porter’s five forces framework:
a. Identifies relevant variables but fails to ask the needed questions.
b. Identifies only questions to ask.
c. Identifies both relevant variables and questions to ask.
d. Eliminates the need for other frameworks to add insight about firm performance.
e. None of the above.

36. A systematic foundation for industry and competitor analysis is best provided by:
a. The industry-based view.
b. Resource-based view.
c. Historical view.
d. Macro analysis.
e. None of the above.

37. An industry-based view provides some answers to which of the following questions?
a. Why do firms differ?
b. How do firms behave?
c. What determines the scope of the firm?
d. What determines the international success and failure of firms?
e. All of the above.

38. Maximizing opportunities and minimizing threats presented by the five forces provides some answers to which of the following questions?
a. Why do firms differ?
b. How do firms behave?
c. What determines the scope of the firm?
d. What determines the international success and failure of firms?
e. All of the above.

39. The relative bargaining power of the focal firm and (according to the traditional view) the degree of integration helps answer which of the following questions?
a. Why do firms differ?
b. How do firms behave?
c. What determines the scope of the firm?
d. What determines the international success and failure of firms?
e. All of the above.

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
6. An intense focus on above-average firm performance is shared by IO economists and those involved in the strategy of firms and yet their perspective is opposite of each other. Explain.
7. How can high exit costs increase the chance that firms may continue to operate for at least a while when operating at a loss? Explain by giving examples.
8. Many high-technology industries are characterized by network externalities. What are those externalities and how can they pay off?

9. How can backward integration be used by buyers and what are some examples?

10. What are the “Three Generic Strategies,” and what lessons can we learn from their use?

CHAPTER 3 – LEVERAGING RESOURCES AND CAPABILITIES
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
46. In SWOT analysis, the resource view focuses on OT: Opportunities and Threats.

47. In SWOT analysis, the industry view focuses on SW: Strengths and Weaknesses.
48. Intangible resources and capabilities are assets that are more easily quantified.
49. Most goods and services are produced through a chain of vertical activities which add value.

50. It is easier to imitate intangible resources/capabilities than tangible ones.
51. Causal ambiguity refers to the difficulty of identifying the outcomes of causal determinants.

52. Valuable, rare, but imitable resources/capabilities may provide temporary competitive advantage.

53. Imitation is not likely to be a successful strategy.

54. A sustained competitive advantage can last since not all advantages eventually erode.

55. The logic of the resource-based view is relatively static.

56. Critics suggest that the resource-based view should eliminate dynamic capabilities.

57. Tightly bundled resources/capabilities may be a disadvantage in high velocity environments.

58. How a firm performs different value-adding activities relative to rivals determines the scope of a firm.

59. A SWOT analysis engages managers to ascertain a firm’s strengths and weaknesses on an activity-by-activity basis.

60. On any given activity, one of the four choices for managers in terms of modes and locations includes inshoring.

61. The Closing Case describes the admiration on the part of firms in developed nations for companies from emerging economies who copy products and processes from companies in developed nations.

62. IBM is an example of how capabilities may cease to add value and instead become core rigidities.

63. The chapter indicates that Toyota is an example of causal ambiguity.

64. Many multinationals consist of many people scattered in many different countries. As a result, their invisible relationships do not add value.

65. Resource-based theorists readily admit that “the source of sustainable competitive advantage is likely to be found in different places at different points in time in different industries.”

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. In the Opening case, which of the following attributes describe IBM?
f. Innovative culture
g. Commitment to customer relationships
h. Willingness to change
i. Strong leadership team
j. All of the above.

40. A firm’s__________ are its tangible and intangible assets a firm uses to choose and implement its strategies.
a. Resources
b. Dynamic capabilities
c. Core competencies
d. Net worth
e. None of the above

41. According to the text, which of the following are intangible resources and capabilities?
a. Trade secrets.
b. Organizational.
c. Formal structures.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

42. International outsourcing involves:
a. Offshoring.
b. Inshoring.
c. A and B above.
d. Captive sourcing.
e. None of the above.

43. Having valuable, but common resources/capabilities leads to:
a. Competitive parity.
b. Competitive advantage.
c. Competitive disparity.
d. Competitive disadvantage.
e. Lack of competition.

44. Ways to imitate include:
a. Direct duplication.
b. Substitution.
c. A and B above.
d. Innovation.
e. None of the above.

45. Taking advantage of strengths embodied in resources/capabilities and overcoming weaknesses deals with which fundamental question?
a. Why do firms differ?
b. What determines the scope of the firm?
c. How do firms behave?
d. What determines the international success and failure of firms?
e. All of the above.

46. Traditional resource-based view:
a. Overemphasizes leveraging existing resources/capabilities.
b. Underemphasizes developing new resources/capabilities.
c. Both of the above.
d. Underemphasizes leveraging existing resources/capabilities.
e. Overemphasizes developing new resources/capabilities.

47. Academic research has found support for ______________effects on firm performance.
a. Resource-based
b. Industry-based
c. Complementary specific collective
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

48. Which of the following is better performed in-house instead of being outsourced?
a. An activity with a high degree of industry commonality.
b. A high degree of commoditization.
c. An industry-specific and firm-specific (proprietary) activity.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

49. The VRIO framework does not include capabilities and resources that are:
a. Valuable.
b. Rare.
c. Imitable.
d. Organizationally embedded.
e. All of the above.

50. Examining whether a firm has resources and capabilities to perform a particular activity in a manner superior to competitors is known as _________ in SWOT analysis.
a. Parity
b. Competition
c. Benchmarking
d. Deskmarking
e. Standardization

51. If Company A and Company B both have valuable assets that are identical, the text indicates that in order for A to gain a competitive advantage over B, A must:
a. Use its assets differently.
b. Find some basis for suing B.
c. Get out of its existing business.
d. Increase its quantity of those assets.
e. All of the above.

52. Tacit knowledge is probably the most _________ resource.
a. Valuable
b. Unique
c. Hard-to-imitate
d. Organizationally complex resource
e. All of the above

53. Recent research suggests that capabilities in very dynamic high-velocity industries (such as IT) involve all of the following except:
a. Simple (not complicated).
b. Experiential (not analytic).
c. Iterative (not linear processes).
d. Involve “learning by doing.”
e. “Learning before doing.”

54. Which of the following are not involved in hypercompetition?
a. A shortened window during which a firm may command competitive advantage.
b. Dynamic maneuvering.
c. Unleashing a series of small, unpredictable, but powerful actions.
d. Slowing the pace of change.
e. Attempts to erode rivals’ competitive advantage.

55. Recent aspects of outsourcing include all of the following except:
a. “Business process outsourcing” (BPO).
b. High-end services to countries led by India.
c. Digitization and commoditization of service work.
d. As stated by the text, the outsourcing of services is definitely a long-term benefit.
e. Increases due to the Internet and the reduction of international communication costs.

56. All of the following are arguments used by proponents of offshoring except:
a. It creates enormous value for firms and economies.
b. Western firms are able to tap into low-cost and high-quality labor.
c. Firms can focus on their core capabilities.
d. For every dollar spent by US firms on India, the U.S. obtains $1.13.
e. It is not true that some US employees may lose their jobs.

57. Critics of offshoring make all of the following arguments except:
a. If even core functions like engineering, R&D, manufacturing, and marketing can—and often should—be moved outside the country, what is left of the firm?
b. Critics argue such offshoring nurtures rivals.
c. Offshoring increasingly results in job losses in high-end areas such as design, R&D, and IT/BPO.
d. Many large US firms claim that they are “global companies” but they seem to be bound by “American values.”
e. In some cases, it undermines national security.

58. Critics of outsourcing agree that MNEs and their outsourcing can be praised for which of the following?
a. Not exploiting cheap labor.
b. Not treating people as “tradable commodities” that can be jettisoned.
c. Not destroying jobs destroying jobs at home.
d. Protecting customer privacy.
e. None of the above.

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
11. What is the relationship of benchmarking to the Value Chain? Any cautions in benchmarking?

12. How has offshoring contributed to complex supply-chain management? What are some examples?

13. How is it possible for a strength to become a weakness? How does IBM illustrate that possibility?
14. As you read through the text, you may be looking for secrets of success in doing business globally. This chapter gives IBM as an example of a firm that has been very successful. What did it say about the problem of identifying the reason for IBM’s success? If the reason for success cannot be determined, should we abandon any attempt to develop a rational strategy and simply depend on luck?

15. What do you think about the use of offshoring by MNEs? Is it a threat to jobs in the U.S.? Has it benefited MNEs and other countries more than the U.S.?

CHAPTER 4 – EMPHASIZING INSTITUTIONS, CULTURES, AND ETHICS
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
66. Cognitive pillar refers to the internalized, taken-for-granted values and beliefs that guide individual and firm behavior.
67. The key role of institutions is increasing uncertainty for international firms.

68. Adopting binding international commercial arbitration eliminates political risk in emerging markets.

69. Opportunism fosters transaction costs.
70. Relational contracting is not advantageous when the size of the economy is limited.
71. One disadvantage of relational contracting is that it may cause firms to abandon established relationships.

72. Formal, market-supporting institutions lower transaction costs and facilitate new entries.

73. Historically, the strategy literature has focused on the specific relationship between strategic choices and institutional frameworks.

74. Strategic choices are selected within and constrained by institutional frameworks in developed economies.

75. Striking differences between institutions in developed and emerging economies has eliminated the institution-based view from strategy discussions.

76. Strategic choices are direct outcomes of the reduced interaction between institutions and firms.

77. Western firms tend to focus on relatively short-term profits and shorter planning horizons.

78. All sides agree that ethics can make or break a firm.

79. Catastrophes may allow ethical firms to shine.

80. Ethics are universal. What is unethical in one country will be viewed as unethical in other countries.

81. Richer, developed countries tend to be less corrupt than poorer, developing countries.

82. Transaction cost theorists argue that institutions emerge to combat opportunism.
83. Doing business with foreigners may significantly reduce transaction costs over doing business with domestic firms.

84. Joint ventures between Chinese and Western firms outperformed joint ventures between local (Chinese) and Asian firms.

85. Hofstede’s studies were based on surveys from 1968-1972 and might not capture the cultural changes that have occurred throughout the world in the past forty years.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
59. Countries with a weak rule of law do not include?
f. IndiaJapan.
g. Brazil.
h. China.
i. Russia.

60. Reasons for increased FDI in China in recent years do not include:
f. Low cost labor.
g. A sizeable domestic market.
h. Strong intellectual property protections.
i. Increased emphasis on binding international commercial arbitration by Chinese authorities.
j. All of the above.

61. Which of the following defines institutions?
f. “Humanly devised constraints that structure human interaction.”
g. “Regulatory, normative and cognitive structures and activities that provide stability and meaning to social behavior.”
h. Government of individual and firm behavior.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.

62. Institutions do which of the following?
f. Reduce uncertainty.
g. Signal which conduct is acceptable and which is not.
h. Constrain the range of acceptable actions.
i. Reduce opportunism and transaction costs.
j. All of the above.

63. How do institutions reduce uncertainty?
f. Relational contracting.
g. Arm’s length transaction with 3rd party enforcement.
h. Institutional transitions.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.

64. Porter’s “diamond” model:
f. Explains competitive advantage of leading industries within the same country.
g. Explains competitive disadvantage of globally leading industries in different countries.
h. Has been criticized for ignoring history.
i. Has been criticized for focusing on institutions.
j. C and D above.

65. Which are true regarding informal constraints?
f. When formal institutional constraints fail, informal constraints tend to fail as well.
g. Following the collapse the former Soviet Union, informal constraints were unable to facilitate growth of entrepreneurial firms.
h. Even in developed economies, the best-connected firms can reap significant benefits.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.

66. According to ___________ culture is the “Collective programming of the mind which distinguishes the members of one group or category of people from another.”
f. Porter
g. Hofstede
h. North
i. Scott
j. Merck

67. Power distance is best defined as:
a. The degree of social inequality.
b. The identity of an individual is not based on the identity of his or her collective group.
c. Sex role differentiation.
d. The extent to which people accept ambiguous situations.
e. Emphasis on perseverance and savings.

68. Individualism is best defined as:
a. The degree of social inequality.
b. The identity of an individual is not based on the identity of his or her collective group.
c. Sex role differentiation.
d. The extent to which people accept ambiguous situations.
e. Emphasis on perseverance and savings.

69. Long-term orientation is best defined as:
a. The degree of social inequality.
b. The identity of an individual is not based on the identity of his or her collective group.
c. Sex role differentiation.
d. The extent to which people accept ambiguous situations.
e. Emphasis on perseverance and savings.

70. Which of the following are true regarding cultures and strategic choices?
f. Managers in high power distance countries have a greater penchant for centralized authority.
g. Solicitation of subordinate feedback and participation is a sign of weak leadership in high power distance countries.
h. Individualistic cultures prefer more formal contractual safeguards in alliances than collectivistic cultures.
i. Managers in low uncertainty avoidance countries rely more on experience and training.
j. All of the above.

71. Which tends to be true of masculine cultures?
f. May have a relative advantage in small-scale, customized manufacturing.
g. May be at a disadvantage in making products efficiently, well and fast.
h. Stereotypical manager is decisive.
i. Stereotypical manager is accustomed to seeking consensus.
j. None of the above.

72. The norms, principles and standards of conduct that govern behavior:
f. Are an important part of national culture but not organizational culture.
g. Are private matters and not issues for formal institutions.
h. Have a substantial overlap with what is illegal.
i. Are sometimes ignored in the case of downsizing.
j. All of the above.

73. Which is the instrumental view regarding motivation to become ethical?
a. Jump on the “bandwagon” to appear more legitimate without becoming more ethical.
b. Be self-motivated to “do it right” regardless of social pressures.
c. Good ethics are a way to achieve good profits.
d. Ethics is an instrument to impose the values of the elite on the masses.
e. Ethics is a game that is played like a musical instrument.

74. Ethical imperialism is best expressed by which of the following:
f. “When in Rome, do as the Romans do.”
g. “There is only one set of Ethics, and we have it!”
h. “Respect for human dignity and basic rights should be the absolute, minimal ethical threshold for ALL operations around the world.”
i. “The abuse of public power for private benefit.”
j. “Ignore corruption.”

75. Strong correlation between high level of corruption and low level of economic development is evidenced by:
f. China’s low level of corruption and high level of economic development.
g. China’s high level of corruption and low level of economic development.
h. Indonesia’s low level of corruption and high level of economic development.
i. Indonesia’s high level of corruption and low level of economic development.
j. None of the above.

76. The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) bans:
f. Bribery to American officials by companies based in other countries.
g. Bribery to foreign officials by companies based in the U.S.
h. Bribery to American officials by companies based in the U.S. but operating overseas.
i. Bribery to foreign officials by companies based overseas.
j. Bribery to all officials everywhere by companies based anywhere.

77. Which best defines an accommodative strategy?
f. Firms do not feel compelled to act unless faced with a disaster or public outcry.
g. Denial is the first line of defense.
h. Focus on regulatory compliance, firm fights demand for changes unless they are regulatory.
i. Organizational norms emerge to accept responsibility for actions – cognitive beliefs/values that promote ethical choices are internalized.
j. Firms constantly anticipate institutional changes and do more than is required to act ethically and responsibly.

78. In regards to individualism vs. collectivism:
a. Collectivists never discriminate against out-group members and may be more opportunistic when dealing with in-group members.
b. Individualists make more distinction between in-group and out-group membership.
c. Individualists are more opportunistic when dealing with in-group members.
d. Individualists may view social interactions/activities as related to the business at hand.
e. Collectivists may view social interactions/activities as unessential and wasteful of resources.

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
16. What is the benefit of formal, rule-based, impersonal exchange with third-party enforcement (often termed arm’s-length transaction) versus informal institutions? Why can’t we assume that formal institutions are inherently better than informal ones? How do formal and informal institutions complement each other?

17. How is the problem of counterfeiting related to ethics and how institutions matter?

18. Why is it not true that relying on informal connections is a strategy only relevant to firms in emerging economies and that firms in developed economies only pursue “market-based” strategies?

19. More than goods and services are moving across borders: as technology enables ideas and lifestyles to be observed by a variety of people around, cultures are undergoing modification, Hofstede’s dimensions of culture were based on surveys of IBM employees from 1968-1972. Much has changed in the past forty years. Nevertheless, his dimensions do provide a starting point for better understanding and relating to people from around the world. Give some examples of people you have known who have come to this country from a somewhat different culture. To what extent have they retained their cultural identity versus undergone cultural change? Have these changes created any problems for them?

20. What is ethical in one country may be unethical or illegal in other countries – and vice versa. Nevertheless, ethical imperialism (absolute belief that “there is only one set of Ethics, and we have it!”) is alive and well. You may be able to identify some values that seem to be almost universally accepted. However, such is not the case with all values. As a result, doesn’t a global company need to “pick sides” in ethical controversies and thus be an “ethical imperialist?”

CHAPTER 5 – GROWING AND INTERNATIONALIZING THE ENTREPRENEURIAL FIRM
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
86. Entrepreneurship is not the exclusive domain of small, young firms.

87. Innovative, proactive and risk-seeking behavior crosses national borders.

88. Development of entrepreneurship around the world depends on avoiding the impact of formal institutions that govern how entrepreneurs start up new ventures.

89. There are striking differences in government regulations concerning start-ups.

90. Compared to underdeveloped countries, governments in developed economies impose more procedures and a higher total cost for new start-ups.

91. Selling out can be a viable exit strategy.

92. Transaction costs are qualitatively higher in international markets.

93. The numerous differences in formal institutions and informal cultures/norms are not barriers to internationalization.

94. Neither large nor small firms decide not to internationalize because of high transactions costs.

95. Direct exporting involves selling products made in domestic market to customers in foreign markets.

96. One downside to licensing/franchising is that the licensor/franchisor may lose control over how their technology and brand are used.
97. As a general rule, entrepreneurs’ previous international experience differentiates rapid internationalization from slow/no internationalization.
98.
99. FDI lowers firm performance more than other forms of entry (over the long term).

100. Indirect exporting can be achieved through trading companies.
101. Purchasing established local firms is the fastest route to establishing a presence in a foreign market.
102. The personal traits of entrepreneurs have been the primary motivating force in China and Southeast Asia, not the environments that set formal and informal rules.

103. Children from wealthy families are less likely to start new businesses.
104. Most scholars now agree that entrepreneurship is a result of both nature and nurture.
105. There are no hard and fast rules on whether entrepreneurial firms should internationalize rapidly or slowly.
106. It is much easier for entrepreneurs to walk away from debts incurred in failed/bankrupt ventures in Germany and Japan than in the United States.
107. One problem for failed entrepreneurs is that many will not acknowledge failure and thus avoid exiting the business despite escalating losses.
108. Harsh bankruptcy laws become exit barriers but not significant barriers to entry.
109. Entrepreneurs and their firms are engines of the creative destruction process.
110. Personal traits of entrepreneurs are no different than non-entrepreneurs.
111. Behavior of entrepreneurs differs from non-entrepreneurs.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
79. Which best describes entrepreneurs?
j. Those who identify and exploit previously unexplored opportunities.
k. Founders and owners of new businesses.
l. Managers of small existing firms (i.e. those with fewer than 500 employees).
m. All of the above.
n. None of the above.

80. Which of the following are NOT true in regards to small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs).
k. They create approximately 50% of total value added in the world.
l. They generate 60-90% of employment, depending on where they are located.
m. Each year 4-6% of adult working population in North America, Western Europe, Central and Eastern Europe attempt to start a new venture.
n. Around the world, a majority of entrepreneurial firms (including 60% of start-ups in the US) succeed within 6 years.
o. Entrepreneurship is not the exclusive domain of small, young firms.

81. Which would tend to result in a greater level of entrepreneurship?
k. Fewer numbers of incumbents.
l. Capital-intensive industries.
m. Weak bargaining power of suppliers.
n. Ability to reduce the bargaining power of buyers.
o. Lack of threat to incumbents from substitute products/ and services.

82. Cautions that should be acknowledged by entrepreneurs is that it may be difficult to:
k. Predict consumer preferences.
l. Effectively price innovative products/services.
m. Build sufficient capacity.
n. All of the above.
o. None of the above.

83. To achieve success, entrepreneurial resources must be:
k. Of low value so as to reduce cost.
l. Common.
m. Non-core competencies that are hard to imitate.
n. Organizationally embedded.
o. All of the above.

84. Which of the following would be least likely to enhance the credibility of a SME?
k. Specialize in standardized commodities such as books and airline tickets.
l. Use E-commerce sites.
m. Deal in products in which quality is an issue with consumers.
n. Form strategic alliances with larger firms.
o. Willingness to take ownership of intermediated goods and services.

85. One general conclusion that we can reach regarding entrepreneurship is that:
k. Regulatory burdens on new start-ups are much easier in poorer countries.
l. The less entrepreneur-friendly a country’s formal institutional requirements are the more likely entrepreneurship will contribute to economic development.
m. Informal institutions do not affect entrepreneurships.
n. Individualistic and low uncertainty-avoidance societies tend to foster relatively more entrepreneurship.
o. Collectivistic societies may result in relatively higher levels of entrepreneurship.

86. Which of the following is NOT an example of one of the five entrepreneurial strategies?
k. Use speed and stealth to disrupt and pre-empt competitors.
l. Emphasize analysis over action.
m. Less novel, but substantially new ways of doing business can also be innovative.
n. Centrally located network positions are most helpful.
o. Selling an equity stake to outside investors.

87. A potential benefit of an initial public offering (IPO):
a. Can increase firm’s financial stability.
b. Focus on short-term results.
c. Fiduciary duty.
d. Entrepreneurs’ freedom of action.
e. Increased scrutiny by stakeholder groups.

88. In recent years, the country with the least number of bankruptcies was:
f. Japan.
g. France.
h. Great Britain.
i. Germany.
j. The United States.

89. Indirect, subtle attacks that large rivals may not immediately recognize as competitive challenges are hallmarks of which of the following five entrepreneurial strategies?
f. Growth.
g. Innovation.
h. Network.
i. Financing and Governance.
j. Harvest and Exit.

90. Which of the following is true regarding internationalizing firms?
k. Only large MNEs are able to internationalize successfully.
l. SMEs do not operate solely in domestic markets.
m. Start-ups are unable to do business in foreign markets from the very beginning – they cannot be “born global.”
n. Transaction costs do not prevent large firms from internationalizing.
o. Opportunism is easy to detect and remedy in international markets.

91. Suppose you are an SME with limited financial resources. In view of that, your best choice for entering foreign markets would be:
k. Foreign direct investment.
l. Licensing or franchising.
m. Direct exporting.
n. None of the above.
o. Any of the above.

92. In a manufacturing setting, the purchase of the right to use another firm’s proprietary technology is referred to as:
k. Direct exporting.
l. Licensing.
m. Franchising.
n. Exporting.
o. Importing.

93. Exporting only after receiving unsolicited foreign inquiries is best described as:
a. Direct exporting.
b. Indirect exporting.
c. Passive or sporadic exporting.
d. Inactive exporting.
e. None of the above.

94. Which of the following best describes Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)?
k. Avoiding the use of financial intermediaries such as brokers.
l. Firm invests directly in production or service activities in another country.
m. Traveling to a country to invest instead of using the Internet.
n. Citizens of a foreign country invest in their own country with their own resources.
o. The use of cash instead of credit.

95. “Greenfield ventures” are:
k. Examples of international grain corporations.
l. Environmentally friendly MNEs.
m. Wholly owned subsidiaries that are built from scratch in a foreign country.
n. Irrigation projects in areas stricken by famine.
o. Joint ventures in agriculture between governments and private firms.

96. Which of the following involves the most complexity?
k. Direct exporting.
l. Direct importing.
m. Direct investment.
n. Licensing.
o. Franchising.

97. Which normally provides the most control over technology and brand?
k. Direct investment.
l. Licensing.
m. Franchising.
n. B and C above.
o. There is no difference in any of the above.

98. Which of the following traits would tend to prevent entrepreneurs from establishing new firms?
a. Strong desire for achievement.
b. Strong locus of control.
c. Willingness to take risks and tolerate ambiguity.
d. The tendency to be a serial entrepreneur.
e. None of the above.

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
21. Innovation is at the heart of an entrepreneurial mindset and important to success. However, what if a person does not tend to be creative? Should that person not consider forming an SME? Are there approaches that one can follow which will likely enable such a person to be more innovative than would otherwise have been the case?

22. Suppose you have formed a company that is pursuing a product or service that is the current hot fad among investors and it appears that you could quickly enhance your personal wealth as well as quickly provide funds for your company through an IPO. It seems like an awesome opportunity. However, why might you wish to turn it down?
23. Suppose you are convinced that you have a product/service that has a huge overseas potential but your funds are very limited and you do not wish to seek partners, investors, or creditors to exploit the opportunity. What can you do?
You may not have the resources to undertake exporting by yourself but you may be able to do so through a foreign trade intermediary such as a trading company.
24. How many people have you known who established an SME because he/she wanted to “be his/her own boss?” How many of them actually worked more hours and had less vacation time than if they worked for someone else? How many had to make sacrifices for at least the first few years in terms of income and time with their family as compared to what their situation would likely have been otherwise? What appears to have motivated them? If you have not known anyone like that, what do you think would drive otherwise rational people to “become their own boss?”
25. What were the four implications for action by the savvy entrepreneur listed in the text? Which is the most important for the entrepreneur? Which is the easiest and fastest for that person to implement?

CHAPTER 6 – ENTERING FOREIGN MARKETS
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
112. The Liability of Foreignness is the inherent disadvantage foreign firms experience in host countries because of their nonnative status.
113. An underlying reason for firms to NOT go abroad is the size of the firm.
114. An underlying reason for firms to NOT go abroad is the size of the domestic market.
115. In regards to industry-based considerations, the higher the entry barriers, the more intensely firms will attempt to compete abroad.
116. Backward vertical integration refers to vertical integration that has not been updated.
117. The bargaining power of suppliers may prompt backward vertical integration.
118. The bargaining power of buyers may lead to forward vertical integration.
119. The market potential of substitute products may encourage firms to bring them abroad.
120. Currency risks can be reduced by speculation and hedging.
121. Under the Stage Model school of thought firms will enter culturally similar countries during their first stage of internationalization.
122. One of the drawbacks of large-scale entries is limited strategic flexibility.
123. MNEs that enter foreign markets through foreign direct investment do not have OLI advantages.

124. For small volume of exports, direct export is not optimal.
125. Indirect exports avoids exporting through domestically based intermediaries.
126. Turnkey projects reduce the competitiveness of foreign clients and increase their dependence when selling state of the art technology.
127. Acquisition adds no new capacity.
128. Entry strategies may change over time.
129. Some foreignness is never an asset.
130. MNEs are firms that are truly global.
131. International agreements have established whose “rules of the game” e-commerce follow.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
99. The differences in formal and informal institutions that govern the rules of the game in different countries include _______ differences.
o. Regulatory
p. Language
q. Cultural
r. All of the above
s. None of the above

100. As firms expand into more countries, they should recognize:
p. Foreign firms are still often discriminated against.
q. Foreign firms primarily deploy overwhelming resources and capabilities that offset the liability of foreignness.
r. Foreign firms are able to offset the liability of foreignness and still have some competitive advantage.
s. All of the above.
t. None of the above.

101. Small firms in a large domestic market are referred to as:
p. Enthusiastic internationalizers.
q. Follower internationalizers.
r. Slow internationalizers.
s. Occasional internationalizers.
t. Domestic internationalizers.

102. The lower the value of firm-specific resources and capabilities such as________ the more likely firms will aggressively leverage them overseas.
p. Tangible assets
q. Know-how
r. Software
s. All of the above
t. None of the above

103. Firms may choose not to enter certain countries if:
p. They possess rare firm-specific assets.
q. The transaction costs are be too low.
r. There are dissemination risks.
s. There is an authorized diffusion of firm-specific assets.
t. All of the above.

104. Organizing firm-specific resources and capabilities as a bundle:
p. Favors firms with strong complementary assets.
q. Prevents having assets integrated s a system.
r. Discourages using them overseas.
s. Is counterproductive.
t. Occurs only in domestic markets.

105. Which of the following are not regulatory risks?
p. An obsolescing bargain.
q. Deals that have been struck by MNEs and host governments.
r. Nationalization.
s. Recent trends among host governments regarding their relationships with MNEs.
t. B and C above.

106. Which of the following exemplify trade barriers?
p. Tariffs.
q. Local content requirements.
r. Restrictions on certain entry modes.
s. A and C above.
t. All of the above.

107. Which of the following is not a location specific advantage?
a. Agglomeration.
b. Knowledge spillovers.
c. A skilled labor force.
d. A pool of specialized suppliers and buyers.
e. All of the above are location advantages.

108. The strategic goal of __________ involves going after countries that offer the highest price.
k. Natural resources-seeking
l. Market-seeking
m. Efficiency-seeking
n. Innovation-seeking
o. Profit-seeking

109. Institutional Distance involves all of the following except that which is:
k. Regulatory.
l. Normative.
m. Cognitive.
n. Cultural.
o. B and C above.

110. First mover advantages do not include:
p. Developing proprietary, technological leadership.
q. Preempting scarce assets.
r. Establishing entry barriers.
s. Successful clashes with dominant firms in domestic markets.
t. Creating good relationships with key stakeholders.

111. Late mover advantages do not include:
p. Taking a free ride on first movers’ investments.
q. Joining the game with massive firepower when some of the uncertainties are removed.
r. Preempting scarce assets.
s. Taking advantage of first movers’ inflexibility by leapfrogging over them.
t. Choice of Strategy.

112. Large-scale entries do which of the following?
p. Benefit from a strategic commitment.
q. Assure local customers and suppliers.
r. Deter potential entrants.
s. A and B above.
t. All of the above.

113. Small-scale entries normally benefit by their:
a. Focus on accumulating experience.
b. Emphasis on “learning by doing.”
c. Strong strategic commitment.
d. First mover advantages.
e. A and B above.

114. Non-equity modes of entry typically involve:
p. Exports and contractual agreements.
q. Larger, harder-to-reverse commitments.
r. Establishing independent organizations overseas.
s. Joint ventures (JVs).
t. Wholly owned subsidiaries.

115. All of the follow are true of direct exports except:
p. Most basic mode of entry.
q. Capitalizes on economies of scale in production concentrated in the home country.
r. Affords better control over distribution.
s. The agendas and objectives of the intermediaries and exporters are the same.
t. Designs and productions geared for the domestic market first and foremost.

116. Selling the rights to intellectual property for a royalty fee is involved in:
p. Licensing/franchising.
q. Turnkey projects.
r. R&D contracts.
s. Comarketing.
t. All of the above.

117. Which is not true of joint ventures?
p. They are jointly owned by two or more parent companies.
q. They share risks with local partners.
r. They gain access o the local partner’s knowledge about the host country.
s. They are politically less acceptable than wholly owned subsidiaries.
t. The goals of partners may diverge.

118. Greenfield operations refers to:
a. Licensing/franchising.
b. Turnkey projects.
c. R&D contracts.
d. Co marketing.
e. Wholly owned subsidiaries.

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. Is “foreignness” a liability or an asset? What causes it to be one or the other?
2. Schmaltz argues: “If a company wishes to be a global corporation it should truly globalize, not just operate within the so-called Triad.” What might Schmaltz be overlooking?
3. J. Lee disagrees with M. Schmaltz (above): “If a company wishes to be a global corporation, it does not need to locate in every continent – it should focus on those locations that are most profitable.” What do you think?
4. The text points out that from a resource-based view, you and your firm need to develop overwhelming capabilities to offset the liability of foreignness. However, how does a small firm do that?

5. Discussion of strategies for MNEs focus on growth and global expansion. Under what circumstances can downsizing and withdrawing from countries make sense? Why might some firms fail to withdraw or downsize?

BUS 536 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer University NEW

BUS/536 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

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Midterm Exam Chapter 1 Through 6

CHAPTER 1 – STRATEGIZING AROUND THE GLOBE
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
1. The opening case is an example of how the publishing industry now requires a simultaneous penetration of all markets rather than trying to win one market after another.

2. In the opening case, the formal rules in China stated that foreign companies could not publish books on their own.

3. In China, political correctness may need to be considered when making reference to Taiwan.
4. The closing case illustrates how to strategically focus on the base of the global economic pyramid and to do so successfully.

5. A SWOT analysis resonates very well with Sun Tzu’s teachings.

6. If a strategy (theory) is truly successful, it will work not just for one firm but for all others as well.

7. Determining the scope of the firm involves not only growth of the firm but also contraction.

8. The text stresses that realism indicates that all companies should “go global” and endeavor to do so as quickly as possible in view of the vast opportunities that exist.

9. The industry-based view posits that the degree of competitiveness in an industry largely determines firm performance.

10. The resource-based view suggests that firm-specific capabilities do not drive performance differences.

11. The institution-based view argues that institutional forces provide an answer to similarities in firm performance but not differences.

12. As illustrated by Cengage Learning’s penetration of the China market with Global Strategy (opening case), the idea that firms must “think global and act local” simultaneously is simply not possible.

13. The earliest MNEs existed in some form thousands of years ago in the Assyrian, Phoenician, and Roman empires.

14. According to the text, today’s most successful MNEs far exceed the historical clout of some MNEs such as Britain’s East India Company during colonial times.

15. During the second half of the twentieth century, Hong Kong, Singapore, South Korea, and Taiwan, refused to participate in the global economy and became known as the “Four Toothless Tigers.”

16. During the 1990s there was an increase in both global trade and opposition to global trade.

17. Semiglobalization involves doing business in either the northern or southern hemisphere but not both.

18. Beginning in the late 1990s and early twenty first century, a corporate governance crisis has developed.

19. According to the text, business students may tend to focus more on the economic gains of globalization, and be less concerned with its darker sides.

20. A lot of opponents of globalization are nongovernmental organizations (NGOs), such as environmentalists and consumer groups.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Multinational enterprises (MNEs) are firms that:
a. Engage in foreign direct investment (FDI).
b. Directly control value-adding activities in other countries.
c. Manage value-adding activities in other countries.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

2. Which of the following best describes foreign direct investment (FDI)?
a. A firm’s direct investment in production and/or service activities abroad.
b. The purchases of foreign securities by people within the U.S.
c. The purchases of U. S. securities by people from other countries.
d. Avoidance of brokers or other financial intermediaries when making foreign investments.
e. B and C above.

3. Which of the following best defines “Triad” as the term is used in the text?
a. The U.S., Japan, and Germany.
b. The U.S., Canada, and Mexico.
c. North America, Europe, and Japan.
d. North America, Europe, and Asia.
e. The U.S. dollar, the Euro, and the Yen.

4. According to the text, the current brand of “global strategy” seems relevant only for MNEs from:
a. BRIC.
b. The Triad.
c. OPEC nations.
d. NAFTA.
e. The E. U.

5. Emerging economies (or emerging markets):
a. Now command a full one-third of the worldwide FDI flow.
b. Command half of the global gross domestic product (GDP) measured at purchasing power parity.
c. A and B above
d. Despite their growth, they still command less than 10% of global GDP.
e. Consist of countries which are in a state of decline but which are believed to have potential for growth.

BRIC refers to:
a. Bahrain, Russia, Iran, and China.
b. Bolivia, Romania, India, and Columbia.
c. Bulgaria, Romania, Iraq, and China.
d. Bermuda, Rwanda, Iraq, and the Czech Republic.
e. Brazil, Russia, India, and China.

6. Many BRIC local firms are:
a. Effectively competing at home.
b. Launching offensives abroad.
c. Creating serious ramifications for Triad-based MNEs.
d. All of the above.
e. BRIC local firms have yet to become significant globally.

7. Strategy:
a. Dates back to 500bc and the work of the strategist Sun Tzu of China.
b. Applies concepts developed by the strategist von Clausewitz.
c. Includes application of principles of military strategy to business competition.
d. All of the above.
e. In this century, civilian companies no longer apply military theories and principles in dealing with competition.

8. A hallmark of theory building and development is:
a. The outcome of a test.
b. Replication.
c. Intuition.
d. Consensus.
e. Lack of controversy.

9. Overall, strategy is:
a. A rulebook.
b. A blueprint.
c. A set of programmed instructions.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
10. Much of our knowledge about “the firm” is from research on firms in:
a. Anglo-American capitalism.
b. Japan after World War II.
c. German mathematical models.
d. Emerging markets.
e. The early industrial era.

11. The word _______has now become the most famous Chinese business word to appear in English-language media.
a. Keiretsu
b. Guanxi
c. Chaebol
d. Blat
e. None of the above.
12. The _______ view primarily focuses on the ______ in a SWOT analysis.
a. Industry-based, OT
b. Resource-based, OT
c. Industry-based, SW
d. Resource-based, SW
e. Industry and resource, SWOT

13. As shown in the closing case, the informal rules of the game:
a. Must be avoided because global business is not a mere game.
b. Are not applicable in cultures in which tend to be very formal.
c. Often require that the firm seek to change the informal rules instead of going along with those rules.
d. Need to be understood by firms.
e. Are being replaced by formal rules.

14. Diversification:
a. Was acclaimed in the West during the 1960s and 1970s but was discredited twenty years later.
b. Is believed by Western media to destroy value in emerging economies.
c. Has resulted in higher profitability for some in emerging economies than independent firms.
d. In emerging economies may be a function of the level of institutional (under) development.
e. All of the above.

15. “Global strategy” refers to:
a. A particular theory on how to compete.
b. Offering standardized products and services on a worldwide basis.
c. Any strategy outside one’s home country.
d. Strategy of firms around the globe—essentially various firms’ theories about how to compete successfully.
e. All of the above.

16. Globalization is viewed as:
a. A new force sweeping through the world in recent times.
b. A long-run historical evolution since the dawn of human history.
c. A pendulum that swings from one extreme to another from time to time.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

17. Which of the following were the first to express concern about international competition from low-cost countries?
a. American political leaders in the twenty first century.
b. Union leaders in the last half of the twentieth century.
c. American business leaders in the late 1800s.
d. The King of England in the late 1700s.
e. A first century Roman emperor.

18. The current era of globalization originated in the aftermath of:
a. World War I.
b. World War II.
c. The Korean Conflict.
d. The Vietnam Conflict.
e. The Gulf War.

19. At the dawn of the 21st century, __________ had significant ramifications for companies and strategists around the world.
a. Antiglobalization protests
b. Terrorist attacks
c. Corporate governance crisis
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. How can principles of military strategy be useful in developing a global business strategy? Explain by using SWOT analysis.

2. The text points out that not all firms should go global. In view of the vast opportunities, why should some firms not pursue international business?

3. Having valuable, unique, and hard-to-imitate capabilities may be advantageous in doing business globally. However, what is the problem with trying to maintain that advantage?

4. Why is there a backlash against globalization, and how do aspects of that backlash actually enhance globalization?

5. As you examine the current political, social, and economic environment of your country and the world as of the moment you are reading the text, what is your estimate of the extent to which globalization will increase or decrease in the short run? In the long run?

CHAPTER 2 – MANAGING INDUSTRY COMPETITION
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
21. Mass markets tend to be characterized by low profit margins.

22. An industry is defined as a group of firms producing goods and/or services that are similar to each other.

23. A key proposition of the five forces framework is that industry structure is unrelated to firm performance and the strength of the five forces.

24. A key indicator of intense rivalry among firms is low cost competitive actions and reactions.

25. High exit costs from an industry tend to reduce the intensity of rivalry.

26. Product proliferation is a potential strategy used to reduce the threat of potential entry.

27. Substantial switching costs reduce the threat of potential entry.

28. The threat of substitutes (products from different industries that satisfy customer needs being met by focal firms) is greater if there are low switching costs.

29. Core features of the five forces model remain remarkably insightful when analyzing old industries but not new phenomena, such as e-commerce.

30. Japanese firms do not tend to maintain close relationships with their suppliers.

31. One of the benefits of having a cost advantage is that it serves as barrier to entry.

32. If there are many buyers but only a few sellers, the buyers tend to have the most bargaining power.

33. If there are many sellers but only a few buyers, the sellers tend to have the most bargaining power.

34. The three generic strategies can strengthen a focal firm’s position relative to the five forces.

35. A focused firm avoids being either a specialized differentiator or a specialized cost leader.

36. Choosing whether to perform activities differently than rivals or to perform different activities than competitors is the essence of the Three Generic Strategies.

37. Telecommunications is an example of one industry in which one can determine exact boundaries.

38. Strategic alliances are on the decline.

39. The five forces model overemphasizes threats and downplays opportunities.

40. If a low-cost firm has already achieved the maximum efficient scale, it must turn to differentiation to distinguish itself from competitors.

41. Strategies of firms within a strategic group tend to be differentand so does their performance.

42. Recent success of firms in unattractive industries suggests that firm-specific resources and capabilities are not needed to determine firm performance.

43. The industry-based view ignores the impact of industry history and institutions on firm performance.

44. The traditional view recommends avoidance of integration.

45. Recent work favors outsourcing and willingness to collaborate with suppliers/buyers, as well as competitors.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
20. The luxury market is characterized by:
a. Fewer competitors than in a mass market.
b. Less use of incentives and price cuts to induce purchases.
c. Healthier profit margins than in a mass-market segment.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

21. The ultra luxury automobile market is characterized by:
a. Little competition in the past – but that is changing.
b. A small number of cars produced each year – but they are very expensive.
c. Being the same as the luxury market.
d. A and B above.
e. None of the above.

22. Which of the following is NOT true of the industrial organization (IO) economics model?
a. Industry structure determines firm conduct (strategy), which determines firm performance.
b. Original goal – help regulators set policy to minimize the ability of firms to earn excess profits.
c. Strategists use the IO model to try to earn above-average returns (excess profits).
d. All of the above are NOT true.
e. All of the above ARE true.

23. Which of the following tends to reduce the intensity of rivalry?
a. Similarity of firms in terms of size, market influence and product offerings.
b. Products are big-ticket items and purchased infrequently.
c. New capacity must be added in large increments.
d. Slow industry growth or decline in demand.
e. None of the above.

24. Which of the following are scale-based low cost advantages?
a. Experience curves.
b. Proprietary technology.
c. Favorable access to raw materials and distribution channels.
d. Favorable locations.
e. None of the above.

25. Which of the following would tend to reduce the bargaining power of suppliers?
a. Dominance of the supplier industry by a few firms.
b. Suppliers provide unique, differentiated products with few or no substitutes.
c. Focal firm is not an important customer.
d. Unwillingness and inability of suppliers to integrate forward.
e. None of the above.

26. Which of the follow would tend to reduce the bargaining power of buyers?
a. Large number of buyers.
b. Products of the industry do not produce clear cost advantages or enhance the quality of life for buyers.
c. Purchase standard, undifferentiated commodity products from suppliers.
d. Willingness and ability of buyers to integrate backward.
e. All of the above.

27. Which of the following are true concerning cost leadership?
a. Targets average customers for mass market – little differentiation.
b. Key functional areas are manufacturing and materials management.
c. Relentless drive to cut costs might compromise value that customers desire.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

28. Which is generally NOT true of differentiation?
a. Difficult to sustain basis of differentiation in the long run.
b. Relentless efforts of competitors to duplicate differentiation.
c. Key areas of application include research and development, marketing/sales and after-sale services.
d. It is a challenge to identify attributes that are valued by customers in each market segment.
e. Inability to pass on suppliers’ price increases to buyers.

29. Related and supporting industries are called _________ and they are an additional force that can impact the competitiveness of an industry.
a. Complementors
b. All-rounders
c. Customizers
d. Flexible manufacturing
e. Supporters

30. One noncontroversial issue with strategic groups is:
a. Stability of strategic groups.
b. Mobility barriers between strategic groups.
c. The requirement for large quantities of objective data.
d. All of the above are controversial issues.
e. None of the above is controversial.

31. The industry-based view recommends:
a. Backward integration as a way to defend against the power of suppliers.
b. Backward integration as a way to defend against the power of buyers.
c. Forward integration as a way to defend against the power of suppliers.
d. Forward integration as a way to defend against the power of buyers.
e. Backward or forward integration as a way to defend against the power of suppliers and buyers.

32. Which is a reason for integration as opposed to outsourcing?
a. Greater expense.
b. Strategic flexibility is enhanced.
c. Those within the firm are often more competitive.
d. The activity is crucial to the core business.
e. All of the above.

33. Which is a reason for outsourcing as opposed to integration?
a. Less expense.
b. Strategic flexibility is enhanced.
c. Those outside the firm are often more competitive.
d. The activity is not crucial to the core business.
e. All of the above.

34. Which of the following is NOT true regarding supplier relationships?
a. Supplier relationships that are too close may introduce rigidities, including loss of flexibility.
b. In Japan suppliers may become trusted members of the keiretsu.
c. In Japan, instead of treating suppliers as adversaries, they are treated as collaboration partners.
d. In view of A through C above, supplier relationships in Japan tend to be ineffective.
e. In view of A through C above, close supplier relationships are not necessarily good or bad.

35. Porter’s five forces framework:
a. Identifies relevant variables but fails to ask the needed questions.
b. Identifies only questions to ask.
c. Identifies both relevant variables and questions to ask.
d. Eliminates the need for other frameworks to add insight about firm performance.
e. None of the above.

36. A systematic foundation for industry and competitor analysis is best provided by:
a. The industry-based view.
b. Resource-based view.
c. Historical view.
d. Macro analysis.
e. None of the above.

37. An industry-based view provides some answers to which of the following questions?
a. Why do firms differ?
b. How do firms behave?
c. What determines the scope of the firm?
d. What determines the international success and failure of firms?
e. All of the above.

38. Maximizing opportunities and minimizing threats presented by the five forces provides some answers to which of the following questions?
a. Why do firms differ?
b. How do firms behave?
c. What determines the scope of the firm?
d. What determines the international success and failure of firms?
e. All of the above.

39. The relative bargaining power of the focal firm and (according to the traditional view) the degree of integration helps answer which of the following questions?
a. Why do firms differ?
b. How do firms behave?
c. What determines the scope of the firm?
d. What determines the international success and failure of firms?
e. All of the above.

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
6. An intense focus on above-average firm performance is shared by IO economists and those involved in the strategy of firms and yet their perspective is opposite of each other. Explain.
7. How can high exit costs increase the chance that firms may continue to operate for at least a while when operating at a loss? Explain by giving examples.
8. Many high-technology industries are characterized by network externalities. What are those externalities and how can they pay off?

9. How can backward integration be used by buyers and what are some examples?

10. What are the “Three Generic Strategies,” and what lessons can we learn from their use?

CHAPTER 3 – LEVERAGING RESOURCES AND CAPABILITIES
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
46. In SWOT analysis, the resource view focuses on OT: Opportunities and Threats.

47. In SWOT analysis, the industry view focuses on SW: Strengths and Weaknesses.
48. Intangible resources and capabilities are assets that are more easily quantified.
49. Most goods and services are produced through a chain of vertical activities which add value.

50. It is easier to imitate intangible resources/capabilities than tangible ones.
51. Causal ambiguity refers to the difficulty of identifying the outcomes of causal determinants.

52. Valuable, rare, but imitable resources/capabilities may provide temporary competitive advantage.

53. Imitation is not likely to be a successful strategy.

54. A sustained competitive advantage can last since not all advantages eventually erode.

55. The logic of the resource-based view is relatively static.

56. Critics suggest that the resource-based view should eliminate dynamic capabilities.

57. Tightly bundled resources/capabilities may be a disadvantage in high velocity environments.

58. How a firm performs different value-adding activities relative to rivals determines the scope of a firm.

59. A SWOT analysis engages managers to ascertain a firm’s strengths and weaknesses on an activity-by-activity basis.

60. On any given activity, one of the four choices for managers in terms of modes and locations includes inshoring.

61. The Closing Case describes the admiration on the part of firms in developed nations for companies from emerging economies who copy products and processes from companies in developed nations.

62. IBM is an example of how capabilities may cease to add value and instead become core rigidities.

63. The chapter indicates that Toyota is an example of causal ambiguity.

64. Many multinationals consist of many people scattered in many different countries. As a result, their invisible relationships do not add value.

65. Resource-based theorists readily admit that “the source of sustainable competitive advantage is likely to be found in different places at different points in time in different industries.”

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. In the Opening case, which of the following attributes describe IBM?
f. Innovative culture
g. Commitment to customer relationships
h. Willingness to change
i. Strong leadership team
j. All of the above.

40. A firm’s__________ are its tangible and intangible assets a firm uses to choose and implement its strategies.
a. Resources
b. Dynamic capabilities
c. Core competencies
d. Net worth
e. None of the above

41. According to the text, which of the following are intangible resources and capabilities?
a. Trade secrets.
b. Organizational.
c. Formal structures.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

42. International outsourcing involves:
a. Offshoring.
b. Inshoring.
c. A and B above.
d. Captive sourcing.
e. None of the above.

43. Having valuable, but common resources/capabilities leads to:
a. Competitive parity.
b. Competitive advantage.
c. Competitive disparity.
d. Competitive disadvantage.
e. Lack of competition.

44. Ways to imitate include:
a. Direct duplication.
b. Substitution.
c. A and B above.
d. Innovation.
e. None of the above.

45. Taking advantage of strengths embodied in resources/capabilities and overcoming weaknesses deals with which fundamental question?
a. Why do firms differ?
b. What determines the scope of the firm?
c. How do firms behave?
d. What determines the international success and failure of firms?
e. All of the above.

46. Traditional resource-based view:
a. Overemphasizes leveraging existing resources/capabilities.
b. Underemphasizes developing new resources/capabilities.
c. Both of the above.
d. Underemphasizes leveraging existing resources/capabilities.
e. Overemphasizes developing new resources/capabilities.

47. Academic research has found support for ______________effects on firm performance.
a. Resource-based
b. Industry-based
c. Complementary specific collective
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

48. Which of the following is better performed in-house instead of being outsourced?
a. An activity with a high degree of industry commonality.
b. A high degree of commoditization.
c. An industry-specific and firm-specific (proprietary) activity.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

49. The VRIO framework does not include capabilities and resources that are:
a. Valuable.
b. Rare.
c. Imitable.
d. Organizationally embedded.
e. All of the above.

50. Examining whether a firm has resources and capabilities to perform a particular activity in a manner superior to competitors is known as _________ in SWOT analysis.
a. Parity
b. Competition
c. Benchmarking
d. Deskmarking
e. Standardization

51. If Company A and Company B both have valuable assets that are identical, the text indicates that in order for A to gain a competitive advantage over B, A must:
a. Use its assets differently.
b. Find some basis for suing B.
c. Get out of its existing business.
d. Increase its quantity of those assets.
e. All of the above.

52. Tacit knowledge is probably the most _________ resource.
a. Valuable
b. Unique
c. Hard-to-imitate
d. Organizationally complex resource
e. All of the above

53. Recent research suggests that capabilities in very dynamic high-velocity industries (such as IT) involve all of the following except:
a. Simple (not complicated).
b. Experiential (not analytic).
c. Iterative (not linear processes).
d. Involve “learning by doing.”
e. “Learning before doing.”

54. Which of the following are not involved in hypercompetition?
a. A shortened window during which a firm may command competitive advantage.
b. Dynamic maneuvering.
c. Unleashing a series of small, unpredictable, but powerful actions.
d. Slowing the pace of change.
e. Attempts to erode rivals’ competitive advantage.

55. Recent aspects of outsourcing include all of the following except:
a. “Business process outsourcing” (BPO).
b. High-end services to countries led by India.
c. Digitization and commoditization of service work.
d. As stated by the text, the outsourcing of services is definitely a long-term benefit.
e. Increases due to the Internet and the reduction of international communication costs.

56. All of the following are arguments used by proponents of offshoring except:
a. It creates enormous value for firms and economies.
b. Western firms are able to tap into low-cost and high-quality labor.
c. Firms can focus on their core capabilities.
d. For every dollar spent by US firms on India, the U.S. obtains $1.13.
e. It is not true that some US employees may lose their jobs.

57. Critics of offshoring make all of the following arguments except:
a. If even core functions like engineering, R&D, manufacturing, and marketing can—and often should—be moved outside the country, what is left of the firm?
b. Critics argue such offshoring nurtures rivals.
c. Offshoring increasingly results in job losses in high-end areas such as design, R&D, and IT/BPO.
d. Many large US firms claim that they are “global companies” but they seem to be bound by “American values.”
e. In some cases, it undermines national security.

58. Critics of outsourcing agree that MNEs and their outsourcing can be praised for which of the following?
a. Not exploiting cheap labor.
b. Not treating people as “tradable commodities” that can be jettisoned.
c. Not destroying jobs destroying jobs at home.
d. Protecting customer privacy.
e. None of the above.

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
11. What is the relationship of benchmarking to the Value Chain? Any cautions in benchmarking?

12. How has offshoring contributed to complex supply-chain management? What are some examples?

13. How is it possible for a strength to become a weakness? How does IBM illustrate that possibility?
14. As you read through the text, you may be looking for secrets of success in doing business globally. This chapter gives IBM as an example of a firm that has been very successful. What did it say about the problem of identifying the reason for IBM’s success? If the reason for success cannot be determined, should we abandon any attempt to develop a rational strategy and simply depend on luck?

15. What do you think about the use of offshoring by MNEs? Is it a threat to jobs in the U.S.? Has it benefited MNEs and other countries more than the U.S.?

CHAPTER 4 – EMPHASIZING INSTITUTIONS, CULTURES, AND ETHICS
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
66. Cognitive pillar refers to the internalized, taken-for-granted values and beliefs that guide individual and firm behavior.
67. The key role of institutions is increasing uncertainty for international firms.

68. Adopting binding international commercial arbitration eliminates political risk in emerging markets.

69. Opportunism fosters transaction costs.
70. Relational contracting is not advantageous when the size of the economy is limited.
71. One disadvantage of relational contracting is that it may cause firms to abandon established relationships.

72. Formal, market-supporting institutions lower transaction costs and facilitate new entries.

73. Historically, the strategy literature has focused on the specific relationship between strategic choices and institutional frameworks.

74. Strategic choices are selected within and constrained by institutional frameworks in developed economies.

75. Striking differences between institutions in developed and emerging economies has eliminated the institution-based view from strategy discussions.

76. Strategic choices are direct outcomes of the reduced interaction between institutions and firms.

77. Western firms tend to focus on relatively short-term profits and shorter planning horizons.

78. All sides agree that ethics can make or break a firm.

79. Catastrophes may allow ethical firms to shine.

80. Ethics are universal. What is unethical in one country will be viewed as unethical in other countries.

81. Richer, developed countries tend to be less corrupt than poorer, developing countries.

82. Transaction cost theorists argue that institutions emerge to combat opportunism.
83. Doing business with foreigners may significantly reduce transaction costs over doing business with domestic firms.

84. Joint ventures between Chinese and Western firms outperformed joint ventures between local (Chinese) and Asian firms.

85. Hofstede’s studies were based on surveys from 1968-1972 and might not capture the cultural changes that have occurred throughout the world in the past forty years.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
59. Countries with a weak rule of law do not include?
f. IndiaJapan.
g. Brazil.
h. China.
i. Russia.

60. Reasons for increased FDI in China in recent years do not include:
f. Low cost labor.
g. A sizeable domestic market.
h. Strong intellectual property protections.
i. Increased emphasis on binding international commercial arbitration by Chinese authorities.
j. All of the above.

61. Which of the following defines institutions?
f. “Humanly devised constraints that structure human interaction.”
g. “Regulatory, normative and cognitive structures and activities that provide stability and meaning to social behavior.”
h. Government of individual and firm behavior.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.

62. Institutions do which of the following?
f. Reduce uncertainty.
g. Signal which conduct is acceptable and which is not.
h. Constrain the range of acceptable actions.
i. Reduce opportunism and transaction costs.
j. All of the above.

63. How do institutions reduce uncertainty?
f. Relational contracting.
g. Arm’s length transaction with 3rd party enforcement.
h. Institutional transitions.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.

64. Porter’s “diamond” model:
f. Explains competitive advantage of leading industries within the same country.
g. Explains competitive disadvantage of globally leading industries in different countries.
h. Has been criticized for ignoring history.
i. Has been criticized for focusing on institutions.
j. C and D above.

65. Which are true regarding informal constraints?
f. When formal institutional constraints fail, informal constraints tend to fail as well.
g. Following the collapse the former Soviet Union, informal constraints were unable to facilitate growth of entrepreneurial firms.
h. Even in developed economies, the best-connected firms can reap significant benefits.
i. All of the above.
j. None of the above.

66. According to ___________ culture is the “Collective programming of the mind which distinguishes the members of one group or category of people from another.”
f. Porter
g. Hofstede
h. North
i. Scott
j. Merck

67. Power distance is best defined as:
a. The degree of social inequality.
b. The identity of an individual is not based on the identity of his or her collective group.
c. Sex role differentiation.
d. The extent to which people accept ambiguous situations.
e. Emphasis on perseverance and savings.

68. Individualism is best defined as:
a. The degree of social inequality.
b. The identity of an individual is not based on the identity of his or her collective group.
c. Sex role differentiation.
d. The extent to which people accept ambiguous situations.
e. Emphasis on perseverance and savings.

69. Long-term orientation is best defined as:
a. The degree of social inequality.
b. The identity of an individual is not based on the identity of his or her collective group.
c. Sex role differentiation.
d. The extent to which people accept ambiguous situations.
e. Emphasis on perseverance and savings.

70. Which of the following are true regarding cultures and strategic choices?
f. Managers in high power distance countries have a greater penchant for centralized authority.
g. Solicitation of subordinate feedback and participation is a sign of weak leadership in high power distance countries.
h. Individualistic cultures prefer more formal contractual safeguards in alliances than collectivistic cultures.
i. Managers in low uncertainty avoidance countries rely more on experience and training.
j. All of the above.

71. Which tends to be true of masculine cultures?
f. May have a relative advantage in small-scale, customized manufacturing.
g. May be at a disadvantage in making products efficiently, well and fast.
h. Stereotypical manager is decisive.
i. Stereotypical manager is accustomed to seeking consensus.
j. None of the above.

72. The norms, principles and standards of conduct that govern behavior:
f. Are an important part of national culture but not organizational culture.
g. Are private matters and not issues for formal institutions.
h. Have a substantial overlap with what is illegal.
i. Are sometimes ignored in the case of downsizing.
j. All of the above.

73. Which is the instrumental view regarding motivation to become ethical?
a. Jump on the “bandwagon” to appear more legitimate without becoming more ethical.
b. Be self-motivated to “do it right” regardless of social pressures.
c. Good ethics are a way to achieve good profits.
d. Ethics is an instrument to impose the values of the elite on the masses.
e. Ethics is a game that is played like a musical instrument.

74. Ethical imperialism is best expressed by which of the following:
f. “When in Rome, do as the Romans do.”
g. “There is only one set of Ethics, and we have it!”
h. “Respect for human dignity and basic rights should be the absolute, minimal ethical threshold for ALL operations around the world.”
i. “The abuse of public power for private benefit.”
j. “Ignore corruption.”

75. Strong correlation between high level of corruption and low level of economic development is evidenced by:
f. China’s low level of corruption and high level of economic development.
g. China’s high level of corruption and low level of economic development.
h. Indonesia’s low level of corruption and high level of economic development.
i. Indonesia’s high level of corruption and low level of economic development.
j. None of the above.

76. The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) bans:
f. Bribery to American officials by companies based in other countries.
g. Bribery to foreign officials by companies based in the U.S.
h. Bribery to American officials by companies based in the U.S. but operating overseas.
i. Bribery to foreign officials by companies based overseas.
j. Bribery to all officials everywhere by companies based anywhere.

77. Which best defines an accommodative strategy?
f. Firms do not feel compelled to act unless faced with a disaster or public outcry.
g. Denial is the first line of defense.
h. Focus on regulatory compliance, firm fights demand for changes unless they are regulatory.
i. Organizational norms emerge to accept responsibility for actions – cognitive beliefs/values that promote ethical choices are internalized.
j. Firms constantly anticipate institutional changes and do more than is required to act ethically and responsibly.

78. In regards to individualism vs. collectivism:
a. Collectivists never discriminate against out-group members and may be more opportunistic when dealing with in-group members.
b. Individualists make more distinction between in-group and out-group membership.
c. Individualists are more opportunistic when dealing with in-group members.
d. Individualists may view social interactions/activities as related to the business at hand.
e. Collectivists may view social interactions/activities as unessential and wasteful of resources.

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
16. What is the benefit of formal, rule-based, impersonal exchange with third-party enforcement (often termed arm’s-length transaction) versus informal institutions? Why can’t we assume that formal institutions are inherently better than informal ones? How do formal and informal institutions complement each other?

17. How is the problem of counterfeiting related to ethics and how institutions matter?

18. Why is it not true that relying on informal connections is a strategy only relevant to firms in emerging economies and that firms in developed economies only pursue “market-based” strategies?

19. More than goods and services are moving across borders: as technology enables ideas and lifestyles to be observed by a variety of people around, cultures are undergoing modification, Hofstede’s dimensions of culture were based on surveys of IBM employees from 1968-1972. Much has changed in the past forty years. Nevertheless, his dimensions do provide a starting point for better understanding and relating to people from around the world. Give some examples of people you have known who have come to this country from a somewhat different culture. To what extent have they retained their cultural identity versus undergone cultural change? Have these changes created any problems for them?

20. What is ethical in one country may be unethical or illegal in other countries – and vice versa. Nevertheless, ethical imperialism (absolute belief that “there is only one set of Ethics, and we have it!”) is alive and well. You may be able to identify some values that seem to be almost universally accepted. However, such is not the case with all values. As a result, doesn’t a global company need to “pick sides” in ethical controversies and thus be an “ethical imperialist?”

CHAPTER 5 – GROWING AND INTERNATIONALIZING THE ENTREPRENEURIAL FIRM
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
86. Entrepreneurship is not the exclusive domain of small, young firms.

87. Innovative, proactive and risk-seeking behavior crosses national borders.

88. Development of entrepreneurship around the world depends on avoiding the impact of formal institutions that govern how entrepreneurs start up new ventures.

89. There are striking differences in government regulations concerning start-ups.

90. Compared to underdeveloped countries, governments in developed economies impose more procedures and a higher total cost for new start-ups.

91. Selling out can be a viable exit strategy.

92. Transaction costs are qualitatively higher in international markets.

93. The numerous differences in formal institutions and informal cultures/norms are not barriers to internationalization.

94. Neither large nor small firms decide not to internationalize because of high transactions costs.

95. Direct exporting involves selling products made in domestic market to customers in foreign markets.

96. One downside to licensing/franchising is that the licensor/franchisor may lose control over how their technology and brand are used.
97. As a general rule, entrepreneurs’ previous international experience differentiates rapid internationalization from slow/no internationalization.
98.
99. FDI lowers firm performance more than other forms of entry (over the long term).

100. Indirect exporting can be achieved through trading companies.
101. Purchasing established local firms is the fastest route to establishing a presence in a foreign market.
102. The personal traits of entrepreneurs have been the primary motivating force in China and Southeast Asia, not the environments that set formal and informal rules.

103. Children from wealthy families are less likely to start new businesses.
104. Most scholars now agree that entrepreneurship is a result of both nature and nurture.
105. There are no hard and fast rules on whether entrepreneurial firms should internationalize rapidly or slowly.
106. It is much easier for entrepreneurs to walk away from debts incurred in failed/bankrupt ventures in Germany and Japan than in the United States.
107. One problem for failed entrepreneurs is that many will not acknowledge failure and thus avoid exiting the business despite escalating losses.
108. Harsh bankruptcy laws become exit barriers but not significant barriers to entry.
109. Entrepreneurs and their firms are engines of the creative destruction process.
110. Personal traits of entrepreneurs are no different than non-entrepreneurs.
111. Behavior of entrepreneurs differs from non-entrepreneurs.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
79. Which best describes entrepreneurs?
j. Those who identify and exploit previously unexplored opportunities.
k. Founders and owners of new businesses.
l. Managers of small existing firms (i.e. those with fewer than 500 employees).
m. All of the above.
n. None of the above.

80. Which of the following are NOT true in regards to small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs).
k. They create approximately 50% of total value added in the world.
l. They generate 60-90% of employment, depending on where they are located.
m. Each year 4-6% of adult working population in North America, Western Europe, Central and Eastern Europe attempt to start a new venture.
n. Around the world, a majority of entrepreneurial firms (including 60% of start-ups in the US) succeed within 6 years.
o. Entrepreneurship is not the exclusive domain of small, young firms.

81. Which would tend to result in a greater level of entrepreneurship?
k. Fewer numbers of incumbents.
l. Capital-intensive industries.
m. Weak bargaining power of suppliers.
n. Ability to reduce the bargaining power of buyers.
o. Lack of threat to incumbents from substitute products/ and services.

82. Cautions that should be acknowledged by entrepreneurs is that it may be difficult to:
k. Predict consumer preferences.
l. Effectively price innovative products/services.
m. Build sufficient capacity.
n. All of the above.
o. None of the above.

83. To achieve success, entrepreneurial resources must be:
k. Of low value so as to reduce cost.
l. Common.
m. Non-core competencies that are hard to imitate.
n. Organizationally embedded.
o. All of the above.

84. Which of the following would be least likely to enhance the credibility of a SME?
k. Specialize in standardized commodities such as books and airline tickets.
l. Use E-commerce sites.
m. Deal in products in which quality is an issue with consumers.
n. Form strategic alliances with larger firms.
o. Willingness to take ownership of intermediated goods and services.

85. One general conclusion that we can reach regarding entrepreneurship is that:
k. Regulatory burdens on new start-ups are much easier in poorer countries.
l. The less entrepreneur-friendly a country’s formal institutional requirements are the more likely entrepreneurship will contribute to economic development.
m. Informal institutions do not affect entrepreneurships.
n. Individualistic and low uncertainty-avoidance societies tend to foster relatively more entrepreneurship.
o. Collectivistic societies may result in relatively higher levels of entrepreneurship.

86. Which of the following is NOT an example of one of the five entrepreneurial strategies?
k. Use speed and stealth to disrupt and pre-empt competitors.
l. Emphasize analysis over action.
m. Less novel, but substantially new ways of doing business can also be innovative.
n. Centrally located network positions are most helpful.
o. Selling an equity stake to outside investors.

87. A potential benefit of an initial public offering (IPO):
a. Can increase firm’s financial stability.
b. Focus on short-term results.
c. Fiduciary duty.
d. Entrepreneurs’ freedom of action.
e. Increased scrutiny by stakeholder groups.

88. In recent years, the country with the least number of bankruptcies was:
f. Japan.
g. France.
h. Great Britain.
i. Germany.
j. The United States.

89. Indirect, subtle attacks that large rivals may not immediately recognize as competitive challenges are hallmarks of which of the following five entrepreneurial strategies?
f. Growth.
g. Innovation.
h. Network.
i. Financing and Governance.
j. Harvest and Exit.

90. Which of the following is true regarding internationalizing firms?
k. Only large MNEs are able to internationalize successfully.
l. SMEs do not operate solely in domestic markets.
m. Start-ups are unable to do business in foreign markets from the very beginning – they cannot be “born global.”
n. Transaction costs do not prevent large firms from internationalizing.
o. Opportunism is easy to detect and remedy in international markets.

91. Suppose you are an SME with limited financial resources. In view of that, your best choice for entering foreign markets would be:
k. Foreign direct investment.
l. Licensing or franchising.
m. Direct exporting.
n. None of the above.
o. Any of the above.

92. In a manufacturing setting, the purchase of the right to use another firm’s proprietary technology is referred to as:
k. Direct exporting.
l. Licensing.
m. Franchising.
n. Exporting.
o. Importing.

93. Exporting only after receiving unsolicited foreign inquiries is best described as:
a. Direct exporting.
b. Indirect exporting.
c. Passive or sporadic exporting.
d. Inactive exporting.
e. None of the above.

94. Which of the following best describes Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)?
k. Avoiding the use of financial intermediaries such as brokers.
l. Firm invests directly in production or service activities in another country.
m. Traveling to a country to invest instead of using the Internet.
n. Citizens of a foreign country invest in their own country with their own resources.
o. The use of cash instead of credit.

95. “Greenfield ventures” are:
k. Examples of international grain corporations.
l. Environmentally friendly MNEs.
m. Wholly owned subsidiaries that are built from scratch in a foreign country.
n. Irrigation projects in areas stricken by famine.
o. Joint ventures in agriculture between governments and private firms.

96. Which of the following involves the most complexity?
k. Direct exporting.
l. Direct importing.
m. Direct investment.
n. Licensing.
o. Franchising.

97. Which normally provides the most control over technology and brand?
k. Direct investment.
l. Licensing.
m. Franchising.
n. B and C above.
o. There is no difference in any of the above.

98. Which of the following traits would tend to prevent entrepreneurs from establishing new firms?
a. Strong desire for achievement.
b. Strong locus of control.
c. Willingness to take risks and tolerate ambiguity.
d. The tendency to be a serial entrepreneur.
e. None of the above.

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
21. Innovation is at the heart of an entrepreneurial mindset and important to success. However, what if a person does not tend to be creative? Should that person not consider forming an SME? Are there approaches that one can follow which will likely enable such a person to be more innovative than would otherwise have been the case?

22. Suppose you have formed a company that is pursuing a product or service that is the current hot fad among investors and it appears that you could quickly enhance your personal wealth as well as quickly provide funds for your company through an IPO. It seems like an awesome opportunity. However, why might you wish to turn it down?
23. Suppose you are convinced that you have a product/service that has a huge overseas potential but your funds are very limited and you do not wish to seek partners, investors, or creditors to exploit the opportunity. What can you do?
You may not have the resources to undertake exporting by yourself but you may be able to do so through a foreign trade intermediary such as a trading company.
24. How many people have you known who established an SME because he/she wanted to “be his/her own boss?” How many of them actually worked more hours and had less vacation time than if they worked for someone else? How many had to make sacrifices for at least the first few years in terms of income and time with their family as compared to what their situation would likely have been otherwise? What appears to have motivated them? If you have not known anyone like that, what do you think would drive otherwise rational people to “become their own boss?”
25. What were the four implications for action by the savvy entrepreneur listed in the text? Which is the most important for the entrepreneur? Which is the easiest and fastest for that person to implement?

CHAPTER 6 – ENTERING FOREIGN MARKETS
TRUE/FALSE QUESTIONS
112. The Liability of Foreignness is the inherent disadvantage foreign firms experience in host countries because of their nonnative status.
113. An underlying reason for firms to NOT go abroad is the size of the firm.
114. An underlying reason for firms to NOT go abroad is the size of the domestic market.
115. In regards to industry-based considerations, the higher the entry barriers, the more intensely firms will attempt to compete abroad.
116. Backward vertical integration refers to vertical integration that has not been updated.
117. The bargaining power of suppliers may prompt backward vertical integration.
118. The bargaining power of buyers may lead to forward vertical integration.
119. The market potential of substitute products may encourage firms to bring them abroad.
120. Currency risks can be reduced by speculation and hedging.
121. Under the Stage Model school of thought firms will enter culturally similar countries during their first stage of internationalization.
122. One of the drawbacks of large-scale entries is limited strategic flexibility.
123. MNEs that enter foreign markets through foreign direct investment do not have OLI advantages.

124. For small volume of exports, direct export is not optimal.
125. Indirect exports avoids exporting through domestically based intermediaries.
126. Turnkey projects reduce the competitiveness of foreign clients and increase their dependence when selling state of the art technology.
127. Acquisition adds no new capacity.
128. Entry strategies may change over time.
129. Some foreignness is never an asset.
130. MNEs are firms that are truly global.
131. International agreements have established whose “rules of the game” e-commerce follow.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
99. The differences in formal and informal institutions that govern the rules of the game in different countries include _______ differences.
o. Regulatory
p. Language
q. Cultural
r. All of the above
s. None of the above

100. As firms expand into more countries, they should recognize:
p. Foreign firms are still often discriminated against.
q. Foreign firms primarily deploy overwhelming resources and capabilities that offset the liability of foreignness.
r. Foreign firms are able to offset the liability of foreignness and still have some competitive advantage.
s. All of the above.
t. None of the above.

101. Small firms in a large domestic market are referred to as:
p. Enthusiastic internationalizers.
q. Follower internationalizers.
r. Slow internationalizers.
s. Occasional internationalizers.
t. Domestic internationalizers.

102. The lower the value of firm-specific resources and capabilities such as________ the more likely firms will aggressively leverage them overseas.
p. Tangible assets
q. Know-how
r. Software
s. All of the above
t. None of the above

103. Firms may choose not to enter certain countries if:
p. They possess rare firm-specific assets.
q. The transaction costs are be too low.
r. There are dissemination risks.
s. There is an authorized diffusion of firm-specific assets.
t. All of the above.

104. Organizing firm-specific resources and capabilities as a bundle:
p. Favors firms with strong complementary assets.
q. Prevents having assets integrated s a system.
r. Discourages using them overseas.
s. Is counterproductive.
t. Occurs only in domestic markets.

105. Which of the following are not regulatory risks?
p. An obsolescing bargain.
q. Deals that have been struck by MNEs and host governments.
r. Nationalization.
s. Recent trends among host governments regarding their relationships with MNEs.
t. B and C above.

106. Which of the following exemplify trade barriers?
p. Tariffs.
q. Local content requirements.
r. Restrictions on certain entry modes.
s. A and C above.
t. All of the above.

107. Which of the following is not a location specific advantage?
a. Agglomeration.
b. Knowledge spillovers.
c. A skilled labor force.
d. A pool of specialized suppliers and buyers.
e. All of the above are location advantages.

108. The strategic goal of __________ involves going after countries that offer the highest price.
k. Natural resources-seeking
l. Market-seeking
m. Efficiency-seeking
n. Innovation-seeking
o. Profit-seeking

109. Institutional Distance involves all of the following except that which is:
k. Regulatory.
l. Normative.
m. Cognitive.
n. Cultural.
o. B and C above.

110. First mover advantages do not include:
p. Developing proprietary, technological leadership.
q. Preempting scarce assets.
r. Establishing entry barriers.
s. Successful clashes with dominant firms in domestic markets.
t. Creating good relationships with key stakeholders.

111. Late mover advantages do not include:
p. Taking a free ride on first movers’ investments.
q. Joining the game with massive firepower when some of the uncertainties are removed.
r. Preempting scarce assets.
s. Taking advantage of first movers’ inflexibility by leapfrogging over them.
t. Choice of Strategy.

112. Large-scale entries do which of the following?
p. Benefit from a strategic commitment.
q. Assure local customers and suppliers.
r. Deter potential entrants.
s. A and B above.
t. All of the above.

113. Small-scale entries normally benefit by their:
a. Focus on accumulating experience.
b. Emphasis on “learning by doing.”
c. Strong strategic commitment.
d. First mover advantages.
e. A and B above.

114. Non-equity modes of entry typically involve:
p. Exports and contractual agreements.
q. Larger, harder-to-reverse commitments.
r. Establishing independent organizations overseas.
s. Joint ventures (JVs).
t. Wholly owned subsidiaries.

115. All of the follow are true of direct exports except:
p. Most basic mode of entry.
q. Capitalizes on economies of scale in production concentrated in the home country.
r. Affords better control over distribution.
s. The agendas and objectives of the intermediaries and exporters are the same.
t. Designs and productions geared for the domestic market first and foremost.

116. Selling the rights to intellectual property for a royalty fee is involved in:
p. Licensing/franchising.
q. Turnkey projects.
r. R&D contracts.
s. Comarketing.
t. All of the above.

117. Which is not true of joint ventures?
p. They are jointly owned by two or more parent companies.
q. They share risks with local partners.
r. They gain access o the local partner’s knowledge about the host country.
s. They are politically less acceptable than wholly owned subsidiaries.
t. The goals of partners may diverge.

118. Greenfield operations refers to:
a. Licensing/franchising.
b. Turnkey projects.
c. R&D contracts.
d. Co marketing.
e. Wholly owned subsidiaries.

SHORT ANSWER ESSAY QUESTIONS
1. Is “foreignness” a liability or an asset? What causes it to be one or the other?
2. Schmaltz argues: “If a company wishes to be a global corporation it should truly globalize, not just operate within the so-called Triad.” What might Schmaltz be overlooking?
3. J. Lee disagrees with M. Schmaltz (above): “If a company wishes to be a global corporation, it does not need to locate in every continent – it should focus on those locations that are most profitable.” What do you think?
4. The text points out that from a resource-based view, you and your firm need to develop overwhelming capabilities to offset the liability of foreignness. However, how does a small firm do that?

5. Discussion of strategies for MNEs focus on growth and global expansion. Under what circumstances can downsizing and withdrawing from countries make sense? Why might some firms fail to withdraw or downsize?