Tag Archives: hrm 522

HRM 522 Final Exam

HRM 522 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/hrm-522-final-exam

 

Chapters 7 Through 12

Chapter 7

1. Expert power usually stems from
a. a superior’s credibility with his or her subordinates.
b. the belief that a certain person has the right to exert influence and that certain others have an obligation to accept it.
c. a person’s ability to influence the behavior of others by offering them something desirable. d. a person’s ability to penalize the actions or behavior of another.
e. a person’s perceptions that his or her goals or objectives are similar to another’s.

2. Which of the following statements about power is true?
a. The five bases of power are mutually exclusive.
b. People generally use only one base of power to effect change in others.
c. Expert power exists when one person takes actions that will lead that person and others to achieve their mutual objectives.
d. Power can be used to motivate individuals ethically or unethically. e. The use of power is unethical.

3. An organization that delegates decision-making authority as far down the chain of command as possible and has relatively few formal rules is
a. centralized.
b. decentralized. c. flat.
d. tall.
e. ethical.

4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ethical corporate culture?
a. Management and the board demonstrate their commitment to strong controls through their communications and actions.
b. Every employee is encouraged and required to have hands-on involvement in the internal control system. c. Management conducts itself in a way that is not consistent with the code of conduct.
d. Employees are expected to be in the communication loop through resolutions and corrective actions.
e. Employees have the ability to report policy exceptions anonymously to any member of the organization.

5. Although both structures can create opportunities for unethical conduct, which organizational structure tends to be more ethical?
a. Tall b. Flat
c. Centralized
d. Decentralized
e. All organizational structures are equally ethical.

6. The ability to influence the behavior of others by offering them something desirable is best described as a. coercive power.
b. reward power. c. expert power.
d. legitimate power. e. referent power.

7. An advantage of the decentralized organization is that
a. the focus is on formal rules, policies, and procedures backed up with elaborate control systems. b. there is a high level of bureaucracy.
c. each worker knows his or her job and what is specifically expected as well as how to carry out designated tasks.
d. it is adaptable and can quickly respond to external change. e. there is minimal upward communication.

8. When developing an ethical culture, there has to be a(n)

element because every organization has employees

that will try to take advantage if there is an opportunity for misconduct. a. rules-based
b. statement of mission c. ethical
d. compliance e. punitive

9. The apathetic organizational culture exhibits
a. high concern for people but minimal concern for performance. b. little concern for people but a high concern for performance.
c. minimal concern for people and performance. d. high concern for people and performance.
e. no concern for maintaining a cohesive organizational culture.

10. The exacting organizational culture is interested in
a. performance but has little concern for employees. b. investors’ impressions of profitability.
c. maintaining a strong corporate culture. d. employees and performance.
e. employees’ impressions.

11. Associating with others who are unethical and who have the opportunity to act unethically can lead to a learning process known as
a. compliance. b. misconduct. c. opportunity.
d. differential equations.
e. differential association.

12. Which of the following statements about corporate culture is false?
a. Corporate culture refers to the patterns and rules that govern the behavior of an organization and its employees, particularly the shared values, beliefs, and customs.
b. The values and ethical beliefs that actually guide the firm’s employees tend not to be the same ones that management states as defining the firm’s culture.
c. Corporate culture includes the behavioral patterns, concepts, values, ceremonies, and rituals that take place in an organization.
d. The culture of an organization may be explicitly stated or unspoken.
e. Failure to monitor or manage an organization’s culture may foster unethical behavior.

13. No formal dress codes, working late, participation in extracurricular activities, gestures, and legends represent a. a complacent workplace.
b. codes of ethics.
c. a firm’s organizational chart.
d. formal expressions of an organization’s culture.
e. informal expressions of an organization’s culture.

14. A cultural audit may be used to identify a. how cultured a firm’s employees are. b. unethical employees.
c. unethical organizations.
d. an organization’s culture. e. organizational structure.

15. The 2010 passage of the Dodd-Frank Act proposed additional monetary incentives for whistle-blowers. A primary concern about these new incentives is
a. they will encourage too many employees to attempt to blow the whistle on firms, even those that have done nothing wrong.
b. people do not generally respond at all to monetary incentives.
c. whistle-blowers might be tempted to report to the SEC with their reports and not report the misconduct to the
company’s internal compliance program.
d. people may exaggerate their claims in order to get a reward.
e. the funds paid out to whistle-blower might bankrupt companies.

16. Marcus is the top-performing development director his non-profit organization has ever had. He possesses countless tricks and tips to continue to bring in donations, positive publicity, and supporters. Marcus would likely have
over new development department staff. a. coercive power
b. group power
c. legitimate power d. expert power
e. democratic power

17.

bring together the functional expertise of employees from several different areas of the organization on a single project.
a. Quality circles
b. Informal groups c. Teams
d. Work groups e. Committees

18. Individuals, often from the same department, who band together for purposes that may or may not be relevant to the organization are called
a. quality circles.
b. informal groups. c. teams.
d. work groups. e. committees.

19. In order for whistle-blowing to be effective, a. financial compensation must be very high.
b. employees must wish ill on the organization for which they work.
c. lawmakers must make an effort to force employees to discuss details about the misconduct.
d. it requires that the individual have adequate knowledge of wrongdoing that could damage society. e. it must occur at a very large multinational corporation.

20. Which of the following statements about group norms is false?
a. Group norms define the limit on deviation from group expectations.
b. Group norms have the power to force a strong degree of conformity among group members.
c. Management must carefully monitor the norms of all the various groups within the organization, as well as the organization’s corporate culture.
d. Sanctions may be necessary to bring in line a group whose norms deviate sharply from the overall culture. e. Group norms never conflict with the overall organization’s culture.

21. Management’s sense of the organization’s culture a. is always the same as employees’ perceptions. b. is usually easily adopted by employees.
c. is always readily evident to employees.
d. may be quite different from employees’ perceptions. e. is always different from employees’ perceptions.

22. Motivation is defined as
a. a person’s incentive or drive to work.
b. a force within the individual that focuses his or her behavior on achieving a goal. c. personal ambition without regard to the impact on others.
d. a desire to be finished with a project. e. individual goals.

23. When a foreman orders an assembly-line employee to carry out a task, which the employee perceives as unethical yet the employee feels compelled to complete, the foreman is exercising
a. legitimate power. b. expert power.
c. reward power.
d. contingent punishment power.
e. noncontingent reward behavior.

24. To motivate employees, an organization offers to employees to work toward organizational objectives. a. punishment; force
b. peer pressure; guilt
c. incentives; encourage d. rewards; bribe
e. threats; frighten

25. Which of the following cultures combines high levels of concern for people and performance?
a. Apathetic culture b. Caring culture
c. Integrative culture d. Exacting culture
e. Cooperative culture

26. Ethical concerns in centralized structures can occur because of very little a. mobility.
b. upward communication. c. scapegoating.
d. downward communication. e. communication rigidity.

27. A high concern for people but minimal concern for performance can best describe the culture. a. caring
b. apathetic c. exacting
d. shareholder e. employee

28. The establishment of an ethics committee within an organization a. is usually highly informal.
b. is usually organized around general business topics.
c. might raise ethical concerns or resolve ethical dilemmas. d. usually always succeeds.
e. usually increases ethical tension.

29. Which of the following is not a form of retaliation commonly experienced by whistle-blowers?
a. Relocation or reassignment b. No promotion or raises
c. The cold shoulder by coworkers d. Exclusion from work activities
e. Praise by supervisors for their honesty

30. are used to subdivide duties within functional areas of a company. a. Work groups
b. Individuals c. Experts
d. Consultants e. Committees

31. The

leader demands instantaneous obedience and focuses on punishing wrong behavior, achievement,

initiative, and self-control. a. democratic
b. coaching c. affiliative d. coercive
e. pacesetting

32. Melinda is a very popular executive. She inspires her employees to follow a common vision, facilitates change, and creates a strongly positive climate, all while stressing performance. Melinda has helped to create a(n) culture. a. authoritative
b. caring
c. integrative d. exacting
e. affiliative

33.

are satisfied by social and interpersonal relationships, and activities.
a. Growth needs; relatedness needs b. Personal needs; group needs
c. Coercive needs; ethical needs
d. Relatedness needs; growth needs e. Group needs; personal needs

are satisfied by creative or productive

34. Over the years, scholars have developed more than 100 definitions of culture. According to the text, all have the following common elements:
a. Culture is shared, relatively stable, and is formed over a long period of time. b. Culture is not shared, stable, and is formed over a long period of time.
c. Culture is shared, not stable, and is formed over a long period of time. d. Culture is shared, stable, and is formed over a short period of time.
e. Culture is man-made, shared, not stable, and is formed over a short period of time.

35. Because researchers have defined culture so many different ways, interchangeably.
a. cultural cues; management
b. cultural values; anthropology c. cultural values; culture
d. cultural cues; laws
e. cultural cues; management

and

are often used

36. Both individual ethics and organizational ethics have an impact on an employee’s
a. productivity.
b. personal happiness. c. compensation.
d. fitness level.
e. ethical intention.

37. A values-based ethics approach to ethical corporate cultures relies on a(n)
how customers and employees should be treated a. set of laws
b. explicit mission statement c. strong CEO
d. ethical audit
e. relaxed corporate culture

that defines the firm as well as

38. The idea that people learn ethical or unethical behavior while interacting with others who are a part of their role-sets is referred to as
a. differential dissonance.
b. cognitive memory dissonance. c. cognitive association.
d. differential association. e. casual interaction.

39. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act
a. only applies to firms with over 50 employees. b. has institutionalized internal whistle-blowing.
c. has placed more power under the Securities and Exchange Commission. d. requires all organizations to make their financial information public.
e. involves too many complicated steps for it to be feasible for most organizations.

40. The

rule explains variation in employee conduct through generalizing on the percentage of employees in any

given organization who will seek to do right versus how many will be indifferent. a. 10-30-40-20
b. 20-30-30-20 c. 40-10-10-40 d. 10-40-40-10 e. 80-20

41. Why do centralized organizations tend to be more ethical than decentralized ones? Can you think of a situation or example in which a decentralized organization might be more ethical than a centralized one?

42. How do societal expectations affect corporations and their ethical initiatives? Give an example of a company that
had to alter a product or service because of society’s concerns about its health, moral, or social impacts.

43. Describe the four organizational cultures and provide a company example of each organizational culture.

44. Describe the different kinds of power. Are some types of power more likely to result in ethical behavior than others?

45. How do group norms influence the ethical behavior of an organization? What happens when the norms of a particular group conflict with the organization’s corporate culture or objectives?

Chapter 8

1. Fostering ethical decision making within an organization requires improving the firm’s ethical standards and a. not doing business with suppliers.
b. implementing a hiring freeze.
c. training the “bad apples” so they are not bad anymore.
d. terminating ethical persons.
e. terminating the “bad apples” in the organization.

2. Which of the following statements about codes of conduct is false?
a. They are formal statements of what an organization expects of its employees. b. They guarantee an ethical business climate.
c. They help employees determine what behaviors are acceptable. d. They provide rules and guidelines for employees to follow.
e. They should be specific enough to be reasonably capable of preventing misconduct.

3. A strong ethics program includes all of the following elements except
a. a clause promising good stock market performance. b. a written code of conduct or ethics.
c. formal ethics training.
d. auditing, monitoring, enforcement, and revision of standards. e. an ethics officer to oversee the program.

4. In the absence of ethics programs, employees are likely to make decisions based on a. their observations of how their coworkers and superiors behave.
b. how they and their family members behave at home. c. their conscience.
d. their religious values. e. their family values.

5. are formal statements that describe what an organization expects of its employees in terms of ethical behavior.
a. Mission statements b. Codes of conduct
c. Policies on confidentiality d. Environmental policies
e. The Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations

6. What is not a common mistake when designing and implementing an ethics program?
a. Failing to fully understand the goals of the program b. Not setting realistic or measurable goals
c. Having top management take ownership of the ethics program
d. Developing materials that do not address the needs of the average employee
e. Transferring a program between countries and cultures without making adjustments

7. A(n)

orientation creates order by requiring that employees identify with and commit to specific required

conduct, whereas a(n)
a. obedience; values b. compliance; values c. legal; values
d. values; compliance
e. values; obedience

orientation strives to develop shared standards.

8. For an ethical compliance program to properly function,
a. consistent enforcement and disciplinary action are essential. b. employees must be monitored using any means necessary. c. it is not necessary to set measurable program objectives.
d. the same program should be used in all countries of operation, regardless of cultural differences. e. the company must wait until after misconduct occurs to develop a means of preventing it.

9. Which of the following is the most comprehensive?
a. Code of values
b. Code of conduct c. Code of ethics
d. Statement of values
e. Statement of principles

10. At the heart of the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations is a a. “tit-for-tat” philosophy that punishes wrongdoing.
b. Golden Rule philosophy.
c. Iron Fist philosophy severely punishes wrongdoing.
d. carrot-and-stick philosophy that rewards efforts to improve ethics. e. utilitarian philosophy of the greatest good for the greatest number.

11. The Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations require federal judges to increase fines for organizations that continually
a. improve their ethics programs. b. eliminate misconduct.
c. fail to install a Federal Sentencing Guidelines program. d. fail to report ethics program activities.
e. tolerate misconduct.

12. Which of the following legislation has increased the responsibilities on ethics officers and boards of directors to monitor financial reporting?
a. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
b. Robinson Patman Act
c. Ethics Officer Responsibility Act d. Sherman Antitrust Act
e. Enron Financial Responsibility Act

13.

may be more inclined to engage in unethical organizational conduct because of social isolation that creates insensitivity and a lower level of motivation to regulate ethical decision making.
a. Low-level employees
b. International managers c. Top managers
d. Government officials
e. Fortune 500 companies

14. Top managers tend to focus on returns.
a. financial performance b. employee satisfaction
c. ethical performance

because their jobs and personal identity are often connected to quarterly

d. the board of directors’ recommendations
e. adherence to the code of conduct

15. All of the following are useful in monitoring ethical conduct and measuring the effectiveness of the ethical program
except
a. observation of employees. b. internal audits.
c. firing.
d. surveys.
e. reporting systems.

16. A code of ethics that does not address specific high-risk activities within the scope of daily activities is a. sufficient.
b. inadequate. c. satisfactory.
d. acceptable as long as individual values prevent misconduct.
e. acceptable according to the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations.

17. Organizational can contribute to diminished employee trust and increased employee turnover. a. leadership succession
b. compensation policies c. ethics programs
d. rules
e. misconduct

18. Most executives feel that which of the following is the primary reason for much of the unchecked misconduct in business?
a. Bad employees
b. An inattentive board of directors c. Customer pressures
d. Financial performance pressures
e. Inadequate ethics and compliance programs

19. Which of the following is an advantage of a values-based ethics program over a compliance-based one?
a. Employees learn to make decisions based on values such as fairness, compassion, respect, and transparency. b. Diverse employees have differing values.
c. It requires employees to identify with and commit to specific required conduct.
d. A values orientation uses legal terms, statutes, and contracts that teach employees the rules and penalties for noncompliance.
e. Values and compliance programs both take basically the same approach.

20. Which of the following is a common mistake made in implementing an ethics program?
a. Setting realistic and measurable program objectives
b. Developing materials that do not address the needs of the average employee c. Adapting a firm’s ethics program to its international operations
d. Allowing employees to practice the skills they learn in ethics training through case studies and/or group exercises
e. Management taking ownership of the ethics program

21. Aurico is a company that offers ethics hotline maintenance and monitoring services for organizations. Which component of the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations compliance program does this service help organizations to satisfy?
a. Code of conduct
b. Enforcement of standards, codes, and rules c. Delegation of authority to ethical persons
d. Systems for monitoring, auditing, and reporting misconduct e. Ethics training

22. Organizations can become “bad barrels” not because of unethical individuals but because a. the pressure to succeed creates opportunities that reward unethical decisions.
b. the pressure to succeed creates opportunities that punish unethical decisions. c. they lack leadership.
d. they lack values.
e. they have no “bad apples.”

23. Which of the following statements about training is false?
a. It can educate employees about the firm’s policies and expectations, as well as about relevant laws and regulations and general social standards.
b. It can dictate personal ethics on the job.
c. It can make employees aware of available resources, support systems, and designated personnel who can assist them with ethical and legal advice.
d. It can empower employees to ask tough questions and make ethical decisions.
e. It can affect the influence of organizational culture, coworkers and superiors, and opportunity.

24. Which of the following is not an advantage of having a comprehensive code of conduct?
a. To guide employees in situations where the ethical course of action is not obvious. b. To help a company remain in compliance with complex government regulations.
c. To help employees fight for satisfactory levels of compensation and benefits.
d. To help promote constructive social change by raising awareness of the community’s needs and encouraging
employees and other stakeholders to help.
e. To build public trust and enhance business reputations.

25. A

generates an ethical program that creates order by requiring that employees identify with and commit to

specific required conduct using legal terms and statutes. a. values orientation
b. code of conduct
c. statement of values d. code of ethics
e. compliance orientation

26. In the long run, a(n)

orientation may be better for companies, perhaps because it increases employees’

awareness of ethics issues at work. a. code
b. obedience c. compliance d. values
e. individual

27. Which of the following is not a main goal of successful ethics programs?
a. Identify key risk areas that employees will face.
b. Align employee conduct with organizational reputation and branding.
c. Provide a hierarchy of leadership for employees to contact when they are faced with an ethical dilemma that they do not know how to resolve.
d. Allow employees to solve ethical issues themselves using their best judgment.
e. Allow a mechanism for employees to voice their concerns that is anonymous, but allows for the provision of feedback to key questions.

28. The individual responsible for implementing disciplinary action for violation of a firm’s ethics standards is usually the a. CEO.
b. president.
c. immediate supervisor. d. ethics officer.
e. Chairman of the board.

29. To ensure that an ethics program addresses the needs of the average employee, it should include all of the following
except
a. feedback from employees across the firm. b. a question-and-answer section.
c. additional resources for guidance. d. lengthy legal documents.
e. checklists, illustrations, and cartoons where appropriate.

30.

serve as a central contact point where critical comments, dilemmas, and advice can be assigned to the person most appropriate for handling a specific case.
a. Training programs b. Mission statements c. Codes of conduct
d. Hotlines
e. Boards of directors

31. One of the main reasons employees do not report observed misconduct is a. apathy.
b. most employees do not observe any misconduct. c. fear of retaliation.
d. laws and regulations protect the employee committing the misconduct. e. hotlines do not work well.

32. The ultimate “stick” associated with the FSGO is fines or probation, which involves on-site observation by consultants, monitoring of the company’s ethical compliance efforts, and
a. reporting to the U.S. Sentencing Commission on the company’s progress in avoiding misconduct. b. installation of an ethics hotline.
c. payment of any penalties levied.
d. appointment of an appropriate high-level manager to oversee the company’s program. e. divestiture of all assets.

33. Which of the following strives to create order by requiring that employees identify with and commit to specific required conduct?
a. Conduct orientation b. Values orientation
c. Coercive orientation
d. Obedience orientation e. Compliance orientation

34. Because top managers may be more insensitive to ethical issues due to their focus on financial performance, the
FSGO guidelines suggest that ethics officers report to the instead. a. stock market
b. board of directors c. middle managers d. customers
e. stakeholders

35. With regard to ethics, training and communication initiatives should reflect a. the structure of the board of directors.
b. the organization’s stock performance. c. the organization’s size.
d. the unique characteristics of an organization. e. the self-interest of the CEO.

36. What are some of the ways that organizations can develop effective ethics programs?

ANSWER: Refer to Table 8-1, Minimum Requirements for Ethics and Compliance Programs.
1. Standards and procedures, such as codes of ethics, that are reasonably capable of detecting and preventing misconduct
2. High-level personnel who are responsible for an ethics and compliance program
3. No substantial discretionary authority given to individuals with a propensity for misconduct
4. Standards and procedures communicated effectively via ethics training programs
5. Systems to monitor, audit, and report misconduct
6. Consistent enforcement of standards, codes, and punishment
7. Continuous improvement of the ethics and compliance program

37. How can ethical dilemmas and behavioral simulations help employees make more ethical decisions?

ANSWER: Many feel “hands on” training when employees are forced to confront actual or hypothetical ethical dilemmas helps them understand how their organization would like them to deal with potential problems. Lockheed Martin, for example, developed training games that include dilemmas that can be resolved in teams. Each team member offers his or her perspective, thereby helping other team members fully understand the ramifications of a decision for coworkers and the organization.

38. What are the major features of a successful ethics training program and communication systems? Think of an example of a company with strong employee ethics training.

39. What is the role of an ethics officer within an organization? What are his or her duties? To whom does the FSGO
guidelines recommend that the ethics officer report?

40. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of implementing an ethics program with a compliance orientation versus one with a values orientation. Is one better than the other at maintaining an ethical organization?

Chapter 9

1. Which of the following does not have a significant impact on the success of an ethics program?
a. Senior management’s ability to successfully incorporate ethics into the organization
b. The quality of communication c. The size of the company
d. The content of the company’s code of ethics
e. The frequency of communication regarding the ethical code and program

2. Which of the following statements about ethics audits is false?
a. They provide an opportunity to measure conformity to the firm’s desired ethical standards.
b. Social audits and ethics audits perform basically the same function, so organizations can use them interchangeably.
c. They provide an objective method for demonstrating a company’s commitment to improving strategic planning, including its compliance with legal and ethical standards and social responsibility.
d. They can be a component of social audits.
e. They are systematic evaluations of an organization’s ethics program and performance to determine whether it is effective.

3. Which of the following is a possible unintended consequence of an organization’s focusing more on ethics planning
than on implementation?
a. Unethical conduct is viewed as acceptable behavior. b. The government implements its own audits.
c. The ethics program is poorly designed. d. Employees become annoyed.
e. The implementation process incurs large costs for the organization.

4. A(n) is a tool that companies can employ to identify and measure their ethical commitment to stakeholders. a. ethics audit
b. social audit
c. financial audit
d. performance audit e. external audit

5. Which of the following is not a step in the ethics auditing process?
a. Secure commitment of top executives and directors.
b. Review organizational mission, goals, values and policies, and define ethical priorities. c. Report the results to the U.S. Sentencing Commission.
d. Collect and analyze relevant information. e. Verify the results.

6. Which of the following is a statement that attests that the financial statements made in an audit are fairly stated, without limitations?
a. Adverse opinion b. Qualified opinion
c. Unqualified opinion d. Favorable opinion
e. Disclaimer of opinion

7. Under the statements.

, CEOs and CFOs may be criminally prosecuted if they knowingly certify misleading financial

a. Sherman Antitrust Act b. Ethical Compliance Act c. Robinson-Patman Act
d. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
e. Sherman Antitrust Act

8. During which of the following steps of the ethics auditing process does an organization identify the tools or methods
for measuring progress in improving employees’ ethical decisions and conduct?
a. Secure commitment of top managers and directors b. Establish a committee to oversee the audit
c. Define the scope of the audit
d. Collect and analyze relevant information e. Verify the results

9. Any attempt to verify outcomes and to compare them with standards can be considered a(n)
although many smaller firms do not use this word. a. ethical
b. auditing c. formal
d. informal
e. accounting

activity,

10.

are a primary stakeholder group and should be included in the ethics auditing process because their loyalty determines an organization’s success.
a. Customers b. Employees
c. Special interest groups d. Competitors
e. Legislators

11. The concept of ethics auditing emerged from the movement to audit and report on companies’ broader initiatives.
a. product development b. legal compliance
c. risk management d. public relations
e. social responsibility

12. Which of the following is probably the best way for a manager to provide good ethics leadership?
a. Hire an ethics officer
b. Write a code of conduct c. Conduct ethics audits
d. Set a good example
e. Only hire good employees

13. Which of the following is not a benefit of ethics auditing? a. It can improve a firm’s performance and effectiveness. b. It can increase a firm’s attractiveness to investors.
c. It can identify potential risks.
d. It can harm relationships with stakeholders.
e. It can reduce the risks associated with misconduct.

14. The word

implies a balanced organization that makes ethical financial decisions and also is ethical in more

subjective matters of corporate culture. a. compliance
b. integrity
c. financial management d. corporate culture
e. transparency

15. Which of the following is not a measure of ethical climate?
a. Collective skill
b. Collective ethical sensitivity c. Collective character
d. Collective judgment
e. Collective moral motivation

16. During which step of the auditing process should a firm examine all documents that make explicit commitments to ethical, legal, or social responsibility?
a. Secure commitment of top managers and directors. b. Establish a committee to oversee the audit.
c. Define the scope of the audit process.
d. Review organizational mission, goals, values, and policies. e. Verify the results.

17. A(n)

is a financial accounting firm that offers social auditing services or a nonprofit special interest group

with auditing experience that verifies the results of ethics auditing data analysis a. stakeholder
b. ethics audit consultant c. best practices expert d. financial consultant
e. board of directors

18. The process of verifying the results of an audit should involve standard procedures that control the information.
a. completeness
b. effectiveness and efficiency c. reliability and validity
d. independence
e. veracity

of the

19. Which of the following is not one of the top challenges facing CEOs today? . a. Keeping pace with regulation
b. Protecting against risks
c. Managing and utilizing social media d. Gaining adequate compensation
e. Managing reputation

20. Two useful indicators for assessing employee issues are a. staff turnover and stock price.
b. staff turnover and employee satisfaction. c. staff turnover and honesty.
d. employee satisfaction and attendance. e. employee satisfaction and productivity.

21. At which stage of the ethics auditing process would a hospital conduct focus groups with management, doctors, nurses, related health professionals, support staff, and patients?
a. Collect and analyze relevant information
b. Review organizational mission, goals, values, and policies c. Identify stakeholders
d. Report the results e. Verify the results

22. While ideally the board of directors financial audit committee conducts ethics audits, in most firms they are conducted by
a. managers or ethics officers. b. executive officers.
c. the CEO.
d. outside consultants.
e. secondary stakeholders.

23. Because ethics and social audits are

, there are few standards that a company can apply with regard to

reporting frequency, disclosure requirements, and remedial actions that it should take in response to results. a. not necessary
b. expensive
c. required by law d. mandatory
e. voluntary

24. What are the three Triple Bottom Line factors incorporated into the Global Reporting Initiative framework?
a. Economic, social, personal indicators
b. Political, social, and environmental indicators
c. Economic, social, and environmental indicators
d. Political, individual, and environmental indicators e. Political, individual, and personal indicators

25. What should be the first step in the auditing process?
a. Secure the commitment of top executives and directors b. Define the scope of the audit
c. Establish a committee to oversee the audit d. Collect and analyze data
e. Review organizational mission, goals, values, and policies

26. Retaliation against employees that report misconduct is a problem in cultures. a. weak ethical
b. strong ethical
c. high power distance d. diverse
e. international

27. Which of the following is not a phase of escalation during an ethical disaster?
a. The firm’s discovery of the misconduct b. Ethical issue recognition
c. The firm’s response to the misconduct d. The decision to act unethically
e. The firm’s decision to conduct an ethics audit

28. Which of the following is not a technique for collecting evidence during the ethics audit?
a. Ratio analysis
b. Observing the data-collection process c. Publishing the results of the audit
d. Examining internal and external documents
e. Confirming information in the firm’s accounting records

29.

report.

is an independent assessment of the quality, accuracy, and completeness of a company’s social or ethics

a. Publication b. Verification c. Auditing
d. Analysis
e. Validation

30. What should be the final step in the ethics auditing process?
a. Define the scope of the audit
b. Secure the commitment of top managers and directors c. Collect and analyze data
d. Report the findings e. Verify the results

31. Ethics audits can help companies identify potential before they reach crisis dimensions.
a. competitive advantages b. risks and liabilities
c. productivity issues
d. technological glitches e. market opportunities

so they can implement plans to eliminate or reduce them

32. During the data-collection phase of the audit, the primary objective is to generate a variety of opinions about how the company is perceived and whether it is
a. fulfilling employee benefits commitments. b. bringing in new customers.
c. meeting profit projections.
d. meeting earnings projections.
e. fulfilling stakeholders’ expectations.

33. Independent verification of the ethics audit is important because it lends the report a. credibility and formality.
b. credibility and reliability. c. credibility and objectivity. d. objectivity and civility.
e. objectivity and reliability.

34. When The Gap posts the results of its ethics audit on its web site, it is engaged in which of the following steps of the ethics auditing process?
a. Submit the results to the U.S. Sentencing Commission b. Define the scope of the audit
c. Collect and analyze relevant information d. Verify the results
e. Report the results

35. While social reports often discuss issues related to a firm’s performance in the four dimensions of social responsibility, as well as to specific social responsibility and ethical issues, ethics audits have a narrower focus on assessing and reporting on a firm’s performance in terms of
a. ethical and legal conduct.
b. environmental performance. c. financial performance.
d. customer satisfaction. e. ethical misconduct.

36. Compare and contrast ethics auditing and financial auditing. How can the tools of financial auditing be applied to ethics audits?

37. Explain the benefits and risks of ethics auditing.

38. How can companies secure stakeholder input during an ethics audit? Why is it important to do so?

39. Describe the process of conducting an ethics audit in detail.

40. What is the Global Reporting Initiative? What is its goal? Why has it grown in importance?

Chapter 10

1. identified four cultural dimensions that can have a profound impact on the business environment:
individualism/collectivism, power distance, uncertainty avoidance, and masculinity/femininity. a. Milton Friedman
b. Abraham Maslow c. Adam Smith
d. Geert Hofstede
e. John Maynard Keynes

2. products encourage consumers to return and buy more. This approach is also known as planned obsolescence.
a. Laissez-faire b. Dumping
c. Collectivistic
d. Made-to-break e. Multinational

3. is a term used by Adam Smith to explain the inherent mechanisms at work in free market systems that keep
commerce in equilibrium. It is also known as the “invisible hand.”
a. Consumerism
b. Cultural relativism c. Social democracy d. Laissez-fair
e. Bimodal wealth distribution

4. assumes that humans may not act rationally because of genetics, learned behavior, and rules of thumb. a. Rational economics
b. Socialism
c. Cultural relativism d. National culture
e. Behavioral economics

5. Which of the following statements about multinational corporations (MNCs) is false?
a. MNCs are corporate organizations that operate on a global scale without significant ties to any one nation or region.
b. MNCs are inherently unethical and always do harm in the countries in which they operate.
c. MNCs are characterized by a global strategy of focusing on opportunities throughout the world.
d. Some MNCs are so large and powerful that their revenues are greater than the gross domestic products of many countries.
e. Because of their size and power, MNCs have been the subject of much criticism and the source of a number of ethical issues.

6. Increasing the wealth gap between nations and misusing and misallocating scarce resources are ethical issue accusations related to
a. cultural differences.
b. multinational corporations. c. consumerism.
d. legal differences.
e. international negotiations.

7. Which of the following is not a criticism of or charge against multinational corporations (MNCs)?
a. They transfer jobs overseas, where wage rates are lower b. They increase the gap between rich and poor nations
c. They pay excessively high taxes everywhere
d. They exploit the labor markets of host countries
e. They have an unfair advantage when competing with local businesses

8. Which of the following is a measure taken by governments to curtail MNC practices that create ethical issues?
a. Levying import taxes to lower the prices MNCs charge for their products b. Halting the establishment of minimum wage laws
c. Avoiding the United Nations’ monitoring efforts d. Preventing the formation of labor unions
e. Imposing export taxes to force MNCs to share more of their profits

9. occurs when the middle class shrinks, resulting in highly concentrated wealth amongst the rich and a large number of poor people with very few resources.
a. Communism b. Socialism
c. Bimodal wealth distribution d. A two-class social structure e. Laissez-faire capitalism

10. An unconscious reference to one’s own cultural values, experiences, and knowledge is referred to as the a. cultural reference criterion.
b. unconscious cultural criterion. c. cultural-self criterion.
d. self-reference criterion.
e. unconscious cultural-self criterion.

11. When in Rome, do as the Romans do, or you must adapt to the cultural practices of the country in which you are operating are rationalizations businesspeople sometimes offer for straying from their own ethical values when doing business abroad. This practice is called
a. self-reference criterion. b. country cultural values. c. consumerism.
d. cultural relativism. e. dumping.

12.

involves transactions across national boundaries. It is a practice that brings together people who have different cultures, values, laws, and ethical standards.
a. Global business
b. Country cultural values c. Social democracy
d. Cultural relativism
e. Bimodal wealth distribution

13. What concept refers to economic theories advocating the creation of a society where wealth and power are distributed evenly, relative to the amount of work expended in production?
a. Rational economics b. Socialism
c. Capitalism
d. Rational capitalism e. Fascism

14. Risk compartmentalization occurs when
a. companies place their most problematic employees into separate profit centers so that they cannot influence one another to act unethically.
b. all profit centers within a corporation are aware of the code of ethics.
c. all profit centers within an organization become aware of the consequences of competitors’ actions.
d. various profit centers within an organization become unaware of the consequences of their actions on the firm as a whole.
e. ethics and compliance programs reduce the risk of misconduct.

15.

has been codified in a United Nations document and is defined as an inherent dignity with equal and inalienable rights as the foundation of freedom, justice, and peace in the world.
a. Cultural relativism b. Human rights
c. Consumerism d. Dumping
e. Health care

16. Power distance dimension refers to the “power inequality” between superiors and subordinates. Which of the
following countries probably ranks high on the power distance scale?
a. Saudi Arabia b. Austria
c. England d. Denmark e. Sweden

17. Who argued during the 1930s that the state could stimulate economic growth and improve stability in the private sector?
a. Adam Smith
b. John Maynard Keynes c. Milton Friedman
d. Herbert Hoover e. Geert Hofstede

18. The practice of charging high prices for products sold in home markets while selling the same products in foreign markets at low prices, which do not cover the costs of exporting, is known as
a. price discrimination. b. price gouging.
c. dumping. d. skimming. e. loading.

19. assume(s) that a the market, through its own inherent mechanisms, will keep commerce in equilibrium. a. Social democracy
b. Laissez-faire economics c. Economics
d. Multinational corporations e. Rational economics

20. Those who ascribe to consumerism
a. believe that consumers should purchase everything they can afford. b. do not believe in taxes on locally made products.
c. believe that consumers should own the means of production.
d. believe that consumers, not producers, should dictate the economic structure of a society. e. believe that corporations should have the freedom to do whatever they want.

21.

is based upon the assumption that people are predictable and will maximize the utility of their choices relative to their needs and wants.
a. Rational economics b. Socialism
c. Capitalism
d. Behavioral economics e. Consumerism

22.

allows for private ownership of property and features a large government equipped to offer such services as education and health care to its citizens
a. Democracy b. Communism c. Socialism
d. Capitalism
e. Social democracy.

23. assumes that economic decisions are influenced by human behavior. a. Rational economics
b. Socialism c. Capitalism
d. Rational capitalism
e. Behavioral economics

24.

refers to how members of a society respond to ambiguity. A high score means that a culture tends to minimize risk-taking.
a. Rational economics b. National culture
c. Bimodal wealth distribution d. Power distance
e. Uncertainty avoidance

25. The

formed in 1995 and administers its own trade agreements, facilitates future trade negotiations, settles

trade disputes, and monitors the trade policies of member nations a. International Monetary Fund
b. United Nations
c. World Trade Organization
d. North American Free Trade Act e. European Union

26. What is a major role of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
a. It determines the credit ratings of countries.
b. It is the lender of last resort for individuals who cannot secure other types of loans. c. It functions as a collection agent for global banks.
d. It makes short-term loans to member countries that have deficits and provides foreign currencies for its members.
e. It provides mortgage loans to international home buyers.

27. Which of the following organizations emerged from the Bretton Woods agreement of 1944, where a group of international leaders decided that the primary responsibility for the regulation of monetary relationships among national economies should rest in an extra-national body?
a. International Monetary Fund b. United Nations
c. World Trade Organization
d. North American Free Trade Act e. European Union

28. These values were developed by a reverend and the UN Secretary General. They express support for universal human rights.
a. The Global Sullivan Principles b. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
c. FSGO
d. Global common values e. UN Global Compact

29. What is the purpose of the UN Global Compact?
a. To promote free trade around the world
b. To support international banking institutions c. To uphold the principle of consumerism
d. To provide legal representation to international corporations facing lawsuits e. To promote human rights, sustainability, and eradicate corruption

30. What is the AACSB?
a. A major international institution regulating banks around the world b. An accrediting institution for organizational ethics
c. A non-political international governing body
d. An international organization that promotes a set of principles promoting the teaching of responsible management in business schools
e. A group that promotes sustainability and environmental awareness

31. As business facilitates exchanges, consumption beyond basic needs will increase globally. The important issues related to consumerism include all but which of the following?
a. What are the impacts of production on the environment, on society, and on individuals?
b. What are the impacts of certain forms of consumerism on the environment, on society, and on individuals?
c. How much of what we deem necessary for consumption is influenced by corporations?
d. What are necessities and what are luxuries?
e. What are the impacts of poor countries’ consumption patterns on wealthy countries?

32. Which two developing countries are expected to generate some of the largest increases in consumption in the future?
a. The United States and Russia b. Russia and China
c. China and United States d. Brazil and Russia
e. China and India

33. According to the World Trade Organization, which of the following products and services are most vulnerable to protectionism?
a. Textbooks and other school supplies b. Travel agencies
c. Music and dance
d. Intellectual property
e. Shoes, cars, and steel

34. Which of the following is not an article in the UN Human Rights Declaration?
a. Freedom of religion
b. The right to work in favorable conditions c. The right to electricity and running water
d. The right to a home adequate for health and well-being
e. Mothers and children being entitled to a special level of care

35. The growth of the Internet and differing security laws between countries has led to an increase in concern for the human right of
a. religion.
b. a secure job. c. healthcare.
d. privacy.
e. freedom of speech.

36. Which of the following is not a key area of global ethical risk, as outlined by the Eurasia Group?
a. Political instability
b. Strained relations with China
c. Instability in emerging markets
d. Unequal levels of child labor laws
e. Outlook for Euro-zone countries remains weak

37. What is a living wage?
a. The minimum wage that a worker requires to meet basic needs. b. The wage at which the average worker can live really well.
c. It is a synonym for minimum wage.
d. The wage received by child workers in order to stay alive. e. A wage given to workers entirely in the form of food.

38. The benefit of healthcare is being debated as to whether it is a right or privilege. Which of the following countries does not consider health care to be a right?
a. The United States b. France
c. Sweden d. Germany e. Canada

39. The

was a result of a meeting in which international leaders decided that primary responsibility for the

regulation of monetary relationships among nations should rest in an external body. a. United Nations
b. North American Free Trade Agreement c. World Trade Agreement
d. World Bank
e. International Monetary Fund

40. Which of the following has the power to enact legally binding ground rules for international commerce and trade policy?
a. Global Sullivan Principles b. World Trade Organization
c. Global Sullivan Organization d. Federal Trade Commission
e. Global Commerce Association

41. Why are many international business ethics issues different from domestic ethical issues?

global firm cannot succeed simply by applying its domestic ethical programs to other global environments. Although ethical issues such as honesty and integrity are common to most countries, differences in laws, political systems, and cultures require a more targeted approach to ethical decision making. Global ethics is not a “one size fits all” concept.

42. How can differences in two countries’ cultures create ethical issues in business?

43. Discuss the ethical issues associated with multinational corporations.

44. What are the roles of the IMF and the WTO in encouraging, monitoring, and regulating international trade?

45. What is dumping and why is it considered anticompetitive? Does the United States allow dumping?

Chapter 11

1. The leader demands instantaneous obedience and focuses on achievement, initiative, and self-control. a. democratic
b. coaching c. affiliative d. coercive
e. pacesetting

2. Which of the following types of leaders attempts to create employee satisfaction through bartering or negotiating for desired behaviors or level of performance?
a. Pacesetting leaders b. Coercive leaders
c. Transactional leaders
d. Transformational leaders e. Transmogrified leaders

3. Which of the following is not a habit of ethical leaders?
a. They are primarily concerned with themselves. b. They are proactive.
c. They have a passion to do right.
d. They are concerned with stakeholders’ interests. e. They are role models for organizational values.

4. Which of the following leadership types has a strong influence on coworker support and building an ethical culture through increasing employee commitment and fostering motivation?
a. Transformational leaders b. Transactional leaders
c. Coercive leaders
d. Pacesetting leaders e. Authoritative leaders

5. A coaching leader builds a positive climate by
a. valuing people, their emotions, and their needs.
b. focusing on communication across all layers of the organization.
c. inspiring employees to follow their departmental leaders without question. d. focusing on achievement, initiative, and self-control.
e. developing skills for success, delegating responsibility, and issuing challenging assignments.

6. Which leadership type values people, their emotions, and their needs and relies on friendship and trust to promote flexibility, innovation, and risk taking?
a. Authoritative leadership b. Coaching leadership
c. Pacesetting leadership d. Coercive leadership
e. Affiliative leadership

7. Sherry’s leadership style often creates a negative working climate because of the high standards she sets. Sherry is most likely a(n) leader.
a. autocratic b. democratic c. pacesetting d. empathetic e. coercive

8. are a primary influence on employee’s ethical behavior because they are role models for the organization’s
values.
a. Friends b. Parents c. Peers
d. Coworkers e. Leaders

9. As one of the seven habits of strong ethical leaders,

is “the glue that holds ethical concepts together.” This

trait can be developed early in life or developed over time through experience. a. adequate compensation
b. good employees
c. the passion to do right d. charisma
e. a great education

10. The

leader can create a negative climate because of the high standards that he or she sets. This style works

best for attaining quick results from highly motivated individuals who value achievement and take initiative. a. authoritative
b. affiliative
c. democratic d. coaching
e. pacesetting

11. The

of an organization can influence the acceptance of, adherence to, transmittal, and monitoring of

organizational norms, values, and codes of ethics. a. nation of origin
b. locus of control c. leadership style
d. production methods e. opportunity

12. Ethical leadership should be based on
a. holistic thinking that embraces the complex issues facing firms every day. b. a strong shareholder desire for profits.
c. the opinions of a leader who defines success in terms of group gratification. d. short­term thinking that looks at the firm’s health on a day­to­day basis.
e. people who embrace a transactional style of leadership.

13. A fundamental problem in traditional personal character development is that specific vales are used to teach about a philosophy, which may be inappropriate where cultural diversity and privacy must be respected. A solution is
a. to teach more general values to develop a set of basic beliefs.
b. to ignore moral philosophies and to train solely based on the organization’s code of conduct.
c. to teach completely different values and skills in different cultural environments.
d. to teach individuals intellectual skills that address the complexities of ethical issues in business.
e. to teach individuals the literary canons of the major philosophers from both western and eastern religions.

14. Strong ethical leaders have a passion for all of the following except to a. do the right thing.
b. be proactive
c. consider stakeholder interests
d. be role models for the organization and its employees. e. satisfy shareholders before other stakeholder groups.

15. Leaders whose decisions and actions are contrary to the firm’s values send a signal a. that the firm’s values are trivial or irrelevant.
b. that they are providing a good example of what not to do. c. that the firm’s corporate culture is highly important.
d. that they are working toward improving the ethical culture of the firm. e. that they care about the environment.

16. Which attribute of ethical leaders will not be effective unless the leader is personally involved in the organization’s
key ethical decisions?
a. Stakeholder compassion b. Proactive leadership
c. Transparency
d. Moral philosophy e. Compensation

17. Which type of leader relies on participation and teamwork to reach collaborative decisions?
a. Transformational b. Coercive
c. Democratic d. Coaching
e. Pacesetting

18. What is not a necessity for strong ethical leaders to make good decisions?
a. Complete information b. Courage
c. Experience making the right decisions d. Knowledge
e. The ability to coerce subordinates

19. Which of the following is not a way to avoid groupthink in small-group decision making?
a. Express the need to examine all alternatives. b. Assign one person to be “Devil’s advocate”.
c. Discourage team members from discussing the group’s ideas with people outside the group. d. Set up a number of independent groups to work on the same issue.
e. Emphasize to each team member that he or she is a “critical evaluator” with the responsibility to express opinions and objections freely.

20. is the ability or authority to guide and direct others toward a goal. a. Leadership
b. Collaboration c. Democracy
d. Transparency e. Pacesetting

21. These leaders are characterized as having superficial charm, no conscience, grandiose self-worth, little or no empathy, and enjoy flouting rules.
a. Unethical leaders
b. Psychopathic leaders c. Apathetic leaders
d. Ethical leaders
e. Charismatic leaders

22. This occurs when there are two or more positions on an ethical decision. a. Ethical leadership
b. Competing leadership c. Ethical conflicts
d. Empowerment
e. Interpersonal communication

23. Leaders having a(n) conflict management style are highly assertive and not very cooperative. a. Accommodating
b. Avoiding
c. Collaborating d. Competing
e. Compromising

24. Leaders having an accommodating conflict management style are a. Highly assertive and not very cooperative.
b. Not effective because they avoid conflict at any costs – even if it leads to misconduct. c. Highly cooperative but non-assertive.
d. In between the assertiveness and cooperativeness dimensions. e. Cooperative and assertive.

25. Leaders with a(n)

conflict management style desire to meet the needs of stakeholders and strongly adhere to

organizational values and principles. a. Avoiding
b. Competing
c. Compromising
d. Accommodating e. Collaborating

26. A

-based culture encourages employees to express concerns, bring up ethical issues, and take a proactive

approach toward resolving conflicts. a. Values
b. Profits
c. Consumers
d. Shareholders e. Stakeholders

27. and reporting are two major dimensions of ethical communication. a. Collaboration
b. Transparency c. Recognition
d. Listening
e. Compromising

28. is a two-way process in which the communicator communicates with superiors and subordinates. a. Cooperation
b. Transparency
c. Leader-follower congruence d. Reporting
e. Collaboration

29. The four categories of communication include all of the following except a. Reporting
b. Small group communication c. Nonverbal communication
d. Interpersonal communication e. Listening

30.

occurs when one or more group members feel pressured to conform to the group’s decision even if they personally disagree.
a. Group polarization
b. Leader-follower congruence c. Groupthink
d. Competition e. Conflict

31. When a group is more likely to move toward a more extreme position than the group members might have done individually, this is referred to as
a. Leader-follower congruence b. Groupthink
c. Values-based culture d. Ethical leadership
e. Group polarization

32. This occurs when leaders and followers share the same vision, ethical expectations, and objectives for the company. a. Groupthink
b. Leader-follower congruence c. Group polarization
d. Values-based culture e. Ethical leadership

33. provide(s) important guidelines for employees on how to act in different situations. a. Leader-exchange theory
b. Small group communication c. Interpersonal communication d. Codes of ethics
e. Leader-follower congruence

34. Gossip, manipulation, playing favorites, and taking credit for another’s work are all examples commonly associated with
a. Organizational politics b. Political skills
c. Competitiveness d. Groupthink
e. Ethical conflict

35. can be used to promote organizational goals and help rather than hinder other employees. a. Office politics
b. Political skills
c. Ethical conflict d. Democracy
e. Coercion

36.

leaders are passionate about the company, live out corporate values daily in their behavior in the workplace, and form long-term relationships with employees and other stakeholders.
a. Authentic b. Coaching
c. Transformational d. Transactional
e. Pacesetter

37. All of these are true about feedback except
a. Most companies recognize the need for organizational leaders to provide feedback to employees.
b. Most companies recognize the need for organizational leaders to get feedback from their employees.
c. Feedback can occur through informal methods like a simple conversation or through more formal systems such as employee performance evaluations.
d. Employee feedback can be generated in many different ways, including interviews, anonymous surveys, ethical audits, and websites.
e. Negative feedback is important to inform employees of weaknesses and provide constructive ways for improving them.

38.

leaders communicate a sense of mission, stimulate new ways of thinking, and enhance as well as generate new learning experiences.
a. Authentic
b. Democratic
c. Transformational d. Transactional
e. Cooperative

39. The most effective leaders possess the ability to manage themselves and their relationships with others effectively, a skill known as
a. Conflict management b. Group theory
c. Collaboration
d. Emotional intelligence
e. Leader-follower theory

40. These leaders are passionate about the company, live out corporate values daily in their behavior in the workplace, and form long-term relationships with employees and other stakeholders.
a. Transactional b. Compromising
c. Transformational d. quantitative
e. Authentic

41. The acronym RADAR stands for
a. Recognize, Answer, Discourage, Avoid, & Recover b. Recognize, Answer, Detect, Avoid, & Recover
c. Recover, Answer, Discourage, Avoid, & Recognize d. Recognize, Avoid, Detect, Answer, & Recover
e. Recover, Avoid, Detect, Answer, & Recognize

42. From an ethical standpoint, leaders should take time during this step of the RADAR model to fix any weaknesses in the ethics program and develop improved ways of detecting misconduct.
a. Detect b. Answer
c. Recovery d. Avoid
e. Recognize

43. This step of the RADAR model involves responding to the discovery of an ethical dilemma through communication both internally and externally.
a. answer b. recover
c. recognize d. avoid
e. detect

44. Which two steps of the RADAR model occur when a firm is faced with an ethical conflict or dilemma. a. recognize & avoid
b. answer & recover c. detect & avoid
d. answer & detect
e. recover and detect

45. Many managers are reluctant to engage in this step of the RADAR model because they fear doing so will uncover questionable conduct that could put the firm in an unfavorable light.
a. avoid
b. recover c. answer d. detect
e. recognize

Essay
46. Discuss the role of leadership in understanding and executing ethical decision making in organizations.

47. Describe the RADAR model, discussing key objectives needed to be obtained for each step of the model.

48. Discuss the differences between the five styles of conflict management and provide an example for each conflict management style.

49. Discuss the differences between groupthink and group polarization, providing examples of each.

50. Describe and differentiate between a compliance-based approach and an integrity-based approach to leadership.
Which approach is preferred, justify your response.

Chapter 12

1. All of the following are facts about water pollution, except:
a. Projected increases in fertilizer use suggest there will be a 10% – 20% global increase in nitrogen water contamination.
b. Up to 90% of wastewater in developing countries flow untreated into rivers, lakes, and coastal zones. c. In developing countries, 70% of industrial waste is dumped untreated into water sources.
d. Every day, 2 million tons of untreated human waste is put into some water source. e. Water use is projected to decrease by 50% within 20 years.

2. Trying to pinpoint who is responsible for environmental degradation is not always easy, especially when it involves
__________ .
a. different countries b. several managers
c. more than one CEO
d. differing regulatory agencies
e. both federal and local governments

3. One of the biggest factors in land pollution is the dumping of waste into landfills.
world’s biggest wasters.
a. European b. Chinese
c. Russian
d. American e. Canadian

consumers are by far the

4. The world’s forests are being destroyed at a rate of nearly 50,000 square miles annually. The reasons for this wide­
scale destruction are varied and include all except:
a. The boom in biofuels
b. The soil is great for farming c. Logging profits
d. Cycle of poverty
e. Converting land to other use

5. Although limiting urban sprawl creates disadvantages for renewal movements that reduce sprawl.
a. car and oil companies b. the airline industry
c. the railroad industry
d. service oriented companies e. humans and animals

, many businesses can benefit from urban

6. Because genetically modified seeds are

, farmers cannot keep any of the seed themselves but must

purchase seeds each year from companies such as Monsanto. a. so small
b. worthless
c. uncollectable d. invisible
e. patented

7. The first Earth Day, increasing stakeholder awareness of environmental concerns and the creation of the
Environmental Protection Agency brought to the forefront. a. corporate social responsibility
b. alternative energy sources c. diversity
d. sustainability e. competition

8. All of the following are goals of the Environmental Protection Agency, except:
a. Focus on the activities of business b. Protecting America’s water
c. Cleaning up communities and advancing sustainable development d. Taking action on climate change and improving air quality
e. Ensuring the safety of chemicals and preventing pollution

9. The Clean Air Act:
a. Allowed the EPA to track industrial chemicals
b. Focuses on promoting alternative forms of energy c. Established national air quality standards
d. Provides tax benefits to consumers who purchase hybrid cars e. Focuses on reducing pollution through cost-effective change

10. The Clean Water Act makes it illegal for anyone to discharge any pollutant from a point source directly into navigable waters without a .
a. good reason b. direct order c. permit
d. inspector present e. limit

11. The
raw materials use.

focuses on reducing pollution through cost-effective changes in production, operation, and

a. Pollution Prevention Act
b. Toxic Substances Control Act c. Clean Air Act
d. Energy Policy Act e. Oil Pollution Act

12. All of these are ways of reducing pollution, except:
a. Designing environmentally friendly buildings b. Recycling
c. Greenwashing
d. Source reduction
e. Sustainable agriculture

13. Congress passed the

to empower the EPA with the ability to track the 75,000 industrial chemicals

currently produced or imported into the United States. a. Federal Water Pollution Control Act
b. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act c. Safe Drinking Water Act
d. Toxic Substances Control Act e. Food Quality Protection Act

14. Wind power holds great promise for the United States because of the energy could meet as much as 20 percent of the nation’s energy needs. a. Rocky Mountains
b. Everglades c. Great Lakes d. Pacific Rim
e. Great Plains

, and experts believe wind

15. Geothermal energy provides alternative energy.
a. heat from the sun b. a radiated heat
c. heat from steam
d. a constant source of heat e. a dry heat

and is a more dependable energy source than some other forms of

16. Critics of nuclear power are concerned about all of the following, except:
a. Reduced emissions b. Worker safety
c. The transport of nuclear waste
d. Damage to plants from natural disasters e. Nuclear meltdowns

17. Perhaps the most controversial form of alternative energy after nuclear power is . a. hydopower
b. geothermal power c. solar power
d. wind power e. ethanol

18. in the United States,

provides only 7% of total output but provides 19% of total electricity

production worldwide, making it the largest form of renewable energy. a. wind power
b. geothermal power
c. hydroelectric power d. solar power
e. nuclear power

19. Many businesses responded to sustainability by adopting a triple-bottom line approach; taking into consideration social and environmental performance variables in addition to .
a. managerial performance b. economic performance
c. board of directors performance d. customer focus
e. stakeholder focus

20. A

business attempts to avoid dealing with environmental issues and hopes nothing bad happens or no

one ever finds out about an environmental accident or abuse. a. newly established
b. socially responsible c. low-commitment
d. bankrupt
e. law-abiding

21. is one of the country’s greatest sustainability success stories.
a. Water conservation b. Pollution control
c. Manufacturing d. Composting
e. Recycling

22. Stakeholder assessment is an important part of a approach to environmental issues. a. low-commitment
b. medium-commitment c. high-commitment
d. hands-off e. hands-on

23. Through

, it is possible to quantify the trade-offs to determine whether to accept or reject

environmentally-related activities and programs. a. risk management
b. management voting c. board directives
d. legal requirements e. customer input

24. Organizations highly committed to environmental responsibility may conduct an audit of their efforts and report the results to all interested .
a. agencies b. countries
c. stakeholders d. individuals
e. suppliers

25. Which option includes the assessment and improvement of business strategies, economic ectors, work practices, technologies, and lifestyles while maintaining the natural environment?
a. Competitive advantage b. Marketing
c. Sustainability d. Greenwashing e. Risk analysis

26. Sustainability is the long-term well-being of the natural environment and the mutually beneficial interactions among
_____.
a. customers, investors, managers, and policies
b. board members, presidents, managers, and nonprofit organizations c. investors, creditors, suppliers, and the marketing department
d. nature, individuals, organizations, and business strategies e. managers, boards, CEO’s, and stakeholder strategies

27. Which industry invests the most in alternative clean energy sources?
a. The automobile industry b. The clothing industry
c. The airline industry
d. The federal government e. The oil and gas industry

28. All of these are examples of social responsibility concerns, except:
a. Product price
b. Consumer protection c. Employee well-being d. Sustainability
e. Legal responsibilities

29. The protection of air, water, land, biodiversity, and emerged as a major issue in the twentieth century. a. employee relations
b. renewable natural resources
c. environmental legal regulations d. consumer protection
e. air pollution

30. can cause markedly shorter life spans, along with chronic respiratory problems in humans and animals. a. Water pollution
b. Air pollution
c. Global warming d. Deforestation
e. Acid rain

31. The Kyoto Protocol created in 1997 is an international treaty meant to curb global . a. natural resource use
b. greenwashing activities c. water pollution
d. greenhouse gas emissions e. competition

Essay
32. How does sustainability relate to ethical decision making and social responsibility?

33. Discuss the benefits of green marketing and the long-term pitfalls of greenwashing.

34. Why is the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) said to be the most influential regulatory agency?

Acc 206, acc 304, acc 350, acc 401, acc 410, acc 555, acc 557, acc 560, acc 563, acc 564, acc 571, acc 576, bus 230, bus 309, bus 310, bus 322, bus 335, bus 365, bus 402, bus 430, bus 508, bus 515, bus 517, bus 518, bus 519, bus 521, bus 536, cis 210, cis 499, cis 501, cis 502, cis 505, cis 513, cis 518, cis 519, cis 524, cis 562, eco 302, eco 305, eco 405, eco 410, eco 450, eco 550, fin 317, fin 350, fin 535, fin 540, hrm 500, hrm 510, hrm 522, hsa 590, leg 500, mgt 510, mkt 475, mkt 500, mkt 515, pad 500, pad 530, Week 11 Final Exam, Assignments, Quiz, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems

ACC 206 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-206-final-exam

Chapter 14 Through 19

 

ACC 304 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc304-final-exam

Week 11 Final Exam: Chapter 12 Through 16

 

ACC 350 Week 11 Final Exam Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-350-final-exam

Chapter 5 Through 10

 

ACC 401 Week 11 Quiz Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-401-final-exam

Quiz (Chapter 15 – 16) Final Exam (Chapter 5, 8, and 10 – 16)

 

ACC 410 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-410-final-exam

Chapter 6 Through 15

Part 1: Chapter 6 Through 10
Part 2: Chapter 11 Through 15

 

ACC 555 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-555-final-exam

Chapters 7 Through 14

 

ACC 557 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc557quizch14

Chapter 14

 

ACC 560 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer
Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-560-week-11-quiz

Week 11 Quiz 10: Chapter 14

 

ACC 563 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc563-final-exam

Week 11 Final Exam: Chapters 8 Through 17

 

ACC 564 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-564-week-11-discussions-2

 

ACC 571 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-571-week-11-discussion

 

ACC 576 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-576-week-11-discussion

 

BUS 230 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-230-week-11-quiz

Quiz Chapter 16 and 17

 

BUS 309 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-309-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 11

 

BUS 310 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-310-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 322 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-322-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 335 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-335-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 14

 

BUS 365 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-365-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 13 and 14

 

BUS 402 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-402-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 430 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-430-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 508 Week 11 Discussion Question – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-508-week-11-discussion

 

BUS 515 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-515-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 517 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-517-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 518 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-518-week-11-discussion

 

BUS 519 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-519-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 521 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-521-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 536 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-536-final-exam

Chapter 7 Through 12

 

CIS 210 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-210-final-exam

Chapters 7 Through 12

 

CIS 499 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-499-week-11-discussions

 

CIS 501 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-501-exam-and-quizzes

Chapters 1 Through 18

 

CIS 502 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-502-week-11-discussions

 

CIS 505 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-505-week-11-discussions

 

CIS 513 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-513-final-exam

Chapters 5 Through 8

 

CIS 518 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-518-week-11-discussions

 

CIS 519 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-519-exams

Chapter 1 Through 14

 

CIS 524 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-524-week-11-discussions

 

CIS 562 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-562-final-exam

Chapters 7 Through 16

 

ECO 302 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/eco-302-week-11-quiz

Chapter 17 and 18

 

ECO 305 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/eco-305-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 16 and 17

 

ECO 405 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/eco-405-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 14 and 15

 

ECO 410 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/eco-410-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 19 and 20

 

ECO 450 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/eco-450-final-exam

Chapters 8 Through 18

 

ECO 550 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/eco-550-week-11-discussions

 

FIN 317 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/fin-317-final-exam

Chapters 7 Through 15

 

FIN 350 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/fin-350-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 22 and 23

 

FIN 535 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/fin535-final-exam

Chapters 8 Through 21

 

FIN 540 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/fin-540-final-exam

Chapters 24 Through 30

 

HRM 500 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/hrm-500-week-11-discussions

 

HRM 510 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/hrm-510-final-exam

Chapters 8 Through 19

 

HRM 522 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/hrm-522-final-exam

Chapters 7 Through 12

 

HSA 590 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer
Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/hsa-590-exams

Chapter 1 Through 12

 

LEG 500 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/leg-500-week-11-discussion

 

LEG 500 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/law-final-exam

Chapters 1 Through 9

 

MGT 510 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/mgt-510-exams

Chapters 1 Through 15

 

MKT 475 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/mkt-475-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 15

 

MKT 500 Week 11 Discussion Question – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/mkt-500-week-11-discussions

 

MKT 515 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/mkt-515-final-exam

Chapter 9 Through 19

 

PAD 500 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/pad-500-week-11-discussions

 

PAD 530 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/pad-530-week-11-discussions

 

 

Acc 206, acc 304, acc 350, acc 401, acc 410, acc 555, acc 557, acc 560, acc 563, acc 564, acc 571, acc 576, bus 230, bus 309, bus 310, bus 322, bus 335, bus 365, bus 402, bus 430, bus 508, bus 515, bus 517, bus 518, bus 519, bus 521, bus 536, cis 210, cis 499, cis 501, cis 502, cis 505, cis 513, cis 518, cis 519, cis 524, cis 562, eco 302, eco 305, eco 405, eco 410, eco 450, eco 550, fin 317, fin 350, fin 535, fin 540, hrm 500, hrm 510, hrm 522, hsa 590, leg 500, mgt 510, mkt 475, mkt 500, mkt 515, pad 500, pad 530,
Week 11 Final Exam, Assignments, Quiz, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems,

ACC 206, ACC 303, ACC 304, ACC 350, ACC 401, ACC 410, ACC 555, ACC 556, ACC 557, ACC 560, ACC 562, ACC 563, ACC 564, ACC 565, ACC 571, ACC 576, BUS 230, BUS 309, BUS 310, BUS 322, BUS 325, BUS 335, BUS 365, BUS 402, BUS 430, BUS 508, BUS 515, BUS 517, BUS 518, BUS 519, BUS 521,BUS 536, CIS 210, CIS 499, CIS 501,CIS 505,CIS 513, CIS 518, CIS 519, CIS 524, CIS 562, ECO 302, ECO 305, ECO 405, ECO 410,ECO 450, ECO 550, FIN 317, FIN 320, FIN 350, FIN 534, FIN 535, FIN 540, HRM 500, HRM 510, HRM 522, HSA 590, LEG 320, LEG 500, MGT 510, MKT 475, MKT 500, MKT 515, PAD 500,PAD 530, Week 5 Midterm Exam, Quiz, Assignments, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems – Strayer University New

Need help with your exams and quizzes?

Visit: budapp.net

Search through our website for Exams and Quizzes Solutions, Assignments and Discussion Questions and ACE your class.If you cannot find what you are looking for, email us at
budapp247@gmail.com

ACC 206 Week 5 Mid-Term Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ACC-206-Accounting-Principles-II-Week-5-Mid-Term-Exam-Strayer-263.htm

Chapters 10 Through 13

 

 

ACC 303 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-303-Week-5-Midterm-Exam-Strayer-NEW-ACC303W5E.htm

Midterm Exam: Chapters 1 Through 4

 

 

ACC 304 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-304-Week-5-Midterm-Exam-Strayer-NEW-ACC304W5E.htm

Week 5 Midterm Exam: Chapters 8 Through 11

 

 

ACC 350 Week 5 Mid-Term Exam Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-350-Week-5-Mid-Term-Exam-Strayer-342.htm

Chapters 1 Through 4

 

 

ACC 401 Week 5 Quiz – Mid-Term Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ACC-401-Advanced-Accounting-Week-5-Quiz-Mid-Term-Exam-Strayer-273.htm

Chapter 1 Through 4, 6 and 7 (Quiz 6 – 7 – Mid-Term Exam 1 – 4)

 

 

ACC 410 Week 5 Mid-Term Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ACC-410-Week-5-Mid-Term-Exam-Strayer-283.htm

Chapters 1 Through 5

 

 

ACC 555 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-555-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-ACC555W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 6

 

 

ACC 556 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-556-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-ACC556W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 8

 

 

ACC 557 Week 5 Homework Problems – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-557-Week-5-Homework-Problems-Strayer-NEW-ACC557W5HP.htm

Chapter 7 and 8

 

 

ACC 557 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-557-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-NEW-ACC557W5Q.htm

Chapter 5 and 6

 

 

ACC 560 Week 9 Assignment 2 – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-560-Assignment-2-Strayer-NEW-ACC560A2.htm

Assignment 2 – Johnson Controls Capital Investments

 

 

ACC 560 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer NEW
Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-560-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-NEW-ACC560W5Q.htm

Week 5 Quiz 4: Chapters 5 and 6

 

 

ACC 562 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://budapp.net/ACC-562-Week-5-Midterm-Exam-Strayer-NEW-ACC562W5E.htm

ACC/562 Midterm Exam Chapter 1-3

 

 

ACC 563 Week 5 Homework Problems – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-563-Week-5-Homework-Problems-Strayer-NEW-ACC563W5HP.htm

Week 5 Chapter 8

 

 

ACC 563 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-563-Week-5-Midterm-Exam-Strayer-NEW-ACC563W5E.htm

Week 5 Midterm Exam: Chapters 1 Through 7

 

 

ACC 564 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-564-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-ACC564W5D.htm

Week 5 Discussion

 

 

ACC 565 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-565-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-ACC565W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 7

 

 

ACC 571 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-571-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-ACC571W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

ACC 576 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-576-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-New-ACC576W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 230 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-230-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-293.htm

Chapter 5 and 6

 

 

BUS 309 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-309-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-303.htm

Quiz 4 Chapter 4 and 5

 

 

BUS 310 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-310-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-BUS310W5D.htm

Week 5 Discussion

 

 

BUS 322 Assignment 2: Motivation and Performance Management

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-322-Week-5-Assignment-Motivation-and-Performance-Management-140.htm

Due Week 5

 

 

BUS 322 Week 5 Discussion Questions

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-322-Organizational-Behavior-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-141.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 325 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-325-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-313.htm

Quiz 4 Chapter 4

 

 

BUS 335 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-335-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-322.htm

Quiz 4 Chapter 5 and 6
BUS 365 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-365-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-332.htm

Quiz 4 Chapter 6

 

 

BUS 402 Week 5 Discussion Questions

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-402-Small-Business-Management-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-154.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 430 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-430-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-BUS430W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 508 Week 5 Discussion Question

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-508-Week-5-Discussion-Question-167.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 515 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-515-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-BUS515W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 517 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-517-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-BUS517W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 518 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-518-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-New-BUS518W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 519 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-519-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-BUS519W5D.htm

Week 5 Discussion

 

 

BUS 521 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-521-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-New-BUS521W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 536 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-536-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-BUS536W5E.htm

Midterm Exam Chapter 1 Through 6

 

 

CIS 210 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-210-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-CIS210W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 6

 

 

CIS 499 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-499-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-CIS499W5D.htm

Week 5 Discussion

 

 

CIS 501 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-501-Exam-Midterm-and-Final-Exam-Strayer-NEW-CIS501MFE.htm

Chapters 1 Through 18

 

 

CIS 505 Assignment 3: Elastic and Inelastic Traffic
Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/CIS-505-Assignment-3-Elastic-and-Inelastic-Traffic-182.htm

Due Week 5 and worth 60 points

 

 

CIS 505 Week 5 Discussion Questions

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/CIS-505-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-183.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

CIS 513 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-513-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-CIS513W5E.htm

Chapter 1 Through 4

 

 

CIS 518 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-518-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-CIS518W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ 1

 

 

CIS 519 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-519-Exam-Midterm-and-Final-Exam-Strayer-NEW-CIS519MFE.htm

Chapter 1 Through 14

 

 

CIS 524 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-524-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-CIS524W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ 1

 

 

CIS 562 Week 5 Assignment 2 – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-562-Assignment-2-Strayer-NEW-CIS562A2.htm

Assignment 2: Data Acquisition Lecture

 

 

CIS 562 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-562-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-CIS562W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 6

 

 

ECO 302 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-302-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-352.htm

Chapters 6 and 7

 

 

ECO 305 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-305-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-362.htm

Week 5 Quiz 4 Chapter 7

 

 

ECO 405 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-405-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-425.htm

Week 5 Quiz 4 Chapter 6

 

 

ECO 410 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-410-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-372.htm

Week 5 Quiz 4 Chapter 7 and 8

 

 

ECO 450 Week 5 Mid-Term Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-450-Week-5-Mid-Term-Exam-Strayer-382.htm

Chapters 1 Through 7

 

 

ECO 550 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ECO-550-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-ECO550W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ 1

 

 

FIN 317 Week 5 Mid Term Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/FIN-317-Week-5-Mid-Term-Exam-Strayer-389.htm

Chapters 1 Through 6

 

 

FIN 320 Week 5 Mid-Term Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/FIN-320-Week-5-Mid-Term-Exam-Strayer-394.htm

Chapters 1 Through 8

 

 

FIN 350 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/FIN-350-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-404.htm

Week 5 Quiz 4 Chapter 7 and 8

 

 

FIN 534 Homework Set 5 – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/FIN-534-Homework-Set-5-Strayer-NEW-FIN534HS5.htm

 

 

FIN 535 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/FIN-535-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-FIN535W5E.htm

Chapter 1 Through 7

 

 

FIN 540 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/FIN-540-Week-5-Midterm-Exam-Strayer-NEW-FIN540W5E.htm

Midterm Exam Chapter 18 Through 23

 

 

HRM 500 Week 5 Discussion Questions

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/HRM-500-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-206.htm

Week 5 Discussion

 

 

HRM 510 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/HRM-510-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-HRM510W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 7

 

 

HRM 522 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/HRM-522-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-HRM522W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 6

 

 

LEG 320 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/LEG-320-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-446.htm

Quiz 5 Chapter 8 and 9

 

 

LEG 500 Week 5 Assignment 2 – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/LEG-500-Week-5-Assignment-2-Strayer-NEW-LEG500A2.htm

Assignment 2: Employment-At-Will Doctrine

 

 

LEG 500 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/LEG-500-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-LEG500W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

LEG 500 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/LEG-500-Final-Exam-Week-11-Strayer-NEW-LEG500W11E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 9

 

 

MGT 510 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/MGT-510-Exam-Midterm-and-Final-Strayer-NEW-MGT510MFE.htm

Chapters 1 Through 15

 

 

MKT 475 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/MKT-475-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-435.htm

Quiz 4 Chapter 6 and 7

 

 

MKT 500 Week 5 Discussion Question

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/MKT-500-Week-5-Discussion-Question-226.htm

 

 

MKT 515 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/MKT-515-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-MKT515W5E.htm

Chapter 1 Through 8

 

 

PAD 500 Week 5 Assignment 2 – Strayer
Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://budapp.net/PAD-500-Assignment-2-Strayer-NEW-PAD500A2.htm

Assignment 2: The Concept of Ethical Obligations

 

 

PAD 500 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/PAD-500-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-PAD500W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

PAD 530 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/PAD-530-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-PAD530W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

ACC 206, ACC 303, ACC 304, ACC 350, ACC 401, ACC 410, ACC 555, ACC 556, ACC 557, ACC 560, ACC 562, ACC 563, ACC 564, ACC 565, ACC 571, ACC 576, BUS 230, BUS 309, BUS 310, BUS 322, BUS 325, BUS 335, BUS 365, BUS 402, BUS 430, BUS 508, BUS 515, BUS 517, BUS 518, BUS 519, BUS 521,BUS 536, CIS 210, CIS 499, CIS 501,CIS 505,CIS 513, CIS 518, CIS 519, CIS 524, CIS 562, ECO 302, ECO 305, ECO 405, ECO 410,ECO 450, ECO 550, FIN 317, FIN 320, FIN 350, FIN 534, FIN 535, FIN 540, HRM 500, HRM 510, HRM 522, HSA 590, LEG 320, LEG 500, MGT 510, MKT 475, MKT 500, MKT 515, PAD 500,PAD 530,

Week 5 Midterm Exam, Quiz, Assignments, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems,

Acc/206, acc/304, acc/350, acc/401, acc/410, acc/555, acc/557, acc/560, acc/563, acc/564, acc/571, acc/576, bus/230, bus/309, bus/310, bus/322, bus/335, bus/365, bus/402, bus/430, bus/508, bus/515, bus/517, bus/518, bus/519, bus/521, bus/536, cis/210, cis/499, cis/501, cis/502, cis/505, cis/513, cis/518, cis/519, cis/524, cis/562, eco/302, eco/305, eco/405, eco/410, eco/450, eco/550, fin/317, fin/320, fin/350, fin/535, fin/540, hrm/500, hrm/510, hrm/522, hsa/590, leg/500, mgt/510, mkt/475, mkt/500, mkt/515, pad/500, pad/530, Week 11 Final Exam, Assignments, Quiz, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems – Strayer University New

Need help with your exams and quizzes?

Visit: budapp.net

Search through our website for Exams and Quizzes Solutions, Assignments and Discussion Questions and ACE your class.If you cannot find what you are looking for, email us at:
budapp247@gmail.com

ACC 206 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ACC-206-Accounting-Principles-Week-11-Final-Exam-Strayer-269.htm

Chapter 14 Through 19

 

 

ACC 304 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-304-Week-11-Final-Exam-Strayer-NEW-ACC304W11E.htm

Week 11 Final Exam: Chapter 12 Through 16

 

 

ACC 350 Week 11 Final Exam Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ACC-350-Week-11-Final-Exam-Strayer-348.htm

Chapter 5 Through 10

 

 

ACC 401 Week 11 Quiz Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ACC-401-Advanced-Accounting-Week-11-Quiz-Final-Exam-Strayer-279.htm

Quiz (Chapter 15 – 16) Final Exam (Chapter 5, 8, and 10 – 16)

 

 

ACC 410 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ACC-410-Week-11-Quiz-Final-Exam-Strayer-289.htm

Chapter 6 Through 15

Part 1: Chapter 6 Through 10
Part 2: Chapter 11 Through 15

 

 

ACC 555 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-555-Final-Exam-Week-11-Strayer-NEW-ACC555W11E.htm

Chapters 7 Through 14

 

 

ACC 557 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-557-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-NEW-ACC557W11Q.htm

Chapter 14

 

 

ACC 560 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer NEW
Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-560-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-NEW-ACC560W11Q.htm

Week 11 Quiz 10: Chapter 14

 

 

ACC 563 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-563-Week-11-Final-Exam-Strayer-NEW-ACC563W11E.htm

Week 11 Final Exam: Chapters 8 Through 17

 

 

ACC 564 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-564-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-ACC564W11D.htm

 

 

ACC 571 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-571-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-ACC571W11D.htm

 

 

ACC 576 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-576-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-New-ACC576W11D.htm

 

 

BUS 230 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-230-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-299.htm

Quiz Chapter 16 and 17

 

 

BUS 309 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-309-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-309.htm

Quiz 10 Chapter 11

 

 

BUS 310 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-310-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-BUS310W11D.htm

 

 

BUS 322 Week 11 Discussion Questions

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-322-Organizational-Behavior-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-148.htm

 

 

BUS 335 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-335-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-328.htm

Quiz 10 Chapter 14

 

 

BUS 365 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-365-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-338.htm

Quiz 10 Chapter 13 and 14

 

 

BUS 402 Week 11 Discussion Questions

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-402-Small-Business-Management-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-161.htm

 

 

BUS 430 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-430-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-BUS430W11D.htm

 

 

BUS 508 Week 11 Discussion Question

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-508-Week-11-Discussion-Question-175.htm

 

 

BUS 515 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-515-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-BUS515W11D.htm

 

 

BUS 517 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-517-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-BUS517W11D.htm

 

 

BUS 518 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-518-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-New-BUS518W11D.htm

 

 

BUS 519 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-519-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-new-BUS519W11D.htm

 

 

BUS 521 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-521-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-New-BUS521W11D.htm

 

 

BUS 536 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-536-Final-Exam-Week-11-Strayer-NEW-BUS536W11E.htm

Chapter 7 Through 12

 

 

CIS 210 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-210-Final-Exam-Week-11-Strayer-New-CIS210-W11E.htm

Chapters 7 Through 12

 

 

CIS 499 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-499-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-CIS499W11D.htm

 

 

CIS 501 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-501-Exam-Midterm-and-Final-Exam-Strayer-NEW-CIS501MFE.htm

Chapters 1 Through 18

 

 

CIS 502 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://budapp.net/CIS-502-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-New-CIS502W11D.htm

 

 

CIS 505 Week 11 Discussion Questions

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/CIS-505-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-194.htm

 

 

CIS 513 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-513-Final-Exam-Week-11-Strayer-NEW-CIS513W11E.htm

Chapters 5 Through 8

 

 

CIS 518 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-518-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-CIS518W11D.htm

 

 

CIS 519 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-519-Exam-Midterm-and-Final-Exam-Strayer-NEW-CIS519MFE.htm

Chapter 1 Through 14

 

 

CIS 524 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-524-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-CIS524W11D.htm

 

 

CIS 562 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-562-Final-Exam-Week-11-Strayer-NEW-CIS562W11E.htm

Chapters 7 Through 16

 

 

ECO 302 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-302-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-358.htm

Chapter 17 and 18

 

 

ECO 305 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-305-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-368.htm

Quiz 10 Chapter 16 and 17

 

 

ECO 405 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-405-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-431.htm

Quiz 10 Chapter 14 and 15

 

 

ECO 410 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-410-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-378.htm

Quiz 10 Chapter 19 and 20

 

 

ECO 450 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-450-Week-11-Final-Exam-Strayer-388.htm

Chapters 8 Through 18

 

 

ECO 550 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ECO-550-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-ECO550W11D.htm

 

 

FIN 317 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/FIN-317-Week-11-Final-Exam-Strayer-390.htm

Chapters 7 Through 15

 

 

FIN 320 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/FIN-320-Week-11-Final-Exam-Strayer-400.htm

Chapters 9, 10, 12 Through 15 And 17 Through 22

 

 

FIN 350 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/FIN-350-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-410.htm

Quiz 10 Chapter 22 and 23

 

 

FIN 535 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/FIN-535-Final-Exam-Week-11-Strayer-NEW-FIN535W11E.htm

Chapters 8 Through 21

 

 

FIN 540 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/FIN-540-Week-11-Final-Exam-Strayer-NEW-FIN540W11E.htm

Chapters 24 Through 30

 

 

HRM 500 Week 11 Discussion Questions

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/HRM-500-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-212.htm

 

 

HRM 510 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/HRM-510-Final-Exam-Week-11-Strayer-NEW-HRM510W11E.htm

Chapters 8 Through 19

 

 

HRM 522 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/HRM-522-Final-Exam-Week-11-Strayer-NEW-HRM522W11E.htm

Chapters 7 Through 12

 

 

HSA 590 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer NEW
Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://budapp.net/HSA-590-Exam-Midterm-and-Final-Exam-Strayer-NEW-HSA590MFE.htm

Chapter 1 Through 12

 

 

LEG 500 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/LEG-500-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-LEG500W11D.htm

 

 

LEG 500 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/LEG-500-Final-Exam-Week-11-Strayer-NEW-LEG500W11E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 9

 

 

MGT 510 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/MGT-510-Exam-Midterm-and-Final-Strayer-NEW-MGT510MFE.htm

Chapters 1 Through 15

 

 

MKT 475 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/MKT-475-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-441.htm

Quiz 10 Chapter 15

 

 

MKT 500 Week 11 Discussion Question

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/MKT-500-Week-11-Discussion-Question-232.htm

 

 

MKT 515 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/MKT-515-Final-Exam-Week-11-Strayer-NEW-MKT515W11E.htm

Chapter 9 Through 19

 

 

PAD 500 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/PAD-500-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-PAD500W11D.htm

 

 

PAD 530 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/PAD-530-Week-11-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-PAD530W11D.htm

 

 

 

 

Acc 206, acc 304, acc 350, acc 401, acc 410, acc 555, acc 557, acc 560, acc 563, acc 564, acc 571, acc 576, bus 230, bus 309, bus 310, bus 322, bus 335, bus 365, bus 402, bus 430, bus 508, bus 515, bus 517, bus 518, bus 519, bus 521, bus 536, cis 210, cis 499, cis 501, cis 502, cis 505, cis 513, cis 518, cis 519, cis 524, cis 562, eco 302, eco 305, eco 405, eco 410, eco 450, eco 550, fin 317, fin 320, fin 350, fin 535, fin 540, hrm 500, hrm 510, hrm 522, hsa 590, leg 500, mgt 510, mkt 475, mkt 500, mkt 515, pad 500, pad 530,
Week 11 Final Exam, Assignments, Quiz, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems,

Acc 206, acc 304, acc 350, acc 401, acc 410, acc 555, acc 557, acc 560, acc 563, acc 564, acc 571, acc 576, bus 230, bus 309, bus 310, bus 322, bus 335, bus 365, bus 402, bus 430, bus 508, bus 515, bus 517, bus 518, bus 519, bus 521, bus 536, cis 210, cis 499, cis 501, cis 502, cis 505, cis 513, cis 518, cis 519, cis 524, cis 562, eco 302, eco 305, eco 405, eco 410, eco 450, eco 550, fin 317, fin 320, fin 350, fin 535, fin 540, hrm 500, hrm 510, hrm 522, hsa 590, leg 500, mgt 510, mkt 475, mkt 500, mkt 515, pad 500, pad 530, Week 11 Final Exam, Assignments, Quiz, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems – Strayer University New

ACC 206 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-206-final-exam

Chapter 14 Through 19

 

ACC 304 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc304-final-exam

Week 11 Final Exam: Chapter 12 Through 16

 

ACC 350 Week 11 Final Exam Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-350-final-exam

Chapter 5 Through 10

 

ACC 401 Week 11 Quiz Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-401-final-exam

Quiz (Chapter 15 – 16) Final Exam (Chapter 5, 8, and 10 – 16)

 

ACC 410 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-410-final-exam

Chapter 6 Through 15

Part 1: Chapter 6 Through 10
Part 2: Chapter 11 Through 15

 

ACC 555 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-555-final-exam

Chapters 7 Through 14

 

ACC 557 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc557quizch14

Chapter 14

 

ACC 560 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer
Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-560-week-11-quiz

Week 11 Quiz 10: Chapter 14

 

ACC 563 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc563-final-exam

Week 11 Final Exam: Chapters 8 Through 17

 

ACC 564 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-564-week-11-discussions-2

 

ACC 571 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-571-week-11-discussion

 

ACC 576 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/acc-576-week-11-discussion

 

BUS 230 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-230-week-11-quiz

Quiz Chapter 16 and 17

 

BUS 309 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-309-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 11

 

BUS 310 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-310-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 322 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-322-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 335 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-335-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 14

 

BUS 365 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-365-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 13 and 14

 

BUS 402 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-402-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 430 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-430-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 508 Week 11 Discussion Question – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-508-week-11-discussion

 

BUS 515 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-515-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 517 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-517-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 518 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-518-week-11-discussion

 

BUS 519 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-519-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 521 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-521-week-11-discussions

 

BUS 536 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/bus-536-final-exam

Chapter 7 Through 12

 

CIS 210 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-210-final-exam

Chapters 7 Through 12

 

CIS 499 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-499-week-11-discussions

 

CIS 501 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-501-exam-and-quizzes

Chapters 1 Through 18

 

CIS 502 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-502-week-11-discussions

 

CIS 505 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-505-week-11-discussions

 

CIS 513 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-513-final-exam

Chapters 5 Through 8

 

CIS 518 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-518-week-11-discussions

 

CIS 519 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-519-exams

Chapter 1 Through 14

 

CIS 524 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-524-week-11-discussions

 

CIS 562 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-562-final-exam

Chapters 7 Through 16

 

ECO 302 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/eco-302-week-11-quiz

Chapter 17 and 18

 

ECO 305 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/eco-305-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 16 and 17

 

ECO 405 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/eco-405-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 14 and 15

 

ECO 410 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/eco-410-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 19 and 20

 

ECO 450 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/eco-450-final-exam

Chapters 8 Through 18

 

ECO 550 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/eco-550-week-11-discussions

 

FIN 317 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/fin-317-final-exam

Chapters 7 Through 15

 

FIN 350 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/fin-350-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 22 and 23

 

FIN 535 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/fin535-final-exam

Chapters 8 Through 21

 

FIN 540 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/fin-540-final-exam

Chapters 24 Through 30

 

HRM 500 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/hrm-500-week-11-discussions

 

HRM 510 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/hrm-510-final-exam

Chapters 8 Through 19

 

HRM 522 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/hrm-522-final-exam

Chapters 7 Through 12

 

HSA 590 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer
Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/hsa-590-exams

Chapter 1 Through 12

 

LEG 500 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/leg-500-week-11-discussion

 

LEG 500 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/law-final-exam

Chapters 1 Through 9

 

MGT 510 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/mgt-510-exams

Chapters 1 Through 15

 

MKT 475 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/mkt-475-week-11-quiz

Quiz 10 Chapter 15

 

MKT 500 Week 11 Discussion Question – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/mkt-500-week-11-discussions

 

MKT 515 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/mkt-515-final-exam

Chapter 9 Through 19

 

PAD 500 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/pad-500-week-11-discussions

 

PAD 530 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase:

http://www.hwmojo.com/products/pad-530-week-11-discussions

 

 

Acc 206, acc 304, acc 350, acc 401, acc 410, acc 555, acc 557, acc 560, acc 563, acc 564, acc 571, acc 576, bus 230, bus 309, bus 310, bus 322, bus 335, bus 365, bus 402, bus 430, bus 508, bus 515, bus 517, bus 518, bus 519, bus 521, bus 536, cis 210, cis 499, cis 501, cis 502, cis 505, cis 513, cis 518, cis 519, cis 524, cis 562, eco 302, eco 305, eco 405, eco 410, eco 450, eco 550, fin 317, fin 350, fin 535, fin 540, hrm 500, hrm 510, hrm 522, hsa 590, leg 500, mgt 510, mkt 475, mkt 500, mkt 515, pad 500, pad 530,
Week 11 Final Exam, Assignments, Quiz, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems,

HRM 522 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer University New

HRM/522 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/HRM-522-Final-Exam-Week-11-Strayer-NEW-HRM522W11E.htm

 

Chapters 7 Through 12

Chapter 7

1. Expert power usually stems from
a. a superior’s credibility with his or her subordinates.
b. the belief that a certain person has the right to exert influence and that certain others have an obligation to accept it.
c. a person’s ability to influence the behavior of others by offering them something desirable. d. a person’s ability to penalize the actions or behavior of another.
e. a person’s perceptions that his or her goals or objectives are similar to another’s.

2. Which of the following statements about power is true?
a. The five bases of power are mutually exclusive.
b. People generally use only one base of power to effect change in others.
c. Expert power exists when one person takes actions that will lead that person and others to achieve their mutual objectives.
d. Power can be used to motivate individuals ethically or unethically. e. The use of power is unethical.

3. An organization that delegates decision-making authority as far down the chain of command as possible and has relatively few formal rules is
a. centralized.
b. decentralized. c. flat.
d. tall.
e. ethical.

4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ethical corporate culture?
a. Management and the board demonstrate their commitment to strong controls through their communications and actions.
b. Every employee is encouraged and required to have hands-on involvement in the internal control system. c. Management conducts itself in a way that is not consistent with the code of conduct.
d. Employees are expected to be in the communication loop through resolutions and corrective actions.
e. Employees have the ability to report policy exceptions anonymously to any member of the organization.

5. Although both structures can create opportunities for unethical conduct, which organizational structure tends to be more ethical?
a. Tall b. Flat
c. Centralized
d. Decentralized
e. All organizational structures are equally ethical.

6. The ability to influence the behavior of others by offering them something desirable is best described as a. coercive power.
b. reward power. c. expert power.
d. legitimate power. e. referent power.

7. An advantage of the decentralized organization is that
a. the focus is on formal rules, policies, and procedures backed up with elaborate control systems. b. there is a high level of bureaucracy.
c. each worker knows his or her job and what is specifically expected as well as how to carry out designated tasks.
d. it is adaptable and can quickly respond to external change. e. there is minimal upward communication.

8. When developing an ethical culture, there has to be a(n)

element because every organization has employees

that will try to take advantage if there is an opportunity for misconduct. a. rules-based
b. statement of mission c. ethical
d. compliance e. punitive

9. The apathetic organizational culture exhibits
a. high concern for people but minimal concern for performance. b. little concern for people but a high concern for performance.
c. minimal concern for people and performance. d. high concern for people and performance.
e. no concern for maintaining a cohesive organizational culture.

10. The exacting organizational culture is interested in
a. performance but has little concern for employees. b. investors’ impressions of profitability.
c. maintaining a strong corporate culture. d. employees and performance.
e. employees’ impressions.

11. Associating with others who are unethical and who have the opportunity to act unethically can lead to a learning process known as
a. compliance. b. misconduct. c. opportunity.
d. differential equations.
e. differential association.

12. Which of the following statements about corporate culture is false?
a. Corporate culture refers to the patterns and rules that govern the behavior of an organization and its employees, particularly the shared values, beliefs, and customs.
b. The values and ethical beliefs that actually guide the firm’s employees tend not to be the same ones that management states as defining the firm’s culture.
c. Corporate culture includes the behavioral patterns, concepts, values, ceremonies, and rituals that take place in an organization.
d. The culture of an organization may be explicitly stated or unspoken.
e. Failure to monitor or manage an organization’s culture may foster unethical behavior.

13. No formal dress codes, working late, participation in extracurricular activities, gestures, and legends represent a. a complacent workplace.
b. codes of ethics.
c. a firm’s organizational chart.
d. formal expressions of an organization’s culture.
e. informal expressions of an organization’s culture.

14. A cultural audit may be used to identify a. how cultured a firm’s employees are. b. unethical employees.
c. unethical organizations.
d. an organization’s culture. e. organizational structure.

15. The 2010 passage of the Dodd-Frank Act proposed additional monetary incentives for whistle-blowers. A primary concern about these new incentives is
a. they will encourage too many employees to attempt to blow the whistle on firms, even those that have done nothing wrong.
b. people do not generally respond at all to monetary incentives.
c. whistle-blowers might be tempted to report to the SEC with their reports and not report the misconduct to the
company’s internal compliance program.
d. people may exaggerate their claims in order to get a reward.
e. the funds paid out to whistle-blower might bankrupt companies.

16. Marcus is the top-performing development director his non-profit organization has ever had. He possesses countless tricks and tips to continue to bring in donations, positive publicity, and supporters. Marcus would likely have
over new development department staff. a. coercive power
b. group power
c. legitimate power d. expert power
e. democratic power

17.

bring together the functional expertise of employees from several different areas of the organization on a single project.
a. Quality circles
b. Informal groups c. Teams
d. Work groups e. Committees

18. Individuals, often from the same department, who band together for purposes that may or may not be relevant to the organization are called
a. quality circles.
b. informal groups. c. teams.
d. work groups. e. committees.

19. In order for whistle-blowing to be effective, a. financial compensation must be very high.
b. employees must wish ill on the organization for which they work.
c. lawmakers must make an effort to force employees to discuss details about the misconduct.
d. it requires that the individual have adequate knowledge of wrongdoing that could damage society. e. it must occur at a very large multinational corporation.

20. Which of the following statements about group norms is false?
a. Group norms define the limit on deviation from group expectations.
b. Group norms have the power to force a strong degree of conformity among group members.
c. Management must carefully monitor the norms of all the various groups within the organization, as well as the organization’s corporate culture.
d. Sanctions may be necessary to bring in line a group whose norms deviate sharply from the overall culture. e. Group norms never conflict with the overall organization’s culture.

21. Management’s sense of the organization’s culture a. is always the same as employees’ perceptions. b. is usually easily adopted by employees.
c. is always readily evident to employees.
d. may be quite different from employees’ perceptions. e. is always different from employees’ perceptions.

22. Motivation is defined as
a. a person’s incentive or drive to work.
b. a force within the individual that focuses his or her behavior on achieving a goal. c. personal ambition without regard to the impact on others.
d. a desire to be finished with a project. e. individual goals.

23. When a foreman orders an assembly-line employee to carry out a task, which the employee perceives as unethical yet the employee feels compelled to complete, the foreman is exercising
a. legitimate power. b. expert power.
c. reward power.
d. contingent punishment power.
e. noncontingent reward behavior.

24. To motivate employees, an organization offers to employees to work toward organizational objectives. a. punishment; force
b. peer pressure; guilt
c. incentives; encourage d. rewards; bribe
e. threats; frighten

25. Which of the following cultures combines high levels of concern for people and performance?
a. Apathetic culture b. Caring culture
c. Integrative culture d. Exacting culture
e. Cooperative culture

26. Ethical concerns in centralized structures can occur because of very little a. mobility.
b. upward communication. c. scapegoating.
d. downward communication. e. communication rigidity.

27. A high concern for people but minimal concern for performance can best describe the culture. a. caring
b. apathetic c. exacting
d. shareholder e. employee

28. The establishment of an ethics committee within an organization a. is usually highly informal.
b. is usually organized around general business topics.
c. might raise ethical concerns or resolve ethical dilemmas. d. usually always succeeds.
e. usually increases ethical tension.

29. Which of the following is not a form of retaliation commonly experienced by whistle-blowers?
a. Relocation or reassignment b. No promotion or raises
c. The cold shoulder by coworkers d. Exclusion from work activities
e. Praise by supervisors for their honesty

30. are used to subdivide duties within functional areas of a company. a. Work groups
b. Individuals c. Experts
d. Consultants e. Committees

31. The

leader demands instantaneous obedience and focuses on punishing wrong behavior, achievement,

initiative, and self-control. a. democratic
b. coaching c. affiliative d. coercive
e. pacesetting

32. Melinda is a very popular executive. She inspires her employees to follow a common vision, facilitates change, and creates a strongly positive climate, all while stressing performance. Melinda has helped to create a(n) culture. a. authoritative
b. caring
c. integrative d. exacting
e. affiliative

33.

are satisfied by social and interpersonal relationships, and activities.
a. Growth needs; relatedness needs b. Personal needs; group needs
c. Coercive needs; ethical needs
d. Relatedness needs; growth needs e. Group needs; personal needs

are satisfied by creative or productive

34. Over the years, scholars have developed more than 100 definitions of culture. According to the text, all have the following common elements:
a. Culture is shared, relatively stable, and is formed over a long period of time. b. Culture is not shared, stable, and is formed over a long period of time.
c. Culture is shared, not stable, and is formed over a long period of time. d. Culture is shared, stable, and is formed over a short period of time.
e. Culture is man-made, shared, not stable, and is formed over a short period of time.

35. Because researchers have defined culture so many different ways, interchangeably.
a. cultural cues; management
b. cultural values; anthropology c. cultural values; culture
d. cultural cues; laws
e. cultural cues; management

and

are often used

36. Both individual ethics and organizational ethics have an impact on an employee’s
a. productivity.
b. personal happiness. c. compensation.
d. fitness level.
e. ethical intention.

37. A values-based ethics approach to ethical corporate cultures relies on a(n)
how customers and employees should be treated a. set of laws
b. explicit mission statement c. strong CEO
d. ethical audit
e. relaxed corporate culture

that defines the firm as well as

38. The idea that people learn ethical or unethical behavior while interacting with others who are a part of their role-sets is referred to as
a. differential dissonance.
b. cognitive memory dissonance. c. cognitive association.
d. differential association. e. casual interaction.

39. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act
a. only applies to firms with over 50 employees. b. has institutionalized internal whistle-blowing.
c. has placed more power under the Securities and Exchange Commission. d. requires all organizations to make their financial information public.
e. involves too many complicated steps for it to be feasible for most organizations.

40. The

rule explains variation in employee conduct through generalizing on the percentage of employees in any

given organization who will seek to do right versus how many will be indifferent. a. 10-30-40-20
b. 20-30-30-20 c. 40-10-10-40 d. 10-40-40-10 e. 80-20

41. Why do centralized organizations tend to be more ethical than decentralized ones? Can you think of a situation or example in which a decentralized organization might be more ethical than a centralized one?

42. How do societal expectations affect corporations and their ethical initiatives? Give an example of a company that
had to alter a product or service because of society’s concerns about its health, moral, or social impacts.

43. Describe the four organizational cultures and provide a company example of each organizational culture.

44. Describe the different kinds of power. Are some types of power more likely to result in ethical behavior than others?

45. How do group norms influence the ethical behavior of an organization? What happens when the norms of a particular group conflict with the organization’s corporate culture or objectives?

Chapter 8

1. Fostering ethical decision making within an organization requires improving the firm’s ethical standards and a. not doing business with suppliers.
b. implementing a hiring freeze.
c. training the “bad apples” so they are not bad anymore.
d. terminating ethical persons.
e. terminating the “bad apples” in the organization.

2. Which of the following statements about codes of conduct is false?
a. They are formal statements of what an organization expects of its employees. b. They guarantee an ethical business climate.
c. They help employees determine what behaviors are acceptable. d. They provide rules and guidelines for employees to follow.
e. They should be specific enough to be reasonably capable of preventing misconduct.

3. A strong ethics program includes all of the following elements except
a. a clause promising good stock market performance. b. a written code of conduct or ethics.
c. formal ethics training.
d. auditing, monitoring, enforcement, and revision of standards. e. an ethics officer to oversee the program.

4. In the absence of ethics programs, employees are likely to make decisions based on a. their observations of how their coworkers and superiors behave.
b. how they and their family members behave at home. c. their conscience.
d. their religious values. e. their family values.

5. are formal statements that describe what an organization expects of its employees in terms of ethical behavior.
a. Mission statements b. Codes of conduct
c. Policies on confidentiality d. Environmental policies
e. The Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations

6. What is not a common mistake when designing and implementing an ethics program?
a. Failing to fully understand the goals of the program b. Not setting realistic or measurable goals
c. Having top management take ownership of the ethics program
d. Developing materials that do not address the needs of the average employee
e. Transferring a program between countries and cultures without making adjustments

7. A(n)

orientation creates order by requiring that employees identify with and commit to specific required

conduct, whereas a(n)
a. obedience; values b. compliance; values c. legal; values
d. values; compliance
e. values; obedience

orientation strives to develop shared standards.

8. For an ethical compliance program to properly function,
a. consistent enforcement and disciplinary action are essential. b. employees must be monitored using any means necessary. c. it is not necessary to set measurable program objectives.
d. the same program should be used in all countries of operation, regardless of cultural differences. e. the company must wait until after misconduct occurs to develop a means of preventing it.

9. Which of the following is the most comprehensive?
a. Code of values
b. Code of conduct c. Code of ethics
d. Statement of values
e. Statement of principles

10. At the heart of the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations is a a. “tit-for-tat” philosophy that punishes wrongdoing.
b. Golden Rule philosophy.
c. Iron Fist philosophy severely punishes wrongdoing.
d. carrot-and-stick philosophy that rewards efforts to improve ethics. e. utilitarian philosophy of the greatest good for the greatest number.

11. The Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations require federal judges to increase fines for organizations that continually
a. improve their ethics programs. b. eliminate misconduct.
c. fail to install a Federal Sentencing Guidelines program. d. fail to report ethics program activities.
e. tolerate misconduct.

12. Which of the following legislation has increased the responsibilities on ethics officers and boards of directors to monitor financial reporting?
a. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
b. Robinson Patman Act
c. Ethics Officer Responsibility Act d. Sherman Antitrust Act
e. Enron Financial Responsibility Act

13.

may be more inclined to engage in unethical organizational conduct because of social isolation that creates insensitivity and a lower level of motivation to regulate ethical decision making.
a. Low-level employees
b. International managers c. Top managers
d. Government officials
e. Fortune 500 companies

14. Top managers tend to focus on returns.
a. financial performance b. employee satisfaction
c. ethical performance

because their jobs and personal identity are often connected to quarterly

d. the board of directors’ recommendations
e. adherence to the code of conduct

15. All of the following are useful in monitoring ethical conduct and measuring the effectiveness of the ethical program
except
a. observation of employees. b. internal audits.
c. firing.
d. surveys.
e. reporting systems.

16. A code of ethics that does not address specific high-risk activities within the scope of daily activities is a. sufficient.
b. inadequate. c. satisfactory.
d. acceptable as long as individual values prevent misconduct.
e. acceptable according to the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations.

17. Organizational can contribute to diminished employee trust and increased employee turnover. a. leadership succession
b. compensation policies c. ethics programs
d. rules
e. misconduct

18. Most executives feel that which of the following is the primary reason for much of the unchecked misconduct in business?
a. Bad employees
b. An inattentive board of directors c. Customer pressures
d. Financial performance pressures
e. Inadequate ethics and compliance programs

19. Which of the following is an advantage of a values-based ethics program over a compliance-based one?
a. Employees learn to make decisions based on values such as fairness, compassion, respect, and transparency. b. Diverse employees have differing values.
c. It requires employees to identify with and commit to specific required conduct.
d. A values orientation uses legal terms, statutes, and contracts that teach employees the rules and penalties for noncompliance.
e. Values and compliance programs both take basically the same approach.

20. Which of the following is a common mistake made in implementing an ethics program?
a. Setting realistic and measurable program objectives
b. Developing materials that do not address the needs of the average employee c. Adapting a firm’s ethics program to its international operations
d. Allowing employees to practice the skills they learn in ethics training through case studies and/or group exercises
e. Management taking ownership of the ethics program

21. Aurico is a company that offers ethics hotline maintenance and monitoring services for organizations. Which component of the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations compliance program does this service help organizations to satisfy?
a. Code of conduct
b. Enforcement of standards, codes, and rules c. Delegation of authority to ethical persons
d. Systems for monitoring, auditing, and reporting misconduct e. Ethics training

22. Organizations can become “bad barrels” not because of unethical individuals but because a. the pressure to succeed creates opportunities that reward unethical decisions.
b. the pressure to succeed creates opportunities that punish unethical decisions. c. they lack leadership.
d. they lack values.
e. they have no “bad apples.”

23. Which of the following statements about training is false?
a. It can educate employees about the firm’s policies and expectations, as well as about relevant laws and regulations and general social standards.
b. It can dictate personal ethics on the job.
c. It can make employees aware of available resources, support systems, and designated personnel who can assist them with ethical and legal advice.
d. It can empower employees to ask tough questions and make ethical decisions.
e. It can affect the influence of organizational culture, coworkers and superiors, and opportunity.

24. Which of the following is not an advantage of having a comprehensive code of conduct?
a. To guide employees in situations where the ethical course of action is not obvious. b. To help a company remain in compliance with complex government regulations.
c. To help employees fight for satisfactory levels of compensation and benefits.
d. To help promote constructive social change by raising awareness of the community’s needs and encouraging
employees and other stakeholders to help.
e. To build public trust and enhance business reputations.

25. A

generates an ethical program that creates order by requiring that employees identify with and commit to

specific required conduct using legal terms and statutes. a. values orientation
b. code of conduct
c. statement of values d. code of ethics
e. compliance orientation

26. In the long run, a(n)

orientation may be better for companies, perhaps because it increases employees’

awareness of ethics issues at work. a. code
b. obedience c. compliance d. values
e. individual

27. Which of the following is not a main goal of successful ethics programs?
a. Identify key risk areas that employees will face.
b. Align employee conduct with organizational reputation and branding.
c. Provide a hierarchy of leadership for employees to contact when they are faced with an ethical dilemma that they do not know how to resolve.
d. Allow employees to solve ethical issues themselves using their best judgment.
e. Allow a mechanism for employees to voice their concerns that is anonymous, but allows for the provision of feedback to key questions.

28. The individual responsible for implementing disciplinary action for violation of a firm’s ethics standards is usually the a. CEO.
b. president.
c. immediate supervisor. d. ethics officer.
e. Chairman of the board.

29. To ensure that an ethics program addresses the needs of the average employee, it should include all of the following
except
a. feedback from employees across the firm. b. a question-and-answer section.
c. additional resources for guidance. d. lengthy legal documents.
e. checklists, illustrations, and cartoons where appropriate.

30.

serve as a central contact point where critical comments, dilemmas, and advice can be assigned to the person most appropriate for handling a specific case.
a. Training programs b. Mission statements c. Codes of conduct
d. Hotlines
e. Boards of directors

31. One of the main reasons employees do not report observed misconduct is a. apathy.
b. most employees do not observe any misconduct. c. fear of retaliation.
d. laws and regulations protect the employee committing the misconduct. e. hotlines do not work well.

32. The ultimate “stick” associated with the FSGO is fines or probation, which involves on-site observation by consultants, monitoring of the company’s ethical compliance efforts, and
a. reporting to the U.S. Sentencing Commission on the company’s progress in avoiding misconduct. b. installation of an ethics hotline.
c. payment of any penalties levied.
d. appointment of an appropriate high-level manager to oversee the company’s program. e. divestiture of all assets.

33. Which of the following strives to create order by requiring that employees identify with and commit to specific required conduct?
a. Conduct orientation b. Values orientation
c. Coercive orientation
d. Obedience orientation e. Compliance orientation

34. Because top managers may be more insensitive to ethical issues due to their focus on financial performance, the
FSGO guidelines suggest that ethics officers report to the instead. a. stock market
b. board of directors c. middle managers d. customers
e. stakeholders

35. With regard to ethics, training and communication initiatives should reflect a. the structure of the board of directors.
b. the organization’s stock performance. c. the organization’s size.
d. the unique characteristics of an organization. e. the self-interest of the CEO.

36. What are some of the ways that organizations can develop effective ethics programs?

ANSWER: Refer to Table 8-1, Minimum Requirements for Ethics and Compliance Programs.
1. Standards and procedures, such as codes of ethics, that are reasonably capable of detecting and preventing misconduct
2. High-level personnel who are responsible for an ethics and compliance program
3. No substantial discretionary authority given to individuals with a propensity for misconduct
4. Standards and procedures communicated effectively via ethics training programs
5. Systems to monitor, audit, and report misconduct
6. Consistent enforcement of standards, codes, and punishment
7. Continuous improvement of the ethics and compliance program

37. How can ethical dilemmas and behavioral simulations help employees make more ethical decisions?

ANSWER: Many feel “hands on” training when employees are forced to confront actual or hypothetical ethical dilemmas helps them understand how their organization would like them to deal with potential problems. Lockheed Martin, for example, developed training games that include dilemmas that can be resolved in teams. Each team member offers his or her perspective, thereby helping other team members fully understand the ramifications of a decision for coworkers and the organization.

38. What are the major features of a successful ethics training program and communication systems? Think of an example of a company with strong employee ethics training.

39. What is the role of an ethics officer within an organization? What are his or her duties? To whom does the FSGO
guidelines recommend that the ethics officer report?

40. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of implementing an ethics program with a compliance orientation versus one with a values orientation. Is one better than the other at maintaining an ethical organization?

Chapter 9

1. Which of the following does not have a significant impact on the success of an ethics program?
a. Senior management’s ability to successfully incorporate ethics into the organization
b. The quality of communication c. The size of the company
d. The content of the company’s code of ethics
e. The frequency of communication regarding the ethical code and program

2. Which of the following statements about ethics audits is false?
a. They provide an opportunity to measure conformity to the firm’s desired ethical standards.
b. Social audits and ethics audits perform basically the same function, so organizations can use them interchangeably.
c. They provide an objective method for demonstrating a company’s commitment to improving strategic planning, including its compliance with legal and ethical standards and social responsibility.
d. They can be a component of social audits.
e. They are systematic evaluations of an organization’s ethics program and performance to determine whether it is effective.

3. Which of the following is a possible unintended consequence of an organization’s focusing more on ethics planning
than on implementation?
a. Unethical conduct is viewed as acceptable behavior. b. The government implements its own audits.
c. The ethics program is poorly designed. d. Employees become annoyed.
e. The implementation process incurs large costs for the organization.

4. A(n) is a tool that companies can employ to identify and measure their ethical commitment to stakeholders. a. ethics audit
b. social audit
c. financial audit
d. performance audit e. external audit

5. Which of the following is not a step in the ethics auditing process?
a. Secure commitment of top executives and directors.
b. Review organizational mission, goals, values and policies, and define ethical priorities. c. Report the results to the U.S. Sentencing Commission.
d. Collect and analyze relevant information. e. Verify the results.

6. Which of the following is a statement that attests that the financial statements made in an audit are fairly stated, without limitations?
a. Adverse opinion b. Qualified opinion
c. Unqualified opinion d. Favorable opinion
e. Disclaimer of opinion

7. Under the statements.

, CEOs and CFOs may be criminally prosecuted if they knowingly certify misleading financial

a. Sherman Antitrust Act b. Ethical Compliance Act c. Robinson-Patman Act
d. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
e. Sherman Antitrust Act

8. During which of the following steps of the ethics auditing process does an organization identify the tools or methods
for measuring progress in improving employees’ ethical decisions and conduct?
a. Secure commitment of top managers and directors b. Establish a committee to oversee the audit
c. Define the scope of the audit
d. Collect and analyze relevant information e. Verify the results

9. Any attempt to verify outcomes and to compare them with standards can be considered a(n)
although many smaller firms do not use this word. a. ethical
b. auditing c. formal
d. informal
e. accounting

activity,

10.

are a primary stakeholder group and should be included in the ethics auditing process because their loyalty determines an organization’s success.
a. Customers b. Employees
c. Special interest groups d. Competitors
e. Legislators

11. The concept of ethics auditing emerged from the movement to audit and report on companies’ broader initiatives.
a. product development b. legal compliance
c. risk management d. public relations
e. social responsibility

12. Which of the following is probably the best way for a manager to provide good ethics leadership?
a. Hire an ethics officer
b. Write a code of conduct c. Conduct ethics audits
d. Set a good example
e. Only hire good employees

13. Which of the following is not a benefit of ethics auditing? a. It can improve a firm’s performance and effectiveness. b. It can increase a firm’s attractiveness to investors.
c. It can identify potential risks.
d. It can harm relationships with stakeholders.
e. It can reduce the risks associated with misconduct.

14. The word

implies a balanced organization that makes ethical financial decisions and also is ethical in more

subjective matters of corporate culture. a. compliance
b. integrity
c. financial management d. corporate culture
e. transparency

15. Which of the following is not a measure of ethical climate?
a. Collective skill
b. Collective ethical sensitivity c. Collective character
d. Collective judgment
e. Collective moral motivation

16. During which step of the auditing process should a firm examine all documents that make explicit commitments to ethical, legal, or social responsibility?
a. Secure commitment of top managers and directors. b. Establish a committee to oversee the audit.
c. Define the scope of the audit process.
d. Review organizational mission, goals, values, and policies. e. Verify the results.

17. A(n)

is a financial accounting firm that offers social auditing services or a nonprofit special interest group

with auditing experience that verifies the results of ethics auditing data analysis a. stakeholder
b. ethics audit consultant c. best practices expert d. financial consultant
e. board of directors

18. The process of verifying the results of an audit should involve standard procedures that control the information.
a. completeness
b. effectiveness and efficiency c. reliability and validity
d. independence
e. veracity

of the

19. Which of the following is not one of the top challenges facing CEOs today? . a. Keeping pace with regulation
b. Protecting against risks
c. Managing and utilizing social media d. Gaining adequate compensation
e. Managing reputation

20. Two useful indicators for assessing employee issues are a. staff turnover and stock price.
b. staff turnover and employee satisfaction. c. staff turnover and honesty.
d. employee satisfaction and attendance. e. employee satisfaction and productivity.

21. At which stage of the ethics auditing process would a hospital conduct focus groups with management, doctors, nurses, related health professionals, support staff, and patients?
a. Collect and analyze relevant information
b. Review organizational mission, goals, values, and policies c. Identify stakeholders
d. Report the results e. Verify the results

22. While ideally the board of directors financial audit committee conducts ethics audits, in most firms they are conducted by
a. managers or ethics officers. b. executive officers.
c. the CEO.
d. outside consultants.
e. secondary stakeholders.

23. Because ethics and social audits are

, there are few standards that a company can apply with regard to

reporting frequency, disclosure requirements, and remedial actions that it should take in response to results. a. not necessary
b. expensive
c. required by law d. mandatory
e. voluntary

24. What are the three Triple Bottom Line factors incorporated into the Global Reporting Initiative framework?
a. Economic, social, personal indicators
b. Political, social, and environmental indicators
c. Economic, social, and environmental indicators
d. Political, individual, and environmental indicators e. Political, individual, and personal indicators

25. What should be the first step in the auditing process?
a. Secure the commitment of top executives and directors b. Define the scope of the audit
c. Establish a committee to oversee the audit d. Collect and analyze data
e. Review organizational mission, goals, values, and policies

26. Retaliation against employees that report misconduct is a problem in cultures. a. weak ethical
b. strong ethical
c. high power distance d. diverse
e. international

27. Which of the following is not a phase of escalation during an ethical disaster?
a. The firm’s discovery of the misconduct b. Ethical issue recognition
c. The firm’s response to the misconduct d. The decision to act unethically
e. The firm’s decision to conduct an ethics audit

28. Which of the following is not a technique for collecting evidence during the ethics audit?
a. Ratio analysis
b. Observing the data-collection process c. Publishing the results of the audit
d. Examining internal and external documents
e. Confirming information in the firm’s accounting records

29.

report.

is an independent assessment of the quality, accuracy, and completeness of a company’s social or ethics

a. Publication b. Verification c. Auditing
d. Analysis
e. Validation

30. What should be the final step in the ethics auditing process?
a. Define the scope of the audit
b. Secure the commitment of top managers and directors c. Collect and analyze data
d. Report the findings e. Verify the results

31. Ethics audits can help companies identify potential before they reach crisis dimensions.
a. competitive advantages b. risks and liabilities
c. productivity issues
d. technological glitches e. market opportunities

so they can implement plans to eliminate or reduce them

32. During the data-collection phase of the audit, the primary objective is to generate a variety of opinions about how the company is perceived and whether it is
a. fulfilling employee benefits commitments. b. bringing in new customers.
c. meeting profit projections.
d. meeting earnings projections.
e. fulfilling stakeholders’ expectations.

33. Independent verification of the ethics audit is important because it lends the report a. credibility and formality.
b. credibility and reliability. c. credibility and objectivity. d. objectivity and civility.
e. objectivity and reliability.

34. When The Gap posts the results of its ethics audit on its web site, it is engaged in which of the following steps of the ethics auditing process?
a. Submit the results to the U.S. Sentencing Commission b. Define the scope of the audit
c. Collect and analyze relevant information d. Verify the results
e. Report the results

35. While social reports often discuss issues related to a firm’s performance in the four dimensions of social responsibility, as well as to specific social responsibility and ethical issues, ethics audits have a narrower focus on assessing and reporting on a firm’s performance in terms of
a. ethical and legal conduct.
b. environmental performance. c. financial performance.
d. customer satisfaction. e. ethical misconduct.

36. Compare and contrast ethics auditing and financial auditing. How can the tools of financial auditing be applied to ethics audits?

37. Explain the benefits and risks of ethics auditing.

38. How can companies secure stakeholder input during an ethics audit? Why is it important to do so?

39. Describe the process of conducting an ethics audit in detail.

40. What is the Global Reporting Initiative? What is its goal? Why has it grown in importance?

Chapter 10

1. identified four cultural dimensions that can have a profound impact on the business environment:
individualism/collectivism, power distance, uncertainty avoidance, and masculinity/femininity. a. Milton Friedman
b. Abraham Maslow c. Adam Smith
d. Geert Hofstede
e. John Maynard Keynes

2. products encourage consumers to return and buy more. This approach is also known as planned obsolescence.
a. Laissez-faire b. Dumping
c. Collectivistic
d. Made-to-break e. Multinational

3. is a term used by Adam Smith to explain the inherent mechanisms at work in free market systems that keep
commerce in equilibrium. It is also known as the “invisible hand.”
a. Consumerism
b. Cultural relativism c. Social democracy d. Laissez-fair
e. Bimodal wealth distribution

4. assumes that humans may not act rationally because of genetics, learned behavior, and rules of thumb. a. Rational economics
b. Socialism
c. Cultural relativism d. National culture
e. Behavioral economics

5. Which of the following statements about multinational corporations (MNCs) is false?
a. MNCs are corporate organizations that operate on a global scale without significant ties to any one nation or region.
b. MNCs are inherently unethical and always do harm in the countries in which they operate.
c. MNCs are characterized by a global strategy of focusing on opportunities throughout the world.
d. Some MNCs are so large and powerful that their revenues are greater than the gross domestic products of many countries.
e. Because of their size and power, MNCs have been the subject of much criticism and the source of a number of ethical issues.

6. Increasing the wealth gap between nations and misusing and misallocating scarce resources are ethical issue accusations related to
a. cultural differences.
b. multinational corporations. c. consumerism.
d. legal differences.
e. international negotiations.

7. Which of the following is not a criticism of or charge against multinational corporations (MNCs)?
a. They transfer jobs overseas, where wage rates are lower b. They increase the gap between rich and poor nations
c. They pay excessively high taxes everywhere
d. They exploit the labor markets of host countries
e. They have an unfair advantage when competing with local businesses

8. Which of the following is a measure taken by governments to curtail MNC practices that create ethical issues?
a. Levying import taxes to lower the prices MNCs charge for their products b. Halting the establishment of minimum wage laws
c. Avoiding the United Nations’ monitoring efforts d. Preventing the formation of labor unions
e. Imposing export taxes to force MNCs to share more of their profits

9. occurs when the middle class shrinks, resulting in highly concentrated wealth amongst the rich and a large number of poor people with very few resources.
a. Communism b. Socialism
c. Bimodal wealth distribution d. A two-class social structure e. Laissez-faire capitalism

10. An unconscious reference to one’s own cultural values, experiences, and knowledge is referred to as the a. cultural reference criterion.
b. unconscious cultural criterion. c. cultural-self criterion.
d. self-reference criterion.
e. unconscious cultural-self criterion.

11. When in Rome, do as the Romans do, or you must adapt to the cultural practices of the country in which you are operating are rationalizations businesspeople sometimes offer for straying from their own ethical values when doing business abroad. This practice is called
a. self-reference criterion. b. country cultural values. c. consumerism.
d. cultural relativism. e. dumping.

12.

involves transactions across national boundaries. It is a practice that brings together people who have different cultures, values, laws, and ethical standards.
a. Global business
b. Country cultural values c. Social democracy
d. Cultural relativism
e. Bimodal wealth distribution

13. What concept refers to economic theories advocating the creation of a society where wealth and power are distributed evenly, relative to the amount of work expended in production?
a. Rational economics b. Socialism
c. Capitalism
d. Rational capitalism e. Fascism

14. Risk compartmentalization occurs when
a. companies place their most problematic employees into separate profit centers so that they cannot influence one another to act unethically.
b. all profit centers within a corporation are aware of the code of ethics.
c. all profit centers within an organization become aware of the consequences of competitors’ actions.
d. various profit centers within an organization become unaware of the consequences of their actions on the firm as a whole.
e. ethics and compliance programs reduce the risk of misconduct.

15.

has been codified in a United Nations document and is defined as an inherent dignity with equal and inalienable rights as the foundation of freedom, justice, and peace in the world.
a. Cultural relativism b. Human rights
c. Consumerism d. Dumping
e. Health care

16. Power distance dimension refers to the “power inequality” between superiors and subordinates. Which of the
following countries probably ranks high on the power distance scale?
a. Saudi Arabia b. Austria
c. England d. Denmark e. Sweden

17. Who argued during the 1930s that the state could stimulate economic growth and improve stability in the private sector?
a. Adam Smith
b. John Maynard Keynes c. Milton Friedman
d. Herbert Hoover e. Geert Hofstede

18. The practice of charging high prices for products sold in home markets while selling the same products in foreign markets at low prices, which do not cover the costs of exporting, is known as
a. price discrimination. b. price gouging.
c. dumping. d. skimming. e. loading.

19. assume(s) that a the market, through its own inherent mechanisms, will keep commerce in equilibrium. a. Social democracy
b. Laissez-faire economics c. Economics
d. Multinational corporations e. Rational economics

20. Those who ascribe to consumerism
a. believe that consumers should purchase everything they can afford. b. do not believe in taxes on locally made products.
c. believe that consumers should own the means of production.
d. believe that consumers, not producers, should dictate the economic structure of a society. e. believe that corporations should have the freedom to do whatever they want.

21.

is based upon the assumption that people are predictable and will maximize the utility of their choices relative to their needs and wants.
a. Rational economics b. Socialism
c. Capitalism
d. Behavioral economics e. Consumerism

22.

allows for private ownership of property and features a large government equipped to offer such services as education and health care to its citizens
a. Democracy b. Communism c. Socialism
d. Capitalism
e. Social democracy.

23. assumes that economic decisions are influenced by human behavior. a. Rational economics
b. Socialism c. Capitalism
d. Rational capitalism
e. Behavioral economics

24.

refers to how members of a society respond to ambiguity. A high score means that a culture tends to minimize risk-taking.
a. Rational economics b. National culture
c. Bimodal wealth distribution d. Power distance
e. Uncertainty avoidance

25. The

formed in 1995 and administers its own trade agreements, facilitates future trade negotiations, settles

trade disputes, and monitors the trade policies of member nations a. International Monetary Fund
b. United Nations
c. World Trade Organization
d. North American Free Trade Act e. European Union

26. What is a major role of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
a. It determines the credit ratings of countries.
b. It is the lender of last resort for individuals who cannot secure other types of loans. c. It functions as a collection agent for global banks.
d. It makes short-term loans to member countries that have deficits and provides foreign currencies for its members.
e. It provides mortgage loans to international home buyers.

27. Which of the following organizations emerged from the Bretton Woods agreement of 1944, where a group of international leaders decided that the primary responsibility for the regulation of monetary relationships among national economies should rest in an extra-national body?
a. International Monetary Fund b. United Nations
c. World Trade Organization
d. North American Free Trade Act e. European Union

28. These values were developed by a reverend and the UN Secretary General. They express support for universal human rights.
a. The Global Sullivan Principles b. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
c. FSGO
d. Global common values e. UN Global Compact

29. What is the purpose of the UN Global Compact?
a. To promote free trade around the world
b. To support international banking institutions c. To uphold the principle of consumerism
d. To provide legal representation to international corporations facing lawsuits e. To promote human rights, sustainability, and eradicate corruption

30. What is the AACSB?
a. A major international institution regulating banks around the world b. An accrediting institution for organizational ethics
c. A non-political international governing body
d. An international organization that promotes a set of principles promoting the teaching of responsible management in business schools
e. A group that promotes sustainability and environmental awareness

31. As business facilitates exchanges, consumption beyond basic needs will increase globally. The important issues related to consumerism include all but which of the following?
a. What are the impacts of production on the environment, on society, and on individuals?
b. What are the impacts of certain forms of consumerism on the environment, on society, and on individuals?
c. How much of what we deem necessary for consumption is influenced by corporations?
d. What are necessities and what are luxuries?
e. What are the impacts of poor countries’ consumption patterns on wealthy countries?

32. Which two developing countries are expected to generate some of the largest increases in consumption in the future?
a. The United States and Russia b. Russia and China
c. China and United States d. Brazil and Russia
e. China and India

33. According to the World Trade Organization, which of the following products and services are most vulnerable to protectionism?
a. Textbooks and other school supplies b. Travel agencies
c. Music and dance
d. Intellectual property
e. Shoes, cars, and steel

34. Which of the following is not an article in the UN Human Rights Declaration?
a. Freedom of religion
b. The right to work in favorable conditions c. The right to electricity and running water
d. The right to a home adequate for health and well-being
e. Mothers and children being entitled to a special level of care

35. The growth of the Internet and differing security laws between countries has led to an increase in concern for the human right of
a. religion.
b. a secure job. c. healthcare.
d. privacy.
e. freedom of speech.

36. Which of the following is not a key area of global ethical risk, as outlined by the Eurasia Group?
a. Political instability
b. Strained relations with China
c. Instability in emerging markets
d. Unequal levels of child labor laws
e. Outlook for Euro-zone countries remains weak

37. What is a living wage?
a. The minimum wage that a worker requires to meet basic needs. b. The wage at which the average worker can live really well.
c. It is a synonym for minimum wage.
d. The wage received by child workers in order to stay alive. e. A wage given to workers entirely in the form of food.

38. The benefit of healthcare is being debated as to whether it is a right or privilege. Which of the following countries does not consider health care to be a right?
a. The United States b. France
c. Sweden d. Germany e. Canada

39. The

was a result of a meeting in which international leaders decided that primary responsibility for the

regulation of monetary relationships among nations should rest in an external body. a. United Nations
b. North American Free Trade Agreement c. World Trade Agreement
d. World Bank
e. International Monetary Fund

40. Which of the following has the power to enact legally binding ground rules for international commerce and trade policy?
a. Global Sullivan Principles b. World Trade Organization
c. Global Sullivan Organization d. Federal Trade Commission
e. Global Commerce Association

41. Why are many international business ethics issues different from domestic ethical issues?

global firm cannot succeed simply by applying its domestic ethical programs to other global environments. Although ethical issues such as honesty and integrity are common to most countries, differences in laws, political systems, and cultures require a more targeted approach to ethical decision making. Global ethics is not a “one size fits all” concept.

42. How can differences in two countries’ cultures create ethical issues in business?

43. Discuss the ethical issues associated with multinational corporations.

44. What are the roles of the IMF and the WTO in encouraging, monitoring, and regulating international trade?

45. What is dumping and why is it considered anticompetitive? Does the United States allow dumping?

Chapter 11

1. The leader demands instantaneous obedience and focuses on achievement, initiative, and self-control. a. democratic
b. coaching c. affiliative d. coercive
e. pacesetting

2. Which of the following types of leaders attempts to create employee satisfaction through bartering or negotiating for desired behaviors or level of performance?
a. Pacesetting leaders b. Coercive leaders
c. Transactional leaders
d. Transformational leaders e. Transmogrified leaders

3. Which of the following is not a habit of ethical leaders?
a. They are primarily concerned with themselves. b. They are proactive.
c. They have a passion to do right.
d. They are concerned with stakeholders’ interests. e. They are role models for organizational values.

4. Which of the following leadership types has a strong influence on coworker support and building an ethical culture through increasing employee commitment and fostering motivation?
a. Transformational leaders b. Transactional leaders
c. Coercive leaders
d. Pacesetting leaders e. Authoritative leaders

5. A coaching leader builds a positive climate by
a. valuing people, their emotions, and their needs.
b. focusing on communication across all layers of the organization.
c. inspiring employees to follow their departmental leaders without question. d. focusing on achievement, initiative, and self-control.
e. developing skills for success, delegating responsibility, and issuing challenging assignments.

6. Which leadership type values people, their emotions, and their needs and relies on friendship and trust to promote flexibility, innovation, and risk taking?
a. Authoritative leadership b. Coaching leadership
c. Pacesetting leadership d. Coercive leadership
e. Affiliative leadership

7. Sherry’s leadership style often creates a negative working climate because of the high standards she sets. Sherry is most likely a(n) leader.
a. autocratic b. democratic c. pacesetting d. empathetic e. coercive

8. are a primary influence on employee’s ethical behavior because they are role models for the organization’s
values.
a. Friends b. Parents c. Peers
d. Coworkers e. Leaders

9. As one of the seven habits of strong ethical leaders,

is “the glue that holds ethical concepts together.” This

trait can be developed early in life or developed over time through experience. a. adequate compensation
b. good employees
c. the passion to do right d. charisma
e. a great education

10. The

leader can create a negative climate because of the high standards that he or she sets. This style works

best for attaining quick results from highly motivated individuals who value achievement and take initiative. a. authoritative
b. affiliative
c. democratic d. coaching
e. pacesetting

11. The

of an organization can influence the acceptance of, adherence to, transmittal, and monitoring of

organizational norms, values, and codes of ethics. a. nation of origin
b. locus of control c. leadership style
d. production methods e. opportunity

12. Ethical leadership should be based on
a. holistic thinking that embraces the complex issues facing firms every day. b. a strong shareholder desire for profits.
c. the opinions of a leader who defines success in terms of group gratification. d. short­term thinking that looks at the firm’s health on a day­to­day basis.
e. people who embrace a transactional style of leadership.

13. A fundamental problem in traditional personal character development is that specific vales are used to teach about a philosophy, which may be inappropriate where cultural diversity and privacy must be respected. A solution is
a. to teach more general values to develop a set of basic beliefs.
b. to ignore moral philosophies and to train solely based on the organization’s code of conduct.
c. to teach completely different values and skills in different cultural environments.
d. to teach individuals intellectual skills that address the complexities of ethical issues in business.
e. to teach individuals the literary canons of the major philosophers from both western and eastern religions.

14. Strong ethical leaders have a passion for all of the following except to a. do the right thing.
b. be proactive
c. consider stakeholder interests
d. be role models for the organization and its employees. e. satisfy shareholders before other stakeholder groups.

15. Leaders whose decisions and actions are contrary to the firm’s values send a signal a. that the firm’s values are trivial or irrelevant.
b. that they are providing a good example of what not to do. c. that the firm’s corporate culture is highly important.
d. that they are working toward improving the ethical culture of the firm. e. that they care about the environment.

16. Which attribute of ethical leaders will not be effective unless the leader is personally involved in the organization’s
key ethical decisions?
a. Stakeholder compassion b. Proactive leadership
c. Transparency
d. Moral philosophy e. Compensation

17. Which type of leader relies on participation and teamwork to reach collaborative decisions?
a. Transformational b. Coercive
c. Democratic d. Coaching
e. Pacesetting

18. What is not a necessity for strong ethical leaders to make good decisions?
a. Complete information b. Courage
c. Experience making the right decisions d. Knowledge
e. The ability to coerce subordinates

19. Which of the following is not a way to avoid groupthink in small-group decision making?
a. Express the need to examine all alternatives. b. Assign one person to be “Devil’s advocate”.
c. Discourage team members from discussing the group’s ideas with people outside the group. d. Set up a number of independent groups to work on the same issue.
e. Emphasize to each team member that he or she is a “critical evaluator” with the responsibility to express opinions and objections freely.

20. is the ability or authority to guide and direct others toward a goal. a. Leadership
b. Collaboration c. Democracy
d. Transparency e. Pacesetting

21. These leaders are characterized as having superficial charm, no conscience, grandiose self-worth, little or no empathy, and enjoy flouting rules.
a. Unethical leaders
b. Psychopathic leaders c. Apathetic leaders
d. Ethical leaders
e. Charismatic leaders

22. This occurs when there are two or more positions on an ethical decision. a. Ethical leadership
b. Competing leadership c. Ethical conflicts
d. Empowerment
e. Interpersonal communication

23. Leaders having a(n) conflict management style are highly assertive and not very cooperative. a. Accommodating
b. Avoiding
c. Collaborating d. Competing
e. Compromising

24. Leaders having an accommodating conflict management style are a. Highly assertive and not very cooperative.
b. Not effective because they avoid conflict at any costs – even if it leads to misconduct. c. Highly cooperative but non-assertive.
d. In between the assertiveness and cooperativeness dimensions. e. Cooperative and assertive.

25. Leaders with a(n)

conflict management style desire to meet the needs of stakeholders and strongly adhere to

organizational values and principles. a. Avoiding
b. Competing
c. Compromising
d. Accommodating e. Collaborating

26. A

-based culture encourages employees to express concerns, bring up ethical issues, and take a proactive

approach toward resolving conflicts. a. Values
b. Profits
c. Consumers
d. Shareholders e. Stakeholders

27. and reporting are two major dimensions of ethical communication. a. Collaboration
b. Transparency c. Recognition
d. Listening
e. Compromising

28. is a two-way process in which the communicator communicates with superiors and subordinates. a. Cooperation
b. Transparency
c. Leader-follower congruence d. Reporting
e. Collaboration

29. The four categories of communication include all of the following except a. Reporting
b. Small group communication c. Nonverbal communication
d. Interpersonal communication e. Listening

30.

occurs when one or more group members feel pressured to conform to the group’s decision even if they personally disagree.
a. Group polarization
b. Leader-follower congruence c. Groupthink
d. Competition e. Conflict

31. When a group is more likely to move toward a more extreme position than the group members might have done individually, this is referred to as
a. Leader-follower congruence b. Groupthink
c. Values-based culture d. Ethical leadership
e. Group polarization

32. This occurs when leaders and followers share the same vision, ethical expectations, and objectives for the company. a. Groupthink
b. Leader-follower congruence c. Group polarization
d. Values-based culture e. Ethical leadership

33. provide(s) important guidelines for employees on how to act in different situations. a. Leader-exchange theory
b. Small group communication c. Interpersonal communication d. Codes of ethics
e. Leader-follower congruence

34. Gossip, manipulation, playing favorites, and taking credit for another’s work are all examples commonly associated with
a. Organizational politics b. Political skills
c. Competitiveness d. Groupthink
e. Ethical conflict

35. can be used to promote organizational goals and help rather than hinder other employees. a. Office politics
b. Political skills
c. Ethical conflict d. Democracy
e. Coercion

36.

leaders are passionate about the company, live out corporate values daily in their behavior in the workplace, and form long-term relationships with employees and other stakeholders.
a. Authentic b. Coaching
c. Transformational d. Transactional
e. Pacesetter

37. All of these are true about feedback except
a. Most companies recognize the need for organizational leaders to provide feedback to employees.
b. Most companies recognize the need for organizational leaders to get feedback from their employees.
c. Feedback can occur through informal methods like a simple conversation or through more formal systems such as employee performance evaluations.
d. Employee feedback can be generated in many different ways, including interviews, anonymous surveys, ethical audits, and websites.
e. Negative feedback is important to inform employees of weaknesses and provide constructive ways for improving them.

38.

leaders communicate a sense of mission, stimulate new ways of thinking, and enhance as well as generate new learning experiences.
a. Authentic
b. Democratic
c. Transformational d. Transactional
e. Cooperative

39. The most effective leaders possess the ability to manage themselves and their relationships with others effectively, a skill known as
a. Conflict management b. Group theory
c. Collaboration
d. Emotional intelligence
e. Leader-follower theory

40. These leaders are passionate about the company, live out corporate values daily in their behavior in the workplace, and form long-term relationships with employees and other stakeholders.
a. Transactional b. Compromising
c. Transformational d. quantitative
e. Authentic

41. The acronym RADAR stands for
a. Recognize, Answer, Discourage, Avoid, & Recover b. Recognize, Answer, Detect, Avoid, & Recover
c. Recover, Answer, Discourage, Avoid, & Recognize d. Recognize, Avoid, Detect, Answer, & Recover
e. Recover, Avoid, Detect, Answer, & Recognize

42. From an ethical standpoint, leaders should take time during this step of the RADAR model to fix any weaknesses in the ethics program and develop improved ways of detecting misconduct.
a. Detect b. Answer
c. Recovery d. Avoid
e. Recognize

43. This step of the RADAR model involves responding to the discovery of an ethical dilemma through communication both internally and externally.
a. answer b. recover
c. recognize d. avoid
e. detect

44. Which two steps of the RADAR model occur when a firm is faced with an ethical conflict or dilemma. a. recognize & avoid
b. answer & recover c. detect & avoid
d. answer & detect
e. recover and detect

45. Many managers are reluctant to engage in this step of the RADAR model because they fear doing so will uncover questionable conduct that could put the firm in an unfavorable light.
a. avoid
b. recover c. answer d. detect
e. recognize

Essay
46. Discuss the role of leadership in understanding and executing ethical decision making in organizations.

47. Describe the RADAR model, discussing key objectives needed to be obtained for each step of the model.

48. Discuss the differences between the five styles of conflict management and provide an example for each conflict management style.

49. Discuss the differences between groupthink and group polarization, providing examples of each.

50. Describe and differentiate between a compliance-based approach and an integrity-based approach to leadership.
Which approach is preferred, justify your response.

Chapter 12

1. All of the following are facts about water pollution, except:
a. Projected increases in fertilizer use suggest there will be a 10% – 20% global increase in nitrogen water contamination.
b. Up to 90% of wastewater in developing countries flow untreated into rivers, lakes, and coastal zones. c. In developing countries, 70% of industrial waste is dumped untreated into water sources.
d. Every day, 2 million tons of untreated human waste is put into some water source. e. Water use is projected to decrease by 50% within 20 years.

2. Trying to pinpoint who is responsible for environmental degradation is not always easy, especially when it involves
__________ .
a. different countries b. several managers
c. more than one CEO
d. differing regulatory agencies
e. both federal and local governments

3. One of the biggest factors in land pollution is the dumping of waste into landfills.
world’s biggest wasters.
a. European b. Chinese
c. Russian
d. American e. Canadian

consumers are by far the

4. The world’s forests are being destroyed at a rate of nearly 50,000 square miles annually. The reasons for this wide­
scale destruction are varied and include all except:
a. The boom in biofuels
b. The soil is great for farming c. Logging profits
d. Cycle of poverty
e. Converting land to other use

5. Although limiting urban sprawl creates disadvantages for renewal movements that reduce sprawl.
a. car and oil companies b. the airline industry
c. the railroad industry
d. service oriented companies e. humans and animals

, many businesses can benefit from urban

6. Because genetically modified seeds are

, farmers cannot keep any of the seed themselves but must

purchase seeds each year from companies such as Monsanto. a. so small
b. worthless
c. uncollectable d. invisible
e. patented

7. The first Earth Day, increasing stakeholder awareness of environmental concerns and the creation of the
Environmental Protection Agency brought to the forefront. a. corporate social responsibility
b. alternative energy sources c. diversity
d. sustainability e. competition

8. All of the following are goals of the Environmental Protection Agency, except:
a. Focus on the activities of business b. Protecting America’s water
c. Cleaning up communities and advancing sustainable development d. Taking action on climate change and improving air quality
e. Ensuring the safety of chemicals and preventing pollution

9. The Clean Air Act:
a. Allowed the EPA to track industrial chemicals
b. Focuses on promoting alternative forms of energy c. Established national air quality standards
d. Provides tax benefits to consumers who purchase hybrid cars e. Focuses on reducing pollution through cost-effective change

10. The Clean Water Act makes it illegal for anyone to discharge any pollutant from a point source directly into navigable waters without a .
a. good reason b. direct order c. permit
d. inspector present e. limit

11. The
raw materials use.

focuses on reducing pollution through cost-effective changes in production, operation, and

a. Pollution Prevention Act
b. Toxic Substances Control Act c. Clean Air Act
d. Energy Policy Act e. Oil Pollution Act

12. All of these are ways of reducing pollution, except:
a. Designing environmentally friendly buildings b. Recycling
c. Greenwashing
d. Source reduction
e. Sustainable agriculture

13. Congress passed the

to empower the EPA with the ability to track the 75,000 industrial chemicals

currently produced or imported into the United States. a. Federal Water Pollution Control Act
b. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act c. Safe Drinking Water Act
d. Toxic Substances Control Act e. Food Quality Protection Act

14. Wind power holds great promise for the United States because of the energy could meet as much as 20 percent of the nation’s energy needs. a. Rocky Mountains
b. Everglades c. Great Lakes d. Pacific Rim
e. Great Plains

, and experts believe wind

15. Geothermal energy provides alternative energy.
a. heat from the sun b. a radiated heat
c. heat from steam
d. a constant source of heat e. a dry heat

and is a more dependable energy source than some other forms of

16. Critics of nuclear power are concerned about all of the following, except:
a. Reduced emissions b. Worker safety
c. The transport of nuclear waste
d. Damage to plants from natural disasters e. Nuclear meltdowns

17. Perhaps the most controversial form of alternative energy after nuclear power is . a. hydopower
b. geothermal power c. solar power
d. wind power e. ethanol

18. in the United States,

provides only 7% of total output but provides 19% of total electricity

production worldwide, making it the largest form of renewable energy. a. wind power
b. geothermal power
c. hydroelectric power d. solar power
e. nuclear power

19. Many businesses responded to sustainability by adopting a triple-bottom line approach; taking into consideration social and environmental performance variables in addition to .
a. managerial performance b. economic performance
c. board of directors performance d. customer focus
e. stakeholder focus

20. A

business attempts to avoid dealing with environmental issues and hopes nothing bad happens or no

one ever finds out about an environmental accident or abuse. a. newly established
b. socially responsible c. low-commitment
d. bankrupt
e. law-abiding

21. is one of the country’s greatest sustainability success stories.
a. Water conservation b. Pollution control
c. Manufacturing d. Composting
e. Recycling

22. Stakeholder assessment is an important part of a approach to environmental issues. a. low-commitment
b. medium-commitment c. high-commitment
d. hands-off e. hands-on

23. Through

, it is possible to quantify the trade-offs to determine whether to accept or reject

environmentally-related activities and programs. a. risk management
b. management voting c. board directives
d. legal requirements e. customer input

24. Organizations highly committed to environmental responsibility may conduct an audit of their efforts and report the results to all interested .
a. agencies b. countries
c. stakeholders d. individuals
e. suppliers

25. Which option includes the assessment and improvement of business strategies, economic ectors, work practices, technologies, and lifestyles while maintaining the natural environment?
a. Competitive advantage b. Marketing
c. Sustainability d. Greenwashing e. Risk analysis

26. Sustainability is the long-term well-being of the natural environment and the mutually beneficial interactions among
_____.
a. customers, investors, managers, and policies
b. board members, presidents, managers, and nonprofit organizations c. investors, creditors, suppliers, and the marketing department
d. nature, individuals, organizations, and business strategies e. managers, boards, CEO’s, and stakeholder strategies

27. Which industry invests the most in alternative clean energy sources?
a. The automobile industry b. The clothing industry
c. The airline industry
d. The federal government e. The oil and gas industry

28. All of these are examples of social responsibility concerns, except:
a. Product price
b. Consumer protection c. Employee well-being d. Sustainability
e. Legal responsibilities

29. The protection of air, water, land, biodiversity, and emerged as a major issue in the twentieth century. a. employee relations
b. renewable natural resources
c. environmental legal regulations d. consumer protection
e. air pollution

30. can cause markedly shorter life spans, along with chronic respiratory problems in humans and animals. a. Water pollution
b. Air pollution
c. Global warming d. Deforestation
e. Acid rain

31. The Kyoto Protocol created in 1997 is an international treaty meant to curb global . a. natural resource use
b. greenwashing activities c. water pollution
d. greenhouse gas emissions e. competition

Essay
32. How does sustainability relate to ethical decision making and social responsibility?

33. Discuss the benefits of green marketing and the long-term pitfalls of greenwashing.

34. Why is the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) said to be the most influential regulatory agency?

HRM 522 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer University New

HRM/522 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/HRM-522-Final-Exam-Week-11-Strayer-NEW-HRM522W11E.htm

 

Chapters 7 Through 12

Chapter 7

1. Expert power usually stems from
a. a superior’s credibility with his or her subordinates.
b. the belief that a certain person has the right to exert influence and that certain others have an obligation to accept it.
c. a person’s ability to influence the behavior of others by offering them something desirable. d. a person’s ability to penalize the actions or behavior of another.
e. a person’s perceptions that his or her goals or objectives are similar to another’s.

2. Which of the following statements about power is true?
a. The five bases of power are mutually exclusive.
b. People generally use only one base of power to effect change in others.
c. Expert power exists when one person takes actions that will lead that person and others to achieve their mutual objectives.
d. Power can be used to motivate individuals ethically or unethically. e. The use of power is unethical.

3. An organization that delegates decision-making authority as far down the chain of command as possible and has relatively few formal rules is
a. centralized.
b. decentralized. c. flat.
d. tall.
e. ethical.

4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ethical corporate culture?
a. Management and the board demonstrate their commitment to strong controls through their communications and actions.
b. Every employee is encouraged and required to have hands-on involvement in the internal control system. c. Management conducts itself in a way that is not consistent with the code of conduct.
d. Employees are expected to be in the communication loop through resolutions and corrective actions.
e. Employees have the ability to report policy exceptions anonymously to any member of the organization.

5. Although both structures can create opportunities for unethical conduct, which organizational structure tends to be more ethical?
a. Tall b. Flat
c. Centralized
d. Decentralized
e. All organizational structures are equally ethical.

6. The ability to influence the behavior of others by offering them something desirable is best described as a. coercive power.
b. reward power. c. expert power.
d. legitimate power. e. referent power.

7. An advantage of the decentralized organization is that
a. the focus is on formal rules, policies, and procedures backed up with elaborate control systems. b. there is a high level of bureaucracy.
c. each worker knows his or her job and what is specifically expected as well as how to carry out designated tasks.
d. it is adaptable and can quickly respond to external change. e. there is minimal upward communication.

8. When developing an ethical culture, there has to be a(n)

element because every organization has employees

that will try to take advantage if there is an opportunity for misconduct. a. rules-based
b. statement of mission c. ethical
d. compliance e. punitive

9. The apathetic organizational culture exhibits
a. high concern for people but minimal concern for performance. b. little concern for people but a high concern for performance.
c. minimal concern for people and performance. d. high concern for people and performance.
e. no concern for maintaining a cohesive organizational culture.

10. The exacting organizational culture is interested in
a. performance but has little concern for employees. b. investors’ impressions of profitability.
c. maintaining a strong corporate culture. d. employees and performance.
e. employees’ impressions.

11. Associating with others who are unethical and who have the opportunity to act unethically can lead to a learning process known as
a. compliance. b. misconduct. c. opportunity.
d. differential equations.
e. differential association.

12. Which of the following statements about corporate culture is false?
a. Corporate culture refers to the patterns and rules that govern the behavior of an organization and its employees, particularly the shared values, beliefs, and customs.
b. The values and ethical beliefs that actually guide the firm’s employees tend not to be the same ones that management states as defining the firm’s culture.
c. Corporate culture includes the behavioral patterns, concepts, values, ceremonies, and rituals that take place in an organization.
d. The culture of an organization may be explicitly stated or unspoken.
e. Failure to monitor or manage an organization’s culture may foster unethical behavior.

13. No formal dress codes, working late, participation in extracurricular activities, gestures, and legends represent a. a complacent workplace.
b. codes of ethics.
c. a firm’s organizational chart.
d. formal expressions of an organization’s culture.
e. informal expressions of an organization’s culture.

14. A cultural audit may be used to identify a. how cultured a firm’s employees are. b. unethical employees.
c. unethical organizations.
d. an organization’s culture. e. organizational structure.

15. The 2010 passage of the Dodd-Frank Act proposed additional monetary incentives for whistle-blowers. A primary concern about these new incentives is
a. they will encourage too many employees to attempt to blow the whistle on firms, even those that have done nothing wrong.
b. people do not generally respond at all to monetary incentives.
c. whistle-blowers might be tempted to report to the SEC with their reports and not report the misconduct to the
company’s internal compliance program.
d. people may exaggerate their claims in order to get a reward.
e. the funds paid out to whistle-blower might bankrupt companies.

16. Marcus is the top-performing development director his non-profit organization has ever had. He possesses countless tricks and tips to continue to bring in donations, positive publicity, and supporters. Marcus would likely have
over new development department staff. a. coercive power
b. group power
c. legitimate power d. expert power
e. democratic power

17.

bring together the functional expertise of employees from several different areas of the organization on a single project.
a. Quality circles
b. Informal groups c. Teams
d. Work groups e. Committees

18. Individuals, often from the same department, who band together for purposes that may or may not be relevant to the organization are called
a. quality circles.
b. informal groups. c. teams.
d. work groups. e. committees.

19. In order for whistle-blowing to be effective, a. financial compensation must be very high.
b. employees must wish ill on the organization for which they work.
c. lawmakers must make an effort to force employees to discuss details about the misconduct.
d. it requires that the individual have adequate knowledge of wrongdoing that could damage society. e. it must occur at a very large multinational corporation.

20. Which of the following statements about group norms is false?
a. Group norms define the limit on deviation from group expectations.
b. Group norms have the power to force a strong degree of conformity among group members.
c. Management must carefully monitor the norms of all the various groups within the organization, as well as the organization’s corporate culture.
d. Sanctions may be necessary to bring in line a group whose norms deviate sharply from the overall culture. e. Group norms never conflict with the overall organization’s culture.

21. Management’s sense of the organization’s culture a. is always the same as employees’ perceptions. b. is usually easily adopted by employees.
c. is always readily evident to employees.
d. may be quite different from employees’ perceptions. e. is always different from employees’ perceptions.

22. Motivation is defined as
a. a person’s incentive or drive to work.
b. a force within the individual that focuses his or her behavior on achieving a goal. c. personal ambition without regard to the impact on others.
d. a desire to be finished with a project. e. individual goals.

23. When a foreman orders an assembly-line employee to carry out a task, which the employee perceives as unethical yet the employee feels compelled to complete, the foreman is exercising
a. legitimate power. b. expert power.
c. reward power.
d. contingent punishment power.
e. noncontingent reward behavior.

24. To motivate employees, an organization offers to employees to work toward organizational objectives. a. punishment; force
b. peer pressure; guilt
c. incentives; encourage d. rewards; bribe
e. threats; frighten

25. Which of the following cultures combines high levels of concern for people and performance?
a. Apathetic culture b. Caring culture
c. Integrative culture d. Exacting culture
e. Cooperative culture

26. Ethical concerns in centralized structures can occur because of very little a. mobility.
b. upward communication. c. scapegoating.
d. downward communication. e. communication rigidity.

27. A high concern for people but minimal concern for performance can best describe the culture. a. caring
b. apathetic c. exacting
d. shareholder e. employee

28. The establishment of an ethics committee within an organization a. is usually highly informal.
b. is usually organized around general business topics.
c. might raise ethical concerns or resolve ethical dilemmas. d. usually always succeeds.
e. usually increases ethical tension.

29. Which of the following is not a form of retaliation commonly experienced by whistle-blowers?
a. Relocation or reassignment b. No promotion or raises
c. The cold shoulder by coworkers d. Exclusion from work activities
e. Praise by supervisors for their honesty

30. are used to subdivide duties within functional areas of a company. a. Work groups
b. Individuals c. Experts
d. Consultants e. Committees

31. The

leader demands instantaneous obedience and focuses on punishing wrong behavior, achievement,

initiative, and self-control. a. democratic
b. coaching c. affiliative d. coercive
e. pacesetting

32. Melinda is a very popular executive. She inspires her employees to follow a common vision, facilitates change, and creates a strongly positive climate, all while stressing performance. Melinda has helped to create a(n) culture. a. authoritative
b. caring
c. integrative d. exacting
e. affiliative

33.

are satisfied by social and interpersonal relationships, and activities.
a. Growth needs; relatedness needs b. Personal needs; group needs
c. Coercive needs; ethical needs
d. Relatedness needs; growth needs e. Group needs; personal needs

are satisfied by creative or productive

34. Over the years, scholars have developed more than 100 definitions of culture. According to the text, all have the following common elements:
a. Culture is shared, relatively stable, and is formed over a long period of time. b. Culture is not shared, stable, and is formed over a long period of time.
c. Culture is shared, not stable, and is formed over a long period of time. d. Culture is shared, stable, and is formed over a short period of time.
e. Culture is man-made, shared, not stable, and is formed over a short period of time.

35. Because researchers have defined culture so many different ways, interchangeably.
a. cultural cues; management
b. cultural values; anthropology c. cultural values; culture
d. cultural cues; laws
e. cultural cues; management

and

are often used

36. Both individual ethics and organizational ethics have an impact on an employee’s
a. productivity.
b. personal happiness. c. compensation.
d. fitness level.
e. ethical intention.

37. A values-based ethics approach to ethical corporate cultures relies on a(n)
how customers and employees should be treated a. set of laws
b. explicit mission statement c. strong CEO
d. ethical audit
e. relaxed corporate culture

that defines the firm as well as

38. The idea that people learn ethical or unethical behavior while interacting with others who are a part of their role-sets is referred to as
a. differential dissonance.
b. cognitive memory dissonance. c. cognitive association.
d. differential association. e. casual interaction.

39. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act
a. only applies to firms with over 50 employees. b. has institutionalized internal whistle-blowing.
c. has placed more power under the Securities and Exchange Commission. d. requires all organizations to make their financial information public.
e. involves too many complicated steps for it to be feasible for most organizations.

40. The

rule explains variation in employee conduct through generalizing on the percentage of employees in any

given organization who will seek to do right versus how many will be indifferent. a. 10-30-40-20
b. 20-30-30-20 c. 40-10-10-40 d. 10-40-40-10 e. 80-20

41. Why do centralized organizations tend to be more ethical than decentralized ones? Can you think of a situation or example in which a decentralized organization might be more ethical than a centralized one?

42. How do societal expectations affect corporations and their ethical initiatives? Give an example of a company that
had to alter a product or service because of society’s concerns about its health, moral, or social impacts.

43. Describe the four organizational cultures and provide a company example of each organizational culture.

44. Describe the different kinds of power. Are some types of power more likely to result in ethical behavior than others?

45. How do group norms influence the ethical behavior of an organization? What happens when the norms of a particular group conflict with the organization’s corporate culture or objectives?

Chapter 8

1. Fostering ethical decision making within an organization requires improving the firm’s ethical standards and a. not doing business with suppliers.
b. implementing a hiring freeze.
c. training the “bad apples” so they are not bad anymore.
d. terminating ethical persons.
e. terminating the “bad apples” in the organization.

2. Which of the following statements about codes of conduct is false?
a. They are formal statements of what an organization expects of its employees. b. They guarantee an ethical business climate.
c. They help employees determine what behaviors are acceptable. d. They provide rules and guidelines for employees to follow.
e. They should be specific enough to be reasonably capable of preventing misconduct.

3. A strong ethics program includes all of the following elements except
a. a clause promising good stock market performance. b. a written code of conduct or ethics.
c. formal ethics training.
d. auditing, monitoring, enforcement, and revision of standards. e. an ethics officer to oversee the program.

4. In the absence of ethics programs, employees are likely to make decisions based on a. their observations of how their coworkers and superiors behave.
b. how they and their family members behave at home. c. their conscience.
d. their religious values. e. their family values.

5. are formal statements that describe what an organization expects of its employees in terms of ethical behavior.
a. Mission statements b. Codes of conduct
c. Policies on confidentiality d. Environmental policies
e. The Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations

6. What is not a common mistake when designing and implementing an ethics program?
a. Failing to fully understand the goals of the program b. Not setting realistic or measurable goals
c. Having top management take ownership of the ethics program
d. Developing materials that do not address the needs of the average employee
e. Transferring a program between countries and cultures without making adjustments

7. A(n)

orientation creates order by requiring that employees identify with and commit to specific required

conduct, whereas a(n)
a. obedience; values b. compliance; values c. legal; values
d. values; compliance
e. values; obedience

orientation strives to develop shared standards.

8. For an ethical compliance program to properly function,
a. consistent enforcement and disciplinary action are essential. b. employees must be monitored using any means necessary. c. it is not necessary to set measurable program objectives.
d. the same program should be used in all countries of operation, regardless of cultural differences. e. the company must wait until after misconduct occurs to develop a means of preventing it.

9. Which of the following is the most comprehensive?
a. Code of values
b. Code of conduct c. Code of ethics
d. Statement of values
e. Statement of principles

10. At the heart of the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations is a a. “tit-for-tat” philosophy that punishes wrongdoing.
b. Golden Rule philosophy.
c. Iron Fist philosophy severely punishes wrongdoing.
d. carrot-and-stick philosophy that rewards efforts to improve ethics. e. utilitarian philosophy of the greatest good for the greatest number.

11. The Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations require federal judges to increase fines for organizations that continually
a. improve their ethics programs. b. eliminate misconduct.
c. fail to install a Federal Sentencing Guidelines program. d. fail to report ethics program activities.
e. tolerate misconduct.

12. Which of the following legislation has increased the responsibilities on ethics officers and boards of directors to monitor financial reporting?
a. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
b. Robinson Patman Act
c. Ethics Officer Responsibility Act d. Sherman Antitrust Act
e. Enron Financial Responsibility Act

13.

may be more inclined to engage in unethical organizational conduct because of social isolation that creates insensitivity and a lower level of motivation to regulate ethical decision making.
a. Low-level employees
b. International managers c. Top managers
d. Government officials
e. Fortune 500 companies

14. Top managers tend to focus on returns.
a. financial performance b. employee satisfaction
c. ethical performance

because their jobs and personal identity are often connected to quarterly

d. the board of directors’ recommendations
e. adherence to the code of conduct

15. All of the following are useful in monitoring ethical conduct and measuring the effectiveness of the ethical program
except
a. observation of employees. b. internal audits.
c. firing.
d. surveys.
e. reporting systems.

16. A code of ethics that does not address specific high-risk activities within the scope of daily activities is a. sufficient.
b. inadequate. c. satisfactory.
d. acceptable as long as individual values prevent misconduct.
e. acceptable according to the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations.

17. Organizational can contribute to diminished employee trust and increased employee turnover. a. leadership succession
b. compensation policies c. ethics programs
d. rules
e. misconduct

18. Most executives feel that which of the following is the primary reason for much of the unchecked misconduct in business?
a. Bad employees
b. An inattentive board of directors c. Customer pressures
d. Financial performance pressures
e. Inadequate ethics and compliance programs

19. Which of the following is an advantage of a values-based ethics program over a compliance-based one?
a. Employees learn to make decisions based on values such as fairness, compassion, respect, and transparency. b. Diverse employees have differing values.
c. It requires employees to identify with and commit to specific required conduct.
d. A values orientation uses legal terms, statutes, and contracts that teach employees the rules and penalties for noncompliance.
e. Values and compliance programs both take basically the same approach.

20. Which of the following is a common mistake made in implementing an ethics program?
a. Setting realistic and measurable program objectives
b. Developing materials that do not address the needs of the average employee c. Adapting a firm’s ethics program to its international operations
d. Allowing employees to practice the skills they learn in ethics training through case studies and/or group exercises
e. Management taking ownership of the ethics program

21. Aurico is a company that offers ethics hotline maintenance and monitoring services for organizations. Which component of the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations compliance program does this service help organizations to satisfy?
a. Code of conduct
b. Enforcement of standards, codes, and rules c. Delegation of authority to ethical persons
d. Systems for monitoring, auditing, and reporting misconduct e. Ethics training

22. Organizations can become “bad barrels” not because of unethical individuals but because a. the pressure to succeed creates opportunities that reward unethical decisions.
b. the pressure to succeed creates opportunities that punish unethical decisions. c. they lack leadership.
d. they lack values.
e. they have no “bad apples.”

23. Which of the following statements about training is false?
a. It can educate employees about the firm’s policies and expectations, as well as about relevant laws and regulations and general social standards.
b. It can dictate personal ethics on the job.
c. It can make employees aware of available resources, support systems, and designated personnel who can assist them with ethical and legal advice.
d. It can empower employees to ask tough questions and make ethical decisions.
e. It can affect the influence of organizational culture, coworkers and superiors, and opportunity.

24. Which of the following is not an advantage of having a comprehensive code of conduct?
a. To guide employees in situations where the ethical course of action is not obvious. b. To help a company remain in compliance with complex government regulations.
c. To help employees fight for satisfactory levels of compensation and benefits.
d. To help promote constructive social change by raising awareness of the community’s needs and encouraging
employees and other stakeholders to help.
e. To build public trust and enhance business reputations.

25. A

generates an ethical program that creates order by requiring that employees identify with and commit to

specific required conduct using legal terms and statutes. a. values orientation
b. code of conduct
c. statement of values d. code of ethics
e. compliance orientation

26. In the long run, a(n)

orientation may be better for companies, perhaps because it increases employees’

awareness of ethics issues at work. a. code
b. obedience c. compliance d. values
e. individual

27. Which of the following is not a main goal of successful ethics programs?
a. Identify key risk areas that employees will face.
b. Align employee conduct with organizational reputation and branding.
c. Provide a hierarchy of leadership for employees to contact when they are faced with an ethical dilemma that they do not know how to resolve.
d. Allow employees to solve ethical issues themselves using their best judgment.
e. Allow a mechanism for employees to voice their concerns that is anonymous, but allows for the provision of feedback to key questions.

28. The individual responsible for implementing disciplinary action for violation of a firm’s ethics standards is usually the a. CEO.
b. president.
c. immediate supervisor. d. ethics officer.
e. Chairman of the board.

29. To ensure that an ethics program addresses the needs of the average employee, it should include all of the following
except
a. feedback from employees across the firm. b. a question-and-answer section.
c. additional resources for guidance. d. lengthy legal documents.
e. checklists, illustrations, and cartoons where appropriate.

30.

serve as a central contact point where critical comments, dilemmas, and advice can be assigned to the person most appropriate for handling a specific case.
a. Training programs b. Mission statements c. Codes of conduct
d. Hotlines
e. Boards of directors

31. One of the main reasons employees do not report observed misconduct is a. apathy.
b. most employees do not observe any misconduct. c. fear of retaliation.
d. laws and regulations protect the employee committing the misconduct. e. hotlines do not work well.

32. The ultimate “stick” associated with the FSGO is fines or probation, which involves on-site observation by consultants, monitoring of the company’s ethical compliance efforts, and
a. reporting to the U.S. Sentencing Commission on the company’s progress in avoiding misconduct. b. installation of an ethics hotline.
c. payment of any penalties levied.
d. appointment of an appropriate high-level manager to oversee the company’s program. e. divestiture of all assets.

33. Which of the following strives to create order by requiring that employees identify with and commit to specific required conduct?
a. Conduct orientation b. Values orientation
c. Coercive orientation
d. Obedience orientation e. Compliance orientation

34. Because top managers may be more insensitive to ethical issues due to their focus on financial performance, the
FSGO guidelines suggest that ethics officers report to the instead. a. stock market
b. board of directors c. middle managers d. customers
e. stakeholders

35. With regard to ethics, training and communication initiatives should reflect a. the structure of the board of directors.
b. the organization’s stock performance. c. the organization’s size.
d. the unique characteristics of an organization. e. the self-interest of the CEO.

36. What are some of the ways that organizations can develop effective ethics programs?

ANSWER: Refer to Table 8-1, Minimum Requirements for Ethics and Compliance Programs.
1. Standards and procedures, such as codes of ethics, that are reasonably capable of detecting and preventing misconduct
2. High-level personnel who are responsible for an ethics and compliance program
3. No substantial discretionary authority given to individuals with a propensity for misconduct
4. Standards and procedures communicated effectively via ethics training programs
5. Systems to monitor, audit, and report misconduct
6. Consistent enforcement of standards, codes, and punishment
7. Continuous improvement of the ethics and compliance program

37. How can ethical dilemmas and behavioral simulations help employees make more ethical decisions?

ANSWER: Many feel “hands on” training when employees are forced to confront actual or hypothetical ethical dilemmas helps them understand how their organization would like them to deal with potential problems. Lockheed Martin, for example, developed training games that include dilemmas that can be resolved in teams. Each team member offers his or her perspective, thereby helping other team members fully understand the ramifications of a decision for coworkers and the organization.

38. What are the major features of a successful ethics training program and communication systems? Think of an example of a company with strong employee ethics training.

39. What is the role of an ethics officer within an organization? What are his or her duties? To whom does the FSGO
guidelines recommend that the ethics officer report?

40. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of implementing an ethics program with a compliance orientation versus one with a values orientation. Is one better than the other at maintaining an ethical organization?

Chapter 9

1. Which of the following does not have a significant impact on the success of an ethics program?
a. Senior management’s ability to successfully incorporate ethics into the organization
b. The quality of communication c. The size of the company
d. The content of the company’s code of ethics
e. The frequency of communication regarding the ethical code and program

2. Which of the following statements about ethics audits is false?
a. They provide an opportunity to measure conformity to the firm’s desired ethical standards.
b. Social audits and ethics audits perform basically the same function, so organizations can use them interchangeably.
c. They provide an objective method for demonstrating a company’s commitment to improving strategic planning, including its compliance with legal and ethical standards and social responsibility.
d. They can be a component of social audits.
e. They are systematic evaluations of an organization’s ethics program and performance to determine whether it is effective.

3. Which of the following is a possible unintended consequence of an organization’s focusing more on ethics planning
than on implementation?
a. Unethical conduct is viewed as acceptable behavior. b. The government implements its own audits.
c. The ethics program is poorly designed. d. Employees become annoyed.
e. The implementation process incurs large costs for the organization.

4. A(n) is a tool that companies can employ to identify and measure their ethical commitment to stakeholders. a. ethics audit
b. social audit
c. financial audit
d. performance audit e. external audit

5. Which of the following is not a step in the ethics auditing process?
a. Secure commitment of top executives and directors.
b. Review organizational mission, goals, values and policies, and define ethical priorities. c. Report the results to the U.S. Sentencing Commission.
d. Collect and analyze relevant information. e. Verify the results.

6. Which of the following is a statement that attests that the financial statements made in an audit are fairly stated, without limitations?
a. Adverse opinion b. Qualified opinion
c. Unqualified opinion d. Favorable opinion
e. Disclaimer of opinion

7. Under the statements.

, CEOs and CFOs may be criminally prosecuted if they knowingly certify misleading financial

a. Sherman Antitrust Act b. Ethical Compliance Act c. Robinson-Patman Act
d. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
e. Sherman Antitrust Act

8. During which of the following steps of the ethics auditing process does an organization identify the tools or methods
for measuring progress in improving employees’ ethical decisions and conduct?
a. Secure commitment of top managers and directors b. Establish a committee to oversee the audit
c. Define the scope of the audit
d. Collect and analyze relevant information e. Verify the results

9. Any attempt to verify outcomes and to compare them with standards can be considered a(n)
although many smaller firms do not use this word. a. ethical
b. auditing c. formal
d. informal
e. accounting

activity,

10.

are a primary stakeholder group and should be included in the ethics auditing process because their loyalty determines an organization’s success.
a. Customers b. Employees
c. Special interest groups d. Competitors
e. Legislators

11. The concept of ethics auditing emerged from the movement to audit and report on companies’ broader initiatives.
a. product development b. legal compliance
c. risk management d. public relations
e. social responsibility

12. Which of the following is probably the best way for a manager to provide good ethics leadership?
a. Hire an ethics officer
b. Write a code of conduct c. Conduct ethics audits
d. Set a good example
e. Only hire good employees

13. Which of the following is not a benefit of ethics auditing? a. It can improve a firm’s performance and effectiveness. b. It can increase a firm’s attractiveness to investors.
c. It can identify potential risks.
d. It can harm relationships with stakeholders.
e. It can reduce the risks associated with misconduct.

14. The word

implies a balanced organization that makes ethical financial decisions and also is ethical in more

subjective matters of corporate culture. a. compliance
b. integrity
c. financial management d. corporate culture
e. transparency

15. Which of the following is not a measure of ethical climate?
a. Collective skill
b. Collective ethical sensitivity c. Collective character
d. Collective judgment
e. Collective moral motivation

16. During which step of the auditing process should a firm examine all documents that make explicit commitments to ethical, legal, or social responsibility?
a. Secure commitment of top managers and directors. b. Establish a committee to oversee the audit.
c. Define the scope of the audit process.
d. Review organizational mission, goals, values, and policies. e. Verify the results.

17. A(n)

is a financial accounting firm that offers social auditing services or a nonprofit special interest group

with auditing experience that verifies the results of ethics auditing data analysis a. stakeholder
b. ethics audit consultant c. best practices expert d. financial consultant
e. board of directors

18. The process of verifying the results of an audit should involve standard procedures that control the information.
a. completeness
b. effectiveness and efficiency c. reliability and validity
d. independence
e. veracity

of the

19. Which of the following is not one of the top challenges facing CEOs today? . a. Keeping pace with regulation
b. Protecting against risks
c. Managing and utilizing social media d. Gaining adequate compensation
e. Managing reputation

20. Two useful indicators for assessing employee issues are a. staff turnover and stock price.
b. staff turnover and employee satisfaction. c. staff turnover and honesty.
d. employee satisfaction and attendance. e. employee satisfaction and productivity.

21. At which stage of the ethics auditing process would a hospital conduct focus groups with management, doctors, nurses, related health professionals, support staff, and patients?
a. Collect and analyze relevant information
b. Review organizational mission, goals, values, and policies c. Identify stakeholders
d. Report the results e. Verify the results

22. While ideally the board of directors financial audit committee conducts ethics audits, in most firms they are conducted by
a. managers or ethics officers. b. executive officers.
c. the CEO.
d. outside consultants.
e. secondary stakeholders.

23. Because ethics and social audits are

, there are few standards that a company can apply with regard to

reporting frequency, disclosure requirements, and remedial actions that it should take in response to results. a. not necessary
b. expensive
c. required by law d. mandatory
e. voluntary

24. What are the three Triple Bottom Line factors incorporated into the Global Reporting Initiative framework?
a. Economic, social, personal indicators
b. Political, social, and environmental indicators
c. Economic, social, and environmental indicators
d. Political, individual, and environmental indicators e. Political, individual, and personal indicators

25. What should be the first step in the auditing process?
a. Secure the commitment of top executives and directors b. Define the scope of the audit
c. Establish a committee to oversee the audit d. Collect and analyze data
e. Review organizational mission, goals, values, and policies

26. Retaliation against employees that report misconduct is a problem in cultures. a. weak ethical
b. strong ethical
c. high power distance d. diverse
e. international

27. Which of the following is not a phase of escalation during an ethical disaster?
a. The firm’s discovery of the misconduct b. Ethical issue recognition
c. The firm’s response to the misconduct d. The decision to act unethically
e. The firm’s decision to conduct an ethics audit

28. Which of the following is not a technique for collecting evidence during the ethics audit?
a. Ratio analysis
b. Observing the data-collection process c. Publishing the results of the audit
d. Examining internal and external documents
e. Confirming information in the firm’s accounting records

29.

report.

is an independent assessment of the quality, accuracy, and completeness of a company’s social or ethics

a. Publication b. Verification c. Auditing
d. Analysis
e. Validation

30. What should be the final step in the ethics auditing process?
a. Define the scope of the audit
b. Secure the commitment of top managers and directors c. Collect and analyze data
d. Report the findings e. Verify the results

31. Ethics audits can help companies identify potential before they reach crisis dimensions.
a. competitive advantages b. risks and liabilities
c. productivity issues
d. technological glitches e. market opportunities

so they can implement plans to eliminate or reduce them

32. During the data-collection phase of the audit, the primary objective is to generate a variety of opinions about how the company is perceived and whether it is
a. fulfilling employee benefits commitments. b. bringing in new customers.
c. meeting profit projections.
d. meeting earnings projections.
e. fulfilling stakeholders’ expectations.

33. Independent verification of the ethics audit is important because it lends the report a. credibility and formality.
b. credibility and reliability. c. credibility and objectivity. d. objectivity and civility.
e. objectivity and reliability.

34. When The Gap posts the results of its ethics audit on its web site, it is engaged in which of the following steps of the ethics auditing process?
a. Submit the results to the U.S. Sentencing Commission b. Define the scope of the audit
c. Collect and analyze relevant information d. Verify the results
e. Report the results

35. While social reports often discuss issues related to a firm’s performance in the four dimensions of social responsibility, as well as to specific social responsibility and ethical issues, ethics audits have a narrower focus on assessing and reporting on a firm’s performance in terms of
a. ethical and legal conduct.
b. environmental performance. c. financial performance.
d. customer satisfaction. e. ethical misconduct.

36. Compare and contrast ethics auditing and financial auditing. How can the tools of financial auditing be applied to ethics audits?

37. Explain the benefits and risks of ethics auditing.

38. How can companies secure stakeholder input during an ethics audit? Why is it important to do so?

39. Describe the process of conducting an ethics audit in detail.

40. What is the Global Reporting Initiative? What is its goal? Why has it grown in importance?

Chapter 10

1. identified four cultural dimensions that can have a profound impact on the business environment:
individualism/collectivism, power distance, uncertainty avoidance, and masculinity/femininity. a. Milton Friedman
b. Abraham Maslow c. Adam Smith
d. Geert Hofstede
e. John Maynard Keynes

2. products encourage consumers to return and buy more. This approach is also known as planned obsolescence.
a. Laissez-faire b. Dumping
c. Collectivistic
d. Made-to-break e. Multinational

3. is a term used by Adam Smith to explain the inherent mechanisms at work in free market systems that keep
commerce in equilibrium. It is also known as the “invisible hand.”
a. Consumerism
b. Cultural relativism c. Social democracy d. Laissez-fair
e. Bimodal wealth distribution

4. assumes that humans may not act rationally because of genetics, learned behavior, and rules of thumb. a. Rational economics
b. Socialism
c. Cultural relativism d. National culture
e. Behavioral economics

5. Which of the following statements about multinational corporations (MNCs) is false?
a. MNCs are corporate organizations that operate on a global scale without significant ties to any one nation or region.
b. MNCs are inherently unethical and always do harm in the countries in which they operate.
c. MNCs are characterized by a global strategy of focusing on opportunities throughout the world.
d. Some MNCs are so large and powerful that their revenues are greater than the gross domestic products of many countries.
e. Because of their size and power, MNCs have been the subject of much criticism and the source of a number of ethical issues.

6. Increasing the wealth gap between nations and misusing and misallocating scarce resources are ethical issue accusations related to
a. cultural differences.
b. multinational corporations. c. consumerism.
d. legal differences.
e. international negotiations.

7. Which of the following is not a criticism of or charge against multinational corporations (MNCs)?
a. They transfer jobs overseas, where wage rates are lower b. They increase the gap between rich and poor nations
c. They pay excessively high taxes everywhere
d. They exploit the labor markets of host countries
e. They have an unfair advantage when competing with local businesses

8. Which of the following is a measure taken by governments to curtail MNC practices that create ethical issues?
a. Levying import taxes to lower the prices MNCs charge for their products b. Halting the establishment of minimum wage laws
c. Avoiding the United Nations’ monitoring efforts d. Preventing the formation of labor unions
e. Imposing export taxes to force MNCs to share more of their profits

9. occurs when the middle class shrinks, resulting in highly concentrated wealth amongst the rich and a large number of poor people with very few resources.
a. Communism b. Socialism
c. Bimodal wealth distribution d. A two-class social structure e. Laissez-faire capitalism

10. An unconscious reference to one’s own cultural values, experiences, and knowledge is referred to as the a. cultural reference criterion.
b. unconscious cultural criterion. c. cultural-self criterion.
d. self-reference criterion.
e. unconscious cultural-self criterion.

11. When in Rome, do as the Romans do, or you must adapt to the cultural practices of the country in which you are operating are rationalizations businesspeople sometimes offer for straying from their own ethical values when doing business abroad. This practice is called
a. self-reference criterion. b. country cultural values. c. consumerism.
d. cultural relativism. e. dumping.

12.

involves transactions across national boundaries. It is a practice that brings together people who have different cultures, values, laws, and ethical standards.
a. Global business
b. Country cultural values c. Social democracy
d. Cultural relativism
e. Bimodal wealth distribution

13. What concept refers to economic theories advocating the creation of a society where wealth and power are distributed evenly, relative to the amount of work expended in production?
a. Rational economics b. Socialism
c. Capitalism
d. Rational capitalism e. Fascism

14. Risk compartmentalization occurs when
a. companies place their most problematic employees into separate profit centers so that they cannot influence one another to act unethically.
b. all profit centers within a corporation are aware of the code of ethics.
c. all profit centers within an organization become aware of the consequences of competitors’ actions.
d. various profit centers within an organization become unaware of the consequences of their actions on the firm as a whole.
e. ethics and compliance programs reduce the risk of misconduct.

15.

has been codified in a United Nations document and is defined as an inherent dignity with equal and inalienable rights as the foundation of freedom, justice, and peace in the world.
a. Cultural relativism b. Human rights
c. Consumerism d. Dumping
e. Health care

16. Power distance dimension refers to the “power inequality” between superiors and subordinates. Which of the
following countries probably ranks high on the power distance scale?
a. Saudi Arabia b. Austria
c. England d. Denmark e. Sweden

17. Who argued during the 1930s that the state could stimulate economic growth and improve stability in the private sector?
a. Adam Smith
b. John Maynard Keynes c. Milton Friedman
d. Herbert Hoover e. Geert Hofstede

18. The practice of charging high prices for products sold in home markets while selling the same products in foreign markets at low prices, which do not cover the costs of exporting, is known as
a. price discrimination. b. price gouging.
c. dumping. d. skimming. e. loading.

19. assume(s) that a the market, through its own inherent mechanisms, will keep commerce in equilibrium. a. Social democracy
b. Laissez-faire economics c. Economics
d. Multinational corporations e. Rational economics

20. Those who ascribe to consumerism
a. believe that consumers should purchase everything they can afford. b. do not believe in taxes on locally made products.
c. believe that consumers should own the means of production.
d. believe that consumers, not producers, should dictate the economic structure of a society. e. believe that corporations should have the freedom to do whatever they want.

21.

is based upon the assumption that people are predictable and will maximize the utility of their choices relative to their needs and wants.
a. Rational economics b. Socialism
c. Capitalism
d. Behavioral economics e. Consumerism

22.

allows for private ownership of property and features a large government equipped to offer such services as education and health care to its citizens
a. Democracy b. Communism c. Socialism
d. Capitalism
e. Social democracy.

23. assumes that economic decisions are influenced by human behavior. a. Rational economics
b. Socialism c. Capitalism
d. Rational capitalism
e. Behavioral economics

24.

refers to how members of a society respond to ambiguity. A high score means that a culture tends to minimize risk-taking.
a. Rational economics b. National culture
c. Bimodal wealth distribution d. Power distance
e. Uncertainty avoidance

25. The

formed in 1995 and administers its own trade agreements, facilitates future trade negotiations, settles

trade disputes, and monitors the trade policies of member nations a. International Monetary Fund
b. United Nations
c. World Trade Organization
d. North American Free Trade Act e. European Union

26. What is a major role of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
a. It determines the credit ratings of countries.
b. It is the lender of last resort for individuals who cannot secure other types of loans. c. It functions as a collection agent for global banks.
d. It makes short-term loans to member countries that have deficits and provides foreign currencies for its members.
e. It provides mortgage loans to international home buyers.

27. Which of the following organizations emerged from the Bretton Woods agreement of 1944, where a group of international leaders decided that the primary responsibility for the regulation of monetary relationships among national economies should rest in an extra-national body?
a. International Monetary Fund b. United Nations
c. World Trade Organization
d. North American Free Trade Act e. European Union

28. These values were developed by a reverend and the UN Secretary General. They express support for universal human rights.
a. The Global Sullivan Principles b. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
c. FSGO
d. Global common values e. UN Global Compact

29. What is the purpose of the UN Global Compact?
a. To promote free trade around the world
b. To support international banking institutions c. To uphold the principle of consumerism
d. To provide legal representation to international corporations facing lawsuits e. To promote human rights, sustainability, and eradicate corruption

30. What is the AACSB?
a. A major international institution regulating banks around the world b. An accrediting institution for organizational ethics
c. A non-political international governing body
d. An international organization that promotes a set of principles promoting the teaching of responsible management in business schools
e. A group that promotes sustainability and environmental awareness

31. As business facilitates exchanges, consumption beyond basic needs will increase globally. The important issues related to consumerism include all but which of the following?
a. What are the impacts of production on the environment, on society, and on individuals?
b. What are the impacts of certain forms of consumerism on the environment, on society, and on individuals?
c. How much of what we deem necessary for consumption is influenced by corporations?
d. What are necessities and what are luxuries?
e. What are the impacts of poor countries’ consumption patterns on wealthy countries?

32. Which two developing countries are expected to generate some of the largest increases in consumption in the future?
a. The United States and Russia b. Russia and China
c. China and United States d. Brazil and Russia
e. China and India

33. According to the World Trade Organization, which of the following products and services are most vulnerable to protectionism?
a. Textbooks and other school supplies b. Travel agencies
c. Music and dance
d. Intellectual property
e. Shoes, cars, and steel

34. Which of the following is not an article in the UN Human Rights Declaration?
a. Freedom of religion
b. The right to work in favorable conditions c. The right to electricity and running water
d. The right to a home adequate for health and well-being
e. Mothers and children being entitled to a special level of care

35. The growth of the Internet and differing security laws between countries has led to an increase in concern for the human right of
a. religion.
b. a secure job. c. healthcare.
d. privacy.
e. freedom of speech.

36. Which of the following is not a key area of global ethical risk, as outlined by the Eurasia Group?
a. Political instability
b. Strained relations with China
c. Instability in emerging markets
d. Unequal levels of child labor laws
e. Outlook for Euro-zone countries remains weak

37. What is a living wage?
a. The minimum wage that a worker requires to meet basic needs. b. The wage at which the average worker can live really well.
c. It is a synonym for minimum wage.
d. The wage received by child workers in order to stay alive. e. A wage given to workers entirely in the form of food.

38. The benefit of healthcare is being debated as to whether it is a right or privilege. Which of the following countries does not consider health care to be a right?
a. The United States b. France
c. Sweden d. Germany e. Canada

39. The

was a result of a meeting in which international leaders decided that primary responsibility for the

regulation of monetary relationships among nations should rest in an external body. a. United Nations
b. North American Free Trade Agreement c. World Trade Agreement
d. World Bank
e. International Monetary Fund

40. Which of the following has the power to enact legally binding ground rules for international commerce and trade policy?
a. Global Sullivan Principles b. World Trade Organization
c. Global Sullivan Organization d. Federal Trade Commission
e. Global Commerce Association

41. Why are many international business ethics issues different from domestic ethical issues?

global firm cannot succeed simply by applying its domestic ethical programs to other global environments. Although ethical issues such as honesty and integrity are common to most countries, differences in laws, political systems, and cultures require a more targeted approach to ethical decision making. Global ethics is not a “one size fits all” concept.

42. How can differences in two countries’ cultures create ethical issues in business?

43. Discuss the ethical issues associated with multinational corporations.

44. What are the roles of the IMF and the WTO in encouraging, monitoring, and regulating international trade?

45. What is dumping and why is it considered anticompetitive? Does the United States allow dumping?

Chapter 11

1. The leader demands instantaneous obedience and focuses on achievement, initiative, and self-control. a. democratic
b. coaching c. affiliative d. coercive
e. pacesetting

2. Which of the following types of leaders attempts to create employee satisfaction through bartering or negotiating for desired behaviors or level of performance?
a. Pacesetting leaders b. Coercive leaders
c. Transactional leaders
d. Transformational leaders e. Transmogrified leaders

3. Which of the following is not a habit of ethical leaders?
a. They are primarily concerned with themselves. b. They are proactive.
c. They have a passion to do right.
d. They are concerned with stakeholders’ interests. e. They are role models for organizational values.

4. Which of the following leadership types has a strong influence on coworker support and building an ethical culture through increasing employee commitment and fostering motivation?
a. Transformational leaders b. Transactional leaders
c. Coercive leaders
d. Pacesetting leaders e. Authoritative leaders

5. A coaching leader builds a positive climate by
a. valuing people, their emotions, and their needs.
b. focusing on communication across all layers of the organization.
c. inspiring employees to follow their departmental leaders without question. d. focusing on achievement, initiative, and self-control.
e. developing skills for success, delegating responsibility, and issuing challenging assignments.

6. Which leadership type values people, their emotions, and their needs and relies on friendship and trust to promote flexibility, innovation, and risk taking?
a. Authoritative leadership b. Coaching leadership
c. Pacesetting leadership d. Coercive leadership
e. Affiliative leadership

7. Sherry’s leadership style often creates a negative working climate because of the high standards she sets. Sherry is most likely a(n) leader.
a. autocratic b. democratic c. pacesetting d. empathetic e. coercive

8. are a primary influence on employee’s ethical behavior because they are role models for the organization’s
values.
a. Friends b. Parents c. Peers
d. Coworkers e. Leaders

9. As one of the seven habits of strong ethical leaders,

is “the glue that holds ethical concepts together.” This

trait can be developed early in life or developed over time through experience. a. adequate compensation
b. good employees
c. the passion to do right d. charisma
e. a great education

10. The

leader can create a negative climate because of the high standards that he or she sets. This style works

best for attaining quick results from highly motivated individuals who value achievement and take initiative. a. authoritative
b. affiliative
c. democratic d. coaching
e. pacesetting

11. The

of an organization can influence the acceptance of, adherence to, transmittal, and monitoring of

organizational norms, values, and codes of ethics. a. nation of origin
b. locus of control c. leadership style
d. production methods e. opportunity

12. Ethical leadership should be based on
a. holistic thinking that embraces the complex issues facing firms every day. b. a strong shareholder desire for profits.
c. the opinions of a leader who defines success in terms of group gratification. d. short­term thinking that looks at the firm’s health on a day­to­day basis.
e. people who embrace a transactional style of leadership.

13. A fundamental problem in traditional personal character development is that specific vales are used to teach about a philosophy, which may be inappropriate where cultural diversity and privacy must be respected. A solution is
a. to teach more general values to develop a set of basic beliefs.
b. to ignore moral philosophies and to train solely based on the organization’s code of conduct.
c. to teach completely different values and skills in different cultural environments.
d. to teach individuals intellectual skills that address the complexities of ethical issues in business.
e. to teach individuals the literary canons of the major philosophers from both western and eastern religions.

14. Strong ethical leaders have a passion for all of the following except to a. do the right thing.
b. be proactive
c. consider stakeholder interests
d. be role models for the organization and its employees. e. satisfy shareholders before other stakeholder groups.

15. Leaders whose decisions and actions are contrary to the firm’s values send a signal a. that the firm’s values are trivial or irrelevant.
b. that they are providing a good example of what not to do. c. that the firm’s corporate culture is highly important.
d. that they are working toward improving the ethical culture of the firm. e. that they care about the environment.

16. Which attribute of ethical leaders will not be effective unless the leader is personally involved in the organization’s
key ethical decisions?
a. Stakeholder compassion b. Proactive leadership
c. Transparency
d. Moral philosophy e. Compensation

17. Which type of leader relies on participation and teamwork to reach collaborative decisions?
a. Transformational b. Coercive
c. Democratic d. Coaching
e. Pacesetting

18. What is not a necessity for strong ethical leaders to make good decisions?
a. Complete information b. Courage
c. Experience making the right decisions d. Knowledge
e. The ability to coerce subordinates

19. Which of the following is not a way to avoid groupthink in small-group decision making?
a. Express the need to examine all alternatives. b. Assign one person to be “Devil’s advocate”.
c. Discourage team members from discussing the group’s ideas with people outside the group. d. Set up a number of independent groups to work on the same issue.
e. Emphasize to each team member that he or she is a “critical evaluator” with the responsibility to express opinions and objections freely.

20. is the ability or authority to guide and direct others toward a goal. a. Leadership
b. Collaboration c. Democracy
d. Transparency e. Pacesetting

21. These leaders are characterized as having superficial charm, no conscience, grandiose self-worth, little or no empathy, and enjoy flouting rules.
a. Unethical leaders
b. Psychopathic leaders c. Apathetic leaders
d. Ethical leaders
e. Charismatic leaders

22. This occurs when there are two or more positions on an ethical decision. a. Ethical leadership
b. Competing leadership c. Ethical conflicts
d. Empowerment
e. Interpersonal communication

23. Leaders having a(n) conflict management style are highly assertive and not very cooperative. a. Accommodating
b. Avoiding
c. Collaborating d. Competing
e. Compromising

24. Leaders having an accommodating conflict management style are a. Highly assertive and not very cooperative.
b. Not effective because they avoid conflict at any costs – even if it leads to misconduct. c. Highly cooperative but non-assertive.
d. In between the assertiveness and cooperativeness dimensions. e. Cooperative and assertive.

25. Leaders with a(n)

conflict management style desire to meet the needs of stakeholders and strongly adhere to

organizational values and principles. a. Avoiding
b. Competing
c. Compromising
d. Accommodating e. Collaborating

26. A

-based culture encourages employees to express concerns, bring up ethical issues, and take a proactive

approach toward resolving conflicts. a. Values
b. Profits
c. Consumers
d. Shareholders e. Stakeholders

27. and reporting are two major dimensions of ethical communication. a. Collaboration
b. Transparency c. Recognition
d. Listening
e. Compromising

28. is a two-way process in which the communicator communicates with superiors and subordinates. a. Cooperation
b. Transparency
c. Leader-follower congruence d. Reporting
e. Collaboration

29. The four categories of communication include all of the following except a. Reporting
b. Small group communication c. Nonverbal communication
d. Interpersonal communication e. Listening

30.

occurs when one or more group members feel pressured to conform to the group’s decision even if they personally disagree.
a. Group polarization
b. Leader-follower congruence c. Groupthink
d. Competition e. Conflict

31. When a group is more likely to move toward a more extreme position than the group members might have done individually, this is referred to as
a. Leader-follower congruence b. Groupthink
c. Values-based culture d. Ethical leadership
e. Group polarization

32. This occurs when leaders and followers share the same vision, ethical expectations, and objectives for the company. a. Groupthink
b. Leader-follower congruence c. Group polarization
d. Values-based culture e. Ethical leadership

33. provide(s) important guidelines for employees on how to act in different situations. a. Leader-exchange theory
b. Small group communication c. Interpersonal communication d. Codes of ethics
e. Leader-follower congruence

34. Gossip, manipulation, playing favorites, and taking credit for another’s work are all examples commonly associated with
a. Organizational politics b. Political skills
c. Competitiveness d. Groupthink
e. Ethical conflict

35. can be used to promote organizational goals and help rather than hinder other employees. a. Office politics
b. Political skills
c. Ethical conflict d. Democracy
e. Coercion

36.

leaders are passionate about the company, live out corporate values daily in their behavior in the workplace, and form long-term relationships with employees and other stakeholders.
a. Authentic b. Coaching
c. Transformational d. Transactional
e. Pacesetter

37. All of these are true about feedback except
a. Most companies recognize the need for organizational leaders to provide feedback to employees.
b. Most companies recognize the need for organizational leaders to get feedback from their employees.
c. Feedback can occur through informal methods like a simple conversation or through more formal systems such as employee performance evaluations.
d. Employee feedback can be generated in many different ways, including interviews, anonymous surveys, ethical audits, and websites.
e. Negative feedback is important to inform employees of weaknesses and provide constructive ways for improving them.

38.

leaders communicate a sense of mission, stimulate new ways of thinking, and enhance as well as generate new learning experiences.
a. Authentic
b. Democratic
c. Transformational d. Transactional
e. Cooperative

39. The most effective leaders possess the ability to manage themselves and their relationships with others effectively, a skill known as
a. Conflict management b. Group theory
c. Collaboration
d. Emotional intelligence
e. Leader-follower theory

40. These leaders are passionate about the company, live out corporate values daily in their behavior in the workplace, and form long-term relationships with employees and other stakeholders.
a. Transactional b. Compromising
c. Transformational d. quantitative
e. Authentic

41. The acronym RADAR stands for
a. Recognize, Answer, Discourage, Avoid, & Recover b. Recognize, Answer, Detect, Avoid, & Recover
c. Recover, Answer, Discourage, Avoid, & Recognize d. Recognize, Avoid, Detect, Answer, & Recover
e. Recover, Avoid, Detect, Answer, & Recognize

42. From an ethical standpoint, leaders should take time during this step of the RADAR model to fix any weaknesses in the ethics program and develop improved ways of detecting misconduct.
a. Detect b. Answer
c. Recovery d. Avoid
e. Recognize

43. This step of the RADAR model involves responding to the discovery of an ethical dilemma through communication both internally and externally.
a. answer b. recover
c. recognize d. avoid
e. detect

44. Which two steps of the RADAR model occur when a firm is faced with an ethical conflict or dilemma. a. recognize & avoid
b. answer & recover c. detect & avoid
d. answer & detect
e. recover and detect

45. Many managers are reluctant to engage in this step of the RADAR model because they fear doing so will uncover questionable conduct that could put the firm in an unfavorable light.
a. avoid
b. recover c. answer d. detect
e. recognize

Essay
46. Discuss the role of leadership in understanding and executing ethical decision making in organizations.

47. Describe the RADAR model, discussing key objectives needed to be obtained for each step of the model.

48. Discuss the differences between the five styles of conflict management and provide an example for each conflict management style.

49. Discuss the differences between groupthink and group polarization, providing examples of each.

50. Describe and differentiate between a compliance-based approach and an integrity-based approach to leadership.
Which approach is preferred, justify your response.

Chapter 12

1. All of the following are facts about water pollution, except:
a. Projected increases in fertilizer use suggest there will be a 10% – 20% global increase in nitrogen water contamination.
b. Up to 90% of wastewater in developing countries flow untreated into rivers, lakes, and coastal zones. c. In developing countries, 70% of industrial waste is dumped untreated into water sources.
d. Every day, 2 million tons of untreated human waste is put into some water source. e. Water use is projected to decrease by 50% within 20 years.

2. Trying to pinpoint who is responsible for environmental degradation is not always easy, especially when it involves
__________ .
a. different countries b. several managers
c. more than one CEO
d. differing regulatory agencies
e. both federal and local governments

3. One of the biggest factors in land pollution is the dumping of waste into landfills.
world’s biggest wasters.
a. European b. Chinese
c. Russian
d. American e. Canadian

consumers are by far the

4. The world’s forests are being destroyed at a rate of nearly 50,000 square miles annually. The reasons for this wide­
scale destruction are varied and include all except:
a. The boom in biofuels
b. The soil is great for farming c. Logging profits
d. Cycle of poverty
e. Converting land to other use

5. Although limiting urban sprawl creates disadvantages for renewal movements that reduce sprawl.
a. car and oil companies b. the airline industry
c. the railroad industry
d. service oriented companies e. humans and animals

, many businesses can benefit from urban

6. Because genetically modified seeds are

, farmers cannot keep any of the seed themselves but must

purchase seeds each year from companies such as Monsanto. a. so small
b. worthless
c. uncollectable d. invisible
e. patented

7. The first Earth Day, increasing stakeholder awareness of environmental concerns and the creation of the
Environmental Protection Agency brought to the forefront. a. corporate social responsibility
b. alternative energy sources c. diversity
d. sustainability e. competition

8. All of the following are goals of the Environmental Protection Agency, except:
a. Focus on the activities of business b. Protecting America’s water
c. Cleaning up communities and advancing sustainable development d. Taking action on climate change and improving air quality
e. Ensuring the safety of chemicals and preventing pollution

9. The Clean Air Act:
a. Allowed the EPA to track industrial chemicals
b. Focuses on promoting alternative forms of energy c. Established national air quality standards
d. Provides tax benefits to consumers who purchase hybrid cars e. Focuses on reducing pollution through cost-effective change

10. The Clean Water Act makes it illegal for anyone to discharge any pollutant from a point source directly into navigable waters without a .
a. good reason b. direct order c. permit
d. inspector present e. limit

11. The
raw materials use.

focuses on reducing pollution through cost-effective changes in production, operation, and

a. Pollution Prevention Act
b. Toxic Substances Control Act c. Clean Air Act
d. Energy Policy Act e. Oil Pollution Act

12. All of these are ways of reducing pollution, except:
a. Designing environmentally friendly buildings b. Recycling
c. Greenwashing
d. Source reduction
e. Sustainable agriculture

13. Congress passed the

to empower the EPA with the ability to track the 75,000 industrial chemicals

currently produced or imported into the United States. a. Federal Water Pollution Control Act
b. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act c. Safe Drinking Water Act
d. Toxic Substances Control Act e. Food Quality Protection Act

14. Wind power holds great promise for the United States because of the energy could meet as much as 20 percent of the nation’s energy needs. a. Rocky Mountains
b. Everglades c. Great Lakes d. Pacific Rim
e. Great Plains

, and experts believe wind

15. Geothermal energy provides alternative energy.
a. heat from the sun b. a radiated heat
c. heat from steam
d. a constant source of heat e. a dry heat

and is a more dependable energy source than some other forms of

16. Critics of nuclear power are concerned about all of the following, except:
a. Reduced emissions b. Worker safety
c. The transport of nuclear waste
d. Damage to plants from natural disasters e. Nuclear meltdowns

17. Perhaps the most controversial form of alternative energy after nuclear power is . a. hydopower
b. geothermal power c. solar power
d. wind power e. ethanol

18. in the United States,

provides only 7% of total output but provides 19% of total electricity

production worldwide, making it the largest form of renewable energy. a. wind power
b. geothermal power
c. hydroelectric power d. solar power
e. nuclear power

19. Many businesses responded to sustainability by adopting a triple-bottom line approach; taking into consideration social and environmental performance variables in addition to .
a. managerial performance b. economic performance
c. board of directors performance d. customer focus
e. stakeholder focus

20. A

business attempts to avoid dealing with environmental issues and hopes nothing bad happens or no

one ever finds out about an environmental accident or abuse. a. newly established
b. socially responsible c. low-commitment
d. bankrupt
e. law-abiding

21. is one of the country’s greatest sustainability success stories.
a. Water conservation b. Pollution control
c. Manufacturing d. Composting
e. Recycling

22. Stakeholder assessment is an important part of a approach to environmental issues. a. low-commitment
b. medium-commitment c. high-commitment
d. hands-off e. hands-on

23. Through

, it is possible to quantify the trade-offs to determine whether to accept or reject

environmentally-related activities and programs. a. risk management
b. management voting c. board directives
d. legal requirements e. customer input

24. Organizations highly committed to environmental responsibility may conduct an audit of their efforts and report the results to all interested .
a. agencies b. countries
c. stakeholders d. individuals
e. suppliers

25. Which option includes the assessment and improvement of business strategies, economic ectors, work practices, technologies, and lifestyles while maintaining the natural environment?
a. Competitive advantage b. Marketing
c. Sustainability d. Greenwashing e. Risk analysis

26. Sustainability is the long-term well-being of the natural environment and the mutually beneficial interactions among
_____.
a. customers, investors, managers, and policies
b. board members, presidents, managers, and nonprofit organizations c. investors, creditors, suppliers, and the marketing department
d. nature, individuals, organizations, and business strategies e. managers, boards, CEO’s, and stakeholder strategies

27. Which industry invests the most in alternative clean energy sources?
a. The automobile industry b. The clothing industry
c. The airline industry
d. The federal government e. The oil and gas industry

28. All of these are examples of social responsibility concerns, except:
a. Product price
b. Consumer protection c. Employee well-being d. Sustainability
e. Legal responsibilities

29. The protection of air, water, land, biodiversity, and emerged as a major issue in the twentieth century. a. employee relations
b. renewable natural resources
c. environmental legal regulations d. consumer protection
e. air pollution

30. can cause markedly shorter life spans, along with chronic respiratory problems in humans and animals. a. Water pollution
b. Air pollution
c. Global warming d. Deforestation
e. Acid rain

31. The Kyoto Protocol created in 1997 is an international treaty meant to curb global . a. natural resource use
b. greenwashing activities c. water pollution
d. greenhouse gas emissions e. competition

Essay
32. How does sustainability relate to ethical decision making and social responsibility?

33. Discuss the benefits of green marketing and the long-term pitfalls of greenwashing.

34. Why is the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) said to be the most influential regulatory agency?

ACC 206, ACC 303, ACC 304, ACC 350, ACC 401, ACC 410, ACC 555, ACC 556, ACC 557, ACC 560, ACC 562, ACC 563, ACC 564, ACC 565, ACC 571, ACC 576, BUS 230, BUS 309, BUS 310, BUS 322, BUS 325, BUS 335, BUS 365, BUS 402, BUS 430, BUS 508, BUS 515, BUS 517, BUS 518, BUS 519, BUS 521,BUS 536, CIS 210, CIS 499, CIS 501,CIS 505,CIS 513, CIS 518, CIS 519, CIS 524, CIS 562, ECO 302, ECO 305, ECO 405, ECO 410,ECO 450, ECO 550, FIN 317, FIN 320, FIN 350, FIN 534, FIN 535, FIN 540, HRM 500, HRM 510, HRM 522, HSA 590, LEG 320, LEG 500, MGT 510, MKT 475, MKT 500, MKT 515, PAD 500,PAD 530, Midterm Exam, Quiz, Assignments, DQ’s – Strayer University New

For more help Visit: budapp.net
If you cannot find what you are looking for,
email at: budapp247@gmail.com

ACC 206 Week 5 Mid-Term Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ACC-206-Accounting-Principles-II-Week-5-Mid-Term-Exam-Strayer-263.htm

Chapters 10 Through 13

 

 

ACC 303 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-303-Week-5-Midterm-Exam-Strayer-NEW-ACC303W5E.htm

Midterm Exam: Chapters 1 Through 4

 

 

ACC 304 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-304-Week-5-Midterm-Exam-Strayer-NEW-ACC304W5E.htm

Week 5 Midterm Exam: Chapters 8 Through 11

 

 

ACC 350 Week 5 Mid-Term Exam Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-350-Week-5-Mid-Term-Exam-Strayer-342.htm

Chapters 1 Through 4

 

 

ACC 401 Week 5 Quiz – Mid-Term Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ACC-401-Advanced-Accounting-Week-5-Quiz-Mid-Term-Exam-Strayer-273.htm

Chapter 1 Through 4, 6 and 7 (Quiz 6 – 7 – Mid-Term Exam 1 – 4)

 

 

ACC 410 Week 5 Mid-Term Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ACC-410-Week-5-Mid-Term-Exam-Strayer-283.htm

Chapters 1 Through 5

 

 

ACC 555 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-555-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-ACC555W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 6

 

 

ACC 556 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-556-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-ACC556W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 8

 

 

ACC 557 Week 5 Homework Problems – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-557-Week-5-Homework-Problems-Strayer-NEW-ACC557W5HP.htm

Chapter 7 and 8

 

 

ACC 557 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-557-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-NEW-ACC557W5Q.htm

Chapter 5 and 6

 

 

ACC 560 Week 9 Assignment 2 – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-560-Assignment-2-Strayer-NEW-ACC560A2.htm

Assignment 2 – Johnson Controls Capital Investments

 

 

ACC 560 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer NEW
Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-560-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-NEW-ACC560W5Q.htm

Week 5 Quiz 4: Chapters 5 and 6

 

 

ACC 562 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://budapp.net/ACC-562-Week-5-Midterm-Exam-Strayer-NEW-ACC562W5E.htm

ACC/562 Midterm Exam Chapter 1-3

 

 

ACC 563 Week 5 Homework Problems – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-563-Week-5-Homework-Problems-Strayer-NEW-ACC563W5HP.htm

Week 5 Chapter 8

 

 

ACC 563 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-563-Week-5-Midterm-Exam-Strayer-NEW-ACC563W5E.htm

Week 5 Midterm Exam: Chapters 1 Through 7

 

 

ACC 564 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-564-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-ACC564W5D.htm

Week 5 Discussion

 

 

ACC 565 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-565-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-ACC565W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 7

 

 

ACC 571 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-571-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-ACC571W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

ACC 576 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ACC-576-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-New-ACC576W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 230 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-230-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-293.htm

Chapter 5 and 6

 

 

BUS 309 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-309-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-303.htm

Quiz 4 Chapter 4 and 5

 

 

BUS 310 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-310-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-BUS310W5D.htm

Week 5 Discussion

 

 

BUS 322 Assignment 2: Motivation and Performance Management

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-322-Week-5-Assignment-Motivation-and-Performance-Management-140.htm

Due Week 5

 

 

BUS 322 Week 5 Discussion Questions

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-322-Organizational-Behavior-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-141.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 325 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-325-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-313.htm

Quiz 4 Chapter 4

 

 

BUS 335 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-335-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-322.htm

Quiz 4 Chapter 5 and 6
BUS 365 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-365-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-332.htm

Quiz 4 Chapter 6

 

 

BUS 402 Week 5 Discussion Questions

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-402-Small-Business-Management-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-154.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 430 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-430-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-BUS430W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 508 Week 5 Discussion Question

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/BUS-508-Week-5-Discussion-Question-167.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 515 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-515-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-BUS515W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 517 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-517-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-BUS517W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 518 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-518-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-New-BUS518W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 519 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-519-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-BUS519W5D.htm

Week 5 Discussion

 

 

BUS 521 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-521-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-New-BUS521W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

BUS 536 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/BUS-536-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-BUS536W5E.htm

Midterm Exam Chapter 1 Through 6

 

 

CIS 210 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-210-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-CIS210W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 6

 

 

CIS 499 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-499-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-CIS499W5D.htm

Week 5 Discussion

 

 

CIS 501 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-501-Exam-Midterm-and-Final-Exam-Strayer-NEW-CIS501MFE.htm

Chapters 1 Through 18

 

 

CIS 505 Assignment 3: Elastic and Inelastic Traffic
Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/CIS-505-Assignment-3-Elastic-and-Inelastic-Traffic-182.htm

Due Week 5 and worth 60 points

 

 

CIS 505 Week 5 Discussion Questions

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/CIS-505-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-183.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

CIS 513 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-513-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-CIS513W5E.htm

Chapter 1 Through 4

 

 

CIS 518 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-518-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-CIS518W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ 1

 

 

CIS 519 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-519-Exam-Midterm-and-Final-Exam-Strayer-NEW-CIS519MFE.htm

Chapter 1 Through 14

 

 

CIS 524 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-524-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-CIS524W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ 1

 

 

CIS 562 Week 5 Assignment 2 – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-562-Assignment-2-Strayer-NEW-CIS562A2.htm

Assignment 2: Data Acquisition Lecture

 

 

CIS 562 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/CIS-562-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-CIS562W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 6

 

 

ECO 302 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-302-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-352.htm

Chapters 6 and 7

 

 

ECO 305 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-305-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-362.htm

Week 5 Quiz 4 Chapter 7

 

 

ECO 405 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-405-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-425.htm

Week 5 Quiz 4 Chapter 6

 

 

ECO 410 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-410-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-372.htm

Week 5 Quiz 4 Chapter 7 and 8

 

 

ECO 450 Week 5 Mid-Term Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-450-Week-5-Mid-Term-Exam-Strayer-382.htm

Chapters 1 Through 7

 

 

ECO 550 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/ECO-550-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-ECO550W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ 1

 

 

FIN 317 Week 5 Mid Term Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/FIN-317-Week-5-Mid-Term-Exam-Strayer-389.htm

Chapters 1 Through 6

 

 

FIN 320 Week 5 Mid-Term Exam – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/FIN-320-Week-5-Mid-Term-Exam-Strayer-394.htm

Chapters 1 Through 8

 

 

FIN 350 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/FIN-350-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-404.htm

Week 5 Quiz 4 Chapter 7 and 8

 

 

FIN 534 Homework Set 5 – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/FIN-534-Homework-Set-5-Strayer-NEW-FIN534HS5.htm

 

 

FIN 535 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer New

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/FIN-535-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-FIN535W5E.htm

Chapter 1 Through 7

 

 

FIN 540 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/FIN-540-Week-5-Midterm-Exam-Strayer-NEW-FIN540W5E.htm

Midterm Exam Chapter 18 Through 23

 

 

HRM 500 Week 5 Discussion Questions

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/HRM-500-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-206.htm

Week 5 Discussion

 

 

HRM 510 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/HRM-510-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-HRM510W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 7

 

 

HRM 522 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/HRM-522-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-HRM522W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 6

 

 

LEG 320 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/LEG-320-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-446.htm

Quiz 5 Chapter 8 and 9

 

 

LEG 500 Week 5 Assignment 2 – Strayer

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/LEG-500-Week-5-Assignment-2-Strayer-NEW-LEG500A2.htm

Assignment 2: Employment-At-Will Doctrine

 

 

LEG 500 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/LEG-500-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-LEG500W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

LEG 500 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/LEG-500-Final-Exam-Week-11-Strayer-NEW-LEG500W11E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 9

 

 

MGT 510 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/MGT-510-Exam-Midterm-and-Final-Strayer-NEW-MGT510MFE.htm

Chapters 1 Through 15

 

 

MKT 475 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/MKT-475-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-435.htm

Quiz 4 Chapter 6 and 7

 

 

MKT 500 Week 5 Discussion Question

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/MKT-500-Week-5-Discussion-Question-226.htm

 

 

MKT 515 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/MKT-515-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-MKT515W5E.htm

Chapter 1 Through 8

 

 

PAD 500 Week 5 Assignment 2 – Strayer
Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download
http://budapp.net/PAD-500-Assignment-2-Strayer-NEW-PAD500A2.htm

Assignment 2: The Concept of Ethical Obligations

 

 

PAD 500 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/PAD-500-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-PAD500W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

 

 

PAD 530 Week 5 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/PAD-530-Week-5-Discussion-Questions-Strayer-NEW-PAD530W5D.htm

Week 5 DQ

ACC 206, ACC 303, ACC 304, ACC 350, ACC 401, ACC 410, ACC 555, ACC 556, ACC 557, ACC 560, ACC 562, ACC 563, ACC 564, ACC 565, ACC 571, ACC 576, BUS 230, BUS 309, BUS 310, BUS 322, BUS 325, BUS 335, BUS 365, BUS 402, BUS 430, BUS 508, BUS 515, BUS 517, BUS 518, BUS 519, BUS 521,BUS 536, CIS 210, CIS 499, CIS 501,CIS 505,CIS 513, CIS 518, CIS 519, CIS 524, CIS 562, ECO 302, ECO 305, ECO 405, ECO 410,ECO 450, ECO 550, FIN 317, FIN 320, FIN 350, FIN 534, FIN 535, FIN 540, HRM 500, HRM 510, HRM 522, HSA 590, LEG 320, LEG 500, MGT 510, MKT 475, MKT 500, MKT 515, PAD 500,PAD 530,

Week 5 Midterm Exam, Quiz, Assignments, Discussion Questions, Homework Problems,

HRM 522 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer University NEW

HRM/522 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://budapp.net/HRM-522-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-HRM522W5E.htm

 

Chapters 1 Through 6

Chapter 1

1. Principles are
a. laws and regulations that guide behavior in the world of business. b. mores, values, and customs that guide behavior in general.
c. specific and pervasive boundaries for behavior that are universal and absolute.
d. the obligations businesses assume to maximize their positive impact and minimize their negative impact on stakeholders.
e. the mores, values, and customs that parents teach their children.

2. Social responsibility is
a. an organization’s obligation to maximize its positive effects and minimize its negative effects on stakeholders. b. principles and standards that guide behavior in the world of business.
c. a business’s responsibility not to pollute the environment.
d. a business’s responsibility to manufacture products that function properly. e. charitable contributions made by a business to enhance its image.

3. The

was/were enacted to restore confidence in financial reporting and business ethics after the accounting

scandals of the early 2000s.
a. Defense Industry Initiative on Business Ethics and Conduct b. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
c. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations d. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
e. Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act

4. The term business ethics is best described by the following statement:
a. It is the study and philosophy of human conduct, with an emphasis on determining right and wrong.
b. It is an “inquiry into the nature and grounds of morality where the term morality is taken to mean moral judgments, standards and rules of conduct.”
c. It is the “study of the general nature of morals and of specific moral choices; moral philosophy; and the rules or standards governing the conduct of the members of a profession.”
d. It is an organization’s obligation to maximize its positive effects and minimize its negative effects on stakeholders.
e. It comprises the principles, values, and standards that guide behavior in the world of business.

5. Which of the following is not one of the rights spelled out by John F. Kennedy in his “Consumers’ Bill of Rights”?
a. The right to choose b. The right to safety
c. The right to be informed d. The right to be ethical
e. The right to be heard

6. During the 1990s the institutionalization of business ethics was largely driven by which piece of legislation?
a. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
b. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations
c. Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act d. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
e. Global Sullivan Principles

7. Business ethics, as a field, has passed through which of the following states?
a. A field of study to theological discussion to recognition of social issues b. Recognition of social issues to a field of study to theological discussion c. A field of study to recognition of social issues to theological discussion d. Recognition of social issues to theological discussion to a field of study e. Theological discussion to recognition of social issues to a field of study

8. The 1960s saw a rise of consumerism. What is consumerism?
a. An increase in consumer rights by organizations and governments b. The growth of international retail chain stores
c. Activities undertaken by independent individuals, and groups to protect their rights as consumers d. The widespread adoption of consumer oriented marketing strategies among businesses
e. Organizations’ tendency to seek ways to take advantage of consumers

9. Ethics is a part of decision making
a. at all levels of work and management.
b. primarily at the upper management levels of an organization. c. mostly for policy makers.
d. that is less important than other decision making processes. e. only at that lower levels of organizational management.

10. Which of the following was developed in the 1980s to guide corporate support for ethical conduct by establishing a method for discussing best practices?
a. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations
b. Defense Industry Initiative on Business Ethics and Conduct c. Corporate codes of conduct
d. United States Sentencing Commission e. MERCOSUR

11. The

focus(es) on firms taking action to prevent and detect business misconduct in cooperation with

government regulation.
a. United States Sentencing Commission
b. Defense Industry Initiative on Business Ethics and Conduct c. World Trade Organization
d. United Nations Global Compact
e. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations

12. The study of business ethics is important to better understand all of the following except
a. that a person’s own moral philosophies and decision-making experience may not be sufficient to guide him or her in the business world.
b. how and why people make ethical or unethical decisions.
c. how to cope with conflicts between a person’s own values and those of the organization in which he or she works.
d. that business ethics is entirely an extension of an individual’s own personal ethics. e. how to identify ethical issues arising in the business world.

13. According to the role of ethical culture in performance, all of these are drivers of profit except
a. trust.
b. investor loyalty.
c. employee commitment. d. customer satisfaction.
e. opportunity for misconduct.

14. More than a compliance program, business ethics is becoming a. a management issue to achieve competitive advantage.
b. less accepted by society.
c. mainly a government regulatory issue.
d. an initiative led by nonprofit organizations.
e. a program that decreases profits but increases societal benefits.

15. Having acceptable personal ethics is probably not going to be sufficient to handle complex business ethical issues when an individual has
a. family concerns. b. an unethical boss.
c. limited business experience. d. financial training.
e. a marketing background.

16. One of the major ethical issues President Obama’s administration focused on was
a. decreasing environmental legislation. b. deregulation.
c. tax decreases.
d. incentives to oil companies.
e. health care and consumer protection.

17. Which of the following is generally not considered a business ethics issue?
a. Harassment
b. Accounting fraud c. Employee theft
d. Misuse of organizational resources e. Corporate hierarchy

18. Which represented a far-reaching change to organizational control and accounting systems, making securities fraud a criminal offense?
a. Council on Economic Priorities and Social Accountability 8000. b. Sarbanes-Oxley Act.
c. Consumer Protection Act.
d. Defense Industry Initiative on Business Ethics and Conduct.
e. Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.

19. The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act outlawed a. accounting fraud.
b. price collusion.
c. corruption in government.
d. bribery of officials in other countries. e. executive misconduct.

20. Which of the following was not a provision of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?
a. It stiffened penalties for corporate fraud.
b. It created an accounting oversight board that requires corporations to establish codes of ethics for financial reporting.
c. It required top executives to sign off on their firms’ financial statements. d. It outlawed bribery of officials in other countries.
e. It made securities fraud a criminal offense.

21. Which of the following is not cited as an example of a global collaborative effort to establish standards of business conduct?
a. Council on Economic Priorities’ Social Accountability 8000 b. Ethical Trading Initiative
c. U.S. Apparel Industry Partnership
d. United States Sentencing Commission e. World Trade Organization

22. Because of Sarbanes-Oxley, publicly traded companies must develop financial reporting.
a. ethics officers
b. ethics programs c. codes of ethics d. legal counsel
e. accountants

to assist in maintaining transparency in

23. is essential in building long-term relationships between businesses and consumers. a. Profits
b. Dividends c. Trust
d. Hubris
e. Codes of ethics

24. The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act a. was very popular among Wall Street bankers.
b. represented only modest reform.
c. came out of theological discussions in the 1920s.
d. was designed to make the financial services industry more responsible. e. made it mandatory for public corporations to hire ethics officers.

25. In the Reagan/Bush eras, the major focus of the business world was on a. self-regulation rather than regulation by government.
b. decreasing the number of mergers.
c. decreasing the multinational presence in the U.S. marketplace. d. increasing government influence on the economic arena.
e. improving business ethics.

26. The six principles of the Defense Industry Initiative on Business Ethics and Conduct became the foundation for a. Better Business Bureau ethical guidelines.
b. the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations. c. the Ethical Trading Initiative.
d. the Federal Trade Commission compliance requirements. e. the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.

27. Ethical culture is defined as
a. rules, standards, and moral principles regarding what is right or wrong in specific situations. b. the establishment and enforcement of ethical codes throughout the organization.
c. the development of rules and norms that are socially enforced.
d. the codification of laws to reward organizations for taking action to prevent misconduct. e. acceptable behavior as defined by the company and industry.

28. The Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations set the tone for organizational ethics compliance programs by a. codifying into law incentives for organizations to take action such as developing ethical compliance programs
to prevent misconduct.
b. forcing all organizations to develop mandatory reporting systems.
c. eliminating most of the federal legislation that created inefficient and time-consuming activities for businesses. d. providing a study of moral philosophies.
e. providing an examination of company codes of ethics.

29. Which of the following statements about the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations is false?
a. They use a routine mechanical approach that forces all firms to use the same means to avert serious penalties.
b. They strive to prevent misconduct.
c. They encourage companies to develop standards and procedures capable of detecting and preventing misconduct.
d. They utilize a carrot and stick approach by taking preventive action against misconduct.
e. They encourage the appointment of high-level personnel responsible for oversight of the compliance program.

30. Which of the following is not one of the benefits of being ethical and socially responsible in business?
a. Greater employee commitment
b. A high degree of employee dissent
c. Improved customer trust and satisfaction d. Increased investor loyalty
e. Better financial performance

31. Employees’ perceptions of their firm as having an ethical climate leads to a. lack of focus on goals.
b. greater focus on education.
c. increased community involvement.
d. improved relationships with competitors. e. enhanced performance.

32. Employees feel less pressure to compromise ethically, observe less misconduct, are more satisfied with their organizations, and feel more valued when
a. they are new at their jobs.
b. they are paid to ignore problems in the workplace. c. they do not agree with an organization’s values.
d. they have very high compensation.
e. they see honesty, respect, and trust applied in the workplace.

33. Investors are concerned about business ethics because they know that misconduct can a. foster stability.
b. improve employee commitment. c. improve customer loyalty.
d. lower stock value and prices.
e. complicate business financial reporting.

34. Most organizations with strong ethical climates usually focus on the core value of placing interests first. a. customers’
b. employees’
c. stockholders’ d. suppliers’
e. distributors’

35. Which of the following is not something a firm might do to encourage organizational ethics and compliance?
a. Employee ethics training
b. Hiring a compliance officer
c. Ignoring potential ethical issues d. Writing a code of ethics
e. Conducting an ethics and compliance audit.

36. How does ethics contribute to customer satisfaction?

37. Discuss the evolution of business ethics as a field of study from before 1960 to the present.

38. Why is it important that businesspeople study business ethics?

39. We all learn values from sources such as family, religion, and school. Why might these sources of individual values not prove very helpful when making complex business decisions?

40. Discuss the current state of business ethics in the twenty-first century.

41. How do values and judgments play a critical role when we make ethical decisions?

Chapter 2

1. Those who have a claim in some aspect of a firm’s products, operations, markets, industry, and outcomes are known as
a. shareholders. b. stockholders. c. stakeholders. d. claimholders.
e. special-interest groups.

2. Stakeholders’ power over businesses stems from their a. ability to withdraw or withhold resources.
b. ability to generate profits. c. media impact.
d. political influence. e. stock ownership.

3. Which of the following do not typically engage in transactions with a company and thus are not essential for its survival?
a. Employees
b. Secondary stakeholders c. Primary stakeholders
d. Investors
e. Customers

4. A firm that makes use of a

recognizes other stakeholders beyond investors, employees, and suppliers, and

explicitly acknowledges the two-way dialog that exists between a firm’s internal and external environments. a. stakeholder model of corporate governance
b. stakeholder bias c. code of ethics
d. stakeholder interaction model e. corporate interface model

5. The degree to which a firm understands and addresses stakeholder demands can be referred to as a. a stakeholder orientation.
b. a shareholder orientation.
c. the stakeholder interaction model. d. a two-way street.
e. a continuum.

6. Which of the following industries tends to generate a high level of trust from consumers and stakeholders?
a. Insurance
b. Technology c. Banks
d. Mortgage lenders e. Financial services

7. Which of the following is not a benefit that primary stakeholders tend to provide to organizations?
a. Supplies of capital and resources. b. Expertise and leadership
c. Word-of-mouth promotion d. Infrastructure
e. Pro-bono bookkeeping

8. A stakeholder group that is absolutely necessary for a firm’s survival is defined as
a. direct.
b. tertiary.
c. secondary.
d. special-interest. e. primary.

9. When unethical acts are discovered in a firm, in most instances a. they are caused by unwilling participants.
b. the cause is due to external stakeholders.
c. the perpetrators are caught and prosecuted.
d. there was knowing cooperation or complicity from within the company. e. the cause is a corrupt Board of Directors.

10. Which of the following is not a method typically employed by firms when researching relevant stakeholder groups?
a. Surveys
b. Focus groups
c. Internet searches d. Press reviews
e. Guessing

11. A stakeholder orientation can be viewed as a(n)
a. necessity for business success. b. continuum.
c. polarizing concept.
d. good marketing ploy. e. expensive proposition.

12. Shareholders provide resources to an organization that are critical to long term success. Which of the following does the book suggest that suppliers offer?
a. The promise of customer loyalty
b. Material resources and/or intangible knowledge c. Infrastructure
d. Revenue
e. Leadership skills

13. Which of the following is not associated with the stakeholder interaction model?
a. Involves a two-way relationship between firm and stakeholders b. Recognizes the input of investors, employees, and suppliers
c. Explicitly acknowledges dialogue with a firm’s internal environment d. Explicitly acknowledges dialogue with a firm’s external environment
e. Identifies the mass media, special interest groups, competitors, and trade associations as primary stakeholders

14. The first of the three activities that are associated with the stakeholder orientation is the a. organization-wide generation of data.
b. organization’s responsiveness to intelligence. c. set of consumer attributes identified.
d. organizational strategy of target markets.
e. human relations department’s set of priorities.

15. Public health and safety and support of local organizations are issues most relevant to which stakeholder group?
a. Investors
b. Community c. Suppliers
d. Customers e. Employees

16. Minimizing the use of energy and reducing emissions and waste are issues of importance to which stakeholder?
a. Environmental groups b. Suppliers
c. Employees
d. Industry leaders e. Investors

17. The idea that the mission of business is to produce goods and services at a profit, thus maximizing its contribution to society is associated with
a. Adam Smith.
b. Theodore Levitt. c. Norman Bowie. d. Herman Miller
e. Milton Friedman.

18. The originator of the idea of the invisible hand, which is a fundamental concept in free market capitalism, was a. Adam Smith.
b. Theodore Levitt. c. Norman Bowie. d. Herman Miller
e. Milton Friedman.

19. Some economists believe that if companies address economic and legal issues, they are satisfying the demands of society, and that trying to anticipate and meet additional needs would be almost impossible. Which economist’s theory are they following most closely with this belief?
a. Adam Smith.
b. Theodore Levitt. c. Norman Bowie. d. Herman Miller
e. Milton Friedman.

20. In ascending order, Carroll’s four levels of social responsibility are a. ethical, legal, economic, philanthropic.
b. economic, ethical philanthropic, legal. c. economic, legal, ethical, philanthropic. d. legal, ethical, economic, philanthropic. e. ethical, legal, moral, economic.

21. The term used to express how a firm meets its stakeholder expectations of its economic, legal, ethical, and philanthropic responsibilities is
a. reputation.
b. corporate citizenship.
c. corporate ethical audit. d. ethical citizenship.
e. fiduciary duties.

22. In corporate governance, is the process of auditing and improving organizational decisions and actions. a. profit
b. loyalty
c. accountability d. control
e. diligence

23. Accountability, oversight, and control all fall under the definition and implementation of corporate a. profit.
b. loyalty. c. care.
d. governance. e. diligence.

24. Major corporate governance issues normally involve decisions. (Choose the response that is most correct)
a. strategic-level b. tactical-level
c. divisional-level d. marketing-level e. accounting-level

25. Which of the following is a major ethical concern among corporate boards of directors?
a. Compensation
b. The non-traditional directorship approach c. Dividend reporting
d. Corporate social audits e. Debt swaps

26. One policy to address the issue of executive pay was implemented by J.P. Morgan, it stated that
a. there should be no limit on what top executives can earn.
b. managers should earn no more than twenty times the pay of other employees. c. top managers should make the same amount as other employees.
d. employees can determine how much managers make.
e. the government should determine the worth of each manager’s service.

27. The specific steps for implementing the stakeholder perspective do not include which of the following?
a. Identifying stakeholder groups b. Identifying stakeholder issues
c. Identifying and gaining stakeholder feedback d. Identifying and gaining government feedback
e. Assessing organizational commitment to social responsibility groups

28. What are the four levels of social responsibility?
a. Financial, religious, ethical, and philanthropic
b. Ethical, philanthropic, selfish, and short-sighted c. Economic, long-term, ethical, and philanthropic. d. Legal, economic, ethical, and philanthropic
e. Economic, compliance, legal, and philanthropic

29. The model is founded in classic economic precepts. a. economic
b. shareholder c. stakeholder d. board
e. ISO

30. Which of the following are not typically secondary stakeholders?
a. Television news anchors b. Special-interest groups
c. Customers
d. Trade associations e. Journalists

31. Which of the following are not typically primary stakeholders?
a. Customers
b. Trade associations c. Employees
d. Shareholders e. Suppliers

32. Why do critics argue that high compensation for boards of directors is a bad thing?
a. It is too expensive for the organization.
b. It could cause conflicts of interest between the directors and the organization. c. It is not fair to poorly compensated employees.
d. High pay will render the board less complacent.
e. Board of director compensation is not a major issue.

33. Board members being linked to more than one company is an example of a. strategic philanthropy.
b. stakeholder commitment. c. interlocking directorate.
d. conflict of interest. e. an illegal activity.

34. What is the first step in implementing a stakeholder perspective in an organization?
a. Identifying resources and determining urgency b. Identifying stakeholder groups
c. Identifying stakeholder issues
d. Assessing the corporate culture
e. Assessing organizational commitment to social responsibility

35. A stakeholder orientation is not complete unless it includes a. clear accounting procedures.
b. major financing activities. c. marketing strategy.
d. feedback from special-interest groups.
e. activities that actually address stakeholder issues.

36. Compare and contrast the stakeholder and shareholder models of corporate governance.

37. Why is ethical misconduct more difficult to overcome than poor financial performance?

38. Discuss the difference between primary and secondary stakeholders in the stakeholder interaction model and give examples for each type.

39. Why do some businesspeople and scholars question whether ethics should have a role in business?

40. Discuss three corporate governance issues, why they are defined as issues, and how you would solve them. Use examples in your answer.

Chapter 3

1. An ethical issue is a problem, situation, or opportunity a. that has no correct answer.
b. that harms the environment.
c. requiring society as a whole to choose among several actions that must be evaluated as right or wrong.
d. requiring an individual, group, or organization to choose among several actions that must be evaluated as right or wrong, ethical or unethical.
e. requiring an individual, group, or organization to choose between harming consumers or the environment and earning more profits.

2. Ethical issues in business typically arise because of conflicts between individuals’ personal moral philosophies and values and the
a. values and attitudes of the organization in which they work. b. values and attitudes of the society in which they live.
c. values and attitudes of the organization in which they work and the society in which they live. d. laws and regulations of the country in which they live.
e. values and attitudes of their parents and religion.

3. is an important element of virtue and means being whole, sound, and in unimpaired condition. a. Optimization
b. Ethical issue c. Honesty
d. Trust
e. Integrity

4. A court found an oil company guilty of placing profits over the safety and well-being of its employees. This situation can be classified as
a. ethical.
b. unethical.
c. an ethical issue. d. a dilemma.
e. a justice issue.

5. A person uncomfortable with his employer’s unspoken policy of hiring only white men is experiencing a. a conflict of interest.
b. an ethical issue. c. a feeling of guilt.
d. cognitive dissonance. e. a moral attribute.

6. Issues related to fairness and honesty may arise because business is sometimes regarded as a a. legal case, where everything must be done to the letter of the law.
b. contest, with the most ethical firm “winning.”
c. guerilla war where anything goes in the fight for consumers’ dollars. d. game governed by its own rules rather than those of society.
e. game governed by the rules of society.

7. War metaphors are common in business. This kind of mindset can be dangerous for business leaders because a. it may lead executives to become violent.
b. it may foster the idea that honesty is unnecessary in business. c. it may lead organizations to be excessively aggressive.
d. business is not like warfare and the metaphors are not appropriate. e. business is more like a game than a war.

8. Conflicts of interest exist when employees must choose whether to
a. advance their own personal interests, those of the organization, or those of some other group. b. advance the interests of the organization or those of society.
c. accept bribes or not.
d. carry out an assignment they perceive to be unethical. e. report an unethical coworker.

9. is the offering of something of value in order to gain an illicit advantage. a. Shoulder surfing
b. Hacking
c. Gift exchange
d. Conflicts of interest e. Bribery

10. Concerns involving copyright infringement on books, movies and music, and other illegally produced goods relate to which type of ethical issue?
a. Conflict of interest b. Honesty
c. Communications d. Discrimination
e. Intellectual property rights

11.

is defined as any purposeful communication that deceives, manipulates, or conceals facts in order to create a false impression.
a. Stealing b. Lying
c. Fraud
d. Misappropriation e. Accounting fraud

12. In marketing communications, lying causes predicaments for companies because it destroys a. trust.
b. honor.
c. confidence. d. integrity.
e. products.

13. When a commercial states that a product is superior to any other on the market, the marketer risks accusations of a. concealed facts.
b. false labeling.
c. deceptive advertising. d. concealed facts.
e. puffery.

14. Optimization is defined as
a. the quality of being just, equitable, and impartial. b. a trade-off between equity and efficiency.
c. an interchange of giving and receiving in social relationships.
d. how wealth or income is distributed between employees within a company.
e. a lack of integrity, incomplete disclosure, and an unwillingness to tell the truth.

15. Which of the following has been identified by the Ethics Resource Center as the leading form of observed misconduct in organizations?
a. Discrimination b. Bullying
c. Lying
d. Misuse of company resources e. Sexual harassment

16. An activity is probably ethical if it
a. is approved of by most individuals in the organization and is customary in the industry.
b. is approved of by no one in the organization, but has been carried out in the industry before. c. is customary in the industry.
d. is not illegal.
e. does not make consumers feel cheated, deceived, or manipulated.

17. The first step toward understanding business ethics is to a. know your company’s ethical policies.
b. know your own morals and philosophies. c. know society’s ethical policies.
d. develop ethical-issue awareness.
e. develop a set of decision-making rules.

18. Among retail stores, is a larger problem than customer shoplifting. a. poor stock performance
b. weak leadership
c. internal employee theft d. misuse of merchandise e. employee dissatisfaction

19. The ethical decision-making process begins a. with a conflict of interest.
b. when an individual experiences a conflict between his or her values and those of his or her firm. c. when stakeholders trigger ethical issue awareness and individuals openly discuss it with others. d. with a conflict in values.
e. when an individual experiences a conflict between his or her values and those of society.

20. Which of the following is not a side-effect of being the victim of workplace bullying?
a. Increased productivity b. Sleep disturbance
c. Depression
d. Increased sick days e. Stomach problems

21. Accountants must abide by a strict code of ethics that defines their responsibilities to a. their clients only.
b. their clients and the public interest. c. the public only.
d. their investors and shareholders. e. government regulators.

22. Which of the following statements is most correct?
a. Affirmative action programs require quotas to govern employment decisions. b. Affirmative action programs have eliminated discrimination in employment.
c. Affirmative action programs are required in all organizations by law.
d. Affirmative action programs involve efforts to recruit, hire, train, and promote qualified individuals from groups that have traditionally been discriminated against on the basis of race, gender, or other characteristics.
e. Affirmative action programs involve efforts to avoid recruiting, hiring, training, and promoting qualified individuals from groups that have traditionally been discriminated against on the basis of race, gender, or other characteristics.

23. Which of the following is not a question you need to ask when you suspect that workplace bullying has occurred?
a. Is your boss treating you well and compensating you adequately?
b. Is your boss asking obviously impossible things from you without training and stating that, once completed, the work is never good enough?
c. Are surprise meetings called without your knowledge?
d. Have others at work told you to stop working, talking, or socializing with them?
e. Are you never left alone to do your job without interference?

24. is associated with a hostile workplace where someone considered a target is threatened, harassed, belittled, or verbally abused.
a. A code of conduct b. Sexual harassment c. Coercive power
d. Bullying e. Rewards

25. Which of the following is not a consequence of ethical misconduct?
a. Decreased reputation
b. Shaken customer loyalty
c. Reduced investor confidence d. Increased sales
e. Legal actions by wronged parties

26. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act specifically outlaws hiring practices that discriminate against people a. who are under the age of 18.
b. who are between 16 and 20. c. who are between 39-69.
d. who are past retirement age.
e. who are younger than 18 and older than 49.

27. Abusive or intimidating behavior is the most common ethical problem for employees. Which of the following is not
related to this concept?
a. Physical threats
b. False accusations c. Being annoying
d. Profanity
e. Performance probation

28. The

makes it illegal for individuals, firms, or third parties doing business in American markets to “make

payments to foreign government officials to assist in obtaining or retaining business.”
a. U.S. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA)
b. Kyoto Protocol
c. World Trade Organization (WTO)
d. Consumer Protection Act e. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

29. Mr. Smith told his client, Mr. Jabar, who was not an IT expert, that the new software systems were much better than his existing ones. To convince Mr. Jabar, Mr. Smith used a great deal of technical jargon that his client did not really understand. Mr. Smith did this intentionally to confuse Mr. Jabar. This is an example of
a. false advertising. b. commission lying. c. omission lying.
d. noise.
e. surrogate lying.

30. involves tricking individuals into revealing their passwords or other valuable corporate information. a. Shoulder surfing
b. Remote hacking
c. Social engineering d. Physical hacking e. Dumpster diving

31. When Devon looked at what another employee was typing in order to get a password, he committed a. shoulder surfing.
b. whacking
c. discrimination
d. password guessing e. hacking

32. A company can be sued for discrimination if it a. hires minorities.
b. maintains reasonable minority standards.
c. discharges a minority individual, but has a just cause for doing so. d. uses age as a hiring or firing criterion.
e. has more men than women on staff.

33. Affirmative action programs
a. involve the promotion of unqualified employees. b. are not imposed by federal law on employers.
c. are not very commonly used anymore because there is no need to protect minorities. d. only involve the training of individuals.
e. involve the recruitment, hiring, promotion, and training of qualified individuals.

34. What type of fraud involves intentional deception on the part of an individual or group in order to derive an unfair economic advantage over an organization?
a. Channel
b. Integrative c. Consumer d. Product
e. Conventional

35. What type of fraudulent activity could involve a consumer staging an accident to seek damages?
a. Whacking b. Duplicity c. Guile
d. Defamation e. Collusion

36. What type of fraudulent activity involves an employee who assists a consumer in fraud?
a. Whacking b. Duplicity c. Guile
d. Defamation e. Collusion

37. Prior to the financial meltdown, bond ratings agencies were accused of having

because they were paid by the

organizations that they rated. The organizations would shop around for the agency that gave them the best rating. a. high ethical standards
b. excessively complicated systems c. a hostile workplace
d. conflicts of interest
e. a good business model

38. are used to obtain or retain business and are not generally considered illegal in the U.S. a. Facilitation payments
b. Bribes c. Gifts
d. Coercive techniques e. Threats

39. Discuss how one goes about recognizing an ethical issue.

40. List three business problems, situations, or opportunities that you believe are ethical issues. Explain why.

41. Describe the different methods of obtaining corporate intelligence that competitors commonly use.

42. What is a conflict of interest? Provide an example.

43. What are the different definitions of bribery?

44. Discuss the factors that go into creating a hostile work environment. Why is this a bad thing? Give an example of a hostile work environment.

Chapter 4

1. Which of the following is not an aspect of the institutionalization of social responsibility?
a. Voluntary practices b. Legal responsibilities c. Core practices
d. Familial responsibilities e. Strategic philanthropy

2. Which of the following acts can be classified as procompetitive legislation?
a. Equal Pay Act of 1963 b. Civil Rights Act of 1964
c. McCarran-Ferguson Act of 1944 d. Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890
e. Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970

3. Which of the following acts exempted the insurance industry from antitrust legislation?
a. Equal Pay Act of 1963 b. Civil Rights Act of 1964
c. McCarran-Ferguson Act of 1944 d. Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890
e. Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970

4. Which of the following acts, passed in response to public outrage over conditions described in Upton Sinclair’s The
Jungle, was the first consumer protection legislation?
a. Civil Rights Act of 1964
b. Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890
c. Magnuson-Moss Warranty Act of 1974 d. Consumer Product Safety Act of 1972 e. Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

5. The

was established after the latest financial crisis, in response to a situation that caused many consumers to

lose their homes.
a. Environmental Protection Agency b. World Bank
c. Consumer Financial Protection Bureau d. World Trade Organization
e. Sarbanes-Oxley Act

6. Which of the following is not a provision of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?
a. Strengthens penalties for corporate fraud
b. Discourages the creation of ethical and legal compliance programs c. Requires codes of ethics for financial reporting in corporations
d. Makes fraudulent financial reporting a criminal offense e. Requires greater transparency in financial reporting

7. Which of the forces of the business environment involves the rivalry among businesses for customers and profits?
a. The economic dimension b. The legal dimension
c. The competitive dimension
d. The technological dimension
e. The voluntary responsibilities dimension

8. The

regulates tobacco, dietary supplements, vaccines, veterinary drugs, medical devices, cosmetics, products

that give off radiation, and biological products. a. World Trade Organization
b. Consumer Financial Protection Agency c. Department of Justice
d. Environmental Protection Agency e. The Food and Drug Administration

9. Which of the following groups is not a group that receives special legal protections?
a. The elderly b. Children
c. Senior citizens
d. The highly educated e. Young consumers

10. The

was called “a sweeping overhaul of the financial regulatory system…on a scale not seen since the

reforms that followed the Great Depression.”
a. Equal Pay Act
b. Americans with Disabilities Act
c. Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act d. Age Discrimination in Employment Act
e. VII of the Civil Rights Act

11. law defines the rights and duties of individuals and organizations (including businesses). a. Civil
b. Criminal
c. Competitive
d. Administrative e. Regulatory

12.

law not only prohibits specific actions in business such as fraud, theft, or securities trading violations, but also imposes fines or imprisonment as punishment for breaking the law.
a. Civil
b. Criminal
c. Competitive
d. Administrative e. Regulatory

13. Which of the following is not a provision of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act?
a. Increases the accountability and transparency of financial institutions b. Creates a bureau to educate consumers in financial literacy
c. Creates an organization to pay the bills of low-income consumers d. Create incentives for whistle-blowers to come forward
e. Increases oversight of the financial industry

14.

is the synergistic and mutually beneficial use of an organization’s core competencies and resources to deal
with key stakeholders so as to bring about organizational and societal benefits. a. Social responsibility
b. Business ethics
c. Corporate philanthropy d. Strategic philanthropy
e. Cause-related marketing

15. Anticompetitive strategies that focus on weakening or destroying a competitor have spurred antitrust legislation and include all of the following except
a. sustained price cuts. b. free samples.
c. discriminatory pricing. d. price collusion.
e. corporate espionage.

16. Which is not one of the four sources of criminal and civil laws?
a. Judicial law
b. Common law
c. Constitutional law d. Administrative law e. Statutory law

17. The

is an independent agency within the Federal Reserve System that “regulate[s] the offering and provision

of consumer financial products or services under the Federal consumer financial laws.”
a. Consumer Financial Protection Bureau b. Federal Reserve
c. World Trade Organization d. Department of Justice
e. Federal Trade Commission

18. The primary objective of U.S. antitrust laws is to
a. protect consumers from high prices and foreign products. b. protect domestic businesses.
c. protect employees.
d. promote strategies that enhance business welfare over consumer welfare.
e. distinguish competitive strategies that enhance consumer welfare from those that reduce it.

19. What is a primary reason why some small businesses resist the opening of large chain retailers like Walmart or
Home Depot?
a. Because the large size creates economies of scale and they can charge lower prices b. Because the selection in the stores is too large
c. Because large retailers attract crime to neighborhoods in which they are based d. Because community leaders do not like the top management
e. Because large retailers almost never hire local workers as employees

20.

focus(es) on developing sound organizational practices and integrity for financial and nonfinancial
performance measures, rather than on an individual’s morals.
a. The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act b. Compliance
c. Organizational ethics d. Core practices
e. The Sarbanes Oxley Act

21. Which of the following is not one of the seven steps that the U.S. Sentencing Commission requires for an effective compliance program?
a. Develop a code of conduct
b. Provide oversight by high-ranking personnel
c. Create a communication system for disseminating standards and procedures d. Monitor and audit systems designed to detect misconduct
e. Comply with ISO 14000 guidelines

22. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act created the establish rules and standards for auditing.

to oversee the accounting firms that audit public corporations and to

a. Public Company Accounting Oversight Board b. Corporate Accounting Oversight Commission c. Enron Accounting Fraud Administration
d. Occupational Health and Safety Administration e. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

23. responsibilities relate to a business’s contributions to stakeholders.
a. Economic b. Legal
c. Ethical
d. Voluntary
e. Social responsiveness

24. Passed by Congress in 1991, the compliance programs.
a. Sarbanes-Oxley Act

created incentives for organizations to develop and implement ethical

b. U.S. Sentencing Commission’s Guidelines for Ethical Compliance c. Ethical Compliance Act
d. Social Responsiveness Compliance Act
e. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations

25. Donation of computer equipment to schools by Toshiba would be associated with responsibilities. a. economic
b. voluntary c. legal
d. ethical
e. minimum

26. By prohibiting accounting firms from providing both auditing and consulting services to the same corporate clients without permission, the Sarbanes-Oxley Act is attempting to eliminate
a. conflicts of interest. b. cronyism.
c. reporting transparency. d. corporate espionage.
e. dual reporting.

27. Which of the following is not a benefit to businesses of engaging in voluntary responsibilities?
a. Help create an ethical culture and values that can act as a buffer to organizational misconduct b. Reduce government involvement by providing assistance to stakeholders
c. Develop employee leadership skills
d. Improve employee compensation and retention e. Improve the quality of life in communities

28. Companies that will most likely be found in violation of procompetitive legislation. a. pollute waterways
b. knowingly harm consumers c. contract with sweatshops
d. establish monopolies e. help consumers

29. tie(s) an organization’s product(s) directly to a social concern through a marketing program.
a. Voluntary contributions b. Cause-related marketing c. Strategic philanthropy
d. Corporate giving
e. Employee benefits

30. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
a. prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color, sex, religion, or national origin. b. penalizes the top executives in an organization for misconduct.
c. is basically the same as the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.
d. discourages whistle-blowers from reporting misconduct. e. prohibits pay discrimination on the basis of gender.

31. Cause related marketing can affect consumer cause are seen as a good fit.
a. individual ethics b. tastes
c. perceptions d. budgets
e. buying patterns

, if consumers are sympathetic to the cause and the brand and

32. Who provides information to managers, investors, tax authorities, and other stakeholders who make resource allocation decisions for corporations?
a. Accountants
b. Federal regulators
c. The Securities and Exchange Commission d. The Department of Justice
e. Human Resources departments

33. The of ethics involves embedding values, norms, and artifacts in organizations, industries, and society. a. institutionalization
b. rationalization
c. commercialization d. mobilization
e. enforcement

34. Which of the following is not a reason why the institutionalization of business ethics has progressed in recent decades?
a. Institutionalization of ethics is now mandated for all organizations by governments around the world b. Stakeholders have recognized the need for improving business ethics
c. The government has stepped in when scandals and misconduct have damaged key constituents of businesses d. Gatekeepers have been questioned as to their contributions to major scandals
e. Highly ethical companies tend to be more profitable than those suffering from misconduct issues

35. Part of the reason why credit ratings firms did not catch major problems prior to the global financial meltdown of
2008 was because they were paid by the firms that they rank, which creates a. economies of scale.
b. synergy.
c. a conflict of interest. d. cooperation.
e. efficiency.

36. Investigations into the financial rating industry after the financial meltdown of 2008 found all of the following except
a. analysts cut corners when faced with less time to perform due diligence. b. analysts’ ratings were inaccurate.
c. many high ratings were based on inadequate historical data.
d. analysts were overwhelmed with the volume and complexity of trades.
e. most analysts were completely untrained and unprepared to do their jobs.

37. Some, especially those in business, complain that the Sarbanes-Oxley Act and similar legislation a. is excessively complex and financially burdensome.
b. is not necessary. c. is fair to all firms.
d. has reduced restatements of financial reports. e. is too simplistic.

38. An ethical organizational culture creates an environment in which to structure behavior that is then evaluated by stakeholders. The key elements of an organizational culture include all of the following except
a. values. b. norms.
c. artifacts.
d. legal compliance.
e. employee compensation

39. Which of the following provide incentives for developing core practices within a firm that could help ensure ethical and legal compliance?
a. Department of Justice and Open Compliance Ethics Group b. Department of Justice and the Sarbanes-Oxley Act
c. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations and the Sarbanes-Oxley Act d. Food and Drug Administration and the Sarbanes-Oxley Act
e. Securities and Exchange Commission and the Sarbanes-Oxley Act

40. Laws and regulations change over time; however, in the United States the thrust of most business legislation can be summed up as
a. any practice is permitted.
b. any practice is permitted that does not substantially reduce competition and harm consumers or society.
c. any practice is permitted that does not substantially harm consumers or society, but this applies only within the
United States.
d. any practice is permitted that does not harm the environment. e. any practice is permitted that does not break the law.

41. Why do you think the costs of compliance with Sarbanes Oxley go down over time?

42. According to the text, the opinions of society, as expressed through legislation, can change over time and different courts and government legislatures may take different views about the acceptability of specific business activities. Why is this so?

43. What ethical issues affecting consumers and society as a whole are created by unfair competition?

44. Society often expects a lot from business. Do you think that it is possible to balance profit and other business objectives with the goals and desires of society? Why or why not?

Chapter 5

1. Which of the following is the first step in the ethical decision making process?
a. Being socialized into the firm’s corporate culture
b. Applying a personal moral philosophy in order to individualize the ethical decision making process
c. Recognizing that an issue requires an individual or work group to make a choice that ultimately will be judged by stakeholders as right or wrong
d. Soliciting the opinions of others in a work group or in the overall business in order to gain feedback e. Enforcing the firm’s ethical standards with rewards and punishment

2. Which of the following is not one of the six “spheres of influence” to which individuals are subject when confronted with an ethical issue?
a. Educational attainment b. Workplace
c. Family
d. Legal system e. Community

3. The perceived relevance or importance of an ethical issue to the individual, work group, or organization is a. organizational culture.
b. immediate job context. c. ethical issue intensity. d. leadership.
e. locus of control.

4. Studies have found that more than a third of the unethical situations that lower and middle-level managers face come from _____.
a. stakeholder expectations and pressures. b. pressures to satisfy customers.
c. pressures from the government to perform at a high level.
d. internal pressures and ambiguity surrounding internal organizational rules. e. investor expectations.

5. According to the ethical decision-making framework, the absence of punishment provides a(n)
behavior. a. reason
b. significant other c. individual factor d. opportunity
e. ethical issue intensity

for unethical

6. have been found to decrease unethical practices and increase positive work behavior. a. High educational attainment levels
b. High levels of community involvement c. Charismatic leaders
d. Strong religious beliefs e. Good personal values

7. involves subordinates simply following the directives of a superior without question. It demonstrates the influence that significant others can exert in the workplace.
a. Obedience to authority b. Locus of control
c. Opportunity
d. Transactional leadership e. Immediate job context

8. Multiple elements work on individuals to affect their behavior. While an individual may intend to do the right thing,
can alter this intent. a. cognitive dissonance
b. familial expectations c. religious beliefs
d. the desire for financial gain
e. organizational or social forces

9. If management fails to identify and educate employees about ethical problem areas, ethical issues may not reach the critical
a. awareness level. b. aptitude level.
c. ethical level.
d. organizational level. e. individual level.

10. The

can be defined as a set of values, norms, and artifacts, including ways of solving problems shared by

members of an organization. a. corporate culture
b. intentions of a corporate c. ethical issue awareness
d. determination of a corporation e. individual factors

11. Which of the following would not be considered a negative reinforcement of employee behavior?
a. Demotions b. Firings
c. Ignoring the behavior d. Reprimands
e. Pay penalties

12. Codes, rules, and compliance are essential in organizations. However, an organization built on to develop a high integrity corporate culture.
a. a charismatic leader
b. the preferences of the CEO
c. the grapevine
d. formal relationships
e. informal relationships

is more likely

13. Following the ethical directives of a superior relates to a. an internal locus of control.
b. obedience to authority. c. moral intensity.
d. gender.
e. ethical issue intensity.

14. Which of the following is not considered a significant other group in the workplace?
a. Peers
b. Managers c. Spouses
d. Coworkers
e. Subordinates

15. Studies have shown that than any other factor.
a. significant others b. religion
c. education
d. chief executive officers e. ethical issues

within the organization have more impact on a worker’s decisions on a daily basis

16. External and internal rewards relate to which part of the ethical decision-making framework?
a. Individual factors b. Significant others
c. Cognitive moral development d. Obedience to authority
e. Opportunity

17. Which of the following is not an issue that helps in business ethics evaluations and decisions?
a. Ethical issue intensity b. Individual factors
c. Organizational factors d. Personal guilt
e. Opportunity

18. is the first sign that an unethical decision has occurred. a. Guilt
b. Reward
c. Punishment
d. Cognitive dissonance e. Happiness

19. People who believe in , go with the flow because they feel the events in their lives are uncontrollable. a. ethical decision making
b. internal locus of control c. an ethical culture
d. external locus of control e. significant others.

20. Which of the following is not an individual factor that affects business ethics?
a. Nationality b. Age
c. Religion
d. Significant others e. Education

21.

is an organizational factor that gives a company specific characteristics. Over time, stakeholders begin to see the company as like a living organism with a mind and will of its own.
a. Oversight
b. Significant others c. Corporate culture d. The ethical climate e. The legal climate

22. An ethical corporate culture needs

along with

to establish an ethics program and monitor the complex

ethical decisions being made by employees . a. individual ethics; ethical issue intensity
b. ethical issue intensity; ethics training
c. organizational factors; individual factors d. employee evaluations; good intentions
e. shared values; proper oversight

23. Those who have influence in a work group are referred to as significant others and include a. peers, managers, coworkers, and subordinates.
b. family members, peers, and coworkers. c. spouses and friends.
d. employees in similar job situations. e. employees who hold the same job.

24. Research concerning nationality and the ability to make ethical decisions a. shows no relationship between the two.
b. is hard to interpret in a business context because of cultural differences.
c. suggests that organizations should be very concerned about an employee’s nationality. d. suggests that corporations pay a lot of attention to such research.
e. suggests that the influence of nationality on corporate culture is growing.

25. The relationship between business ethics and age a. shows a negative correlation.
b. is simple. Greater experience leads to better ethical decision making.
c. is complex, although experience helps older employees make ethical decisions.
d. suggests that employees with less experience have a greater ability to deal with complex industry-specific ethical issues.
e. does not demonstrate a statistically significant correlation.

26. Employees that see themselves as going with the flow because that’s all they can do have a(n)
a. external locus of control. b. moral intensity
c. obedience to authority d. opportunity
e. internal locus of control.

27. For people who begin the value shift that leads to unethical decisions, which of the following is not a usual justification to reduce and eliminate guilt?
a. I need a paycheck and can’t afford to quit right now. b. Those around me are doing it so why shouldn’t I?
c. If I don’t do this, I might not be able to get a good reference from my boss when I leave. d. If I don’t do this, I might never be promoted.
e. This is in keeping with my personal morals and the code of conduct, so it is okay.

28. is the ability to perceive whether a situation or decision has an ethical dimension. a. Ethical issue intensity
b. Locus of control
c. Ethical awareness d. Moral intensity
e. Opportunity

29.

others.

relates to individuals’ perceptions of social pressure and the harm they believe their decisions will have on

a. Ethical awareness b. Moral intensity
c. Individual factors
d. Ethical issue intensity e. Social awareness

30. The ethical decision making process in business includes all of the following except
a. Individual factors b. Opportunity
c. Ethical issue intensity
d. Making ethical decisions e. Organizational factors

31.

culture involves values and norms that prescribe a wide range of behavior for organizational members, while culture reflects the integrity of decisions made and is a function of many factors, including corporate policies,
top management’s leadership on ethical issues, the influence of coworkers, and the opportunity for unethical behavior.
a. Ethical, corporate b. External, internal c. Corporate, ethical d. Positive, negative
e. Compromising, collaborative

32. All of the following are true with regards to organizational factors except
a. Employees approach ethical issues on the basis of what they learned from others in the organization. b. An alignment between a person’s own values and the values of the organization help create positive
organizational outcomes.
c. Congruence in personal and organizational values is related to commitment, satisfaction, motivation, ethics, work stress, and anxiety.
d. Ethical choices in organizations are most often made individually.
e. Just as a family guides an individual, specific industries give behavioral cues to firms.

33. The includes the motivational “carrots and sticks” superiors use to influence employee behavior. a. Obedience to authority
b. Immediate job context c. Locus of control
d. Normative approach e. Descriptive approach

34. All of the following are true with regards to opportunity and ethical decision making except
a. Despite the existence of rules, misconduct can still occur without proper oversight.
b. The opportunities that employees have for unethical behavior in an organization can be eliminated through formal codes, policies, and rules adequately enforced by management.
c. Opportunity also comes from knowledge.
d. The opportunity for unethical behavior can be eliminated with aggressive enforcement of codes and rules. e. Opportunity results from conditions that either provide rewards or fail to erect barriers against unethical
behavior.

35. When we discuss issue.
a. Normative b. Individual
c. Descriptive
d. Organizational e. Values-based

approaches, we are talking about how organizational decision makers should approach an

36. By incorporating objectives into corporate core values, companies begin to view as significant. a. shareholder, stakeholders
b. stakeholder, shareholders c. CEO, CEOs
d. customer, customers
e. stakeholder, stakeholders

37. Normative business ethics takes into account the standards.
a. Descriptive b. Political
c. Social
d. Economic e. Normative

realities outside the legal realm in the form of industry

38. institutions include religion, education, and individuals such as the family unit. a. Social
b. Conservative c. Economic
d. Liberal e. Political

39. All of the following are true regarding institutions except
a. Stakeholders closely align with institutions.
b. The regulatory system aligns with political institutions.
c. There is no clear link between institutional theory and the stakeholder orientation of management. d. Competition relates to economic institutions.
e. Personal values and norms derive from social institutions.

40. High levels of create a higher probability that firms cut corners because margins are usually low. a. Profit
b. Return
c. Cooperation d. Competition e. Loss

41. The thought experiment used by John Rawls that examined how individuals would formulate principles if they did not know what their future position in society would be is called
a. Equality principle b. Utilitarian veil
c. Liberty principle
d. Universal principle e. Veil of ignorance

42. The

states that economic and social equalities should be arranged to provide the most benefit to the least-

advantaged members of society. a. Equality principle
b. Difference principle
c. Constitutional principle d. Liberty principle
e. Justice principle

43. Values have all the following characteristics except
a. Provides guidance to organizations b. Subjective and related to choice
c. Widely accepted
d. Used to develop norms
e. Differs across cultures and firms

44. Companies take basic and translate them into core . a. Customs, values
b. Values, principles c. Cultures, principles d. Cultures, customs e. Principles, values

45. Organizations that have ethics programs based on a

orientation are found to make a greater contribution than

those based simply on compliance, or obeying laws and regulations. a. Customer
b. Political
c. Principles d. Values
e. Social

Essay
46. The ethical decision-making framework includes the concepts of ethical issue intensity, individual factors, organizational factors, and opportunity. Discuss how these concepts influence the ethical decision-making process.

47. Trace the ethical decision-making process. You may find it helpful to apply the model to a real business situation or to a hypothetical ethical issue you develop yourself.

48. Discuss how the three categories of institutions (political, economic, and social) are important in establishing a foundation for normative values.

49. Describe and demonstrate some of the similarities and differences between principles and values. Why are principles and values important normative considerations in ethical decision making?

50. Discuss, with examples, at least three ways that opportunity can affect the decision making process.

Chapter 6

1. Moral philosophy refers to
a. a subject that most businesspeople do not consider very important. b. the morality of business activities.
c. the principles or rules that people use to decide what is right and wrong. d. the legality of business activities.
e. the principles or rules that policymakers use to create legislation.

2. Which moral philosophy evaluates the morality of an action on the basis of its consequences for everyone affected
(seeks the greatest good for the greatest number)?
a. Act deontology b. Rule deontology c. Egoism
d. Utilitarianism e. Hedonism

3. Which moral philosophy considers an act to be morally right or acceptable if it produces some desired result?
a. Teleology
b. Deontology
c. The relativist perspective d. Ethical formalism
e. Hedonism

4. Which moral philosophy focuses on the rights of individuals and on the intentions associated with a particular behavior, rather than its consequences?
a. Deontology
b. The relativist perspective c. Teleology
d. Egoism
e. Utilitarianism

5. are person-specific, whereas meet business objectives.
a. Organizational factors; business ethics b. Codes of conduct; individual factors
c. Individual factors; codes of conduct d. Business ethics; moral philosophies
e. Moral philosophies; business ethics

are based on decisions made by groups or when carrying out tasks to

6. According to Kohlberg’s model, as a person progresses through the stages of moral development, and with time, education, and experience, he/she
a. is unlikely to change his/her values and ethical behavior. b. may change his/her values and ethical behavior.
c. will likely be promoted.
d. will depend more on the input of significant others in ethical decision making. e. will experience less opportunity to behave unethically.

7. An individual who defines what is right by considering his/her duty to society, not just to other specific people, is in which of Kohlberg’s stages of cognitive moral development?
a. Punishment and obedience
b. Individual instrumental purpose and exchange
c. Mutual interpersonal expectations, relationships, and conformity d. Social system and conscience maintenance
e. Prior rights, social contract, or utility

8. Which is the last of Kohlberg’s stages of cognitive moral development?
a. Individual instrumental purpose and exchange b. Need achievement
c. Social system and conscience maintenance d. Punishment and obedience
e. Universal ethical principles

9. A person who offers a facilitation payment in order to secure a contract that will keep her company from going bankrupt and laying off hundreds of employees may be a(n)
a. egoist.
b. teleologist. c. utilitarian. d. relativist.
e. humanitarian.

10. Which moral philosophy evaluates the morality of an action on the basis of its conformity to general moral principles and respect for individual rights?
a. The relativist perspective b. Act utilitarianism
c. Rule utilitarianism d. Act deontology
e. Rule deontology

11.

is considered the father of free market capitalism. He believed that business was and should be guided by the morals of good men.
a. John Maynard Keynes b. Henry Kissinger
c. George Washington d. Adam Smith
e. Lawrence Kohlberg

12. _____ believe that no one thing is intrinsically good. a. Hedonists
b. Pluralists c. Relativists
d. Deontologists e. Teleologists

13. Kant’s categorical imperative and the Golden Rule are examples of which moral philosophy?
a. Teleology
b. Deontology
c. The relativist perspective d. Egoism
e. Utilitarianism

14. A marketing manager who orders that a manufacturing plant be refitted to make it safer for workers, no matter what the cost, may be a(n) because he believes in the rights of all individuals.
a. egoist
b. utilitarian
c. deontologist d. relativist
e. hedonist

15. Which moral philosophy evaluates the morality of an action on the basis of principles or rules designed to promote the greatest overall utility rather than by examining situations individually?
a. Rule utilitarianism b. Act utilitarianism c. Rule deontology
d. Act deontology e. Egoism

16. Which moral philosophy evaluates the morality of an action on the basis of the equity, fairness, and impartiality of the action, with rules serving as guidelines in the decision-making process?
a. Rule utilitarianism b. Act utilitarianism c. Rule deontology
d. Act deontology
e. The relativist perspective

17. Which moral perspective defines ethical behavior subjectively from the unique experiences of individuals and groups?
a. Virtue ethics b. Egoism
c. The relativist perspective d. Absolutism
e. Justice

18. Through time an act can come to be viewed as unethical under which of the following philosophies and perspectives?
a. The relativist perspective b. Teleology
c. Deontology d. Egoism
e. Rule deontology

19.

typically focuses on the end result of actions and happiness created by them, whereas the means and motives by which actions are justified.
a. Pragmatism; hedonism
b. Deontology; pragmatism c. Utilitarianism; deontology
d. Utilitarianism; a goodness theory
e. A goodness theory; an obligation theory

emphasizes

20. An individual who believes that an action is ethical because others within his or her company and industry regularly engage in the activity is probably a(n)
a. utilitarian. b. relativist.
c. teleologist.
d. deontologist. e. egoist.

21. Enlightened egoism
a. is when an individual puts spiritual feelings above all others. b. centers completely on the short-term well-being of others. c. centers on one’s short-term self-interest.
d. centers on one’s long­term self­interest but takes others’ well­being into account.
e. centers on the long-term well-being of others.

22. Which moral philosophy is based on the premise that equal respect must be given to all persons?
a. The relativist perspective b. Deontology
c. Egoism
d. Teleology
e. Utilitarianism

23.

have lower ethical issue sensitivity, meaning they are less likely to detect ethical issues. They may be more committed to completing projects and more dedicated to group values and objectives.
a. Relativists b. Hedonists
c. Pragmatists
d. Deontologists e. Teleologists

24. justice is based on the evaluation of outcomes or results of the business relationship. a. Procedural
b. Interactional c. Distributive d. Ethical
e. Egotistical

25. Kohlberg’s six stages of cognitive moral development can be reduced to three levels of ethical concern. Persons at the second level
a. define right as that which conforms to the expectations of good behavior of the larger society. b. see beyond the norms, laws, and authority of groups or individuals.
c. are concerned with their immediate interests and with external rewards and punishments. d. are concerned with their long-term interests and with internal rewards and punishments. e. are unethical.

26.

argues that ethical behavior involves not only adhering to conventional moral standards but also considering
what a mature person with a “good” moral character would deem appropriate.
a. Act utilitarianism b. Virtue ethics
c. Reciprocity d. Hedonism
e. Rule deontology

27. When a person defines right and wrong on the basis of legal contracts, he or she is using which of Kohlberg’s stages of development?
a. Punishment and obedience (1st stage)
b. Mutual interpersonal expectations, relationships, and conformity (3rd stage)
c. Social system and conscience maintenance (4th stage)
d. Prior rights, social contract, or utility (5th stage)
e. Universal ethical principles (6th stage)

28.

deals with the issue of what individuals feel they are due based on their rights and performance in the workplace, and therefore is more likely to be based on deontological moral philosophies than on teleological or utilitarian ones.
a. Rights
b. Virtue ethics c. Justice
d. Relativism e. Egoism

29. A central problem with relativism is
a. that it emphasizes people’s differences, not similarities.
b. that few people believe that these principles are important. c. that they are very complicated.
d. that they represent unattainable goals.
e. that many feel that virtue ethics only works in theory.

30. Which is not considered a white collar crime?
a. Corporate tax evasion b. Credit card fraud
c. Insider trading d. Identity theft
e. Mugging someone

31. An individual who emphasizes others rather than himself or herself in making decisions is in which of the following of
Kohlberg’s stages of development?
a. Universal ethical principles (6th stage)
b. Mutual interpersonal expectations, relationships, and conformity (3rd stage)
c. Social system and conscience maintenance (4th stage)
d. Punishment and obedience (1st stage)
e. Prior rights, social contract, or utility (5th stage)

32. Eric views animal research in the pharmaceutical industry as a way to improve drugs that will benefit mankind.
Which moral philosophy most closely represents his viewpoint?
a. Egoism
b. Relativism
c. Humanitarianism d. Utilitarianism
e. Individualism

33. In Kohlberg’s model, the stage of mutual interpersonal expectations, relationships, and conformity (Stage 3) differs from the stage of individual instrumental purpose and exchange (Stage 2) in terms of the individual’s motives in
a. considering fairness to others. b. maintaining the social order.
c. considering duty to society.
d. upholding the basic values of society. e. maintaining obedience to authority.

34. The elements of and truthfulness. a. egoism
b. utilitarianism c. deontology
d. moral philosophy
e. virtue

important to business transactions have been defined as trust, self-control, empathy, fairness,

35. justice considers the processes and activities that produce the outcome or results. a. Disruptive
b. Procedural
c. Interactional
d. Communications e. Evaluative

36. What is white collar crime and why has it become such a widespread problem?

37. Compare and contrast the two teleological philosophies: egoism and utilitarianism. Include a discussion of the bases that each type uses to evaluate the morality of activities.

38. Compare and contrast the two moral philosophies: teleology and deontology. Discuss the bases each philosophy type uses to evaluate the morality of a particular activity.

39. Discuss the distinctions between the rule and act categories of utilitarianism and deontology. Why do you think some people evaluate the morality of an action on the basis of the action itself, whereas others evaluate it in terms of its conformity to particular moral principles or rules of conduct?

40. Explain how the levels of Kohlberg’s model of cognitive moral development may influence a person’s perception of and response to an ethical issue.

HRM 522 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer University NEW

HRM/522 Week 5 Midterm Exam – Strayer NEW

Click On The Link Below To Purchase A+ Graded Material
Instant Download

http://hwgala.com/HRM-522-Midterm-Exam-Week-5-Strayer-NEW-HRM522W5E.htm

Chapters 1 Through 6

Chapter 1

1. Principles are
a. laws and regulations that guide behavior in the world of business. b. mores, values, and customs that guide behavior in general.
c. specific and pervasive boundaries for behavior that are universal and absolute.
d. the obligations businesses assume to maximize their positive impact and minimize their negative impact on stakeholders.
e. the mores, values, and customs that parents teach their children.

2. Social responsibility is
a. an organization’s obligation to maximize its positive effects and minimize its negative effects on stakeholders. b. principles and standards that guide behavior in the world of business.
c. a business’s responsibility not to pollute the environment.
d. a business’s responsibility to manufacture products that function properly. e. charitable contributions made by a business to enhance its image.

3. The

was/were enacted to restore confidence in financial reporting and business ethics after the accounting

scandals of the early 2000s.
a. Defense Industry Initiative on Business Ethics and Conduct b. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
c. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations d. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
e. Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act

4. The term business ethics is best described by the following statement:
a. It is the study and philosophy of human conduct, with an emphasis on determining right and wrong.
b. It is an “inquiry into the nature and grounds of morality where the term morality is taken to mean moral judgments, standards and rules of conduct.”
c. It is the “study of the general nature of morals and of specific moral choices; moral philosophy; and the rules or standards governing the conduct of the members of a profession.”
d. It is an organization’s obligation to maximize its positive effects and minimize its negative effects on stakeholders.
e. It comprises the principles, values, and standards that guide behavior in the world of business.

5. Which of the following is not one of the rights spelled out by John F. Kennedy in his “Consumers’ Bill of Rights”?
a. The right to choose b. The right to safety
c. The right to be informed d. The right to be ethical
e. The right to be heard

6. During the 1990s the institutionalization of business ethics was largely driven by which piece of legislation?
a. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
b. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations
c. Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act d. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
e. Global Sullivan Principles

7. Business ethics, as a field, has passed through which of the following states?
a. A field of study to theological discussion to recognition of social issues b. Recognition of social issues to a field of study to theological discussion c. A field of study to recognition of social issues to theological discussion d. Recognition of social issues to theological discussion to a field of study e. Theological discussion to recognition of social issues to a field of study

8. The 1960s saw a rise of consumerism. What is consumerism?
a. An increase in consumer rights by organizations and governments b. The growth of international retail chain stores
c. Activities undertaken by independent individuals, and groups to protect their rights as consumers d. The widespread adoption of consumer oriented marketing strategies among businesses
e. Organizations’ tendency to seek ways to take advantage of consumers

9. Ethics is a part of decision making
a. at all levels of work and management.
b. primarily at the upper management levels of an organization. c. mostly for policy makers.
d. that is less important than other decision making processes. e. only at that lower levels of organizational management.

10. Which of the following was developed in the 1980s to guide corporate support for ethical conduct by establishing a method for discussing best practices?
a. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations
b. Defense Industry Initiative on Business Ethics and Conduct c. Corporate codes of conduct
d. United States Sentencing Commission e. MERCOSUR

11. The

focus(es) on firms taking action to prevent and detect business misconduct in cooperation with

government regulation.
a. United States Sentencing Commission
b. Defense Industry Initiative on Business Ethics and Conduct c. World Trade Organization
d. United Nations Global Compact
e. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations

12. The study of business ethics is important to better understand all of the following except
a. that a person’s own moral philosophies and decision-making experience may not be sufficient to guide him or her in the business world.
b. how and why people make ethical or unethical decisions.
c. how to cope with conflicts between a person’s own values and those of the organization in which he or she works.
d. that business ethics is entirely an extension of an individual’s own personal ethics. e. how to identify ethical issues arising in the business world.

13. According to the role of ethical culture in performance, all of these are drivers of profit except
a. trust.
b. investor loyalty.
c. employee commitment. d. customer satisfaction.
e. opportunity for misconduct.

14. More than a compliance program, business ethics is becoming a. a management issue to achieve competitive advantage.
b. less accepted by society.
c. mainly a government regulatory issue.
d. an initiative led by nonprofit organizations.
e. a program that decreases profits but increases societal benefits.

15. Having acceptable personal ethics is probably not going to be sufficient to handle complex business ethical issues when an individual has
a. family concerns. b. an unethical boss.
c. limited business experience. d. financial training.
e. a marketing background.

16. One of the major ethical issues President Obama’s administration focused on was
a. decreasing environmental legislation. b. deregulation.
c. tax decreases.
d. incentives to oil companies.
e. health care and consumer protection.

17. Which of the following is generally not considered a business ethics issue?
a. Harassment
b. Accounting fraud c. Employee theft
d. Misuse of organizational resources e. Corporate hierarchy

18. Which represented a far-reaching change to organizational control and accounting systems, making securities fraud a criminal offense?
a. Council on Economic Priorities and Social Accountability 8000. b. Sarbanes-Oxley Act.
c. Consumer Protection Act.
d. Defense Industry Initiative on Business Ethics and Conduct.
e. Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.

19. The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act outlawed a. accounting fraud.
b. price collusion.
c. corruption in government.
d. bribery of officials in other countries. e. executive misconduct.

20. Which of the following was not a provision of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?
a. It stiffened penalties for corporate fraud.
b. It created an accounting oversight board that requires corporations to establish codes of ethics for financial reporting.
c. It required top executives to sign off on their firms’ financial statements. d. It outlawed bribery of officials in other countries.
e. It made securities fraud a criminal offense.

21. Which of the following is not cited as an example of a global collaborative effort to establish standards of business conduct?
a. Council on Economic Priorities’ Social Accountability 8000 b. Ethical Trading Initiative
c. U.S. Apparel Industry Partnership
d. United States Sentencing Commission e. World Trade Organization

22. Because of Sarbanes-Oxley, publicly traded companies must develop financial reporting.
a. ethics officers
b. ethics programs c. codes of ethics d. legal counsel
e. accountants

to assist in maintaining transparency in

23. is essential in building long-term relationships between businesses and consumers. a. Profits
b. Dividends c. Trust
d. Hubris
e. Codes of ethics

24. The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act a. was very popular among Wall Street bankers.
b. represented only modest reform.
c. came out of theological discussions in the 1920s.
d. was designed to make the financial services industry more responsible. e. made it mandatory for public corporations to hire ethics officers.

25. In the Reagan/Bush eras, the major focus of the business world was on a. self-regulation rather than regulation by government.
b. decreasing the number of mergers.
c. decreasing the multinational presence in the U.S. marketplace. d. increasing government influence on the economic arena.
e. improving business ethics.

26. The six principles of the Defense Industry Initiative on Business Ethics and Conduct became the foundation for a. Better Business Bureau ethical guidelines.
b. the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations. c. the Ethical Trading Initiative.
d. the Federal Trade Commission compliance requirements. e. the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.

27. Ethical culture is defined as
a. rules, standards, and moral principles regarding what is right or wrong in specific situations. b. the establishment and enforcement of ethical codes throughout the organization.
c. the development of rules and norms that are socially enforced.
d. the codification of laws to reward organizations for taking action to prevent misconduct. e. acceptable behavior as defined by the company and industry.

28. The Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations set the tone for organizational ethics compliance programs by a. codifying into law incentives for organizations to take action such as developing ethical compliance programs
to prevent misconduct.
b. forcing all organizations to develop mandatory reporting systems.
c. eliminating most of the federal legislation that created inefficient and time-consuming activities for businesses. d. providing a study of moral philosophies.
e. providing an examination of company codes of ethics.

29. Which of the following statements about the Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations is false?
a. They use a routine mechanical approach that forces all firms to use the same means to avert serious penalties.
b. They strive to prevent misconduct.
c. They encourage companies to develop standards and procedures capable of detecting and preventing misconduct.
d. They utilize a carrot and stick approach by taking preventive action against misconduct.
e. They encourage the appointment of high-level personnel responsible for oversight of the compliance program.

30. Which of the following is not one of the benefits of being ethical and socially responsible in business?
a. Greater employee commitment
b. A high degree of employee dissent
c. Improved customer trust and satisfaction d. Increased investor loyalty
e. Better financial performance

31. Employees’ perceptions of their firm as having an ethical climate leads to a. lack of focus on goals.
b. greater focus on education.
c. increased community involvement.
d. improved relationships with competitors. e. enhanced performance.

32. Employees feel less pressure to compromise ethically, observe less misconduct, are more satisfied with their organizations, and feel more valued when
a. they are new at their jobs.
b. they are paid to ignore problems in the workplace. c. they do not agree with an organization’s values.
d. they have very high compensation.
e. they see honesty, respect, and trust applied in the workplace.

33. Investors are concerned about business ethics because they know that misconduct can a. foster stability.
b. improve employee commitment. c. improve customer loyalty.
d. lower stock value and prices.
e. complicate business financial reporting.

34. Most organizations with strong ethical climates usually focus on the core value of placing interests first. a. customers’
b. employees’
c. stockholders’ d. suppliers’
e. distributors’

35. Which of the following is not something a firm might do to encourage organizational ethics and compliance?
a. Employee ethics training
b. Hiring a compliance officer
c. Ignoring potential ethical issues d. Writing a code of ethics
e. Conducting an ethics and compliance audit.

36. How does ethics contribute to customer satisfaction?

37. Discuss the evolution of business ethics as a field of study from before 1960 to the present.

38. Why is it important that businesspeople study business ethics?

39. We all learn values from sources such as family, religion, and school. Why might these sources of individual values not prove very helpful when making complex business decisions?

40. Discuss the current state of business ethics in the twenty-first century.

41. How do values and judgments play a critical role when we make ethical decisions?

Chapter 2

1. Those who have a claim in some aspect of a firm’s products, operations, markets, industry, and outcomes are known as
a. shareholders. b. stockholders. c. stakeholders. d. claimholders.
e. special-interest groups.

2. Stakeholders’ power over businesses stems from their a. ability to withdraw or withhold resources.
b. ability to generate profits. c. media impact.
d. political influence. e. stock ownership.

3. Which of the following do not typically engage in transactions with a company and thus are not essential for its survival?
a. Employees
b. Secondary stakeholders c. Primary stakeholders
d. Investors
e. Customers

4. A firm that makes use of a

recognizes other stakeholders beyond investors, employees, and suppliers, and

explicitly acknowledges the two-way dialog that exists between a firm’s internal and external environments. a. stakeholder model of corporate governance
b. stakeholder bias c. code of ethics
d. stakeholder interaction model e. corporate interface model

5. The degree to which a firm understands and addresses stakeholder demands can be referred to as a. a stakeholder orientation.
b. a shareholder orientation.
c. the stakeholder interaction model. d. a two-way street.
e. a continuum.

6. Which of the following industries tends to generate a high level of trust from consumers and stakeholders?
a. Insurance
b. Technology c. Banks
d. Mortgage lenders e. Financial services

7. Which of the following is not a benefit that primary stakeholders tend to provide to organizations?
a. Supplies of capital and resources. b. Expertise and leadership
c. Word-of-mouth promotion d. Infrastructure
e. Pro-bono bookkeeping

8. A stakeholder group that is absolutely necessary for a firm’s survival is defined as
a. direct.
b. tertiary.
c. secondary.
d. special-interest. e. primary.

9. When unethical acts are discovered in a firm, in most instances a. they are caused by unwilling participants.
b. the cause is due to external stakeholders.
c. the perpetrators are caught and prosecuted.
d. there was knowing cooperation or complicity from within the company. e. the cause is a corrupt Board of Directors.

10. Which of the following is not a method typically employed by firms when researching relevant stakeholder groups?
a. Surveys
b. Focus groups
c. Internet searches d. Press reviews
e. Guessing

11. A stakeholder orientation can be viewed as a(n)
a. necessity for business success. b. continuum.
c. polarizing concept.
d. good marketing ploy. e. expensive proposition.

12. Shareholders provide resources to an organization that are critical to long term success. Which of the following does the book suggest that suppliers offer?
a. The promise of customer loyalty
b. Material resources and/or intangible knowledge c. Infrastructure
d. Revenue
e. Leadership skills

13. Which of the following is not associated with the stakeholder interaction model?
a. Involves a two-way relationship between firm and stakeholders b. Recognizes the input of investors, employees, and suppliers
c. Explicitly acknowledges dialogue with a firm’s internal environment d. Explicitly acknowledges dialogue with a firm’s external environment
e. Identifies the mass media, special interest groups, competitors, and trade associations as primary stakeholders

14. The first of the three activities that are associated with the stakeholder orientation is the a. organization-wide generation of data.
b. organization’s responsiveness to intelligence. c. set of consumer attributes identified.
d. organizational strategy of target markets.
e. human relations department’s set of priorities.

15. Public health and safety and support of local organizations are issues most relevant to which stakeholder group?
a. Investors
b. Community c. Suppliers
d. Customers e. Employees

16. Minimizing the use of energy and reducing emissions and waste are issues of importance to which stakeholder?
a. Environmental groups b. Suppliers
c. Employees
d. Industry leaders e. Investors

17. The idea that the mission of business is to produce goods and services at a profit, thus maximizing its contribution to society is associated with
a. Adam Smith.
b. Theodore Levitt. c. Norman Bowie. d. Herman Miller
e. Milton Friedman.

18. The originator of the idea of the invisible hand, which is a fundamental concept in free market capitalism, was a. Adam Smith.
b. Theodore Levitt. c. Norman Bowie. d. Herman Miller
e. Milton Friedman.

19. Some economists believe that if companies address economic and legal issues, they are satisfying the demands of society, and that trying to anticipate and meet additional needs would be almost impossible. Which economist’s theory are they following most closely with this belief?
a. Adam Smith.
b. Theodore Levitt. c. Norman Bowie. d. Herman Miller
e. Milton Friedman.

20. In ascending order, Carroll’s four levels of social responsibility are a. ethical, legal, economic, philanthropic.
b. economic, ethical philanthropic, legal. c. economic, legal, ethical, philanthropic. d. legal, ethical, economic, philanthropic. e. ethical, legal, moral, economic.

21. The term used to express how a firm meets its stakeholder expectations of its economic, legal, ethical, and philanthropic responsibilities is
a. reputation.
b. corporate citizenship.
c. corporate ethical audit. d. ethical citizenship.
e. fiduciary duties.

22. In corporate governance, is the process of auditing and improving organizational decisions and actions. a. profit
b. loyalty
c. accountability d. control
e. diligence

23. Accountability, oversight, and control all fall under the definition and implementation of corporate a. profit.
b. loyalty. c. care.
d. governance. e. diligence.

24. Major corporate governance issues normally involve decisions. (Choose the response that is most correct)
a. strategic-level b. tactical-level
c. divisional-level d. marketing-level e. accounting-level

25. Which of the following is a major ethical concern among corporate boards of directors?
a. Compensation
b. The non-traditional directorship approach c. Dividend reporting
d. Corporate social audits e. Debt swaps

26. One policy to address the issue of executive pay was implemented by J.P. Morgan, it stated that
a. there should be no limit on what top executives can earn.
b. managers should earn no more than twenty times the pay of other employees. c. top managers should make the same amount as other employees.
d. employees can determine how much managers make.
e. the government should determine the worth of each manager’s service.

27. The specific steps for implementing the stakeholder perspective do not include which of the following?
a. Identifying stakeholder groups b. Identifying stakeholder issues
c. Identifying and gaining stakeholder feedback d. Identifying and gaining government feedback
e. Assessing organizational commitment to social responsibility groups

28. What are the four levels of social responsibility?
a. Financial, religious, ethical, and philanthropic
b. Ethical, philanthropic, selfish, and short-sighted c. Economic, long-term, ethical, and philanthropic. d. Legal, economic, ethical, and philanthropic
e. Economic, compliance, legal, and philanthropic

29. The model is founded in classic economic precepts. a. economic
b. shareholder c. stakeholder d. board
e. ISO

30. Which of the following are not typically secondary stakeholders?
a. Television news anchors b. Special-interest groups
c. Customers
d. Trade associations e. Journalists

31. Which of the following are not typically primary stakeholders?
a. Customers
b. Trade associations c. Employees
d. Shareholders e. Suppliers

32. Why do critics argue that high compensation for boards of directors is a bad thing?
a. It is too expensive for the organization.
b. It could cause conflicts of interest between the directors and the organization. c. It is not fair to poorly compensated employees.
d. High pay will render the board less complacent.
e. Board of director compensation is not a major issue.

33. Board members being linked to more than one company is an example of a. strategic philanthropy.
b. stakeholder commitment. c. interlocking directorate.
d. conflict of interest. e. an illegal activity.

34. What is the first step in implementing a stakeholder perspective in an organization?
a. Identifying resources and determining urgency b. Identifying stakeholder groups
c. Identifying stakeholder issues
d. Assessing the corporate culture
e. Assessing organizational commitment to social responsibility

35. A stakeholder orientation is not complete unless it includes a. clear accounting procedures.
b. major financing activities. c. marketing strategy.
d. feedback from special-interest groups.
e. activities that actually address stakeholder issues.

36. Compare and contrast the stakeholder and shareholder models of corporate governance.

37. Why is ethical misconduct more difficult to overcome than poor financial performance?

38. Discuss the difference between primary and secondary stakeholders in the stakeholder interaction model and give examples for each type.

39. Why do some businesspeople and scholars question whether ethics should have a role in business?

40. Discuss three corporate governance issues, why they are defined as issues, and how you would solve them. Use examples in your answer.

Chapter 3

1. An ethical issue is a problem, situation, or opportunity a. that has no correct answer.
b. that harms the environment.
c. requiring society as a whole to choose among several actions that must be evaluated as right or wrong.
d. requiring an individual, group, or organization to choose among several actions that must be evaluated as right or wrong, ethical or unethical.
e. requiring an individual, group, or organization to choose between harming consumers or the environment and earning more profits.

2. Ethical issues in business typically arise because of conflicts between individuals’ personal moral philosophies and values and the
a. values and attitudes of the organization in which they work. b. values and attitudes of the society in which they live.
c. values and attitudes of the organization in which they work and the society in which they live. d. laws and regulations of the country in which they live.
e. values and attitudes of their parents and religion.

3. is an important element of virtue and means being whole, sound, and in unimpaired condition. a. Optimization
b. Ethical issue c. Honesty
d. Trust
e. Integrity

4. A court found an oil company guilty of placing profits over the safety and well-being of its employees. This situation can be classified as
a. ethical.
b. unethical.
c. an ethical issue. d. a dilemma.
e. a justice issue.

5. A person uncomfortable with his employer’s unspoken policy of hiring only white men is experiencing a. a conflict of interest.
b. an ethical issue. c. a feeling of guilt.
d. cognitive dissonance. e. a moral attribute.

6. Issues related to fairness and honesty may arise because business is sometimes regarded as a a. legal case, where everything must be done to the letter of the law.
b. contest, with the most ethical firm “winning.”
c. guerilla war where anything goes in the fight for consumers’ dollars. d. game governed by its own rules rather than those of society.
e. game governed by the rules of society.

7. War metaphors are common in business. This kind of mindset can be dangerous for business leaders because a. it may lead executives to become violent.
b. it may foster the idea that honesty is unnecessary in business. c. it may lead organizations to be excessively aggressive.
d. business is not like warfare and the metaphors are not appropriate. e. business is more like a game than a war.

8. Conflicts of interest exist when employees must choose whether to
a. advance their own personal interests, those of the organization, or those of some other group. b. advance the interests of the organization or those of society.
c. accept bribes or not.
d. carry out an assignment they perceive to be unethical. e. report an unethical coworker.

9. is the offering of something of value in order to gain an illicit advantage. a. Shoulder surfing
b. Hacking
c. Gift exchange
d. Conflicts of interest e. Bribery

10. Concerns involving copyright infringement on books, movies and music, and other illegally produced goods relate to which type of ethical issue?
a. Conflict of interest b. Honesty
c. Communications d. Discrimination
e. Intellectual property rights

11.

is defined as any purposeful communication that deceives, manipulates, or conceals facts in order to create a false impression.
a. Stealing b. Lying
c. Fraud
d. Misappropriation e. Accounting fraud

12. In marketing communications, lying causes predicaments for companies because it destroys a. trust.
b. honor.
c. confidence. d. integrity.
e. products.

13. When a commercial states that a product is superior to any other on the market, the marketer risks accusations of a. concealed facts.
b. false labeling.
c. deceptive advertising. d. concealed facts.
e. puffery.

14. Optimization is defined as
a. the quality of being just, equitable, and impartial. b. a trade-off between equity and efficiency.
c. an interchange of giving and receiving in social relationships.
d. how wealth or income is distributed between employees within a company.
e. a lack of integrity, incomplete disclosure, and an unwillingness to tell the truth.

15. Which of the following has been identified by the Ethics Resource Center as the leading form of observed misconduct in organizations?
a. Discrimination b. Bullying
c. Lying
d. Misuse of company resources e. Sexual harassment

16. An activity is probably ethical if it
a. is approved of by most individuals in the organization and is customary in the industry.
b. is approved of by no one in the organization, but has been carried out in the industry before. c. is customary in the industry.
d. is not illegal.
e. does not make consumers feel cheated, deceived, or manipulated.

17. The first step toward understanding business ethics is to a. know your company’s ethical policies.
b. know your own morals and philosophies. c. know society’s ethical policies.
d. develop ethical-issue awareness.
e. develop a set of decision-making rules.

18. Among retail stores, is a larger problem than customer shoplifting. a. poor stock performance
b. weak leadership
c. internal employee theft d. misuse of merchandise e. employee dissatisfaction

19. The ethical decision-making process begins a. with a conflict of interest.
b. when an individual experiences a conflict between his or her values and those of his or her firm. c. when stakeholders trigger ethical issue awareness and individuals openly discuss it with others. d. with a conflict in values.
e. when an individual experiences a conflict between his or her values and those of society.

20. Which of the following is not a side-effect of being the victim of workplace bullying?
a. Increased productivity b. Sleep disturbance
c. Depression
d. Increased sick days e. Stomach problems

21. Accountants must abide by a strict code of ethics that defines their responsibilities to a. their clients only.
b. their clients and the public interest. c. the public only.
d. their investors and shareholders. e. government regulators.

22. Which of the following statements is most correct?
a. Affirmative action programs require quotas to govern employment decisions. b. Affirmative action programs have eliminated discrimination in employment.
c. Affirmative action programs are required in all organizations by law.
d. Affirmative action programs involve efforts to recruit, hire, train, and promote qualified individuals from groups that have traditionally been discriminated against on the basis of race, gender, or other characteristics.
e. Affirmative action programs involve efforts to avoid recruiting, hiring, training, and promoting qualified individuals from groups that have traditionally been discriminated against on the basis of race, gender, or other characteristics.

23. Which of the following is not a question you need to ask when you suspect that workplace bullying has occurred?
a. Is your boss treating you well and compensating you adequately?
b. Is your boss asking obviously impossible things from you without training and stating that, once completed, the work is never good enough?
c. Are surprise meetings called without your knowledge?
d. Have others at work told you to stop working, talking, or socializing with them?
e. Are you never left alone to do your job without interference?

24. is associated with a hostile workplace where someone considered a target is threatened, harassed, belittled, or verbally abused.
a. A code of conduct b. Sexual harassment c. Coercive power
d. Bullying e. Rewards

25. Which of the following is not a consequence of ethical misconduct?
a. Decreased reputation
b. Shaken customer loyalty
c. Reduced investor confidence d. Increased sales
e. Legal actions by wronged parties

26. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act specifically outlaws hiring practices that discriminate against people a. who are under the age of 18.
b. who are between 16 and 20. c. who are between 39-69.
d. who are past retirement age.
e. who are younger than 18 and older than 49.

27. Abusive or intimidating behavior is the most common ethical problem for employees. Which of the following is not
related to this concept?
a. Physical threats
b. False accusations c. Being annoying
d. Profanity
e. Performance probation

28. The

makes it illegal for individuals, firms, or third parties doing business in American markets to “make

payments to foreign government officials to assist in obtaining or retaining business.”
a. U.S. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA)
b. Kyoto Protocol
c. World Trade Organization (WTO)
d. Consumer Protection Act e. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

29. Mr. Smith told his client, Mr. Jabar, who was not an IT expert, that the new software systems were much better than his existing ones. To convince Mr. Jabar, Mr. Smith used a great deal of technical jargon that his client did not really understand. Mr. Smith did this intentionally to confuse Mr. Jabar. This is an example of
a. false advertising. b. commission lying. c. omission lying.
d. noise.
e. surrogate lying.

30. involves tricking individuals into revealing their passwords or other valuable corporate information. a. Shoulder surfing
b. Remote hacking
c. Social engineering d. Physical hacking e. Dumpster diving

31. When Devon looked at what another employee was typing in order to get a password, he committed a. shoulder surfing.
b. whacking
c. discrimination
d. password guessing e. hacking

32. A company can be sued for discrimination if it a. hires minorities.
b. maintains reasonable minority standards.
c. discharges a minority individual, but has a just cause for doing so. d. uses age as a hiring or firing criterion.
e. has more men than women on staff.

33. Affirmative action programs
a. involve the promotion of unqualified employees. b. are not imposed by federal law on employers.
c. are not very commonly used anymore because there is no need to protect minorities. d. only involve the training of individuals.
e. involve the recruitment, hiring, promotion, and training of qualified individuals.

34. What type of fraud involves intentional deception on the part of an individual or group in order to derive an unfair economic advantage over an organization?
a. Channel
b. Integrative c. Consumer d. Product
e. Conventional

35. What type of fraudulent activity could involve a consumer staging an accident to seek damages?
a. Whacking b. Duplicity c. Guile
d. Defamation e. Collusion

36. What type of fraudulent activity involves an employee who assists a consumer in fraud?
a. Whacking b. Duplicity c. Guile
d. Defamation e. Collusion

37. Prior to the financial meltdown, bond ratings agencies were accused of having

because they were paid by the

organizations that they rated. The organizations would shop around for the agency that gave them the best rating. a. high ethical standards
b. excessively complicated systems c. a hostile workplace
d. conflicts of interest
e. a good business model

38. are used to obtain or retain business and are not generally considered illegal in the U.S. a. Facilitation payments
b. Bribes c. Gifts
d. Coercive techniques e. Threats

39. Discuss how one goes about recognizing an ethical issue.

40. List three business problems, situations, or opportunities that you believe are ethical issues. Explain why.

41. Describe the different methods of obtaining corporate intelligence that competitors commonly use.

42. What is a conflict of interest? Provide an example.

43. What are the different definitions of bribery?

44. Discuss the factors that go into creating a hostile work environment. Why is this a bad thing? Give an example of a hostile work environment.

Chapter 4

1. Which of the following is not an aspect of the institutionalization of social responsibility?
a. Voluntary practices b. Legal responsibilities c. Core practices
d. Familial responsibilities e. Strategic philanthropy

2. Which of the following acts can be classified as procompetitive legislation?
a. Equal Pay Act of 1963 b. Civil Rights Act of 1964
c. McCarran-Ferguson Act of 1944 d. Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890
e. Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970

3. Which of the following acts exempted the insurance industry from antitrust legislation?
a. Equal Pay Act of 1963 b. Civil Rights Act of 1964
c. McCarran-Ferguson Act of 1944 d. Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890
e. Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970

4. Which of the following acts, passed in response to public outrage over conditions described in Upton Sinclair’s The
Jungle, was the first consumer protection legislation?
a. Civil Rights Act of 1964
b. Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890
c. Magnuson-Moss Warranty Act of 1974 d. Consumer Product Safety Act of 1972 e. Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

5. The

was established after the latest financial crisis, in response to a situation that caused many consumers to

lose their homes.
a. Environmental Protection Agency b. World Bank
c. Consumer Financial Protection Bureau d. World Trade Organization
e. Sarbanes-Oxley Act

6. Which of the following is not a provision of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?
a. Strengthens penalties for corporate fraud
b. Discourages the creation of ethical and legal compliance programs c. Requires codes of ethics for financial reporting in corporations
d. Makes fraudulent financial reporting a criminal offense e. Requires greater transparency in financial reporting

7. Which of the forces of the business environment involves the rivalry among businesses for customers and profits?
a. The economic dimension b. The legal dimension
c. The competitive dimension
d. The technological dimension
e. The voluntary responsibilities dimension

8. The

regulates tobacco, dietary supplements, vaccines, veterinary drugs, medical devices, cosmetics, products

that give off radiation, and biological products. a. World Trade Organization
b. Consumer Financial Protection Agency c. Department of Justice
d. Environmental Protection Agency e. The Food and Drug Administration

9. Which of the following groups is not a group that receives special legal protections?
a. The elderly b. Children
c. Senior citizens
d. The highly educated e. Young consumers

10. The

was called “a sweeping overhaul of the financial regulatory system…on a scale not seen since the

reforms that followed the Great Depression.”
a. Equal Pay Act
b. Americans with Disabilities Act
c. Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act d. Age Discrimination in Employment Act
e. VII of the Civil Rights Act

11. law defines the rights and duties of individuals and organizations (including businesses). a. Civil
b. Criminal
c. Competitive
d. Administrative e. Regulatory

12.

law not only prohibits specific actions in business such as fraud, theft, or securities trading violations, but also imposes fines or imprisonment as punishment for breaking the law.
a. Civil
b. Criminal
c. Competitive
d. Administrative e. Regulatory

13. Which of the following is not a provision of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act?
a. Increases the accountability and transparency of financial institutions b. Creates a bureau to educate consumers in financial literacy
c. Creates an organization to pay the bills of low-income consumers d. Create incentives for whistle-blowers to come forward
e. Increases oversight of the financial industry

14.

is the synergistic and mutually beneficial use of an organization’s core competencies and resources to deal
with key stakeholders so as to bring about organizational and societal benefits. a. Social responsibility
b. Business ethics
c. Corporate philanthropy d. Strategic philanthropy
e. Cause-related marketing

15. Anticompetitive strategies that focus on weakening or destroying a competitor have spurred antitrust legislation and include all of the following except
a. sustained price cuts. b. free samples.
c. discriminatory pricing. d. price collusion.
e. corporate espionage.

16. Which is not one of the four sources of criminal and civil laws?
a. Judicial law
b. Common law
c. Constitutional law d. Administrative law e. Statutory law

17. The

is an independent agency within the Federal Reserve System that “regulate[s] the offering and provision

of consumer financial products or services under the Federal consumer financial laws.”
a. Consumer Financial Protection Bureau b. Federal Reserve
c. World Trade Organization d. Department of Justice
e. Federal Trade Commission

18. The primary objective of U.S. antitrust laws is to
a. protect consumers from high prices and foreign products. b. protect domestic businesses.
c. protect employees.
d. promote strategies that enhance business welfare over consumer welfare.
e. distinguish competitive strategies that enhance consumer welfare from those that reduce it.

19. What is a primary reason why some small businesses resist the opening of large chain retailers like Walmart or
Home Depot?
a. Because the large size creates economies of scale and they can charge lower prices b. Because the selection in the stores is too large
c. Because large retailers attract crime to neighborhoods in which they are based d. Because community leaders do not like the top management
e. Because large retailers almost never hire local workers as employees

20.

focus(es) on developing sound organizational practices and integrity for financial and nonfinancial
performance measures, rather than on an individual’s morals.
a. The Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act b. Compliance
c. Organizational ethics d. Core practices
e. The Sarbanes Oxley Act

21. Which of the following is not one of the seven steps that the U.S. Sentencing Commission requires for an effective compliance program?
a. Develop a code of conduct
b. Provide oversight by high-ranking personnel
c. Create a communication system for disseminating standards and procedures d. Monitor and audit systems designed to detect misconduct
e. Comply with ISO 14000 guidelines

22. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act created the establish rules and standards for auditing.

to oversee the accounting firms that audit public corporations and to

a. Public Company Accounting Oversight Board b. Corporate Accounting Oversight Commission c. Enron Accounting Fraud Administration
d. Occupational Health and Safety Administration e. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

23. responsibilities relate to a business’s contributions to stakeholders.
a. Economic b. Legal
c. Ethical
d. Voluntary
e. Social responsiveness

24. Passed by Congress in 1991, the compliance programs.
a. Sarbanes-Oxley Act

created incentives for organizations to develop and implement ethical

b. U.S. Sentencing Commission’s Guidelines for Ethical Compliance c. Ethical Compliance Act
d. Social Responsiveness Compliance Act
e. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations

25. Donation of computer equipment to schools by Toshiba would be associated with responsibilities. a. economic
b. voluntary c. legal
d. ethical
e. minimum

26. By prohibiting accounting firms from providing both auditing and consulting services to the same corporate clients without permission, the Sarbanes-Oxley Act is attempting to eliminate
a. conflicts of interest. b. cronyism.
c. reporting transparency. d. corporate espionage.
e. dual reporting.

27. Which of the following is not a benefit to businesses of engaging in voluntary responsibilities?
a. Help create an ethical culture and values that can act as a buffer to organizational misconduct b. Reduce government involvement by providing assistance to stakeholders
c. Develop employee leadership skills
d. Improve employee compensation and retention e. Improve the quality of life in communities

28. Companies that will most likely be found in violation of procompetitive legislation. a. pollute waterways
b. knowingly harm consumers c. contract with sweatshops
d. establish monopolies e. help consumers

29. tie(s) an organization’s product(s) directly to a social concern through a marketing program.
a. Voluntary contributions b. Cause-related marketing c. Strategic philanthropy
d. Corporate giving
e. Employee benefits

30. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
a. prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color, sex, religion, or national origin. b. penalizes the top executives in an organization for misconduct.
c. is basically the same as the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.
d. discourages whistle-blowers from reporting misconduct. e. prohibits pay discrimination on the basis of gender.

31. Cause related marketing can affect consumer cause are seen as a good fit.
a. individual ethics b. tastes
c. perceptions d. budgets
e. buying patterns

, if consumers are sympathetic to the cause and the brand and

32. Who provides information to managers, investors, tax authorities, and other stakeholders who make resource allocation decisions for corporations?
a. Accountants
b. Federal regulators
c. The Securities and Exchange Commission d. The Department of Justice
e. Human Resources departments

33. The of ethics involves embedding values, norms, and artifacts in organizations, industries, and society. a. institutionalization
b. rationalization
c. commercialization d. mobilization
e. enforcement

34. Which of the following is not a reason why the institutionalization of business ethics has progressed in recent decades?
a. Institutionalization of ethics is now mandated for all organizations by governments around the world b. Stakeholders have recognized the need for improving business ethics
c. The government has stepped in when scandals and misconduct have damaged key constituents of businesses d. Gatekeepers have been questioned as to their contributions to major scandals
e. Highly ethical companies tend to be more profitable than those suffering from misconduct issues

35. Part of the reason why credit ratings firms did not catch major problems prior to the global financial meltdown of
2008 was because they were paid by the firms that they rank, which creates a. economies of scale.
b. synergy.
c. a conflict of interest. d. cooperation.
e. efficiency.

36. Investigations into the financial rating industry after the financial meltdown of 2008 found all of the following except
a. analysts cut corners when faced with less time to perform due diligence. b. analysts’ ratings were inaccurate.
c. many high ratings were based on inadequate historical data.
d. analysts were overwhelmed with the volume and complexity of trades.
e. most analysts were completely untrained and unprepared to do their jobs.

37. Some, especially those in business, complain that the Sarbanes-Oxley Act and similar legislation a. is excessively complex and financially burdensome.
b. is not necessary. c. is fair to all firms.
d. has reduced restatements of financial reports. e. is too simplistic.

38. An ethical organizational culture creates an environment in which to structure behavior that is then evaluated by stakeholders. The key elements of an organizational culture include all of the following except
a. values. b. norms.
c. artifacts.
d. legal compliance.
e. employee compensation

39. Which of the following provide incentives for developing core practices within a firm that could help ensure ethical and legal compliance?
a. Department of Justice and Open Compliance Ethics Group b. Department of Justice and the Sarbanes-Oxley Act
c. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations and the Sarbanes-Oxley Act d. Food and Drug Administration and the Sarbanes-Oxley Act
e. Securities and Exchange Commission and the Sarbanes-Oxley Act

40. Laws and regulations change over time; however, in the United States the thrust of most business legislation can be summed up as
a. any practice is permitted.
b. any practice is permitted that does not substantially reduce competition and harm consumers or society.
c. any practice is permitted that does not substantially harm consumers or society, but this applies only within the
United States.
d. any practice is permitted that does not harm the environment. e. any practice is permitted that does not break the law.

41. Why do you think the costs of compliance with Sarbanes Oxley go down over time?

42. According to the text, the opinions of society, as expressed through legislation, can change over time and different courts and government legislatures may take different views about the acceptability of specific business activities. Why is this so?

43. What ethical issues affecting consumers and society as a whole are created by unfair competition?

44. Society often expects a lot from business. Do you think that it is possible to balance profit and other business objectives with the goals and desires of society? Why or why not?

Chapter 5

1. Which of the following is the first step in the ethical decision making process?
a. Being socialized into the firm’s corporate culture
b. Applying a personal moral philosophy in order to individualize the ethical decision making process
c. Recognizing that an issue requires an individual or work group to make a choice that ultimately will be judged by stakeholders as right or wrong
d. Soliciting the opinions of others in a work group or in the overall business in order to gain feedback e. Enforcing the firm’s ethical standards with rewards and punishment

2. Which of the following is not one of the six “spheres of influence” to which individuals are subject when confronted with an ethical issue?
a. Educational attainment b. Workplace
c. Family
d. Legal system e. Community

3. The perceived relevance or importance of an ethical issue to the individual, work group, or organization is a. organizational culture.
b. immediate job context. c. ethical issue intensity. d. leadership.
e. locus of control.

4. Studies have found that more than a third of the unethical situations that lower and middle-level managers face come from _____.
a. stakeholder expectations and pressures. b. pressures to satisfy customers.
c. pressures from the government to perform at a high level.
d. internal pressures and ambiguity surrounding internal organizational rules. e. investor expectations.

5. According to the ethical decision-making framework, the absence of punishment provides a(n)
behavior. a. reason
b. significant other c. individual factor d. opportunity
e. ethical issue intensity

for unethical

6. have been found to decrease unethical practices and increase positive work behavior. a. High educational attainment levels
b. High levels of community involvement c. Charismatic leaders
d. Strong religious beliefs e. Good personal values

7. involves subordinates simply following the directives of a superior without question. It demonstrates the influence that significant others can exert in the workplace.
a. Obedience to authority b. Locus of control
c. Opportunity
d. Transactional leadership e. Immediate job context

8. Multiple elements work on individuals to affect their behavior. While an individual may intend to do the right thing,
can alter this intent. a. cognitive dissonance
b. familial expectations c. religious beliefs
d. the desire for financial gain
e. organizational or social forces

9. If management fails to identify and educate employees about ethical problem areas, ethical issues may not reach the critical
a. awareness level. b. aptitude level.
c. ethical level.
d. organizational level. e. individual level.

10. The

can be defined as a set of values, norms, and artifacts, including ways of solving problems shared by

members of an organization. a. corporate culture
b. intentions of a corporate c. ethical issue awareness
d. determination of a corporation e. individual factors

11. Which of the following would not be considered a negative reinforcement of employee behavior?
a. Demotions b. Firings
c. Ignoring the behavior d. Reprimands
e. Pay penalties

12. Codes, rules, and compliance are essential in organizations. However, an organization built on to develop a high integrity corporate culture.
a. a charismatic leader
b. the preferences of the CEO
c. the grapevine
d. formal relationships
e. informal relationships

is more likely

13. Following the ethical directives of a superior relates to a. an internal locus of control.
b. obedience to authority. c. moral intensity.
d. gender.
e. ethical issue intensity.

14. Which of the following is not considered a significant other group in the workplace?
a. Peers
b. Managers c. Spouses
d. Coworkers
e. Subordinates

15. Studies have shown that than any other factor.
a. significant others b. religion
c. education
d. chief executive officers e. ethical issues

within the organization have more impact on a worker’s decisions on a daily basis

16. External and internal rewards relate to which part of the ethical decision-making framework?
a. Individual factors b. Significant others
c. Cognitive moral development d. Obedience to authority
e. Opportunity

17. Which of the following is not an issue that helps in business ethics evaluations and decisions?
a. Ethical issue intensity b. Individual factors
c. Organizational factors d. Personal guilt
e. Opportunity

18. is the first sign that an unethical decision has occurred. a. Guilt
b. Reward
c. Punishment
d. Cognitive dissonance e. Happiness

19. People who believe in , go with the flow because they feel the events in their lives are uncontrollable. a. ethical decision making
b. internal locus of control c. an ethical culture
d. external locus of control e. significant others.

20. Which of the following is not an individual factor that affects business ethics?
a. Nationality b. Age
c. Religion
d. Significant others e. Education

21.

is an organizational factor that gives a company specific characteristics. Over time, stakeholders begin to see the company as like a living organism with a mind and will of its own.
a. Oversight
b. Significant others c. Corporate culture d. The ethical climate e. The legal climate

22. An ethical corporate culture needs

along with

to establish an ethics program and monitor the complex

ethical decisions being made by employees . a. individual ethics; ethical issue intensity
b. ethical issue intensity; ethics training
c. organizational factors; individual factors d. employee evaluations; good intentions
e. shared values; proper oversight

23. Those who have influence in a work group are referred to as significant others and include a. peers, managers, coworkers, and subordinates.
b. family members, peers, and coworkers. c. spouses and friends.
d. employees in similar job situations. e. employees who hold the same job.

24. Research concerning nationality and the ability to make ethical decisions a. shows no relationship between the two.
b. is hard to interpret in a business context because of cultural differences.
c. suggests that organizations should be very concerned about an employee’s nationality. d. suggests that corporations pay a lot of attention to such research.
e. suggests that the influence of nationality on corporate culture is growing.

25. The relationship between business ethics and age a. shows a negative correlation.
b. is simple. Greater experience leads to better ethical decision making.
c. is complex, although experience helps older employees make ethical decisions.
d. suggests that employees with less experience have a greater ability to deal with complex industry-specific ethical issues.
e. does not demonstrate a statistically significant correlation.

26. Employees that see themselves as going with the flow because that’s all they can do have a(n)
a. external locus of control. b. moral intensity
c. obedience to authority d. opportunity
e. internal locus of control.

27. For people who begin the value shift that leads to unethical decisions, which of the following is not a usual justification to reduce and eliminate guilt?
a. I need a paycheck and can’t afford to quit right now. b. Those around me are doing it so why shouldn’t I?
c. If I don’t do this, I might not be able to get a good reference from my boss when I leave. d. If I don’t do this, I might never be promoted.
e. This is in keeping with my personal morals and the code of conduct, so it is okay.

28. is the ability to perceive whether a situation or decision has an ethical dimension. a. Ethical issue intensity
b. Locus of control
c. Ethical awareness d. Moral intensity
e. Opportunity

29.

others.

relates to individuals’ perceptions of social pressure and the harm they believe their decisions will have on

a. Ethical awareness b. Moral intensity
c. Individual factors
d. Ethical issue intensity e. Social awareness

30. The ethical decision making process in business includes all of the following except
a. Individual factors b. Opportunity
c. Ethical issue intensity
d. Making ethical decisions e. Organizational factors

31.

culture involves values and norms that prescribe a wide range of behavior for organizational members, while culture reflects the integrity of decisions made and is a function of many factors, including corporate policies,
top management’s leadership on ethical issues, the influence of coworkers, and the opportunity for unethical behavior.
a. Ethical, corporate b. External, internal c. Corporate, ethical d. Positive, negative
e. Compromising, collaborative

32. All of the following are true with regards to organizational factors except
a. Employees approach ethical issues on the basis of what they learned from others in the organization. b. An alignment between a person’s own values and the values of the organization help create positive
organizational outcomes.
c. Congruence in personal and organizational values is related to commitment, satisfaction, motivation, ethics, work stress, and anxiety.
d. Ethical choices in organizations are most often made individually.
e. Just as a family guides an individual, specific industries give behavioral cues to firms.

33. The includes the motivational “carrots and sticks” superiors use to influence employee behavior. a. Obedience to authority
b. Immediate job context c. Locus of control
d. Normative approach e. Descriptive approach

34. All of the following are true with regards to opportunity and ethical decision making except
a. Despite the existence of rules, misconduct can still occur without proper oversight.
b. The opportunities that employees have for unethical behavior in an organization can be eliminated through formal codes, policies, and rules adequately enforced by management.
c. Opportunity also comes from knowledge.
d. The opportunity for unethical behavior can be eliminated with aggressive enforcement of codes and rules. e. Opportunity results from conditions that either provide rewards or fail to erect barriers against unethical
behavior.

35. When we discuss issue.
a. Normative b. Individual
c. Descriptive
d. Organizational e. Values-based

approaches, we are talking about how organizational decision makers should approach an

36. By incorporating objectives into corporate core values, companies begin to view as significant. a. shareholder, stakeholders
b. stakeholder, shareholders c. CEO, CEOs
d. customer, customers
e. stakeholder, stakeholders

37. Normative business ethics takes into account the standards.
a. Descriptive b. Political
c. Social
d. Economic e. Normative

realities outside the legal realm in the form of industry

38. institutions include religion, education, and individuals such as the family unit. a. Social
b. Conservative c. Economic
d. Liberal e. Political

39. All of the following are true regarding institutions except
a. Stakeholders closely align with institutions.
b. The regulatory system aligns with political institutions.
c. There is no clear link between institutional theory and the stakeholder orientation of management. d. Competition relates to economic institutions.
e. Personal values and norms derive from social institutions.

40. High levels of create a higher probability that firms cut corners because margins are usually low. a. Profit
b. Return
c. Cooperation d. Competition e. Loss

41. The thought experiment used by John Rawls that examined how individuals would formulate principles if they did not know what their future position in society would be is called
a. Equality principle b. Utilitarian veil
c. Liberty principle
d. Universal principle e. Veil of ignorance

42. The

states that economic and social equalities should be arranged to provide the most benefit to the least-

advantaged members of society. a. Equality principle
b. Difference principle
c. Constitutional principle d. Liberty principle
e. Justice principle

43. Values have all the following characteristics except
a. Provides guidance to organizations b. Subjective and related to choice
c. Widely accepted
d. Used to develop norms
e. Differs across cultures and firms

44. Companies take basic and translate them into core . a. Customs, values
b. Values, principles c. Cultures, principles d. Cultures, customs e. Principles, values

45. Organizations that have ethics programs based on a

orientation are found to make a greater contribution than

those based simply on compliance, or obeying laws and regulations. a. Customer
b. Political
c. Principles d. Values
e. Social

Essay
46. The ethical decision-making framework includes the concepts of ethical issue intensity, individual factors, organizational factors, and opportunity. Discuss how these concepts influence the ethical decision-making process.

47. Trace the ethical decision-making process. You may find it helpful to apply the model to a real business situation or to a hypothetical ethical issue you develop yourself.

48. Discuss how the three categories of institutions (political, economic, and social) are important in establishing a foundation for normative values.

49. Describe and demonstrate some of the similarities and differences between principles and values. Why are principles and values important normative considerations in ethical decision making?

50. Discuss, with examples, at least three ways that opportunity can affect the decision making process.

Chapter 6

1. Moral philosophy refers to
a. a subject that most businesspeople do not consider very important. b. the morality of business activities.
c. the principles or rules that people use to decide what is right and wrong. d. the legality of business activities.
e. the principles or rules that policymakers use to create legislation.

2. Which moral philosophy evaluates the morality of an action on the basis of its consequences for everyone affected
(seeks the greatest good for the greatest number)?
a. Act deontology b. Rule deontology c. Egoism
d. Utilitarianism e. Hedonism

3. Which moral philosophy considers an act to be morally right or acceptable if it produces some desired result?
a. Teleology
b. Deontology
c. The relativist perspective d. Ethical formalism
e. Hedonism

4. Which moral philosophy focuses on the rights of individuals and on the intentions associated with a particular behavior, rather than its consequences?
a. Deontology
b. The relativist perspective c. Teleology
d. Egoism
e. Utilitarianism

5. are person-specific, whereas meet business objectives.
a. Organizational factors; business ethics b. Codes of conduct; individual factors
c. Individual factors; codes of conduct d. Business ethics; moral philosophies
e. Moral philosophies; business ethics

are based on decisions made by groups or when carrying out tasks to

6. According to Kohlberg’s model, as a person progresses through the stages of moral development, and with time, education, and experience, he/she
a. is unlikely to change his/her values and ethical behavior. b. may change his/her values and ethical behavior.
c. will likely be promoted.
d. will depend more on the input of significant others in ethical decision making. e. will experience less opportunity to behave unethically.

7. An individual who defines what is right by considering his/her duty to society, not just to other specific people, is in which of Kohlberg’s stages of cognitive moral development?
a. Punishment and obedience
b. Individual instrumental purpose and exchange
c. Mutual interpersonal expectations, relationships, and conformity d. Social system and conscience maintenance
e. Prior rights, social contract, or utility

8. Which is the last of Kohlberg’s stages of cognitive moral development?
a. Individual instrumental purpose and exchange b. Need achievement
c. Social system and conscience maintenance d. Punishment and obedience
e. Universal ethical principles

9. A person who offers a facilitation payment in order to secure a contract that will keep her company from going bankrupt and laying off hundreds of employees may be a(n)
a. egoist.
b. teleologist. c. utilitarian. d. relativist.
e. humanitarian.

10. Which moral philosophy evaluates the morality of an action on the basis of its conformity to general moral principles and respect for individual rights?
a. The relativist perspective b. Act utilitarianism
c. Rule utilitarianism d. Act deontology
e. Rule deontology

11.

is considered the father of free market capitalism. He believed that business was and should be guided by the morals of good men.
a. John Maynard Keynes b. Henry Kissinger
c. George Washington d. Adam Smith
e. Lawrence Kohlberg

12. _____ believe that no one thing is intrinsically good. a. Hedonists
b. Pluralists c. Relativists
d. Deontologists e. Teleologists

13. Kant’s categorical imperative and the Golden Rule are examples of which moral philosophy?
a. Teleology
b. Deontology
c. The relativist perspective d. Egoism
e. Utilitarianism

14. A marketing manager who orders that a manufacturing plant be refitted to make it safer for workers, no matter what the cost, may be a(n) because he believes in the rights of all individuals.
a. egoist
b. utilitarian
c. deontologist d. relativist
e. hedonist

15. Which moral philosophy evaluates the morality of an action on the basis of principles or rules designed to promote the greatest overall utility rather than by examining situations individually?
a. Rule utilitarianism b. Act utilitarianism c. Rule deontology
d. Act deontology e. Egoism

16. Which moral philosophy evaluates the morality of an action on the basis of the equity, fairness, and impartiality of the action, with rules serving as guidelines in the decision-making process?
a. Rule utilitarianism b. Act utilitarianism c. Rule deontology
d. Act deontology
e. The relativist perspective

17. Which moral perspective defines ethical behavior subjectively from the unique experiences of individuals and groups?
a. Virtue ethics b. Egoism
c. The relativist perspective d. Absolutism
e. Justice

18. Through time an act can come to be viewed as unethical under which of the following philosophies and perspectives?
a. The relativist perspective b. Teleology
c. Deontology d. Egoism
e. Rule deontology

19.

typically focuses on the end result of actions and happiness created by them, whereas the means and motives by which actions are justified.
a. Pragmatism; hedonism
b. Deontology; pragmatism c. Utilitarianism; deontology
d. Utilitarianism; a goodness theory
e. A goodness theory; an obligation theory

emphasizes

20. An individual who believes that an action is ethical because others within his or her company and industry regularly engage in the activity is probably a(n)
a. utilitarian. b. relativist.
c. teleologist.
d. deontologist. e. egoist.

21. Enlightened egoism
a. is when an individual puts spiritual feelings above all others. b. centers completely on the short-term well-being of others. c. centers on one’s short-term self-interest.
d. centers on one’s long­term self­interest but takes others’ well­being into account.
e. centers on the long-term well-being of others.

22. Which moral philosophy is based on the premise that equal respect must be given to all persons?
a. The relativist perspective b. Deontology
c. Egoism
d. Teleology
e. Utilitarianism

23.

have lower ethical issue sensitivity, meaning they are less likely to detect ethical issues. They may be more committed to completing projects and more dedicated to group values and objectives.
a. Relativists b. Hedonists
c. Pragmatists
d. Deontologists e. Teleologists

24. justice is based on the evaluation of outcomes or results of the business relationship. a. Procedural
b. Interactional c. Distributive d. Ethical
e. Egotistical

25. Kohlberg’s six stages of cognitive moral development can be reduced to three levels of ethical concern. Persons at the second level
a. define right as that which conforms to the expectations of good behavior of the larger society. b. see beyond the norms, laws, and authority of groups or individuals.
c. are concerned with their immediate interests and with external rewards and punishments. d. are concerned with their long-term interests and with internal rewards and punishments. e. are unethical.

26.

argues that ethical behavior involves not only adhering to conventional moral standards but also considering
what a mature person with a “good” moral character would deem appropriate.
a. Act utilitarianism b. Virtue ethics
c. Reciprocity d. Hedonism
e. Rule deontology

27. When a person defines right and wrong on the basis of legal contracts, he or she is using which of Kohlberg’s stages of development?
a. Punishment and obedience (1st stage)
b. Mutual interpersonal expectations, relationships, and conformity (3rd stage)
c. Social system and conscience maintenance (4th stage)
d. Prior rights, social contract, or utility (5th stage)
e. Universal ethical principles (6th stage)

28.

deals with the issue of what individuals feel they are due based on their rights and performance in the workplace, and therefore is more likely to be based on deontological moral philosophies than on teleological or utilitarian ones.
a. Rights
b. Virtue ethics c. Justice
d. Relativism e. Egoism

29. A central problem with relativism is
a. that it emphasizes people’s differences, not similarities.
b. that few people believe that these principles are important. c. that they are very complicated.
d. that they represent unattainable goals.
e. that many feel that virtue ethics only works in theory.

30. Which is not considered a white collar crime?
a. Corporate tax evasion b. Credit card fraud
c. Insider trading d. Identity theft
e. Mugging someone

31. An individual who emphasizes others rather than himself or herself in making decisions is in which of the following of
Kohlberg’s stages of development?
a. Universal ethical principles (6th stage)
b. Mutual interpersonal expectations, relationships, and conformity (3rd stage)
c. Social system and conscience maintenance (4th stage)
d. Punishment and obedience (1st stage)
e. Prior rights, social contract, or utility (5th stage)

32. Eric views animal research in the pharmaceutical industry as a way to improve drugs that will benefit mankind.
Which moral philosophy most closely represents his viewpoint?
a. Egoism
b. Relativism
c. Humanitarianism d. Utilitarianism
e. Individualism

33. In Kohlberg’s model, the stage of mutual interpersonal expectations, relationships, and conformity (Stage 3) differs from the stage of individual instrumental purpose and exchange (Stage 2) in terms of the individual’s motives in
a. considering fairness to others. b. maintaining the social order.
c. considering duty to society.
d. upholding the basic values of society. e. maintaining obedience to authority.

34. The elements of and truthfulness. a. egoism
b. utilitarianism c. deontology
d. moral philosophy
e. virtue

important to business transactions have been defined as trust, self-control, empathy, fairness,

35. justice considers the processes and activities that produce the outcome or results. a. Disruptive
b. Procedural
c. Interactional
d. Communications e. Evaluative

36. What is white collar crime and why has it become such a widespread problem?

37. Compare and contrast the two teleological philosophies: egoism and utilitarianism. Include a discussion of the bases that each type uses to evaluate the morality of activities.

38. Compare and contrast the two moral philosophies: teleology and deontology. Discuss the bases each philosophy type uses to evaluate the morality of a particular activity.

39. Discuss the distinctions between the rule and act categories of utilitarianism and deontology. Why do you think some people evaluate the morality of an action on the basis of the action itself, whereas others evaluate it in terms of its conformity to particular moral principles or rules of conduct?

40. Explain how the levels of Kohlberg’s model of cognitive moral development may influence a person’s perception of and response to an ethical issue.