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CIS 501 Midterm and Final Exam

CIS 501 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer

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Chapters 1 Through 18

Chapter 1
Introduction to Decision Support Systems

True-False Questions

1. The role of a DSS is to provide support to the decision-maker during the process of making a decision.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

2. A DSS is used only for unstructured decisions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

3. The purpose of a DSS is to replace the decision maker.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 4

4. The DSS should always be under the ultimate control of the user.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

5. A DSS facilitates learning on the part of the decision maker.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

6. The most powerful classification of DSSs is the Universal DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 6

7. A DSS is normally designed to be wide in its scope of application.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 6

8. A highly unstructured decision is one where the objectives of the situation are often conflicting, the alternatives available to the decision maker are difficult to isolate or determine, and the effect of a particular course of action or selection of an alternative carries with it a high degree of uncertainty.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

9. The user interface of a DSS performs activities related to problem recognition and generation of interim or final solutions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 9

10. The data management component of a DSS is where the activities associated with the retrieval, storage and organization of the relevant data for the particular decision context are managed.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 9

11. The data management component of a DSS is responsible for maintaining the logical independence of the data.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 12

12. The model library stores and manages all solver algorithms within a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 15

13. Model acquisition is the process by which new information is derived from a combination of existing or previously derived information.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 16

14. Rules, heuristics and constraints are stored within a knowledge base of a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 16

15. A model is a simplification of some event or process constructed for the purpose of studying the phenomenon and thus developing a better understanding of it.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 13

16. Internal data normally comes from an organization’s transaction processing systems as a normal course of conducting the daily affairs of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 11

17. Knowledge engineers are specially trained to interact with domain experts for the purposes of acquiring all of the knowledge the expert has in a particular domain and all of the relationships among that knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 18

18. The model base contains the various statistical, financial, mathematical, and other quantitative models used in performing the variety of analytical capabilities in a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 14

19. Silver proposed a method of DSS classification based upon the attributes of the problem-solving context.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 25

20. Hypertext systems are useful for knowledge bases that are document based.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 27

Multiple Choice Questions

21. The realization of the benefits to be derived from using a DSS is dependent upon which of the following?
a. The decision maker
b. The context of the decision
c. The design of the DSS
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 4

22. Which of the following contributed to the development of the concept of decision support systems?
a. J.P. Little
b. Gorry
c. Scott Morton
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 6

23. Limitations of a DSS include which of the following?
a. They cannot be designed to copy human imagination.
b. The language interface does not yet allow for natural language processing.
c. They are designed to be narrow in scope.
d. All of the above

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 5

24. Strategic planning refers to which of the following activities?
a. Where decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and deployment of the organizations assets are made.
b. Where decisions related to the objectives of the organization are made.
c. Where decisions relating to the day-to-day tasks and activities of the organization are made.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

25. Management control refers to which of the following activities?
a. Where decisions related to the objectives of the organization are made.
b. Where decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and deployment of the organization’s assets are made.
c. Where decisions relating to the day-to-day task and activities of the organization are made.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

26. Operational control is best associated with which of the following activities?
a. Making decisions related to the objectives of the organization.
b. Making decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and deployment of the organizations assets.
c. Making decisions relating to the day-to-day tasks and activities of the organization.
d. Both b and c.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

27. The components of a DSS can be classified into which of the following?
a. Data management system, data repository, knowledge engine, model repository, user(s)
b. Data query facility, model management system, model execution processor, user interface, user(s)
c. Data management system, model management system, knowledge engine, user interface, user(s)
d. Data management system, model management system, knowledge engine, internal data, external data

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 9

28. Which of the following is considered a subsystem within the data management system?
a. Database(s)
b. Database management system
c. The data query facility
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 12

29. One of the most important characteristics of a model is that:
a. it is easy to construct.
b. it is commonly found in decision-making environments.
c. it is a simplified form of reality.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 13

30. The two primary responsibilities of the MBMS are:
a. execution and integration of the models available to the DSS and the modeling of user preferences.
b. execution and integration of the data available to the DSS and the manipulation of the user interface.
c. execution of the user interface and the modeling of user preferences.
d. acquisition of the knowledge contained within the DSS and the modeling of user preferences.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 15

31. Which of the following best describes the function and purpose of the inference engine?
a. It is the subsystem responsible for the acquisition and construction of knowledge rules.
b. It is a component of a DSS that is specifically intended to allow the user to access the internal components of that system in a relatively easy fashion and without having to know specifically how everything is put together or how it works.
c. It is a program module that activates domain knowledge and performs inferencing to work toward a solution or conclusion based upon the values for the facts given and the relationships or rules associated with them.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 18

32. The person who may work closely with the decision maker to assist in interpreting and explaining the DSS output is called the:
a. domain expert.
b. intermediary.
c. domain operator.
d. knowledge generator.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 22

33. Which of the following are the two primary support orientations for a DSS?
a. Data-centric and model-centric
b. Procedural and non-procedural
c. Programmed and non-programmed
d. Simulated and actual

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 8

34. Which of the following is a characteristic of a DSS?
a. It is interactive and user-friendly.
b. It is generally developed using an iterative process.
c. I supports all phases of the decision-making process.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

35. Which of the following is not a benefit of DSS use?
a. It shortens the time associated with making a decision.
b. The power of the DSS is based upon the system it is running on.
c. It encourages exploration and discovery on the part of the decision maker.
d. All of the above are benefits.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 5

36. Gorry and Scott Morton’s framework for decision support classifies types of decisions as:
a. simplified and complex.
b. structured, semi-structured, and unstructured.
c. supported, semi-supported, and unsupported.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 7

37. Which of the following is a function of the presentation language of a DSS?
a. It allows for detailed report definition.
b. It allows for the creation of forms.
c. It provides for the presentation of data in multiple formats.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 20

38. Which of the following is not a DSS usage category?
a. Terminal mode
b. Clerk mode
c. Query mode
d. Subscription mode

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 23

39. Which of the following is the DSS classification proposed by Donovan and Madnick?
a. Structured and unstructured
b. Mechanical and decisional
c. Formal and ad-hoc
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 25

40. Which type of decision support system keeps track of a large amount of disparate documents?
a. Hypertext system
b. Document encyclopedia
c. Silver junction system
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 27

Essay Questions

41. Describe the general functions of the Model Base Management System.

42. What are some of the common characteristics of a decision support system?

43. List the five components of a DSS

44. Is a “universal DSS” possible? Why or why not?

45. List the general functions of the DBMS.

46. What are the benefits of DSS use?

47. What are the two main responsibilities of the DBMS?

48. How does knowledge get into the DSS? How can it be retrieved and organized as useful information?

49. Compare and contrast data-centric versus model-centric systems, formal versus ad-hoc systems, and directed versus non-directed systems. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each type?

50. Compare the benefits and limitations of highly procedural languages and low/non-procedural languages.

Chapter 2
Decisions and Decision Makers

True-False Questions

21. The decision maker is considered both an element and participant in the decision.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 35

22. All decisions in an organization are ultimately made by a single individual.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 38

23. A problem is defined as the perception of a difference between the current state of affairs and a desired state of affairs.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 36

24. A typical decision is often made using the exact order suggested by a normative model of decision making and tends to use all of the steps contained in the model.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 35

25. Two examples of group decision making are organizational committees and juries.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 39

26. The manner in which a decision is made is referred to as decision style.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 41

27. Decision style is affected by the perception of the problem.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 41

28. The reason there are so many different types of DSSs is that there are many different types of decisions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 37

29. Policies and procedures can affect organizational decision making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 48

30. Simon proposed to classify problems from procedural to non-procedural.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 50

31. Programmed decisions are more difficult to automate in a DSS than non-programmed decisions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 51

32. When conflict exists in either goals or approaches to the decision then Delbecq would classify that as the need for a creative decision.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 55

33. When a novel approach is needed to handle the complexity of the problem, then Delbecq would classify that as the need for a negotiated decision.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 54

34. Mintzberg classifies adaptive activities as characterized by high risk and motivated by the proactive and reactive considerations.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 55

35. According to Thompson, his classification scheme differentiates decisions based upon the type of activities with which the decision is most associated.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 55

36. The most clear-cut phase in the decision making process is the design phase.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 58

37. Simon referred to the process of search-limiting strategies as inferencing.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 61

38. Symptoms of a problem are identical to the problem itself.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 63

39. Stereotyping is a common perceptual block.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 67

40. The tendency to view alternatives as mutually exclusive events is a bias of individual
decision makers.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 73

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not part of the decision-making process?
a. Stimulus
b. Alternative selection
c. Decision maker
d. All of the above are part of the decision making process.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 36-37

22. Which of the following is not a category of decision makers within an organization?
a. Individual decision makers
b. Team decision makers
c. Group decision makers
d. All of the above are categories of decision makers.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 38-39

23. Which of the following is not a factor that affects decision style?
a. Context
b. Inference
c. Values
d. Perception

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 41

24. Which of the following is not a decision style behavior?
a. Analytical
b. Behavioral
c. Conceptual
d. All of the above are decisions style behaviors.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 44

25. According to Mintzberg, which of the following is not a decision typology?
a. Entrepreneurial activities
b. Knowledge activities
c. Adaptive activities
d. Planning activities

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 55

26. According to Delbecq, which of the following is not a classification scheme for negotiation?
a. Inferred decisions
b. Routine decisions
c. Creative decisions
d. Negotiated decisions

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 54-55

27. According to Thompson, which of the following is not a type of strategy based decision scheme?
a. Inspirational strategies
b. Judgmental strategies
c. Conversational strategies
d. Compromise strategies

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 55

28. The perception of a problem context is typically caused by one or more:
a. crisis.
b. stimuli.
c. telephone calls.
d. catastrophes.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 36

29. The term used to describe the manner in which a manager makes decisions is called:
a. decision methodology.
b. decision model.
c. decision style.
d. cognitive style.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 41

30. In any problem context, before any effective investigation of alternative solutions can be conducted, the decision maker must first:
a. establish the available resources.
b. determine the best solution.
c. define the problem.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 37

31. A decision in which many people may serve to influence the final decision but only one decision maker has the authority and responsibility to make the decision is called a:
a. unilateral decision.
b. bilateral decision.
c. negotiated decision.
d. unanimous decision.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 39

32. Which of the following involves factors relating to the forces acting on the decision maker in the course of making the decision?
a. Problem space
b. Problem style
c. Problem context
d. Decision style

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 41

33. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the directive decision style? A directive decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communication or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 42

34. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the analytical decision style? An analytical decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 42

35. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the conceptual decision style? The conceptual decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 43

36. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the behavioral decision style? The behavioral decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 44

37. Simon classified problems on a continuum that ranged from:
a. structured to unstructured.
b. parallel to perpendicular.
c. discrete to obtuse.
d. 1 to 10.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 50

38. Which of the following is not included in the Keen and Scott Morton classification of decision-making perspectives?
a. Process-oriented perspective
b. Knowledge-engineer perspective
c. Political perspective
d. Rational manager perspective

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 57

39. Which of the following is not a satisficing strategy?
a. Simulation
b. “What-if” analysis
c. Markov analysis
d. Linear programming

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 59

40. Which of the following is not an optimizing strategy?
a. Goal programming
b. Environmental impact analysis
c. Investment models
d. Transportation models

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 59

Essay Questions

41. Define a ‘good decision’.

42. List 10 common types of support provided by a DSS.

51. Define Mintzberg’s activity-based decision typology.

52. Define what is meant by the term bounded rationality.

53. List the major components of the decision-making process.

54. In which portion of the decision-making process is a DSS most helpful for decisionmakers? Why?

55. List and briefly describe the classes of decision-makers.

56. Describe the three forces that affect a particular individual’s decision style.

The three factors of context, perception, and values intertwine in their relationship to decision style. The problem context involves factors relating to the forces acting on the decisionmaker in the course of making the decision. Organizational and environment forces such as government regulation, new technologies, market competition, internal power struggles, etc. all serve to reform or affect the problem context. Further, forces of a more individual nature such as skill set, energy, motivation, and perceived abilities, among others can also serve as forces that shape the problem context for the decisionmaker. The totality of these forces must be balanced and managed by the decisionmaker during the problem-solving process.

57. List and briefly describe the forces that can act on a problem context and on a decisionmaker during the course of making a decision.

58. List the advantages of using heuristics.

Chapter 3
Decisions in the Organization

True-False Questions

41. An organization includes issues of structure and resources.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 88

42. Organizations can be said to be defined by the decisions that they make.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 88

43. Group norms are not a dimension of organizational decision making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 90

44. All organizational decisions are strategic in their nature.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 90

45. Strategic decisions are typically made at the middle management level and approved by senior management.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91

46. The competence of decision-making ability at each level within an organization can affect the design of a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91

47. Cultural fit is a method of viewing the relationship between organizational culture and decision making.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

48. An organization can either have an internal fit or external fit but may not have both simultaneously.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

49. Organizational culture can be a determinant of an organization’s willingness to change.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 93

50. While an organization may be greater than the sum of its parts, it does not allow its members to collectively pursue and achieve greater goals than they could by acting individually.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91

51. The line personnel who make decisions regarding day-to-day activities relating to production or services are called operations personnel.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 90-91

52. A good external fit suggests a culture that is shaped to both the organization’s strategy and its marketplace.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

53. Internal fit refers to the match between an organization’s culture and its leaders.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

54. Informal power is the term used to define how a manager exercises authority and whether he or she wishes to exercise the power available to them.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 95

55. Organizational politics influences organizational power.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 95

56. Organizational politics is always a disruptive factor in organizations.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 96

57. In the design of a DSS, organizational politics should be considered.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 96

58. The distinguishing characteristic of an ODSS over a GDSS is managerial control.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 97

Multiple Choice Questions

19. Which of the following is not a dimension of organizational decision making?
a. Group roles
b. Group processes
c. Group structure
d. All of the above are dimensions.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 88-89

20. Which of the following is not an organizational decision level?
a. Operations
b. Tactical
c. Directing
d. Strategic

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 90

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?
a. Risk tolerance
b. Fault tolerance
c. Conflict tolerance
d. Communication patterns

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 92

22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?
a. Direction
b. Control
c. Reward system
d. Personnel system

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 92

23. The concept of viewing an organization as a “nexus of decisions” suggests that:
a. an organization is a unified system of resources defined and structured by a collective of functional and political subsystems bound by a set of stated goals and functioning within a set of loosely defined environments.
b. the organization’s purpose is to make decisions within a business environment; it is defined by its decision opportunities, authorities, and responsibilities.
c. an organization is a chaotic environment where decisions occur both randomly and without purpose.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 88

24. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group structure is best defined as:
a. the relationships between the actual point of decision and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed be a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues related to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres, and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 88

25. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group roles is best described as:

a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified purposes that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 89

26. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the circular nature of group process is best described as:

a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 89

27. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group norms is best defined as:

a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 90

28. An organization, when viewed from a decision-making perspective, can be conceptualized by which of the following three discrete levels of hierarchy?

a. Planning, controlling, doing
b. Management, labor, stakeholders
c. Operations, planning, and strategic
d. Tactical, political, social
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 91

29. Cultures that tend to minimize individual initiative and risk taking, such as those of a product-driven orientation:

a. tend to support a more centralized decision-making emphasis where operating procedures, policies, schedules, etc. are all prescribed from a central authority.
b. tend to adopt more routine technologies that provide additional stability to the organization.
c. tend to adopt nonroutine technologies that require adaptability.
d. Both a and b.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

30. Cultures where initiative, creativity, and risk-taking are supported or rewarded:

a. tend to support a more centralized decision-making emphasis where operating procedures, policies, schedules, etc. are all prescribed from a central authority.
b. tend to adopt more routine technologies that provide additional stability to the organization.
c. tend to adopt nonroutine technologies that require adaptability.
d. Both a and b.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

31. Which of the following would not be considered a characteristic of an organization’s culture?
a. Degree of individual initiative
b. Degree of risk tolerance
c. Degree of market share
d. Ccommunication patterns

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 92

32. Which of the following is considered a characteristic of excellent companies?
a. They are hands-on and value driven.
b. They recognize that productivity is based on people.
c. They have a bias towards action.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 94

33. The concept which states that an individual will eventually be promoted to their level of incompetence is known as the:
a. Law of Incompetence.
b. Parretto Principle.
c. Peter Principle.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 91

34. The distinguishing characteristic of an ODSS over a GDSS is that of
a. size.
b. managerial control.
c. application.
d. Both b and c.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 97

35. Which of the following is not one of the five factors of power?
a. Judgment
b. Authority
c. Informal power
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 95

36. Which of the following is true of organizational politics?
a. Politics can often serve to ensure an objective hearing of all sides of an issue.
b. Politics can facilitate the decision-making process.
c. Politics can facilitate organizational change.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 96

37. The ________________ level of an organization focuses on the implementation of decisions made at the highest level of the organization as well as decisions involving the acquisition of resources necessary to maintain desired capacities and outputs at the operations level.
a. operations
b. planning
c. strategic
d. tactical

or d Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 91

38. The members of the ___________________ level of an organization include the senior executives of the largest industrial and service firms in the world, the top administrators of the largest government agencies, and the generals and senior officers in the military.
a. operations
b. planning
c. strategic
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 91

Essay Questions

39. Provide a definition for the term organization.

40. Identify and describe the three levels of organizational decision making.

41. Define organizational culture.

42. List ten characteristics of organizational culture.

59. List 10 of 12 significant elements of managerial decision-making power, as defined by Harrison (1995).

Chapter 4
Modeling Decision Processes

True-False Questions

59. The typical decision-maker, more often than one might imagine, fails to formally and concisely identify the problem at hand before beginning the process of solving it.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103

60. A problem is defined as the difference between the current state of affairs and the desired state of affairs.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103

61. A common error when creating a problem statement is to prematurely focus on the possible solutions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103

62. One way to determine what the real underlying problem is to expore the reasons why an alternative is viable.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 103

63. The priorities of a decision maker are determined by the size of the solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 104

64. The priorities of a decision maker are affected by the scope of the problem.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 104

65. A designer must never revise a decision made at one point in the process to account for a change made in another.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 105-106

66. There are always at least two possible alternative problem solutions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 104

67. Problem structures can be described in terms of three fundamental components: (1) choices, (2) uncertainties, and (3) objectives.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 110

68. Implicit in the concept of choice is the existence of multiple alternatives.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 104

69. In an influence diagram, the three components of a problem structure are represented by specific shapes and are combined and connected to represent the problem being modeled.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 106-107

70. Although the solution may be obvious, problem structures always have a clear beginning.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 112

71. An optimal solution is always guaranteed when using a simulation model.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 115

72. Conceptual models can be thought of as analogies to the problem context.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 117

73. In a deterministic model, a variable can have multiple values and must therefore be described by a probability function.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 114

74. In a stochastic model, no variable can take on more than one value at a given time.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 114

75. According to Howard’s test of clarity, the events of every model should be fully determined without interpretation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 119

76. Decisions made in conditions of certainty are the most difficult.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 120

77. Hayes Model Base Rule is used to determine the appropriate forecasting technique for DSSs.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 129

78. Odds forecasting is a common technique for eliciting subjective probability.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 125

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not a component of a problem statement?
a. The desired state of affairs
b. The current state of affairs
c. The past state of affairs
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 103

22. Which of the following is not part of the design of a problem structure?
a. The relationship between elemental details and the final appearance of the solution
b. The interim solution
c. The final problem solution
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 104

23. Which of the following is not a tool for modeling the structure of a problem?
a. Problem analysis case
b. Decision tree
c. Influence diagram
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 106-108

24. Which of the following is not a decision tree rule?
a. The branches represent all possible outcomes.
b. The branches are structured to allow for multiple choices per branch.
c. All possible alternatives are fully mapped.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 108

25. Which of the following is not a decision model classification?
a. Domain-specific models
b. Abstract variation models
c. Stochastic models
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 114

26. Which of the following is not a requirement of probability?
a. All probabilities must be within the range of -1 to 1.
b. The probabilities of all individual outcomes of an event must add up to the probability of their union.
c. The total probability of the complete set of outcomes must be equal to 1.
d. All of the above are requirements of probability.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 120

27. Probability can be expressed as:
a. long-run.
b. subjective.
c. logical.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 121

28. Which of the following is not a technique for forecasting probability?
a. Logical forecasting
b. Direct forecasting
c. Odds forecasting
d. Comparison forecasting

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 124

29. Models that do not explicitly acknowledge time are called:
a. static models.
b. dynamic models.
c. simulation models.
d. stochastic models.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 113

30. The concept of __________ suggests that while a probability may be derivable, its accuracy may not be acceptable under any circumstances.
a. subjective probability
b. logical probability
c. long-run probability
d. stochastic probability

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 123

31. Which of the following affects the selection of a forecasting technique?
a. Problem structure
b. Availability
c. Problem size
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 129

32. Which of the following affects the selection of a forecasting technique?
a. Precision
b. Complexity
c. DSS designer preference
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 129

33. Rather than a single probability estimation we might benefit from an estimation of the worst-case scenario and the best-case scenario. Properly constructed, we can say that the actual probability estimate lies somewhere between these two values. This range of values is referred to as a ________.
a. probability estimation
b. t-test
c. logical probability
d. confidence interval

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 130

34. A method used to determine the degree to which the alteration of an underlying assumption has a material effect on the results obtained from a model is known as:
a. simulation.
b. sensitivity analysis.
c. discriminant validity.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 131

35. Which of the following is not a suitable technique for eliciting numerical subjective probability estimations that can then be combined with other estimates using the laws of probability?
a. Direct forecasting
b. Odds forecasting
c. Ad hoc forecasting
d. Comparison forecasting

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 129

36. A model in which at least one of the variables in the model is uncertain and must be described by some probability function is known as a:
a. static model.
b. stochastic model.
c. deterministic model.
d. dynamic model.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 114

37. A model which focuses on the mathematical precision with which various outcomes can be predicted is referred to as a(n):
a. static models.
b. dynamic models.
c. simulation models.
d. abstract models.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 113

38. Which of the following is true of Howard’s Test of Clarity?
a. The influence diagram contains at least three alternatives.
b. All of the components of the context model are clearly defined.
c. Long-run probability is utilized.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 119

39. In any choice there is a(n) _____ probability of at least one alternative being selected and there is an ____ probability of any particular one being selected.
a. unequal, equal
b. 0%, unequal
c. 100%, equal
d. 100%, unequal

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 121

40. Which type of forecasting presents the decision maker with a choice between participating in one or two lottery-type games?
a. Comparison forecasting
b. Odds forecasting
c. Direct probability forecasting
d. Calibration forecasting

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 126

Essay Questions

41. Identify the steps in creating a simulation model.

42. Briefly describe the disadvantages of simulation modeling.

60. List and briefly describe the types of abstract models.

61. Define sensitivity analysis and state its value to decisionmakers.

62. List and briefly describe the various types of probabilities.

Chapter 5
Group Decision Support and Groupware Technologies

True-False Questions

79. A group can be defined as a simple collective entity that is independent of its members.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 141

80. A group can be defined by the structure of the problem context.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 142

81. MDM is defined as an activity conducted by a collective entity composed of two or more individuals and characterized in terms of both the properties of the collective entity as well as its individual members.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 142

82. MDMs can be classified in terms of the degree of centralization characterized by each of the four network structures.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 143

83. In a chain network, each participant can communicate with the decision maker at the center but not with each other.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 144

84. In a wheel network, the decision maker can communicate with anyone.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 143

85. In a circle network, all members have an equal opportunity for communication.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 144

86. The completely connected network structure is the least restrictive structure.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 145

87. The chain network displays a high degree of centrality and is appropriate for routine or recurring decisions with high-probability outcomes.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 144

88. The circle network serves as the basis for the group and committee MDM structures and is often employed in situations where negotiation or consensus must be the basis for the final decision.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 144-145

89. When the expertise of the decision maker is critical, then the most appropriate decision structure is a committee.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 146

90. In group decision making, the factor that has the greatest impact is the size of the group.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 147

91. Think-tank is the term referred to as a mode of thinking that people engage in when their desire to fit in overrides their decision-making ability.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 148

92. One common method used to control sources of potential conflict is participant anonymity.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 149

93. A GDSS is a collective of computer-based technologies used to aid multiparticipant efforts directed at identifying and addressing problems, opportunities, and issues.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 153

94. An ODSS is a complex system of computer-based technologies, including those that facilitate communication that provides support for decision makers spanning the range of organizational roles and functional levels, and accommodates decision contexts that cut across organizational units.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 153

95. Process structure of an MDM involves various mechanisms focused on facilitating participant interaction.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

96. Groupware is focused on issues related to collaborative processes among people.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 160

97. E-mail would not be considered a type of groupware because it is an asynchronous process.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 162

98. Nominal group techniques works best when there is a single decision maker structure.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 165

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a highly centralized network structure?
a. They are efficient for routine and recurring decisions.
b. They tend to produce lower average levels of satisfaction among the participants.
c. They promote innovative solutions.
d. They tend to result in a stable set of interactions among the participants.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 145

22. Which of the following is true of a completely connected network structure?
a. They tend to produce lower average levels of satisfaction among the participants.
b. They tend to strengthen the leadership position of the central members.
c. They promote creative solutions.
d. They tend to result in a stable set of interactions among the participants.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 145

23. Which of the following is a factor used in determining decision structure?
a. The degree of structuredness of the problem structure
b. The probability of acceptance of an autocratic decision
c. The importance of the quality of the decision
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 146

24. Which of the following is not true regarding the relationship between group size and its affect on MDM?
a. Participant interaction increases as the size increases.
b. Affective relationships tend to decrease as size increases.
c. Central leadership tends to increase as size increases.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 148

25. Which of the following communication networks displays a high degree of centrality and is appropriate for routine or recurring decisions with high-probability outcomes?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 144

26. Which of the following is not considered one of the four basic types of communication networks?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Semi-connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 145

27. Which of the following networks is most appropriate when routine or recurring decisions are being made?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 144

28. Which of the following network structures serves as the basis for the group and committee MDM structure and is often employed in situations where negotiation or consensus must be the basis for the final decision?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 144-145

29. A mode of thinking that people engage in when they are deeply involved in a cohesive ingroup, where the members’ striving for unanimity overrides their motivation to realistically appraise alternative courses of action is known as:
a. structured decision making.
b. groupthink.
c. team MDM.
d. MDM analysis.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 148

30. A(n) _____ is a complex system of computer-based technologies, including those that facilitate communication, that provides support for decision-makers spanning the range of organizational roles and functional levels and accommodates decision contexts that cut across organizational units.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 153

31. A(n) ____ is a collective of computer-based technologies used to aid multiparticipant efforts directed at identifying and addressing problems, opportunities and issues.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 153

32. A(n) ___ is a collective of computer-based technologies that are specifically designed to support the activities and processes related to multiparticipant decision making.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 154

33. A(n) ____ is a system under the control of one or more decision makers that assists in the activity of decision making by providing an organized set of tools intended to impart structure to portions of the decision-making situation and to improve the ultimate effectiveness of the decision outcome.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 154

34. Which of the following is not one of the four basic approaches that have been identified through which MDM support can be provided?

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Organizational structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

35. ______ involves providing various mechanisms focused on facilitating participant interaction, communication, knowledge gathering, and memory. These mechanisms are omnipresent in all current deployments of GSS and groupware applications.

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

36. ______ focuses on mechanisms that serve to govern the various communication activities among participants including the pattern of interaction, the timing, and sometimes even the content.

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

37. ______ involves the application of mechanisms that can select, organize, or even derive information and knowledge that is specifically relevant to the task or decision at hand.

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

38. The _____________ MDM system is primarily intended to focus on facilitation of communication among the participants. Its main objective is to hasten and stimulate the exchange of messages and to reduce or remove the inherent barriers to communication associated with MDM activities.

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 157

39. The _____________ MDM systems are designed to reduce uncertainty that can evolve from an MDM problem-solving activity. Both process and task structuring mechanisms are typically found in this class of MDM support.

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 157

40. The _____________ system contains all of the features of its predecessors and expands the support mechanisms through an increase in process structuring techniques intended to control participant interaction.

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 157

Essay Questions

41. Identify the factors used in determining decision structure.

42. What are the potential consequences of groupthink?

63. Define the term multiparticipant decision maker (MDM).

64. Define groupware. Where is it applicable?

65. List the forces that describe groupware development.

Chapter 6
Executive Information Systems

True-False Questions

99. An EIS is a special type of DSS designed to facilitate the analysis of information to support strategic decision-making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 174

100. An EIS is designed to support the CEO of a firm
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 174

101. An EIS is a unique DSS designed exclusively to analyze the operations of a firm.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 174

102. An EIS can be designed and built quickly because it only deals with summarized information.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 175

103. A sales report showing revenue against forecast targets along with projections for the next two quarters is an example of an EIS output.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176

104. The ability to perform drill down analysis is an important feature of an EIS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 176

105. A well designed EIS will replace the need for MIS applications
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176

106. A well designed EIS replaces the need for all other DSSs within an organization
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176

107. Executives spend more time on disturbance management than organizational staffing.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 178-179

108. The majority of executive time is spent in some form of disturbance management activity.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: pp. 178-179

109. The total study method, critical success factor method or key indicator method could be used to define an EIS
Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 182-183

110. An EIS normally requires unique hardware configurations, making them expensive to build.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 184

111. An EIS normally requires unique software components.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 185

112. An organization that does not wish to build their own EIS can purchase one “off-the-shelf”.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 185

113. In the structural perspective of the EIS development framework, the focus is on people and data as they relate to the EIS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 188

114. The structural perspective of the EIS development framework builds upon the elements and their relationships contained within the structural model and adds a time dimension to the framework. In this component, the various activities and sequences of events are delineated and actual project management issues relating to time, critical path, and milestones are established.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 188-189

115. The dialog system of an EIS contains an action language where the user is directed in how to use the system, and learns where the various commands and elements of manipulation are contained and processed.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 189

116. The knowledge base in an EIS is the sum of what the executive knows about using the system and all of the support mechanisms designed to assist in its use.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 190

117. Two organizational limitations of an EIS are time bias and loss of managerial synchronization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 191

118. The development framework of an EIS is used to establish development guidelines.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 190

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is a computer-based system intended to facilitate and support the information and decision-making needs of senior executives by providing easy access to both internal and external information relevant to meeting stated goals of the organization?
a. EIS
b. ES
c. DSS
d. Data Warehouse

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 175

22. Which of the following is a characteristic of an EIS?
a. Tailored to individual executives
b. Can present information in multiple formats
c. Provides tools to extract, filter and track critical information
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 175

23. Which of the following is an activity performed by managers?
a. Staffing
b. Directing
c. Organizing
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 178

24. Which of the following is not a common characteristic of executives?
a. They are future-oriented and focus on strategic activities.
b. They have narrow spans of control.
c. They are responsible for establishing policies.
d. They are concerned with internal and external issues.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 178

25. Which of the following is not a method for determining executive information needs?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 182

26. Which method for determining executive needs primarily uses traditional TPS and MIS applications as it source of information?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 182

27. Which method for determining executive needs could best be described by the phrase management by walking around?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 182

28. Which method for determining executive needs gathers information from a sample of top-level executives concerning the totality of information needs?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 183

29. Which method for determining executive needs is the most comprehensive?
a. Normal method
b. Key indicators method
c. Case study method
d. Critical success factors method

Difficulty: Method Reference: p. 183

30. The _______________ method for determining executive information needs is based on three basic notions: 1) The health of an organization can be determined by comparison to a set of key financial indicators; 2) organizations can be managed based on exception reporting where only those areas operating outside of a preestablished set of norms are of interest; 3) and technology is available to allow for flexible display of key indicator information in graphical form.
a. key indicator
b. critical success factor
c. normal
d. by-product

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 182

31. Using an EIS to explore the underlying data used to compile the current ratio would be an example of which of the following activities?
a. Compilation
b. Aggregation
c. Drill down analysis
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 176

32. When something unexpected occurs, particularly something that could materially and negatively impact the financial health of the organization, the immediate attention of executives and the deployment of resources are usually warranted. Executive activity during these periods is called:
a. entrepreneurial.
b. disturbance management.
c. resource allocation.
d. negotiation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 178

33. Which of the following is not a component of an EIS development framework?
a. Structural perspective
b. Intelligent knowledge base
c. User-system dialog
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 188

34. Which of the following would not be considered a benefit of a client/server environment?
a. Reduction of investment costs in new computer hardware
b. Establishment of a more flexible and responsive platform
c. Increased control over locally stored data
d. Multiple views of geographically dispersed data

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 184

35. The ____________ portion of the EIS development framework builds upon the elements and their relationships contained within the structural model and adds a time dimension to the framework. In this component, the various activities and sequences of events are delineated and actual project management issues relating to time, critical path, and milestones are established.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 189

36. The _______________ portion of an EIS contains an action language where the user is directed in how to use the system, and learns where the various commands and elements of manipulation are contained and processed. The action language element can be thought of as the incoming communication channel from the executive to the EIS.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 189

37. The _________________ portion of an EIS is the sum of what the executive knows about using the system and all of the support mechanisms designed to assist in its use.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 190

38. _______________ activities fall under the general heading of strategic planning tasks. Executives spent a significant portion of their time focusing on the selection, design, and implementation of improvements and projects intended to improve performance and initiate controlled change within the organization.
a. Entrepreneurial
b. Disturbance management
c. Resource allocation
d. Negotiation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 180

39. Managers at various levels are given authority to manage and deploy assets from a predetermined allocation and based upon a control mechanism such as a budget or operational plan. The authority to deploy those assets and the various behind the scenes activities to obtain them normally performed by top executives is associated with which of the following activities?
a. Entrepreneurial
b. Disturbance management
c. Resource allocation
d. Negotiation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 180

40. Executives are charged with the responsibility of representing the organization in both internal and external disputes. Typically, this role involves the resolution of disputes and conflicts and, thus, involves a significant amount of negotiation among the parties. This type of activity is called:
a. entrepreneurial.
b. disturbance management.
c. resource allocation.
d. negotiation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 180

Essay Questions

41. List the characteristics of an Executive Information System.

42. Define an Executive Information System.

66. List the Common Characteristics of Executives.

67. List and briefly describe several EIS limitations.

68. Briefly describe the EIS of tomorrow.

Chapter 7
Expert Systems and Artificial Intelligence

True-False Questions

119. An Expert System is designed to solve a specific knowledge domain problem.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 208

120. Artificial Intelligence can be defined as the study of how to make computers do things that people do better.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 208

121. Reverse reasoning begins with a series of subproblems and builds into one cohesive problem statement.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 208

122. All expert systems are based upon the use of reverse reasoning.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 208

123. The first artificial intelligence system was referred to as LISP.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 208

124. Categorization involves the creation of a loose set of hierarchies where lower-level pieces of information inherit characteristics from a higher-level category.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 209

125. Reasoning by expectations uses components of heuristics and categorization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 210

126. Once we have experienced a particular situation or phenomena enough, we begin to expect it to appear in a certain manner or under a predictable set of conditions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 211

127. Rule-based reasoning is a process in which the computer is given the characteristics of the problem space in the form of input values. It then uses the rules contained within its knowledge base to methodically change the state of the problem space to the desired condition.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: pp. 211-212

128. The form of knowledge that is formed from antecedents and consequents is referred to as inferential knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

129. The form of knowledge where the conditions take the form of a stated situation and the operative becomes an action to take when the stated situation is logically true is referred to as procedural knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

130. The form of knowledge whereby a conclusion is reached as a result of one or more premises being established is referred to as declarative knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

131. In an object network, concepts are represented as nodes and the arcs connecting the nodes represent their relationships.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 213

132. Representations of objects that are typical of a category are referred to as frames.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 213

133. In a frame, a trigger is a short procedure that can be triggered whenever a slot is created, modified or accessed.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 214

134. Frames are the most useful knowledge domain for analyzing legal precedent.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 215

135. Genetic algorithms figure out which rules from prior cycles did not fire, which rules from the prior cycle will not fire in the next cycle, and which rules from the prior cycle that did not fire are most likely to fire next.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 216

136. Neural networks are the branch of AI that most closely resemble how the human brain operates.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 217

137. The inference engine of an ES contains the specific knowledge collected from the sample of domain experts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 219

138. The inference engine performs deductions or inferences based on rules or facts. In addition, it is capable of performing inexact or fuzzy reasoning based on probability or pattern matching.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 220

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not true of artificial intelligence?
a. AI focuses on how people think.
b. AI focuses on how people reason.
c. AI translates understanding into computer systems that can perform the same actions.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 209

22. Which of the following is not a type of reasoning?
a. Heursitics
b. Past experience
c. Cognitive idealism
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 210

23. Which reasoning type is the most common?
a. Categorization
b. Specific rules
c. Expectations
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 209

24. Which type of reasoning uses components of heuristics and categorization?
a. Specific rules
b. Expectations
c. Past experience
d. Cognitive idealism

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 210

25. Which of the following forms of knowledge can be encoded via a rule set?
a. Procedural knowledge
b. Declarative knowledge
c. Inferential knowledge
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

26. Which of the following represents entities as nodes and the arcs that connect the nodes represent relationships?
a. Object network
b. Frames
c. Knowledge network
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 213

27. Which Of the following is not a daemon?
a. If modified
b. If inquiry
c. If deleted
d. If necessary

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 214

28. The concept of frames is analogous to which human reasoning method?
a. Past experience
b. Heuristics
c. Categorization
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 215

29. Which of the following is most useful in a knowledge domain where precedence reasoning is most appropriate?
a. Frames
b. Pattern recognition
c. Case-based reasoning
d. Rete algorithms

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 215

30. Which branch of AI most closely resembles how the human brain operates?
a. Genetic algorithms
b. Neural networks
c. Machine learning
d. Rete algorithms

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 217

31. Which classification of AI relies on learning from past experiences using examples and analogies?
a. Machine learning
b. Frames
c. Pattern recognition
d. Genetic algorithms

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 216

32. Which component of an ES contains the domain-specific knowledge collected from the sample of domain experts during the design stage?
a. User interface
b. Knowledge base
c. Inference engine
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 219

33. Which of the following is not an example of a heuristic?
a. If the meal includes red meat, then chose a red wine.
b. If the Los Angeles Lakers are playing at home, they will be favored to win.
c. Bonds always hits a home run following an intentional walk.
d. Tuesday always follows Monday.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 210

34. The _____________ performs deductions or inferences based on rules or facts. In addition, it is capable of performing inexact or fuzzy reasoning based on probability or pattern matching.
a. inference engine
b. dialog system
c. database
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 220

35. Chaining is a simple method used by most IEs to produce a line of reasoning. Using this method the set of rules are organized in a recursive manner such that a fact concluded by one rule is used as the premise for the next. The two types of chaining bases which are possible in an ES are:
a. straight and link.
b. forward and backward.
c. upward and downward.
d. inside and outside.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 220

36. The ES component which provides the ES user with an area of working memory to use as a workspace for the various other components of the ES is the:
a. dialog system.
b. user interface.
c. knowledge base.
d. blackboard.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 222

37. Which of the following is not a candidate situation for ES opportunities?
a. Need to define a repetitive process to automate a manufacturing process
b. Need to evaluate a process
c. Need to control or govern a particular activity
d. Need to understand the nature of a given situation

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 224

38. Which of the following is a candidate situation for ES opportunities?
a. Need for diagnosis of a problem situation
b. Need to predict the outcome of a current or future event
c. Need to evaluate and assess a prior event
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 224

39. Which of the following is not a criterion for the evaluation of an expert system?
a. The system should be responsive and easy to use.
b. The knowledge base should contain generally accepted knowledge.
c. The explanatory facility should be user-friendly.
d. All of the above are criteria.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 226

40. Which of the following is a limitation associated with common ES task categories?
a. Data may be inaccurate.
b. Data may be missing.
c. Multiple symptoms can confound diagnosis.
d. All of the above are limitations.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 228

Essay Questions

41. Provide a definition for the term Expert System.

42. List and explain the different types of human reasoning processes.

43. What are the benefits of expert systems?

44. Identify eight problems or limitations associated with expert systems.

45. Define each of the following terms:
approach of the life sciences of “taking apart” living organisms to see how they work, AL attempts to “put together” systems that behave like living organisms.

Chapter 8
Knowledge Engineering and Acquisition

True-False Questions

139. Both knowledge engineers and system analysts have the same goal; to create a thorough specification of an information system that can be successfully implemented.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238

140. Knowledge engineers need to have a high degree of domain knowledge combined with a broad set of system development skills.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238

141. Each expert system is a one-of-a-kind system and its success is predicated on the skill of the KEs to extract knowledge that is deeply hidden in the mind of a human expert.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238

142. Data are facts, measurements, or observations with or without context.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

143. Apples and oranges are an example of data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

144. Information is knowledge organized in a manner as to render it useful and relevant to a problem solver in making decisions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

145. Knowledge is the application of a combination of instincts, ideas, rules, procedures, and information to guide the actions and decisions of a problem solver within a particular problem context.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

146. Knowledge is an interpretation made by the mind.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

147. If a system contains a knowledge representation, such as a model or rule set, of something, then the system itself can also be said to have knowledge, namely the knowledge embodied in that representation about that thing.

148. In the knowledge representation perspective, knowledge is seen as a set of stocks or inventories in which items are transferred from one stock to another based on process or external event.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 241

149. As the state of knowledge is increased, the chance for information overload is diminished and the quality of the knowledge is extended.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 241

150. In knowledge acquisition (KA), the elicitation, gathering, organizing, and formalization of the knowledge of experts in a specific domain is conducted with the goal of transforming that knowledge into some computer-usable representation.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 243

151. Descriptive knowledge may be analyzed using procedural knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 242

152. The acquisition of knowledge from external sources must be an active process.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 242

153. The primary functions of the performance model are to fully define the task under study, assist in the selection of the expert(s), establish the user characteristics and performance criteria for the system, and to function as an interpretive framework for protocol analysis of the experts’ responses.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 244

154. Knowledge engineer-driven acquisition is considered the most common approach to information gathering.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 245

155. Kim and Courtney proposed that knowledge be classified across strategic and performance dimensions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 245

156. When using the expert-driven approach to KA, the expert encodes his or her own expertise and knowledge and enters it directly into the computer system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 245

157. Interviewing is probably the most widely used and familiar of all KA techniques.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 247

158. Validation is concerned with whether or not the system we built conforms to its original specifications.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 254

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is an example of data?
a. 23, 24, 25
b. 30, 13, 12
c. John, Adam, Kim
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

22. Which of the following includes the application of a combination of instincts, ideas, rules and procedures to guide actions and decisions?
a. Data
b. Information
c. Knowledge
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

23. Data organized in such a manner as to render it useful and relevant to a problem solver in making decisions is referred to as:
a. Knowledge
b. Expertise
c. Information
d. Wisdom

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

24. The ____________ perspective suggests that learning is a form of knowledge production and that knowledge is “manufactured” as well as acquired. Knowledge is seen as a set of stocks or inventories in which items are transferred from one stock to another based on process or external event.
a. Knowledge representation
b. Production
c. Knowledge states
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 241

25. Which of the following is not a predominant knowledge perspective?
a. Representation
b. Analysis
c. Production
d. States

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

26. According to van Lohuizen, which of the following is not a knowledge state?
a. Data
b. Insight
c. Intuition
d. Decision

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 241

27. According to van Lohuizen, which of the following is not a knowledge state?
a. Structured information
b. Wisdom
c. Judgment
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 241

28. According to Holsapple and Whinston, which of the following is a primary knowledge type?
a. Linguistic
b. Presentation
c. Procedural
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 242

29. According to Holsapple and Whinston, which of the following is a secondary knowledge type?

a. Descriptive
b. Assimilative
c. Reasoning
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 242

30. The process by which elicitation, gathering, organizing, and formalization of the knowledge of experts in a specific domain is conducted with the goal of transforming that knowledge into some computer-usable representation is called:
a. Knowledge inference.
b. Requirements determination.
c. Knowledge acquisition.
d. Performance modeling.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 243

31. According to Kim and Courtney, knowledge acquisition can be classified across which two dimensions?
a. Statistical, tactical
b. Operational, stochastic
c. Strategic, tacit
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 245

32. The primary vehicle by which the information necessary to construct the performance model is gathered is through verbalization by the expert, often referred to as
a. political analysis.
b. knowledge engineering.
c. protocol analysis.
d. machine-driven learning.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 248

33. Which knowledge acquisition technique requires a significant amount of up-front planning?
a. Structured interviews
b. Unstructured interviews
c. General interviews
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 247

34. When using the ___________ approach to KA, the expert encodes his or her own expertise and knowledge and enters it directly into the computer system. In this regard, the expert is serving two roles: expert and KE.
a. expert-driven
b. KE-driven
c. machine-driven
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 245

35. _____________is that part of the evaluation process that focuses on the performance aspects of the knowledge base.
a. Verification
b. Efficiency
c. Validation
d. Criterion measurement

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 254

36. _____________ is concerned with whether or not we built a system that performs with an acceptable level of competence and accuracy.
a. Verification
b. Efficiency
c. Validation
d. Criterion measurement

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 254

37. Which of the following is not part of a preinterview checklist?
a. Decide what you need to know.
b. Determine the appropriate degree of structure for the interview.
c. Determine that an interview is the best method for obtaining this information.
d. All of the above are part of a preinterview checklist.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 248

38. Which of the following is a necessary task condition for successful concurrent protocols?
a. Each task must have a clearly defined conclusion.
b. The task must be able to be completed within two protocol sessions.
c. All data must be presented to the expert in a familiar form.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 250

39. The knowledge validation measure that defines how credible the knowledge is is referred to as:
a. depth.
b. breadth.
c. face validity.
d. robustness.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 254

40. The knowledge validation measure that defines the impact of changes in the knowledge base on the quality of the outputs is referred to as:
a. sensitivity.
b. appeal.
c. adaptability.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 254

Essay Questions

41. What are the three primary challenges to obtaining valid knowledge?

42. Compare KE-driven KA with expert-driven KA. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each method?

69. What are the primary functions of the task model?

70. What are the benefits and limitations of the repertory grid method of knowledge gathering?

71. Define validity and verification in the context of the knowledge base.

Chapter 9
Machines That Can Learn

True-False Questions

159. Neural computing involves processing information by means of changing states of networks formed by interconnecting extremely large numbers of simple processing elements that interact with one another by exchanging signals.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 260

160. Fuzzy logic allows for the partial description of a rule.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

161. Fuzzy logic is key to developing computers that can think.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

162. The human language has evolved to allow for the conveyance of meaning through semantic approximation rather than precise content
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

163. Fuzzy logic deals with the likelihood that something has a particular property while probability deals with the degree to which a particular property is present in something
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 261

164. Fuzzy logic is a new development in the computing industry that emerged as a result of the development of Internet search engines.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 262

165. Fuzzy logic can deal with any degree of change in input.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 262

166. When continuous variables are involved, traditional rule-based systems tend to provide more accurate results than fuzzy logic.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 264

167. Fuzzy logic allows for the modeling of contradiction within a knowledge base.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 265

168. One of the limitations of a fuzzy logic system is that each rule is dependant upon all of the other rules in the knowledge base.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 266

169. Under highly complex situations, fuzzy logic rules are highly verifiable.

170. Artificial neural networks are simple computer-based programs whose primary function is to construct models of a problem space based upon trial and error.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 266

171. The transmission of signals from one neuron to another in an artificial neural network occurs at the neural synapse via a complex chemical process in which specific substances, called neurotransmitters, are released from one side of the synaptic junction.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 266-267

172. The ANN involves an interconnected system of nodes called neurodes that are associated with one or more weighted connections that are equivalent to human neural synapses, inside the memory of a digital computer. The construction of the ANN is one of multiple layers with the connections running between the layers.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

173. The basic structure a typical neurode consists of is a set of weighted input connections, a bias input, a state function, a nonlinear transfer function, and an output connection.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 268

174. The purpose of a state function is to consolidate the weights of the various inputs to the neurode into a single value that can be passed to the transfer function for processing.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 269

175. The primary purpose of the learning paradigm is to serve as the vehicle by which the summed information is passed on as output.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 271

176. An advantage of automated neural nets is the elimination of the need for direct input from experts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 273

177. The GA’s smallest unit is called a chromosome. The chromosome represents the smallest unit of information in the problem domain and can be thought of as the basic building block for a possible solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 276

178. The GA’s smallest unit is called a gene. The gene represents the smallest unit of information in the problem domain and can be thought of as the basic building block for a possible solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 276

Multiple Choice Questions

21. ______________ is a method of reasoning that allows for the partial description of a rule. Combining this approach to reasoning with the realm of digital processors has results in a class of computer applications that can “learn” from their mistakes and can “understand” the vagaries commonly found in human thought.
a. Backward propagation
b. Forward propagation
c. Fuzzy logic
d. Neural computing

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

22. Which of the following is not true of fuzzy logic?
a. Fuzzy logic focuses on gradation.
b. Fuzzy logic utilizes precise distinction.
c. Fuzzy logic allows for the partial description of a rule.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 261

23. Which of the following is an advantage of fuzzy systems?
a. Allows for increased association amongst the rules of the system
b. Supports modeling of contradiction
c. Increase system verification capability
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 265

24. Which of the following is a disadvantage of fuzzy systems?
a. Fuzzy systems decrease system autonomy.
b. Objects in a fuzzy system can belong to multiple sets.
c. Fuzzy systems lack memory.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 265

25. A simple computer-based program whose primary function is to construct models of a problem space based upon trial and error is called a(n):
a. artificial neural network.
b. genetic algorithm.
c. decision support system.
d. data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 266

26. In the human brain, the transmission of signals from one neuron to another occurs at a junction referred to as the:
a. transmitters.
b. neurides.
c. neurodes.
d. synapses.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

27. The ANN involves an interconnected system of nodes called _________that are associated with one or more weighted connections that are equivalent to human neural synapses, inside the memory of a digital computer.
a. transmitters
b. neurides
c. neurodes
d. synapses

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 267

28. Which of the following is part of the basic structure of a neurode?
a. Bias input
b. State function
c. Nonlinear transfer function
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 268

29. The ANN layer that receives the data is referred to as the?
a. input layer.
b. output layer.
c. hidden layer.
d. neural layer.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

30. The ANN layer that relays the final results of the net is referred to as the:
a. input layer.
b. output layer.
c. hidden layer.
d. neural layer.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

31. The __________ in an ANN is where the processing and transformation of the input signal takes place and where the type of output signal is determined.
a. input layer
b. output layer
c. hidden layer
d. neural layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 267

32. The _____________ is not normally connected to the ANN and is assumed to have an input value of 1.0 for the state function. Its purpose is to allow for the individual adjustment of the firing threshold of the neurode to facilitate the final adjustment of the ANN following the learning process.
a. input layer
b. bias input
c. state function
d. output connection

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 268-269

33. The __________________’s purpose is the consolidation of the weights of the various inputs to the neurode into a single value that can be passed to the transfer function for processing. The value obtained determines the degree of impact the combined inputs will have on the transfer function and, thus, on the final output of the neurode.
a. input layer
b. bias input
c. state function
d. output connection

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 269

34. The function in an ANN which serves as the vehicle by which the summed information is passed on as output is called the:
a. transfer function.
b. state function.
c. memory function.
d. neural function.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 269

35. The actual procedure used by a neural network to find the appropriate weight settings is referred to as its:
a. transfer function.
b. state function.
c. weight seeking function.
d. learning paradigm.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 271

36. Which of the following is not a benefit derived from neural computing?
a. Reduced need for experts.
b. Allows for generalization from specific information content.
c. Highly verifiable, especially for complex problems.
d. All of the above are benefits.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 273

37. Which of the following are limitations of neural computing?
a. ANNs cannot explain inferences.
b. The repetitive training process is often time consuming.
c. Neural computing technologies push the limits of their hardware.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 274

38. A computer program that employs a set of adaptive processes that mimic the concept of “survival of the fittest” by regenerating recombinants of itself in response to a calculated difference between the network’s guess and the desired solution state is known as a:
a. neural network.
b. artificial life system.
c. genetic algorithm.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 276

39. In a genetic algorithm, the smallest unit of information in the problem domain is called a:
a. chromosome.
b. gene.
c. neuron.
d. synapse.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 276

40. Which of the following is not a genetic algorithm operational process?
a. Evaluation
b. Initialization
c. Mutation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 277, 279

Essay Questions

41. Define neural computing.

42. Explain the similarities and the differences between fuzziness and probability.

72. List the benefits of neural computing.

73. List the limitations of neural computing.

74. What is the primary advantage that Genetic Algorithms have over Artificial Neural Networks?

Chapter 10
The Data Warehouse

True-False Questions

179. According to Inmon, a data warehouse is a subject-oriented, integrated database designed to support DSS functions where the data is volatile and relevant.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 295

180. A data warehouse is typically physically separated from transaction processing systems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

181. Only a small fraction of the data that is captured, processed and stored in the enterprise is actually ever made available to executives and decision makers.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

182. The most common component of a data warehouse environment is the operational data store.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

183. A data mart is a subset of a data warehouse.

184. The essence of the data warehouse concept is a recognition that the characteristics and usage patterns of operational systems used to automate business processes and those of a DSS are fundamentally similar and symbiotically linked.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 295

185. One difference between data warehouses and operational data stores is the presence of metadata.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 297

186. Metadata are data about data.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 297

187. Metadata are detailed data that has been aggregated and condensed into a more useful form.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 297

188. The very essence of the DW environment is that the data contained within the boundaries of the warehouse are integrated. This integration manifests itself through consistency in naming convention and measurement attributes, accuracy, and common aggregation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 299

189. The time horizon for data in the data warehouse is typically significantly longer than operational data sores.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 301

190. One of the benefits of integrated data is the establishment of a common unit of measure for all synonymous data elements from dissimilar databases.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 300

191. According to Inmon, because data warehouses are highly de-normalized, they are highly redundant.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 303

192. One objective of the data warehouse environment is to minimize the impact on operational systems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 303

193. The end user in a data warehouse environment deals directly with the application messaging layer.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

194. The process management layer in a data warehouse can be thought of as a scheduler.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 305

195. The processes needed to prepare the data to be loaded into a data warehouse are performed in the data staging layer.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

196. A data warehouse topology requires a centralized data warehouse that is accessed by one or more decision support tools.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 306

197. One of the most important factors in the development of a data warehouse is a comprehensive architectural framework.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 313

198. Transformation mapping metadata records how data from operational data stores and external sources are transformed on the way into the warehouse.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 310

Multiple Choice Questions

21. The most common component in the DW environment is the _____________. Its primary day-to-day function is to store the data for a single, specific set of operational applications.
a. data mart
b. data warehouse
c. operational data store
d. data staging tables

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

22. Which of the following is not true of a data warehouse?
a. Implicit in its definition is that the data warehouse is physically separated from all other operational systems.
b. The data warehouse replaces the need for all other reporting systems within an organization.
c. The data warehouse holds aggregated data and atomic data for management.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 295

23. An alternative to the data warehouse concept is a lower-cost, scaled-down version referred to as a:
a. data mart.
b. metadata warehouse.
c. operational data store.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 296

24. Which of the following is not true of a data mart?
a. The data mart is often viewed as a way to gain entry into the realm of data warehouses and to make the mistakes on a smaller scale.
b. Vendors of data warehouse applications have found it easier to deal with a small group of isolated users than with the IS department of an entire organization.
c. The data mart is more efficient than a fully-developed data warehouse.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 296

25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a data warehouse?
a. Data integrated
b. Volatile
c. Subject oriented
d. Time variant

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 298

26. The essence of the data warehouse environment is that the data contained within the boundaries of the warehouse are _____________
a. integrated
b. consistent
c. streamlined
d. accurate

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 299

27. The concept of time variant data implies which of the following statements?
a. Data are simply assumed to be accurate as of some moment in time and not necessarily right now.
b. Data are assumed to be accurate at the moment they were loaded into the data warehouse.
c. Data are assumed to vary over time.
d. Both a and b

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 301

28. Which of the following activities would not normally be associated with a data warehouse?
a. Loading
b. Updating
c. Accessing
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 302

29. The _______________________ represents the source data for the DW. This layer is comprised, primarily, of operational transaction processing systems and external secondary databases.
a. information access layer
b. operational and external layer
c. data access layer
d. process management layer

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 303

30. Which layer of the data warehouse architecture does the end user deal directly with?
a. Data access layer
b. Application messaging layer
c. Information access layer
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 303

31. The ______________ serves as a sort of interface or middleman between the operational and information access layers and the data warehouse itself. This layer spans the various databases contained within the DW and facilitates common access by the DW users.
a. data access layer
b. application messaging layer
c. information access layer
d. none of the above

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 304

32. Which of the following would not be a good example of metadata?
a. the directory of where the data is stored
b. the rules used for summarization and scrubbing
c. where the operational data came from
d. all of the above are examples of metadata

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 307

33. Which layer within the data warehouse architecture focuses on scheduling tasks that must be accomplished to build and maintain the data warehouse and data directory information?
a. data access layer
b. process management layer
c. application messaging layer
d. none of the above

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

34. Which of the following is a valid data warehouse configuration?
a. Centralized data warehouse
b. Virtual data warehouse
c. Distributed data warehouse
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 306

35. The _____________________ has to do with transporting information around the enterprise computing network. This layer is also referred to as the “middleware,” but it can typically involve more that just networking protocols and request routing.
a. application messaging layer
b. process management layer
c. data access layer
d. information access layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

36. The ____________________ is where the actual data used for decision support throughout the organization are located.
a. information access layer
b. operational and external layer
c. physical data warehouse layer
d. process management layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

37. The final component of the DWA is the __________________. This layer includes all of the processes necessary to select, edit, summarize, combine and load data warehouse and information access data from operational and/or external databases.
a. data staging layer
b. operational and external layer
c. physical data warehouse layer
d. process management layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

38. The process that records how data from operational data stores and external sources are transformed on the way into the warehouse is referred to as:
a. summarization algorithms.
b. transformation mapping.
c. back propagation.
d. extraction history.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 310

39. The _____________________ applied to the detail data are of importance to any decision maker analyzing or interpreting the meaning of the summaries. These metadata can also save time by making it easier to decide which level of summarization is most appropriate for a given analysis context.
a. summarization algorithms
b. transformation mapping
c. back propagation
d. extraction history

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 311

40. Whenever historical information is analyzed, meticulous update records must be kept. Often a decision maker will begin the process of constructing a time-based report by reviewing the ________________ because any changes to the business rules must be ascertained in order to apply the right rules to the right data.
a. summarization algorithms
b. transformation mapping
c. back propagation
d. extraction history

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 310-311

Essay Questions

41. What are the seven deadly sins of data warehouse implementation?

42. What are the characteristics of a data warehouse?

75. What is a data warehouse?

76. List and explain the different layers in the data warehouse architecture.

77. What are metadata? Why are they so important to a data warehouse?

Chapter 11
Data Mining and Data Visualization

True-False Questions

199. Data mining is a set of activities used to find new, hidden, or unexpected patterns in data.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

200. A synonym for data mining is information sifting and discovery (ISD).
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

201. Data mining is a business solution, not a technology.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 327

202. One of the primary reasons for the rise in data mining popularity is the ever-increasing volume of data that require processing.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 328

203. The broad category of software decision-making technology that enables multidimensional analysis is referred to as OLAP.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 329

204. ROLAP organizes and analyzes data as an n-dimensional cube. The ROLAP cube can be conceptually thought of as a common spreadsheet with two extensions: (1) support for multiple dimensions and (2) support for multiple concurrent users.

205. One of the primary advantages of ROLAP versus MOLAP is it results in performance improvements for data access.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 331

206. MOLAP provides support for concurrent users.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 331

207. Sparcity can significantly increase the storage requirements of a MOLAP hypercube by requiring that space be allocated for all cells rather than just the ones that contain data values.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

208. MOLAP is well-suited to handle large numbers of detailed data.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 331

209. ROLAP databases typically contain both summary and detail data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

210. The ROLAP structure contains a large number of normalized tables.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 332

211. The central table in a star schema is a dimension table.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 332

212. Data mining methods can be classified in two ways: by the function they perform or by their class of application.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 333

213. The classification approach to data mining searches all details or transactions from operational systems for patterns with a high probability of repetition.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 333

214. The association approach to data mining is intended to discover rules that define whether an item or event belongs to a particular subset of data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 333

215. The sequencing approach to data mining relates events in time, based on a series of preceding events.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

216. The clustering approach to data mining is useful when there is a need to create partitions in order to discover patterns in the data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 335

217. Data mining does not use statistical techniques because the complex patterns in data do not lend themselves to linear regression analysis.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 336

218. Two new categories of data mining are text mining and Web mining.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 338

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is a synonym for data mining?
a. Knowledge data discovery
b. Information analysis
c. Coal mining
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

22. Which of the following is not true of data mining?
a. Data mining has seen explosive growth in the area of customer relationship management.
b. Data mining is a business solution.
c. Data mining is a technology.
d. None of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 327

23. The set of activities used to find new, hidden, or unexpected patterns in data is referred to as:
a. data warehousing.
b. data mining.
c. data transformation.
d. data aggregation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

24. Which of the following is a reason for the growth in popularity of data mining?
a. Increased volume of data
b. Increased awareness of the inadequacy of the human brain to process multifactorial dependencies or correlations
c. Increased affordability of machine learning
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 328

25. The term _________ has been generally agreed to represent the broad category of software technology that enables decision makers to conduct multidimensional analysis of consolidated enterprise data.
a. OLAP
b. MOLAP
c. ROLAP
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 329

26. ____________organizes and analyzes data as an n-dimensional cube. The cube can be thought of as a common spreadsheet with two extensions: (1) support for multiple dimensions and (2) support for multiple concurrent users.
a. OLAP
b. MOLAP
c. ROLAP
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 331

27. In _____________, the multidimensional database server is replaced with a large relational database server. This “super” relational database will contain both detailed and summarized data thus allowing for “drill down” techniques to be applied to the data sets.
a. OLAP
b. MOLAP
c. ROLAP
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 331

28. In a ________________, the data are stored as a multidimensional array where each cell in the array represents the intersection of all of the dimensions. Using this approach, any number of dimensions may be analyzed simultaneously and any number of multidimensional views of the data can be created.
a. hyperion cube
b. hypercube
c. stochastic cube
d. correlation cube

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

29. Which term is used to refer to a basic database operation that links rows of two or more tables by one or more columns in each table?
a. n-cube analysis
b. table link
c. table join
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

30. Which of the following is at the center of a star schema?
a. Multi dimensional cube
b. Dimension table
c. Fact table
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 332

31. Which of the following is not considered one of the four major categories of processing algorithms and rule approaches?
a. Classification
b. Association
c. Sequence
d. Principal components analysis

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 333

32. Which data mining technique utilizes linkage analysis to search operational transactions for patterns with a high probability of repetition?
a. Association
b. Cluster
c. Sequence
d. Principal components analysis

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

33. There are some cases where it is difficult or impossible to define the parameters of a class of data to be analyzed. In these cases, _____________ methods can be used to create partitions so that all members of each set are similar according to some metric or set of metrics thus creating a set of objects grouped together by virtue of their similarity or proximity to each other.
a. association
b. linkage analysis
c. sequencing
d. clustering

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 335

34. ___________________ methods are used to relate events in time, such as the prediction of interest rate fluctuations or stock performance, based on a series of preceding events. Through this analysis, various hidden trends can be discovered that are often highly predictive of future events.
a. Association
b. Linkage analysis
c. Sequencing
d. Clustering

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

35. Which of the following is not a data mining technology?
a. Statistical analysis
b. Neural networks
c. Decision trees
d. All of the above are data mining technologies.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 336

36. A common example of the use of association methods where a retailer can mine the data generated by a point-of-sale system, such as the price scanner you are familiar with at the grocery store is referred to as:
a. sequencing.
b. linkage analysis.
c. clustering.
d. market basket analysis.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

37. The process by which numerical data is converted into meaningful images is referred to as:
a. data mining.
b. data warehousing.
c. data visualization.
d. data aggregation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 351

38. Which of the following is not an advantage of market basket analysis?
a. Identifying which products sell together can help manage inventory.
b. It is more preferable to marketers to market to existing customers.
c. Market basket analysis can sometimes produce results that are due to prior marketing campaigns.
d. All of the above are advantages.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 345

39. An orderly hierarchy of items and item categories that divides each item into a basket analysis is referred to as a:
a. cluster analysis.
b. taxonomy.
c. multi dimensional market basket analysis.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 348

40. Which of the following is a limitation of data mining?
a. Identification of missing data
b. Data noise
c. Missing values
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pps. 350-351

Essay Questions

41. What are Codd’s twelve rules for OLAP?

42. What are the current limitations and challenges to data mining?

78. List and briefly describe several data mining technologies.

79. Describe how relational on-line analytical processing (ROLAP) works.

80. Explain the concept of multidimensional on-line analytical processing (MOLAP).

Chapter 12
Designing and Building the Data Warehouse

True-False Questions

219. The first step in planning a data warehouse is to define the information requirements of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 383

220. The enterprise model consists of a number of separate models integrated together to provide a comprehensive view of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

221. The corporate process model describes the entities generated by the elementary processes carried out by the enterprise.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

222. The corporate data model represents a highly structured description of the elementary processes within the enterprise that identify the interrelationships among the different processes.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

223. The long term benefit of an enterprise data warehouse is the increased integration of business processes throughout the organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 384

224. A top-down data warehouse design focuses on making use of data available in the current operational systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 384-385

225. A bottom-up approach to data warehouse brings more benefit to a data warehouse project than a top-down approach.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385

226. Horizontal integration is the means by which the application designer ensures that the software application is congruent with the stated business requirements.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385

227. Enterprise integration ensures that each application is fully integrated within its own boundaries.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385

228. Vertical integration ensures that consistent data definitions occur across the entire organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 386

229. One of the most significant data warehouse critical success factors is strong management support.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 386

230. Organizational culture can have an impact on their readiness to develop a data warehouse because data warehouse development implies cross departmental cooperation and information sharing.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 388

231. One common approach to data warehouse project prioritization is to rank initiatives by impact on the information technology organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 390

232. One low cost approach to determining data warehouse feasibility is to develop a proof of concept.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 391

233. When the initial scope of a project continues to expand to incorporate new features this is referred to as feature expansion.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 392

234. The first step in developing a data warehouse is to determine the project scope.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 392

235. A project benefit that can be identified with certainty and expressed in dollars is said to be an intangible benefit.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 396

236. The ability to introduce new products would be considered an intangible project benefit.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 396

237. The ability to be proactive in identifying legal issues, thereby foregoing potential financial penalties that might impact a firm would be considered an intangible project benefit.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 397

238. Economic feasibility measures share one concept in common – the time value of money.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 399

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following data warehouse design approaches implies a strategic rather than operational perspective?
a. Bottom-up approach
b. Top-down approach
c. Central approach
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

22. When the application designer ensures that the software application is in harmony with the business requirements, this is referred to as:
a. horizontal integration.
b. vertical integration.
c. enterprise integration.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 385

23. _________ seeks to ensure that each application under development is fully integrated within its own boundaries and to eliminate any inconsistencies in the final software product.
a. Horizontal integration
b. Vertical integration
c. Enterprise integration
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 385

24. __________ ensures that there is consistent definition of data and processes across the organization.
a. Horizontal integration
b. Vertical integration
c. Enterprise integration
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 386

25. Which of the following is not a data warehouse project readiness assessment factor?
a. Strong sponsorship
b. A compelling business motivation
c. An analytic organizational culture
d. All of the above are factors.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 386-388

26. Which of the following is considered a key question to the success of a data warehouse initiative?
a. What are the key performance indicators used for each of the key business initiatives?
b. What is the potential impact on each of the existing performance metrics with improved access to higher-quality business process information?
c. What does management consider to be the key strategic business initiatives?
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 390

27. Which of the following is considered to be a project prioritization dimension?
a. Perceived impact on the core business
b. Economic impact on the IT organization
c. Feasibility of staffing the project internally
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 390

28. Which term refers to the process of developing a relatively low cost prototype to demonstrate that a data warehouse will achieve the perceived benefits?
a. Proof of prototype
b. Proof of concept
c. Proof of benefit
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 391

29. __________ occurs when the initial scope of a project continues to expand as new features are incorporated into the project.
a. Feature creep
b. Hope creep
c. Scope creep
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 392

30. Which of the following refers to a perspective from which an argument to pursue an investment can be made?
a. Faith
b. Fear
c. Facts
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 394

31. Despite increased spending in information technology productivity growth in the U.S. has been stagnant or weak. This phenomenon is referred to as:
a. technology paradox.
b. productivity paradox.
c. productivity paradigm.
d. technology paradigm.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 394

32. A(n) ________ benefit can be identified with certainty and is easily expressed in dollars.
a. intangible
b. tangible
c. enterprise
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 396

33. A(n) _________ benefit can be directly associated with a project but is not easily expressed in dollars.
a. intangible
b. tangible
c. enterprise
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 396

34. Which of the following is not a tangible benefit?
a. Increase in process quality
b. Reduction in employee turnover
c. Improving time to market
d. Decreased need for travel

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 396

35. Which of the following is not an intangible benefit?
a. Development of new markets
b. Increased competitive advantage
c. More timely information
d. Increased workplace safety

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 397

36. Which of the following is an economic feasibility measure?
a. Net present value
b. Breakeven analysis
c. Internal rate of return
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 399

37. Which economic feasibility measure results in a return on investment expressed as an interest rate?
a. Net present value
b. Breakeven analysis
c. Internal rate of return
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 402

38. ____________ determines the point where the benefits of a project equal its costs.
a. Net present value
b. Breakeven analysis
c. Internal rate of return
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 402

39. Joining a fact table to dimension tables in a star schema is referred to as a:
a. star join.
b. data mart.
c. fact analysis.
d. dimensional warehouse.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 407

40. ___________ determines exactly what constitutes a fact record.
a. Star schema
b. Degree of granularity
c. Data mart analysis
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 410

Essay Questions

41. Describe the two main components of an enterprise model.

42. Define three levels of enterprise integration.

81. Distinguish between tangible and intangible benefits.

82. What are the benefits realized through a sound data warehouse architecture?

83. List the guidelines for a successful data warehouse project.

Chapter 13
Decisions in the Organization

True-False Questions

239. A system can be defined as a series of interrelated elements with an identifiable boundary, that work together to achieve a common goal.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

240. The concept of synergy states that the whole is equal to the sum of the parts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

241. A system contains three components: interrelated elements, internal inputs, and subsystems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

242. Another name for a system element is a subsystem.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

243. Boundaries imply that systems can be distinguished via their relationship to other systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 425

244. Elements that are not contained within the boundary of a system are part of the system environment.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 425

245. The system environment is not part of the system itself.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 425

246. A self contained system that has very little interaction with the external environment is referred to as an adaptive system.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 427

247. Closed systems are perpetual and self-sustaining.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 427

248. Open systems adapt both internally and externally.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 427

249. Function composition is the process of breaking down systems into more discreet subsystems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 428

250. A DSS is considered to be a closed system because all of the data stores used are self-contained.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 430

251. One of the advantages of a DSS is that the end-user is always contained with the boundaries of the system, resulting in greater system control.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 430

252. A service level agreement provides a detailed description of each service provision along with reporting requirements for each party to the agreement.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 434

253. Information relevance is synonymous with information precision.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 436

254. The standard for information to be considered timely is that it must be available to the user within 48 hours.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 437

255. Information consistency refers to how quickly and easily its intended user can figure out what to do with it.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 438

256. Information system architecture is a detailed plan that addresses the make, model and characteristics of each physical unit in a system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

257. One of the unique features of a DSS is that the data is highly specialized and rarely used by anyone other than the person who created it.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 440

258. Scalability is the degree to which a platform can be expanded to accommodate increases in processing requirements.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following describes the term synergy?
a. The whole is greater than the sum of the parts.
b. The whole is equal to the sum of the parts.
c. A well defined DSS will result in performance improvements.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

22. Elements is a system are also referred to as:
a. models.
b. subsystems.
c. boundaries.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

23. _________ and ________ are common classifications of systems.
a. Internal, external
b. Inside, outside
c. Open, closed
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 426

24. Which term best describes a mechanistic system?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Closed
d. Open

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 426

25. Which term best describes an adaptive system?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Closed
d. Open

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 427

26. Which type of system tends to be less structured in its operation?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Closed
d. Open

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 427

27. The process of continually redefining a system into smaller, more discrete subsystems in referred to as:
a. system identification.
b. functional decomposition.
c. requirements definition.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 428

28. Which of the following is not true of a DSS?
a. A DSS is usually associated with more than one data store.
b. A DSS usually serves more end users than a typical transactional system.
c. A DSS can be controlled by its end users.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 430

29. Which of the following is not needed to define a DSS?
a. The objectives of the DSS application.
b. The definition of the data that resides within the boundaries of the DSS.
c. The definition of the temporal processes contained within the DSS.
d. All of the above are needed.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 431

30. Which of the following is true of a service level agreement?
a. It defines both the scope and level of service expected by the users of the service.
b. it includes a detailed description of each aspect of the service.
c. It identifies reporting obligations for all parties to the service.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 434

31. Which of the following is not a factor in determining information quality?
a. Relevance
b. Accuracy
c. Precision
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 436

32. Which of the following is not a factor in determining information quality?
a. Usability
b. Cost
c. Correctness
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 438-439

33. Information that matches the needs of the decision maker is said to be:
a. timely.
b. accurate.
c. relevant.
d. precise.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 435

34. __________ refers to the maximum accuracy with which a piece of information can be represented.
a. Correctness
b. Precision
c. Consistency
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 436

35. ___________ is the degree to which similar pieces of information are stored and presented in a similar and predictable fashion.
a. Consistency
b. Precision
c. Accuracy
d. Relevance

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 438

36. Which of the following is not an issue to be considered in the definition of DSS architecture?
a. Interoperability
b. Scalability
c. Compatibility
d. All of the above are issues to consider.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

37. Which of the following refers to the degree to which information can be delivered to the exact locus of a decision?
a. Interoperability
b. Compatibility
c. Scalability
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

38. DSS _________ is a cost reduction issue, supporting the growth of a platform as system requirements change.
a. interoperability
b. compatibility
c. scalability
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 440

39. The issue of ________ focuses on the degree to which a DSS under design will interact effectively with other organizational systems.
a. interoperability
b. compatibility
c. scalability
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 440

40. Which of the following is included within a well-defined DSS architecture?
a. Databases
b. Models
c. Administration tools
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 442

Essay Questions

41. List the elements of a well-defined DSS architecture.

42. Briefly describe three issues that affect DSS information system architecture.

84. Briefly define a system.

85. Distinguish between a closed system and an open system.

86. List 8 factors that affect information quality.

Chapter 14
Designing and Building Decision Support Systems

True-False Questions

259. Because there is no one best DSS, it stands to reason that there is no one best way to design and build one either.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 450

260. Because of the unique requirements of a DSS, the only way to construct one is with a DSS generator.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 450

261. A DSS generator is an application system that eliminates the need for programming of thousands of individual instructions or codes in the design and construction of a DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 451

262. A common perspective with regard to system design and development is found in the system development life cycle (SDLC) approach. The SDLC portrays the process as a series of iterative and recursive phases, each with its own set of required inputs, activities, and deliverables.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 452

263. The primary advantage of an SLDC approach to DSS design is that it is the most adaptive methodology to handle the sometimes rapidly changing system specifications.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 453

264. An alternative to the SDLC approach is ROMC Analysis. This approach focuses the analysis effort on developing understandings of read operations (R), overflows (O), memory maps (M), and continuous data flow (C).
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 453

265. Functional category analysis results in the design of a DSS from the categorization of end-user interviews.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 454

266. Three primary categories of system requirements for the DSS can be established: (1) functional requirements, (2) interface requirements, and (3) coordination requirements.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 457

267. The functional requirements for the DSS focus on the DSS’s capacity for storage, recall, and production of knowledge useful to the problem context.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

268. The coordination requirements focus on the communication capabilities of the DSS. During this phase, the designer must determine the various channels and methods of communication that will be made available to the DSS user and the conditions under which they will be made available.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

269. The determination of specific physical components, structure, and development platforms is made during the system construction stage of the DSS development process.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

270. The goal of the system implementation phase is to test, evaluate, and deploy a fully functional and documented DSS. During this phase, a major activity is the final determination and evaluation of the degree to which the DSS meets the users’ needs.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 458

271. The DSS developer must possess the knowledge to develop the computer-based application but normally does not need to be knowledgeable about the details surrounding the problem under study.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 459

272. Two basic types of prototyping have proved effective in the development of DSSs: iterative prototypes and reusable prototypes.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 460

273. Prototyping can be beneficial in the development of a DSS because the immediate nature of user response and feedback regarding system functionality can result in greater senior management support.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 461

274. End users are those individuals who fall outside the confines of the formally defined IS department or function within an organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 463

275. An advantage of end-user development DSS applications is a reduction in time to deliver resulting in lower cost.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 464

276. An area of risk with end-user developed DSS applications is a potential lack of security measures built into the system.

277. The concept of the information center (IC) arose to address the need for end-user support in the design and development of computer-based applications.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 465

278. DSS development tools are classified as either primary development tools or DSS generators.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 466

Multiple Choice Questions

21. An application system that eliminates the need for programming of thousands of individual instructions or code in the design and construction of a DSS is called a(n):
a. DSS development system.
b. DSS generator.
c. DSS analyzer.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 451

22. A common perspective with regard to system design and development is found in the _____________ approach which portrays the process as a series of iterative and recursive phases, each with its own set of required inputs, activities, and deliverables.
a. DSS programming language
b. ROMC
c. SDLC
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 452

23. Which of the following is not true of the SDLC approach in DSS development?
a. It brings a necessary structure and discipline to the DSS development process.
b. It is flexible in its development approach.
c. It is common where formal relationships exist between the developer and end user.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 453

24. An alternative to the SDLC approach which focuses the analysis effort on developing understandings of representations, operations, memory aids, and controls is called:
a. SDLC II.
b. ROMC.
c. RAID.
d. CSF.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 453

25. A methodology for the design of a DSS that focuses on the identification of specific functions necessary for the development of a particular DSS from a broad list of available functions including selection, aggregation, estimation, simulation, equalization, and optimization is called:
a. functional category analysis.
b. ROMC.
c. SDLC.
d. SDLC II.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 454

26. Which of the following would not be considered a primary category of the systems analysis phase of DSS development?
a. Functional requirements
b. Interface requirements
c. Technical requirements
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 457

27. The set of specifications for the DSS which focuses on the DSS’s capacity for storage, recall, and production of knowledge useful to the problem context is known as the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

28. The requirements which focus on the communication capabilities of the DSS are called the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

29. The requirements for a DSS that include the timing of events associated with the decision-making process, the facilitation of the access to relevant information, and the integration of various modeling tools contained with the DSS are called the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

30. Which design phase uses iterative prototyping to make refinements to the system based upon feedback received from testing and user involvement?
a. System design
b. System construction
c. Implementation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 457-458

31. Which of the following would be an example of a coordination requirement?
a. The need to update sale projections for prior fiscal periods to actual figures before initiating a future projection process
b. The need to provide a graphic interface to the user
c. The need for a powerful server
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

32. The determination of specific physical components, structure, and development platforms is made during the __________stage of the DSS development process.
a. system design
b. system requirements
c. system construction
d. implementation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 457

33. The goal of the _________________ phase is to test, evaluate, and deploy a fully functional and documented DSS. During this phase, a major activity is the final determination and evaluation of the degree to which the DSS meets the users’ needs.
a. system design
b. system construction
c. system implementation
d. incremental adaptation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 458

34. The final stage in the DSS development process is ________. It involves the continual revisiting of the activities from earlier stages in an effort to the capabilities of the DSS based upon the knowledge gained as a result of its use.
a. system requirements revision
b. system installation
c. system implementation
d. incremental adaptation

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 458

35. Which of the following is true of the DSS development process?
a. More often than not the problem context is not known to the user.
b. The decision making process tends to vary greatly.
c. Prototyping is typically an expedient method of defining DSS requirements.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 459

36. Which of the following is not a prototyping classification?
a. Iterative
b. ROMC analyzed
c. Throwaway
d. All of the above are prototype classifications.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 460

37. Which of the following is true of prototyping?
a. It typically results in a lower development cost than an SDLC approach.
b. It typically results in a quicker development time than an SDLC approach.
c. In the early stages it is very similar to the SDLC approach.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 461

38. Which of the following is not true of an end-user developed DSS?
a. They are typically created in less time.
b. They typically have less implementation problems.
c. They typically result in lower development cost.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 464

39. The ___________________ are the lowest level of DSS development technology. In this category, we find the programming languages, code and text editors, graphics development applications, and database query mechanisms employed during the development of either a DSS generator or a specific DSS application.
a. primary development tools
b. DSS generators
c. specific DSS applications
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 467

40. The _____________ are packages of hardware/software which provide a set of capabilities to build a specific DSS quickly and easily.
a. primary development tools
b. DSS generators
c. specific DSS applications
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 467

Essay Questions

41. List the processes in the SDLC approach to DSS application development.

42. Describe the functional category analysis approach. What is its most significant benefit?

87. What are the strengths and weaknesses of the traditional SDLC approach?

88. List and briefly describe the two types of prototypes. Compare their advantages and limitations.

89. List the factors that are related to the quality of the user interface.

Chapter 15
Implementing and Integrating Decision Support Systems

True-False Questions

279. Implementation is probably the most important and critical step in the entire DSS design process because without a successful implementation, the greatest DSS ever created will go unused or even unnoticed.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 478

280. Implementation is a static process, occurring at the end of DSS development.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 479

281. The Lewin-Schein theory of change is structured and rigid.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 479

282. The essence of the Kolb-Frohman model is the assumption that the probability of successful implementation will result from a specific pattern of actions by the users and managers.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 479

283. Alter suggested that the initial impetus behind the development of a DSS can be categorized via: (1) user stimulus, (2) managerial stimulus and (3) environmental stimulus.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 481

284. The Service with a Smile implementation pattern is the most common approach for a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 482

285. The logic behind user satisfaction as a measure of success is that the users will view a DSS as favorable if it is perceived to be effective in supporting the decision-making process. The more effective the system appears to be, the more satisfied the users will be with the system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 485

286. The number of times a DSS was accessed is the most effective metric of its success.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 485

287. Davis developed a method of measuring user satisfaction of information systems based upon perceived usefulness and perceived ease of use.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 485

288. Perceived usefulness focuses on the attitudes of the user with regard to the degree to which the system is perceived to bring utility or value to the activity within which it is used.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

289. Perceived ease-of-use focuses on the degree to which the users of the system perceive the task to be easy to do.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

290. One method of assessing the success of a DSS is to focus on the technical functionality of the system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 486

291. Utilizing the ratio of direct cost to direct benefit is an example of using organizational success measures to assess a DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 486

292. Integrating the DSS into the organization simply means that the new application is merged into the existing computing infrastructure such that the appearance of a seamless architecture appears to the user.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

293. In functional integration, the various decision support functions with the DSS are integrated and linked to those of the existing infrastructure. This linking includes providing common menu access, inter- and intra-application transfer of data and tools, and a common application interface at the same desktop client or workstation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

294. Physical integration involves the architectural bundling of the hardware, software, and data communication characteristics associated with the new DSS into the existing set of physical systems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 494

295. Physical integration can begin before a DSS is designed.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

296. One of the least common problems faced during the implementation and integration of virtually any computer-based information system, including DSS, is the resistance by certain individuals or groups to the changes associated with the new system.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 495

297. Resistance to change can result from a number of different factors, including fear of the unknown.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 495

298. Managers represent the single resistance group to the implementation of a DSS, because they fear a loss of importance.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 497

Multiple Choice Questions

21. _________________ is probably the most important and critical step in the entire DSS design process because without its success, the greatest DSS ever created will go unused or even unnoticed.
a. Design
b. Implementation
c. Requirements Analysis
d. Physical Design

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 478

22. According to this theory, the process of change occurs in three basic steps: unfreezing, moving, and refreezing.
a. Kolb-Frohman
b. Structuration
c. Contingency
d. Lewin-Schein

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 479

23. Which of the following is not a step in the Kolb-Frohman theory of change?
a. Scouting
b. Entry
c. Diagnosis
d. Refreezing

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 481

24. According to Alter, which of the following is not a DSS development category impetus?
a. Entrepreneurial stimulus
b. User stimulus
c. Managerial stimulus
d. Environmental stimulus

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 481

25. One common measure of success suggests that users will view a DSS as favorable if it is seen as effective in supporting the decision-making process. This measure is known as:
a. perceived usefulness.
b. perceived ease of use.
c. user satisfaction.
d. system use.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

26. The ________________ construct focuses on the attitudes of the user with regard to the degree to which the system is perceived to bring utility or value to the activity within which it is used.
a. perceived usefulness
b. perceived ease-of-use
c. user satisfaction
d. system use

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

27. The ________________ construct focuses on the degree to which the users of the system perceive the tool to be easy to use.
a. perceived usefulness
b. perceived ease-of-use
c. user satisfaction
d. system use

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

28. Which DSS implementation pattern is associated with high levels of user involvement and initiation?
a. Join hands and circle around
b. Service with a smile
c. R&D
d. Used car salesperson

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 482

29. Which DSS implementation pattern is characterized by a consultant attempting to sell the need for a DSS to the user?
a. Join hands and circle around
b. Service with a smile
c. R&D
d. Used car salesperson

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 483

30. Which DSS implementation pattern is associated with users who are looking to buy a product?
a. Join hands and circle around
b. Service with a smile
c. R&D
d. Used car salesperson

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 482

31. Which of the following is not a criterion for DSS success?
a. Fits well with the organization’s planning methods.
b. Fits well with the political approach to decision making within the organization.
c. Is considered both cost effective and valuable relative to its development costs.
d. All of the above are DSS success criteria.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 487

32. In this system measurement category, the quality of the computer system becomes the focus. Issues such as response time, system availability, usage time, reliability, and quality of system support, among others are identified and measured. Measures in this category can be obtained using a variety of methods including direct observation, event logging, and attitude or perceptual construct surveys.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 487

33. This category of assessment takes a micro focus on performance and addresses issues related to the functionality of the DSS within the specific problem context for which it was developed. Decision quality can be assessed in terms of time spent in the decision process, number of alternatives evaluated, and span of information searched. Additionally, qualitative measures dealing with trust or confidence, satisfaction, and understanding, can also be included in this measure.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 488

34. This category measures the factors that contribute to the organizational aspects of the DSS. This category is primarily quantitative in nature and includes measures focusing on increases in revenue, cost reductions, increases in training effectiveness, increases in competitive advantages, and changes in productivity, among many others.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 488

35. The degree to which the DSS adapts to changes within the problem context and environment is the focus of this category of performance measurement. Inherent in providing support to ill-structured decisions and problem-solving tasks are the changes that can occur in the users’ decision-making behavior, problem characteristics, and circumstances. The ability of a DSS to adapt to these dynamics is often a function of the original development tool selected and the ability of the user to make necessary changes to data or models.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 488

36. Which of the following takes a process-centric perspective with regard to the design of an information system and its associated applications?
a. DSS management
b. Issue-based management
c. Process based management
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 489

37. The process by which the new DSS application is merged into the existing computing infrastructure such that the appearance of a seamless architecture appears to the user is called:
a. design.
b. maintenance.
c. implementation.
d. integration.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 494

38. In __________ integration, the various decision support functions with the DSS are integrated and linked to those of the existing infrastructure. This linking includes providing common menu access, inter- and intra-application transfer of data and tools, and a common application interface at the same desktop client or workstation.
a. physical
b. functional
c. technical
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

39. _________________ integration involves the architectural bundling of the hardware, software, and data communication characteristics associated with the new DSS into the existing set of physical systems.
a. Physical
b. Functional
c. Technical
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

40. Which of the following is a factor that can lead to resistance to change within an organization?
a. Fear of the unknown
b. Differing perceptions
c. Conservationism
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 496

Essay Questions

41. Define the Lewin-Schein Change Theory.

1.
42. What are the seven steps of the process of change in the Kolb-Frohman Model?

90. List and briefly describe the six generic DSS implementation patterns.

91. List seven characteristics of overall software quality.

92. Identify the factors that cause organizational resistance to change.

Chapter 16

Creative Decision Making and Problem Solving
True-False Questions

299. Creativity involves the translation of our unique gifts, talents, and vision into some form of external reality that is both new and useful.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 504

300. Creativity can involve the combining of existing objects intended for one purpose into some other completely different purpose.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 504

301. Intelligence combines thinking and learning.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 505

302. The psychoanalytic perspective maintains that creativity is a preconscious mental activity. In other words, creative thinking occurs in our subconscious thoughts and, as such, is not directly accessible to our conscious thoughts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 508

303. Creativity in problem solving and planning can be defined as the ability of a subject in a choice situation to modify self-imposed constraints so as to enable him to select courses of action that he would otherwise produce on his own.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 506

304. Scheduling creativity requires a highly skilled information technology project manager.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 507

305. The psychoanalytic perspective argues that creativity is nothing more than a natural response to stimuli within our individual environments and that certain combinations of stimuli can lead to more creative behavior than other combinations.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

306. The process orientation view sees creativity as a property of a thought process that can be acquired and improved through instruction and practice.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

307. Logical thinking is perhaps the most common, most widely used, and most often recommended approach to solving a problem. This method of thinking is rooted in the model-building and quantitative methods of management science and is an integral part of the design and development of a computer-based DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 509

308. Lateral thinking is based upon the premise that the human mind naturally processes and stores information in accordance with a specific pattern of thought and action. Because of this logical categorization process, the mind becomes hindered in any attempt to change these recognized patterns of thought. Lateral thinking disrupts these patterns through the introduction of discontinuity.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

309. Three major activities promote lateral thinking processes: (1) creativity, (2) analysis and (3) initiative.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

310. Exaggeration can be used as a method of change.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 510

311. The most common method of introducing change from outside the problem context is to use analogies.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 510

312. Opposite thinking takes the position that certain elements within a problem context are more critical to any solution outcome.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

313. Critical thinking is a method of problem solving where the decision-maker simply takes the perspective of someone other than himself or herself. This is a form of “standing in another’s shoes.” Using this method, a decision maker can often gain insight into why a particular problem exists in the first place.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

314. One of the most common barriers to creativity is a result of problem solvers making assumptions regarding potential outcomes that are untrue.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 513

315. Creative thought can be inhibited by criticism.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 514

316. The vast majority of creative problem-solving techniques applicable in an electronic decision support mechanism can be categorized into an easily manageable taxonomy consisting of four basic categories: free association, structured relationships, group techniques, and serendipity.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 515

317. Osborn’s Idea Checklist requires that users write down attributes of a problem, list as many alternatives under each attribute as possible, and then consider all possible combinations.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 518

318. AHP is a mathematically based theory for use in decision making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 521

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of creativity?
a. Intelligence
b. Academic achievement
c. Intuition
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 505

22. Which of the following statements is true of creativity?
a. A creative person does things never done before.
b. Creativity involves the translation of unique gifts, talents and vision into some form of external reality that is new and useful.
c. Creativity can involve combining objects intended for one purpose into a completely different purpose.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 504

23. The _____________ perspective maintains that creativity is a preconscious mental activity. In other words, creative thinking occurs in our subconscious thoughts and, as such, is not directly accessible to our conscious thoughts.
a. psychoanalytic
b. behavioral
c. process orientation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

24. The _______________ perspective argues that creativity is nothing more than a natural response to stimuli within our individual environments and that certain combinations of stimuli can lead to more creative behavior than other combinations.
a. psychoanalytic
b. behavioral
c. process orientation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

25. The __________________perspective sees creativity as a property of a thought process that can be acquired and improved through instruction and practice.
a. psychoanalytic
b. behavioral
c. process orientation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

26. Which of the following is not considered one of the five basic categories of ways of thinking?
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 509

27. This method of thinking is rooted in the model-building and quantitative methods of management science and is an integral part of the design and development of a computer-based DSS.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

28. This method of thinking is based upon the premise that the human mind naturally processes and stores information in accordance with a specific pattern of thought and action.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

29. This method of thinking takes the position that there exists certain elements within a problem context that are most crucial to the significance of any solution outcome.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

30. ______________ thinking is a method of problem solving where the decision-maker simply takes the perspective of someone other than himself or herself. This is a form of “standing in another’s shoes.” Using this method, a decision maker can often gain insight into why a particular problem exists in the first place.
a. Lateral
b. Opposite
c. Intuition
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

31. Which of the following is not a major activity available to promote lateral thinking?
a. Evaluation
b. Alternatives
c. Provocation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

32. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a vertical thinking process?
a. Guarantees that at least a minimally acceptable solution will be found.
b. Focuses primarily on the obvious and tends to process using established patterns of thought.
c. Chance intrusions are welcomed and nothing is considered irrelevant.
d. All of the above are characteristics of vertical thinking.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 509

33. Which of the following is not a barrier to creativity?
a. Self-constraining beliefs
b. Fear of criticism
c. lack of confidence
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 513-514

34. __________ is one of the most common barriers to creativity and is identified by problem solvers who make assumptions regarding potential outcomes that are fabricated or untrue.
a. Self-constraining beliefs
b. Fear of criticism
c. Lack of confidence
d. Stress

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 513

35. Which of the following is untrue of barriers to creativity?
a. Not all barriers to creativity are self-imposed.
b. Environments in which quick production of thought is the norm enhance creativity.
c. Lack of introspection can be a barrier to creativity.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 515

36. Which of the following is major category of problem-solving techniques?
a. Free association
b. Serendipity
c. Group techniques
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 515

37. Which category of problem solving techniques contains two goals: (1) divergent thinking and (2) the generation of ideas?
a. Serendipity
b. Free association
c. Brainstorming
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 516

38. Which of the following is true of brainstorming?
a. It can be facilitated in a structured manner.
b. It can be facilitated in an unstructured manner.
c. It can be conducted individually or collectively.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 517

39. The _________ technique requires the user to write down attributes of a problem, list as many alternative options under each attribute as possible, and then consider all possible combinations and permutations of the alternatives.
a. Osborn’s idea checklist
b. morphological forced connections
c. analytic hierarchy process
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 518

40. Which of the following is not an element of the general form of the model for the Analytic Hierarchy Process?
a. Criteria
b. Alternatives
c. Decision
d. All of the above are elements.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 520

Essay Questions

41. What approaches can be utilized to provoke changes in lateral thinking?

42. List the steps involved in Nominal Group Technique.

93. Describe the basis of lateral thinking.

94. List and briefly describe the three major activities in promoting lateral thinking processes.

95. What is creativity? Explain it from different perspectives.

Chapter 17
Intelligent Software Agents, BOTS, Delegation, and Agency

True-False Questions

319. Delegation involves the discretionary authority to autonomously act on behalf of another.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

320. An autonomous agent takes on the responsibility of completing a task that is delegated to you.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

321. Delegation enables you to take on more responsibility
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

322. Information systems enable time-consuming activities to be accomplished in a more expedient manner only when delegated to subordinate employees
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

323. The concept of the computer responding to human intervention is referred to as indirect manipulation.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

324. Intelligent software agents act autonomously on behalf of the user.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

325. Intelligent software agents replace the need for any human intervention.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 531

326. The concept of delegacy centers on consistency.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 531

327. Intelligent software agents on the Internet and intranets are moving towards personalization and diversification.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 533

328. The concept of agency consists of techniques, concepts, and applications to personalize, customize, elaborate, delegate, and catalyze the processes in the online marketplace.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

329. Supplier-driven agency relies primarily on pull technologies.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

330. A user-driven agency enables an end-user to be able to utilize push technologies to customize their information needs.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

331. Agency architecture defines the mathematical formulas for representing and reasoning about the properties of agents.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 537

332. Autonomy is the characteristic of an agent that acquires information necessary to function by monitoring the user’s actions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 540

333. Anthropomorphism is the embodiment of a principle, attitude, or view of life.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 541

334. Because of the static nature of intelligent agents, many are needed to develop an effective e-commerce site.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 541

335. Organizational agents are far more prevalent across the Internet than personal agents.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 544

336. A watcher agent learns from a user’s past behavior.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 546

337. A helper agent is designed to assist a user in an autonomous manner without human intervention.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 547

338. Consumer recommendations can be presented to people through the use of automated collaboration filtering.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 551

Multiple Choice Questions

21. When you agree to take on the responsibility for completing a task from another, you act as a(n) _____________.
a. delegate
b. independent agent
c. autonomous agent
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

22. Software that “knows” a users’ interests and can act autonomously on their behalf is referred to as:
a. an intelligent agent.
b. a script file.
c. artificial intelligence.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

23. Which of the following is true of software agents?
a. They can be personalized to meet a users’ needs.
b. They operate as background tasks.
c. There are many different types of software agents.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 533

24. Which of the following is not an agency type?
a. Supplier-driven agency
b. User-driven agency
c. Market-driven agency
d. All of the above are agency types.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

25. Which of the following is not true of an agency?
a. It consists of techniques, concepts and applications to personalize processes.
b. It influences the content that it presents.
c. They can be categorized as organizational or personal.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 535

26. _________ answers the question of what an agent is, as well as the mathematical formalisms for representing and reasoning about the properties of agents.
a. Agent theory
b. Agent architecture
c. Agent Language
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 537

27. _________ focuses on the development and deployment of software languages for programming and experimenting with intelligent software agents.
a. Agent theory
b. Agent architecture
c. Agent language
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 537

28. __________ addresses the problem of designing hardware and software systems that will satisfy the properties specified by the agent theorists.
a. Agent theory
b. Agent architecture
c. Agent language
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 537

29. Which types of agents represents two orthogonal concepts: the ability for autonomous execution and the ability to perform domain-oriented reasoning?
a. AIMA
b. MuBOT
c. Hayes-Roth
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 539

30. Which types of agents collaborate, are autonomous, trustworthy and degrade gracefully in the face of a communications mismatch?
a. SodaBot
b. IBM
c. KidSim
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 539

31. Which types of agents are computational systems that inhabit some complex dynamic environment and act autonomously, and by doing so realize a set of goals for which they are designed?
a. Maes
b. Foner
c. Wooldridge-Jennings
d. FAQ

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 539

32. Which of the following is not a common characteristic of intelligent agents?
a. Autonomy
b. Anthropomorphism
c. Risk and trust
d. All of the above are common characteristics.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 540

33. _________ is the ascription of humanlike characteristics to an otherwise non-human entity.
a. Personalizability
b. Discourse
c. Anthropomorphism
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 541

34. A(n) _______ is defined as an embodiment or concrete manifestation of a principle, attitude, view of life, or the like.
a. personalizability
b. discourse
c. anthropomorphism
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 541

35. Which of the following is an advantage of a transportable agent?
a. Customization
b. Fault tolerance
c. Efficiency
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 542

36. Which of the following is not a classification of Brustoloni’s taxonomy of software agents?
a. Planning agent
b. Regulation agent
c. Mobility agent
d. Adaptive agent

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 544

37. Which type of agent searches for the emergence of specific information?
a. Learning agent
b. Watcher agent
c. Passive agent
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 546

38. Which type of agent is designed to facilitate and assist with online shopping activities?
a. Helper agent
b. Shopping agent
c. Watcher agent
d. Learning agent

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 547

39. Which of the following is not an attribute role of agents within the Gaia methodology?
a. Permissions
b. Protocols
c. Use cases
d. Activities

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 558

40. Which of the following is used by UML to model the world as relations between entities using static class diagram format?
a. Protocol diagram
b. Architecture diagram
c. Ontology diagram
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 561

Essay Questions

41. Provide a definition for Intelligent Software Agent.

42. Distinguish between a watcher agent and a learning agent.

96. List and describe the common characteristics of Intelligent Software Agents.

97. Define the classifications of agents within Brustoloni’s Taxonomy of Software Agents?

98. List the twelve Intelligent Software Agent accessibility guidelines.

Chapter 18
Decision Support in the Twenty-First Century

True-False Questions

1. Decision support systems continue to increase in importance as a result of rapid increases in the amount of data to be filtered and analyzed.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 576

2. A major problem in the development of DSSs is a lack of GUIs to help integrate disparate architectures or platforms.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 576

3. One of the significant advantages of DSSs is that they are completely secure and can therefore be accessed across any network.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 577

4. One area of future DSS growth is advanced data management capabilities, including support for hypertext and multimedia.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 577

5. Virtual reality can potentially alter the manner in which users are trained to use information systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 578

6. Two major issues that will impact the future of expert systems are knowledge management and virtual databases.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 578

7. A high performance storage system (HPSS) is software that is useful for the management of large rule sets.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 579

8. The ultimate design goal for expert system knowledge acquisition is to enable the user to encode their own knowledge.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 580

9. Virtual information access and analysis provides a comprehensive access to multimedia, graphical and text data but is limited to internal data.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 581

10. Collaborative filtering applies human thought, in the form of a database of user preferences.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 583

Multiple Choice Questions

11. DSSs have impacted which of the following areas?
a. Medicine
b. Manufacturing
c. Forestry
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 575

12. _____________ is the term that describes the phenomena of data doubling every year, while at the same time a typical knowledge analyst can only absorb 5% of the data.
a. Online analytical processing
b. Information overload
c. Virtual information analysis
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 576

13. Which of the following enables individuals to immerse themselves into a simulated environment?
a. Environmental analysis
b. Virtual analysis
c. Virtual reality
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 577

14. Which of the following is not an issue that is crucial to the future of expert systems?
a. Knowledge management
b. Network simulation
c. AI requirements for intelligent databases
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 578

15. Which of the following is true of a high-performance storage system (HPSS)?
a. An HPSS is software that provides hierarchical storage management.
b. An HPSS supports scalability.
c. A goal of an HPSS is to move files at speeds significantly faster than today’s current storage technology.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 579

16. Which of the following is true of knowledge management?
a. Knowledge management involves the codification of thoughts and experiences.
b. The goal of a knowledge management system is to allow the expert to encode their own knowledge directly into the system.
c. Knowledge management supports multiple problem context generalization.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 580

17. _________ provides access to both organizational and external information through visual screens that combine text, data, and images.
a. VIAA
b. Knowledge management
c. EIS
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 581

18. Which of the following utilizes a database of user preferences in order to predict user outcomes?
a. Personalization agents
b. Collaborative filtering
c. Active filtering
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 583

19. Which of the following is not an issue affecting intelligent software agents?
a. Vigilance
b. Privacy
c. Legal issues
d. All of the above are issues affecting ISAs.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 584

20. Which of the following is a method to determine the degree of humanlike intelligence displayed by a computer?
a. Deming test
b. Gates test
c. Juran test
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 590

Essay Questions

21. Briefly describe how a DSS can be used to support manufacturing.

22. Briefly describe virtual reality.

23. What is a High Performance Storage System?

24. What is Moore’s Law?

25.

Briefly describe the Turing test.

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Midterm Exam Chapter 18 Through 23

 

 

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Week 5 Discussion

 

 

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Quiz 4 Chapter 6 and 7

 

 

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Week 5 DQ

ACC 206, ACC 303, ACC 304, ACC 350, ACC 401, ACC 410, ACC 555, ACC 556, ACC 557, ACC 560, ACC 562, ACC 563, ACC 564, ACC 565, ACC 571, ACC 576, BUS 230, BUS 309, BUS 310, BUS 322, BUS 325, BUS 335, BUS 365, BUS 402, BUS 430, BUS 508, BUS 515, BUS 517, BUS 518, BUS 519, BUS 521,BUS 536, CIS 210, CIS 499, CIS 501,CIS 505,CIS 513, CIS 518, CIS 519, CIS 524, CIS 562, ECO 302, ECO 305, ECO 405, ECO 410,ECO 450, ECO 550, FIN 317, FIN 320, FIN 350, FIN 534, FIN 535, FIN 540, HRM 500, HRM 510, HRM 522, HSA 590, LEG 320, LEG 500, MGT 510, MKT 475, MKT 500, MKT 515, PAD 500,PAD 530,

Week 5 Midterm Exam, Quiz, Assignments, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems,

Acc/206, acc/304, acc/350, acc/401, acc/410, acc/555, acc/557, acc/560, acc/563, acc/564, acc/571, acc/576, bus/230, bus/309, bus/310, bus/322, bus/335, bus/365, bus/402, bus/430, bus/508, bus/515, bus/517, bus/518, bus/519, bus/521, bus/536, cis/210, cis/499, cis/501, cis/502, cis/505, cis/513, cis/518, cis/519, cis/524, cis/562, eco/302, eco/305, eco/405, eco/410, eco/450, eco/550, fin/317, fin/320, fin/350, fin/535, fin/540, hrm/500, hrm/510, hrm/522, hsa/590, leg/500, mgt/510, mkt/475, mkt/500, mkt/515, pad/500, pad/530, Week 11 Final Exam, Assignments, Quiz, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems – Strayer University New

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Chapter 14 Through 19

 

 

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Chapter 14

 

 

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Quiz 10 Chapter 13 and 14

 

 

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Chapter 7 Through 12

 

 

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Acc 206, acc 304, acc 350, acc 401, acc 410, acc 555, acc 557, acc 560, acc 563, acc 564, acc 571, acc 576, bus 230, bus 309, bus 310, bus 322, bus 335, bus 365, bus 402, bus 430, bus 508, bus 515, bus 517, bus 518, bus 519, bus 521, bus 536, cis 210, cis 499, cis 501, cis 502, cis 505, cis 513, cis 518, cis 519, cis 524, cis 562, eco 302, eco 305, eco 405, eco 410, eco 450, eco 550, fin 317, fin 320, fin 350, fin 535, fin 540, hrm 500, hrm 510, hrm 522, hsa 590, leg 500, mgt 510, mkt 475, mkt 500, mkt 515, pad 500, pad 530,
Week 11 Final Exam, Assignments, Quiz, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems,

Acc 206, acc 304, acc 350, acc 401, acc 410, acc 555, acc 557, acc 560, acc 563, acc 564, acc 571, acc 576, bus 230, bus 309, bus 310, bus 322, bus 335, bus 365, bus 402, bus 430, bus 508, bus 515, bus 517, bus 518, bus 519, bus 521, bus 536, cis 210, cis 499, cis 501, cis 502, cis 505, cis 513, cis 518, cis 519, cis 524, cis 562, eco 302, eco 305, eco 405, eco 410, eco 450, eco 550, fin 317, fin 320, fin 350, fin 535, fin 540, hrm 500, hrm 510, hrm 522, hsa 590, leg 500, mgt 510, mkt 475, mkt 500, mkt 515, pad 500, pad 530, Week 11 Final Exam, Assignments, Quiz, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems – Strayer University New

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Chapters 1 Through 18

Chapter 1
Introduction to Decision Support Systems

True-False Questions

1. The role of a DSS is to provide support to the decision-maker during the process of making a decision.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

2. A DSS is used only for unstructured decisions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

3. The purpose of a DSS is to replace the decision maker.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 4

4. The DSS should always be under the ultimate control of the user.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

5. A DSS facilitates learning on the part of the decision maker.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

6. The most powerful classification of DSSs is the Universal DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 6

7. A DSS is normally designed to be wide in its scope of application.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 6

8. A highly unstructured decision is one where the objectives of the situation are often conflicting, the alternatives available to the decision maker are difficult to isolate or determine, and the effect of a particular course of action or selection of an alternative carries with it a high degree of uncertainty.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

9. The user interface of a DSS performs activities related to problem recognition and generation of interim or final solutions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 9

10. The data management component of a DSS is where the activities associated with the retrieval, storage and organization of the relevant data for the particular decision context are managed.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 9

11. The data management component of a DSS is responsible for maintaining the logical independence of the data.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 12

12. The model library stores and manages all solver algorithms within a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 15

13. Model acquisition is the process by which new information is derived from a combination of existing or previously derived information.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 16

14. Rules, heuristics and constraints are stored within a knowledge base of a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 16

15. A model is a simplification of some event or process constructed for the purpose of studying the phenomenon and thus developing a better understanding of it.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 13

16. Internal data normally comes from an organization’s transaction processing systems as a normal course of conducting the daily affairs of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 11

17. Knowledge engineers are specially trained to interact with domain experts for the purposes of acquiring all of the knowledge the expert has in a particular domain and all of the relationships among that knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 18

18. The model base contains the various statistical, financial, mathematical, and other quantitative models used in performing the variety of analytical capabilities in a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 14

19. Silver proposed a method of DSS classification based upon the attributes of the problem-solving context.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 25

20. Hypertext systems are useful for knowledge bases that are document based.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 27

Multiple Choice Questions

21. The realization of the benefits to be derived from using a DSS is dependent upon which of the following?
a. The decision maker
b. The context of the decision
c. The design of the DSS
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 4

22. Which of the following contributed to the development of the concept of decision support systems?
a. J.P. Little
b. Gorry
c. Scott Morton
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 6

23. Limitations of a DSS include which of the following?
a. They cannot be designed to copy human imagination.
b. The language interface does not yet allow for natural language processing.
c. They are designed to be narrow in scope.
d. All of the above

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 5

24. Strategic planning refers to which of the following activities?
a. Where decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and deployment of the organizations assets are made.
b. Where decisions related to the objectives of the organization are made.
c. Where decisions relating to the day-to-day tasks and activities of the organization are made.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

25. Management control refers to which of the following activities?
a. Where decisions related to the objectives of the organization are made.
b. Where decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and deployment of the organization’s assets are made.
c. Where decisions relating to the day-to-day task and activities of the organization are made.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

26. Operational control is best associated with which of the following activities?
a. Making decisions related to the objectives of the organization.
b. Making decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and deployment of the organizations assets.
c. Making decisions relating to the day-to-day tasks and activities of the organization.
d. Both b and c.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

27. The components of a DSS can be classified into which of the following?
a. Data management system, data repository, knowledge engine, model repository, user(s)
b. Data query facility, model management system, model execution processor, user interface, user(s)
c. Data management system, model management system, knowledge engine, user interface, user(s)
d. Data management system, model management system, knowledge engine, internal data, external data

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 9

28. Which of the following is considered a subsystem within the data management system?
a. Database(s)
b. Database management system
c. The data query facility
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 12

29. One of the most important characteristics of a model is that:
a. it is easy to construct.
b. it is commonly found in decision-making environments.
c. it is a simplified form of reality.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 13

30. The two primary responsibilities of the MBMS are:
a. execution and integration of the models available to the DSS and the modeling of user preferences.
b. execution and integration of the data available to the DSS and the manipulation of the user interface.
c. execution of the user interface and the modeling of user preferences.
d. acquisition of the knowledge contained within the DSS and the modeling of user preferences.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 15

31. Which of the following best describes the function and purpose of the inference engine?
a. It is the subsystem responsible for the acquisition and construction of knowledge rules.
b. It is a component of a DSS that is specifically intended to allow the user to access the internal components of that system in a relatively easy fashion and without having to know specifically how everything is put together or how it works.
c. It is a program module that activates domain knowledge and performs inferencing to work toward a solution or conclusion based upon the values for the facts given and the relationships or rules associated with them.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 18

32. The person who may work closely with the decision maker to assist in interpreting and explaining the DSS output is called the:
a. domain expert.
b. intermediary.
c. domain operator.
d. knowledge generator.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 22

33. Which of the following are the two primary support orientations for a DSS?
a. Data-centric and model-centric
b. Procedural and non-procedural
c. Programmed and non-programmed
d. Simulated and actual

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 8

34. Which of the following is a characteristic of a DSS?
a. It is interactive and user-friendly.
b. It is generally developed using an iterative process.
c. I supports all phases of the decision-making process.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

35. Which of the following is not a benefit of DSS use?
a. It shortens the time associated with making a decision.
b. The power of the DSS is based upon the system it is running on.
c. It encourages exploration and discovery on the part of the decision maker.
d. All of the above are benefits.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 5

36. Gorry and Scott Morton’s framework for decision support classifies types of decisions as:
a. simplified and complex.
b. structured, semi-structured, and unstructured.
c. supported, semi-supported, and unsupported.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 7

37. Which of the following is a function of the presentation language of a DSS?
a. It allows for detailed report definition.
b. It allows for the creation of forms.
c. It provides for the presentation of data in multiple formats.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 20

38. Which of the following is not a DSS usage category?
a. Terminal mode
b. Clerk mode
c. Query mode
d. Subscription mode

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 23

39. Which of the following is the DSS classification proposed by Donovan and Madnick?
a. Structured and unstructured
b. Mechanical and decisional
c. Formal and ad-hoc
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 25

40. Which type of decision support system keeps track of a large amount of disparate documents?
a. Hypertext system
b. Document encyclopedia
c. Silver junction system
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 27

Essay Questions

41. Describe the general functions of the Model Base Management System.

42. What are some of the common characteristics of a decision support system?

43. List the five components of a DSS

44. Is a “universal DSS” possible? Why or why not?

45. List the general functions of the DBMS.

46. What are the benefits of DSS use?

47. What are the two main responsibilities of the DBMS?

48. How does knowledge get into the DSS? How can it be retrieved and organized as useful information?

49. Compare and contrast data-centric versus model-centric systems, formal versus ad-hoc systems, and directed versus non-directed systems. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each type?

50. Compare the benefits and limitations of highly procedural languages and low/non-procedural languages.

Chapter 2
Decisions and Decision Makers

True-False Questions

21. The decision maker is considered both an element and participant in the decision.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 35

22. All decisions in an organization are ultimately made by a single individual.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 38

23. A problem is defined as the perception of a difference between the current state of affairs and a desired state of affairs.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 36

24. A typical decision is often made using the exact order suggested by a normative model of decision making and tends to use all of the steps contained in the model.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 35

25. Two examples of group decision making are organizational committees and juries.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 39

26. The manner in which a decision is made is referred to as decision style.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 41

27. Decision style is affected by the perception of the problem.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 41

28. The reason there are so many different types of DSSs is that there are many different types of decisions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 37

29. Policies and procedures can affect organizational decision making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 48

30. Simon proposed to classify problems from procedural to non-procedural.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 50

31. Programmed decisions are more difficult to automate in a DSS than non-programmed decisions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 51

32. When conflict exists in either goals or approaches to the decision then Delbecq would classify that as the need for a creative decision.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 55

33. When a novel approach is needed to handle the complexity of the problem, then Delbecq would classify that as the need for a negotiated decision.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 54

34. Mintzberg classifies adaptive activities as characterized by high risk and motivated by the proactive and reactive considerations.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 55

35. According to Thompson, his classification scheme differentiates decisions based upon the type of activities with which the decision is most associated.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 55

36. The most clear-cut phase in the decision making process is the design phase.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 58

37. Simon referred to the process of search-limiting strategies as inferencing.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 61

38. Symptoms of a problem are identical to the problem itself.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 63

39. Stereotyping is a common perceptual block.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 67

40. The tendency to view alternatives as mutually exclusive events is a bias of individual
decision makers.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 73

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not part of the decision-making process?
a. Stimulus
b. Alternative selection
c. Decision maker
d. All of the above are part of the decision making process.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 36-37

22. Which of the following is not a category of decision makers within an organization?
a. Individual decision makers
b. Team decision makers
c. Group decision makers
d. All of the above are categories of decision makers.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 38-39

23. Which of the following is not a factor that affects decision style?
a. Context
b. Inference
c. Values
d. Perception

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 41

24. Which of the following is not a decision style behavior?
a. Analytical
b. Behavioral
c. Conceptual
d. All of the above are decisions style behaviors.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 44

25. According to Mintzberg, which of the following is not a decision typology?
a. Entrepreneurial activities
b. Knowledge activities
c. Adaptive activities
d. Planning activities

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 55

26. According to Delbecq, which of the following is not a classification scheme for negotiation?
a. Inferred decisions
b. Routine decisions
c. Creative decisions
d. Negotiated decisions

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 54-55

27. According to Thompson, which of the following is not a type of strategy based decision scheme?
a. Inspirational strategies
b. Judgmental strategies
c. Conversational strategies
d. Compromise strategies

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 55

28. The perception of a problem context is typically caused by one or more:
a. crisis.
b. stimuli.
c. telephone calls.
d. catastrophes.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 36

29. The term used to describe the manner in which a manager makes decisions is called:
a. decision methodology.
b. decision model.
c. decision style.
d. cognitive style.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 41

30. In any problem context, before any effective investigation of alternative solutions can be conducted, the decision maker must first:
a. establish the available resources.
b. determine the best solution.
c. define the problem.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 37

31. A decision in which many people may serve to influence the final decision but only one decision maker has the authority and responsibility to make the decision is called a:
a. unilateral decision.
b. bilateral decision.
c. negotiated decision.
d. unanimous decision.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 39

32. Which of the following involves factors relating to the forces acting on the decision maker in the course of making the decision?
a. Problem space
b. Problem style
c. Problem context
d. Decision style

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 41

33. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the directive decision style? A directive decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communication or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 42

34. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the analytical decision style? An analytical decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 42

35. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the conceptual decision style? The conceptual decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 43

36. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the behavioral decision style? The behavioral decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 44

37. Simon classified problems on a continuum that ranged from:
a. structured to unstructured.
b. parallel to perpendicular.
c. discrete to obtuse.
d. 1 to 10.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 50

38. Which of the following is not included in the Keen and Scott Morton classification of decision-making perspectives?
a. Process-oriented perspective
b. Knowledge-engineer perspective
c. Political perspective
d. Rational manager perspective

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 57

39. Which of the following is not a satisficing strategy?
a. Simulation
b. “What-if” analysis
c. Markov analysis
d. Linear programming

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 59

40. Which of the following is not an optimizing strategy?
a. Goal programming
b. Environmental impact analysis
c. Investment models
d. Transportation models

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 59

Essay Questions

41. Define a ‘good decision’.

42. List 10 common types of support provided by a DSS.

51. Define Mintzberg’s activity-based decision typology.

52. Define what is meant by the term bounded rationality.

53. List the major components of the decision-making process.

54. In which portion of the decision-making process is a DSS most helpful for decisionmakers? Why?

55. List and briefly describe the classes of decision-makers.

56. Describe the three forces that affect a particular individual’s decision style.

The three factors of context, perception, and values intertwine in their relationship to decision style. The problem context involves factors relating to the forces acting on the decisionmaker in the course of making the decision. Organizational and environment forces such as government regulation, new technologies, market competition, internal power struggles, etc. all serve to reform or affect the problem context. Further, forces of a more individual nature such as skill set, energy, motivation, and perceived abilities, among others can also serve as forces that shape the problem context for the decisionmaker. The totality of these forces must be balanced and managed by the decisionmaker during the problem-solving process.

57. List and briefly describe the forces that can act on a problem context and on a decisionmaker during the course of making a decision.

58. List the advantages of using heuristics.

Chapter 3
Decisions in the Organization

True-False Questions

41. An organization includes issues of structure and resources.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 88

42. Organizations can be said to be defined by the decisions that they make.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 88

43. Group norms are not a dimension of organizational decision making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 90

44. All organizational decisions are strategic in their nature.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 90

45. Strategic decisions are typically made at the middle management level and approved by senior management.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91

46. The competence of decision-making ability at each level within an organization can affect the design of a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91

47. Cultural fit is a method of viewing the relationship between organizational culture and decision making.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

48. An organization can either have an internal fit or external fit but may not have both simultaneously.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

49. Organizational culture can be a determinant of an organization’s willingness to change.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 93

50. While an organization may be greater than the sum of its parts, it does not allow its members to collectively pursue and achieve greater goals than they could by acting individually.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91

51. The line personnel who make decisions regarding day-to-day activities relating to production or services are called operations personnel.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 90-91

52. A good external fit suggests a culture that is shaped to both the organization’s strategy and its marketplace.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

53. Internal fit refers to the match between an organization’s culture and its leaders.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

54. Informal power is the term used to define how a manager exercises authority and whether he or she wishes to exercise the power available to them.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 95

55. Organizational politics influences organizational power.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 95

56. Organizational politics is always a disruptive factor in organizations.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 96

57. In the design of a DSS, organizational politics should be considered.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 96

58. The distinguishing characteristic of an ODSS over a GDSS is managerial control.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 97

Multiple Choice Questions

19. Which of the following is not a dimension of organizational decision making?
a. Group roles
b. Group processes
c. Group structure
d. All of the above are dimensions.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 88-89

20. Which of the following is not an organizational decision level?
a. Operations
b. Tactical
c. Directing
d. Strategic

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 90

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?
a. Risk tolerance
b. Fault tolerance
c. Conflict tolerance
d. Communication patterns

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 92

22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?
a. Direction
b. Control
c. Reward system
d. Personnel system

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 92

23. The concept of viewing an organization as a “nexus of decisions” suggests that:
a. an organization is a unified system of resources defined and structured by a collective of functional and political subsystems bound by a set of stated goals and functioning within a set of loosely defined environments.
b. the organization’s purpose is to make decisions within a business environment; it is defined by its decision opportunities, authorities, and responsibilities.
c. an organization is a chaotic environment where decisions occur both randomly and without purpose.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 88

24. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group structure is best defined as:
a. the relationships between the actual point of decision and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed be a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues related to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres, and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 88

25. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group roles is best described as:

a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified purposes that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 89

26. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the circular nature of group process is best described as:

a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 89

27. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group norms is best defined as:

a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 90

28. An organization, when viewed from a decision-making perspective, can be conceptualized by which of the following three discrete levels of hierarchy?

a. Planning, controlling, doing
b. Management, labor, stakeholders
c. Operations, planning, and strategic
d. Tactical, political, social
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 91

29. Cultures that tend to minimize individual initiative and risk taking, such as those of a product-driven orientation:

a. tend to support a more centralized decision-making emphasis where operating procedures, policies, schedules, etc. are all prescribed from a central authority.
b. tend to adopt more routine technologies that provide additional stability to the organization.
c. tend to adopt nonroutine technologies that require adaptability.
d. Both a and b.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

30. Cultures where initiative, creativity, and risk-taking are supported or rewarded:

a. tend to support a more centralized decision-making emphasis where operating procedures, policies, schedules, etc. are all prescribed from a central authority.
b. tend to adopt more routine technologies that provide additional stability to the organization.
c. tend to adopt nonroutine technologies that require adaptability.
d. Both a and b.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

31. Which of the following would not be considered a characteristic of an organization’s culture?
a. Degree of individual initiative
b. Degree of risk tolerance
c. Degree of market share
d. Ccommunication patterns

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 92

32. Which of the following is considered a characteristic of excellent companies?
a. They are hands-on and value driven.
b. They recognize that productivity is based on people.
c. They have a bias towards action.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 94

33. The concept which states that an individual will eventually be promoted to their level of incompetence is known as the:
a. Law of Incompetence.
b. Parretto Principle.
c. Peter Principle.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 91

34. The distinguishing characteristic of an ODSS over a GDSS is that of
a. size.
b. managerial control.
c. application.
d. Both b and c.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 97

35. Which of the following is not one of the five factors of power?
a. Judgment
b. Authority
c. Informal power
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 95

36. Which of the following is true of organizational politics?
a. Politics can often serve to ensure an objective hearing of all sides of an issue.
b. Politics can facilitate the decision-making process.
c. Politics can facilitate organizational change.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 96

37. The ________________ level of an organization focuses on the implementation of decisions made at the highest level of the organization as well as decisions involving the acquisition of resources necessary to maintain desired capacities and outputs at the operations level.
a. operations
b. planning
c. strategic
d. tactical

or d Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 91

38. The members of the ___________________ level of an organization include the senior executives of the largest industrial and service firms in the world, the top administrators of the largest government agencies, and the generals and senior officers in the military.
a. operations
b. planning
c. strategic
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 91

Essay Questions

39. Provide a definition for the term organization.

40. Identify and describe the three levels of organizational decision making.

41. Define organizational culture.

42. List ten characteristics of organizational culture.

59. List 10 of 12 significant elements of managerial decision-making power, as defined by Harrison (1995).

Chapter 4
Modeling Decision Processes

True-False Questions

59. The typical decision-maker, more often than one might imagine, fails to formally and concisely identify the problem at hand before beginning the process of solving it.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103

60. A problem is defined as the difference between the current state of affairs and the desired state of affairs.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103

61. A common error when creating a problem statement is to prematurely focus on the possible solutions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103

62. One way to determine what the real underlying problem is to expore the reasons why an alternative is viable.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 103

63. The priorities of a decision maker are determined by the size of the solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 104

64. The priorities of a decision maker are affected by the scope of the problem.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 104

65. A designer must never revise a decision made at one point in the process to account for a change made in another.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 105-106

66. There are always at least two possible alternative problem solutions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 104

67. Problem structures can be described in terms of three fundamental components: (1) choices, (2) uncertainties, and (3) objectives.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 110

68. Implicit in the concept of choice is the existence of multiple alternatives.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 104

69. In an influence diagram, the three components of a problem structure are represented by specific shapes and are combined and connected to represent the problem being modeled.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 106-107

70. Although the solution may be obvious, problem structures always have a clear beginning.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 112

71. An optimal solution is always guaranteed when using a simulation model.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 115

72. Conceptual models can be thought of as analogies to the problem context.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 117

73. In a deterministic model, a variable can have multiple values and must therefore be described by a probability function.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 114

74. In a stochastic model, no variable can take on more than one value at a given time.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 114

75. According to Howard’s test of clarity, the events of every model should be fully determined without interpretation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 119

76. Decisions made in conditions of certainty are the most difficult.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 120

77. Hayes Model Base Rule is used to determine the appropriate forecasting technique for DSSs.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 129

78. Odds forecasting is a common technique for eliciting subjective probability.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 125

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not a component of a problem statement?
a. The desired state of affairs
b. The current state of affairs
c. The past state of affairs
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 103

22. Which of the following is not part of the design of a problem structure?
a. The relationship between elemental details and the final appearance of the solution
b. The interim solution
c. The final problem solution
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 104

23. Which of the following is not a tool for modeling the structure of a problem?
a. Problem analysis case
b. Decision tree
c. Influence diagram
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 106-108

24. Which of the following is not a decision tree rule?
a. The branches represent all possible outcomes.
b. The branches are structured to allow for multiple choices per branch.
c. All possible alternatives are fully mapped.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 108

25. Which of the following is not a decision model classification?
a. Domain-specific models
b. Abstract variation models
c. Stochastic models
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 114

26. Which of the following is not a requirement of probability?
a. All probabilities must be within the range of -1 to 1.
b. The probabilities of all individual outcomes of an event must add up to the probability of their union.
c. The total probability of the complete set of outcomes must be equal to 1.
d. All of the above are requirements of probability.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 120

27. Probability can be expressed as:
a. long-run.
b. subjective.
c. logical.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 121

28. Which of the following is not a technique for forecasting probability?
a. Logical forecasting
b. Direct forecasting
c. Odds forecasting
d. Comparison forecasting

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 124

29. Models that do not explicitly acknowledge time are called:
a. static models.
b. dynamic models.
c. simulation models.
d. stochastic models.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 113

30. The concept of __________ suggests that while a probability may be derivable, its accuracy may not be acceptable under any circumstances.
a. subjective probability
b. logical probability
c. long-run probability
d. stochastic probability

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 123

31. Which of the following affects the selection of a forecasting technique?
a. Problem structure
b. Availability
c. Problem size
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 129

32. Which of the following affects the selection of a forecasting technique?
a. Precision
b. Complexity
c. DSS designer preference
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 129

33. Rather than a single probability estimation we might benefit from an estimation of the worst-case scenario and the best-case scenario. Properly constructed, we can say that the actual probability estimate lies somewhere between these two values. This range of values is referred to as a ________.
a. probability estimation
b. t-test
c. logical probability
d. confidence interval

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 130

34. A method used to determine the degree to which the alteration of an underlying assumption has a material effect on the results obtained from a model is known as:
a. simulation.
b. sensitivity analysis.
c. discriminant validity.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 131

35. Which of the following is not a suitable technique for eliciting numerical subjective probability estimations that can then be combined with other estimates using the laws of probability?
a. Direct forecasting
b. Odds forecasting
c. Ad hoc forecasting
d. Comparison forecasting

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 129

36. A model in which at least one of the variables in the model is uncertain and must be described by some probability function is known as a:
a. static model.
b. stochastic model.
c. deterministic model.
d. dynamic model.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 114

37. A model which focuses on the mathematical precision with which various outcomes can be predicted is referred to as a(n):
a. static models.
b. dynamic models.
c. simulation models.
d. abstract models.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 113

38. Which of the following is true of Howard’s Test of Clarity?
a. The influence diagram contains at least three alternatives.
b. All of the components of the context model are clearly defined.
c. Long-run probability is utilized.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 119

39. In any choice there is a(n) _____ probability of at least one alternative being selected and there is an ____ probability of any particular one being selected.
a. unequal, equal
b. 0%, unequal
c. 100%, equal
d. 100%, unequal

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 121

40. Which type of forecasting presents the decision maker with a choice between participating in one or two lottery-type games?
a. Comparison forecasting
b. Odds forecasting
c. Direct probability forecasting
d. Calibration forecasting

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 126

Essay Questions

41. Identify the steps in creating a simulation model.

42. Briefly describe the disadvantages of simulation modeling.

60. List and briefly describe the types of abstract models.

61. Define sensitivity analysis and state its value to decisionmakers.

62. List and briefly describe the various types of probabilities.

Chapter 5
Group Decision Support and Groupware Technologies

True-False Questions

79. A group can be defined as a simple collective entity that is independent of its members.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 141

80. A group can be defined by the structure of the problem context.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 142

81. MDM is defined as an activity conducted by a collective entity composed of two or more individuals and characterized in terms of both the properties of the collective entity as well as its individual members.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 142

82. MDMs can be classified in terms of the degree of centralization characterized by each of the four network structures.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 143

83. In a chain network, each participant can communicate with the decision maker at the center but not with each other.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 144

84. In a wheel network, the decision maker can communicate with anyone.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 143

85. In a circle network, all members have an equal opportunity for communication.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 144

86. The completely connected network structure is the least restrictive structure.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 145

87. The chain network displays a high degree of centrality and is appropriate for routine or recurring decisions with high-probability outcomes.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 144

88. The circle network serves as the basis for the group and committee MDM structures and is often employed in situations where negotiation or consensus must be the basis for the final decision.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 144-145

89. When the expertise of the decision maker is critical, then the most appropriate decision structure is a committee.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 146

90. In group decision making, the factor that has the greatest impact is the size of the group.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 147

91. Think-tank is the term referred to as a mode of thinking that people engage in when their desire to fit in overrides their decision-making ability.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 148

92. One common method used to control sources of potential conflict is participant anonymity.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 149

93. A GDSS is a collective of computer-based technologies used to aid multiparticipant efforts directed at identifying and addressing problems, opportunities, and issues.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 153

94. An ODSS is a complex system of computer-based technologies, including those that facilitate communication that provides support for decision makers spanning the range of organizational roles and functional levels, and accommodates decision contexts that cut across organizational units.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 153

95. Process structure of an MDM involves various mechanisms focused on facilitating participant interaction.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

96. Groupware is focused on issues related to collaborative processes among people.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 160

97. E-mail would not be considered a type of groupware because it is an asynchronous process.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 162

98. Nominal group techniques works best when there is a single decision maker structure.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 165

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a highly centralized network structure?
a. They are efficient for routine and recurring decisions.
b. They tend to produce lower average levels of satisfaction among the participants.
c. They promote innovative solutions.
d. They tend to result in a stable set of interactions among the participants.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 145

22. Which of the following is true of a completely connected network structure?
a. They tend to produce lower average levels of satisfaction among the participants.
b. They tend to strengthen the leadership position of the central members.
c. They promote creative solutions.
d. They tend to result in a stable set of interactions among the participants.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 145

23. Which of the following is a factor used in determining decision structure?
a. The degree of structuredness of the problem structure
b. The probability of acceptance of an autocratic decision
c. The importance of the quality of the decision
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 146

24. Which of the following is not true regarding the relationship between group size and its affect on MDM?
a. Participant interaction increases as the size increases.
b. Affective relationships tend to decrease as size increases.
c. Central leadership tends to increase as size increases.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 148

25. Which of the following communication networks displays a high degree of centrality and is appropriate for routine or recurring decisions with high-probability outcomes?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 144

26. Which of the following is not considered one of the four basic types of communication networks?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Semi-connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 145

27. Which of the following networks is most appropriate when routine or recurring decisions are being made?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 144

28. Which of the following network structures serves as the basis for the group and committee MDM structure and is often employed in situations where negotiation or consensus must be the basis for the final decision?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 144-145

29. A mode of thinking that people engage in when they are deeply involved in a cohesive ingroup, where the members’ striving for unanimity overrides their motivation to realistically appraise alternative courses of action is known as:
a. structured decision making.
b. groupthink.
c. team MDM.
d. MDM analysis.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 148

30. A(n) _____ is a complex system of computer-based technologies, including those that facilitate communication, that provides support for decision-makers spanning the range of organizational roles and functional levels and accommodates decision contexts that cut across organizational units.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 153

31. A(n) ____ is a collective of computer-based technologies used to aid multiparticipant efforts directed at identifying and addressing problems, opportunities and issues.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 153

32. A(n) ___ is a collective of computer-based technologies that are specifically designed to support the activities and processes related to multiparticipant decision making.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 154

33. A(n) ____ is a system under the control of one or more decision makers that assists in the activity of decision making by providing an organized set of tools intended to impart structure to portions of the decision-making situation and to improve the ultimate effectiveness of the decision outcome.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 154

34. Which of the following is not one of the four basic approaches that have been identified through which MDM support can be provided?

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Organizational structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

35. ______ involves providing various mechanisms focused on facilitating participant interaction, communication, knowledge gathering, and memory. These mechanisms are omnipresent in all current deployments of GSS and groupware applications.

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

36. ______ focuses on mechanisms that serve to govern the various communication activities among participants including the pattern of interaction, the timing, and sometimes even the content.

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

37. ______ involves the application of mechanisms that can select, organize, or even derive information and knowledge that is specifically relevant to the task or decision at hand.

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

38. The _____________ MDM system is primarily intended to focus on facilitation of communication among the participants. Its main objective is to hasten and stimulate the exchange of messages and to reduce or remove the inherent barriers to communication associated with MDM activities.

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 157

39. The _____________ MDM systems are designed to reduce uncertainty that can evolve from an MDM problem-solving activity. Both process and task structuring mechanisms are typically found in this class of MDM support.

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 157

40. The _____________ system contains all of the features of its predecessors and expands the support mechanisms through an increase in process structuring techniques intended to control participant interaction.

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 157

Essay Questions

41. Identify the factors used in determining decision structure.

42. What are the potential consequences of groupthink?

63. Define the term multiparticipant decision maker (MDM).

64. Define groupware. Where is it applicable?

65. List the forces that describe groupware development.

Chapter 6
Executive Information Systems

True-False Questions

99. An EIS is a special type of DSS designed to facilitate the analysis of information to support strategic decision-making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 174

100. An EIS is designed to support the CEO of a firm
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 174

101. An EIS is a unique DSS designed exclusively to analyze the operations of a firm.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 174

102. An EIS can be designed and built quickly because it only deals with summarized information.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 175

103. A sales report showing revenue against forecast targets along with projections for the next two quarters is an example of an EIS output.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176

104. The ability to perform drill down analysis is an important feature of an EIS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 176

105. A well designed EIS will replace the need for MIS applications
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176

106. A well designed EIS replaces the need for all other DSSs within an organization
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176

107. Executives spend more time on disturbance management than organizational staffing.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 178-179

108. The majority of executive time is spent in some form of disturbance management activity.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: pp. 178-179

109. The total study method, critical success factor method or key indicator method could be used to define an EIS
Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 182-183

110. An EIS normally requires unique hardware configurations, making them expensive to build.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 184

111. An EIS normally requires unique software components.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 185

112. An organization that does not wish to build their own EIS can purchase one “off-the-shelf”.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 185

113. In the structural perspective of the EIS development framework, the focus is on people and data as they relate to the EIS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 188

114. The structural perspective of the EIS development framework builds upon the elements and their relationships contained within the structural model and adds a time dimension to the framework. In this component, the various activities and sequences of events are delineated and actual project management issues relating to time, critical path, and milestones are established.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 188-189

115. The dialog system of an EIS contains an action language where the user is directed in how to use the system, and learns where the various commands and elements of manipulation are contained and processed.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 189

116. The knowledge base in an EIS is the sum of what the executive knows about using the system and all of the support mechanisms designed to assist in its use.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 190

117. Two organizational limitations of an EIS are time bias and loss of managerial synchronization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 191

118. The development framework of an EIS is used to establish development guidelines.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 190

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is a computer-based system intended to facilitate and support the information and decision-making needs of senior executives by providing easy access to both internal and external information relevant to meeting stated goals of the organization?
a. EIS
b. ES
c. DSS
d. Data Warehouse

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 175

22. Which of the following is a characteristic of an EIS?
a. Tailored to individual executives
b. Can present information in multiple formats
c. Provides tools to extract, filter and track critical information
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 175

23. Which of the following is an activity performed by managers?
a. Staffing
b. Directing
c. Organizing
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 178

24. Which of the following is not a common characteristic of executives?
a. They are future-oriented and focus on strategic activities.
b. They have narrow spans of control.
c. They are responsible for establishing policies.
d. They are concerned with internal and external issues.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 178

25. Which of the following is not a method for determining executive information needs?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 182

26. Which method for determining executive needs primarily uses traditional TPS and MIS applications as it source of information?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 182

27. Which method for determining executive needs could best be described by the phrase management by walking around?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 182

28. Which method for determining executive needs gathers information from a sample of top-level executives concerning the totality of information needs?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 183

29. Which method for determining executive needs is the most comprehensive?
a. Normal method
b. Key indicators method
c. Case study method
d. Critical success factors method

Difficulty: Method Reference: p. 183

30. The _______________ method for determining executive information needs is based on three basic notions: 1) The health of an organization can be determined by comparison to a set of key financial indicators; 2) organizations can be managed based on exception reporting where only those areas operating outside of a preestablished set of norms are of interest; 3) and technology is available to allow for flexible display of key indicator information in graphical form.
a. key indicator
b. critical success factor
c. normal
d. by-product

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 182

31. Using an EIS to explore the underlying data used to compile the current ratio would be an example of which of the following activities?
a. Compilation
b. Aggregation
c. Drill down analysis
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 176

32. When something unexpected occurs, particularly something that could materially and negatively impact the financial health of the organization, the immediate attention of executives and the deployment of resources are usually warranted. Executive activity during these periods is called:
a. entrepreneurial.
b. disturbance management.
c. resource allocation.
d. negotiation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 178

33. Which of the following is not a component of an EIS development framework?
a. Structural perspective
b. Intelligent knowledge base
c. User-system dialog
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 188

34. Which of the following would not be considered a benefit of a client/server environment?
a. Reduction of investment costs in new computer hardware
b. Establishment of a more flexible and responsive platform
c. Increased control over locally stored data
d. Multiple views of geographically dispersed data

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 184

35. The ____________ portion of the EIS development framework builds upon the elements and their relationships contained within the structural model and adds a time dimension to the framework. In this component, the various activities and sequences of events are delineated and actual project management issues relating to time, critical path, and milestones are established.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 189

36. The _______________ portion of an EIS contains an action language where the user is directed in how to use the system, and learns where the various commands and elements of manipulation are contained and processed. The action language element can be thought of as the incoming communication channel from the executive to the EIS.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 189

37. The _________________ portion of an EIS is the sum of what the executive knows about using the system and all of the support mechanisms designed to assist in its use.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 190

38. _______________ activities fall under the general heading of strategic planning tasks. Executives spent a significant portion of their time focusing on the selection, design, and implementation of improvements and projects intended to improve performance and initiate controlled change within the organization.
a. Entrepreneurial
b. Disturbance management
c. Resource allocation
d. Negotiation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 180

39. Managers at various levels are given authority to manage and deploy assets from a predetermined allocation and based upon a control mechanism such as a budget or operational plan. The authority to deploy those assets and the various behind the scenes activities to obtain them normally performed by top executives is associated with which of the following activities?
a. Entrepreneurial
b. Disturbance management
c. Resource allocation
d. Negotiation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 180

40. Executives are charged with the responsibility of representing the organization in both internal and external disputes. Typically, this role involves the resolution of disputes and conflicts and, thus, involves a significant amount of negotiation among the parties. This type of activity is called:
a. entrepreneurial.
b. disturbance management.
c. resource allocation.
d. negotiation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 180

Essay Questions

41. List the characteristics of an Executive Information System.

42. Define an Executive Information System.

66. List the Common Characteristics of Executives.

67. List and briefly describe several EIS limitations.

68. Briefly describe the EIS of tomorrow.

Chapter 7
Expert Systems and Artificial Intelligence

True-False Questions

119. An Expert System is designed to solve a specific knowledge domain problem.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 208

120. Artificial Intelligence can be defined as the study of how to make computers do things that people do better.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 208

121. Reverse reasoning begins with a series of subproblems and builds into one cohesive problem statement.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 208

122. All expert systems are based upon the use of reverse reasoning.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 208

123. The first artificial intelligence system was referred to as LISP.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 208

124. Categorization involves the creation of a loose set of hierarchies where lower-level pieces of information inherit characteristics from a higher-level category.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 209

125. Reasoning by expectations uses components of heuristics and categorization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 210

126. Once we have experienced a particular situation or phenomena enough, we begin to expect it to appear in a certain manner or under a predictable set of conditions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 211

127. Rule-based reasoning is a process in which the computer is given the characteristics of the problem space in the form of input values. It then uses the rules contained within its knowledge base to methodically change the state of the problem space to the desired condition.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: pp. 211-212

128. The form of knowledge that is formed from antecedents and consequents is referred to as inferential knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

129. The form of knowledge where the conditions take the form of a stated situation and the operative becomes an action to take when the stated situation is logically true is referred to as procedural knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

130. The form of knowledge whereby a conclusion is reached as a result of one or more premises being established is referred to as declarative knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

131. In an object network, concepts are represented as nodes and the arcs connecting the nodes represent their relationships.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 213

132. Representations of objects that are typical of a category are referred to as frames.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 213

133. In a frame, a trigger is a short procedure that can be triggered whenever a slot is created, modified or accessed.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 214

134. Frames are the most useful knowledge domain for analyzing legal precedent.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 215

135. Genetic algorithms figure out which rules from prior cycles did not fire, which rules from the prior cycle will not fire in the next cycle, and which rules from the prior cycle that did not fire are most likely to fire next.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 216

136. Neural networks are the branch of AI that most closely resemble how the human brain operates.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 217

137. The inference engine of an ES contains the specific knowledge collected from the sample of domain experts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 219

138. The inference engine performs deductions or inferences based on rules or facts. In addition, it is capable of performing inexact or fuzzy reasoning based on probability or pattern matching.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 220

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not true of artificial intelligence?
a. AI focuses on how people think.
b. AI focuses on how people reason.
c. AI translates understanding into computer systems that can perform the same actions.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 209

22. Which of the following is not a type of reasoning?
a. Heursitics
b. Past experience
c. Cognitive idealism
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 210

23. Which reasoning type is the most common?
a. Categorization
b. Specific rules
c. Expectations
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 209

24. Which type of reasoning uses components of heuristics and categorization?
a. Specific rules
b. Expectations
c. Past experience
d. Cognitive idealism

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 210

25. Which of the following forms of knowledge can be encoded via a rule set?
a. Procedural knowledge
b. Declarative knowledge
c. Inferential knowledge
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

26. Which of the following represents entities as nodes and the arcs that connect the nodes represent relationships?
a. Object network
b. Frames
c. Knowledge network
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 213

27. Which Of the following is not a daemon?
a. If modified
b. If inquiry
c. If deleted
d. If necessary

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 214

28. The concept of frames is analogous to which human reasoning method?
a. Past experience
b. Heuristics
c. Categorization
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 215

29. Which of the following is most useful in a knowledge domain where precedence reasoning is most appropriate?
a. Frames
b. Pattern recognition
c. Case-based reasoning
d. Rete algorithms

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 215

30. Which branch of AI most closely resembles how the human brain operates?
a. Genetic algorithms
b. Neural networks
c. Machine learning
d. Rete algorithms

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 217

31. Which classification of AI relies on learning from past experiences using examples and analogies?
a. Machine learning
b. Frames
c. Pattern recognition
d. Genetic algorithms

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 216

32. Which component of an ES contains the domain-specific knowledge collected from the sample of domain experts during the design stage?
a. User interface
b. Knowledge base
c. Inference engine
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 219

33. Which of the following is not an example of a heuristic?
a. If the meal includes red meat, then chose a red wine.
b. If the Los Angeles Lakers are playing at home, they will be favored to win.
c. Bonds always hits a home run following an intentional walk.
d. Tuesday always follows Monday.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 210

34. The _____________ performs deductions or inferences based on rules or facts. In addition, it is capable of performing inexact or fuzzy reasoning based on probability or pattern matching.
a. inference engine
b. dialog system
c. database
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 220

35. Chaining is a simple method used by most IEs to produce a line of reasoning. Using this method the set of rules are organized in a recursive manner such that a fact concluded by one rule is used as the premise for the next. The two types of chaining bases which are possible in an ES are:
a. straight and link.
b. forward and backward.
c. upward and downward.
d. inside and outside.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 220

36. The ES component which provides the ES user with an area of working memory to use as a workspace for the various other components of the ES is the:
a. dialog system.
b. user interface.
c. knowledge base.
d. blackboard.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 222

37. Which of the following is not a candidate situation for ES opportunities?
a. Need to define a repetitive process to automate a manufacturing process
b. Need to evaluate a process
c. Need to control or govern a particular activity
d. Need to understand the nature of a given situation

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 224

38. Which of the following is a candidate situation for ES opportunities?
a. Need for diagnosis of a problem situation
b. Need to predict the outcome of a current or future event
c. Need to evaluate and assess a prior event
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 224

39. Which of the following is not a criterion for the evaluation of an expert system?
a. The system should be responsive and easy to use.
b. The knowledge base should contain generally accepted knowledge.
c. The explanatory facility should be user-friendly.
d. All of the above are criteria.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 226

40. Which of the following is a limitation associated with common ES task categories?
a. Data may be inaccurate.
b. Data may be missing.
c. Multiple symptoms can confound diagnosis.
d. All of the above are limitations.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 228

Essay Questions

41. Provide a definition for the term Expert System.

42. List and explain the different types of human reasoning processes.

43. What are the benefits of expert systems?

44. Identify eight problems or limitations associated with expert systems.

45. Define each of the following terms:
approach of the life sciences of “taking apart” living organisms to see how they work, AL attempts to “put together” systems that behave like living organisms.

Chapter 8
Knowledge Engineering and Acquisition

True-False Questions

139. Both knowledge engineers and system analysts have the same goal; to create a thorough specification of an information system that can be successfully implemented.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238

140. Knowledge engineers need to have a high degree of domain knowledge combined with a broad set of system development skills.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238

141. Each expert system is a one-of-a-kind system and its success is predicated on the skill of the KEs to extract knowledge that is deeply hidden in the mind of a human expert.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238

142. Data are facts, measurements, or observations with or without context.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

143. Apples and oranges are an example of data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

144. Information is knowledge organized in a manner as to render it useful and relevant to a problem solver in making decisions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

145. Knowledge is the application of a combination of instincts, ideas, rules, procedures, and information to guide the actions and decisions of a problem solver within a particular problem context.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

146. Knowledge is an interpretation made by the mind.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

147. If a system contains a knowledge representation, such as a model or rule set, of something, then the system itself can also be said to have knowledge, namely the knowledge embodied in that representation about that thing.

148. In the knowledge representation perspective, knowledge is seen as a set of stocks or inventories in which items are transferred from one stock to another based on process or external event.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 241

149. As the state of knowledge is increased, the chance for information overload is diminished and the quality of the knowledge is extended.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 241

150. In knowledge acquisition (KA), the elicitation, gathering, organizing, and formalization of the knowledge of experts in a specific domain is conducted with the goal of transforming that knowledge into some computer-usable representation.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 243

151. Descriptive knowledge may be analyzed using procedural knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 242

152. The acquisition of knowledge from external sources must be an active process.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 242

153. The primary functions of the performance model are to fully define the task under study, assist in the selection of the expert(s), establish the user characteristics and performance criteria for the system, and to function as an interpretive framework for protocol analysis of the experts’ responses.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 244

154. Knowledge engineer-driven acquisition is considered the most common approach to information gathering.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 245

155. Kim and Courtney proposed that knowledge be classified across strategic and performance dimensions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 245

156. When using the expert-driven approach to KA, the expert encodes his or her own expertise and knowledge and enters it directly into the computer system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 245

157. Interviewing is probably the most widely used and familiar of all KA techniques.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 247

158. Validation is concerned with whether or not the system we built conforms to its original specifications.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 254

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is an example of data?
a. 23, 24, 25
b. 30, 13, 12
c. John, Adam, Kim
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

22. Which of the following includes the application of a combination of instincts, ideas, rules and procedures to guide actions and decisions?
a. Data
b. Information
c. Knowledge
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

23. Data organized in such a manner as to render it useful and relevant to a problem solver in making decisions is referred to as:
a. Knowledge
b. Expertise
c. Information
d. Wisdom

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

24. The ____________ perspective suggests that learning is a form of knowledge production and that knowledge is “manufactured” as well as acquired. Knowledge is seen as a set of stocks or inventories in which items are transferred from one stock to another based on process or external event.
a. Knowledge representation
b. Production
c. Knowledge states
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 241

25. Which of the following is not a predominant knowledge perspective?
a. Representation
b. Analysis
c. Production
d. States

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

26. According to van Lohuizen, which of the following is not a knowledge state?
a. Data
b. Insight
c. Intuition
d. Decision

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 241

27. According to van Lohuizen, which of the following is not a knowledge state?
a. Structured information
b. Wisdom
c. Judgment
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 241

28. According to Holsapple and Whinston, which of the following is a primary knowledge type?
a. Linguistic
b. Presentation
c. Procedural
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 242

29. According to Holsapple and Whinston, which of the following is a secondary knowledge type?

a. Descriptive
b. Assimilative
c. Reasoning
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 242

30. The process by which elicitation, gathering, organizing, and formalization of the knowledge of experts in a specific domain is conducted with the goal of transforming that knowledge into some computer-usable representation is called:
a. Knowledge inference.
b. Requirements determination.
c. Knowledge acquisition.
d. Performance modeling.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 243

31. According to Kim and Courtney, knowledge acquisition can be classified across which two dimensions?
a. Statistical, tactical
b. Operational, stochastic
c. Strategic, tacit
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 245

32. The primary vehicle by which the information necessary to construct the performance model is gathered is through verbalization by the expert, often referred to as
a. political analysis.
b. knowledge engineering.
c. protocol analysis.
d. machine-driven learning.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 248

33. Which knowledge acquisition technique requires a significant amount of up-front planning?
a. Structured interviews
b. Unstructured interviews
c. General interviews
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 247

34. When using the ___________ approach to KA, the expert encodes his or her own expertise and knowledge and enters it directly into the computer system. In this regard, the expert is serving two roles: expert and KE.
a. expert-driven
b. KE-driven
c. machine-driven
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 245

35. _____________is that part of the evaluation process that focuses on the performance aspects of the knowledge base.
a. Verification
b. Efficiency
c. Validation
d. Criterion measurement

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 254

36. _____________ is concerned with whether or not we built a system that performs with an acceptable level of competence and accuracy.
a. Verification
b. Efficiency
c. Validation
d. Criterion measurement

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 254

37. Which of the following is not part of a preinterview checklist?
a. Decide what you need to know.
b. Determine the appropriate degree of structure for the interview.
c. Determine that an interview is the best method for obtaining this information.
d. All of the above are part of a preinterview checklist.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 248

38. Which of the following is a necessary task condition for successful concurrent protocols?
a. Each task must have a clearly defined conclusion.
b. The task must be able to be completed within two protocol sessions.
c. All data must be presented to the expert in a familiar form.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 250

39. The knowledge validation measure that defines how credible the knowledge is is referred to as:
a. depth.
b. breadth.
c. face validity.
d. robustness.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 254

40. The knowledge validation measure that defines the impact of changes in the knowledge base on the quality of the outputs is referred to as:
a. sensitivity.
b. appeal.
c. adaptability.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 254

Essay Questions

41. What are the three primary challenges to obtaining valid knowledge?

42. Compare KE-driven KA with expert-driven KA. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each method?

69. What are the primary functions of the task model?

70. What are the benefits and limitations of the repertory grid method of knowledge gathering?

71. Define validity and verification in the context of the knowledge base.

Chapter 9
Machines That Can Learn

True-False Questions

159. Neural computing involves processing information by means of changing states of networks formed by interconnecting extremely large numbers of simple processing elements that interact with one another by exchanging signals.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 260

160. Fuzzy logic allows for the partial description of a rule.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

161. Fuzzy logic is key to developing computers that can think.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

162. The human language has evolved to allow for the conveyance of meaning through semantic approximation rather than precise content
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

163. Fuzzy logic deals with the likelihood that something has a particular property while probability deals with the degree to which a particular property is present in something
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 261

164. Fuzzy logic is a new development in the computing industry that emerged as a result of the development of Internet search engines.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 262

165. Fuzzy logic can deal with any degree of change in input.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 262

166. When continuous variables are involved, traditional rule-based systems tend to provide more accurate results than fuzzy logic.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 264

167. Fuzzy logic allows for the modeling of contradiction within a knowledge base.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 265

168. One of the limitations of a fuzzy logic system is that each rule is dependant upon all of the other rules in the knowledge base.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 266

169. Under highly complex situations, fuzzy logic rules are highly verifiable.

170. Artificial neural networks are simple computer-based programs whose primary function is to construct models of a problem space based upon trial and error.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 266

171. The transmission of signals from one neuron to another in an artificial neural network occurs at the neural synapse via a complex chemical process in which specific substances, called neurotransmitters, are released from one side of the synaptic junction.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 266-267

172. The ANN involves an interconnected system of nodes called neurodes that are associated with one or more weighted connections that are equivalent to human neural synapses, inside the memory of a digital computer. The construction of the ANN is one of multiple layers with the connections running between the layers.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

173. The basic structure a typical neurode consists of is a set of weighted input connections, a bias input, a state function, a nonlinear transfer function, and an output connection.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 268

174. The purpose of a state function is to consolidate the weights of the various inputs to the neurode into a single value that can be passed to the transfer function for processing.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 269

175. The primary purpose of the learning paradigm is to serve as the vehicle by which the summed information is passed on as output.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 271

176. An advantage of automated neural nets is the elimination of the need for direct input from experts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 273

177. The GA’s smallest unit is called a chromosome. The chromosome represents the smallest unit of information in the problem domain and can be thought of as the basic building block for a possible solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 276

178. The GA’s smallest unit is called a gene. The gene represents the smallest unit of information in the problem domain and can be thought of as the basic building block for a possible solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 276

Multiple Choice Questions

21. ______________ is a method of reasoning that allows for the partial description of a rule. Combining this approach to reasoning with the realm of digital processors has results in a class of computer applications that can “learn” from their mistakes and can “understand” the vagaries commonly found in human thought.
a. Backward propagation
b. Forward propagation
c. Fuzzy logic
d. Neural computing

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

22. Which of the following is not true of fuzzy logic?
a. Fuzzy logic focuses on gradation.
b. Fuzzy logic utilizes precise distinction.
c. Fuzzy logic allows for the partial description of a rule.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 261

23. Which of the following is an advantage of fuzzy systems?
a. Allows for increased association amongst the rules of the system
b. Supports modeling of contradiction
c. Increase system verification capability
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 265

24. Which of the following is a disadvantage of fuzzy systems?
a. Fuzzy systems decrease system autonomy.
b. Objects in a fuzzy system can belong to multiple sets.
c. Fuzzy systems lack memory.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 265

25. A simple computer-based program whose primary function is to construct models of a problem space based upon trial and error is called a(n):
a. artificial neural network.
b. genetic algorithm.
c. decision support system.
d. data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 266

26. In the human brain, the transmission of signals from one neuron to another occurs at a junction referred to as the:
a. transmitters.
b. neurides.
c. neurodes.
d. synapses.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

27. The ANN involves an interconnected system of nodes called _________that are associated with one or more weighted connections that are equivalent to human neural synapses, inside the memory of a digital computer.
a. transmitters
b. neurides
c. neurodes
d. synapses

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 267

28. Which of the following is part of the basic structure of a neurode?
a. Bias input
b. State function
c. Nonlinear transfer function
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 268

29. The ANN layer that receives the data is referred to as the?
a. input layer.
b. output layer.
c. hidden layer.
d. neural layer.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

30. The ANN layer that relays the final results of the net is referred to as the:
a. input layer.
b. output layer.
c. hidden layer.
d. neural layer.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

31. The __________ in an ANN is where the processing and transformation of the input signal takes place and where the type of output signal is determined.
a. input layer
b. output layer
c. hidden layer
d. neural layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 267

32. The _____________ is not normally connected to the ANN and is assumed to have an input value of 1.0 for the state function. Its purpose is to allow for the individual adjustment of the firing threshold of the neurode to facilitate the final adjustment of the ANN following the learning process.
a. input layer
b. bias input
c. state function
d. output connection

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 268-269

33. The __________________’s purpose is the consolidation of the weights of the various inputs to the neurode into a single value that can be passed to the transfer function for processing. The value obtained determines the degree of impact the combined inputs will have on the transfer function and, thus, on the final output of the neurode.
a. input layer
b. bias input
c. state function
d. output connection

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 269

34. The function in an ANN which serves as the vehicle by which the summed information is passed on as output is called the:
a. transfer function.
b. state function.
c. memory function.
d. neural function.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 269

35. The actual procedure used by a neural network to find the appropriate weight settings is referred to as its:
a. transfer function.
b. state function.
c. weight seeking function.
d. learning paradigm.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 271

36. Which of the following is not a benefit derived from neural computing?
a. Reduced need for experts.
b. Allows for generalization from specific information content.
c. Highly verifiable, especially for complex problems.
d. All of the above are benefits.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 273

37. Which of the following are limitations of neural computing?
a. ANNs cannot explain inferences.
b. The repetitive training process is often time consuming.
c. Neural computing technologies push the limits of their hardware.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 274

38. A computer program that employs a set of adaptive processes that mimic the concept of “survival of the fittest” by regenerating recombinants of itself in response to a calculated difference between the network’s guess and the desired solution state is known as a:
a. neural network.
b. artificial life system.
c. genetic algorithm.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 276

39. In a genetic algorithm, the smallest unit of information in the problem domain is called a:
a. chromosome.
b. gene.
c. neuron.
d. synapse.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 276

40. Which of the following is not a genetic algorithm operational process?
a. Evaluation
b. Initialization
c. Mutation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 277, 279

Essay Questions

41. Define neural computing.

42. Explain the similarities and the differences between fuzziness and probability.

72. List the benefits of neural computing.

73. List the limitations of neural computing.

74. What is the primary advantage that Genetic Algorithms have over Artificial Neural Networks?

Chapter 10
The Data Warehouse

True-False Questions

179. According to Inmon, a data warehouse is a subject-oriented, integrated database designed to support DSS functions where the data is volatile and relevant.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 295

180. A data warehouse is typically physically separated from transaction processing systems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

181. Only a small fraction of the data that is captured, processed and stored in the enterprise is actually ever made available to executives and decision makers.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

182. The most common component of a data warehouse environment is the operational data store.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

183. A data mart is a subset of a data warehouse.

184. The essence of the data warehouse concept is a recognition that the characteristics and usage patterns of operational systems used to automate business processes and those of a DSS are fundamentally similar and symbiotically linked.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 295

185. One difference between data warehouses and operational data stores is the presence of metadata.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 297

186. Metadata are data about data.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 297

187. Metadata are detailed data that has been aggregated and condensed into a more useful form.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 297

188. The very essence of the DW environment is that the data contained within the boundaries of the warehouse are integrated. This integration manifests itself through consistency in naming convention and measurement attributes, accuracy, and common aggregation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 299

189. The time horizon for data in the data warehouse is typically significantly longer than operational data sores.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 301

190. One of the benefits of integrated data is the establishment of a common unit of measure for all synonymous data elements from dissimilar databases.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 300

191. According to Inmon, because data warehouses are highly de-normalized, they are highly redundant.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 303

192. One objective of the data warehouse environment is to minimize the impact on operational systems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 303

193. The end user in a data warehouse environment deals directly with the application messaging layer.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

194. The process management layer in a data warehouse can be thought of as a scheduler.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 305

195. The processes needed to prepare the data to be loaded into a data warehouse are performed in the data staging layer.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

196. A data warehouse topology requires a centralized data warehouse that is accessed by one or more decision support tools.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 306

197. One of the most important factors in the development of a data warehouse is a comprehensive architectural framework.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 313

198. Transformation mapping metadata records how data from operational data stores and external sources are transformed on the way into the warehouse.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 310

Multiple Choice Questions

21. The most common component in the DW environment is the _____________. Its primary day-to-day function is to store the data for a single, specific set of operational applications.
a. data mart
b. data warehouse
c. operational data store
d. data staging tables

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

22. Which of the following is not true of a data warehouse?
a. Implicit in its definition is that the data warehouse is physically separated from all other operational systems.
b. The data warehouse replaces the need for all other reporting systems within an organization.
c. The data warehouse holds aggregated data and atomic data for management.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 295

23. An alternative to the data warehouse concept is a lower-cost, scaled-down version referred to as a:
a. data mart.
b. metadata warehouse.
c. operational data store.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 296

24. Which of the following is not true of a data mart?
a. The data mart is often viewed as a way to gain entry into the realm of data warehouses and to make the mistakes on a smaller scale.
b. Vendors of data warehouse applications have found it easier to deal with a small group of isolated users than with the IS department of an entire organization.
c. The data mart is more efficient than a fully-developed data warehouse.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 296

25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a data warehouse?
a. Data integrated
b. Volatile
c. Subject oriented
d. Time variant

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 298

26. The essence of the data warehouse environment is that the data contained within the boundaries of the warehouse are _____________
a. integrated
b. consistent
c. streamlined
d. accurate

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 299

27. The concept of time variant data implies which of the following statements?
a. Data are simply assumed to be accurate as of some moment in time and not necessarily right now.
b. Data are assumed to be accurate at the moment they were loaded into the data warehouse.
c. Data are assumed to vary over time.
d. Both a and b

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 301

28. Which of the following activities would not normally be associated with a data warehouse?
a. Loading
b. Updating
c. Accessing
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 302

29. The _______________________ represents the source data for the DW. This layer is comprised, primarily, of operational transaction processing systems and external secondary databases.
a. information access layer
b. operational and external layer
c. data access layer
d. process management layer

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 303

30. Which layer of the data warehouse architecture does the end user deal directly with?
a. Data access layer
b. Application messaging layer
c. Information access layer
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 303

31. The ______________ serves as a sort of interface or middleman between the operational and information access layers and the data warehouse itself. This layer spans the various databases contained within the DW and facilitates common access by the DW users.
a. data access layer
b. application messaging layer
c. information access layer
d. none of the above

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 304

32. Which of the following would not be a good example of metadata?
a. the directory of where the data is stored
b. the rules used for summarization and scrubbing
c. where the operational data came from
d. all of the above are examples of metadata

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 307

33. Which layer within the data warehouse architecture focuses on scheduling tasks that must be accomplished to build and maintain the data warehouse and data directory information?
a. data access layer
b. process management layer
c. application messaging layer
d. none of the above

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

34. Which of the following is a valid data warehouse configuration?
a. Centralized data warehouse
b. Virtual data warehouse
c. Distributed data warehouse
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 306

35. The _____________________ has to do with transporting information around the enterprise computing network. This layer is also referred to as the “middleware,” but it can typically involve more that just networking protocols and request routing.
a. application messaging layer
b. process management layer
c. data access layer
d. information access layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

36. The ____________________ is where the actual data used for decision support throughout the organization are located.
a. information access layer
b. operational and external layer
c. physical data warehouse layer
d. process management layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

37. The final component of the DWA is the __________________. This layer includes all of the processes necessary to select, edit, summarize, combine and load data warehouse and information access data from operational and/or external databases.
a. data staging layer
b. operational and external layer
c. physical data warehouse layer
d. process management layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

38. The process that records how data from operational data stores and external sources are transformed on the way into the warehouse is referred to as:
a. summarization algorithms.
b. transformation mapping.
c. back propagation.
d. extraction history.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 310

39. The _____________________ applied to the detail data are of importance to any decision maker analyzing or interpreting the meaning of the summaries. These metadata can also save time by making it easier to decide which level of summarization is most appropriate for a given analysis context.
a. summarization algorithms
b. transformation mapping
c. back propagation
d. extraction history

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 311

40. Whenever historical information is analyzed, meticulous update records must be kept. Often a decision maker will begin the process of constructing a time-based report by reviewing the ________________ because any changes to the business rules must be ascertained in order to apply the right rules to the right data.
a. summarization algorithms
b. transformation mapping
c. back propagation
d. extraction history

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 310-311

Essay Questions

41. What are the seven deadly sins of data warehouse implementation?

42. What are the characteristics of a data warehouse?

75. What is a data warehouse?

76. List and explain the different layers in the data warehouse architecture.

77. What are metadata? Why are they so important to a data warehouse?

Chapter 11
Data Mining and Data Visualization

True-False Questions

199. Data mining is a set of activities used to find new, hidden, or unexpected patterns in data.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

200. A synonym for data mining is information sifting and discovery (ISD).
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

201. Data mining is a business solution, not a technology.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 327

202. One of the primary reasons for the rise in data mining popularity is the ever-increasing volume of data that require processing.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 328

203. The broad category of software decision-making technology that enables multidimensional analysis is referred to as OLAP.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 329

204. ROLAP organizes and analyzes data as an n-dimensional cube. The ROLAP cube can be conceptually thought of as a common spreadsheet with two extensions: (1) support for multiple dimensions and (2) support for multiple concurrent users.

205. One of the primary advantages of ROLAP versus MOLAP is it results in performance improvements for data access.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 331

206. MOLAP provides support for concurrent users.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 331

207. Sparcity can significantly increase the storage requirements of a MOLAP hypercube by requiring that space be allocated for all cells rather than just the ones that contain data values.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

208. MOLAP is well-suited to handle large numbers of detailed data.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 331

209. ROLAP databases typically contain both summary and detail data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

210. The ROLAP structure contains a large number of normalized tables.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 332

211. The central table in a star schema is a dimension table.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 332

212. Data mining methods can be classified in two ways: by the function they perform or by their class of application.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 333

213. The classification approach to data mining searches all details or transactions from operational systems for patterns with a high probability of repetition.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 333

214. The association approach to data mining is intended to discover rules that define whether an item or event belongs to a particular subset of data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 333

215. The sequencing approach to data mining relates events in time, based on a series of preceding events.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

216. The clustering approach to data mining is useful when there is a need to create partitions in order to discover patterns in the data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 335

217. Data mining does not use statistical techniques because the complex patterns in data do not lend themselves to linear regression analysis.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 336

218. Two new categories of data mining are text mining and Web mining.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 338

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is a synonym for data mining?
a. Knowledge data discovery
b. Information analysis
c. Coal mining
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

22. Which of the following is not true of data mining?
a. Data mining has seen explosive growth in the area of customer relationship management.
b. Data mining is a business solution.
c. Data mining is a technology.
d. None of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 327

23. The set of activities used to find new, hidden, or unexpected patterns in data is referred to as:
a. data warehousing.
b. data mining.
c. data transformation.
d. data aggregation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

24. Which of the following is a reason for the growth in popularity of data mining?
a. Increased volume of data
b. Increased awareness of the inadequacy of the human brain to process multifactorial dependencies or correlations
c. Increased affordability of machine learning
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 328

25. The term _________ has been generally agreed to represent the broad category of software technology that enables decision makers to conduct multidimensional analysis of consolidated enterprise data.
a. OLAP
b. MOLAP
c. ROLAP
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 329

26. ____________organizes and analyzes data as an n-dimensional cube. The cube can be thought of as a common spreadsheet with two extensions: (1) support for multiple dimensions and (2) support for multiple concurrent users.
a. OLAP
b. MOLAP
c. ROLAP
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 331

27. In _____________, the multidimensional database server is replaced with a large relational database server. This “super” relational database will contain both detailed and summarized data thus allowing for “drill down” techniques to be applied to the data sets.
a. OLAP
b. MOLAP
c. ROLAP
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 331

28. In a ________________, the data are stored as a multidimensional array where each cell in the array represents the intersection of all of the dimensions. Using this approach, any number of dimensions may be analyzed simultaneously and any number of multidimensional views of the data can be created.
a. hyperion cube
b. hypercube
c. stochastic cube
d. correlation cube

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

29. Which term is used to refer to a basic database operation that links rows of two or more tables by one or more columns in each table?
a. n-cube analysis
b. table link
c. table join
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

30. Which of the following is at the center of a star schema?
a. Multi dimensional cube
b. Dimension table
c. Fact table
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 332

31. Which of the following is not considered one of the four major categories of processing algorithms and rule approaches?
a. Classification
b. Association
c. Sequence
d. Principal components analysis

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 333

32. Which data mining technique utilizes linkage analysis to search operational transactions for patterns with a high probability of repetition?
a. Association
b. Cluster
c. Sequence
d. Principal components analysis

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

33. There are some cases where it is difficult or impossible to define the parameters of a class of data to be analyzed. In these cases, _____________ methods can be used to create partitions so that all members of each set are similar according to some metric or set of metrics thus creating a set of objects grouped together by virtue of their similarity or proximity to each other.
a. association
b. linkage analysis
c. sequencing
d. clustering

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 335

34. ___________________ methods are used to relate events in time, such as the prediction of interest rate fluctuations or stock performance, based on a series of preceding events. Through this analysis, various hidden trends can be discovered that are often highly predictive of future events.
a. Association
b. Linkage analysis
c. Sequencing
d. Clustering

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

35. Which of the following is not a data mining technology?
a. Statistical analysis
b. Neural networks
c. Decision trees
d. All of the above are data mining technologies.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 336

36. A common example of the use of association methods where a retailer can mine the data generated by a point-of-sale system, such as the price scanner you are familiar with at the grocery store is referred to as:
a. sequencing.
b. linkage analysis.
c. clustering.
d. market basket analysis.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

37. The process by which numerical data is converted into meaningful images is referred to as:
a. data mining.
b. data warehousing.
c. data visualization.
d. data aggregation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 351

38. Which of the following is not an advantage of market basket analysis?
a. Identifying which products sell together can help manage inventory.
b. It is more preferable to marketers to market to existing customers.
c. Market basket analysis can sometimes produce results that are due to prior marketing campaigns.
d. All of the above are advantages.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 345

39. An orderly hierarchy of items and item categories that divides each item into a basket analysis is referred to as a:
a. cluster analysis.
b. taxonomy.
c. multi dimensional market basket analysis.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 348

40. Which of the following is a limitation of data mining?
a. Identification of missing data
b. Data noise
c. Missing values
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pps. 350-351

Essay Questions

41. What are Codd’s twelve rules for OLAP?

42. What are the current limitations and challenges to data mining?

78. List and briefly describe several data mining technologies.

79. Describe how relational on-line analytical processing (ROLAP) works.

80. Explain the concept of multidimensional on-line analytical processing (MOLAP).

Chapter 12
Designing and Building the Data Warehouse

True-False Questions

219. The first step in planning a data warehouse is to define the information requirements of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 383

220. The enterprise model consists of a number of separate models integrated together to provide a comprehensive view of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

221. The corporate process model describes the entities generated by the elementary processes carried out by the enterprise.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

222. The corporate data model represents a highly structured description of the elementary processes within the enterprise that identify the interrelationships among the different processes.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

223. The long term benefit of an enterprise data warehouse is the increased integration of business processes throughout the organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 384

224. A top-down data warehouse design focuses on making use of data available in the current operational systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 384-385

225. A bottom-up approach to data warehouse brings more benefit to a data warehouse project than a top-down approach.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385

226. Horizontal integration is the means by which the application designer ensures that the software application is congruent with the stated business requirements.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385

227. Enterprise integration ensures that each application is fully integrated within its own boundaries.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385

228. Vertical integration ensures that consistent data definitions occur across the entire organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 386

229. One of the most significant data warehouse critical success factors is strong management support.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 386

230. Organizational culture can have an impact on their readiness to develop a data warehouse because data warehouse development implies cross departmental cooperation and information sharing.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 388

231. One common approach to data warehouse project prioritization is to rank initiatives by impact on the information technology organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 390

232. One low cost approach to determining data warehouse feasibility is to develop a proof of concept.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 391

233. When the initial scope of a project continues to expand to incorporate new features this is referred to as feature expansion.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 392

234. The first step in developing a data warehouse is to determine the project scope.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 392

235. A project benefit that can be identified with certainty and expressed in dollars is said to be an intangible benefit.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 396

236. The ability to introduce new products would be considered an intangible project benefit.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 396

237. The ability to be proactive in identifying legal issues, thereby foregoing potential financial penalties that might impact a firm would be considered an intangible project benefit.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 397

238. Economic feasibility measures share one concept in common – the time value of money.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 399

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following data warehouse design approaches implies a strategic rather than operational perspective?
a. Bottom-up approach
b. Top-down approach
c. Central approach
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

22. When the application designer ensures that the software application is in harmony with the business requirements, this is referred to as:
a. horizontal integration.
b. vertical integration.
c. enterprise integration.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 385

23. _________ seeks to ensure that each application under development is fully integrated within its own boundaries and to eliminate any inconsistencies in the final software product.
a. Horizontal integration
b. Vertical integration
c. Enterprise integration
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 385

24. __________ ensures that there is consistent definition of data and processes across the organization.
a. Horizontal integration
b. Vertical integration
c. Enterprise integration
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 386

25. Which of the following is not a data warehouse project readiness assessment factor?
a. Strong sponsorship
b. A compelling business motivation
c. An analytic organizational culture
d. All of the above are factors.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 386-388

26. Which of the following is considered a key question to the success of a data warehouse initiative?
a. What are the key performance indicators used for each of the key business initiatives?
b. What is the potential impact on each of the existing performance metrics with improved access to higher-quality business process information?
c. What does management consider to be the key strategic business initiatives?
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 390

27. Which of the following is considered to be a project prioritization dimension?
a. Perceived impact on the core business
b. Economic impact on the IT organization
c. Feasibility of staffing the project internally
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 390

28. Which term refers to the process of developing a relatively low cost prototype to demonstrate that a data warehouse will achieve the perceived benefits?
a. Proof of prototype
b. Proof of concept
c. Proof of benefit
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 391

29. __________ occurs when the initial scope of a project continues to expand as new features are incorporated into the project.
a. Feature creep
b. Hope creep
c. Scope creep
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 392

30. Which of the following refers to a perspective from which an argument to pursue an investment can be made?
a. Faith
b. Fear
c. Facts
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 394

31. Despite increased spending in information technology productivity growth in the U.S. has been stagnant or weak. This phenomenon is referred to as:
a. technology paradox.
b. productivity paradox.
c. productivity paradigm.
d. technology paradigm.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 394

32. A(n) ________ benefit can be identified with certainty and is easily expressed in dollars.
a. intangible
b. tangible
c. enterprise
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 396

33. A(n) _________ benefit can be directly associated with a project but is not easily expressed in dollars.
a. intangible
b. tangible
c. enterprise
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 396

34. Which of the following is not a tangible benefit?
a. Increase in process quality
b. Reduction in employee turnover
c. Improving time to market
d. Decreased need for travel

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 396

35. Which of the following is not an intangible benefit?
a. Development of new markets
b. Increased competitive advantage
c. More timely information
d. Increased workplace safety

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 397

36. Which of the following is an economic feasibility measure?
a. Net present value
b. Breakeven analysis
c. Internal rate of return
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 399

37. Which economic feasibility measure results in a return on investment expressed as an interest rate?
a. Net present value
b. Breakeven analysis
c. Internal rate of return
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 402

38. ____________ determines the point where the benefits of a project equal its costs.
a. Net present value
b. Breakeven analysis
c. Internal rate of return
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 402

39. Joining a fact table to dimension tables in a star schema is referred to as a:
a. star join.
b. data mart.
c. fact analysis.
d. dimensional warehouse.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 407

40. ___________ determines exactly what constitutes a fact record.
a. Star schema
b. Degree of granularity
c. Data mart analysis
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 410

Essay Questions

41. Describe the two main components of an enterprise model.

42. Define three levels of enterprise integration.

81. Distinguish between tangible and intangible benefits.

82. What are the benefits realized through a sound data warehouse architecture?

83. List the guidelines for a successful data warehouse project.

Chapter 13
Decisions in the Organization

True-False Questions

239. A system can be defined as a series of interrelated elements with an identifiable boundary, that work together to achieve a common goal.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

240. The concept of synergy states that the whole is equal to the sum of the parts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

241. A system contains three components: interrelated elements, internal inputs, and subsystems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

242. Another name for a system element is a subsystem.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

243. Boundaries imply that systems can be distinguished via their relationship to other systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 425

244. Elements that are not contained within the boundary of a system are part of the system environment.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 425

245. The system environment is not part of the system itself.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 425

246. A self contained system that has very little interaction with the external environment is referred to as an adaptive system.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 427

247. Closed systems are perpetual and self-sustaining.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 427

248. Open systems adapt both internally and externally.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 427

249. Function composition is the process of breaking down systems into more discreet subsystems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 428

250. A DSS is considered to be a closed system because all of the data stores used are self-contained.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 430

251. One of the advantages of a DSS is that the end-user is always contained with the boundaries of the system, resulting in greater system control.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 430

252. A service level agreement provides a detailed description of each service provision along with reporting requirements for each party to the agreement.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 434

253. Information relevance is synonymous with information precision.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 436

254. The standard for information to be considered timely is that it must be available to the user within 48 hours.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 437

255. Information consistency refers to how quickly and easily its intended user can figure out what to do with it.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 438

256. Information system architecture is a detailed plan that addresses the make, model and characteristics of each physical unit in a system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

257. One of the unique features of a DSS is that the data is highly specialized and rarely used by anyone other than the person who created it.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 440

258. Scalability is the degree to which a platform can be expanded to accommodate increases in processing requirements.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following describes the term synergy?
a. The whole is greater than the sum of the parts.
b. The whole is equal to the sum of the parts.
c. A well defined DSS will result in performance improvements.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

22. Elements is a system are also referred to as:
a. models.
b. subsystems.
c. boundaries.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

23. _________ and ________ are common classifications of systems.
a. Internal, external
b. Inside, outside
c. Open, closed
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 426

24. Which term best describes a mechanistic system?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Closed
d. Open

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 426

25. Which term best describes an adaptive system?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Closed
d. Open

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 427

26. Which type of system tends to be less structured in its operation?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Closed
d. Open

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 427

27. The process of continually redefining a system into smaller, more discrete subsystems in referred to as:
a. system identification.
b. functional decomposition.
c. requirements definition.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 428

28. Which of the following is not true of a DSS?
a. A DSS is usually associated with more than one data store.
b. A DSS usually serves more end users than a typical transactional system.
c. A DSS can be controlled by its end users.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 430

29. Which of the following is not needed to define a DSS?
a. The objectives of the DSS application.
b. The definition of the data that resides within the boundaries of the DSS.
c. The definition of the temporal processes contained within the DSS.
d. All of the above are needed.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 431

30. Which of the following is true of a service level agreement?
a. It defines both the scope and level of service expected by the users of the service.
b. it includes a detailed description of each aspect of the service.
c. It identifies reporting obligations for all parties to the service.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 434

31. Which of the following is not a factor in determining information quality?
a. Relevance
b. Accuracy
c. Precision
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 436

32. Which of the following is not a factor in determining information quality?
a. Usability
b. Cost
c. Correctness
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 438-439

33. Information that matches the needs of the decision maker is said to be:
a. timely.
b. accurate.
c. relevant.
d. precise.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 435

34. __________ refers to the maximum accuracy with which a piece of information can be represented.
a. Correctness
b. Precision
c. Consistency
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 436

35. ___________ is the degree to which similar pieces of information are stored and presented in a similar and predictable fashion.
a. Consistency
b. Precision
c. Accuracy
d. Relevance

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 438

36. Which of the following is not an issue to be considered in the definition of DSS architecture?
a. Interoperability
b. Scalability
c. Compatibility
d. All of the above are issues to consider.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

37. Which of the following refers to the degree to which information can be delivered to the exact locus of a decision?
a. Interoperability
b. Compatibility
c. Scalability
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

38. DSS _________ is a cost reduction issue, supporting the growth of a platform as system requirements change.
a. interoperability
b. compatibility
c. scalability
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 440

39. The issue of ________ focuses on the degree to which a DSS under design will interact effectively with other organizational systems.
a. interoperability
b. compatibility
c. scalability
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 440

40. Which of the following is included within a well-defined DSS architecture?
a. Databases
b. Models
c. Administration tools
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 442

Essay Questions

41. List the elements of a well-defined DSS architecture.

42. Briefly describe three issues that affect DSS information system architecture.

84. Briefly define a system.

85. Distinguish between a closed system and an open system.

86. List 8 factors that affect information quality.

Chapter 14
Designing and Building Decision Support Systems

True-False Questions

259. Because there is no one best DSS, it stands to reason that there is no one best way to design and build one either.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 450

260. Because of the unique requirements of a DSS, the only way to construct one is with a DSS generator.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 450

261. A DSS generator is an application system that eliminates the need for programming of thousands of individual instructions or codes in the design and construction of a DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 451

262. A common perspective with regard to system design and development is found in the system development life cycle (SDLC) approach. The SDLC portrays the process as a series of iterative and recursive phases, each with its own set of required inputs, activities, and deliverables.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 452

263. The primary advantage of an SLDC approach to DSS design is that it is the most adaptive methodology to handle the sometimes rapidly changing system specifications.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 453

264. An alternative to the SDLC approach is ROMC Analysis. This approach focuses the analysis effort on developing understandings of read operations (R), overflows (O), memory maps (M), and continuous data flow (C).
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 453

265. Functional category analysis results in the design of a DSS from the categorization of end-user interviews.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 454

266. Three primary categories of system requirements for the DSS can be established: (1) functional requirements, (2) interface requirements, and (3) coordination requirements.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 457

267. The functional requirements for the DSS focus on the DSS’s capacity for storage, recall, and production of knowledge useful to the problem context.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

268. The coordination requirements focus on the communication capabilities of the DSS. During this phase, the designer must determine the various channels and methods of communication that will be made available to the DSS user and the conditions under which they will be made available.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

269. The determination of specific physical components, structure, and development platforms is made during the system construction stage of the DSS development process.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

270. The goal of the system implementation phase is to test, evaluate, and deploy a fully functional and documented DSS. During this phase, a major activity is the final determination and evaluation of the degree to which the DSS meets the users’ needs.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 458

271. The DSS developer must possess the knowledge to develop the computer-based application but normally does not need to be knowledgeable about the details surrounding the problem under study.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 459

272. Two basic types of prototyping have proved effective in the development of DSSs: iterative prototypes and reusable prototypes.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 460

273. Prototyping can be beneficial in the development of a DSS because the immediate nature of user response and feedback regarding system functionality can result in greater senior management support.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 461

274. End users are those individuals who fall outside the confines of the formally defined IS department or function within an organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 463

275. An advantage of end-user development DSS applications is a reduction in time to deliver resulting in lower cost.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 464

276. An area of risk with end-user developed DSS applications is a potential lack of security measures built into the system.

277. The concept of the information center (IC) arose to address the need for end-user support in the design and development of computer-based applications.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 465

278. DSS development tools are classified as either primary development tools or DSS generators.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 466

Multiple Choice Questions

21. An application system that eliminates the need for programming of thousands of individual instructions or code in the design and construction of a DSS is called a(n):
a. DSS development system.
b. DSS generator.
c. DSS analyzer.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 451

22. A common perspective with regard to system design and development is found in the _____________ approach which portrays the process as a series of iterative and recursive phases, each with its own set of required inputs, activities, and deliverables.
a. DSS programming language
b. ROMC
c. SDLC
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 452

23. Which of the following is not true of the SDLC approach in DSS development?
a. It brings a necessary structure and discipline to the DSS development process.
b. It is flexible in its development approach.
c. It is common where formal relationships exist between the developer and end user.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 453

24. An alternative to the SDLC approach which focuses the analysis effort on developing understandings of representations, operations, memory aids, and controls is called:
a. SDLC II.
b. ROMC.
c. RAID.
d. CSF.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 453

25. A methodology for the design of a DSS that focuses on the identification of specific functions necessary for the development of a particular DSS from a broad list of available functions including selection, aggregation, estimation, simulation, equalization, and optimization is called:
a. functional category analysis.
b. ROMC.
c. SDLC.
d. SDLC II.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 454

26. Which of the following would not be considered a primary category of the systems analysis phase of DSS development?
a. Functional requirements
b. Interface requirements
c. Technical requirements
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 457

27. The set of specifications for the DSS which focuses on the DSS’s capacity for storage, recall, and production of knowledge useful to the problem context is known as the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

28. The requirements which focus on the communication capabilities of the DSS are called the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

29. The requirements for a DSS that include the timing of events associated with the decision-making process, the facilitation of the access to relevant information, and the integration of various modeling tools contained with the DSS are called the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

30. Which design phase uses iterative prototyping to make refinements to the system based upon feedback received from testing and user involvement?
a. System design
b. System construction
c. Implementation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 457-458

31. Which of the following would be an example of a coordination requirement?
a. The need to update sale projections for prior fiscal periods to actual figures before initiating a future projection process
b. The need to provide a graphic interface to the user
c. The need for a powerful server
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

32. The determination of specific physical components, structure, and development platforms is made during the __________stage of the DSS development process.
a. system design
b. system requirements
c. system construction
d. implementation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 457

33. The goal of the _________________ phase is to test, evaluate, and deploy a fully functional and documented DSS. During this phase, a major activity is the final determination and evaluation of the degree to which the DSS meets the users’ needs.
a. system design
b. system construction
c. system implementation
d. incremental adaptation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 458

34. The final stage in the DSS development process is ________. It involves the continual revisiting of the activities from earlier stages in an effort to the capabilities of the DSS based upon the knowledge gained as a result of its use.
a. system requirements revision
b. system installation
c. system implementation
d. incremental adaptation

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 458

35. Which of the following is true of the DSS development process?
a. More often than not the problem context is not known to the user.
b. The decision making process tends to vary greatly.
c. Prototyping is typically an expedient method of defining DSS requirements.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 459

36. Which of the following is not a prototyping classification?
a. Iterative
b. ROMC analyzed
c. Throwaway
d. All of the above are prototype classifications.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 460

37. Which of the following is true of prototyping?
a. It typically results in a lower development cost than an SDLC approach.
b. It typically results in a quicker development time than an SDLC approach.
c. In the early stages it is very similar to the SDLC approach.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 461

38. Which of the following is not true of an end-user developed DSS?
a. They are typically created in less time.
b. They typically have less implementation problems.
c. They typically result in lower development cost.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 464

39. The ___________________ are the lowest level of DSS development technology. In this category, we find the programming languages, code and text editors, graphics development applications, and database query mechanisms employed during the development of either a DSS generator or a specific DSS application.
a. primary development tools
b. DSS generators
c. specific DSS applications
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 467

40. The _____________ are packages of hardware/software which provide a set of capabilities to build a specific DSS quickly and easily.
a. primary development tools
b. DSS generators
c. specific DSS applications
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 467

Essay Questions

41. List the processes in the SDLC approach to DSS application development.

42. Describe the functional category analysis approach. What is its most significant benefit?

87. What are the strengths and weaknesses of the traditional SDLC approach?

88. List and briefly describe the two types of prototypes. Compare their advantages and limitations.

89. List the factors that are related to the quality of the user interface.

Chapter 15
Implementing and Integrating Decision Support Systems

True-False Questions

279. Implementation is probably the most important and critical step in the entire DSS design process because without a successful implementation, the greatest DSS ever created will go unused or even unnoticed.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 478

280. Implementation is a static process, occurring at the end of DSS development.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 479

281. The Lewin-Schein theory of change is structured and rigid.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 479

282. The essence of the Kolb-Frohman model is the assumption that the probability of successful implementation will result from a specific pattern of actions by the users and managers.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 479

283. Alter suggested that the initial impetus behind the development of a DSS can be categorized via: (1) user stimulus, (2) managerial stimulus and (3) environmental stimulus.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 481

284. The Service with a Smile implementation pattern is the most common approach for a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 482

285. The logic behind user satisfaction as a measure of success is that the users will view a DSS as favorable if it is perceived to be effective in supporting the decision-making process. The more effective the system appears to be, the more satisfied the users will be with the system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 485

286. The number of times a DSS was accessed is the most effective metric of its success.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 485

287. Davis developed a method of measuring user satisfaction of information systems based upon perceived usefulness and perceived ease of use.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 485

288. Perceived usefulness focuses on the attitudes of the user with regard to the degree to which the system is perceived to bring utility or value to the activity within which it is used.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

289. Perceived ease-of-use focuses on the degree to which the users of the system perceive the task to be easy to do.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

290. One method of assessing the success of a DSS is to focus on the technical functionality of the system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 486

291. Utilizing the ratio of direct cost to direct benefit is an example of using organizational success measures to assess a DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 486

292. Integrating the DSS into the organization simply means that the new application is merged into the existing computing infrastructure such that the appearance of a seamless architecture appears to the user.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

293. In functional integration, the various decision support functions with the DSS are integrated and linked to those of the existing infrastructure. This linking includes providing common menu access, inter- and intra-application transfer of data and tools, and a common application interface at the same desktop client or workstation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

294. Physical integration involves the architectural bundling of the hardware, software, and data communication characteristics associated with the new DSS into the existing set of physical systems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 494

295. Physical integration can begin before a DSS is designed.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

296. One of the least common problems faced during the implementation and integration of virtually any computer-based information system, including DSS, is the resistance by certain individuals or groups to the changes associated with the new system.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 495

297. Resistance to change can result from a number of different factors, including fear of the unknown.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 495

298. Managers represent the single resistance group to the implementation of a DSS, because they fear a loss of importance.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 497

Multiple Choice Questions

21. _________________ is probably the most important and critical step in the entire DSS design process because without its success, the greatest DSS ever created will go unused or even unnoticed.
a. Design
b. Implementation
c. Requirements Analysis
d. Physical Design

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 478

22. According to this theory, the process of change occurs in three basic steps: unfreezing, moving, and refreezing.
a. Kolb-Frohman
b. Structuration
c. Contingency
d. Lewin-Schein

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 479

23. Which of the following is not a step in the Kolb-Frohman theory of change?
a. Scouting
b. Entry
c. Diagnosis
d. Refreezing

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 481

24. According to Alter, which of the following is not a DSS development category impetus?
a. Entrepreneurial stimulus
b. User stimulus
c. Managerial stimulus
d. Environmental stimulus

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 481

25. One common measure of success suggests that users will view a DSS as favorable if it is seen as effective in supporting the decision-making process. This measure is known as:
a. perceived usefulness.
b. perceived ease of use.
c. user satisfaction.
d. system use.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

26. The ________________ construct focuses on the attitudes of the user with regard to the degree to which the system is perceived to bring utility or value to the activity within which it is used.
a. perceived usefulness
b. perceived ease-of-use
c. user satisfaction
d. system use

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

27. The ________________ construct focuses on the degree to which the users of the system perceive the tool to be easy to use.
a. perceived usefulness
b. perceived ease-of-use
c. user satisfaction
d. system use

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

28. Which DSS implementation pattern is associated with high levels of user involvement and initiation?
a. Join hands and circle around
b. Service with a smile
c. R&D
d. Used car salesperson

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 482

29. Which DSS implementation pattern is characterized by a consultant attempting to sell the need for a DSS to the user?
a. Join hands and circle around
b. Service with a smile
c. R&D
d. Used car salesperson

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 483

30. Which DSS implementation pattern is associated with users who are looking to buy a product?
a. Join hands and circle around
b. Service with a smile
c. R&D
d. Used car salesperson

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 482

31. Which of the following is not a criterion for DSS success?
a. Fits well with the organization’s planning methods.
b. Fits well with the political approach to decision making within the organization.
c. Is considered both cost effective and valuable relative to its development costs.
d. All of the above are DSS success criteria.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 487

32. In this system measurement category, the quality of the computer system becomes the focus. Issues such as response time, system availability, usage time, reliability, and quality of system support, among others are identified and measured. Measures in this category can be obtained using a variety of methods including direct observation, event logging, and attitude or perceptual construct surveys.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 487

33. This category of assessment takes a micro focus on performance and addresses issues related to the functionality of the DSS within the specific problem context for which it was developed. Decision quality can be assessed in terms of time spent in the decision process, number of alternatives evaluated, and span of information searched. Additionally, qualitative measures dealing with trust or confidence, satisfaction, and understanding, can also be included in this measure.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 488

34. This category measures the factors that contribute to the organizational aspects of the DSS. This category is primarily quantitative in nature and includes measures focusing on increases in revenue, cost reductions, increases in training effectiveness, increases in competitive advantages, and changes in productivity, among many others.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 488

35. The degree to which the DSS adapts to changes within the problem context and environment is the focus of this category of performance measurement. Inherent in providing support to ill-structured decisions and problem-solving tasks are the changes that can occur in the users’ decision-making behavior, problem characteristics, and circumstances. The ability of a DSS to adapt to these dynamics is often a function of the original development tool selected and the ability of the user to make necessary changes to data or models.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 488

36. Which of the following takes a process-centric perspective with regard to the design of an information system and its associated applications?
a. DSS management
b. Issue-based management
c. Process based management
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 489

37. The process by which the new DSS application is merged into the existing computing infrastructure such that the appearance of a seamless architecture appears to the user is called:
a. design.
b. maintenance.
c. implementation.
d. integration.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 494

38. In __________ integration, the various decision support functions with the DSS are integrated and linked to those of the existing infrastructure. This linking includes providing common menu access, inter- and intra-application transfer of data and tools, and a common application interface at the same desktop client or workstation.
a. physical
b. functional
c. technical
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

39. _________________ integration involves the architectural bundling of the hardware, software, and data communication characteristics associated with the new DSS into the existing set of physical systems.
a. Physical
b. Functional
c. Technical
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

40. Which of the following is a factor that can lead to resistance to change within an organization?
a. Fear of the unknown
b. Differing perceptions
c. Conservationism
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 496

Essay Questions

41. Define the Lewin-Schein Change Theory.

1.
42. What are the seven steps of the process of change in the Kolb-Frohman Model?

90. List and briefly describe the six generic DSS implementation patterns.

91. List seven characteristics of overall software quality.

92. Identify the factors that cause organizational resistance to change.

Chapter 16

Creative Decision Making and Problem Solving
True-False Questions

299. Creativity involves the translation of our unique gifts, talents, and vision into some form of external reality that is both new and useful.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 504

300. Creativity can involve the combining of existing objects intended for one purpose into some other completely different purpose.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 504

301. Intelligence combines thinking and learning.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 505

302. The psychoanalytic perspective maintains that creativity is a preconscious mental activity. In other words, creative thinking occurs in our subconscious thoughts and, as such, is not directly accessible to our conscious thoughts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 508

303. Creativity in problem solving and planning can be defined as the ability of a subject in a choice situation to modify self-imposed constraints so as to enable him to select courses of action that he would otherwise produce on his own.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 506

304. Scheduling creativity requires a highly skilled information technology project manager.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 507

305. The psychoanalytic perspective argues that creativity is nothing more than a natural response to stimuli within our individual environments and that certain combinations of stimuli can lead to more creative behavior than other combinations.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

306. The process orientation view sees creativity as a property of a thought process that can be acquired and improved through instruction and practice.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

307. Logical thinking is perhaps the most common, most widely used, and most often recommended approach to solving a problem. This method of thinking is rooted in the model-building and quantitative methods of management science and is an integral part of the design and development of a computer-based DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 509

308. Lateral thinking is based upon the premise that the human mind naturally processes and stores information in accordance with a specific pattern of thought and action. Because of this logical categorization process, the mind becomes hindered in any attempt to change these recognized patterns of thought. Lateral thinking disrupts these patterns through the introduction of discontinuity.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

309. Three major activities promote lateral thinking processes: (1) creativity, (2) analysis and (3) initiative.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

310. Exaggeration can be used as a method of change.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 510

311. The most common method of introducing change from outside the problem context is to use analogies.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 510

312. Opposite thinking takes the position that certain elements within a problem context are more critical to any solution outcome.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

313. Critical thinking is a method of problem solving where the decision-maker simply takes the perspective of someone other than himself or herself. This is a form of “standing in another’s shoes.” Using this method, a decision maker can often gain insight into why a particular problem exists in the first place.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

314. One of the most common barriers to creativity is a result of problem solvers making assumptions regarding potential outcomes that are untrue.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 513

315. Creative thought can be inhibited by criticism.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 514

316. The vast majority of creative problem-solving techniques applicable in an electronic decision support mechanism can be categorized into an easily manageable taxonomy consisting of four basic categories: free association, structured relationships, group techniques, and serendipity.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 515

317. Osborn’s Idea Checklist requires that users write down attributes of a problem, list as many alternatives under each attribute as possible, and then consider all possible combinations.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 518

318. AHP is a mathematically based theory for use in decision making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 521

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of creativity?
a. Intelligence
b. Academic achievement
c. Intuition
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 505

22. Which of the following statements is true of creativity?
a. A creative person does things never done before.
b. Creativity involves the translation of unique gifts, talents and vision into some form of external reality that is new and useful.
c. Creativity can involve combining objects intended for one purpose into a completely different purpose.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 504

23. The _____________ perspective maintains that creativity is a preconscious mental activity. In other words, creative thinking occurs in our subconscious thoughts and, as such, is not directly accessible to our conscious thoughts.
a. psychoanalytic
b. behavioral
c. process orientation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

24. The _______________ perspective argues that creativity is nothing more than a natural response to stimuli within our individual environments and that certain combinations of stimuli can lead to more creative behavior than other combinations.
a. psychoanalytic
b. behavioral
c. process orientation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

25. The __________________perspective sees creativity as a property of a thought process that can be acquired and improved through instruction and practice.
a. psychoanalytic
b. behavioral
c. process orientation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

26. Which of the following is not considered one of the five basic categories of ways of thinking?
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 509

27. This method of thinking is rooted in the model-building and quantitative methods of management science and is an integral part of the design and development of a computer-based DSS.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

28. This method of thinking is based upon the premise that the human mind naturally processes and stores information in accordance with a specific pattern of thought and action.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

29. This method of thinking takes the position that there exists certain elements within a problem context that are most crucial to the significance of any solution outcome.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

30. ______________ thinking is a method of problem solving where the decision-maker simply takes the perspective of someone other than himself or herself. This is a form of “standing in another’s shoes.” Using this method, a decision maker can often gain insight into why a particular problem exists in the first place.
a. Lateral
b. Opposite
c. Intuition
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

31. Which of the following is not a major activity available to promote lateral thinking?
a. Evaluation
b. Alternatives
c. Provocation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

32. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a vertical thinking process?
a. Guarantees that at least a minimally acceptable solution will be found.
b. Focuses primarily on the obvious and tends to process using established patterns of thought.
c. Chance intrusions are welcomed and nothing is considered irrelevant.
d. All of the above are characteristics of vertical thinking.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 509

33. Which of the following is not a barrier to creativity?
a. Self-constraining beliefs
b. Fear of criticism
c. lack of confidence
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 513-514

34. __________ is one of the most common barriers to creativity and is identified by problem solvers who make assumptions regarding potential outcomes that are fabricated or untrue.
a. Self-constraining beliefs
b. Fear of criticism
c. Lack of confidence
d. Stress

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 513

35. Which of the following is untrue of barriers to creativity?
a. Not all barriers to creativity are self-imposed.
b. Environments in which quick production of thought is the norm enhance creativity.
c. Lack of introspection can be a barrier to creativity.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 515

36. Which of the following is major category of problem-solving techniques?
a. Free association
b. Serendipity
c. Group techniques
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 515

37. Which category of problem solving techniques contains two goals: (1) divergent thinking and (2) the generation of ideas?
a. Serendipity
b. Free association
c. Brainstorming
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 516

38. Which of the following is true of brainstorming?
a. It can be facilitated in a structured manner.
b. It can be facilitated in an unstructured manner.
c. It can be conducted individually or collectively.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 517

39. The _________ technique requires the user to write down attributes of a problem, list as many alternative options under each attribute as possible, and then consider all possible combinations and permutations of the alternatives.
a. Osborn’s idea checklist
b. morphological forced connections
c. analytic hierarchy process
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 518

40. Which of the following is not an element of the general form of the model for the Analytic Hierarchy Process?
a. Criteria
b. Alternatives
c. Decision
d. All of the above are elements.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 520

Essay Questions

41. What approaches can be utilized to provoke changes in lateral thinking?

42. List the steps involved in Nominal Group Technique.

93. Describe the basis of lateral thinking.

94. List and briefly describe the three major activities in promoting lateral thinking processes.

95. What is creativity? Explain it from different perspectives.

Chapter 17
Intelligent Software Agents, BOTS, Delegation, and Agency

True-False Questions

319. Delegation involves the discretionary authority to autonomously act on behalf of another.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

320. An autonomous agent takes on the responsibility of completing a task that is delegated to you.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

321. Delegation enables you to take on more responsibility
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

322. Information systems enable time-consuming activities to be accomplished in a more expedient manner only when delegated to subordinate employees
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

323. The concept of the computer responding to human intervention is referred to as indirect manipulation.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

324. Intelligent software agents act autonomously on behalf of the user.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

325. Intelligent software agents replace the need for any human intervention.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 531

326. The concept of delegacy centers on consistency.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 531

327. Intelligent software agents on the Internet and intranets are moving towards personalization and diversification.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 533

328. The concept of agency consists of techniques, concepts, and applications to personalize, customize, elaborate, delegate, and catalyze the processes in the online marketplace.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

329. Supplier-driven agency relies primarily on pull technologies.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

330. A user-driven agency enables an end-user to be able to utilize push technologies to customize their information needs.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

331. Agency architecture defines the mathematical formulas for representing and reasoning about the properties of agents.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 537

332. Autonomy is the characteristic of an agent that acquires information necessary to function by monitoring the user’s actions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 540

333. Anthropomorphism is the embodiment of a principle, attitude, or view of life.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 541

334. Because of the static nature of intelligent agents, many are needed to develop an effective e-commerce site.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 541

335. Organizational agents are far more prevalent across the Internet than personal agents.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 544

336. A watcher agent learns from a user’s past behavior.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 546

337. A helper agent is designed to assist a user in an autonomous manner without human intervention.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 547

338. Consumer recommendations can be presented to people through the use of automated collaboration filtering.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 551

Multiple Choice Questions

21. When you agree to take on the responsibility for completing a task from another, you act as a(n) _____________.
a. delegate
b. independent agent
c. autonomous agent
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

22. Software that “knows” a users’ interests and can act autonomously on their behalf is referred to as:
a. an intelligent agent.
b. a script file.
c. artificial intelligence.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

23. Which of the following is true of software agents?
a. They can be personalized to meet a users’ needs.
b. They operate as background tasks.
c. There are many different types of software agents.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 533

24. Which of the following is not an agency type?
a. Supplier-driven agency
b. User-driven agency
c. Market-driven agency
d. All of the above are agency types.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

25. Which of the following is not true of an agency?
a. It consists of techniques, concepts and applications to personalize processes.
b. It influences the content that it presents.
c. They can be categorized as organizational or personal.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 535

26. _________ answers the question of what an agent is, as well as the mathematical formalisms for representing and reasoning about the properties of agents.
a. Agent theory
b. Agent architecture
c. Agent Language
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 537

27. _________ focuses on the development and deployment of software languages for programming and experimenting with intelligent software agents.
a. Agent theory
b. Agent architecture
c. Agent language
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 537

28. __________ addresses the problem of designing hardware and software systems that will satisfy the properties specified by the agent theorists.
a. Agent theory
b. Agent architecture
c. Agent language
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 537

29. Which types of agents represents two orthogonal concepts: the ability for autonomous execution and the ability to perform domain-oriented reasoning?
a. AIMA
b. MuBOT
c. Hayes-Roth
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 539

30. Which types of agents collaborate, are autonomous, trustworthy and degrade gracefully in the face of a communications mismatch?
a. SodaBot
b. IBM
c. KidSim
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 539

31. Which types of agents are computational systems that inhabit some complex dynamic environment and act autonomously, and by doing so realize a set of goals for which they are designed?
a. Maes
b. Foner
c. Wooldridge-Jennings
d. FAQ

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 539

32. Which of the following is not a common characteristic of intelligent agents?
a. Autonomy
b. Anthropomorphism
c. Risk and trust
d. All of the above are common characteristics.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 540

33. _________ is the ascription of humanlike characteristics to an otherwise non-human entity.
a. Personalizability
b. Discourse
c. Anthropomorphism
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 541

34. A(n) _______ is defined as an embodiment or concrete manifestation of a principle, attitude, view of life, or the like.
a. personalizability
b. discourse
c. anthropomorphism
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 541

35. Which of the following is an advantage of a transportable agent?
a. Customization
b. Fault tolerance
c. Efficiency
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 542

36. Which of the following is not a classification of Brustoloni’s taxonomy of software agents?
a. Planning agent
b. Regulation agent
c. Mobility agent
d. Adaptive agent

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 544

37. Which type of agent searches for the emergence of specific information?
a. Learning agent
b. Watcher agent
c. Passive agent
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 546

38. Which type of agent is designed to facilitate and assist with online shopping activities?
a. Helper agent
b. Shopping agent
c. Watcher agent
d. Learning agent

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 547

39. Which of the following is not an attribute role of agents within the Gaia methodology?
a. Permissions
b. Protocols
c. Use cases
d. Activities

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 558

40. Which of the following is used by UML to model the world as relations between entities using static class diagram format?
a. Protocol diagram
b. Architecture diagram
c. Ontology diagram
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 561

Essay Questions

41. Provide a definition for Intelligent Software Agent.

42. Distinguish between a watcher agent and a learning agent.

96. List and describe the common characteristics of Intelligent Software Agents.

97. Define the classifications of agents within Brustoloni’s Taxonomy of Software Agents?

98. List the twelve Intelligent Software Agent accessibility guidelines.

Chapter 18
Decision Support in the Twenty-First Century

True-False Questions

1. Decision support systems continue to increase in importance as a result of rapid increases in the amount of data to be filtered and analyzed.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 576

2. A major problem in the development of DSSs is a lack of GUIs to help integrate disparate architectures or platforms.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 576

3. One of the significant advantages of DSSs is that they are completely secure and can therefore be accessed across any network.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 577

4. One area of future DSS growth is advanced data management capabilities, including support for hypertext and multimedia.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 577

5. Virtual reality can potentially alter the manner in which users are trained to use information systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 578

6. Two major issues that will impact the future of expert systems are knowledge management and virtual databases.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 578

7. A high performance storage system (HPSS) is software that is useful for the management of large rule sets.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 579

8. The ultimate design goal for expert system knowledge acquisition is to enable the user to encode their own knowledge.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 580

9. Virtual information access and analysis provides a comprehensive access to multimedia, graphical and text data but is limited to internal data.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 581

10. Collaborative filtering applies human thought, in the form of a database of user preferences.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 583

Multiple Choice Questions

11. DSSs have impacted which of the following areas?
a. Medicine
b. Manufacturing
c. Forestry
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 575

12. _____________ is the term that describes the phenomena of data doubling every year, while at the same time a typical knowledge analyst can only absorb 5% of the data.
a. Online analytical processing
b. Information overload
c. Virtual information analysis
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 576

13. Which of the following enables individuals to immerse themselves into a simulated environment?
a. Environmental analysis
b. Virtual analysis
c. Virtual reality
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 577

14. Which of the following is not an issue that is crucial to the future of expert systems?
a. Knowledge management
b. Network simulation
c. AI requirements for intelligent databases
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 578

15. Which of the following is true of a high-performance storage system (HPSS)?
a. An HPSS is software that provides hierarchical storage management.
b. An HPSS supports scalability.
c. A goal of an HPSS is to move files at speeds significantly faster than today’s current storage technology.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 579

16. Which of the following is true of knowledge management?
a. Knowledge management involves the codification of thoughts and experiences.
b. The goal of a knowledge management system is to allow the expert to encode their own knowledge directly into the system.
c. Knowledge management supports multiple problem context generalization.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 580

17. _________ provides access to both organizational and external information through visual screens that combine text, data, and images.
a. VIAA
b. Knowledge management
c. EIS
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 581

18. Which of the following utilizes a database of user preferences in order to predict user outcomes?
a. Personalization agents
b. Collaborative filtering
c. Active filtering
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 583

19. Which of the following is not an issue affecting intelligent software agents?
a. Vigilance
b. Privacy
c. Legal issues
d. All of the above are issues affecting ISAs.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 584

20. Which of the following is a method to determine the degree of humanlike intelligence displayed by a computer?
a. Deming test
b. Gates test
c. Juran test
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 590

Essay Questions

21. Briefly describe how a DSS can be used to support manufacturing.

22. Briefly describe virtual reality.

23. What is a High Performance Storage System?

24. What is Moore’s Law?

25.

Briefly describe the Turing test.

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ACC 206, ACC 303, ACC 304, ACC 350, ACC 401, ACC 410, ACC 555, ACC 556, ACC 557, ACC 560, ACC 562, ACC 563, ACC 564, ACC 565, ACC 571, ACC 576, BUS 230, BUS 309, BUS 310, BUS 322, BUS 325, BUS 335, BUS 365, BUS 402, BUS 430, BUS 508, BUS 515, BUS 517, BUS 518, BUS 519, BUS 521,BUS 536, CIS 210, CIS 499, CIS 501,CIS 505,CIS 513, CIS 518, CIS 519, CIS 524, CIS 562, ECO 302, ECO 305, ECO 405, ECO 410,ECO 450, ECO 550, FIN 317, FIN 320, FIN 350, FIN 534, FIN 535, FIN 540, HRM 500, HRM 510, HRM 522, HSA 590, LEG 320, LEG 500, MGT 510, MKT 475, MKT 500, MKT 515, PAD 500,PAD 530,

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Chapters 1 Through 18

Chapter 1
Introduction to Decision Support Systems

True-False Questions

1. The role of a DSS is to provide support to the decision-maker during the process of making a decision.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

2. A DSS is used only for unstructured decisions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

3. The purpose of a DSS is to replace the decision maker.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 4

4. The DSS should always be under the ultimate control of the user.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

5. A DSS facilitates learning on the part of the decision maker.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

6. The most powerful classification of DSSs is the Universal DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 6

7. A DSS is normally designed to be wide in its scope of application.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 6

8. A highly unstructured decision is one where the objectives of the situation are often conflicting, the alternatives available to the decision maker are difficult to isolate or determine, and the effect of a particular course of action or selection of an alternative carries with it a high degree of uncertainty.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

9. The user interface of a DSS performs activities related to problem recognition and generation of interim or final solutions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 9

10. The data management component of a DSS is where the activities associated with the retrieval, storage and organization of the relevant data for the particular decision context are managed.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 9

11. The data management component of a DSS is responsible for maintaining the logical independence of the data.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 12

12. The model library stores and manages all solver algorithms within a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 15

13. Model acquisition is the process by which new information is derived from a combination of existing or previously derived information.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 16

14. Rules, heuristics and constraints are stored within a knowledge base of a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 16

15. A model is a simplification of some event or process constructed for the purpose of studying the phenomenon and thus developing a better understanding of it.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 13

16. Internal data normally comes from an organization’s transaction processing systems as a normal course of conducting the daily affairs of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 11

17. Knowledge engineers are specially trained to interact with domain experts for the purposes of acquiring all of the knowledge the expert has in a particular domain and all of the relationships among that knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 18

18. The model base contains the various statistical, financial, mathematical, and other quantitative models used in performing the variety of analytical capabilities in a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 14

19. Silver proposed a method of DSS classification based upon the attributes of the problem-solving context.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 25

20. Hypertext systems are useful for knowledge bases that are document based.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 27

Multiple Choice Questions

21. The realization of the benefits to be derived from using a DSS is dependent upon which of the following?
a. The decision maker
b. The context of the decision
c. The design of the DSS
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 4

22. Which of the following contributed to the development of the concept of decision support systems?
a. J.P. Little
b. Gorry
c. Scott Morton
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 6

23. Limitations of a DSS include which of the following?
a. They cannot be designed to copy human imagination.
b. The language interface does not yet allow for natural language processing.
c. They are designed to be narrow in scope.
d. All of the above

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 5

24. Strategic planning refers to which of the following activities?
a. Where decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and deployment of the organizations assets are made.
b. Where decisions related to the objectives of the organization are made.
c. Where decisions relating to the day-to-day tasks and activities of the organization are made.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

25. Management control refers to which of the following activities?
a. Where decisions related to the objectives of the organization are made.
b. Where decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and deployment of the organization’s assets are made.
c. Where decisions relating to the day-to-day task and activities of the organization are made.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

26. Operational control is best associated with which of the following activities?
a. Making decisions related to the objectives of the organization.
b. Making decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and deployment of the organizations assets.
c. Making decisions relating to the day-to-day tasks and activities of the organization.
d. Both b and c.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

27. The components of a DSS can be classified into which of the following?
a. Data management system, data repository, knowledge engine, model repository, user(s)
b. Data query facility, model management system, model execution processor, user interface, user(s)
c. Data management system, model management system, knowledge engine, user interface, user(s)
d. Data management system, model management system, knowledge engine, internal data, external data

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 9

28. Which of the following is considered a subsystem within the data management system?
a. Database(s)
b. Database management system
c. The data query facility
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 12

29. One of the most important characteristics of a model is that:
a. it is easy to construct.
b. it is commonly found in decision-making environments.
c. it is a simplified form of reality.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 13

30. The two primary responsibilities of the MBMS are:
a. execution and integration of the models available to the DSS and the modeling of user preferences.
b. execution and integration of the data available to the DSS and the manipulation of the user interface.
c. execution of the user interface and the modeling of user preferences.
d. acquisition of the knowledge contained within the DSS and the modeling of user preferences.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 15

31. Which of the following best describes the function and purpose of the inference engine?
a. It is the subsystem responsible for the acquisition and construction of knowledge rules.
b. It is a component of a DSS that is specifically intended to allow the user to access the internal components of that system in a relatively easy fashion and without having to know specifically how everything is put together or how it works.
c. It is a program module that activates domain knowledge and performs inferencing to work toward a solution or conclusion based upon the values for the facts given and the relationships or rules associated with them.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 18

32. The person who may work closely with the decision maker to assist in interpreting and explaining the DSS output is called the:
a. domain expert.
b. intermediary.
c. domain operator.
d. knowledge generator.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 22

33. Which of the following are the two primary support orientations for a DSS?
a. Data-centric and model-centric
b. Procedural and non-procedural
c. Programmed and non-programmed
d. Simulated and actual

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 8

34. Which of the following is a characteristic of a DSS?
a. It is interactive and user-friendly.
b. It is generally developed using an iterative process.
c. I supports all phases of the decision-making process.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

35. Which of the following is not a benefit of DSS use?
a. It shortens the time associated with making a decision.
b. The power of the DSS is based upon the system it is running on.
c. It encourages exploration and discovery on the part of the decision maker.
d. All of the above are benefits.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 5

36. Gorry and Scott Morton’s framework for decision support classifies types of decisions as:
a. simplified and complex.
b. structured, semi-structured, and unstructured.
c. supported, semi-supported, and unsupported.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 7

37. Which of the following is a function of the presentation language of a DSS?
a. It allows for detailed report definition.
b. It allows for the creation of forms.
c. It provides for the presentation of data in multiple formats.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 20

38. Which of the following is not a DSS usage category?
a. Terminal mode
b. Clerk mode
c. Query mode
d. Subscription mode

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 23

39. Which of the following is the DSS classification proposed by Donovan and Madnick?
a. Structured and unstructured
b. Mechanical and decisional
c. Formal and ad-hoc
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 25

40. Which type of decision support system keeps track of a large amount of disparate documents?
a. Hypertext system
b. Document encyclopedia
c. Silver junction system
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 27

Essay Questions

41. Describe the general functions of the Model Base Management System.

42. What are some of the common characteristics of a decision support system?

43. List the five components of a DSS

44. Is a “universal DSS” possible? Why or why not?

45. List the general functions of the DBMS.

46. What are the benefits of DSS use?

47. What are the two main responsibilities of the DBMS?

48. How does knowledge get into the DSS? How can it be retrieved and organized as useful information?

49. Compare and contrast data-centric versus model-centric systems, formal versus ad-hoc systems, and directed versus non-directed systems. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each type?

50. Compare the benefits and limitations of highly procedural languages and low/non-procedural languages.

Chapter 2
Decisions and Decision Makers

True-False Questions

21. The decision maker is considered both an element and participant in the decision.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 35

22. All decisions in an organization are ultimately made by a single individual.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 38

23. A problem is defined as the perception of a difference between the current state of affairs and a desired state of affairs.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 36

24. A typical decision is often made using the exact order suggested by a normative model of decision making and tends to use all of the steps contained in the model.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 35

25. Two examples of group decision making are organizational committees and juries.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 39

26. The manner in which a decision is made is referred to as decision style.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 41

27. Decision style is affected by the perception of the problem.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 41

28. The reason there are so many different types of DSSs is that there are many different types of decisions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 37

29. Policies and procedures can affect organizational decision making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 48

30. Simon proposed to classify problems from procedural to non-procedural.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 50

31. Programmed decisions are more difficult to automate in a DSS than non-programmed decisions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 51

32. When conflict exists in either goals or approaches to the decision then Delbecq would classify that as the need for a creative decision.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 55

33. When a novel approach is needed to handle the complexity of the problem, then Delbecq would classify that as the need for a negotiated decision.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 54

34. Mintzberg classifies adaptive activities as characterized by high risk and motivated by the proactive and reactive considerations.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 55

35. According to Thompson, his classification scheme differentiates decisions based upon the type of activities with which the decision is most associated.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 55

36. The most clear-cut phase in the decision making process is the design phase.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 58

37. Simon referred to the process of search-limiting strategies as inferencing.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 61

38. Symptoms of a problem are identical to the problem itself.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 63

39. Stereotyping is a common perceptual block.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 67

40. The tendency to view alternatives as mutually exclusive events is a bias of individual
decision makers.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 73

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not part of the decision-making process?
a. Stimulus
b. Alternative selection
c. Decision maker
d. All of the above are part of the decision making process.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 36-37

22. Which of the following is not a category of decision makers within an organization?
a. Individual decision makers
b. Team decision makers
c. Group decision makers
d. All of the above are categories of decision makers.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 38-39

23. Which of the following is not a factor that affects decision style?
a. Context
b. Inference
c. Values
d. Perception

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 41

24. Which of the following is not a decision style behavior?
a. Analytical
b. Behavioral
c. Conceptual
d. All of the above are decisions style behaviors.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 44

25. According to Mintzberg, which of the following is not a decision typology?
a. Entrepreneurial activities
b. Knowledge activities
c. Adaptive activities
d. Planning activities

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 55

26. According to Delbecq, which of the following is not a classification scheme for negotiation?
a. Inferred decisions
b. Routine decisions
c. Creative decisions
d. Negotiated decisions

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 54-55

27. According to Thompson, which of the following is not a type of strategy based decision scheme?
a. Inspirational strategies
b. Judgmental strategies
c. Conversational strategies
d. Compromise strategies

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 55

28. The perception of a problem context is typically caused by one or more:
a. crisis.
b. stimuli.
c. telephone calls.
d. catastrophes.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 36

29. The term used to describe the manner in which a manager makes decisions is called:
a. decision methodology.
b. decision model.
c. decision style.
d. cognitive style.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 41

30. In any problem context, before any effective investigation of alternative solutions can be conducted, the decision maker must first:
a. establish the available resources.
b. determine the best solution.
c. define the problem.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 37

31. A decision in which many people may serve to influence the final decision but only one decision maker has the authority and responsibility to make the decision is called a:
a. unilateral decision.
b. bilateral decision.
c. negotiated decision.
d. unanimous decision.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 39

32. Which of the following involves factors relating to the forces acting on the decision maker in the course of making the decision?
a. Problem space
b. Problem style
c. Problem context
d. Decision style

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 41

33. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the directive decision style? A directive decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communication or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 42

34. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the analytical decision style? An analytical decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 42

35. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the conceptual decision style? The conceptual decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 43

36. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the behavioral decision style? The behavioral decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 44

37. Simon classified problems on a continuum that ranged from:
a. structured to unstructured.
b. parallel to perpendicular.
c. discrete to obtuse.
d. 1 to 10.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 50

38. Which of the following is not included in the Keen and Scott Morton classification of decision-making perspectives?
a. Process-oriented perspective
b. Knowledge-engineer perspective
c. Political perspective
d. Rational manager perspective

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 57

39. Which of the following is not a satisficing strategy?
a. Simulation
b. “What-if” analysis
c. Markov analysis
d. Linear programming

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 59

40. Which of the following is not an optimizing strategy?
a. Goal programming
b. Environmental impact analysis
c. Investment models
d. Transportation models

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 59

Essay Questions

41. Define a ‘good decision’.

42. List 10 common types of support provided by a DSS.

51. Define Mintzberg’s activity-based decision typology.

52. Define what is meant by the term bounded rationality.

53. List the major components of the decision-making process.

54. In which portion of the decision-making process is a DSS most helpful for decisionmakers? Why?

55. List and briefly describe the classes of decision-makers.

56. Describe the three forces that affect a particular individual’s decision style.

The three factors of context, perception, and values intertwine in their relationship to decision style. The problem context involves factors relating to the forces acting on the decisionmaker in the course of making the decision. Organizational and environment forces such as government regulation, new technologies, market competition, internal power struggles, etc. all serve to reform or affect the problem context. Further, forces of a more individual nature such as skill set, energy, motivation, and perceived abilities, among others can also serve as forces that shape the problem context for the decisionmaker. The totality of these forces must be balanced and managed by the decisionmaker during the problem-solving process.

57. List and briefly describe the forces that can act on a problem context and on a decisionmaker during the course of making a decision.

58. List the advantages of using heuristics.

Chapter 3
Decisions in the Organization

True-False Questions

41. An organization includes issues of structure and resources.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 88

42. Organizations can be said to be defined by the decisions that they make.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 88

43. Group norms are not a dimension of organizational decision making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 90

44. All organizational decisions are strategic in their nature.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 90

45. Strategic decisions are typically made at the middle management level and approved by senior management.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91

46. The competence of decision-making ability at each level within an organization can affect the design of a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91

47. Cultural fit is a method of viewing the relationship between organizational culture and decision making.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

48. An organization can either have an internal fit or external fit but may not have both simultaneously.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

49. Organizational culture can be a determinant of an organization’s willingness to change.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 93

50. While an organization may be greater than the sum of its parts, it does not allow its members to collectively pursue and achieve greater goals than they could by acting individually.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91

51. The line personnel who make decisions regarding day-to-day activities relating to production or services are called operations personnel.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 90-91

52. A good external fit suggests a culture that is shaped to both the organization’s strategy and its marketplace.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

53. Internal fit refers to the match between an organization’s culture and its leaders.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

54. Informal power is the term used to define how a manager exercises authority and whether he or she wishes to exercise the power available to them.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 95

55. Organizational politics influences organizational power.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 95

56. Organizational politics is always a disruptive factor in organizations.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 96

57. In the design of a DSS, organizational politics should be considered.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 96

58. The distinguishing characteristic of an ODSS over a GDSS is managerial control.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 97

Multiple Choice Questions

19. Which of the following is not a dimension of organizational decision making?
a. Group roles
b. Group processes
c. Group structure
d. All of the above are dimensions.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 88-89

20. Which of the following is not an organizational decision level?
a. Operations
b. Tactical
c. Directing
d. Strategic

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 90

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?
a. Risk tolerance
b. Fault tolerance
c. Conflict tolerance
d. Communication patterns

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 92

22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?
a. Direction
b. Control
c. Reward system
d. Personnel system

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 92

23. The concept of viewing an organization as a “nexus of decisions” suggests that:
a. an organization is a unified system of resources defined and structured by a collective of functional and political subsystems bound by a set of stated goals and functioning within a set of loosely defined environments.
b. the organization’s purpose is to make decisions within a business environment; it is defined by its decision opportunities, authorities, and responsibilities.
c. an organization is a chaotic environment where decisions occur both randomly and without purpose.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 88

24. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group structure is best defined as:
a. the relationships between the actual point of decision and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed be a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues related to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres, and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 88

25. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group roles is best described as:

a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified purposes that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 89

26. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the circular nature of group process is best described as:

a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 89

27. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group norms is best defined as:

a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 90

28. An organization, when viewed from a decision-making perspective, can be conceptualized by which of the following three discrete levels of hierarchy?

a. Planning, controlling, doing
b. Management, labor, stakeholders
c. Operations, planning, and strategic
d. Tactical, political, social
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 91

29. Cultures that tend to minimize individual initiative and risk taking, such as those of a product-driven orientation:

a. tend to support a more centralized decision-making emphasis where operating procedures, policies, schedules, etc. are all prescribed from a central authority.
b. tend to adopt more routine technologies that provide additional stability to the organization.
c. tend to adopt nonroutine technologies that require adaptability.
d. Both a and b.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

30. Cultures where initiative, creativity, and risk-taking are supported or rewarded:

a. tend to support a more centralized decision-making emphasis where operating procedures, policies, schedules, etc. are all prescribed from a central authority.
b. tend to adopt more routine technologies that provide additional stability to the organization.
c. tend to adopt nonroutine technologies that require adaptability.
d. Both a and b.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

31. Which of the following would not be considered a characteristic of an organization’s culture?
a. Degree of individual initiative
b. Degree of risk tolerance
c. Degree of market share
d. Ccommunication patterns

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 92

32. Which of the following is considered a characteristic of excellent companies?
a. They are hands-on and value driven.
b. They recognize that productivity is based on people.
c. They have a bias towards action.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 94

33. The concept which states that an individual will eventually be promoted to their level of incompetence is known as the:
a. Law of Incompetence.
b. Parretto Principle.
c. Peter Principle.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 91

34. The distinguishing characteristic of an ODSS over a GDSS is that of
a. size.
b. managerial control.
c. application.
d. Both b and c.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 97

35. Which of the following is not one of the five factors of power?
a. Judgment
b. Authority
c. Informal power
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 95

36. Which of the following is true of organizational politics?
a. Politics can often serve to ensure an objective hearing of all sides of an issue.
b. Politics can facilitate the decision-making process.
c. Politics can facilitate organizational change.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 96

37. The ________________ level of an organization focuses on the implementation of decisions made at the highest level of the organization as well as decisions involving the acquisition of resources necessary to maintain desired capacities and outputs at the operations level.
a. operations
b. planning
c. strategic
d. tactical

or d Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 91

38. The members of the ___________________ level of an organization include the senior executives of the largest industrial and service firms in the world, the top administrators of the largest government agencies, and the generals and senior officers in the military.
a. operations
b. planning
c. strategic
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 91

Essay Questions

39. Provide a definition for the term organization.

40. Identify and describe the three levels of organizational decision making.

41. Define organizational culture.

42. List ten characteristics of organizational culture.

59. List 10 of 12 significant elements of managerial decision-making power, as defined by Harrison (1995).

Chapter 4
Modeling Decision Processes

True-False Questions

59. The typical decision-maker, more often than one might imagine, fails to formally and concisely identify the problem at hand before beginning the process of solving it.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103

60. A problem is defined as the difference between the current state of affairs and the desired state of affairs.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103

61. A common error when creating a problem statement is to prematurely focus on the possible solutions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103

62. One way to determine what the real underlying problem is to expore the reasons why an alternative is viable.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 103

63. The priorities of a decision maker are determined by the size of the solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 104

64. The priorities of a decision maker are affected by the scope of the problem.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 104

65. A designer must never revise a decision made at one point in the process to account for a change made in another.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 105-106

66. There are always at least two possible alternative problem solutions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 104

67. Problem structures can be described in terms of three fundamental components: (1) choices, (2) uncertainties, and (3) objectives.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 110

68. Implicit in the concept of choice is the existence of multiple alternatives.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 104

69. In an influence diagram, the three components of a problem structure are represented by specific shapes and are combined and connected to represent the problem being modeled.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 106-107

70. Although the solution may be obvious, problem structures always have a clear beginning.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 112

71. An optimal solution is always guaranteed when using a simulation model.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 115

72. Conceptual models can be thought of as analogies to the problem context.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 117

73. In a deterministic model, a variable can have multiple values and must therefore be described by a probability function.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 114

74. In a stochastic model, no variable can take on more than one value at a given time.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 114

75. According to Howard’s test of clarity, the events of every model should be fully determined without interpretation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 119

76. Decisions made in conditions of certainty are the most difficult.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 120

77. Hayes Model Base Rule is used to determine the appropriate forecasting technique for DSSs.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 129

78. Odds forecasting is a common technique for eliciting subjective probability.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 125

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not a component of a problem statement?
a. The desired state of affairs
b. The current state of affairs
c. The past state of affairs
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 103

22. Which of the following is not part of the design of a problem structure?
a. The relationship between elemental details and the final appearance of the solution
b. The interim solution
c. The final problem solution
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 104

23. Which of the following is not a tool for modeling the structure of a problem?
a. Problem analysis case
b. Decision tree
c. Influence diagram
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 106-108

24. Which of the following is not a decision tree rule?
a. The branches represent all possible outcomes.
b. The branches are structured to allow for multiple choices per branch.
c. All possible alternatives are fully mapped.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 108

25. Which of the following is not a decision model classification?
a. Domain-specific models
b. Abstract variation models
c. Stochastic models
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 114

26. Which of the following is not a requirement of probability?
a. All probabilities must be within the range of -1 to 1.
b. The probabilities of all individual outcomes of an event must add up to the probability of their union.
c. The total probability of the complete set of outcomes must be equal to 1.
d. All of the above are requirements of probability.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 120

27. Probability can be expressed as:
a. long-run.
b. subjective.
c. logical.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 121

28. Which of the following is not a technique for forecasting probability?
a. Logical forecasting
b. Direct forecasting
c. Odds forecasting
d. Comparison forecasting

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 124

29. Models that do not explicitly acknowledge time are called:
a. static models.
b. dynamic models.
c. simulation models.
d. stochastic models.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 113

30. The concept of __________ suggests that while a probability may be derivable, its accuracy may not be acceptable under any circumstances.
a. subjective probability
b. logical probability
c. long-run probability
d. stochastic probability

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 123

31. Which of the following affects the selection of a forecasting technique?
a. Problem structure
b. Availability
c. Problem size
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 129

32. Which of the following affects the selection of a forecasting technique?
a. Precision
b. Complexity
c. DSS designer preference
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 129

33. Rather than a single probability estimation we might benefit from an estimation of the worst-case scenario and the best-case scenario. Properly constructed, we can say that the actual probability estimate lies somewhere between these two values. This range of values is referred to as a ________.
a. probability estimation
b. t-test
c. logical probability
d. confidence interval

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 130

34. A method used to determine the degree to which the alteration of an underlying assumption has a material effect on the results obtained from a model is known as:
a. simulation.
b. sensitivity analysis.
c. discriminant validity.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 131

35. Which of the following is not a suitable technique for eliciting numerical subjective probability estimations that can then be combined with other estimates using the laws of probability?
a. Direct forecasting
b. Odds forecasting
c. Ad hoc forecasting
d. Comparison forecasting

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 129

36. A model in which at least one of the variables in the model is uncertain and must be described by some probability function is known as a:
a. static model.
b. stochastic model.
c. deterministic model.
d. dynamic model.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 114

37. A model which focuses on the mathematical precision with which various outcomes can be predicted is referred to as a(n):
a. static models.
b. dynamic models.
c. simulation models.
d. abstract models.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 113

38. Which of the following is true of Howard’s Test of Clarity?
a. The influence diagram contains at least three alternatives.
b. All of the components of the context model are clearly defined.
c. Long-run probability is utilized.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 119

39. In any choice there is a(n) _____ probability of at least one alternative being selected and there is an ____ probability of any particular one being selected.
a. unequal, equal
b. 0%, unequal
c. 100%, equal
d. 100%, unequal

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 121

40. Which type of forecasting presents the decision maker with a choice between participating in one or two lottery-type games?
a. Comparison forecasting
b. Odds forecasting
c. Direct probability forecasting
d. Calibration forecasting

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 126

Essay Questions

41. Identify the steps in creating a simulation model.

42. Briefly describe the disadvantages of simulation modeling.

60. List and briefly describe the types of abstract models.

61. Define sensitivity analysis and state its value to decisionmakers.

62. List and briefly describe the various types of probabilities.

Chapter 5
Group Decision Support and Groupware Technologies

True-False Questions

79. A group can be defined as a simple collective entity that is independent of its members.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 141

80. A group can be defined by the structure of the problem context.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 142

81. MDM is defined as an activity conducted by a collective entity composed of two or more individuals and characterized in terms of both the properties of the collective entity as well as its individual members.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 142

82. MDMs can be classified in terms of the degree of centralization characterized by each of the four network structures.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 143

83. In a chain network, each participant can communicate with the decision maker at the center but not with each other.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 144

84. In a wheel network, the decision maker can communicate with anyone.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 143

85. In a circle network, all members have an equal opportunity for communication.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 144

86. The completely connected network structure is the least restrictive structure.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 145

87. The chain network displays a high degree of centrality and is appropriate for routine or recurring decisions with high-probability outcomes.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 144

88. The circle network serves as the basis for the group and committee MDM structures and is often employed in situations where negotiation or consensus must be the basis for the final decision.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 144-145

89. When the expertise of the decision maker is critical, then the most appropriate decision structure is a committee.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 146

90. In group decision making, the factor that has the greatest impact is the size of the group.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 147

91. Think-tank is the term referred to as a mode of thinking that people engage in when their desire to fit in overrides their decision-making ability.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 148

92. One common method used to control sources of potential conflict is participant anonymity.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 149

93. A GDSS is a collective of computer-based technologies used to aid multiparticipant efforts directed at identifying and addressing problems, opportunities, and issues.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 153

94. An ODSS is a complex system of computer-based technologies, including those that facilitate communication that provides support for decision makers spanning the range of organizational roles and functional levels, and accommodates decision contexts that cut across organizational units.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 153

95. Process structure of an MDM involves various mechanisms focused on facilitating participant interaction.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

96. Groupware is focused on issues related to collaborative processes among people.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 160

97. E-mail would not be considered a type of groupware because it is an asynchronous process.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 162

98. Nominal group techniques works best when there is a single decision maker structure.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 165

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a highly centralized network structure?
a. They are efficient for routine and recurring decisions.
b. They tend to produce lower average levels of satisfaction among the participants.
c. They promote innovative solutions.
d. They tend to result in a stable set of interactions among the participants.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 145

22. Which of the following is true of a completely connected network structure?
a. They tend to produce lower average levels of satisfaction among the participants.
b. They tend to strengthen the leadership position of the central members.
c. They promote creative solutions.
d. They tend to result in a stable set of interactions among the participants.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 145

23. Which of the following is a factor used in determining decision structure?
a. The degree of structuredness of the problem structure
b. The probability of acceptance of an autocratic decision
c. The importance of the quality of the decision
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 146

24. Which of the following is not true regarding the relationship between group size and its affect on MDM?
a. Participant interaction increases as the size increases.
b. Affective relationships tend to decrease as size increases.
c. Central leadership tends to increase as size increases.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 148

25. Which of the following communication networks displays a high degree of centrality and is appropriate for routine or recurring decisions with high-probability outcomes?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 144

26. Which of the following is not considered one of the four basic types of communication networks?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Semi-connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 145

27. Which of the following networks is most appropriate when routine or recurring decisions are being made?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 144

28. Which of the following network structures serves as the basis for the group and committee MDM structure and is often employed in situations where negotiation or consensus must be the basis for the final decision?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 144-145

29. A mode of thinking that people engage in when they are deeply involved in a cohesive ingroup, where the members’ striving for unanimity overrides their motivation to realistically appraise alternative courses of action is known as:
a. structured decision making.
b. groupthink.
c. team MDM.
d. MDM analysis.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 148

30. A(n) _____ is a complex system of computer-based technologies, including those that facilitate communication, that provides support for decision-makers spanning the range of organizational roles and functional levels and accommodates decision contexts that cut across organizational units.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 153

31. A(n) ____ is a collective of computer-based technologies used to aid multiparticipant efforts directed at identifying and addressing problems, opportunities and issues.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 153

32. A(n) ___ is a collective of computer-based technologies that are specifically designed to support the activities and processes related to multiparticipant decision making.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 154

33. A(n) ____ is a system under the control of one or more decision makers that assists in the activity of decision making by providing an organized set of tools intended to impart structure to portions of the decision-making situation and to improve the ultimate effectiveness of the decision outcome.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 154

34. Which of the following is not one of the four basic approaches that have been identified through which MDM support can be provided?

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Organizational structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

35. ______ involves providing various mechanisms focused on facilitating participant interaction, communication, knowledge gathering, and memory. These mechanisms are omnipresent in all current deployments of GSS and groupware applications.

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

36. ______ focuses on mechanisms that serve to govern the various communication activities among participants including the pattern of interaction, the timing, and sometimes even the content.

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

37. ______ involves the application of mechanisms that can select, organize, or even derive information and knowledge that is specifically relevant to the task or decision at hand.

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

38. The _____________ MDM system is primarily intended to focus on facilitation of communication among the participants. Its main objective is to hasten and stimulate the exchange of messages and to reduce or remove the inherent barriers to communication associated with MDM activities.

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 157

39. The _____________ MDM systems are designed to reduce uncertainty that can evolve from an MDM problem-solving activity. Both process and task structuring mechanisms are typically found in this class of MDM support.

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 157

40. The _____________ system contains all of the features of its predecessors and expands the support mechanisms through an increase in process structuring techniques intended to control participant interaction.

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 157

Essay Questions

41. Identify the factors used in determining decision structure.

42. What are the potential consequences of groupthink?

63. Define the term multiparticipant decision maker (MDM).

64. Define groupware. Where is it applicable?

65. List the forces that describe groupware development.

Chapter 6
Executive Information Systems

True-False Questions

99. An EIS is a special type of DSS designed to facilitate the analysis of information to support strategic decision-making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 174

100. An EIS is designed to support the CEO of a firm
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 174

101. An EIS is a unique DSS designed exclusively to analyze the operations of a firm.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 174

102. An EIS can be designed and built quickly because it only deals with summarized information.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 175

103. A sales report showing revenue against forecast targets along with projections for the next two quarters is an example of an EIS output.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176

104. The ability to perform drill down analysis is an important feature of an EIS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 176

105. A well designed EIS will replace the need for MIS applications
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176

106. A well designed EIS replaces the need for all other DSSs within an organization
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176

107. Executives spend more time on disturbance management than organizational staffing.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 178-179

108. The majority of executive time is spent in some form of disturbance management activity.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: pp. 178-179

109. The total study method, critical success factor method or key indicator method could be used to define an EIS
Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 182-183

110. An EIS normally requires unique hardware configurations, making them expensive to build.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 184

111. An EIS normally requires unique software components.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 185

112. An organization that does not wish to build their own EIS can purchase one “off-the-shelf”.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 185

113. In the structural perspective of the EIS development framework, the focus is on people and data as they relate to the EIS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 188

114. The structural perspective of the EIS development framework builds upon the elements and their relationships contained within the structural model and adds a time dimension to the framework. In this component, the various activities and sequences of events are delineated and actual project management issues relating to time, critical path, and milestones are established.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 188-189

115. The dialog system of an EIS contains an action language where the user is directed in how to use the system, and learns where the various commands and elements of manipulation are contained and processed.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 189

116. The knowledge base in an EIS is the sum of what the executive knows about using the system and all of the support mechanisms designed to assist in its use.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 190

117. Two organizational limitations of an EIS are time bias and loss of managerial synchronization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 191

118. The development framework of an EIS is used to establish development guidelines.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 190

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is a computer-based system intended to facilitate and support the information and decision-making needs of senior executives by providing easy access to both internal and external information relevant to meeting stated goals of the organization?
a. EIS
b. ES
c. DSS
d. Data Warehouse

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 175

22. Which of the following is a characteristic of an EIS?
a. Tailored to individual executives
b. Can present information in multiple formats
c. Provides tools to extract, filter and track critical information
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 175

23. Which of the following is an activity performed by managers?
a. Staffing
b. Directing
c. Organizing
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 178

24. Which of the following is not a common characteristic of executives?
a. They are future-oriented and focus on strategic activities.
b. They have narrow spans of control.
c. They are responsible for establishing policies.
d. They are concerned with internal and external issues.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 178

25. Which of the following is not a method for determining executive information needs?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 182

26. Which method for determining executive needs primarily uses traditional TPS and MIS applications as it source of information?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 182

27. Which method for determining executive needs could best be described by the phrase management by walking around?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 182

28. Which method for determining executive needs gathers information from a sample of top-level executives concerning the totality of information needs?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 183

29. Which method for determining executive needs is the most comprehensive?
a. Normal method
b. Key indicators method
c. Case study method
d. Critical success factors method

Difficulty: Method Reference: p. 183

30. The _______________ method for determining executive information needs is based on three basic notions: 1) The health of an organization can be determined by comparison to a set of key financial indicators; 2) organizations can be managed based on exception reporting where only those areas operating outside of a preestablished set of norms are of interest; 3) and technology is available to allow for flexible display of key indicator information in graphical form.
a. key indicator
b. critical success factor
c. normal
d. by-product

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 182

31. Using an EIS to explore the underlying data used to compile the current ratio would be an example of which of the following activities?
a. Compilation
b. Aggregation
c. Drill down analysis
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 176

32. When something unexpected occurs, particularly something that could materially and negatively impact the financial health of the organization, the immediate attention of executives and the deployment of resources are usually warranted. Executive activity during these periods is called:
a. entrepreneurial.
b. disturbance management.
c. resource allocation.
d. negotiation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 178

33. Which of the following is not a component of an EIS development framework?
a. Structural perspective
b. Intelligent knowledge base
c. User-system dialog
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 188

34. Which of the following would not be considered a benefit of a client/server environment?
a. Reduction of investment costs in new computer hardware
b. Establishment of a more flexible and responsive platform
c. Increased control over locally stored data
d. Multiple views of geographically dispersed data

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 184

35. The ____________ portion of the EIS development framework builds upon the elements and their relationships contained within the structural model and adds a time dimension to the framework. In this component, the various activities and sequences of events are delineated and actual project management issues relating to time, critical path, and milestones are established.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 189

36. The _______________ portion of an EIS contains an action language where the user is directed in how to use the system, and learns where the various commands and elements of manipulation are contained and processed. The action language element can be thought of as the incoming communication channel from the executive to the EIS.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 189

37. The _________________ portion of an EIS is the sum of what the executive knows about using the system and all of the support mechanisms designed to assist in its use.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 190

38. _______________ activities fall under the general heading of strategic planning tasks. Executives spent a significant portion of their time focusing on the selection, design, and implementation of improvements and projects intended to improve performance and initiate controlled change within the organization.
a. Entrepreneurial
b. Disturbance management
c. Resource allocation
d. Negotiation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 180

39. Managers at various levels are given authority to manage and deploy assets from a predetermined allocation and based upon a control mechanism such as a budget or operational plan. The authority to deploy those assets and the various behind the scenes activities to obtain them normally performed by top executives is associated with which of the following activities?
a. Entrepreneurial
b. Disturbance management
c. Resource allocation
d. Negotiation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 180

40. Executives are charged with the responsibility of representing the organization in both internal and external disputes. Typically, this role involves the resolution of disputes and conflicts and, thus, involves a significant amount of negotiation among the parties. This type of activity is called:
a. entrepreneurial.
b. disturbance management.
c. resource allocation.
d. negotiation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 180

Essay Questions

41. List the characteristics of an Executive Information System.

42. Define an Executive Information System.

66. List the Common Characteristics of Executives.

67. List and briefly describe several EIS limitations.

68. Briefly describe the EIS of tomorrow.

Chapter 7
Expert Systems and Artificial Intelligence

True-False Questions

119. An Expert System is designed to solve a specific knowledge domain problem.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 208

120. Artificial Intelligence can be defined as the study of how to make computers do things that people do better.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 208

121. Reverse reasoning begins with a series of subproblems and builds into one cohesive problem statement.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 208

122. All expert systems are based upon the use of reverse reasoning.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 208

123. The first artificial intelligence system was referred to as LISP.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 208

124. Categorization involves the creation of a loose set of hierarchies where lower-level pieces of information inherit characteristics from a higher-level category.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 209

125. Reasoning by expectations uses components of heuristics and categorization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 210

126. Once we have experienced a particular situation or phenomena enough, we begin to expect it to appear in a certain manner or under a predictable set of conditions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 211

127. Rule-based reasoning is a process in which the computer is given the characteristics of the problem space in the form of input values. It then uses the rules contained within its knowledge base to methodically change the state of the problem space to the desired condition.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: pp. 211-212

128. The form of knowledge that is formed from antecedents and consequents is referred to as inferential knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

129. The form of knowledge where the conditions take the form of a stated situation and the operative becomes an action to take when the stated situation is logically true is referred to as procedural knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

130. The form of knowledge whereby a conclusion is reached as a result of one or more premises being established is referred to as declarative knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

131. In an object network, concepts are represented as nodes and the arcs connecting the nodes represent their relationships.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 213

132. Representations of objects that are typical of a category are referred to as frames.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 213

133. In a frame, a trigger is a short procedure that can be triggered whenever a slot is created, modified or accessed.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 214

134. Frames are the most useful knowledge domain for analyzing legal precedent.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 215

135. Genetic algorithms figure out which rules from prior cycles did not fire, which rules from the prior cycle will not fire in the next cycle, and which rules from the prior cycle that did not fire are most likely to fire next.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 216

136. Neural networks are the branch of AI that most closely resemble how the human brain operates.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 217

137. The inference engine of an ES contains the specific knowledge collected from the sample of domain experts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 219

138. The inference engine performs deductions or inferences based on rules or facts. In addition, it is capable of performing inexact or fuzzy reasoning based on probability or pattern matching.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 220

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not true of artificial intelligence?
a. AI focuses on how people think.
b. AI focuses on how people reason.
c. AI translates understanding into computer systems that can perform the same actions.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 209

22. Which of the following is not a type of reasoning?
a. Heursitics
b. Past experience
c. Cognitive idealism
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 210

23. Which reasoning type is the most common?
a. Categorization
b. Specific rules
c. Expectations
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 209

24. Which type of reasoning uses components of heuristics and categorization?
a. Specific rules
b. Expectations
c. Past experience
d. Cognitive idealism

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 210

25. Which of the following forms of knowledge can be encoded via a rule set?
a. Procedural knowledge
b. Declarative knowledge
c. Inferential knowledge
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

26. Which of the following represents entities as nodes and the arcs that connect the nodes represent relationships?
a. Object network
b. Frames
c. Knowledge network
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 213

27. Which Of the following is not a daemon?
a. If modified
b. If inquiry
c. If deleted
d. If necessary

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 214

28. The concept of frames is analogous to which human reasoning method?
a. Past experience
b. Heuristics
c. Categorization
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 215

29. Which of the following is most useful in a knowledge domain where precedence reasoning is most appropriate?
a. Frames
b. Pattern recognition
c. Case-based reasoning
d. Rete algorithms

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 215

30. Which branch of AI most closely resembles how the human brain operates?
a. Genetic algorithms
b. Neural networks
c. Machine learning
d. Rete algorithms

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 217

31. Which classification of AI relies on learning from past experiences using examples and analogies?
a. Machine learning
b. Frames
c. Pattern recognition
d. Genetic algorithms

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 216

32. Which component of an ES contains the domain-specific knowledge collected from the sample of domain experts during the design stage?
a. User interface
b. Knowledge base
c. Inference engine
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 219

33. Which of the following is not an example of a heuristic?
a. If the meal includes red meat, then chose a red wine.
b. If the Los Angeles Lakers are playing at home, they will be favored to win.
c. Bonds always hits a home run following an intentional walk.
d. Tuesday always follows Monday.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 210

34. The _____________ performs deductions or inferences based on rules or facts. In addition, it is capable of performing inexact or fuzzy reasoning based on probability or pattern matching.
a. inference engine
b. dialog system
c. database
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 220

35. Chaining is a simple method used by most IEs to produce a line of reasoning. Using this method the set of rules are organized in a recursive manner such that a fact concluded by one rule is used as the premise for the next. The two types of chaining bases which are possible in an ES are:
a. straight and link.
b. forward and backward.
c. upward and downward.
d. inside and outside.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 220

36. The ES component which provides the ES user with an area of working memory to use as a workspace for the various other components of the ES is the:
a. dialog system.
b. user interface.
c. knowledge base.
d. blackboard.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 222

37. Which of the following is not a candidate situation for ES opportunities?
a. Need to define a repetitive process to automate a manufacturing process
b. Need to evaluate a process
c. Need to control or govern a particular activity
d. Need to understand the nature of a given situation

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 224

38. Which of the following is a candidate situation for ES opportunities?
a. Need for diagnosis of a problem situation
b. Need to predict the outcome of a current or future event
c. Need to evaluate and assess a prior event
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 224

39. Which of the following is not a criterion for the evaluation of an expert system?
a. The system should be responsive and easy to use.
b. The knowledge base should contain generally accepted knowledge.
c. The explanatory facility should be user-friendly.
d. All of the above are criteria.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 226

40. Which of the following is a limitation associated with common ES task categories?
a. Data may be inaccurate.
b. Data may be missing.
c. Multiple symptoms can confound diagnosis.
d. All of the above are limitations.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 228

Essay Questions

41. Provide a definition for the term Expert System.

42. List and explain the different types of human reasoning processes.

43. What are the benefits of expert systems?

44. Identify eight problems or limitations associated with expert systems.

45. Define each of the following terms:
approach of the life sciences of “taking apart” living organisms to see how they work, AL attempts to “put together” systems that behave like living organisms.

Chapter 8
Knowledge Engineering and Acquisition

True-False Questions

139. Both knowledge engineers and system analysts have the same goal; to create a thorough specification of an information system that can be successfully implemented.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238

140. Knowledge engineers need to have a high degree of domain knowledge combined with a broad set of system development skills.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238

141. Each expert system is a one-of-a-kind system and its success is predicated on the skill of the KEs to extract knowledge that is deeply hidden in the mind of a human expert.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238

142. Data are facts, measurements, or observations with or without context.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

143. Apples and oranges are an example of data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

144. Information is knowledge organized in a manner as to render it useful and relevant to a problem solver in making decisions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

145. Knowledge is the application of a combination of instincts, ideas, rules, procedures, and information to guide the actions and decisions of a problem solver within a particular problem context.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

146. Knowledge is an interpretation made by the mind.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

147. If a system contains a knowledge representation, such as a model or rule set, of something, then the system itself can also be said to have knowledge, namely the knowledge embodied in that representation about that thing.

148. In the knowledge representation perspective, knowledge is seen as a set of stocks or inventories in which items are transferred from one stock to another based on process or external event.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 241

149. As the state of knowledge is increased, the chance for information overload is diminished and the quality of the knowledge is extended.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 241

150. In knowledge acquisition (KA), the elicitation, gathering, organizing, and formalization of the knowledge of experts in a specific domain is conducted with the goal of transforming that knowledge into some computer-usable representation.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 243

151. Descriptive knowledge may be analyzed using procedural knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 242

152. The acquisition of knowledge from external sources must be an active process.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 242

153. The primary functions of the performance model are to fully define the task under study, assist in the selection of the expert(s), establish the user characteristics and performance criteria for the system, and to function as an interpretive framework for protocol analysis of the experts’ responses.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 244

154. Knowledge engineer-driven acquisition is considered the most common approach to information gathering.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 245

155. Kim and Courtney proposed that knowledge be classified across strategic and performance dimensions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 245

156. When using the expert-driven approach to KA, the expert encodes his or her own expertise and knowledge and enters it directly into the computer system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 245

157. Interviewing is probably the most widely used and familiar of all KA techniques.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 247

158. Validation is concerned with whether or not the system we built conforms to its original specifications.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 254

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is an example of data?
a. 23, 24, 25
b. 30, 13, 12
c. John, Adam, Kim
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

22. Which of the following includes the application of a combination of instincts, ideas, rules and procedures to guide actions and decisions?
a. Data
b. Information
c. Knowledge
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

23. Data organized in such a manner as to render it useful and relevant to a problem solver in making decisions is referred to as:
a. Knowledge
b. Expertise
c. Information
d. Wisdom

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

24. The ____________ perspective suggests that learning is a form of knowledge production and that knowledge is “manufactured” as well as acquired. Knowledge is seen as a set of stocks or inventories in which items are transferred from one stock to another based on process or external event.
a. Knowledge representation
b. Production
c. Knowledge states
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 241

25. Which of the following is not a predominant knowledge perspective?
a. Representation
b. Analysis
c. Production
d. States

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

26. According to van Lohuizen, which of the following is not a knowledge state?
a. Data
b. Insight
c. Intuition
d. Decision

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 241

27. According to van Lohuizen, which of the following is not a knowledge state?
a. Structured information
b. Wisdom
c. Judgment
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 241

28. According to Holsapple and Whinston, which of the following is a primary knowledge type?
a. Linguistic
b. Presentation
c. Procedural
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 242

29. According to Holsapple and Whinston, which of the following is a secondary knowledge type?

a. Descriptive
b. Assimilative
c. Reasoning
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 242

30. The process by which elicitation, gathering, organizing, and formalization of the knowledge of experts in a specific domain is conducted with the goal of transforming that knowledge into some computer-usable representation is called:
a. Knowledge inference.
b. Requirements determination.
c. Knowledge acquisition.
d. Performance modeling.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 243

31. According to Kim and Courtney, knowledge acquisition can be classified across which two dimensions?
a. Statistical, tactical
b. Operational, stochastic
c. Strategic, tacit
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 245

32. The primary vehicle by which the information necessary to construct the performance model is gathered is through verbalization by the expert, often referred to as
a. political analysis.
b. knowledge engineering.
c. protocol analysis.
d. machine-driven learning.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 248

33. Which knowledge acquisition technique requires a significant amount of up-front planning?
a. Structured interviews
b. Unstructured interviews
c. General interviews
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 247

34. When using the ___________ approach to KA, the expert encodes his or her own expertise and knowledge and enters it directly into the computer system. In this regard, the expert is serving two roles: expert and KE.
a. expert-driven
b. KE-driven
c. machine-driven
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 245

35. _____________is that part of the evaluation process that focuses on the performance aspects of the knowledge base.
a. Verification
b. Efficiency
c. Validation
d. Criterion measurement

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 254

36. _____________ is concerned with whether or not we built a system that performs with an acceptable level of competence and accuracy.
a. Verification
b. Efficiency
c. Validation
d. Criterion measurement

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 254

37. Which of the following is not part of a preinterview checklist?
a. Decide what you need to know.
b. Determine the appropriate degree of structure for the interview.
c. Determine that an interview is the best method for obtaining this information.
d. All of the above are part of a preinterview checklist.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 248

38. Which of the following is a necessary task condition for successful concurrent protocols?
a. Each task must have a clearly defined conclusion.
b. The task must be able to be completed within two protocol sessions.
c. All data must be presented to the expert in a familiar form.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 250

39. The knowledge validation measure that defines how credible the knowledge is is referred to as:
a. depth.
b. breadth.
c. face validity.
d. robustness.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 254

40. The knowledge validation measure that defines the impact of changes in the knowledge base on the quality of the outputs is referred to as:
a. sensitivity.
b. appeal.
c. adaptability.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 254

Essay Questions

41. What are the three primary challenges to obtaining valid knowledge?

42. Compare KE-driven KA with expert-driven KA. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each method?

69. What are the primary functions of the task model?

70. What are the benefits and limitations of the repertory grid method of knowledge gathering?

71. Define validity and verification in the context of the knowledge base.

Chapter 9
Machines That Can Learn

True-False Questions

159. Neural computing involves processing information by means of changing states of networks formed by interconnecting extremely large numbers of simple processing elements that interact with one another by exchanging signals.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 260

160. Fuzzy logic allows for the partial description of a rule.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

161. Fuzzy logic is key to developing computers that can think.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

162. The human language has evolved to allow for the conveyance of meaning through semantic approximation rather than precise content
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

163. Fuzzy logic deals with the likelihood that something has a particular property while probability deals with the degree to which a particular property is present in something
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 261

164. Fuzzy logic is a new development in the computing industry that emerged as a result of the development of Internet search engines.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 262

165. Fuzzy logic can deal with any degree of change in input.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 262

166. When continuous variables are involved, traditional rule-based systems tend to provide more accurate results than fuzzy logic.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 264

167. Fuzzy logic allows for the modeling of contradiction within a knowledge base.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 265

168. One of the limitations of a fuzzy logic system is that each rule is dependant upon all of the other rules in the knowledge base.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 266

169. Under highly complex situations, fuzzy logic rules are highly verifiable.

170. Artificial neural networks are simple computer-based programs whose primary function is to construct models of a problem space based upon trial and error.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 266

171. The transmission of signals from one neuron to another in an artificial neural network occurs at the neural synapse via a complex chemical process in which specific substances, called neurotransmitters, are released from one side of the synaptic junction.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 266-267

172. The ANN involves an interconnected system of nodes called neurodes that are associated with one or more weighted connections that are equivalent to human neural synapses, inside the memory of a digital computer. The construction of the ANN is one of multiple layers with the connections running between the layers.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

173. The basic structure a typical neurode consists of is a set of weighted input connections, a bias input, a state function, a nonlinear transfer function, and an output connection.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 268

174. The purpose of a state function is to consolidate the weights of the various inputs to the neurode into a single value that can be passed to the transfer function for processing.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 269

175. The primary purpose of the learning paradigm is to serve as the vehicle by which the summed information is passed on as output.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 271

176. An advantage of automated neural nets is the elimination of the need for direct input from experts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 273

177. The GA’s smallest unit is called a chromosome. The chromosome represents the smallest unit of information in the problem domain and can be thought of as the basic building block for a possible solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 276

178. The GA’s smallest unit is called a gene. The gene represents the smallest unit of information in the problem domain and can be thought of as the basic building block for a possible solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 276

Multiple Choice Questions

21. ______________ is a method of reasoning that allows for the partial description of a rule. Combining this approach to reasoning with the realm of digital processors has results in a class of computer applications that can “learn” from their mistakes and can “understand” the vagaries commonly found in human thought.
a. Backward propagation
b. Forward propagation
c. Fuzzy logic
d. Neural computing

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

22. Which of the following is not true of fuzzy logic?
a. Fuzzy logic focuses on gradation.
b. Fuzzy logic utilizes precise distinction.
c. Fuzzy logic allows for the partial description of a rule.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 261

23. Which of the following is an advantage of fuzzy systems?
a. Allows for increased association amongst the rules of the system
b. Supports modeling of contradiction
c. Increase system verification capability
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 265

24. Which of the following is a disadvantage of fuzzy systems?
a. Fuzzy systems decrease system autonomy.
b. Objects in a fuzzy system can belong to multiple sets.
c. Fuzzy systems lack memory.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 265

25. A simple computer-based program whose primary function is to construct models of a problem space based upon trial and error is called a(n):
a. artificial neural network.
b. genetic algorithm.
c. decision support system.
d. data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 266

26. In the human brain, the transmission of signals from one neuron to another occurs at a junction referred to as the:
a. transmitters.
b. neurides.
c. neurodes.
d. synapses.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

27. The ANN involves an interconnected system of nodes called _________that are associated with one or more weighted connections that are equivalent to human neural synapses, inside the memory of a digital computer.
a. transmitters
b. neurides
c. neurodes
d. synapses

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 267

28. Which of the following is part of the basic structure of a neurode?
a. Bias input
b. State function
c. Nonlinear transfer function
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 268

29. The ANN layer that receives the data is referred to as the?
a. input layer.
b. output layer.
c. hidden layer.
d. neural layer.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

30. The ANN layer that relays the final results of the net is referred to as the:
a. input layer.
b. output layer.
c. hidden layer.
d. neural layer.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

31. The __________ in an ANN is where the processing and transformation of the input signal takes place and where the type of output signal is determined.
a. input layer
b. output layer
c. hidden layer
d. neural layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 267

32. The _____________ is not normally connected to the ANN and is assumed to have an input value of 1.0 for the state function. Its purpose is to allow for the individual adjustment of the firing threshold of the neurode to facilitate the final adjustment of the ANN following the learning process.
a. input layer
b. bias input
c. state function
d. output connection

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 268-269

33. The __________________’s purpose is the consolidation of the weights of the various inputs to the neurode into a single value that can be passed to the transfer function for processing. The value obtained determines the degree of impact the combined inputs will have on the transfer function and, thus, on the final output of the neurode.
a. input layer
b. bias input
c. state function
d. output connection

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 269

34. The function in an ANN which serves as the vehicle by which the summed information is passed on as output is called the:
a. transfer function.
b. state function.
c. memory function.
d. neural function.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 269

35. The actual procedure used by a neural network to find the appropriate weight settings is referred to as its:
a. transfer function.
b. state function.
c. weight seeking function.
d. learning paradigm.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 271

36. Which of the following is not a benefit derived from neural computing?
a. Reduced need for experts.
b. Allows for generalization from specific information content.
c. Highly verifiable, especially for complex problems.
d. All of the above are benefits.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 273

37. Which of the following are limitations of neural computing?
a. ANNs cannot explain inferences.
b. The repetitive training process is often time consuming.
c. Neural computing technologies push the limits of their hardware.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 274

38. A computer program that employs a set of adaptive processes that mimic the concept of “survival of the fittest” by regenerating recombinants of itself in response to a calculated difference between the network’s guess and the desired solution state is known as a:
a. neural network.
b. artificial life system.
c. genetic algorithm.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 276

39. In a genetic algorithm, the smallest unit of information in the problem domain is called a:
a. chromosome.
b. gene.
c. neuron.
d. synapse.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 276

40. Which of the following is not a genetic algorithm operational process?
a. Evaluation
b. Initialization
c. Mutation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 277, 279

Essay Questions

41. Define neural computing.

42. Explain the similarities and the differences between fuzziness and probability.

72. List the benefits of neural computing.

73. List the limitations of neural computing.

74. What is the primary advantage that Genetic Algorithms have over Artificial Neural Networks?

Chapter 10
The Data Warehouse

True-False Questions

179. According to Inmon, a data warehouse is a subject-oriented, integrated database designed to support DSS functions where the data is volatile and relevant.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 295

180. A data warehouse is typically physically separated from transaction processing systems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

181. Only a small fraction of the data that is captured, processed and stored in the enterprise is actually ever made available to executives and decision makers.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

182. The most common component of a data warehouse environment is the operational data store.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

183. A data mart is a subset of a data warehouse.

184. The essence of the data warehouse concept is a recognition that the characteristics and usage patterns of operational systems used to automate business processes and those of a DSS are fundamentally similar and symbiotically linked.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 295

185. One difference between data warehouses and operational data stores is the presence of metadata.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 297

186. Metadata are data about data.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 297

187. Metadata are detailed data that has been aggregated and condensed into a more useful form.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 297

188. The very essence of the DW environment is that the data contained within the boundaries of the warehouse are integrated. This integration manifests itself through consistency in naming convention and measurement attributes, accuracy, and common aggregation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 299

189. The time horizon for data in the data warehouse is typically significantly longer than operational data sores.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 301

190. One of the benefits of integrated data is the establishment of a common unit of measure for all synonymous data elements from dissimilar databases.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 300

191. According to Inmon, because data warehouses are highly de-normalized, they are highly redundant.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 303

192. One objective of the data warehouse environment is to minimize the impact on operational systems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 303

193. The end user in a data warehouse environment deals directly with the application messaging layer.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

194. The process management layer in a data warehouse can be thought of as a scheduler.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 305

195. The processes needed to prepare the data to be loaded into a data warehouse are performed in the data staging layer.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

196. A data warehouse topology requires a centralized data warehouse that is accessed by one or more decision support tools.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 306

197. One of the most important factors in the development of a data warehouse is a comprehensive architectural framework.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 313

198. Transformation mapping metadata records how data from operational data stores and external sources are transformed on the way into the warehouse.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 310

Multiple Choice Questions

21. The most common component in the DW environment is the _____________. Its primary day-to-day function is to store the data for a single, specific set of operational applications.
a. data mart
b. data warehouse
c. operational data store
d. data staging tables

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

22. Which of the following is not true of a data warehouse?
a. Implicit in its definition is that the data warehouse is physically separated from all other operational systems.
b. The data warehouse replaces the need for all other reporting systems within an organization.
c. The data warehouse holds aggregated data and atomic data for management.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 295

23. An alternative to the data warehouse concept is a lower-cost, scaled-down version referred to as a:
a. data mart.
b. metadata warehouse.
c. operational data store.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 296

24. Which of the following is not true of a data mart?
a. The data mart is often viewed as a way to gain entry into the realm of data warehouses and to make the mistakes on a smaller scale.
b. Vendors of data warehouse applications have found it easier to deal with a small group of isolated users than with the IS department of an entire organization.
c. The data mart is more efficient than a fully-developed data warehouse.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 296

25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a data warehouse?
a. Data integrated
b. Volatile
c. Subject oriented
d. Time variant

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 298

26. The essence of the data warehouse environment is that the data contained within the boundaries of the warehouse are _____________
a. integrated
b. consistent
c. streamlined
d. accurate

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 299

27. The concept of time variant data implies which of the following statements?
a. Data are simply assumed to be accurate as of some moment in time and not necessarily right now.
b. Data are assumed to be accurate at the moment they were loaded into the data warehouse.
c. Data are assumed to vary over time.
d. Both a and b

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 301

28. Which of the following activities would not normally be associated with a data warehouse?
a. Loading
b. Updating
c. Accessing
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 302

29. The _______________________ represents the source data for the DW. This layer is comprised, primarily, of operational transaction processing systems and external secondary databases.
a. information access layer
b. operational and external layer
c. data access layer
d. process management layer

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 303

30. Which layer of the data warehouse architecture does the end user deal directly with?
a. Data access layer
b. Application messaging layer
c. Information access layer
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 303

31. The ______________ serves as a sort of interface or middleman between the operational and information access layers and the data warehouse itself. This layer spans the various databases contained within the DW and facilitates common access by the DW users.
a. data access layer
b. application messaging layer
c. information access layer
d. none of the above

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 304

32. Which of the following would not be a good example of metadata?
a. the directory of where the data is stored
b. the rules used for summarization and scrubbing
c. where the operational data came from
d. all of the above are examples of metadata

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 307

33. Which layer within the data warehouse architecture focuses on scheduling tasks that must be accomplished to build and maintain the data warehouse and data directory information?
a. data access layer
b. process management layer
c. application messaging layer
d. none of the above

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

34. Which of the following is a valid data warehouse configuration?
a. Centralized data warehouse
b. Virtual data warehouse
c. Distributed data warehouse
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 306

35. The _____________________ has to do with transporting information around the enterprise computing network. This layer is also referred to as the “middleware,” but it can typically involve more that just networking protocols and request routing.
a. application messaging layer
b. process management layer
c. data access layer
d. information access layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

36. The ____________________ is where the actual data used for decision support throughout the organization are located.
a. information access layer
b. operational and external layer
c. physical data warehouse layer
d. process management layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

37. The final component of the DWA is the __________________. This layer includes all of the processes necessary to select, edit, summarize, combine and load data warehouse and information access data from operational and/or external databases.
a. data staging layer
b. operational and external layer
c. physical data warehouse layer
d. process management layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

38. The process that records how data from operational data stores and external sources are transformed on the way into the warehouse is referred to as:
a. summarization algorithms.
b. transformation mapping.
c. back propagation.
d. extraction history.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 310

39. The _____________________ applied to the detail data are of importance to any decision maker analyzing or interpreting the meaning of the summaries. These metadata can also save time by making it easier to decide which level of summarization is most appropriate for a given analysis context.
a. summarization algorithms
b. transformation mapping
c. back propagation
d. extraction history

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 311

40. Whenever historical information is analyzed, meticulous update records must be kept. Often a decision maker will begin the process of constructing a time-based report by reviewing the ________________ because any changes to the business rules must be ascertained in order to apply the right rules to the right data.
a. summarization algorithms
b. transformation mapping
c. back propagation
d. extraction history

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 310-311

Essay Questions

41. What are the seven deadly sins of data warehouse implementation?

42. What are the characteristics of a data warehouse?

75. What is a data warehouse?

76. List and explain the different layers in the data warehouse architecture.

77. What are metadata? Why are they so important to a data warehouse?

Chapter 11
Data Mining and Data Visualization

True-False Questions

199. Data mining is a set of activities used to find new, hidden, or unexpected patterns in data.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

200. A synonym for data mining is information sifting and discovery (ISD).
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

201. Data mining is a business solution, not a technology.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 327

202. One of the primary reasons for the rise in data mining popularity is the ever-increasing volume of data that require processing.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 328

203. The broad category of software decision-making technology that enables multidimensional analysis is referred to as OLAP.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 329

204. ROLAP organizes and analyzes data as an n-dimensional cube. The ROLAP cube can be conceptually thought of as a common spreadsheet with two extensions: (1) support for multiple dimensions and (2) support for multiple concurrent users.

205. One of the primary advantages of ROLAP versus MOLAP is it results in performance improvements for data access.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 331

206. MOLAP provides support for concurrent users.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 331

207. Sparcity can significantly increase the storage requirements of a MOLAP hypercube by requiring that space be allocated for all cells rather than just the ones that contain data values.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

208. MOLAP is well-suited to handle large numbers of detailed data.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 331

209. ROLAP databases typically contain both summary and detail data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

210. The ROLAP structure contains a large number of normalized tables.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 332

211. The central table in a star schema is a dimension table.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 332

212. Data mining methods can be classified in two ways: by the function they perform or by their class of application.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 333

213. The classification approach to data mining searches all details or transactions from operational systems for patterns with a high probability of repetition.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 333

214. The association approach to data mining is intended to discover rules that define whether an item or event belongs to a particular subset of data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 333

215. The sequencing approach to data mining relates events in time, based on a series of preceding events.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

216. The clustering approach to data mining is useful when there is a need to create partitions in order to discover patterns in the data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 335

217. Data mining does not use statistical techniques because the complex patterns in data do not lend themselves to linear regression analysis.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 336

218. Two new categories of data mining are text mining and Web mining.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 338

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is a synonym for data mining?
a. Knowledge data discovery
b. Information analysis
c. Coal mining
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

22. Which of the following is not true of data mining?
a. Data mining has seen explosive growth in the area of customer relationship management.
b. Data mining is a business solution.
c. Data mining is a technology.
d. None of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 327

23. The set of activities used to find new, hidden, or unexpected patterns in data is referred to as:
a. data warehousing.
b. data mining.
c. data transformation.
d. data aggregation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

24. Which of the following is a reason for the growth in popularity of data mining?
a. Increased volume of data
b. Increased awareness of the inadequacy of the human brain to process multifactorial dependencies or correlations
c. Increased affordability of machine learning
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 328

25. The term _________ has been generally agreed to represent the broad category of software technology that enables decision makers to conduct multidimensional analysis of consolidated enterprise data.
a. OLAP
b. MOLAP
c. ROLAP
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 329

26. ____________organizes and analyzes data as an n-dimensional cube. The cube can be thought of as a common spreadsheet with two extensions: (1) support for multiple dimensions and (2) support for multiple concurrent users.
a. OLAP
b. MOLAP
c. ROLAP
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 331

27. In _____________, the multidimensional database server is replaced with a large relational database server. This “super” relational database will contain both detailed and summarized data thus allowing for “drill down” techniques to be applied to the data sets.
a. OLAP
b. MOLAP
c. ROLAP
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 331

28. In a ________________, the data are stored as a multidimensional array where each cell in the array represents the intersection of all of the dimensions. Using this approach, any number of dimensions may be analyzed simultaneously and any number of multidimensional views of the data can be created.
a. hyperion cube
b. hypercube
c. stochastic cube
d. correlation cube

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

29. Which term is used to refer to a basic database operation that links rows of two or more tables by one or more columns in each table?
a. n-cube analysis
b. table link
c. table join
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

30. Which of the following is at the center of a star schema?
a. Multi dimensional cube
b. Dimension table
c. Fact table
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 332

31. Which of the following is not considered one of the four major categories of processing algorithms and rule approaches?
a. Classification
b. Association
c. Sequence
d. Principal components analysis

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 333

32. Which data mining technique utilizes linkage analysis to search operational transactions for patterns with a high probability of repetition?
a. Association
b. Cluster
c. Sequence
d. Principal components analysis

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

33. There are some cases where it is difficult or impossible to define the parameters of a class of data to be analyzed. In these cases, _____________ methods can be used to create partitions so that all members of each set are similar according to some metric or set of metrics thus creating a set of objects grouped together by virtue of their similarity or proximity to each other.
a. association
b. linkage analysis
c. sequencing
d. clustering

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 335

34. ___________________ methods are used to relate events in time, such as the prediction of interest rate fluctuations or stock performance, based on a series of preceding events. Through this analysis, various hidden trends can be discovered that are often highly predictive of future events.
a. Association
b. Linkage analysis
c. Sequencing
d. Clustering

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

35. Which of the following is not a data mining technology?
a. Statistical analysis
b. Neural networks
c. Decision trees
d. All of the above are data mining technologies.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 336

36. A common example of the use of association methods where a retailer can mine the data generated by a point-of-sale system, such as the price scanner you are familiar with at the grocery store is referred to as:
a. sequencing.
b. linkage analysis.
c. clustering.
d. market basket analysis.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

37. The process by which numerical data is converted into meaningful images is referred to as:
a. data mining.
b. data warehousing.
c. data visualization.
d. data aggregation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 351

38. Which of the following is not an advantage of market basket analysis?
a. Identifying which products sell together can help manage inventory.
b. It is more preferable to marketers to market to existing customers.
c. Market basket analysis can sometimes produce results that are due to prior marketing campaigns.
d. All of the above are advantages.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 345

39. An orderly hierarchy of items and item categories that divides each item into a basket analysis is referred to as a:
a. cluster analysis.
b. taxonomy.
c. multi dimensional market basket analysis.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 348

40. Which of the following is a limitation of data mining?
a. Identification of missing data
b. Data noise
c. Missing values
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pps. 350-351

Essay Questions

41. What are Codd’s twelve rules for OLAP?

42. What are the current limitations and challenges to data mining?

78. List and briefly describe several data mining technologies.

79. Describe how relational on-line analytical processing (ROLAP) works.

80. Explain the concept of multidimensional on-line analytical processing (MOLAP).

Chapter 12
Designing and Building the Data Warehouse

True-False Questions

219. The first step in planning a data warehouse is to define the information requirements of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 383

220. The enterprise model consists of a number of separate models integrated together to provide a comprehensive view of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

221. The corporate process model describes the entities generated by the elementary processes carried out by the enterprise.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

222. The corporate data model represents a highly structured description of the elementary processes within the enterprise that identify the interrelationships among the different processes.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

223. The long term benefit of an enterprise data warehouse is the increased integration of business processes throughout the organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 384

224. A top-down data warehouse design focuses on making use of data available in the current operational systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 384-385

225. A bottom-up approach to data warehouse brings more benefit to a data warehouse project than a top-down approach.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385

226. Horizontal integration is the means by which the application designer ensures that the software application is congruent with the stated business requirements.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385

227. Enterprise integration ensures that each application is fully integrated within its own boundaries.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385

228. Vertical integration ensures that consistent data definitions occur across the entire organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 386

229. One of the most significant data warehouse critical success factors is strong management support.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 386

230. Organizational culture can have an impact on their readiness to develop a data warehouse because data warehouse development implies cross departmental cooperation and information sharing.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 388

231. One common approach to data warehouse project prioritization is to rank initiatives by impact on the information technology organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 390

232. One low cost approach to determining data warehouse feasibility is to develop a proof of concept.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 391

233. When the initial scope of a project continues to expand to incorporate new features this is referred to as feature expansion.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 392

234. The first step in developing a data warehouse is to determine the project scope.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 392

235. A project benefit that can be identified with certainty and expressed in dollars is said to be an intangible benefit.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 396

236. The ability to introduce new products would be considered an intangible project benefit.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 396

237. The ability to be proactive in identifying legal issues, thereby foregoing potential financial penalties that might impact a firm would be considered an intangible project benefit.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 397

238. Economic feasibility measures share one concept in common – the time value of money.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 399

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following data warehouse design approaches implies a strategic rather than operational perspective?
a. Bottom-up approach
b. Top-down approach
c. Central approach
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

22. When the application designer ensures that the software application is in harmony with the business requirements, this is referred to as:
a. horizontal integration.
b. vertical integration.
c. enterprise integration.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 385

23. _________ seeks to ensure that each application under development is fully integrated within its own boundaries and to eliminate any inconsistencies in the final software product.
a. Horizontal integration
b. Vertical integration
c. Enterprise integration
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 385

24. __________ ensures that there is consistent definition of data and processes across the organization.
a. Horizontal integration
b. Vertical integration
c. Enterprise integration
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 386

25. Which of the following is not a data warehouse project readiness assessment factor?
a. Strong sponsorship
b. A compelling business motivation
c. An analytic organizational culture
d. All of the above are factors.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 386-388

26. Which of the following is considered a key question to the success of a data warehouse initiative?
a. What are the key performance indicators used for each of the key business initiatives?
b. What is the potential impact on each of the existing performance metrics with improved access to higher-quality business process information?
c. What does management consider to be the key strategic business initiatives?
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 390

27. Which of the following is considered to be a project prioritization dimension?
a. Perceived impact on the core business
b. Economic impact on the IT organization
c. Feasibility of staffing the project internally
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 390

28. Which term refers to the process of developing a relatively low cost prototype to demonstrate that a data warehouse will achieve the perceived benefits?
a. Proof of prototype
b. Proof of concept
c. Proof of benefit
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 391

29. __________ occurs when the initial scope of a project continues to expand as new features are incorporated into the project.
a. Feature creep
b. Hope creep
c. Scope creep
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 392

30. Which of the following refers to a perspective from which an argument to pursue an investment can be made?
a. Faith
b. Fear
c. Facts
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 394

31. Despite increased spending in information technology productivity growth in the U.S. has been stagnant or weak. This phenomenon is referred to as:
a. technology paradox.
b. productivity paradox.
c. productivity paradigm.
d. technology paradigm.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 394

32. A(n) ________ benefit can be identified with certainty and is easily expressed in dollars.
a. intangible
b. tangible
c. enterprise
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 396

33. A(n) _________ benefit can be directly associated with a project but is not easily expressed in dollars.
a. intangible
b. tangible
c. enterprise
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 396

34. Which of the following is not a tangible benefit?
a. Increase in process quality
b. Reduction in employee turnover
c. Improving time to market
d. Decreased need for travel

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 396

35. Which of the following is not an intangible benefit?
a. Development of new markets
b. Increased competitive advantage
c. More timely information
d. Increased workplace safety

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 397

36. Which of the following is an economic feasibility measure?
a. Net present value
b. Breakeven analysis
c. Internal rate of return
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 399

37. Which economic feasibility measure results in a return on investment expressed as an interest rate?
a. Net present value
b. Breakeven analysis
c. Internal rate of return
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 402

38. ____________ determines the point where the benefits of a project equal its costs.
a. Net present value
b. Breakeven analysis
c. Internal rate of return
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 402

39. Joining a fact table to dimension tables in a star schema is referred to as a:
a. star join.
b. data mart.
c. fact analysis.
d. dimensional warehouse.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 407

40. ___________ determines exactly what constitutes a fact record.
a. Star schema
b. Degree of granularity
c. Data mart analysis
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 410

Essay Questions

41. Describe the two main components of an enterprise model.

42. Define three levels of enterprise integration.

81. Distinguish between tangible and intangible benefits.

82. What are the benefits realized through a sound data warehouse architecture?

83. List the guidelines for a successful data warehouse project.

Chapter 13
Decisions in the Organization

True-False Questions

239. A system can be defined as a series of interrelated elements with an identifiable boundary, that work together to achieve a common goal.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

240. The concept of synergy states that the whole is equal to the sum of the parts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

241. A system contains three components: interrelated elements, internal inputs, and subsystems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

242. Another name for a system element is a subsystem.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

243. Boundaries imply that systems can be distinguished via their relationship to other systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 425

244. Elements that are not contained within the boundary of a system are part of the system environment.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 425

245. The system environment is not part of the system itself.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 425

246. A self contained system that has very little interaction with the external environment is referred to as an adaptive system.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 427

247. Closed systems are perpetual and self-sustaining.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 427

248. Open systems adapt both internally and externally.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 427

249. Function composition is the process of breaking down systems into more discreet subsystems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 428

250. A DSS is considered to be a closed system because all of the data stores used are self-contained.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 430

251. One of the advantages of a DSS is that the end-user is always contained with the boundaries of the system, resulting in greater system control.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 430

252. A service level agreement provides a detailed description of each service provision along with reporting requirements for each party to the agreement.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 434

253. Information relevance is synonymous with information precision.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 436

254. The standard for information to be considered timely is that it must be available to the user within 48 hours.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 437

255. Information consistency refers to how quickly and easily its intended user can figure out what to do with it.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 438

256. Information system architecture is a detailed plan that addresses the make, model and characteristics of each physical unit in a system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

257. One of the unique features of a DSS is that the data is highly specialized and rarely used by anyone other than the person who created it.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 440

258. Scalability is the degree to which a platform can be expanded to accommodate increases in processing requirements.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following describes the term synergy?
a. The whole is greater than the sum of the parts.
b. The whole is equal to the sum of the parts.
c. A well defined DSS will result in performance improvements.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

22. Elements is a system are also referred to as:
a. models.
b. subsystems.
c. boundaries.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

23. _________ and ________ are common classifications of systems.
a. Internal, external
b. Inside, outside
c. Open, closed
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 426

24. Which term best describes a mechanistic system?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Closed
d. Open

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 426

25. Which term best describes an adaptive system?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Closed
d. Open

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 427

26. Which type of system tends to be less structured in its operation?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Closed
d. Open

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 427

27. The process of continually redefining a system into smaller, more discrete subsystems in referred to as:
a. system identification.
b. functional decomposition.
c. requirements definition.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 428

28. Which of the following is not true of a DSS?
a. A DSS is usually associated with more than one data store.
b. A DSS usually serves more end users than a typical transactional system.
c. A DSS can be controlled by its end users.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 430

29. Which of the following is not needed to define a DSS?
a. The objectives of the DSS application.
b. The definition of the data that resides within the boundaries of the DSS.
c. The definition of the temporal processes contained within the DSS.
d. All of the above are needed.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 431

30. Which of the following is true of a service level agreement?
a. It defines both the scope and level of service expected by the users of the service.
b. it includes a detailed description of each aspect of the service.
c. It identifies reporting obligations for all parties to the service.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 434

31. Which of the following is not a factor in determining information quality?
a. Relevance
b. Accuracy
c. Precision
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 436

32. Which of the following is not a factor in determining information quality?
a. Usability
b. Cost
c. Correctness
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 438-439

33. Information that matches the needs of the decision maker is said to be:
a. timely.
b. accurate.
c. relevant.
d. precise.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 435

34. __________ refers to the maximum accuracy with which a piece of information can be represented.
a. Correctness
b. Precision
c. Consistency
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 436

35. ___________ is the degree to which similar pieces of information are stored and presented in a similar and predictable fashion.
a. Consistency
b. Precision
c. Accuracy
d. Relevance

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 438

36. Which of the following is not an issue to be considered in the definition of DSS architecture?
a. Interoperability
b. Scalability
c. Compatibility
d. All of the above are issues to consider.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

37. Which of the following refers to the degree to which information can be delivered to the exact locus of a decision?
a. Interoperability
b. Compatibility
c. Scalability
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

38. DSS _________ is a cost reduction issue, supporting the growth of a platform as system requirements change.
a. interoperability
b. compatibility
c. scalability
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 440

39. The issue of ________ focuses on the degree to which a DSS under design will interact effectively with other organizational systems.
a. interoperability
b. compatibility
c. scalability
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 440

40. Which of the following is included within a well-defined DSS architecture?
a. Databases
b. Models
c. Administration tools
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 442

Essay Questions

41. List the elements of a well-defined DSS architecture.

42. Briefly describe three issues that affect DSS information system architecture.

84. Briefly define a system.

85. Distinguish between a closed system and an open system.

86. List 8 factors that affect information quality.

Chapter 14
Designing and Building Decision Support Systems

True-False Questions

259. Because there is no one best DSS, it stands to reason that there is no one best way to design and build one either.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 450

260. Because of the unique requirements of a DSS, the only way to construct one is with a DSS generator.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 450

261. A DSS generator is an application system that eliminates the need for programming of thousands of individual instructions or codes in the design and construction of a DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 451

262. A common perspective with regard to system design and development is found in the system development life cycle (SDLC) approach. The SDLC portrays the process as a series of iterative and recursive phases, each with its own set of required inputs, activities, and deliverables.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 452

263. The primary advantage of an SLDC approach to DSS design is that it is the most adaptive methodology to handle the sometimes rapidly changing system specifications.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 453

264. An alternative to the SDLC approach is ROMC Analysis. This approach focuses the analysis effort on developing understandings of read operations (R), overflows (O), memory maps (M), and continuous data flow (C).
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 453

265. Functional category analysis results in the design of a DSS from the categorization of end-user interviews.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 454

266. Three primary categories of system requirements for the DSS can be established: (1) functional requirements, (2) interface requirements, and (3) coordination requirements.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 457

267. The functional requirements for the DSS focus on the DSS’s capacity for storage, recall, and production of knowledge useful to the problem context.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

268. The coordination requirements focus on the communication capabilities of the DSS. During this phase, the designer must determine the various channels and methods of communication that will be made available to the DSS user and the conditions under which they will be made available.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

269. The determination of specific physical components, structure, and development platforms is made during the system construction stage of the DSS development process.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

270. The goal of the system implementation phase is to test, evaluate, and deploy a fully functional and documented DSS. During this phase, a major activity is the final determination and evaluation of the degree to which the DSS meets the users’ needs.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 458

271. The DSS developer must possess the knowledge to develop the computer-based application but normally does not need to be knowledgeable about the details surrounding the problem under study.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 459

272. Two basic types of prototyping have proved effective in the development of DSSs: iterative prototypes and reusable prototypes.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 460

273. Prototyping can be beneficial in the development of a DSS because the immediate nature of user response and feedback regarding system functionality can result in greater senior management support.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 461

274. End users are those individuals who fall outside the confines of the formally defined IS department or function within an organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 463

275. An advantage of end-user development DSS applications is a reduction in time to deliver resulting in lower cost.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 464

276. An area of risk with end-user developed DSS applications is a potential lack of security measures built into the system.

277. The concept of the information center (IC) arose to address the need for end-user support in the design and development of computer-based applications.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 465

278. DSS development tools are classified as either primary development tools or DSS generators.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 466

Multiple Choice Questions

21. An application system that eliminates the need for programming of thousands of individual instructions or code in the design and construction of a DSS is called a(n):
a. DSS development system.
b. DSS generator.
c. DSS analyzer.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 451

22. A common perspective with regard to system design and development is found in the _____________ approach which portrays the process as a series of iterative and recursive phases, each with its own set of required inputs, activities, and deliverables.
a. DSS programming language
b. ROMC
c. SDLC
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 452

23. Which of the following is not true of the SDLC approach in DSS development?
a. It brings a necessary structure and discipline to the DSS development process.
b. It is flexible in its development approach.
c. It is common where formal relationships exist between the developer and end user.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 453

24. An alternative to the SDLC approach which focuses the analysis effort on developing understandings of representations, operations, memory aids, and controls is called:
a. SDLC II.
b. ROMC.
c. RAID.
d. CSF.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 453

25. A methodology for the design of a DSS that focuses on the identification of specific functions necessary for the development of a particular DSS from a broad list of available functions including selection, aggregation, estimation, simulation, equalization, and optimization is called:
a. functional category analysis.
b. ROMC.
c. SDLC.
d. SDLC II.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 454

26. Which of the following would not be considered a primary category of the systems analysis phase of DSS development?
a. Functional requirements
b. Interface requirements
c. Technical requirements
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 457

27. The set of specifications for the DSS which focuses on the DSS’s capacity for storage, recall, and production of knowledge useful to the problem context is known as the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

28. The requirements which focus on the communication capabilities of the DSS are called the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

29. The requirements for a DSS that include the timing of events associated with the decision-making process, the facilitation of the access to relevant information, and the integration of various modeling tools contained with the DSS are called the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

30. Which design phase uses iterative prototyping to make refinements to the system based upon feedback received from testing and user involvement?
a. System design
b. System construction
c. Implementation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 457-458

31. Which of the following would be an example of a coordination requirement?
a. The need to update sale projections for prior fiscal periods to actual figures before initiating a future projection process
b. The need to provide a graphic interface to the user
c. The need for a powerful server
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

32. The determination of specific physical components, structure, and development platforms is made during the __________stage of the DSS development process.
a. system design
b. system requirements
c. system construction
d. implementation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 457

33. The goal of the _________________ phase is to test, evaluate, and deploy a fully functional and documented DSS. During this phase, a major activity is the final determination and evaluation of the degree to which the DSS meets the users’ needs.
a. system design
b. system construction
c. system implementation
d. incremental adaptation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 458

34. The final stage in the DSS development process is ________. It involves the continual revisiting of the activities from earlier stages in an effort to the capabilities of the DSS based upon the knowledge gained as a result of its use.
a. system requirements revision
b. system installation
c. system implementation
d. incremental adaptation

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 458

35. Which of the following is true of the DSS development process?
a. More often than not the problem context is not known to the user.
b. The decision making process tends to vary greatly.
c. Prototyping is typically an expedient method of defining DSS requirements.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 459

36. Which of the following is not a prototyping classification?
a. Iterative
b. ROMC analyzed
c. Throwaway
d. All of the above are prototype classifications.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 460

37. Which of the following is true of prototyping?
a. It typically results in a lower development cost than an SDLC approach.
b. It typically results in a quicker development time than an SDLC approach.
c. In the early stages it is very similar to the SDLC approach.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 461

38. Which of the following is not true of an end-user developed DSS?
a. They are typically created in less time.
b. They typically have less implementation problems.
c. They typically result in lower development cost.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 464

39. The ___________________ are the lowest level of DSS development technology. In this category, we find the programming languages, code and text editors, graphics development applications, and database query mechanisms employed during the development of either a DSS generator or a specific DSS application.
a. primary development tools
b. DSS generators
c. specific DSS applications
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 467

40. The _____________ are packages of hardware/software which provide a set of capabilities to build a specific DSS quickly and easily.
a. primary development tools
b. DSS generators
c. specific DSS applications
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 467

Essay Questions

41. List the processes in the SDLC approach to DSS application development.

42. Describe the functional category analysis approach. What is its most significant benefit?

87. What are the strengths and weaknesses of the traditional SDLC approach?

88. List and briefly describe the two types of prototypes. Compare their advantages and limitations.

89. List the factors that are related to the quality of the user interface.

Chapter 15
Implementing and Integrating Decision Support Systems

True-False Questions

279. Implementation is probably the most important and critical step in the entire DSS design process because without a successful implementation, the greatest DSS ever created will go unused or even unnoticed.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 478

280. Implementation is a static process, occurring at the end of DSS development.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 479

281. The Lewin-Schein theory of change is structured and rigid.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 479

282. The essence of the Kolb-Frohman model is the assumption that the probability of successful implementation will result from a specific pattern of actions by the users and managers.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 479

283. Alter suggested that the initial impetus behind the development of a DSS can be categorized via: (1) user stimulus, (2) managerial stimulus and (3) environmental stimulus.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 481

284. The Service with a Smile implementation pattern is the most common approach for a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 482

285. The logic behind user satisfaction as a measure of success is that the users will view a DSS as favorable if it is perceived to be effective in supporting the decision-making process. The more effective the system appears to be, the more satisfied the users will be with the system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 485

286. The number of times a DSS was accessed is the most effective metric of its success.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 485

287. Davis developed a method of measuring user satisfaction of information systems based upon perceived usefulness and perceived ease of use.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 485

288. Perceived usefulness focuses on the attitudes of the user with regard to the degree to which the system is perceived to bring utility or value to the activity within which it is used.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

289. Perceived ease-of-use focuses on the degree to which the users of the system perceive the task to be easy to do.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

290. One method of assessing the success of a DSS is to focus on the technical functionality of the system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 486

291. Utilizing the ratio of direct cost to direct benefit is an example of using organizational success measures to assess a DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 486

292. Integrating the DSS into the organization simply means that the new application is merged into the existing computing infrastructure such that the appearance of a seamless architecture appears to the user.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

293. In functional integration, the various decision support functions with the DSS are integrated and linked to those of the existing infrastructure. This linking includes providing common menu access, inter- and intra-application transfer of data and tools, and a common application interface at the same desktop client or workstation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

294. Physical integration involves the architectural bundling of the hardware, software, and data communication characteristics associated with the new DSS into the existing set of physical systems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 494

295. Physical integration can begin before a DSS is designed.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

296. One of the least common problems faced during the implementation and integration of virtually any computer-based information system, including DSS, is the resistance by certain individuals or groups to the changes associated with the new system.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 495

297. Resistance to change can result from a number of different factors, including fear of the unknown.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 495

298. Managers represent the single resistance group to the implementation of a DSS, because they fear a loss of importance.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 497

Multiple Choice Questions

21. _________________ is probably the most important and critical step in the entire DSS design process because without its success, the greatest DSS ever created will go unused or even unnoticed.
a. Design
b. Implementation
c. Requirements Analysis
d. Physical Design

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 478

22. According to this theory, the process of change occurs in three basic steps: unfreezing, moving, and refreezing.
a. Kolb-Frohman
b. Structuration
c. Contingency
d. Lewin-Schein

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 479

23. Which of the following is not a step in the Kolb-Frohman theory of change?
a. Scouting
b. Entry
c. Diagnosis
d. Refreezing

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 481

24. According to Alter, which of the following is not a DSS development category impetus?
a. Entrepreneurial stimulus
b. User stimulus
c. Managerial stimulus
d. Environmental stimulus

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 481

25. One common measure of success suggests that users will view a DSS as favorable if it is seen as effective in supporting the decision-making process. This measure is known as:
a. perceived usefulness.
b. perceived ease of use.
c. user satisfaction.
d. system use.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

26. The ________________ construct focuses on the attitudes of the user with regard to the degree to which the system is perceived to bring utility or value to the activity within which it is used.
a. perceived usefulness
b. perceived ease-of-use
c. user satisfaction
d. system use

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

27. The ________________ construct focuses on the degree to which the users of the system perceive the tool to be easy to use.
a. perceived usefulness
b. perceived ease-of-use
c. user satisfaction
d. system use

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

28. Which DSS implementation pattern is associated with high levels of user involvement and initiation?
a. Join hands and circle around
b. Service with a smile
c. R&D
d. Used car salesperson

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 482

29. Which DSS implementation pattern is characterized by a consultant attempting to sell the need for a DSS to the user?
a. Join hands and circle around
b. Service with a smile
c. R&D
d. Used car salesperson

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 483

30. Which DSS implementation pattern is associated with users who are looking to buy a product?
a. Join hands and circle around
b. Service with a smile
c. R&D
d. Used car salesperson

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 482

31. Which of the following is not a criterion for DSS success?
a. Fits well with the organization’s planning methods.
b. Fits well with the political approach to decision making within the organization.
c. Is considered both cost effective and valuable relative to its development costs.
d. All of the above are DSS success criteria.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 487

32. In this system measurement category, the quality of the computer system becomes the focus. Issues such as response time, system availability, usage time, reliability, and quality of system support, among others are identified and measured. Measures in this category can be obtained using a variety of methods including direct observation, event logging, and attitude or perceptual construct surveys.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 487

33. This category of assessment takes a micro focus on performance and addresses issues related to the functionality of the DSS within the specific problem context for which it was developed. Decision quality can be assessed in terms of time spent in the decision process, number of alternatives evaluated, and span of information searched. Additionally, qualitative measures dealing with trust or confidence, satisfaction, and understanding, can also be included in this measure.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 488

34. This category measures the factors that contribute to the organizational aspects of the DSS. This category is primarily quantitative in nature and includes measures focusing on increases in revenue, cost reductions, increases in training effectiveness, increases in competitive advantages, and changes in productivity, among many others.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 488

35. The degree to which the DSS adapts to changes within the problem context and environment is the focus of this category of performance measurement. Inherent in providing support to ill-structured decisions and problem-solving tasks are the changes that can occur in the users’ decision-making behavior, problem characteristics, and circumstances. The ability of a DSS to adapt to these dynamics is often a function of the original development tool selected and the ability of the user to make necessary changes to data or models.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 488

36. Which of the following takes a process-centric perspective with regard to the design of an information system and its associated applications?
a. DSS management
b. Issue-based management
c. Process based management
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 489

37. The process by which the new DSS application is merged into the existing computing infrastructure such that the appearance of a seamless architecture appears to the user is called:
a. design.
b. maintenance.
c. implementation.
d. integration.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 494

38. In __________ integration, the various decision support functions with the DSS are integrated and linked to those of the existing infrastructure. This linking includes providing common menu access, inter- and intra-application transfer of data and tools, and a common application interface at the same desktop client or workstation.
a. physical
b. functional
c. technical
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

39. _________________ integration involves the architectural bundling of the hardware, software, and data communication characteristics associated with the new DSS into the existing set of physical systems.
a. Physical
b. Functional
c. Technical
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

40. Which of the following is a factor that can lead to resistance to change within an organization?
a. Fear of the unknown
b. Differing perceptions
c. Conservationism
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 496

Essay Questions

41. Define the Lewin-Schein Change Theory.

1.
42. What are the seven steps of the process of change in the Kolb-Frohman Model?

90. List and briefly describe the six generic DSS implementation patterns.

91. List seven characteristics of overall software quality.

92. Identify the factors that cause organizational resistance to change.

Chapter 16

Creative Decision Making and Problem Solving
True-False Questions

299. Creativity involves the translation of our unique gifts, talents, and vision into some form of external reality that is both new and useful.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 504

300. Creativity can involve the combining of existing objects intended for one purpose into some other completely different purpose.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 504

301. Intelligence combines thinking and learning.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 505

302. The psychoanalytic perspective maintains that creativity is a preconscious mental activity. In other words, creative thinking occurs in our subconscious thoughts and, as such, is not directly accessible to our conscious thoughts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 508

303. Creativity in problem solving and planning can be defined as the ability of a subject in a choice situation to modify self-imposed constraints so as to enable him to select courses of action that he would otherwise produce on his own.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 506

304. Scheduling creativity requires a highly skilled information technology project manager.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 507

305. The psychoanalytic perspective argues that creativity is nothing more than a natural response to stimuli within our individual environments and that certain combinations of stimuli can lead to more creative behavior than other combinations.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

306. The process orientation view sees creativity as a property of a thought process that can be acquired and improved through instruction and practice.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

307. Logical thinking is perhaps the most common, most widely used, and most often recommended approach to solving a problem. This method of thinking is rooted in the model-building and quantitative methods of management science and is an integral part of the design and development of a computer-based DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 509

308. Lateral thinking is based upon the premise that the human mind naturally processes and stores information in accordance with a specific pattern of thought and action. Because of this logical categorization process, the mind becomes hindered in any attempt to change these recognized patterns of thought. Lateral thinking disrupts these patterns through the introduction of discontinuity.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

309. Three major activities promote lateral thinking processes: (1) creativity, (2) analysis and (3) initiative.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

310. Exaggeration can be used as a method of change.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 510

311. The most common method of introducing change from outside the problem context is to use analogies.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 510

312. Opposite thinking takes the position that certain elements within a problem context are more critical to any solution outcome.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

313. Critical thinking is a method of problem solving where the decision-maker simply takes the perspective of someone other than himself or herself. This is a form of “standing in another’s shoes.” Using this method, a decision maker can often gain insight into why a particular problem exists in the first place.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

314. One of the most common barriers to creativity is a result of problem solvers making assumptions regarding potential outcomes that are untrue.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 513

315. Creative thought can be inhibited by criticism.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 514

316. The vast majority of creative problem-solving techniques applicable in an electronic decision support mechanism can be categorized into an easily manageable taxonomy consisting of four basic categories: free association, structured relationships, group techniques, and serendipity.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 515

317. Osborn’s Idea Checklist requires that users write down attributes of a problem, list as many alternatives under each attribute as possible, and then consider all possible combinations.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 518

318. AHP is a mathematically based theory for use in decision making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 521

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of creativity?
a. Intelligence
b. Academic achievement
c. Intuition
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 505

22. Which of the following statements is true of creativity?
a. A creative person does things never done before.
b. Creativity involves the translation of unique gifts, talents and vision into some form of external reality that is new and useful.
c. Creativity can involve combining objects intended for one purpose into a completely different purpose.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 504

23. The _____________ perspective maintains that creativity is a preconscious mental activity. In other words, creative thinking occurs in our subconscious thoughts and, as such, is not directly accessible to our conscious thoughts.
a. psychoanalytic
b. behavioral
c. process orientation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

24. The _______________ perspective argues that creativity is nothing more than a natural response to stimuli within our individual environments and that certain combinations of stimuli can lead to more creative behavior than other combinations.
a. psychoanalytic
b. behavioral
c. process orientation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

25. The __________________perspective sees creativity as a property of a thought process that can be acquired and improved through instruction and practice.
a. psychoanalytic
b. behavioral
c. process orientation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

26. Which of the following is not considered one of the five basic categories of ways of thinking?
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 509

27. This method of thinking is rooted in the model-building and quantitative methods of management science and is an integral part of the design and development of a computer-based DSS.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

28. This method of thinking is based upon the premise that the human mind naturally processes and stores information in accordance with a specific pattern of thought and action.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

29. This method of thinking takes the position that there exists certain elements within a problem context that are most crucial to the significance of any solution outcome.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

30. ______________ thinking is a method of problem solving where the decision-maker simply takes the perspective of someone other than himself or herself. This is a form of “standing in another’s shoes.” Using this method, a decision maker can often gain insight into why a particular problem exists in the first place.
a. Lateral
b. Opposite
c. Intuition
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

31. Which of the following is not a major activity available to promote lateral thinking?
a. Evaluation
b. Alternatives
c. Provocation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

32. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a vertical thinking process?
a. Guarantees that at least a minimally acceptable solution will be found.
b. Focuses primarily on the obvious and tends to process using established patterns of thought.
c. Chance intrusions are welcomed and nothing is considered irrelevant.
d. All of the above are characteristics of vertical thinking.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 509

33. Which of the following is not a barrier to creativity?
a. Self-constraining beliefs
b. Fear of criticism
c. lack of confidence
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 513-514

34. __________ is one of the most common barriers to creativity and is identified by problem solvers who make assumptions regarding potential outcomes that are fabricated or untrue.
a. Self-constraining beliefs
b. Fear of criticism
c. Lack of confidence
d. Stress

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 513

35. Which of the following is untrue of barriers to creativity?
a. Not all barriers to creativity are self-imposed.
b. Environments in which quick production of thought is the norm enhance creativity.
c. Lack of introspection can be a barrier to creativity.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 515

36. Which of the following is major category of problem-solving techniques?
a. Free association
b. Serendipity
c. Group techniques
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 515

37. Which category of problem solving techniques contains two goals: (1) divergent thinking and (2) the generation of ideas?
a. Serendipity
b. Free association
c. Brainstorming
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 516

38. Which of the following is true of brainstorming?
a. It can be facilitated in a structured manner.
b. It can be facilitated in an unstructured manner.
c. It can be conducted individually or collectively.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 517

39. The _________ technique requires the user to write down attributes of a problem, list as many alternative options under each attribute as possible, and then consider all possible combinations and permutations of the alternatives.
a. Osborn’s idea checklist
b. morphological forced connections
c. analytic hierarchy process
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 518

40. Which of the following is not an element of the general form of the model for the Analytic Hierarchy Process?
a. Criteria
b. Alternatives
c. Decision
d. All of the above are elements.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 520

Essay Questions

41. What approaches can be utilized to provoke changes in lateral thinking?

42. List the steps involved in Nominal Group Technique.

93. Describe the basis of lateral thinking.

94. List and briefly describe the three major activities in promoting lateral thinking processes.

95. What is creativity? Explain it from different perspectives.

Chapter 17
Intelligent Software Agents, BOTS, Delegation, and Agency

True-False Questions

319. Delegation involves the discretionary authority to autonomously act on behalf of another.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

320. An autonomous agent takes on the responsibility of completing a task that is delegated to you.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

321. Delegation enables you to take on more responsibility
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

322. Information systems enable time-consuming activities to be accomplished in a more expedient manner only when delegated to subordinate employees
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

323. The concept of the computer responding to human intervention is referred to as indirect manipulation.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

324. Intelligent software agents act autonomously on behalf of the user.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

325. Intelligent software agents replace the need for any human intervention.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 531

326. The concept of delegacy centers on consistency.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 531

327. Intelligent software agents on the Internet and intranets are moving towards personalization and diversification.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 533

328. The concept of agency consists of techniques, concepts, and applications to personalize, customize, elaborate, delegate, and catalyze the processes in the online marketplace.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

329. Supplier-driven agency relies primarily on pull technologies.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

330. A user-driven agency enables an end-user to be able to utilize push technologies to customize their information needs.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

331. Agency architecture defines the mathematical formulas for representing and reasoning about the properties of agents.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 537

332. Autonomy is the characteristic of an agent that acquires information necessary to function by monitoring the user’s actions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 540

333. Anthropomorphism is the embodiment of a principle, attitude, or view of life.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 541

334. Because of the static nature of intelligent agents, many are needed to develop an effective e-commerce site.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 541

335. Organizational agents are far more prevalent across the Internet than personal agents.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 544

336. A watcher agent learns from a user’s past behavior.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 546

337. A helper agent is designed to assist a user in an autonomous manner without human intervention.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 547

338. Consumer recommendations can be presented to people through the use of automated collaboration filtering.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 551

Multiple Choice Questions

21. When you agree to take on the responsibility for completing a task from another, you act as a(n) _____________.
a. delegate
b. independent agent
c. autonomous agent
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

22. Software that “knows” a users’ interests and can act autonomously on their behalf is referred to as:
a. an intelligent agent.
b. a script file.
c. artificial intelligence.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

23. Which of the following is true of software agents?
a. They can be personalized to meet a users’ needs.
b. They operate as background tasks.
c. There are many different types of software agents.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 533

24. Which of the following is not an agency type?
a. Supplier-driven agency
b. User-driven agency
c. Market-driven agency
d. All of the above are agency types.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

25. Which of the following is not true of an agency?
a. It consists of techniques, concepts and applications to personalize processes.
b. It influences the content that it presents.
c. They can be categorized as organizational or personal.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 535

26. _________ answers the question of what an agent is, as well as the mathematical formalisms for representing and reasoning about the properties of agents.
a. Agent theory
b. Agent architecture
c. Agent Language
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 537

27. _________ focuses on the development and deployment of software languages for programming and experimenting with intelligent software agents.
a. Agent theory
b. Agent architecture
c. Agent language
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 537

28. __________ addresses the problem of designing hardware and software systems that will satisfy the properties specified by the agent theorists.
a. Agent theory
b. Agent architecture
c. Agent language
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 537

29. Which types of agents represents two orthogonal concepts: the ability for autonomous execution and the ability to perform domain-oriented reasoning?
a. AIMA
b. MuBOT
c. Hayes-Roth
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 539

30. Which types of agents collaborate, are autonomous, trustworthy and degrade gracefully in the face of a communications mismatch?
a. SodaBot
b. IBM
c. KidSim
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 539

31. Which types of agents are computational systems that inhabit some complex dynamic environment and act autonomously, and by doing so realize a set of goals for which they are designed?
a. Maes
b. Foner
c. Wooldridge-Jennings
d. FAQ

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 539

32. Which of the following is not a common characteristic of intelligent agents?
a. Autonomy
b. Anthropomorphism
c. Risk and trust
d. All of the above are common characteristics.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 540

33. _________ is the ascription of humanlike characteristics to an otherwise non-human entity.
a. Personalizability
b. Discourse
c. Anthropomorphism
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 541

34. A(n) _______ is defined as an embodiment or concrete manifestation of a principle, attitude, view of life, or the like.
a. personalizability
b. discourse
c. anthropomorphism
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 541

35. Which of the following is an advantage of a transportable agent?
a. Customization
b. Fault tolerance
c. Efficiency
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 542

36. Which of the following is not a classification of Brustoloni’s taxonomy of software agents?
a. Planning agent
b. Regulation agent
c. Mobility agent
d. Adaptive agent

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 544

37. Which type of agent searches for the emergence of specific information?
a. Learning agent
b. Watcher agent
c. Passive agent
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 546

38. Which type of agent is designed to facilitate and assist with online shopping activities?
a. Helper agent
b. Shopping agent
c. Watcher agent
d. Learning agent

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 547

39. Which of the following is not an attribute role of agents within the Gaia methodology?
a. Permissions
b. Protocols
c. Use cases
d. Activities

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 558

40. Which of the following is used by UML to model the world as relations between entities using static class diagram format?
a. Protocol diagram
b. Architecture diagram
c. Ontology diagram
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 561

Essay Questions

41. Provide a definition for Intelligent Software Agent.

42. Distinguish between a watcher agent and a learning agent.

96. List and describe the common characteristics of Intelligent Software Agents.

97. Define the classifications of agents within Brustoloni’s Taxonomy of Software Agents?

98. List the twelve Intelligent Software Agent accessibility guidelines.

Chapter 18
Decision Support in the Twenty-First Century

True-False Questions

1. Decision support systems continue to increase in importance as a result of rapid increases in the amount of data to be filtered and analyzed.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 576

2. A major problem in the development of DSSs is a lack of GUIs to help integrate disparate architectures or platforms.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 576

3. One of the significant advantages of DSSs is that they are completely secure and can therefore be accessed across any network.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 577

4. One area of future DSS growth is advanced data management capabilities, including support for hypertext and multimedia.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 577

5. Virtual reality can potentially alter the manner in which users are trained to use information systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 578

6. Two major issues that will impact the future of expert systems are knowledge management and virtual databases.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 578

7. A high performance storage system (HPSS) is software that is useful for the management of large rule sets.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 579

8. The ultimate design goal for expert system knowledge acquisition is to enable the user to encode their own knowledge.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 580

9. Virtual information access and analysis provides a comprehensive access to multimedia, graphical and text data but is limited to internal data.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 581

10. Collaborative filtering applies human thought, in the form of a database of user preferences.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 583

Multiple Choice Questions

11. DSSs have impacted which of the following areas?
a. Medicine
b. Manufacturing
c. Forestry
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 575

12. _____________ is the term that describes the phenomena of data doubling every year, while at the same time a typical knowledge analyst can only absorb 5% of the data.
a. Online analytical processing
b. Information overload
c. Virtual information analysis
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 576

13. Which of the following enables individuals to immerse themselves into a simulated environment?
a. Environmental analysis
b. Virtual analysis
c. Virtual reality
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 577

14. Which of the following is not an issue that is crucial to the future of expert systems?
a. Knowledge management
b. Network simulation
c. AI requirements for intelligent databases
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 578

15. Which of the following is true of a high-performance storage system (HPSS)?
a. An HPSS is software that provides hierarchical storage management.
b. An HPSS supports scalability.
c. A goal of an HPSS is to move files at speeds significantly faster than today’s current storage technology.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 579

16. Which of the following is true of knowledge management?
a. Knowledge management involves the codification of thoughts and experiences.
b. The goal of a knowledge management system is to allow the expert to encode their own knowledge directly into the system.
c. Knowledge management supports multiple problem context generalization.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 580

17. _________ provides access to both organizational and external information through visual screens that combine text, data, and images.
a. VIAA
b. Knowledge management
c. EIS
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 581

18. Which of the following utilizes a database of user preferences in order to predict user outcomes?
a. Personalization agents
b. Collaborative filtering
c. Active filtering
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 583

19. Which of the following is not an issue affecting intelligent software agents?
a. Vigilance
b. Privacy
c. Legal issues
d. All of the above are issues affecting ISAs.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 584

20. Which of the following is a method to determine the degree of humanlike intelligence displayed by a computer?
a. Deming test
b. Gates test
c. Juran test
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 590

Essay Questions

21. Briefly describe how a DSS can be used to support manufacturing.

22. Briefly describe virtual reality.

23. What is a High Performance Storage System?

24. What is Moore’s Law?

25.

Briefly describe the Turing test.

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Chapters 1 Through 18

Chapter 1
Introduction to Decision Support Systems

True-False Questions

1. The role of a DSS is to provide support to the decision-maker during the process of making a decision.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

2. A DSS is used only for unstructured decisions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

3. The purpose of a DSS is to replace the decision maker.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 4

4. The DSS should always be under the ultimate control of the user.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

5. A DSS facilitates learning on the part of the decision maker.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

6. The most powerful classification of DSSs is the Universal DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 6

7. A DSS is normally designed to be wide in its scope of application.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 6

8. A highly unstructured decision is one where the objectives of the situation are often conflicting, the alternatives available to the decision maker are difficult to isolate or determine, and the effect of a particular course of action or selection of an alternative carries with it a high degree of uncertainty.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

9. The user interface of a DSS performs activities related to problem recognition and generation of interim or final solutions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 9

10. The data management component of a DSS is where the activities associated with the retrieval, storage and organization of the relevant data for the particular decision context are managed.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 9

11. The data management component of a DSS is responsible for maintaining the logical independence of the data.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 12

12. The model library stores and manages all solver algorithms within a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 15

13. Model acquisition is the process by which new information is derived from a combination of existing or previously derived information.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 16

14. Rules, heuristics and constraints are stored within a knowledge base of a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 16

15. A model is a simplification of some event or process constructed for the purpose of studying the phenomenon and thus developing a better understanding of it.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 13

16. Internal data normally comes from an organization’s transaction processing systems as a normal course of conducting the daily affairs of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 11

17. Knowledge engineers are specially trained to interact with domain experts for the purposes of acquiring all of the knowledge the expert has in a particular domain and all of the relationships among that knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 18

18. The model base contains the various statistical, financial, mathematical, and other quantitative models used in performing the variety of analytical capabilities in a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 14

19. Silver proposed a method of DSS classification based upon the attributes of the problem-solving context.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 25

20. Hypertext systems are useful for knowledge bases that are document based.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 27

Multiple Choice Questions

21. The realization of the benefits to be derived from using a DSS is dependent upon which of the following?
a. The decision maker
b. The context of the decision
c. The design of the DSS
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 4

22. Which of the following contributed to the development of the concept of decision support systems?
a. J.P. Little
b. Gorry
c. Scott Morton
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 6

23. Limitations of a DSS include which of the following?
a. They cannot be designed to copy human imagination.
b. The language interface does not yet allow for natural language processing.
c. They are designed to be narrow in scope.
d. All of the above

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 5

24. Strategic planning refers to which of the following activities?
a. Where decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and deployment of the organizations assets are made.
b. Where decisions related to the objectives of the organization are made.
c. Where decisions relating to the day-to-day tasks and activities of the organization are made.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

25. Management control refers to which of the following activities?
a. Where decisions related to the objectives of the organization are made.
b. Where decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and deployment of the organization’s assets are made.
c. Where decisions relating to the day-to-day task and activities of the organization are made.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

26. Operational control is best associated with which of the following activities?
a. Making decisions related to the objectives of the organization.
b. Making decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and deployment of the organizations assets.
c. Making decisions relating to the day-to-day tasks and activities of the organization.
d. Both b and c.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7

27. The components of a DSS can be classified into which of the following?
a. Data management system, data repository, knowledge engine, model repository, user(s)
b. Data query facility, model management system, model execution processor, user interface, user(s)
c. Data management system, model management system, knowledge engine, user interface, user(s)
d. Data management system, model management system, knowledge engine, internal data, external data

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 9

28. Which of the following is considered a subsystem within the data management system?
a. Database(s)
b. Database management system
c. The data query facility
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 12

29. One of the most important characteristics of a model is that:
a. it is easy to construct.
b. it is commonly found in decision-making environments.
c. it is a simplified form of reality.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 13

30. The two primary responsibilities of the MBMS are:
a. execution and integration of the models available to the DSS and the modeling of user preferences.
b. execution and integration of the data available to the DSS and the manipulation of the user interface.
c. execution of the user interface and the modeling of user preferences.
d. acquisition of the knowledge contained within the DSS and the modeling of user preferences.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 15

31. Which of the following best describes the function and purpose of the inference engine?
a. It is the subsystem responsible for the acquisition and construction of knowledge rules.
b. It is a component of a DSS that is specifically intended to allow the user to access the internal components of that system in a relatively easy fashion and without having to know specifically how everything is put together or how it works.
c. It is a program module that activates domain knowledge and performs inferencing to work toward a solution or conclusion based upon the values for the facts given and the relationships or rules associated with them.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 18

32. The person who may work closely with the decision maker to assist in interpreting and explaining the DSS output is called the:
a. domain expert.
b. intermediary.
c. domain operator.
d. knowledge generator.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 22

33. Which of the following are the two primary support orientations for a DSS?
a. Data-centric and model-centric
b. Procedural and non-procedural
c. Programmed and non-programmed
d. Simulated and actual

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 8

34. Which of the following is a characteristic of a DSS?
a. It is interactive and user-friendly.
b. It is generally developed using an iterative process.
c. I supports all phases of the decision-making process.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3

35. Which of the following is not a benefit of DSS use?
a. It shortens the time associated with making a decision.
b. The power of the DSS is based upon the system it is running on.
c. It encourages exploration and discovery on the part of the decision maker.
d. All of the above are benefits.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 5

36. Gorry and Scott Morton’s framework for decision support classifies types of decisions as:
a. simplified and complex.
b. structured, semi-structured, and unstructured.
c. supported, semi-supported, and unsupported.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 7

37. Which of the following is a function of the presentation language of a DSS?
a. It allows for detailed report definition.
b. It allows for the creation of forms.
c. It provides for the presentation of data in multiple formats.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 20

38. Which of the following is not a DSS usage category?
a. Terminal mode
b. Clerk mode
c. Query mode
d. Subscription mode

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 23

39. Which of the following is the DSS classification proposed by Donovan and Madnick?
a. Structured and unstructured
b. Mechanical and decisional
c. Formal and ad-hoc
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 25

40. Which type of decision support system keeps track of a large amount of disparate documents?
a. Hypertext system
b. Document encyclopedia
c. Silver junction system
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 27

Essay Questions

41. Describe the general functions of the Model Base Management System.

42. What are some of the common characteristics of a decision support system?

43. List the five components of a DSS

44. Is a “universal DSS” possible? Why or why not?

45. List the general functions of the DBMS.

46. What are the benefits of DSS use?

47. What are the two main responsibilities of the DBMS?

48. How does knowledge get into the DSS? How can it be retrieved and organized as useful information?

49. Compare and contrast data-centric versus model-centric systems, formal versus ad-hoc systems, and directed versus non-directed systems. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each type?

50. Compare the benefits and limitations of highly procedural languages and low/non-procedural languages.

Chapter 2
Decisions and Decision Makers

True-False Questions

21. The decision maker is considered both an element and participant in the decision.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 35

22. All decisions in an organization are ultimately made by a single individual.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 38

23. A problem is defined as the perception of a difference between the current state of affairs and a desired state of affairs.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 36

24. A typical decision is often made using the exact order suggested by a normative model of decision making and tends to use all of the steps contained in the model.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 35

25. Two examples of group decision making are organizational committees and juries.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 39

26. The manner in which a decision is made is referred to as decision style.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 41

27. Decision style is affected by the perception of the problem.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 41

28. The reason there are so many different types of DSSs is that there are many different types of decisions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 37

29. Policies and procedures can affect organizational decision making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 48

30. Simon proposed to classify problems from procedural to non-procedural.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 50

31. Programmed decisions are more difficult to automate in a DSS than non-programmed decisions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 51

32. When conflict exists in either goals or approaches to the decision then Delbecq would classify that as the need for a creative decision.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 55

33. When a novel approach is needed to handle the complexity of the problem, then Delbecq would classify that as the need for a negotiated decision.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 54

34. Mintzberg classifies adaptive activities as characterized by high risk and motivated by the proactive and reactive considerations.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 55

35. According to Thompson, his classification scheme differentiates decisions based upon the type of activities with which the decision is most associated.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 55

36. The most clear-cut phase in the decision making process is the design phase.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 58

37. Simon referred to the process of search-limiting strategies as inferencing.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 61

38. Symptoms of a problem are identical to the problem itself.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 63

39. Stereotyping is a common perceptual block.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 67

40. The tendency to view alternatives as mutually exclusive events is a bias of individual
decision makers.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 73

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not part of the decision-making process?
a. Stimulus
b. Alternative selection
c. Decision maker
d. All of the above are part of the decision making process.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 36-37

22. Which of the following is not a category of decision makers within an organization?
a. Individual decision makers
b. Team decision makers
c. Group decision makers
d. All of the above are categories of decision makers.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 38-39

23. Which of the following is not a factor that affects decision style?
a. Context
b. Inference
c. Values
d. Perception

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 41

24. Which of the following is not a decision style behavior?
a. Analytical
b. Behavioral
c. Conceptual
d. All of the above are decisions style behaviors.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 44

25. According to Mintzberg, which of the following is not a decision typology?
a. Entrepreneurial activities
b. Knowledge activities
c. Adaptive activities
d. Planning activities

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 55

26. According to Delbecq, which of the following is not a classification scheme for negotiation?
a. Inferred decisions
b. Routine decisions
c. Creative decisions
d. Negotiated decisions

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 54-55

27. According to Thompson, which of the following is not a type of strategy based decision scheme?
a. Inspirational strategies
b. Judgmental strategies
c. Conversational strategies
d. Compromise strategies

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 55

28. The perception of a problem context is typically caused by one or more:
a. crisis.
b. stimuli.
c. telephone calls.
d. catastrophes.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 36

29. The term used to describe the manner in which a manager makes decisions is called:
a. decision methodology.
b. decision model.
c. decision style.
d. cognitive style.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 41

30. In any problem context, before any effective investigation of alternative solutions can be conducted, the decision maker must first:
a. establish the available resources.
b. determine the best solution.
c. define the problem.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 37

31. A decision in which many people may serve to influence the final decision but only one decision maker has the authority and responsibility to make the decision is called a:
a. unilateral decision.
b. bilateral decision.
c. negotiated decision.
d. unanimous decision.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 39

32. Which of the following involves factors relating to the forces acting on the decision maker in the course of making the decision?
a. Problem space
b. Problem style
c. Problem context
d. Decision style

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 41

33. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the directive decision style? A directive decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communication or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 42

34. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the analytical decision style? An analytical decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 42

35. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the conceptual decision style? The conceptual decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 43

36. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the behavioral decision style? The behavioral decision style is characterized by:

a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives, and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for communicating to and organizing subordinates.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 44

37. Simon classified problems on a continuum that ranged from:
a. structured to unstructured.
b. parallel to perpendicular.
c. discrete to obtuse.
d. 1 to 10.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 50

38. Which of the following is not included in the Keen and Scott Morton classification of decision-making perspectives?
a. Process-oriented perspective
b. Knowledge-engineer perspective
c. Political perspective
d. Rational manager perspective

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 57

39. Which of the following is not a satisficing strategy?
a. Simulation
b. “What-if” analysis
c. Markov analysis
d. Linear programming

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 59

40. Which of the following is not an optimizing strategy?
a. Goal programming
b. Environmental impact analysis
c. Investment models
d. Transportation models

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 59

Essay Questions

41. Define a ‘good decision’.

42. List 10 common types of support provided by a DSS.

51. Define Mintzberg’s activity-based decision typology.

52. Define what is meant by the term bounded rationality.

53. List the major components of the decision-making process.

54. In which portion of the decision-making process is a DSS most helpful for decisionmakers? Why?

55. List and briefly describe the classes of decision-makers.

56. Describe the three forces that affect a particular individual’s decision style.

The three factors of context, perception, and values intertwine in their relationship to decision style. The problem context involves factors relating to the forces acting on the decisionmaker in the course of making the decision. Organizational and environment forces such as government regulation, new technologies, market competition, internal power struggles, etc. all serve to reform or affect the problem context. Further, forces of a more individual nature such as skill set, energy, motivation, and perceived abilities, among others can also serve as forces that shape the problem context for the decisionmaker. The totality of these forces must be balanced and managed by the decisionmaker during the problem-solving process.

57. List and briefly describe the forces that can act on a problem context and on a decisionmaker during the course of making a decision.

58. List the advantages of using heuristics.

Chapter 3
Decisions in the Organization

True-False Questions

41. An organization includes issues of structure and resources.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 88

42. Organizations can be said to be defined by the decisions that they make.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 88

43. Group norms are not a dimension of organizational decision making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 90

44. All organizational decisions are strategic in their nature.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 90

45. Strategic decisions are typically made at the middle management level and approved by senior management.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91

46. The competence of decision-making ability at each level within an organization can affect the design of a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91

47. Cultural fit is a method of viewing the relationship between organizational culture and decision making.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

48. An organization can either have an internal fit or external fit but may not have both simultaneously.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

49. Organizational culture can be a determinant of an organization’s willingness to change.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 93

50. While an organization may be greater than the sum of its parts, it does not allow its members to collectively pursue and achieve greater goals than they could by acting individually.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91

51. The line personnel who make decisions regarding day-to-day activities relating to production or services are called operations personnel.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 90-91

52. A good external fit suggests a culture that is shaped to both the organization’s strategy and its marketplace.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

53. Internal fit refers to the match between an organization’s culture and its leaders.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

54. Informal power is the term used to define how a manager exercises authority and whether he or she wishes to exercise the power available to them.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 95

55. Organizational politics influences organizational power.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 95

56. Organizational politics is always a disruptive factor in organizations.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 96

57. In the design of a DSS, organizational politics should be considered.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 96

58. The distinguishing characteristic of an ODSS over a GDSS is managerial control.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 97

Multiple Choice Questions

19. Which of the following is not a dimension of organizational decision making?
a. Group roles
b. Group processes
c. Group structure
d. All of the above are dimensions.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 88-89

20. Which of the following is not an organizational decision level?
a. Operations
b. Tactical
c. Directing
d. Strategic

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 90

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?
a. Risk tolerance
b. Fault tolerance
c. Conflict tolerance
d. Communication patterns

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 92

22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?
a. Direction
b. Control
c. Reward system
d. Personnel system

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 92

23. The concept of viewing an organization as a “nexus of decisions” suggests that:
a. an organization is a unified system of resources defined and structured by a collective of functional and political subsystems bound by a set of stated goals and functioning within a set of loosely defined environments.
b. the organization’s purpose is to make decisions within a business environment; it is defined by its decision opportunities, authorities, and responsibilities.
c. an organization is a chaotic environment where decisions occur both randomly and without purpose.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 88

24. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group structure is best defined as:
a. the relationships between the actual point of decision and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed be a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues related to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres, and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 88

25. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group roles is best described as:

a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified purposes that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 89

26. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the circular nature of group process is best described as:

a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 89

27. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group norms is best defined as:

a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 90

28. An organization, when viewed from a decision-making perspective, can be conceptualized by which of the following three discrete levels of hierarchy?

a. Planning, controlling, doing
b. Management, labor, stakeholders
c. Operations, planning, and strategic
d. Tactical, political, social
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 91

29. Cultures that tend to minimize individual initiative and risk taking, such as those of a product-driven orientation:

a. tend to support a more centralized decision-making emphasis where operating procedures, policies, schedules, etc. are all prescribed from a central authority.
b. tend to adopt more routine technologies that provide additional stability to the organization.
c. tend to adopt nonroutine technologies that require adaptability.
d. Both a and b.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

30. Cultures where initiative, creativity, and risk-taking are supported or rewarded:

a. tend to support a more centralized decision-making emphasis where operating procedures, policies, schedules, etc. are all prescribed from a central authority.
b. tend to adopt more routine technologies that provide additional stability to the organization.
c. tend to adopt nonroutine technologies that require adaptability.
d. Both a and b.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93

31. Which of the following would not be considered a characteristic of an organization’s culture?
a. Degree of individual initiative
b. Degree of risk tolerance
c. Degree of market share
d. Ccommunication patterns

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 92

32. Which of the following is considered a characteristic of excellent companies?
a. They are hands-on and value driven.
b. They recognize that productivity is based on people.
c. They have a bias towards action.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 94

33. The concept which states that an individual will eventually be promoted to their level of incompetence is known as the:
a. Law of Incompetence.
b. Parretto Principle.
c. Peter Principle.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 91

34. The distinguishing characteristic of an ODSS over a GDSS is that of
a. size.
b. managerial control.
c. application.
d. Both b and c.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 97

35. Which of the following is not one of the five factors of power?
a. Judgment
b. Authority
c. Informal power
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 95

36. Which of the following is true of organizational politics?
a. Politics can often serve to ensure an objective hearing of all sides of an issue.
b. Politics can facilitate the decision-making process.
c. Politics can facilitate organizational change.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 96

37. The ________________ level of an organization focuses on the implementation of decisions made at the highest level of the organization as well as decisions involving the acquisition of resources necessary to maintain desired capacities and outputs at the operations level.
a. operations
b. planning
c. strategic
d. tactical

or d Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 91

38. The members of the ___________________ level of an organization include the senior executives of the largest industrial and service firms in the world, the top administrators of the largest government agencies, and the generals and senior officers in the military.
a. operations
b. planning
c. strategic
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 91

Essay Questions

39. Provide a definition for the term organization.

40. Identify and describe the three levels of organizational decision making.

41. Define organizational culture.

42. List ten characteristics of organizational culture.

59. List 10 of 12 significant elements of managerial decision-making power, as defined by Harrison (1995).

Chapter 4
Modeling Decision Processes

True-False Questions

59. The typical decision-maker, more often than one might imagine, fails to formally and concisely identify the problem at hand before beginning the process of solving it.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103

60. A problem is defined as the difference between the current state of affairs and the desired state of affairs.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103

61. A common error when creating a problem statement is to prematurely focus on the possible solutions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103

62. One way to determine what the real underlying problem is to expore the reasons why an alternative is viable.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 103

63. The priorities of a decision maker are determined by the size of the solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 104

64. The priorities of a decision maker are affected by the scope of the problem.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 104

65. A designer must never revise a decision made at one point in the process to account for a change made in another.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 105-106

66. There are always at least two possible alternative problem solutions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 104

67. Problem structures can be described in terms of three fundamental components: (1) choices, (2) uncertainties, and (3) objectives.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 110

68. Implicit in the concept of choice is the existence of multiple alternatives.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 104

69. In an influence diagram, the three components of a problem structure are represented by specific shapes and are combined and connected to represent the problem being modeled.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 106-107

70. Although the solution may be obvious, problem structures always have a clear beginning.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 112

71. An optimal solution is always guaranteed when using a simulation model.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 115

72. Conceptual models can be thought of as analogies to the problem context.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 117

73. In a deterministic model, a variable can have multiple values and must therefore be described by a probability function.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 114

74. In a stochastic model, no variable can take on more than one value at a given time.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 114

75. According to Howard’s test of clarity, the events of every model should be fully determined without interpretation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 119

76. Decisions made in conditions of certainty are the most difficult.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 120

77. Hayes Model Base Rule is used to determine the appropriate forecasting technique for DSSs.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 129

78. Odds forecasting is a common technique for eliciting subjective probability.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 125

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not a component of a problem statement?
a. The desired state of affairs
b. The current state of affairs
c. The past state of affairs
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 103

22. Which of the following is not part of the design of a problem structure?
a. The relationship between elemental details and the final appearance of the solution
b. The interim solution
c. The final problem solution
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 104

23. Which of the following is not a tool for modeling the structure of a problem?
a. Problem analysis case
b. Decision tree
c. Influence diagram
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 106-108

24. Which of the following is not a decision tree rule?
a. The branches represent all possible outcomes.
b. The branches are structured to allow for multiple choices per branch.
c. All possible alternatives are fully mapped.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 108

25. Which of the following is not a decision model classification?
a. Domain-specific models
b. Abstract variation models
c. Stochastic models
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 114

26. Which of the following is not a requirement of probability?
a. All probabilities must be within the range of -1 to 1.
b. The probabilities of all individual outcomes of an event must add up to the probability of their union.
c. The total probability of the complete set of outcomes must be equal to 1.
d. All of the above are requirements of probability.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 120

27. Probability can be expressed as:
a. long-run.
b. subjective.
c. logical.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 121

28. Which of the following is not a technique for forecasting probability?
a. Logical forecasting
b. Direct forecasting
c. Odds forecasting
d. Comparison forecasting

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 124

29. Models that do not explicitly acknowledge time are called:
a. static models.
b. dynamic models.
c. simulation models.
d. stochastic models.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 113

30. The concept of __________ suggests that while a probability may be derivable, its accuracy may not be acceptable under any circumstances.
a. subjective probability
b. logical probability
c. long-run probability
d. stochastic probability

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 123

31. Which of the following affects the selection of a forecasting technique?
a. Problem structure
b. Availability
c. Problem size
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 129

32. Which of the following affects the selection of a forecasting technique?
a. Precision
b. Complexity
c. DSS designer preference
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 129

33. Rather than a single probability estimation we might benefit from an estimation of the worst-case scenario and the best-case scenario. Properly constructed, we can say that the actual probability estimate lies somewhere between these two values. This range of values is referred to as a ________.
a. probability estimation
b. t-test
c. logical probability
d. confidence interval

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 130

34. A method used to determine the degree to which the alteration of an underlying assumption has a material effect on the results obtained from a model is known as:
a. simulation.
b. sensitivity analysis.
c. discriminant validity.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 131

35. Which of the following is not a suitable technique for eliciting numerical subjective probability estimations that can then be combined with other estimates using the laws of probability?
a. Direct forecasting
b. Odds forecasting
c. Ad hoc forecasting
d. Comparison forecasting

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 129

36. A model in which at least one of the variables in the model is uncertain and must be described by some probability function is known as a:
a. static model.
b. stochastic model.
c. deterministic model.
d. dynamic model.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 114

37. A model which focuses on the mathematical precision with which various outcomes can be predicted is referred to as a(n):
a. static models.
b. dynamic models.
c. simulation models.
d. abstract models.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 113

38. Which of the following is true of Howard’s Test of Clarity?
a. The influence diagram contains at least three alternatives.
b. All of the components of the context model are clearly defined.
c. Long-run probability is utilized.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 119

39. In any choice there is a(n) _____ probability of at least one alternative being selected and there is an ____ probability of any particular one being selected.
a. unequal, equal
b. 0%, unequal
c. 100%, equal
d. 100%, unequal

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 121

40. Which type of forecasting presents the decision maker with a choice between participating in one or two lottery-type games?
a. Comparison forecasting
b. Odds forecasting
c. Direct probability forecasting
d. Calibration forecasting

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 126

Essay Questions

41. Identify the steps in creating a simulation model.

42. Briefly describe the disadvantages of simulation modeling.

60. List and briefly describe the types of abstract models.

61. Define sensitivity analysis and state its value to decisionmakers.

62. List and briefly describe the various types of probabilities.

Chapter 5
Group Decision Support and Groupware Technologies

True-False Questions

79. A group can be defined as a simple collective entity that is independent of its members.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 141

80. A group can be defined by the structure of the problem context.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 142

81. MDM is defined as an activity conducted by a collective entity composed of two or more individuals and characterized in terms of both the properties of the collective entity as well as its individual members.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 142

82. MDMs can be classified in terms of the degree of centralization characterized by each of the four network structures.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 143

83. In a chain network, each participant can communicate with the decision maker at the center but not with each other.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 144

84. In a wheel network, the decision maker can communicate with anyone.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 143

85. In a circle network, all members have an equal opportunity for communication.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 144

86. The completely connected network structure is the least restrictive structure.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 145

87. The chain network displays a high degree of centrality and is appropriate for routine or recurring decisions with high-probability outcomes.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 144

88. The circle network serves as the basis for the group and committee MDM structures and is often employed in situations where negotiation or consensus must be the basis for the final decision.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 144-145

89. When the expertise of the decision maker is critical, then the most appropriate decision structure is a committee.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 146

90. In group decision making, the factor that has the greatest impact is the size of the group.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 147

91. Think-tank is the term referred to as a mode of thinking that people engage in when their desire to fit in overrides their decision-making ability.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 148

92. One common method used to control sources of potential conflict is participant anonymity.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 149

93. A GDSS is a collective of computer-based technologies used to aid multiparticipant efforts directed at identifying and addressing problems, opportunities, and issues.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 153

94. An ODSS is a complex system of computer-based technologies, including those that facilitate communication that provides support for decision makers spanning the range of organizational roles and functional levels, and accommodates decision contexts that cut across organizational units.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 153

95. Process structure of an MDM involves various mechanisms focused on facilitating participant interaction.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

96. Groupware is focused on issues related to collaborative processes among people.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 160

97. E-mail would not be considered a type of groupware because it is an asynchronous process.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 162

98. Nominal group techniques works best when there is a single decision maker structure.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 165

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a highly centralized network structure?
a. They are efficient for routine and recurring decisions.
b. They tend to produce lower average levels of satisfaction among the participants.
c. They promote innovative solutions.
d. They tend to result in a stable set of interactions among the participants.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 145

22. Which of the following is true of a completely connected network structure?
a. They tend to produce lower average levels of satisfaction among the participants.
b. They tend to strengthen the leadership position of the central members.
c. They promote creative solutions.
d. They tend to result in a stable set of interactions among the participants.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 145

23. Which of the following is a factor used in determining decision structure?
a. The degree of structuredness of the problem structure
b. The probability of acceptance of an autocratic decision
c. The importance of the quality of the decision
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 146

24. Which of the following is not true regarding the relationship between group size and its affect on MDM?
a. Participant interaction increases as the size increases.
b. Affective relationships tend to decrease as size increases.
c. Central leadership tends to increase as size increases.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 148

25. Which of the following communication networks displays a high degree of centrality and is appropriate for routine or recurring decisions with high-probability outcomes?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 144

26. Which of the following is not considered one of the four basic types of communication networks?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Semi-connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 145

27. Which of the following networks is most appropriate when routine or recurring decisions are being made?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 144

28. Which of the following network structures serves as the basis for the group and committee MDM structure and is often employed in situations where negotiation or consensus must be the basis for the final decision?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 144-145

29. A mode of thinking that people engage in when they are deeply involved in a cohesive ingroup, where the members’ striving for unanimity overrides their motivation to realistically appraise alternative courses of action is known as:
a. structured decision making.
b. groupthink.
c. team MDM.
d. MDM analysis.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 148

30. A(n) _____ is a complex system of computer-based technologies, including those that facilitate communication, that provides support for decision-makers spanning the range of organizational roles and functional levels and accommodates decision contexts that cut across organizational units.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 153

31. A(n) ____ is a collective of computer-based technologies used to aid multiparticipant efforts directed at identifying and addressing problems, opportunities and issues.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 153

32. A(n) ___ is a collective of computer-based technologies that are specifically designed to support the activities and processes related to multiparticipant decision making.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 154

33. A(n) ____ is a system under the control of one or more decision makers that assists in the activity of decision making by providing an organized set of tools intended to impart structure to portions of the decision-making situation and to improve the ultimate effectiveness of the decision outcome.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 154

34. Which of the following is not one of the four basic approaches that have been identified through which MDM support can be provided?

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Organizational structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

35. ______ involves providing various mechanisms focused on facilitating participant interaction, communication, knowledge gathering, and memory. These mechanisms are omnipresent in all current deployments of GSS and groupware applications.

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

36. ______ focuses on mechanisms that serve to govern the various communication activities among participants including the pattern of interaction, the timing, and sometimes even the content.

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

37. ______ involves the application of mechanisms that can select, organize, or even derive information and knowledge that is specifically relevant to the task or decision at hand.

a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 155

38. The _____________ MDM system is primarily intended to focus on facilitation of communication among the participants. Its main objective is to hasten and stimulate the exchange of messages and to reduce or remove the inherent barriers to communication associated with MDM activities.

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 157

39. The _____________ MDM systems are designed to reduce uncertainty that can evolve from an MDM problem-solving activity. Both process and task structuring mechanisms are typically found in this class of MDM support.

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 157

40. The _____________ system contains all of the features of its predecessors and expands the support mechanisms through an increase in process structuring techniques intended to control participant interaction.

a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 157

Essay Questions

41. Identify the factors used in determining decision structure.

42. What are the potential consequences of groupthink?

63. Define the term multiparticipant decision maker (MDM).

64. Define groupware. Where is it applicable?

65. List the forces that describe groupware development.

Chapter 6
Executive Information Systems

True-False Questions

99. An EIS is a special type of DSS designed to facilitate the analysis of information to support strategic decision-making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 174

100. An EIS is designed to support the CEO of a firm
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 174

101. An EIS is a unique DSS designed exclusively to analyze the operations of a firm.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 174

102. An EIS can be designed and built quickly because it only deals with summarized information.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 175

103. A sales report showing revenue against forecast targets along with projections for the next two quarters is an example of an EIS output.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176

104. The ability to perform drill down analysis is an important feature of an EIS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 176

105. A well designed EIS will replace the need for MIS applications
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176

106. A well designed EIS replaces the need for all other DSSs within an organization
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176

107. Executives spend more time on disturbance management than organizational staffing.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 178-179

108. The majority of executive time is spent in some form of disturbance management activity.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: pp. 178-179

109. The total study method, critical success factor method or key indicator method could be used to define an EIS
Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 182-183

110. An EIS normally requires unique hardware configurations, making them expensive to build.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 184

111. An EIS normally requires unique software components.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 185

112. An organization that does not wish to build their own EIS can purchase one “off-the-shelf”.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 185

113. In the structural perspective of the EIS development framework, the focus is on people and data as they relate to the EIS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 188

114. The structural perspective of the EIS development framework builds upon the elements and their relationships contained within the structural model and adds a time dimension to the framework. In this component, the various activities and sequences of events are delineated and actual project management issues relating to time, critical path, and milestones are established.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 188-189

115. The dialog system of an EIS contains an action language where the user is directed in how to use the system, and learns where the various commands and elements of manipulation are contained and processed.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 189

116. The knowledge base in an EIS is the sum of what the executive knows about using the system and all of the support mechanisms designed to assist in its use.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 190

117. Two organizational limitations of an EIS are time bias and loss of managerial synchronization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 191

118. The development framework of an EIS is used to establish development guidelines.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 190

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is a computer-based system intended to facilitate and support the information and decision-making needs of senior executives by providing easy access to both internal and external information relevant to meeting stated goals of the organization?
a. EIS
b. ES
c. DSS
d. Data Warehouse

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 175

22. Which of the following is a characteristic of an EIS?
a. Tailored to individual executives
b. Can present information in multiple formats
c. Provides tools to extract, filter and track critical information
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 175

23. Which of the following is an activity performed by managers?
a. Staffing
b. Directing
c. Organizing
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 178

24. Which of the following is not a common characteristic of executives?
a. They are future-oriented and focus on strategic activities.
b. They have narrow spans of control.
c. They are responsible for establishing policies.
d. They are concerned with internal and external issues.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 178

25. Which of the following is not a method for determining executive information needs?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 182

26. Which method for determining executive needs primarily uses traditional TPS and MIS applications as it source of information?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 182

27. Which method for determining executive needs could best be described by the phrase management by walking around?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 182

28. Which method for determining executive needs gathers information from a sample of top-level executives concerning the totality of information needs?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 183

29. Which method for determining executive needs is the most comprehensive?
a. Normal method
b. Key indicators method
c. Case study method
d. Critical success factors method

Difficulty: Method Reference: p. 183

30. The _______________ method for determining executive information needs is based on three basic notions: 1) The health of an organization can be determined by comparison to a set of key financial indicators; 2) organizations can be managed based on exception reporting where only those areas operating outside of a preestablished set of norms are of interest; 3) and technology is available to allow for flexible display of key indicator information in graphical form.
a. key indicator
b. critical success factor
c. normal
d. by-product

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 182

31. Using an EIS to explore the underlying data used to compile the current ratio would be an example of which of the following activities?
a. Compilation
b. Aggregation
c. Drill down analysis
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 176

32. When something unexpected occurs, particularly something that could materially and negatively impact the financial health of the organization, the immediate attention of executives and the deployment of resources are usually warranted. Executive activity during these periods is called:
a. entrepreneurial.
b. disturbance management.
c. resource allocation.
d. negotiation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 178

33. Which of the following is not a component of an EIS development framework?
a. Structural perspective
b. Intelligent knowledge base
c. User-system dialog
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 188

34. Which of the following would not be considered a benefit of a client/server environment?
a. Reduction of investment costs in new computer hardware
b. Establishment of a more flexible and responsive platform
c. Increased control over locally stored data
d. Multiple views of geographically dispersed data

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 184

35. The ____________ portion of the EIS development framework builds upon the elements and their relationships contained within the structural model and adds a time dimension to the framework. In this component, the various activities and sequences of events are delineated and actual project management issues relating to time, critical path, and milestones are established.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 189

36. The _______________ portion of an EIS contains an action language where the user is directed in how to use the system, and learns where the various commands and elements of manipulation are contained and processed. The action language element can be thought of as the incoming communication channel from the executive to the EIS.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 189

37. The _________________ portion of an EIS is the sum of what the executive knows about using the system and all of the support mechanisms designed to assist in its use.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 190

38. _______________ activities fall under the general heading of strategic planning tasks. Executives spent a significant portion of their time focusing on the selection, design, and implementation of improvements and projects intended to improve performance and initiate controlled change within the organization.
a. Entrepreneurial
b. Disturbance management
c. Resource allocation
d. Negotiation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 180

39. Managers at various levels are given authority to manage and deploy assets from a predetermined allocation and based upon a control mechanism such as a budget or operational plan. The authority to deploy those assets and the various behind the scenes activities to obtain them normally performed by top executives is associated with which of the following activities?
a. Entrepreneurial
b. Disturbance management
c. Resource allocation
d. Negotiation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 180

40. Executives are charged with the responsibility of representing the organization in both internal and external disputes. Typically, this role involves the resolution of disputes and conflicts and, thus, involves a significant amount of negotiation among the parties. This type of activity is called:
a. entrepreneurial.
b. disturbance management.
c. resource allocation.
d. negotiation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 180

Essay Questions

41. List the characteristics of an Executive Information System.

42. Define an Executive Information System.

66. List the Common Characteristics of Executives.

67. List and briefly describe several EIS limitations.

68. Briefly describe the EIS of tomorrow.

Chapter 7
Expert Systems and Artificial Intelligence

True-False Questions

119. An Expert System is designed to solve a specific knowledge domain problem.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 208

120. Artificial Intelligence can be defined as the study of how to make computers do things that people do better.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 208

121. Reverse reasoning begins with a series of subproblems and builds into one cohesive problem statement.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 208

122. All expert systems are based upon the use of reverse reasoning.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 208

123. The first artificial intelligence system was referred to as LISP.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 208

124. Categorization involves the creation of a loose set of hierarchies where lower-level pieces of information inherit characteristics from a higher-level category.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 209

125. Reasoning by expectations uses components of heuristics and categorization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 210

126. Once we have experienced a particular situation or phenomena enough, we begin to expect it to appear in a certain manner or under a predictable set of conditions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 211

127. Rule-based reasoning is a process in which the computer is given the characteristics of the problem space in the form of input values. It then uses the rules contained within its knowledge base to methodically change the state of the problem space to the desired condition.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: pp. 211-212

128. The form of knowledge that is formed from antecedents and consequents is referred to as inferential knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

129. The form of knowledge where the conditions take the form of a stated situation and the operative becomes an action to take when the stated situation is logically true is referred to as procedural knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

130. The form of knowledge whereby a conclusion is reached as a result of one or more premises being established is referred to as declarative knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

131. In an object network, concepts are represented as nodes and the arcs connecting the nodes represent their relationships.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 213

132. Representations of objects that are typical of a category are referred to as frames.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 213

133. In a frame, a trigger is a short procedure that can be triggered whenever a slot is created, modified or accessed.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 214

134. Frames are the most useful knowledge domain for analyzing legal precedent.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 215

135. Genetic algorithms figure out which rules from prior cycles did not fire, which rules from the prior cycle will not fire in the next cycle, and which rules from the prior cycle that did not fire are most likely to fire next.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 216

136. Neural networks are the branch of AI that most closely resemble how the human brain operates.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 217

137. The inference engine of an ES contains the specific knowledge collected from the sample of domain experts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 219

138. The inference engine performs deductions or inferences based on rules or facts. In addition, it is capable of performing inexact or fuzzy reasoning based on probability or pattern matching.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 220

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not true of artificial intelligence?
a. AI focuses on how people think.
b. AI focuses on how people reason.
c. AI translates understanding into computer systems that can perform the same actions.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 209

22. Which of the following is not a type of reasoning?
a. Heursitics
b. Past experience
c. Cognitive idealism
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 210

23. Which reasoning type is the most common?
a. Categorization
b. Specific rules
c. Expectations
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 209

24. Which type of reasoning uses components of heuristics and categorization?
a. Specific rules
b. Expectations
c. Past experience
d. Cognitive idealism

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 210

25. Which of the following forms of knowledge can be encoded via a rule set?
a. Procedural knowledge
b. Declarative knowledge
c. Inferential knowledge
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212

26. Which of the following represents entities as nodes and the arcs that connect the nodes represent relationships?
a. Object network
b. Frames
c. Knowledge network
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 213

27. Which Of the following is not a daemon?
a. If modified
b. If inquiry
c. If deleted
d. If necessary

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 214

28. The concept of frames is analogous to which human reasoning method?
a. Past experience
b. Heuristics
c. Categorization
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 215

29. Which of the following is most useful in a knowledge domain where precedence reasoning is most appropriate?
a. Frames
b. Pattern recognition
c. Case-based reasoning
d. Rete algorithms

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 215

30. Which branch of AI most closely resembles how the human brain operates?
a. Genetic algorithms
b. Neural networks
c. Machine learning
d. Rete algorithms

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 217

31. Which classification of AI relies on learning from past experiences using examples and analogies?
a. Machine learning
b. Frames
c. Pattern recognition
d. Genetic algorithms

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 216

32. Which component of an ES contains the domain-specific knowledge collected from the sample of domain experts during the design stage?
a. User interface
b. Knowledge base
c. Inference engine
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 219

33. Which of the following is not an example of a heuristic?
a. If the meal includes red meat, then chose a red wine.
b. If the Los Angeles Lakers are playing at home, they will be favored to win.
c. Bonds always hits a home run following an intentional walk.
d. Tuesday always follows Monday.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 210

34. The _____________ performs deductions or inferences based on rules or facts. In addition, it is capable of performing inexact or fuzzy reasoning based on probability or pattern matching.
a. inference engine
b. dialog system
c. database
d. knowledge base

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 220

35. Chaining is a simple method used by most IEs to produce a line of reasoning. Using this method the set of rules are organized in a recursive manner such that a fact concluded by one rule is used as the premise for the next. The two types of chaining bases which are possible in an ES are:
a. straight and link.
b. forward and backward.
c. upward and downward.
d. inside and outside.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 220

36. The ES component which provides the ES user with an area of working memory to use as a workspace for the various other components of the ES is the:
a. dialog system.
b. user interface.
c. knowledge base.
d. blackboard.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 222

37. Which of the following is not a candidate situation for ES opportunities?
a. Need to define a repetitive process to automate a manufacturing process
b. Need to evaluate a process
c. Need to control or govern a particular activity
d. Need to understand the nature of a given situation

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 224

38. Which of the following is a candidate situation for ES opportunities?
a. Need for diagnosis of a problem situation
b. Need to predict the outcome of a current or future event
c. Need to evaluate and assess a prior event
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 224

39. Which of the following is not a criterion for the evaluation of an expert system?
a. The system should be responsive and easy to use.
b. The knowledge base should contain generally accepted knowledge.
c. The explanatory facility should be user-friendly.
d. All of the above are criteria.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 226

40. Which of the following is a limitation associated with common ES task categories?
a. Data may be inaccurate.
b. Data may be missing.
c. Multiple symptoms can confound diagnosis.
d. All of the above are limitations.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 228

Essay Questions

41. Provide a definition for the term Expert System.

42. List and explain the different types of human reasoning processes.

43. What are the benefits of expert systems?

44. Identify eight problems or limitations associated with expert systems.

45. Define each of the following terms:
approach of the life sciences of “taking apart” living organisms to see how they work, AL attempts to “put together” systems that behave like living organisms.

Chapter 8
Knowledge Engineering and Acquisition

True-False Questions

139. Both knowledge engineers and system analysts have the same goal; to create a thorough specification of an information system that can be successfully implemented.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238

140. Knowledge engineers need to have a high degree of domain knowledge combined with a broad set of system development skills.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238

141. Each expert system is a one-of-a-kind system and its success is predicated on the skill of the KEs to extract knowledge that is deeply hidden in the mind of a human expert.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238

142. Data are facts, measurements, or observations with or without context.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

143. Apples and oranges are an example of data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

144. Information is knowledge organized in a manner as to render it useful and relevant to a problem solver in making decisions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

145. Knowledge is the application of a combination of instincts, ideas, rules, procedures, and information to guide the actions and decisions of a problem solver within a particular problem context.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

146. Knowledge is an interpretation made by the mind.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

147. If a system contains a knowledge representation, such as a model or rule set, of something, then the system itself can also be said to have knowledge, namely the knowledge embodied in that representation about that thing.

148. In the knowledge representation perspective, knowledge is seen as a set of stocks or inventories in which items are transferred from one stock to another based on process or external event.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 241

149. As the state of knowledge is increased, the chance for information overload is diminished and the quality of the knowledge is extended.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 241

150. In knowledge acquisition (KA), the elicitation, gathering, organizing, and formalization of the knowledge of experts in a specific domain is conducted with the goal of transforming that knowledge into some computer-usable representation.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 243

151. Descriptive knowledge may be analyzed using procedural knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 242

152. The acquisition of knowledge from external sources must be an active process.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 242

153. The primary functions of the performance model are to fully define the task under study, assist in the selection of the expert(s), establish the user characteristics and performance criteria for the system, and to function as an interpretive framework for protocol analysis of the experts’ responses.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 244

154. Knowledge engineer-driven acquisition is considered the most common approach to information gathering.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 245

155. Kim and Courtney proposed that knowledge be classified across strategic and performance dimensions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 245

156. When using the expert-driven approach to KA, the expert encodes his or her own expertise and knowledge and enters it directly into the computer system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 245

157. Interviewing is probably the most widely used and familiar of all KA techniques.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 247

158. Validation is concerned with whether or not the system we built conforms to its original specifications.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 254

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is an example of data?
a. 23, 24, 25
b. 30, 13, 12
c. John, Adam, Kim
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

22. Which of the following includes the application of a combination of instincts, ideas, rules and procedures to guide actions and decisions?
a. Data
b. Information
c. Knowledge
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 240

23. Data organized in such a manner as to render it useful and relevant to a problem solver in making decisions is referred to as:
a. Knowledge
b. Expertise
c. Information
d. Wisdom

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

24. The ____________ perspective suggests that learning is a form of knowledge production and that knowledge is “manufactured” as well as acquired. Knowledge is seen as a set of stocks or inventories in which items are transferred from one stock to another based on process or external event.
a. Knowledge representation
b. Production
c. Knowledge states
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 241

25. Which of the following is not a predominant knowledge perspective?
a. Representation
b. Analysis
c. Production
d. States

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 240

26. According to van Lohuizen, which of the following is not a knowledge state?
a. Data
b. Insight
c. Intuition
d. Decision

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 241

27. According to van Lohuizen, which of the following is not a knowledge state?
a. Structured information
b. Wisdom
c. Judgment
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 241

28. According to Holsapple and Whinston, which of the following is a primary knowledge type?
a. Linguistic
b. Presentation
c. Procedural
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 242

29. According to Holsapple and Whinston, which of the following is a secondary knowledge type?

a. Descriptive
b. Assimilative
c. Reasoning
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 242

30. The process by which elicitation, gathering, organizing, and formalization of the knowledge of experts in a specific domain is conducted with the goal of transforming that knowledge into some computer-usable representation is called:
a. Knowledge inference.
b. Requirements determination.
c. Knowledge acquisition.
d. Performance modeling.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 243

31. According to Kim and Courtney, knowledge acquisition can be classified across which two dimensions?
a. Statistical, tactical
b. Operational, stochastic
c. Strategic, tacit
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 245

32. The primary vehicle by which the information necessary to construct the performance model is gathered is through verbalization by the expert, often referred to as
a. political analysis.
b. knowledge engineering.
c. protocol analysis.
d. machine-driven learning.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 248

33. Which knowledge acquisition technique requires a significant amount of up-front planning?
a. Structured interviews
b. Unstructured interviews
c. General interviews
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 247

34. When using the ___________ approach to KA, the expert encodes his or her own expertise and knowledge and enters it directly into the computer system. In this regard, the expert is serving two roles: expert and KE.
a. expert-driven
b. KE-driven
c. machine-driven
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 245

35. _____________is that part of the evaluation process that focuses on the performance aspects of the knowledge base.
a. Verification
b. Efficiency
c. Validation
d. Criterion measurement

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 254

36. _____________ is concerned with whether or not we built a system that performs with an acceptable level of competence and accuracy.
a. Verification
b. Efficiency
c. Validation
d. Criterion measurement

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 254

37. Which of the following is not part of a preinterview checklist?
a. Decide what you need to know.
b. Determine the appropriate degree of structure for the interview.
c. Determine that an interview is the best method for obtaining this information.
d. All of the above are part of a preinterview checklist.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 248

38. Which of the following is a necessary task condition for successful concurrent protocols?
a. Each task must have a clearly defined conclusion.
b. The task must be able to be completed within two protocol sessions.
c. All data must be presented to the expert in a familiar form.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 250

39. The knowledge validation measure that defines how credible the knowledge is is referred to as:
a. depth.
b. breadth.
c. face validity.
d. robustness.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 254

40. The knowledge validation measure that defines the impact of changes in the knowledge base on the quality of the outputs is referred to as:
a. sensitivity.
b. appeal.
c. adaptability.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 254

Essay Questions

41. What are the three primary challenges to obtaining valid knowledge?

42. Compare KE-driven KA with expert-driven KA. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each method?

69. What are the primary functions of the task model?

70. What are the benefits and limitations of the repertory grid method of knowledge gathering?

71. Define validity and verification in the context of the knowledge base.

Chapter 9
Machines That Can Learn

True-False Questions

159. Neural computing involves processing information by means of changing states of networks formed by interconnecting extremely large numbers of simple processing elements that interact with one another by exchanging signals.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 260

160. Fuzzy logic allows for the partial description of a rule.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

161. Fuzzy logic is key to developing computers that can think.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

162. The human language has evolved to allow for the conveyance of meaning through semantic approximation rather than precise content
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

163. Fuzzy logic deals with the likelihood that something has a particular property while probability deals with the degree to which a particular property is present in something
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 261

164. Fuzzy logic is a new development in the computing industry that emerged as a result of the development of Internet search engines.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 262

165. Fuzzy logic can deal with any degree of change in input.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 262

166. When continuous variables are involved, traditional rule-based systems tend to provide more accurate results than fuzzy logic.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 264

167. Fuzzy logic allows for the modeling of contradiction within a knowledge base.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 265

168. One of the limitations of a fuzzy logic system is that each rule is dependant upon all of the other rules in the knowledge base.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 266

169. Under highly complex situations, fuzzy logic rules are highly verifiable.

170. Artificial neural networks are simple computer-based programs whose primary function is to construct models of a problem space based upon trial and error.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 266

171. The transmission of signals from one neuron to another in an artificial neural network occurs at the neural synapse via a complex chemical process in which specific substances, called neurotransmitters, are released from one side of the synaptic junction.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 266-267

172. The ANN involves an interconnected system of nodes called neurodes that are associated with one or more weighted connections that are equivalent to human neural synapses, inside the memory of a digital computer. The construction of the ANN is one of multiple layers with the connections running between the layers.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

173. The basic structure a typical neurode consists of is a set of weighted input connections, a bias input, a state function, a nonlinear transfer function, and an output connection.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 268

174. The purpose of a state function is to consolidate the weights of the various inputs to the neurode into a single value that can be passed to the transfer function for processing.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 269

175. The primary purpose of the learning paradigm is to serve as the vehicle by which the summed information is passed on as output.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 271

176. An advantage of automated neural nets is the elimination of the need for direct input from experts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 273

177. The GA’s smallest unit is called a chromosome. The chromosome represents the smallest unit of information in the problem domain and can be thought of as the basic building block for a possible solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 276

178. The GA’s smallest unit is called a gene. The gene represents the smallest unit of information in the problem domain and can be thought of as the basic building block for a possible solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 276

Multiple Choice Questions

21. ______________ is a method of reasoning that allows for the partial description of a rule. Combining this approach to reasoning with the realm of digital processors has results in a class of computer applications that can “learn” from their mistakes and can “understand” the vagaries commonly found in human thought.
a. Backward propagation
b. Forward propagation
c. Fuzzy logic
d. Neural computing

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261

22. Which of the following is not true of fuzzy logic?
a. Fuzzy logic focuses on gradation.
b. Fuzzy logic utilizes precise distinction.
c. Fuzzy logic allows for the partial description of a rule.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 261

23. Which of the following is an advantage of fuzzy systems?
a. Allows for increased association amongst the rules of the system
b. Supports modeling of contradiction
c. Increase system verification capability
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 265

24. Which of the following is a disadvantage of fuzzy systems?
a. Fuzzy systems decrease system autonomy.
b. Objects in a fuzzy system can belong to multiple sets.
c. Fuzzy systems lack memory.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 265

25. A simple computer-based program whose primary function is to construct models of a problem space based upon trial and error is called a(n):
a. artificial neural network.
b. genetic algorithm.
c. decision support system.
d. data warehouse.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 266

26. In the human brain, the transmission of signals from one neuron to another occurs at a junction referred to as the:
a. transmitters.
b. neurides.
c. neurodes.
d. synapses.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

27. The ANN involves an interconnected system of nodes called _________that are associated with one or more weighted connections that are equivalent to human neural synapses, inside the memory of a digital computer.
a. transmitters
b. neurides
c. neurodes
d. synapses

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 267

28. Which of the following is part of the basic structure of a neurode?
a. Bias input
b. State function
c. Nonlinear transfer function
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 268

29. The ANN layer that receives the data is referred to as the?
a. input layer.
b. output layer.
c. hidden layer.
d. neural layer.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

30. The ANN layer that relays the final results of the net is referred to as the:
a. input layer.
b. output layer.
c. hidden layer.
d. neural layer.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267

31. The __________ in an ANN is where the processing and transformation of the input signal takes place and where the type of output signal is determined.
a. input layer
b. output layer
c. hidden layer
d. neural layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 267

32. The _____________ is not normally connected to the ANN and is assumed to have an input value of 1.0 for the state function. Its purpose is to allow for the individual adjustment of the firing threshold of the neurode to facilitate the final adjustment of the ANN following the learning process.
a. input layer
b. bias input
c. state function
d. output connection

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 268-269

33. The __________________’s purpose is the consolidation of the weights of the various inputs to the neurode into a single value that can be passed to the transfer function for processing. The value obtained determines the degree of impact the combined inputs will have on the transfer function and, thus, on the final output of the neurode.
a. input layer
b. bias input
c. state function
d. output connection

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 269

34. The function in an ANN which serves as the vehicle by which the summed information is passed on as output is called the:
a. transfer function.
b. state function.
c. memory function.
d. neural function.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 269

35. The actual procedure used by a neural network to find the appropriate weight settings is referred to as its:
a. transfer function.
b. state function.
c. weight seeking function.
d. learning paradigm.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 271

36. Which of the following is not a benefit derived from neural computing?
a. Reduced need for experts.
b. Allows for generalization from specific information content.
c. Highly verifiable, especially for complex problems.
d. All of the above are benefits.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 273

37. Which of the following are limitations of neural computing?
a. ANNs cannot explain inferences.
b. The repetitive training process is often time consuming.
c. Neural computing technologies push the limits of their hardware.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 274

38. A computer program that employs a set of adaptive processes that mimic the concept of “survival of the fittest” by regenerating recombinants of itself in response to a calculated difference between the network’s guess and the desired solution state is known as a:
a. neural network.
b. artificial life system.
c. genetic algorithm.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 276

39. In a genetic algorithm, the smallest unit of information in the problem domain is called a:
a. chromosome.
b. gene.
c. neuron.
d. synapse.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 276

40. Which of the following is not a genetic algorithm operational process?
a. Evaluation
b. Initialization
c. Mutation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 277, 279

Essay Questions

41. Define neural computing.

42. Explain the similarities and the differences between fuzziness and probability.

72. List the benefits of neural computing.

73. List the limitations of neural computing.

74. What is the primary advantage that Genetic Algorithms have over Artificial Neural Networks?

Chapter 10
The Data Warehouse

True-False Questions

179. According to Inmon, a data warehouse is a subject-oriented, integrated database designed to support DSS functions where the data is volatile and relevant.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 295

180. A data warehouse is typically physically separated from transaction processing systems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

181. Only a small fraction of the data that is captured, processed and stored in the enterprise is actually ever made available to executives and decision makers.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

182. The most common component of a data warehouse environment is the operational data store.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

183. A data mart is a subset of a data warehouse.

184. The essence of the data warehouse concept is a recognition that the characteristics and usage patterns of operational systems used to automate business processes and those of a DSS are fundamentally similar and symbiotically linked.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 295

185. One difference between data warehouses and operational data stores is the presence of metadata.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 297

186. Metadata are data about data.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 297

187. Metadata are detailed data that has been aggregated and condensed into a more useful form.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 297

188. The very essence of the DW environment is that the data contained within the boundaries of the warehouse are integrated. This integration manifests itself through consistency in naming convention and measurement attributes, accuracy, and common aggregation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 299

189. The time horizon for data in the data warehouse is typically significantly longer than operational data sores.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 301

190. One of the benefits of integrated data is the establishment of a common unit of measure for all synonymous data elements from dissimilar databases.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 300

191. According to Inmon, because data warehouses are highly de-normalized, they are highly redundant.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 303

192. One objective of the data warehouse environment is to minimize the impact on operational systems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 303

193. The end user in a data warehouse environment deals directly with the application messaging layer.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

194. The process management layer in a data warehouse can be thought of as a scheduler.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 305

195. The processes needed to prepare the data to be loaded into a data warehouse are performed in the data staging layer.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

196. A data warehouse topology requires a centralized data warehouse that is accessed by one or more decision support tools.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 306

197. One of the most important factors in the development of a data warehouse is a comprehensive architectural framework.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 313

198. Transformation mapping metadata records how data from operational data stores and external sources are transformed on the way into the warehouse.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 310

Multiple Choice Questions

21. The most common component in the DW environment is the _____________. Its primary day-to-day function is to store the data for a single, specific set of operational applications.
a. data mart
b. data warehouse
c. operational data store
d. data staging tables

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295

22. Which of the following is not true of a data warehouse?
a. Implicit in its definition is that the data warehouse is physically separated from all other operational systems.
b. The data warehouse replaces the need for all other reporting systems within an organization.
c. The data warehouse holds aggregated data and atomic data for management.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 295

23. An alternative to the data warehouse concept is a lower-cost, scaled-down version referred to as a:
a. data mart.
b. metadata warehouse.
c. operational data store.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 296

24. Which of the following is not true of a data mart?
a. The data mart is often viewed as a way to gain entry into the realm of data warehouses and to make the mistakes on a smaller scale.
b. Vendors of data warehouse applications have found it easier to deal with a small group of isolated users than with the IS department of an entire organization.
c. The data mart is more efficient than a fully-developed data warehouse.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 296

25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a data warehouse?
a. Data integrated
b. Volatile
c. Subject oriented
d. Time variant

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 298

26. The essence of the data warehouse environment is that the data contained within the boundaries of the warehouse are _____________
a. integrated
b. consistent
c. streamlined
d. accurate

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 299

27. The concept of time variant data implies which of the following statements?
a. Data are simply assumed to be accurate as of some moment in time and not necessarily right now.
b. Data are assumed to be accurate at the moment they were loaded into the data warehouse.
c. Data are assumed to vary over time.
d. Both a and b

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 301

28. Which of the following activities would not normally be associated with a data warehouse?
a. Loading
b. Updating
c. Accessing
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 302

29. The _______________________ represents the source data for the DW. This layer is comprised, primarily, of operational transaction processing systems and external secondary databases.
a. information access layer
b. operational and external layer
c. data access layer
d. process management layer

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 303

30. Which layer of the data warehouse architecture does the end user deal directly with?
a. Data access layer
b. Application messaging layer
c. Information access layer
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 303

31. The ______________ serves as a sort of interface or middleman between the operational and information access layers and the data warehouse itself. This layer spans the various databases contained within the DW and facilitates common access by the DW users.
a. data access layer
b. application messaging layer
c. information access layer
d. none of the above

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 304

32. Which of the following would not be a good example of metadata?
a. the directory of where the data is stored
b. the rules used for summarization and scrubbing
c. where the operational data came from
d. all of the above are examples of metadata

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 307

33. Which layer within the data warehouse architecture focuses on scheduling tasks that must be accomplished to build and maintain the data warehouse and data directory information?
a. data access layer
b. process management layer
c. application messaging layer
d. none of the above

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

34. Which of the following is a valid data warehouse configuration?
a. Centralized data warehouse
b. Virtual data warehouse
c. Distributed data warehouse
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 306

35. The _____________________ has to do with transporting information around the enterprise computing network. This layer is also referred to as the “middleware,” but it can typically involve more that just networking protocols and request routing.
a. application messaging layer
b. process management layer
c. data access layer
d. information access layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

36. The ____________________ is where the actual data used for decision support throughout the organization are located.
a. information access layer
b. operational and external layer
c. physical data warehouse layer
d. process management layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

37. The final component of the DWA is the __________________. This layer includes all of the processes necessary to select, edit, summarize, combine and load data warehouse and information access data from operational and/or external databases.
a. data staging layer
b. operational and external layer
c. physical data warehouse layer
d. process management layer

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305

38. The process that records how data from operational data stores and external sources are transformed on the way into the warehouse is referred to as:
a. summarization algorithms.
b. transformation mapping.
c. back propagation.
d. extraction history.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 310

39. The _____________________ applied to the detail data are of importance to any decision maker analyzing or interpreting the meaning of the summaries. These metadata can also save time by making it easier to decide which level of summarization is most appropriate for a given analysis context.
a. summarization algorithms
b. transformation mapping
c. back propagation
d. extraction history

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 311

40. Whenever historical information is analyzed, meticulous update records must be kept. Often a decision maker will begin the process of constructing a time-based report by reviewing the ________________ because any changes to the business rules must be ascertained in order to apply the right rules to the right data.
a. summarization algorithms
b. transformation mapping
c. back propagation
d. extraction history

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 310-311

Essay Questions

41. What are the seven deadly sins of data warehouse implementation?

42. What are the characteristics of a data warehouse?

75. What is a data warehouse?

76. List and explain the different layers in the data warehouse architecture.

77. What are metadata? Why are they so important to a data warehouse?

Chapter 11
Data Mining and Data Visualization

True-False Questions

199. Data mining is a set of activities used to find new, hidden, or unexpected patterns in data.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

200. A synonym for data mining is information sifting and discovery (ISD).
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

201. Data mining is a business solution, not a technology.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 327

202. One of the primary reasons for the rise in data mining popularity is the ever-increasing volume of data that require processing.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 328

203. The broad category of software decision-making technology that enables multidimensional analysis is referred to as OLAP.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 329

204. ROLAP organizes and analyzes data as an n-dimensional cube. The ROLAP cube can be conceptually thought of as a common spreadsheet with two extensions: (1) support for multiple dimensions and (2) support for multiple concurrent users.

205. One of the primary advantages of ROLAP versus MOLAP is it results in performance improvements for data access.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 331

206. MOLAP provides support for concurrent users.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 331

207. Sparcity can significantly increase the storage requirements of a MOLAP hypercube by requiring that space be allocated for all cells rather than just the ones that contain data values.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

208. MOLAP is well-suited to handle large numbers of detailed data.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 331

209. ROLAP databases typically contain both summary and detail data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

210. The ROLAP structure contains a large number of normalized tables.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 332

211. The central table in a star schema is a dimension table.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 332

212. Data mining methods can be classified in two ways: by the function they perform or by their class of application.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 333

213. The classification approach to data mining searches all details or transactions from operational systems for patterns with a high probability of repetition.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 333

214. The association approach to data mining is intended to discover rules that define whether an item or event belongs to a particular subset of data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 333

215. The sequencing approach to data mining relates events in time, based on a series of preceding events.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

216. The clustering approach to data mining is useful when there is a need to create partitions in order to discover patterns in the data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 335

217. Data mining does not use statistical techniques because the complex patterns in data do not lend themselves to linear regression analysis.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 336

218. Two new categories of data mining are text mining and Web mining.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 338

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is a synonym for data mining?
a. Knowledge data discovery
b. Information analysis
c. Coal mining
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

22. Which of the following is not true of data mining?
a. Data mining has seen explosive growth in the area of customer relationship management.
b. Data mining is a business solution.
c. Data mining is a technology.
d. None of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 327

23. The set of activities used to find new, hidden, or unexpected patterns in data is referred to as:
a. data warehousing.
b. data mining.
c. data transformation.
d. data aggregation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326

24. Which of the following is a reason for the growth in popularity of data mining?
a. Increased volume of data
b. Increased awareness of the inadequacy of the human brain to process multifactorial dependencies or correlations
c. Increased affordability of machine learning
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 328

25. The term _________ has been generally agreed to represent the broad category of software technology that enables decision makers to conduct multidimensional analysis of consolidated enterprise data.
a. OLAP
b. MOLAP
c. ROLAP
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 329

26. ____________organizes and analyzes data as an n-dimensional cube. The cube can be thought of as a common spreadsheet with two extensions: (1) support for multiple dimensions and (2) support for multiple concurrent users.
a. OLAP
b. MOLAP
c. ROLAP
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 331

27. In _____________, the multidimensional database server is replaced with a large relational database server. This “super” relational database will contain both detailed and summarized data thus allowing for “drill down” techniques to be applied to the data sets.
a. OLAP
b. MOLAP
c. ROLAP
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 331

28. In a ________________, the data are stored as a multidimensional array where each cell in the array represents the intersection of all of the dimensions. Using this approach, any number of dimensions may be analyzed simultaneously and any number of multidimensional views of the data can be created.
a. hyperion cube
b. hypercube
c. stochastic cube
d. correlation cube

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

29. Which term is used to refer to a basic database operation that links rows of two or more tables by one or more columns in each table?
a. n-cube analysis
b. table link
c. table join
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331

30. Which of the following is at the center of a star schema?
a. Multi dimensional cube
b. Dimension table
c. Fact table
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 332

31. Which of the following is not considered one of the four major categories of processing algorithms and rule approaches?
a. Classification
b. Association
c. Sequence
d. Principal components analysis

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 333

32. Which data mining technique utilizes linkage analysis to search operational transactions for patterns with a high probability of repetition?
a. Association
b. Cluster
c. Sequence
d. Principal components analysis

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

33. There are some cases where it is difficult or impossible to define the parameters of a class of data to be analyzed. In these cases, _____________ methods can be used to create partitions so that all members of each set are similar according to some metric or set of metrics thus creating a set of objects grouped together by virtue of their similarity or proximity to each other.
a. association
b. linkage analysis
c. sequencing
d. clustering

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 335

34. ___________________ methods are used to relate events in time, such as the prediction of interest rate fluctuations or stock performance, based on a series of preceding events. Through this analysis, various hidden trends can be discovered that are often highly predictive of future events.
a. Association
b. Linkage analysis
c. Sequencing
d. Clustering

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

35. Which of the following is not a data mining technology?
a. Statistical analysis
b. Neural networks
c. Decision trees
d. All of the above are data mining technologies.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 336

36. A common example of the use of association methods where a retailer can mine the data generated by a point-of-sale system, such as the price scanner you are familiar with at the grocery store is referred to as:
a. sequencing.
b. linkage analysis.
c. clustering.
d. market basket analysis.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334

37. The process by which numerical data is converted into meaningful images is referred to as:
a. data mining.
b. data warehousing.
c. data visualization.
d. data aggregation.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 351

38. Which of the following is not an advantage of market basket analysis?
a. Identifying which products sell together can help manage inventory.
b. It is more preferable to marketers to market to existing customers.
c. Market basket analysis can sometimes produce results that are due to prior marketing campaigns.
d. All of the above are advantages.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 345

39. An orderly hierarchy of items and item categories that divides each item into a basket analysis is referred to as a:
a. cluster analysis.
b. taxonomy.
c. multi dimensional market basket analysis.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 348

40. Which of the following is a limitation of data mining?
a. Identification of missing data
b. Data noise
c. Missing values
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pps. 350-351

Essay Questions

41. What are Codd’s twelve rules for OLAP?

42. What are the current limitations and challenges to data mining?

78. List and briefly describe several data mining technologies.

79. Describe how relational on-line analytical processing (ROLAP) works.

80. Explain the concept of multidimensional on-line analytical processing (MOLAP).

Chapter 12
Designing and Building the Data Warehouse

True-False Questions

219. The first step in planning a data warehouse is to define the information requirements of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 383

220. The enterprise model consists of a number of separate models integrated together to provide a comprehensive view of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

221. The corporate process model describes the entities generated by the elementary processes carried out by the enterprise.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

222. The corporate data model represents a highly structured description of the elementary processes within the enterprise that identify the interrelationships among the different processes.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

223. The long term benefit of an enterprise data warehouse is the increased integration of business processes throughout the organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 384

224. A top-down data warehouse design focuses on making use of data available in the current operational systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 384-385

225. A bottom-up approach to data warehouse brings more benefit to a data warehouse project than a top-down approach.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385

226. Horizontal integration is the means by which the application designer ensures that the software application is congruent with the stated business requirements.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385

227. Enterprise integration ensures that each application is fully integrated within its own boundaries.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385

228. Vertical integration ensures that consistent data definitions occur across the entire organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 386

229. One of the most significant data warehouse critical success factors is strong management support.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 386

230. Organizational culture can have an impact on their readiness to develop a data warehouse because data warehouse development implies cross departmental cooperation and information sharing.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 388

231. One common approach to data warehouse project prioritization is to rank initiatives by impact on the information technology organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 390

232. One low cost approach to determining data warehouse feasibility is to develop a proof of concept.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 391

233. When the initial scope of a project continues to expand to incorporate new features this is referred to as feature expansion.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 392

234. The first step in developing a data warehouse is to determine the project scope.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 392

235. A project benefit that can be identified with certainty and expressed in dollars is said to be an intangible benefit.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 396

236. The ability to introduce new products would be considered an intangible project benefit.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 396

237. The ability to be proactive in identifying legal issues, thereby foregoing potential financial penalties that might impact a firm would be considered an intangible project benefit.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 397

238. Economic feasibility measures share one concept in common – the time value of money.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 399

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following data warehouse design approaches implies a strategic rather than operational perspective?
a. Bottom-up approach
b. Top-down approach
c. Central approach
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384

22. When the application designer ensures that the software application is in harmony with the business requirements, this is referred to as:
a. horizontal integration.
b. vertical integration.
c. enterprise integration.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 385

23. _________ seeks to ensure that each application under development is fully integrated within its own boundaries and to eliminate any inconsistencies in the final software product.
a. Horizontal integration
b. Vertical integration
c. Enterprise integration
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 385

24. __________ ensures that there is consistent definition of data and processes across the organization.
a. Horizontal integration
b. Vertical integration
c. Enterprise integration
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 386

25. Which of the following is not a data warehouse project readiness assessment factor?
a. Strong sponsorship
b. A compelling business motivation
c. An analytic organizational culture
d. All of the above are factors.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 386-388

26. Which of the following is considered a key question to the success of a data warehouse initiative?
a. What are the key performance indicators used for each of the key business initiatives?
b. What is the potential impact on each of the existing performance metrics with improved access to higher-quality business process information?
c. What does management consider to be the key strategic business initiatives?
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 390

27. Which of the following is considered to be a project prioritization dimension?
a. Perceived impact on the core business
b. Economic impact on the IT organization
c. Feasibility of staffing the project internally
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 390

28. Which term refers to the process of developing a relatively low cost prototype to demonstrate that a data warehouse will achieve the perceived benefits?
a. Proof of prototype
b. Proof of concept
c. Proof of benefit
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 391

29. __________ occurs when the initial scope of a project continues to expand as new features are incorporated into the project.
a. Feature creep
b. Hope creep
c. Scope creep
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 392

30. Which of the following refers to a perspective from which an argument to pursue an investment can be made?
a. Faith
b. Fear
c. Facts
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 394

31. Despite increased spending in information technology productivity growth in the U.S. has been stagnant or weak. This phenomenon is referred to as:
a. technology paradox.
b. productivity paradox.
c. productivity paradigm.
d. technology paradigm.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 394

32. A(n) ________ benefit can be identified with certainty and is easily expressed in dollars.
a. intangible
b. tangible
c. enterprise
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 396

33. A(n) _________ benefit can be directly associated with a project but is not easily expressed in dollars.
a. intangible
b. tangible
c. enterprise
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 396

34. Which of the following is not a tangible benefit?
a. Increase in process quality
b. Reduction in employee turnover
c. Improving time to market
d. Decreased need for travel

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 396

35. Which of the following is not an intangible benefit?
a. Development of new markets
b. Increased competitive advantage
c. More timely information
d. Increased workplace safety

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 397

36. Which of the following is an economic feasibility measure?
a. Net present value
b. Breakeven analysis
c. Internal rate of return
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 399

37. Which economic feasibility measure results in a return on investment expressed as an interest rate?
a. Net present value
b. Breakeven analysis
c. Internal rate of return
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 402

38. ____________ determines the point where the benefits of a project equal its costs.
a. Net present value
b. Breakeven analysis
c. Internal rate of return
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 402

39. Joining a fact table to dimension tables in a star schema is referred to as a:
a. star join.
b. data mart.
c. fact analysis.
d. dimensional warehouse.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 407

40. ___________ determines exactly what constitutes a fact record.
a. Star schema
b. Degree of granularity
c. Data mart analysis
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 410

Essay Questions

41. Describe the two main components of an enterprise model.

42. Define three levels of enterprise integration.

81. Distinguish between tangible and intangible benefits.

82. What are the benefits realized through a sound data warehouse architecture?

83. List the guidelines for a successful data warehouse project.

Chapter 13
Decisions in the Organization

True-False Questions

239. A system can be defined as a series of interrelated elements with an identifiable boundary, that work together to achieve a common goal.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

240. The concept of synergy states that the whole is equal to the sum of the parts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

241. A system contains three components: interrelated elements, internal inputs, and subsystems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

242. Another name for a system element is a subsystem.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

243. Boundaries imply that systems can be distinguished via their relationship to other systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 425

244. Elements that are not contained within the boundary of a system are part of the system environment.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 425

245. The system environment is not part of the system itself.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 425

246. A self contained system that has very little interaction with the external environment is referred to as an adaptive system.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 427

247. Closed systems are perpetual and self-sustaining.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 427

248. Open systems adapt both internally and externally.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 427

249. Function composition is the process of breaking down systems into more discreet subsystems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 428

250. A DSS is considered to be a closed system because all of the data stores used are self-contained.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 430

251. One of the advantages of a DSS is that the end-user is always contained with the boundaries of the system, resulting in greater system control.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 430

252. A service level agreement provides a detailed description of each service provision along with reporting requirements for each party to the agreement.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 434

253. Information relevance is synonymous with information precision.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 436

254. The standard for information to be considered timely is that it must be available to the user within 48 hours.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 437

255. Information consistency refers to how quickly and easily its intended user can figure out what to do with it.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 438

256. Information system architecture is a detailed plan that addresses the make, model and characteristics of each physical unit in a system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

257. One of the unique features of a DSS is that the data is highly specialized and rarely used by anyone other than the person who created it.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 440

258. Scalability is the degree to which a platform can be expanded to accommodate increases in processing requirements.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following describes the term synergy?
a. The whole is greater than the sum of the parts.
b. The whole is equal to the sum of the parts.
c. A well defined DSS will result in performance improvements.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

22. Elements is a system are also referred to as:
a. models.
b. subsystems.
c. boundaries.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425

23. _________ and ________ are common classifications of systems.
a. Internal, external
b. Inside, outside
c. Open, closed
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 426

24. Which term best describes a mechanistic system?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Closed
d. Open

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 426

25. Which term best describes an adaptive system?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Closed
d. Open

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 427

26. Which type of system tends to be less structured in its operation?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Closed
d. Open

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 427

27. The process of continually redefining a system into smaller, more discrete subsystems in referred to as:
a. system identification.
b. functional decomposition.
c. requirements definition.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 428

28. Which of the following is not true of a DSS?
a. A DSS is usually associated with more than one data store.
b. A DSS usually serves more end users than a typical transactional system.
c. A DSS can be controlled by its end users.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 430

29. Which of the following is not needed to define a DSS?
a. The objectives of the DSS application.
b. The definition of the data that resides within the boundaries of the DSS.
c. The definition of the temporal processes contained within the DSS.
d. All of the above are needed.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 431

30. Which of the following is true of a service level agreement?
a. It defines both the scope and level of service expected by the users of the service.
b. it includes a detailed description of each aspect of the service.
c. It identifies reporting obligations for all parties to the service.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 434

31. Which of the following is not a factor in determining information quality?
a. Relevance
b. Accuracy
c. Precision
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 436

32. Which of the following is not a factor in determining information quality?
a. Usability
b. Cost
c. Correctness
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 438-439

33. Information that matches the needs of the decision maker is said to be:
a. timely.
b. accurate.
c. relevant.
d. precise.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 435

34. __________ refers to the maximum accuracy with which a piece of information can be represented.
a. Correctness
b. Precision
c. Consistency
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 436

35. ___________ is the degree to which similar pieces of information are stored and presented in a similar and predictable fashion.
a. Consistency
b. Precision
c. Accuracy
d. Relevance

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 438

36. Which of the following is not an issue to be considered in the definition of DSS architecture?
a. Interoperability
b. Scalability
c. Compatibility
d. All of the above are issues to consider.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

37. Which of the following refers to the degree to which information can be delivered to the exact locus of a decision?
a. Interoperability
b. Compatibility
c. Scalability
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440

38. DSS _________ is a cost reduction issue, supporting the growth of a platform as system requirements change.
a. interoperability
b. compatibility
c. scalability
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 440

39. The issue of ________ focuses on the degree to which a DSS under design will interact effectively with other organizational systems.
a. interoperability
b. compatibility
c. scalability
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 440

40. Which of the following is included within a well-defined DSS architecture?
a. Databases
b. Models
c. Administration tools
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 442

Essay Questions

41. List the elements of a well-defined DSS architecture.

42. Briefly describe three issues that affect DSS information system architecture.

84. Briefly define a system.

85. Distinguish between a closed system and an open system.

86. List 8 factors that affect information quality.

Chapter 14
Designing and Building Decision Support Systems

True-False Questions

259. Because there is no one best DSS, it stands to reason that there is no one best way to design and build one either.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 450

260. Because of the unique requirements of a DSS, the only way to construct one is with a DSS generator.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 450

261. A DSS generator is an application system that eliminates the need for programming of thousands of individual instructions or codes in the design and construction of a DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 451

262. A common perspective with regard to system design and development is found in the system development life cycle (SDLC) approach. The SDLC portrays the process as a series of iterative and recursive phases, each with its own set of required inputs, activities, and deliverables.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 452

263. The primary advantage of an SLDC approach to DSS design is that it is the most adaptive methodology to handle the sometimes rapidly changing system specifications.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 453

264. An alternative to the SDLC approach is ROMC Analysis. This approach focuses the analysis effort on developing understandings of read operations (R), overflows (O), memory maps (M), and continuous data flow (C).
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 453

265. Functional category analysis results in the design of a DSS from the categorization of end-user interviews.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 454

266. Three primary categories of system requirements for the DSS can be established: (1) functional requirements, (2) interface requirements, and (3) coordination requirements.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 457

267. The functional requirements for the DSS focus on the DSS’s capacity for storage, recall, and production of knowledge useful to the problem context.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

268. The coordination requirements focus on the communication capabilities of the DSS. During this phase, the designer must determine the various channels and methods of communication that will be made available to the DSS user and the conditions under which they will be made available.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

269. The determination of specific physical components, structure, and development platforms is made during the system construction stage of the DSS development process.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

270. The goal of the system implementation phase is to test, evaluate, and deploy a fully functional and documented DSS. During this phase, a major activity is the final determination and evaluation of the degree to which the DSS meets the users’ needs.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 458

271. The DSS developer must possess the knowledge to develop the computer-based application but normally does not need to be knowledgeable about the details surrounding the problem under study.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 459

272. Two basic types of prototyping have proved effective in the development of DSSs: iterative prototypes and reusable prototypes.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 460

273. Prototyping can be beneficial in the development of a DSS because the immediate nature of user response and feedback regarding system functionality can result in greater senior management support.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 461

274. End users are those individuals who fall outside the confines of the formally defined IS department or function within an organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 463

275. An advantage of end-user development DSS applications is a reduction in time to deliver resulting in lower cost.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 464

276. An area of risk with end-user developed DSS applications is a potential lack of security measures built into the system.

277. The concept of the information center (IC) arose to address the need for end-user support in the design and development of computer-based applications.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 465

278. DSS development tools are classified as either primary development tools or DSS generators.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 466

Multiple Choice Questions

21. An application system that eliminates the need for programming of thousands of individual instructions or code in the design and construction of a DSS is called a(n):
a. DSS development system.
b. DSS generator.
c. DSS analyzer.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 451

22. A common perspective with regard to system design and development is found in the _____________ approach which portrays the process as a series of iterative and recursive phases, each with its own set of required inputs, activities, and deliverables.
a. DSS programming language
b. ROMC
c. SDLC
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 452

23. Which of the following is not true of the SDLC approach in DSS development?
a. It brings a necessary structure and discipline to the DSS development process.
b. It is flexible in its development approach.
c. It is common where formal relationships exist between the developer and end user.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 453

24. An alternative to the SDLC approach which focuses the analysis effort on developing understandings of representations, operations, memory aids, and controls is called:
a. SDLC II.
b. ROMC.
c. RAID.
d. CSF.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 453

25. A methodology for the design of a DSS that focuses on the identification of specific functions necessary for the development of a particular DSS from a broad list of available functions including selection, aggregation, estimation, simulation, equalization, and optimization is called:
a. functional category analysis.
b. ROMC.
c. SDLC.
d. SDLC II.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 454

26. Which of the following would not be considered a primary category of the systems analysis phase of DSS development?
a. Functional requirements
b. Interface requirements
c. Technical requirements
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 457

27. The set of specifications for the DSS which focuses on the DSS’s capacity for storage, recall, and production of knowledge useful to the problem context is known as the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

28. The requirements which focus on the communication capabilities of the DSS are called the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

29. The requirements for a DSS that include the timing of events associated with the decision-making process, the facilitation of the access to relevant information, and the integration of various modeling tools contained with the DSS are called the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

30. Which design phase uses iterative prototyping to make refinements to the system based upon feedback received from testing and user involvement?
a. System design
b. System construction
c. Implementation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 457-458

31. Which of the following would be an example of a coordination requirement?
a. The need to update sale projections for prior fiscal periods to actual figures before initiating a future projection process
b. The need to provide a graphic interface to the user
c. The need for a powerful server
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457

32. The determination of specific physical components, structure, and development platforms is made during the __________stage of the DSS development process.
a. system design
b. system requirements
c. system construction
d. implementation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 457

33. The goal of the _________________ phase is to test, evaluate, and deploy a fully functional and documented DSS. During this phase, a major activity is the final determination and evaluation of the degree to which the DSS meets the users’ needs.
a. system design
b. system construction
c. system implementation
d. incremental adaptation

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 458

34. The final stage in the DSS development process is ________. It involves the continual revisiting of the activities from earlier stages in an effort to the capabilities of the DSS based upon the knowledge gained as a result of its use.
a. system requirements revision
b. system installation
c. system implementation
d. incremental adaptation

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 458

35. Which of the following is true of the DSS development process?
a. More often than not the problem context is not known to the user.
b. The decision making process tends to vary greatly.
c. Prototyping is typically an expedient method of defining DSS requirements.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 459

36. Which of the following is not a prototyping classification?
a. Iterative
b. ROMC analyzed
c. Throwaway
d. All of the above are prototype classifications.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 460

37. Which of the following is true of prototyping?
a. It typically results in a lower development cost than an SDLC approach.
b. It typically results in a quicker development time than an SDLC approach.
c. In the early stages it is very similar to the SDLC approach.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 461

38. Which of the following is not true of an end-user developed DSS?
a. They are typically created in less time.
b. They typically have less implementation problems.
c. They typically result in lower development cost.
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 464

39. The ___________________ are the lowest level of DSS development technology. In this category, we find the programming languages, code and text editors, graphics development applications, and database query mechanisms employed during the development of either a DSS generator or a specific DSS application.
a. primary development tools
b. DSS generators
c. specific DSS applications
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 467

40. The _____________ are packages of hardware/software which provide a set of capabilities to build a specific DSS quickly and easily.
a. primary development tools
b. DSS generators
c. specific DSS applications
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 467

Essay Questions

41. List the processes in the SDLC approach to DSS application development.

42. Describe the functional category analysis approach. What is its most significant benefit?

87. What are the strengths and weaknesses of the traditional SDLC approach?

88. List and briefly describe the two types of prototypes. Compare their advantages and limitations.

89. List the factors that are related to the quality of the user interface.

Chapter 15
Implementing and Integrating Decision Support Systems

True-False Questions

279. Implementation is probably the most important and critical step in the entire DSS design process because without a successful implementation, the greatest DSS ever created will go unused or even unnoticed.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 478

280. Implementation is a static process, occurring at the end of DSS development.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 479

281. The Lewin-Schein theory of change is structured and rigid.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 479

282. The essence of the Kolb-Frohman model is the assumption that the probability of successful implementation will result from a specific pattern of actions by the users and managers.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 479

283. Alter suggested that the initial impetus behind the development of a DSS can be categorized via: (1) user stimulus, (2) managerial stimulus and (3) environmental stimulus.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 481

284. The Service with a Smile implementation pattern is the most common approach for a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 482

285. The logic behind user satisfaction as a measure of success is that the users will view a DSS as favorable if it is perceived to be effective in supporting the decision-making process. The more effective the system appears to be, the more satisfied the users will be with the system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 485

286. The number of times a DSS was accessed is the most effective metric of its success.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 485

287. Davis developed a method of measuring user satisfaction of information systems based upon perceived usefulness and perceived ease of use.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 485

288. Perceived usefulness focuses on the attitudes of the user with regard to the degree to which the system is perceived to bring utility or value to the activity within which it is used.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

289. Perceived ease-of-use focuses on the degree to which the users of the system perceive the task to be easy to do.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

290. One method of assessing the success of a DSS is to focus on the technical functionality of the system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 486

291. Utilizing the ratio of direct cost to direct benefit is an example of using organizational success measures to assess a DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 486

292. Integrating the DSS into the organization simply means that the new application is merged into the existing computing infrastructure such that the appearance of a seamless architecture appears to the user.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

293. In functional integration, the various decision support functions with the DSS are integrated and linked to those of the existing infrastructure. This linking includes providing common menu access, inter- and intra-application transfer of data and tools, and a common application interface at the same desktop client or workstation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

294. Physical integration involves the architectural bundling of the hardware, software, and data communication characteristics associated with the new DSS into the existing set of physical systems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 494

295. Physical integration can begin before a DSS is designed.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

296. One of the least common problems faced during the implementation and integration of virtually any computer-based information system, including DSS, is the resistance by certain individuals or groups to the changes associated with the new system.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 495

297. Resistance to change can result from a number of different factors, including fear of the unknown.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 495

298. Managers represent the single resistance group to the implementation of a DSS, because they fear a loss of importance.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 497

Multiple Choice Questions

21. _________________ is probably the most important and critical step in the entire DSS design process because without its success, the greatest DSS ever created will go unused or even unnoticed.
a. Design
b. Implementation
c. Requirements Analysis
d. Physical Design

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 478

22. According to this theory, the process of change occurs in three basic steps: unfreezing, moving, and refreezing.
a. Kolb-Frohman
b. Structuration
c. Contingency
d. Lewin-Schein

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 479

23. Which of the following is not a step in the Kolb-Frohman theory of change?
a. Scouting
b. Entry
c. Diagnosis
d. Refreezing

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 481

24. According to Alter, which of the following is not a DSS development category impetus?
a. Entrepreneurial stimulus
b. User stimulus
c. Managerial stimulus
d. Environmental stimulus

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 481

25. One common measure of success suggests that users will view a DSS as favorable if it is seen as effective in supporting the decision-making process. This measure is known as:
a. perceived usefulness.
b. perceived ease of use.
c. user satisfaction.
d. system use.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

26. The ________________ construct focuses on the attitudes of the user with regard to the degree to which the system is perceived to bring utility or value to the activity within which it is used.
a. perceived usefulness
b. perceived ease-of-use
c. user satisfaction
d. system use

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

27. The ________________ construct focuses on the degree to which the users of the system perceive the tool to be easy to use.
a. perceived usefulness
b. perceived ease-of-use
c. user satisfaction
d. system use

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485

28. Which DSS implementation pattern is associated with high levels of user involvement and initiation?
a. Join hands and circle around
b. Service with a smile
c. R&D
d. Used car salesperson

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 482

29. Which DSS implementation pattern is characterized by a consultant attempting to sell the need for a DSS to the user?
a. Join hands and circle around
b. Service with a smile
c. R&D
d. Used car salesperson

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 483

30. Which DSS implementation pattern is associated with users who are looking to buy a product?
a. Join hands and circle around
b. Service with a smile
c. R&D
d. Used car salesperson

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 482

31. Which of the following is not a criterion for DSS success?
a. Fits well with the organization’s planning methods.
b. Fits well with the political approach to decision making within the organization.
c. Is considered both cost effective and valuable relative to its development costs.
d. All of the above are DSS success criteria.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 487

32. In this system measurement category, the quality of the computer system becomes the focus. Issues such as response time, system availability, usage time, reliability, and quality of system support, among others are identified and measured. Measures in this category can be obtained using a variety of methods including direct observation, event logging, and attitude or perceptual construct surveys.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 487

33. This category of assessment takes a micro focus on performance and addresses issues related to the functionality of the DSS within the specific problem context for which it was developed. Decision quality can be assessed in terms of time spent in the decision process, number of alternatives evaluated, and span of information searched. Additionally, qualitative measures dealing with trust or confidence, satisfaction, and understanding, can also be included in this measure.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 488

34. This category measures the factors that contribute to the organizational aspects of the DSS. This category is primarily quantitative in nature and includes measures focusing on increases in revenue, cost reductions, increases in training effectiveness, increases in competitive advantages, and changes in productivity, among many others.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 488

35. The degree to which the DSS adapts to changes within the problem context and environment is the focus of this category of performance measurement. Inherent in providing support to ill-structured decisions and problem-solving tasks are the changes that can occur in the users’ decision-making behavior, problem characteristics, and circumstances. The ability of a DSS to adapt to these dynamics is often a function of the original development tool selected and the ability of the user to make necessary changes to data or models.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 488

36. Which of the following takes a process-centric perspective with regard to the design of an information system and its associated applications?
a. DSS management
b. Issue-based management
c. Process based management
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 489

37. The process by which the new DSS application is merged into the existing computing infrastructure such that the appearance of a seamless architecture appears to the user is called:
a. design.
b. maintenance.
c. implementation.
d. integration.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 494

38. In __________ integration, the various decision support functions with the DSS are integrated and linked to those of the existing infrastructure. This linking includes providing common menu access, inter- and intra-application transfer of data and tools, and a common application interface at the same desktop client or workstation.
a. physical
b. functional
c. technical
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

39. _________________ integration involves the architectural bundling of the hardware, software, and data communication characteristics associated with the new DSS into the existing set of physical systems.
a. Physical
b. Functional
c. Technical
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494

40. Which of the following is a factor that can lead to resistance to change within an organization?
a. Fear of the unknown
b. Differing perceptions
c. Conservationism
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 496

Essay Questions

41. Define the Lewin-Schein Change Theory.

1.
42. What are the seven steps of the process of change in the Kolb-Frohman Model?

90. List and briefly describe the six generic DSS implementation patterns.

91. List seven characteristics of overall software quality.

92. Identify the factors that cause organizational resistance to change.

Chapter 16

Creative Decision Making and Problem Solving
True-False Questions

299. Creativity involves the translation of our unique gifts, talents, and vision into some form of external reality that is both new and useful.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 504

300. Creativity can involve the combining of existing objects intended for one purpose into some other completely different purpose.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 504

301. Intelligence combines thinking and learning.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 505

302. The psychoanalytic perspective maintains that creativity is a preconscious mental activity. In other words, creative thinking occurs in our subconscious thoughts and, as such, is not directly accessible to our conscious thoughts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 508

303. Creativity in problem solving and planning can be defined as the ability of a subject in a choice situation to modify self-imposed constraints so as to enable him to select courses of action that he would otherwise produce on his own.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 506

304. Scheduling creativity requires a highly skilled information technology project manager.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 507

305. The psychoanalytic perspective argues that creativity is nothing more than a natural response to stimuli within our individual environments and that certain combinations of stimuli can lead to more creative behavior than other combinations.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

306. The process orientation view sees creativity as a property of a thought process that can be acquired and improved through instruction and practice.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

307. Logical thinking is perhaps the most common, most widely used, and most often recommended approach to solving a problem. This method of thinking is rooted in the model-building and quantitative methods of management science and is an integral part of the design and development of a computer-based DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 509

308. Lateral thinking is based upon the premise that the human mind naturally processes and stores information in accordance with a specific pattern of thought and action. Because of this logical categorization process, the mind becomes hindered in any attempt to change these recognized patterns of thought. Lateral thinking disrupts these patterns through the introduction of discontinuity.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

309. Three major activities promote lateral thinking processes: (1) creativity, (2) analysis and (3) initiative.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

310. Exaggeration can be used as a method of change.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 510

311. The most common method of introducing change from outside the problem context is to use analogies.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 510

312. Opposite thinking takes the position that certain elements within a problem context are more critical to any solution outcome.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

313. Critical thinking is a method of problem solving where the decision-maker simply takes the perspective of someone other than himself or herself. This is a form of “standing in another’s shoes.” Using this method, a decision maker can often gain insight into why a particular problem exists in the first place.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

314. One of the most common barriers to creativity is a result of problem solvers making assumptions regarding potential outcomes that are untrue.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 513

315. Creative thought can be inhibited by criticism.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 514

316. The vast majority of creative problem-solving techniques applicable in an electronic decision support mechanism can be categorized into an easily manageable taxonomy consisting of four basic categories: free association, structured relationships, group techniques, and serendipity.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 515

317. Osborn’s Idea Checklist requires that users write down attributes of a problem, list as many alternatives under each attribute as possible, and then consider all possible combinations.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 518

318. AHP is a mathematically based theory for use in decision making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 521

Multiple Choice Questions

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of creativity?
a. Intelligence
b. Academic achievement
c. Intuition
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 505

22. Which of the following statements is true of creativity?
a. A creative person does things never done before.
b. Creativity involves the translation of unique gifts, talents and vision into some form of external reality that is new and useful.
c. Creativity can involve combining objects intended for one purpose into a completely different purpose.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 504

23. The _____________ perspective maintains that creativity is a preconscious mental activity. In other words, creative thinking occurs in our subconscious thoughts and, as such, is not directly accessible to our conscious thoughts.
a. psychoanalytic
b. behavioral
c. process orientation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

24. The _______________ perspective argues that creativity is nothing more than a natural response to stimuli within our individual environments and that certain combinations of stimuli can lead to more creative behavior than other combinations.
a. psychoanalytic
b. behavioral
c. process orientation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

25. The __________________perspective sees creativity as a property of a thought process that can be acquired and improved through instruction and practice.
a. psychoanalytic
b. behavioral
c. process orientation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508

26. Which of the following is not considered one of the five basic categories of ways of thinking?
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 509

27. This method of thinking is rooted in the model-building and quantitative methods of management science and is an integral part of the design and development of a computer-based DSS.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

28. This method of thinking is based upon the premise that the human mind naturally processes and stores information in accordance with a specific pattern of thought and action.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

29. This method of thinking takes the position that there exists certain elements within a problem context that are most crucial to the significance of any solution outcome.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

30. ______________ thinking is a method of problem solving where the decision-maker simply takes the perspective of someone other than himself or herself. This is a form of “standing in another’s shoes.” Using this method, a decision maker can often gain insight into why a particular problem exists in the first place.
a. Lateral
b. Opposite
c. Intuition
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511

31. Which of the following is not a major activity available to promote lateral thinking?
a. Evaluation
b. Alternatives
c. Provocation
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509

32. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a vertical thinking process?
a. Guarantees that at least a minimally acceptable solution will be found.
b. Focuses primarily on the obvious and tends to process using established patterns of thought.
c. Chance intrusions are welcomed and nothing is considered irrelevant.
d. All of the above are characteristics of vertical thinking.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 509

33. Which of the following is not a barrier to creativity?
a. Self-constraining beliefs
b. Fear of criticism
c. lack of confidence
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 513-514

34. __________ is one of the most common barriers to creativity and is identified by problem solvers who make assumptions regarding potential outcomes that are fabricated or untrue.
a. Self-constraining beliefs
b. Fear of criticism
c. Lack of confidence
d. Stress

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 513

35. Which of the following is untrue of barriers to creativity?
a. Not all barriers to creativity are self-imposed.
b. Environments in which quick production of thought is the norm enhance creativity.
c. Lack of introspection can be a barrier to creativity.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 515

36. Which of the following is major category of problem-solving techniques?
a. Free association
b. Serendipity
c. Group techniques
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 515

37. Which category of problem solving techniques contains two goals: (1) divergent thinking and (2) the generation of ideas?
a. Serendipity
b. Free association
c. Brainstorming
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 516

38. Which of the following is true of brainstorming?
a. It can be facilitated in a structured manner.
b. It can be facilitated in an unstructured manner.
c. It can be conducted individually or collectively.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 517

39. The _________ technique requires the user to write down attributes of a problem, list as many alternative options under each attribute as possible, and then consider all possible combinations and permutations of the alternatives.
a. Osborn’s idea checklist
b. morphological forced connections
c. analytic hierarchy process
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 518

40. Which of the following is not an element of the general form of the model for the Analytic Hierarchy Process?
a. Criteria
b. Alternatives
c. Decision
d. All of the above are elements.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 520

Essay Questions

41. What approaches can be utilized to provoke changes in lateral thinking?

42. List the steps involved in Nominal Group Technique.

93. Describe the basis of lateral thinking.

94. List and briefly describe the three major activities in promoting lateral thinking processes.

95. What is creativity? Explain it from different perspectives.

Chapter 17
Intelligent Software Agents, BOTS, Delegation, and Agency

True-False Questions

319. Delegation involves the discretionary authority to autonomously act on behalf of another.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

320. An autonomous agent takes on the responsibility of completing a task that is delegated to you.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

321. Delegation enables you to take on more responsibility
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

322. Information systems enable time-consuming activities to be accomplished in a more expedient manner only when delegated to subordinate employees
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

323. The concept of the computer responding to human intervention is referred to as indirect manipulation.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

324. Intelligent software agents act autonomously on behalf of the user.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

325. Intelligent software agents replace the need for any human intervention.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 531

326. The concept of delegacy centers on consistency.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 531

327. Intelligent software agents on the Internet and intranets are moving towards personalization and diversification.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 533

328. The concept of agency consists of techniques, concepts, and applications to personalize, customize, elaborate, delegate, and catalyze the processes in the online marketplace.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

329. Supplier-driven agency relies primarily on pull technologies.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

330. A user-driven agency enables an end-user to be able to utilize push technologies to customize their information needs.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

331. Agency architecture defines the mathematical formulas for representing and reasoning about the properties of agents.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 537

332. Autonomy is the characteristic of an agent that acquires information necessary to function by monitoring the user’s actions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 540

333. Anthropomorphism is the embodiment of a principle, attitude, or view of life.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 541

334. Because of the static nature of intelligent agents, many are needed to develop an effective e-commerce site.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 541

335. Organizational agents are far more prevalent across the Internet than personal agents.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 544

336. A watcher agent learns from a user’s past behavior.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 546

337. A helper agent is designed to assist a user in an autonomous manner without human intervention.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 547

338. Consumer recommendations can be presented to people through the use of automated collaboration filtering.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 551

Multiple Choice Questions

21. When you agree to take on the responsibility for completing a task from another, you act as a(n) _____________.
a. delegate
b. independent agent
c. autonomous agent
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 530

22. Software that “knows” a users’ interests and can act autonomously on their behalf is referred to as:
a. an intelligent agent.
b. a script file.
c. artificial intelligence.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 531

23. Which of the following is true of software agents?
a. They can be personalized to meet a users’ needs.
b. They operate as background tasks.
c. There are many different types of software agents.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 533

24. Which of the following is not an agency type?
a. Supplier-driven agency
b. User-driven agency
c. Market-driven agency
d. All of the above are agency types.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 535

25. Which of the following is not true of an agency?
a. It consists of techniques, concepts and applications to personalize processes.
b. It influences the content that it presents.
c. They can be categorized as organizational or personal.
d. All of the above are true.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 535

26. _________ answers the question of what an agent is, as well as the mathematical formalisms for representing and reasoning about the properties of agents.
a. Agent theory
b. Agent architecture
c. Agent Language
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 537

27. _________ focuses on the development and deployment of software languages for programming and experimenting with intelligent software agents.
a. Agent theory
b. Agent architecture
c. Agent language
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 537

28. __________ addresses the problem of designing hardware and software systems that will satisfy the properties specified by the agent theorists.
a. Agent theory
b. Agent architecture
c. Agent language
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 537

29. Which types of agents represents two orthogonal concepts: the ability for autonomous execution and the ability to perform domain-oriented reasoning?
a. AIMA
b. MuBOT
c. Hayes-Roth
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 539

30. Which types of agents collaborate, are autonomous, trustworthy and degrade gracefully in the face of a communications mismatch?
a. SodaBot
b. IBM
c. KidSim
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 539

31. Which types of agents are computational systems that inhabit some complex dynamic environment and act autonomously, and by doing so realize a set of goals for which they are designed?
a. Maes
b. Foner
c. Wooldridge-Jennings
d. FAQ

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 539

32. Which of the following is not a common characteristic of intelligent agents?
a. Autonomy
b. Anthropomorphism
c. Risk and trust
d. All of the above are common characteristics.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 540

33. _________ is the ascription of humanlike characteristics to an otherwise non-human entity.
a. Personalizability
b. Discourse
c. Anthropomorphism
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 541

34. A(n) _______ is defined as an embodiment or concrete manifestation of a principle, attitude, view of life, or the like.
a. personalizability
b. discourse
c. anthropomorphism
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 541

35. Which of the following is an advantage of a transportable agent?
a. Customization
b. Fault tolerance
c. Efficiency
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 542

36. Which of the following is not a classification of Brustoloni’s taxonomy of software agents?
a. Planning agent
b. Regulation agent
c. Mobility agent
d. Adaptive agent

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 544

37. Which type of agent searches for the emergence of specific information?
a. Learning agent
b. Watcher agent
c. Passive agent
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 546

38. Which type of agent is designed to facilitate and assist with online shopping activities?
a. Helper agent
b. Shopping agent
c. Watcher agent
d. Learning agent

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 547

39. Which of the following is not an attribute role of agents within the Gaia methodology?
a. Permissions
b. Protocols
c. Use cases
d. Activities

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 558

40. Which of the following is used by UML to model the world as relations between entities using static class diagram format?
a. Protocol diagram
b. Architecture diagram
c. Ontology diagram
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 561

Essay Questions

41. Provide a definition for Intelligent Software Agent.

42. Distinguish between a watcher agent and a learning agent.

96. List and describe the common characteristics of Intelligent Software Agents.

97. Define the classifications of agents within Brustoloni’s Taxonomy of Software Agents?

98. List the twelve Intelligent Software Agent accessibility guidelines.

Chapter 18
Decision Support in the Twenty-First Century

True-False Questions

1. Decision support systems continue to increase in importance as a result of rapid increases in the amount of data to be filtered and analyzed.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 576

2. A major problem in the development of DSSs is a lack of GUIs to help integrate disparate architectures or platforms.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 576

3. One of the significant advantages of DSSs is that they are completely secure and can therefore be accessed across any network.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 577

4. One area of future DSS growth is advanced data management capabilities, including support for hypertext and multimedia.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 577

5. Virtual reality can potentially alter the manner in which users are trained to use information systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 578

6. Two major issues that will impact the future of expert systems are knowledge management and virtual databases.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 578

7. A high performance storage system (HPSS) is software that is useful for the management of large rule sets.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 579

8. The ultimate design goal for expert system knowledge acquisition is to enable the user to encode their own knowledge.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 580

9. Virtual information access and analysis provides a comprehensive access to multimedia, graphical and text data but is limited to internal data.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 581

10. Collaborative filtering applies human thought, in the form of a database of user preferences.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 583

Multiple Choice Questions

11. DSSs have impacted which of the following areas?
a. Medicine
b. Manufacturing
c. Forestry
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 575

12. _____________ is the term that describes the phenomena of data doubling every year, while at the same time a typical knowledge analyst can only absorb 5% of the data.
a. Online analytical processing
b. Information overload
c. Virtual information analysis
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 576

13. Which of the following enables individuals to immerse themselves into a simulated environment?
a. Environmental analysis
b. Virtual analysis
c. Virtual reality
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 577

14. Which of the following is not an issue that is crucial to the future of expert systems?
a. Knowledge management
b. Network simulation
c. AI requirements for intelligent databases
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 578

15. Which of the following is true of a high-performance storage system (HPSS)?
a. An HPSS is software that provides hierarchical storage management.
b. An HPSS supports scalability.
c. A goal of an HPSS is to move files at speeds significantly faster than today’s current storage technology.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 579

16. Which of the following is true of knowledge management?
a. Knowledge management involves the codification of thoughts and experiences.
b. The goal of a knowledge management system is to allow the expert to encode their own knowledge directly into the system.
c. Knowledge management supports multiple problem context generalization.
d. All of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 580

17. _________ provides access to both organizational and external information through visual screens that combine text, data, and images.
a. VIAA
b. Knowledge management
c. EIS
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 581

18. Which of the following utilizes a database of user preferences in order to predict user outcomes?
a. Personalization agents
b. Collaborative filtering
c. Active filtering
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 583

19. Which of the following is not an issue affecting intelligent software agents?
a. Vigilance
b. Privacy
c. Legal issues
d. All of the above are issues affecting ISAs.

Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 584

20. Which of the following is a method to determine the degree of humanlike intelligence displayed by a computer?
a. Deming test
b. Gates test
c. Juran test
d. None of the above.

Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 590

Essay Questions

21. Briefly describe how a DSS can be used to support manufacturing.

22. Briefly describe virtual reality.

23. What is a High Performance Storage System?

24. What is Moore’s Law?

25.

Briefly describe the Turing test.