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ECO 410 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer University New

ECO/410 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 10 Chapter 19 and 20

Working Capital Management

19.1 Trident Brazil’s Operating Cycle

Multiple Choice

1) Working capital management involves the management of:
A) current and long-term assets.
B) current assets and current liabilities.
C) current liabilities and long-term assets.
D) current liabilities and long-term debt and equity.

2) The cash conversion cycle:
A) is a subset of the operating cycle.
B) occurs in the latter stages of the operating cycle.
C) is a subset of the accounts receivable period.
D) all of the above.

3) The proper order of events for the operating cycle is:
A) input serving period, accounts receivable period, inventory period, quotation period.
B) quotation period, accounts receivable period, inventory period, input servicing period.
C) quotation period, input servicing period, inventory period, accounts receivable period.
D) accounts receivable period, input servicing period, quotation period, inventory period.

4) TrinityApps Corporation (US) has bid a price on a project for a Korean firm, but the Korean firm has not yet placed an order. This portion of the operating cycle is best described as the:
A) quotation period.
B) input sourcing period.
C) cash conversion cycle.
D) accounts payable cycle.

5) The period in the cash cycle where the customer places the order, and the firm determines what materials for manufacture are NOT in inventory is called the ________ period.
A) quotation
B) input sourcing
C) accounts payable
D) accounts receivable

6) The accounts payable period of the operating cycle:
A) is equal to the inventory period.
B) may run concurrently but shorter than the inventory period.
C) may run concurrently but longer than the inventory period.
D) Any one of the above may be true.

True/False

1) Typically, the inventory period and the accounts payable period at least partially overlap in the firms operating cycle.

2) Typically, the inventory period and the accounts receivable period at least partially overlap in the firms operating cycle.

3) The operating cycle begins with the quotation period and ends with the accounts payable period.

19.2 Trident’s Repositioning Decisions

Multiple Choice

1) Of the following, which would NOT be a significant decision-making factor in a multinational firm’s repositioning decision-making?
A) the subsidiary’s tax environment (high or low)
B) the stability of the local currency
C) the ability to move capital in and out of the subsidiary’s country
D) All of the above are significant factors.

True/False

1) In a country with a relatively high tax rate, it make sense the the MNE to reposition cash flows TO that country.

2) The MNE would prefer to leave capital with a firm in a country with high growth prospects over the alternative of leaving capital with a firm in a country with low growth prospects (other factors equal).

19.3 Constraints on Repositioning Funds

Multiple Choice

1) Each of the following is listed by your authors as a constraint on repositioning funds by an MNE EXCEPT:
A) political constraints.
B) tax constraints.
C) transaction costs.
D) All of the above are listed by your authors.

True/False

1) Local liquidity needs sometimes impact a firm’s worldwide optimal cash position.

2) The constraints on repositioning of funds that occur when exchanging one currency for another are considered to be primarily political constraints.

3) Political constraints can block the transfer of funds either overtly or covertly. OVERT blockage occurs when dividends or other forms of fund remittances are severely limited, heavily taxed, or excessively delayed by the need for bureaucratic approval.

19.4 Conduits for Moving Funds by Unbundling Them

Multiple Choice

1) ________ allows a multinational firm to recover funds from subsidiaries without piquing host country sensitivities over large dividend drains.
A) Unbundling funds
B) Bundling funds
C) Coordinating funds
D) none of the above

2) Unbundling of funds by an MNE may be a useful practice for which of the following reasons?
A) An increase in the funds flow (charges) in any of the before-tax categories reduces the taxable profits of the foreign subsidiary if the host-country tax authorities acknowledge the charge as a legitimate expense.
B) An item-by-item matching of remittance to input, such as royalties for intellectual property, and fees for patents and advice, is equitable to the host country and foreign investor alike.
C) Unbundling facilitates allocation of overhead from a parent”s international division, so-called shared services, to each operating subsidiary in accordance with a predetermined formula.
D) All of the reasons listed above

True/False

1) If all investment inputs are unbundled, part of what might have been classified as residual profits may turn out to be tax-deductible expenses related to a specific purchased benefit.

2) The before-tax/after-tax distinction is quite significant to a parent company attempting to repatriate funds in the most tax-efficient method if it is attempting to manage its own foreign tax credit/deficits between foreign units.

19.5 International Dividend Remittances

Multiple Choice

1) In anticipation of a foreign exchange loss, an MNE may speed up the transfer of funds out of the company via dividends. When undertaking such an activity the MNE must be concerned with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) interest rate differences between the two countries.
B) the negative impact on host country relations.
C) defection on the part of executives in the home headquarters.
D) MNEs must be concerned with all of the above.

True/False

1) Political risk may motivate parent firms to require foreign subsidiaries to remit all locally generated funds above that required to internally finance growth in sales and planned capital expansions.

19.6 Net Working Capital

Multiple Choice

1) One possible definition of net working capital (NWC) provided by your authors is:
A) NWC = A/R + inventory – A/P.
B) NWC = cash + A/P – inventory.
C) NWC = A/P + A/R – short-term loans.
D) NWC = A/R + inventory – long-term debt.

2) Which of the following actions will result in an increase in NWC?
A) an increase in A/P that exceeds an increase in A/R
B) a reduction in inventory
C) a reduction in A/P plus a smaller reduction in A/R
D) an increase in A/P and a smaller reduction in inventory

3) Which of the following statements is true?
A) A/R provide part of the funding for inventory.
B) A/P provide part of the funding for A/R and inventory.
C) Inventory pays for A/R and A/P.
D) None of the above is true.

TABLE 19.1
Use the information to answer following question(s).

TrinityApps Corporation Balance Sheet December 31, 20xx

4) Refer to Table 19.1. The NWC for TrinityApps is:
A) $80,000
B) $680,000
C) $35,000
D) $45,000

5) Refer to Table 19.1. If TrinityApps increases inventory by $10,000 and A/P also by $10,000, the net change in NWC is:
A) $20,000
B) $10,000
C) $0
D) none of the above

6) Refer to Table 19.1. NWC currently makes up what percentage of total firm value for TrinityApps?
A) 6.6%
B) 5.1%
C) 11.8%
D) 9.2%

Instruction 19.1:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).

Sunny Manufacturing Systems Inc. is supplied with plastic chips for their plastic injection molding manufacturing process. Their supplier, Sun Chemical, Inc. offers financing terms of a 2% discount if the accounts payable are paid in 10 days or less with the full balance due in 45 days. Short-term financing available to Sunny Manufacturing is available at an annual rate of 9.6%. Sunny Manufacturing has just purchased $400,000 of plastic chips from Sun Chemical.

7) Refer to Instruction 19.1. What is the amount of money Sunny Manufacturing will save on accounts payable if they accept the discount?
A) $400,000
B) $8,000
C) $33,333
D) $20,000

8) Refer to Instruction 19.1. What is the effective annual interest cost of supplier financing offered by Sun Chemical?
A) 7.3%
B) 9.5%
C) 10.4%
D) 22.9%

9) Refer to Instruction 19.1. Should Sunny Manufacturing take the discount offered by Sun Chemical?
A) Yes, Sunny Manufacturing will get to use their raw materials 35 days earlier than if they waited to pay at the end of the 45 days.
B) No, Sunny Manufacturing will not have to pay any interest if they just pay in 45 days.
C) Yes, Sunny Manufacturing’s short term borrowing rate of 9.6% is less than Sun’s offered cost of carry of 22.9%.
D) No, it costs Sunny Manufacturing 22.9% to accept the discount and they are better off paying the full amount in 45 days.

10) Days working capital is equal to:
A) days payables + days receivables – days inventory.
B) days inventory + days receivables – days payables.
C) days payables + days inventory + days receivables.
D) none of the above

11) Amundsen of Norway receives raw materials from their corporate parent in the U.S. with payment terms of net 60 days. Most of their sales are to firms in Norway where normal payment terms are net 30 days. This causes a problem for the subsidiary with working capital management because:
A) accounts receivable are so much longer than accounts payable.
B) accounts payable are so much longer than accounts receivable.
C) accounts receivable and accounts payable are equal.
D) This doesn’t really cause a problem; in fact it is to the benefit of the Norwegian subsidiary.

True/False

1) In principle, the firm tries to minimize its NWC balance.

2) Other things equal, managers prefer a lower “days working capital” to a higher one.

3) The authors present empirical evidence that shows the days sales basis for working capital to be 30 days GREATER in the U.S. compared to a similar industry in Europe.

Essay

1) What is a free-trade zone? Identify three techniques and provide examples of how firms and countries can benefit from having free trade zones.

19.7 International Cash Management

Multiple Choice

1) Other things equal, a firm would rather have ________ in a depreciating currency, and ________ in an appreciating currency.
A) accounts receivable; accounts payable
B) accounts receivable; accounts receivable
C) accounts payable; accounts receivable
D) none of the above

2) Which of the following is NOT a precautionary motive for holding cash?
A) Anticipated funds to be remitted from several Middle East countries are in question due to unrest in the region.
B) The firm has several short-term obligations in unhedged foreign currency-denominated contracts.
C) The firm must pay ordinary wages in two days.
D) All are precautionary motives.

3) Increases to cash flows can be anticipated if which of the following occurs?
A) A receivables contract is denominated in an appreciating foreign currency.
B) Sales are less than anticipated.
C) Days in accounts receivable increase by 15 days.
D) none of the above

4) A centralized depository benefits the firm primarily by:
A) reducing the cost of repatriating funds.
B) positioning profits where taxes are lowest.
C) reducing the total amount of capital employed within the total firm.
D) earning a higher rate of return than in domestic banking deposits.

5) The Clearing House Interbank Payment System (CHIPS) is:
A) the largest publicly operated payments system in the world.
B) owned and operated by the world’s seven largest central banks.
C) a computerized network that connects banks globally.
D) none of the above

6) An organizational structure employed by an MNE to reduce its use of bank lending for the support of operations is:
A) a centralized depository.
B) a reinvoicing center.
C) a cost center.
D) a syndicated bank.

7) ________ is the process that cancels via offset all, or part, of the debt owed by one entity to another related entity.
A) Syndicated banking
B) Centralized depositing
C) Multilateral netting
D) Debt cancellation

True/False

1) In an inflationary economy, demand for credit usually exceeds supply.

2) For disbursement purposes, it is to the benefit of the firm to minimize float.

3) Regarding wire transfers, CHIPS actually clears transactions whereas SWIFT does not.

4) A significant problem with centralized cash depositories is that they are isolated from the rest of the firm and tend to be at an information disadvantage.

5) A reason for holding all precautionary balances in a central pool is that the total pool, if centralized, can be reduced in size without any loss in the level of protection.

6) A disadvantage of a centralized cash management system is that managers will not be able to get the lowest average rate available for the firm. Instead, it misses out on the really low borrowing rates.

Essay

1) Central depositories are used for international cash management. What is a central depository? Identify and provide examples of at least three advantages to MNEs of having a central depository.

19.8 Financing Working Capital

Multiple Choice

1) A precautionary cash balance:
A) is used to replace spoiled or damaged inventory.
B) is held to facilitate cash disbursements when receipts slow down.
C) is used for normal day-to-day operations.
D) is held for the benefit of a sister affiliate.

2) An in-house bank:
A) is a separate bank chartered to operate within a business firm.
B) is in fact a set of functions performed by the firm’s existing treasury department.
C) assesses the credit standing of the bank’s customers.
D) provides banking services for employees.

3) A foreign banking office that is separately incorporated in the host country is:
A) a correspondent bank.
B) a representative office.
C) a bank subsidiary.
D) an Edge Act corporation.

True/False

1) An Edge Act corporation is a subsidiary of a U.S. bank located outside of the U.S. and incorporated to engage in international banking and financing operations.

2) Because they are direct payments, dividends are among the most efficient way for foreign subsidiaries to remit funds back to the parent.

3) Even though dividends are cash payments, firms typically must consider both cash flow and net income when making dividend distribution decisions.

Chapter 20 International Trade Finance

20.1 The Trade Relationship

Multiple Choice

1) The exporter-importer relationship to a corporation of a foreign importer that has not previously conducted business with the firm would be an:
A) unaffiliated known.
B) affiliated party.
C) unaffiliated unknown.
D) any of the above

2) Which of the following relationships between importing and exporting parties would require the least detailed contract to conduct business?
A) affiliated party
B) unaffiliated unknown party
C) known unaffiliated party
D) domestic supplier

3) Polaris Corporation has made an agreement to ship goods to a foreign firm with whom they have not entered into a contract for three years. However, the firms have communicated regularly since the last sale three years ago. This is an example of an:
A) unaffiliated known party transaction.
B) unaffiliated unknown party transaction.
C) affiliated party transaction.
D) none of the above

True/False

1) Today, international trade is dominated by transactions between unaffiliated parties (known or unknown).

2) Because most international transactions are between affiliated parties, international transaction contracts are less complex, but the management of the total value of the MNE is more complex.

3) An advantage of trading with an affiliated party for an MNE, compared to an unaffiliated party, could be reduced contracting costs and less to even no need to protect against nonpayment.

20.2 The Trade Dilemma

Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT a financial instrument that may be included in an international trade transaction?
A) Letter of Credit
B) Sight Draft
C) Order bill of lading
D) Federal funds transaction

True/False

1) The fundamental dilemma of foreign trade is being unwilling to trust a stranger in a foreign land.

20.3 Benefits of the System

Multiple Choice

1) The combination of a letter of credit, a sight draft, and an order bill of lading protect both parties in international transactions from which of the following?
A) the risk of noncompletion
B) the risk of foreign exchange risk (when combined with a various hedging techniques)
C) the risk that financing will not be available due to foreign exchange risk
D) All of these risks are reduced when using these trade implements.

True/False

1) If a foreign exchange transaction calls for payment in the importer’s currency, the exporter has the foreign exchange risk.

2) If a foreign exchange transaction calls for payment in the exporter’s currency, the importer has the foreign exchange risk.

3) In the case of international trade, the risk of nonpayment is essentially eliminated with the use of a letter of credit issued through a trustworthy bank.

20.4 Key Documents

Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding a letter of credit?
A) The importer and exporter agree on a transaction.
B) The importer applies to its local bank for the issuance of a letter of credit.
C) The exporter applies to its local bank for the issuance of a letter of credit.
D) The importer’s bank cuts a sales contract based on its assessment of the creditworthiness of the importer.

2) A/An ________ letter of credit is intended to serve as a means of arranging payment, but not as a guarantee of payment.
A) irrevocable
B) revocable
C) confirmed
D) unconfirmed

3) A/An ________ letter of credit is an obligation only of the issuing bank whereas other banks honor a/an ________ letter of credit.
A) irrevocable; unconfirmed
B) revocable; confirmed
C) confirmed; irrevocable
D) unconfirmed; confirmed

4) A letter of credit that is confirmed in the ________ country has the additional advantage of eliminating the problem of ________.
A) exporter’s; portfolio risk
B) importer’s; blocked foreign exchange
C) exporter’s; blocked foreign exchange
D) none of the above

5) The draft is the instrument normally used in international commerce to:
A) transfer product.
B) prove ownership.
C) transfer title.
D) initiate the sale.

6) The ________ is the instrument normally used to actually effect payment in international commerce.
A) banker’s acceptance
B) bill of exchange
C) bill of lading
D) letter of credit

7) The person or company initiating the draft or bill of exchange is known as the:
A) maker.
B) drawer.
C) originator.
D) any of the above

8) The person or company to whom the draft or bill of exchange is addressed is the:
A) drawee.
B) drawer.
C) maker.
D) originator.

9) Drafts that have been accepted by banks become:
A) clean drafts.
B) nonmarketable.
C) banker’s acceptances.
D) none of the above

10) Which of the following purposes is NOT served by the bill of lading?
A) It acts as a receipt.
B) It acts as a contract.
C) It acts as a document of title.
D) It acts as all of the above.

11) The ________ is issued to the exporter by a common carrier transporting the merchandise.
A) bill of lading
B) draft
C) banker’s acceptance
D) line of credit

12) A straight bill of lading is most likely to be used under which of the following circumstances?
A) when the merchandise has not been paid for in advance
B) when the transaction is being financed by a bank
C) when the shipment is to an affiliate
D) none of the above

13) To become a negotiable instrument, a draft must conform to the following requirements EXCEPT:
A) it must be in writing and signed by the maker or drawer.
B) it must be payable to order or to bearer.
C) it must be written in English.
D) it must be payable on demand or at a fixed or determinable future date.

True/False

1) A letter of credit is an agreement by the bank to pay against documents rather than the actual merchandise.

2) The primary advantage of a letter of credit is that it reduces risk.

3) The major advantage of a letter of credit to the exporter is that the exporter does not receive any funds until the documents have arrived at a local port or airfield.

4) To constitute a true letter of credit transaction, the issuing bank must receive a fee or other valid business consideration for issuing the L/C.

5) To constitute a true letter of credit transaction, the bank’s L/C must contain a specified expiration date or a definite maturity.

6) To constitute a true letter of credit transaction, the bank’s commitment must be open-ended and cannot have a stated maximum amount of money.

7) A revocable L/C is intended to serve as a means of arranging payment but not as a guarantee of payment.

8) A sight draft is payable on presentation to the drawee; a time draft allows a delay in payment.

9) A draft is sometimes called a revocable letter of credit.

10) A time draft is payable on presentation to the drawee; the drawee must pay at once or dishonor the draft. A sight draft, allows a delay in payment.

11) The bill of lading is issued to the exporter by a common carrier transporting the merchandise. It serves three purposes: a receipt, a contract, and a document of title.

Essay

1) Explain what a letter of credit (L/C) is, who the principle parties are, what the principle advantage is, and how the L/C facilitates international trade.

20.5 Example: Documentation in a Typical Trade Transaction

Multiple Choice

1) In a typical international trade transaction, the order of activity would be which of the following?
A) The foreign buyer places an order; The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The manufacturer’s bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer’s bank for acceptance; The buyer’s bank submits payment to the manufacturer’s bank.
B) The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The buyer’s bank submits payment to the manufacturer’s bank; The foreign buyer places an order; The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The manufacturer’s bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer’s bank for acceptance.
C) The foreign buyer places an order; The manufacturer’s bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer’s bank for acceptance; The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The buyer’s bank submits payment to the manufacturer’s bank.
D) The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The manufacturer’s bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer’s bank for acceptance; The foreign buyer places an order; The buyer’s bank submits payment to the manufacturer’s bank.

True/False

1) Because of the risks involved in international trade, most transactions follow conventional methods and rarely require flexibility or creativity on the part of management.

Comment: Few international transactions are typical and often require flexibility or creativity on the part of management.

20.6 Government Programs to Help Finance Exports

Multiple Choice

1) The Export-Import Bank is an independent agency of the U.S. government established in 1934 to:
A) ship money abroad.
B) import agricultural products during the recession.
C) facilitate and stimulate foreign trade of the United States.
D) none of the above

2) In the United States, the Foreign Credit Insurance Corporation:
A) is a subsidiary of the Export-Import Bank.
B) provides letters of credit for U.S. importers.
C) provides letters of credit for U.S. exporters.
D) provides policies that protect U.S. exporters against default by foreign importers.

Instruction 20.1:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).

Cypress Systems Inc., of Florida, agrees to sell specialized hydroponic growing equipment to Landcaster’s of Australia. Because the two companies have never done business with each other, Cypress requires a banker’s acceptance as payment for the $1,000,000 order. The banker’s acceptance carries a 1.4% commission per annum and payment is to be received in 6 months. If Cypress Inc. chooses to discount or sell the bankers acceptance to its bank, the discount rate is 1.00% per annum.

3) Refer to Instruction 20.1. What is the size of the discount (not including the commission fee) Cypress must take for receiving the proceeds of the sale today rather than waiting for six months?
A) $7,000
B) $5,000
C) $12,000
D) $14.000

4) Refer to Instruction 20.1. What is the size of the commission Cypress will pay the bank for the banker’s acceptance?
A) $7,000
B) $5,000
C) $12,000
D) $14,000

5) Refer to Instruction 20.1. What is the total Cypress can expect to receive if the firm takes payment today?
A) $993,000
B) $995,000
C) $988,000
D) $996,000

6) Refer to Instruction 20.1. ________ is an unsecured promissory note.
A) A banker’s acceptance
B) An overdraft
C) A securitized loan
D) Commercial paper

7) Rogue Spices Inc. has a Canadian receivables contract for $200,000 due in 270 days. The firm has been approached by a factoring firm that offers to purchase the receivables at a 12% per annum discount plus a 1% charge for a nonrecourse clause. What is the annualized percentage all-in-cost of this factoring alternative?
A) 14.82%
B) 13.00%
C) 12.00%
D) 9.09%

True/False

1) The Foreign Credit Insurance Association is a branch of the U.S. federal government.

2) The Export-Import Bank (also called Eximbank) is an independent agency of the U.S. government, established in 1934 to stimulate and facilitate the foreign trade of the United States.

3) Essentially, the Eximbank lends dollars to borrowers inside the United States for the purchase of U.S. goods and services.

4) Banker’s acceptances can be used to finance only international trade receivables but not domestic trade receivables.

Essay

1) What is a banker’s acceptance? How are they initiated? Why are they desirable for the exporter?

20.7 Forfaiting: Medium- and Long-Term Financing

Multiple Choice

1) ________ is a specialized technique to eliminate the risk of nonpayment by importers in instances where the importing firm and/or its government is perceived by the exporter to be too risky for open account credit.
A) Forfeiting
B) Marketable Bank Shares
C) Forfaiting
D) Banker’s Acceptances

True/False

1) In effect, the forfaiter functions both as a money market firm and a specialist in packaging financial deals involving country risk.

ECO 305 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer University New

ECO/305 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-305-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-368.htm

 

Quiz 10 Chapter 16 and 17

MACROECONOMIC POLICY IN AN OPEN ECONOMY

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A nation experiences internal balance if it achieves:
a. Full employment
b. Price stability
c. Full employment and price stability
d. Unemployment and price instability

2. A nation experiences external balance if it achieves:
a. No net changes in its international gold stocks
b. Productivity levels equal to those of its trading partners
c. An increase in its money supply equal to increases overseas
d. Equilibrium in its balance of payments

3. A nation experiences overall balance if it achieves:
a. Balance-of-payments equilibrium, full employment, and price stability
b. Balance-of-payments equilibrium, maximum productivity, and price stability
c. Full employment, price stability and no change in its money supply
d. Full employment, price stability, and maximum productivity

4. Most industrial countries generally considered ____ as the most important economic goal.
a. External balance
b. Internal balance
c. Maximum efficiency for business
d. Maximum efficiency for labor

5. Which policies are expenditure-changing policies?
a. Currency devaluation and revaluation
b. Import quotas and tariffs
c. Monetary and fiscal policy
d. Wage and price controls

6. Which policy is an expenditure-switching policy?
a. Increase in the money supply
b. Decrease in government expenditures
c. Increase in business and household taxes
d. Decrease in import tariffs

7. An expenditure-increasing policy would consist of an increase in:
a. Import tariffs
b. Import quotas
c. Governmental taxes
d. The money supply

8. An expenditure-reducing policy would consist of a decrease in:
a. The par value of a currency
b. Government expenditures
c. Import duties
d. Business or household taxes

9. Given fixed exchange rates, assume Mexico initiates expansionary monetary and fiscal policies to combat recession. These policies will also:
a. Increase both imports and exports
b. Increase exports and reduce imports
c. Reduce a balance-of-payments surplus
d. Reduce a balance-of-payments deficit

10. Given fixed exchange rates, assume Mexico initiates contractionary monetary and fiscal policies to combat inflation. These policies will also:
a. Reduce a balance-of-payments surplus
b. Reduce a balance-of-payments deficit
c. Increases both imports and exports
d. Decrease both imports and exports

11. The appropriate expenditure-switching policy to correct a current account surplus is:
a. Currency revaluation
b. Currency devaluation
c. Expansionary monetary policy
d. Contractionary fiscal policy

12. The appropriate expenditure-switching policy to correct a current account deficit is:
a. Contractionary monetary policy
b. Expansionary fiscal policy
c. Currency devaluation
d. Currency revaluation

13. Suppose the United States faces domestic recession and a current account deficit. Should the United States devalue the dollar, one would expect the:
a. Recession to become less severe–deficit to become less severe
b. Recession to become more severe–deficit to become less severe
c. Recession to become less severe–deficit to become more severe
d. Recession to become more severe–deficit to become more severe

14. Suppose the United States faces domestic inflation and a current account surplus. Should the United States revalue the dollar, one would expect the:
a. Inflation to become more severe–surplus to become less severe
b. Inflation to become less severe–surplus to become less severe
c. Inflation to become less severe–surplus to become more severe
d. Inflation to become more severe–surplus to become more severe

15. Suppose Brazil faces domestic recession and a current account surplus. Should Brazil revalue its currency, one would expect the:
a. Recession to become less severe–surplus to become less severe
b. Recession to become more severe–surplus to become more severe
c. Recession to become more severe–surplus to become less severe
d. Recession to become less severe–surplus to become more severe

16. Suppose that Brazil faces domestic inflation and a current account deficit. Should Brazil devalue its currency, one would expect the:
a. Inflation to become more severe–deficit to become less severe
b. Inflation to become more severe–deficit to become more severe
c. Inflation to become less severe–deficit to become less severe
d. Inflation to become less severe–deficit to become more severe

17. In a closed economy, which of the following will cause the economy’s aggregate demand curve to shift to the right?
a. decreases and wages and salaries paid to employees
b. increases in the prices of oil and natural gas
c. decreases in income taxes for households
d. decreases in the productivity of labor

18. Given an open economy with high capital mobility and floating exchange rates, suppose an expansionary monetary policy is implemented to combat recession. The initial and secondary effects of the policy
a. cause aggregate demand to increase, thus strengthening the policy’s expansionary effect on real output
b. cause aggregate demand to decrease, thus eliminating the policy’s expansionary effect on real output
c. have conflicting effects on aggregate demand, thus weakening the policy’s expansionary effect on real output
d. have conflicting effects on aggregate demand, thus strengthening the policy’s expansionary effect on real output

19. A problem that economic policy makers confront when attempting to promote both internal and external balance for the nation is that monetary or fiscal policies aimed at the domestic sector also have impacts on:
a. Trade flows only
b. Capital flows only
c. both trade flows and capital flows
d. Neither trade flows nor capital flows

20. Given an open economy with high capital mobility and floating exchange rates, suppose an expansionary fiscal policy is implemented to combat recession. The initial and secondary effects of the policy
a. cause aggregate demand to increase, thus strengthening the policy’s expansionary effect on real output
b. cause aggregate demand to decrease, thus eliminating the policy’s expansionary effect on real output
c. have conflicting effects on aggregate demand, thus weakening the policy’s expansionary effect on real output
d. have conflicting effects on aggregate demand, thus strengthening the policy’s expansionary effect on real output

21. A system of fixed exchange rates and high capital mobility strengthens which policy in combating a recession:
a. Expansionary fiscal policy
b. Expansionary monetary policy
c. Contractionary fiscal policy
d. Contractionary monetary policy

22. A system of floating exchange rates and high capital mobility strengthens which policy in combating a recession:
a. Expansionary fiscal policy
b. Expansionary monetary policy
c. Contractionary fiscal policy
d. Contractionary monetary policy

23. Given an open economy with high capital mobility, all of the following statements are true except:
a. fiscal policy is strengthened under fixed exchange rates
b. monetary policy is weakened under fixed exchange rates
c. monetary policy is strengthened under floating exchange rates
d. fiscal policy is strengthened under floating exchange rates

24. Under a system of managed-floating exchange rates with heavy exchange rate intervention:
a. Fiscal policy is successful in promoting internal balance, while monetary policy is unsuccessful
b. Monetary policy is successful in promoting internal balance, while fiscal policy is unsuccessful
c. Both fiscal policy and monetary policy are successful in promoting internal balance
d. Neither fiscal policy nor monetary policy are successful in promoting internal balance

25. Given a system of floating exchange rates, an expansionary monetary policy by the Federal Reserve will cause
a. the dollar to appreciate and will decrease U.S. net exports
b. the dollar to appreciate and will increase U.S. net exports
c. the dollar to depreciate and will increase U.S. net exports
d. the dollar to depreciate and will decrease U.S. net exports

26. Given a system of floating exchange rates, a contractionary monetary policy by the Federal Reserve will cause
a. the dollar to appreciate and will decrease U.S. net exports
b. the dollar to appreciate and will increase U.S. net exports
c. the dollar to depreciate and will increase U.S. net exports
d. the dollar to depreciate and will decrease U.S. net exports

27. All of the following are obstacles to international economic policy coordination except:
a. Different national objectives and institutions
b. Different national political climates
c. Different phases in the business cycle
d. Different national currencies

28. Suppose a central bank prevents a depreciation of its currency by intervening in the foreign exchange market and buying its currency with foreign currency. This causes the
a. domestic money supply to decrease and a decline in aggregate demand
b. domestic money supply to increase and a decline in aggregate demand
c. domestic money supply to decrease and a rise in aggregate demand
d. domestic money supply to increase and a rise in aggregate demand

29. At the ____, the Group-of-Five nations agreed to intervene in the currency markets to promote a depreciation in the U.S. dollar’s exchange value.
a. Plaza Agreement of 1985
b. Louvre Accord of 1987
c. Bonn Summit of 1978
d. Tokyo Summit of 1962

30. The Plaza Agreement of 1985 and Louvre Accord of 1987 are examples of:
a. Tariff trade barrier formation
b. Nontariff trade barrier formation
c. International economic policy coordination
d. Beggar-thy-neighbor policies

Exhibit 16.1

At the Plaza Accord of 1985, the Group-of-Five nations agreed to drive the value of the dollar downward (i.e., depreciation) so as to help reduce the U.S. trade deficit. Answer the following question(s) on the basis of this information.

31. Refer to Exhibit 16.1. To help drive the dollar’s exchange value downward, the Federal Reserve would:
a. Reduce taxes
b. Increase taxes
c. Decrease the money supply
d. Increase the money supply

32. Refer to Exhibit 16.1. The Federal Reserve might refuse to support the accord on the grounds that when helping to drive the dollar’s exchange value downward, it promotes an increase in the U.S.:
a. Rate of inflation
b. Budget deficit
c. Unemployment level
d. Economic growth rate

33. Under a fixed exchange-rate system and high capital mobility, an expansion in the domestic money supply leads to:
a. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account surplus
b. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account deficit
c. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account surplus
d. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account deficit

34. Under a fixed exchange-rate system and high capital mobility, a contraction in the domestic money supply leads to a:
a. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account surplus
b. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account deficit
c. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account surplus
d. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account deficit

35. Under a fixed exchange-rate system and high capital mobility, an expansionary fiscal policy leads to a:
a. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account surplus
b. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account deficit
c. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account surplus
d. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account deficit

36. Under a fixed exchange-rate system and high capital mobility, a contractionary fiscal policy leads to a:
a. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account surplus
b. Trade-account deficit and a capital-account deficit
c. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account surplus
d. Trade-account surplus and a capital-account deficit

37. Suppose a central bank prevents a depreciation of its currency by intervening in the foreign exchange market and buying its currency with foreign currency. This causes the
a. domestic money supply to decrease and a decline in aggregate demand
b. domestic money supply to increase and a decline in aggregate demand
c. domestic money supply to decrease and a rise in aggregate demand
d. domestic money supply to increase and a fall in aggregate demand

38. Suppose a central bank prevents an appreciation of its currency by intervening in the foreign exchange market and selling its currency for foreign currency. This causes the
a. domestic money supply to decrease and a decline in aggregate demand
b. domestic money supply to increase and a decline in aggregate demand
c. domestic money supply to decrease and a rise in aggregate demand
d. domestic money supply to increase and a fall in aggregate demand

39. Assume a system of floating exchange rates. In response to relatively high interest rates abroad, suppose domestic investors place their funds in foreign capital markets. The result would be
a. a depreciation of the domestic currency and a rise in net exports
b. a depreciation of the domestic currency and a fall in net exports
c. an appreciation of the domestic currency and a rise in net exports
d. an appreciation of the domestic currency and a fall in net exports

40. Assume a system of floating exchange rates. In response to relatively high domestic interest rates, suppose that foreign investors place their funds in domestic capital markets. The result would be
a. a depreciation of the domestic currency and a rise in net exports
b. a depreciation of the domestic currency and a fall in net exports
c. an appreciation of the domestic currency and a rise in net exports
d. an appreciation of the domestic currency and a fall in net exports

41. When a nation realizes external balance
a. it can have a current account deficit
b. it can have a current account surplus
c. it has neither a current account deficit nor a current account surplus
d. Both a and b

42. Direct controls may take the form of
a. Tariffs
b. Export subsidies
c. Export quotas
d. All of the above

43. With a fixed exchange rate system, internal balance is most effectively achieved by using
a. Expansionary monetary policy to combat recession
b. Expansionary fiscal policy to combat inflation
c. Contractionary monetary policy to combat recession
d. Contractionary fiscal policy to combat recession

44. Policy coordination is complicated by
a. Different economic objectives
b. Different national institutions
c. Different phases in the business cycle
d. All of the above

TRUE/FALSE

1. A nation realizes internal balance if economy achieves full employment and price stability.

2. Nations have typically placed greater importance to the goal of internal balance than to the goal of external balance.

3. A nation realizes external balance when its current account is in equilibrium.

4. A nation realizes overall balance when it achieves full employment and current account equilibrium.

5. Expenditure-changing policies modify the direction of aggregate demand, shifting it between domestic output and imports.

6. Expenditure-switching policies include fiscal policy and monetary policy.

7. Economic policymakers have typically adopted expenditure-increasing policies to combat inflation and expenditure-reducing policies to combat recession.

8. Expenditure-switching policies alter the level of total spending (aggregate demand) for goods and services produced domestically and those imported.

9. Currency devaluation and revaluation are considered to be expenditure-changing policies since they alter a country’s aggregate demand for goods and services.

10. Expenditure-switching policies include currency revaluation, currency devaluation, and direct controls such as tariffs, quotas, and subsidies.

11. Given an open economy with high capital mobility and floating exchange rates, suppose an expansionary monetary policy is implemented to combat recession. The initial and secondary effects of the policy have conflicting effects on aggregate demand, thus weakening the policy’s expansionary effect.

12. Given an open economy with high capital mobility and fixed exchange rates, suppose an expansionary fiscal policy is implemented to combat recession. The initial and secondary effects of the policy cause aggregate demand to increase, thus strengthening the policy’s expansionary effect.

13. When the economy is in deep recession or depression, it is operating on that portion of its aggregate supply curve that is horizontal.

14. Changes in a country’s net exports, investment spending, or government spending will cause its aggregate demand curve to shift.

15. Given an open economy with high capital mobility, fiscal policy is strengthened under fixed exchange rates.

16. Given an open economy with high capital mobility, monetary policy is strengthened under fixed exchange rates.

17. Under floating exchange rates and high capital mobility, an expansionary monetary policy would help a country resolve a recession and a current account deficit.

18. Exchange rate management policies require international policy coordination because a depreciation of one nation’s currency implies an appreciation of its trading partner’s currency.

19. Currency devaluation and revaluation primarily affect the economy’s current account and have secondary effects on domestic employment and inflation.

20. Fiscal and monetary policies are generally used to combat domestic recession and inflation and have secondary effects on the balance of payments.

21. The Group of five (G-5) nations include Japan, Germany, China, and Australia.

22. The Bonn Summit of 1978 and Plaza Accord of 1985 are examples of international policy coordination.

23. International policy coordination is plagued by differing national economic objectives, institutions, political climates, and phases in the business cycle.

24. The goals of the Plaza Agreement of 1985 were to combat protectionism in the U.S. Congress, promote world economic expansion by stimulating demand in Germany and Japan, and to ease the burden of the U.S. debt service.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What policy instrument should be used when demand-pull inflation exists?

2. What happens to the balance of payments under a fixed exchange rate system, when expansionary or contractionary monetary policy is used?

ESSAY

1. Was the Plaza Agreement of 1985 a success?

2. What is international economic policy coordination?

CHAPTER 17—INTERNATIONAL BANKING: RESERVES, DEBT, AND RISK

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following assets makes use of the basket valuation technique?
a. Swap agreements
b. Oil facility
c. Buffer stock facility
d. Special drawing rights

2. Swap agreements are generally conducted by the:
a. Federal Reserve with foreign central banks
b. Federal Reserve with foreign commercial banks
c. U.S. Treasury with foreign central banks
d. U.S. Treasury with foreign commercial banks

3. Which of the following is a main central bank function of the International Monetary Fund?
a. The conduct of open market operations
b. The issuance of gold certificates
c. The provision of monetary policy for member nations
d. The granting of loans to member nations

4. The Federal Reserve’s swap network represents:
a. Efforts to stabilize only the value of the dollar
b. Efforts to stabilize only the value of foreign currencies
c. Long-term borrowing among countries
d. Short-term borrowing among countries

5. International trade and investment are most frequently financed by the U.S. dollar and the:
a. Japanese yen
b. British pound
c. Australian dollar
d. Swiss franc

6. The purpose of international reserves is to finance:
a. Short-term surpluses in the balance of payments
b. Long-term surpluses in the balance of payments
c. Short-term deficits in the balance of payments
d. Long-term deficits in the balance of payments

7. The currencies generally referred to as “reserve currencies” are the:
a. Japanese yen and U.S. dollar
b. Swiss franc and Japanese yen
c. British pound and U.S. dollar
d. Swiss franc and British pound

8. Which of the following does not represent a form of international liquidity?
a. IMF reserve positions
b. General arrangements to borrow
c. U.S. government securities
d. Reciprocal currency arrangements

9. Which of the following is not considered an “owned” reserve?
a. National currencies
b. Gold
c. Special drawing rights
d. Oil facility

10. Which of the following is not considered a “borrowed” reserve?
a. Special drawing rights
b. Oil facility
c. IMF drawings
d. Reciprocal currency arrangement

11. Eurodollars are:
a. Dollar-denominated deposits in overseas banks
b. European currencies used to finance transactions in the United States
c. Dollars that U.S. residents spend in Europe
d. European currencies used to finance imports from the United States

12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Eurodollar market? It:
a. Is mainly located in the United Kingdom and continental Europe
b. Operates as a financial intermediary, bringing together lenders and borrowers
c. Deals in interest-bearing time deposits and loans to governments
d. Grew in response to the deregulation of interest rate ceilings on U.S. savings accounts

13. Which of the following assets was (were) created in 1970 to provide additional international liquidity, in the belief that increasing world trade requires more liquidity for larger expected payments imbalances?
a. Eurodollar market
b. Special drawing rights
c. Reciprocal currency arrangements
d. General arrangements to borrow

14. Which of the following constitute(s) the largest component of the world’s international reserves?
a. Gold
b. Special drawing rights
c. IMF drawings
d. Foreign currencies

15. With an international gold standard, if a country ended up with a deficit from the balances on its current and capital accounts, it would:
a. Import gold to settle the balance
b. Export gold to settle the balance
c. Officially decrease the price of gold
d. Officially increase the price of gold

16. Which of the following is not a condition of the international gold standard? That a nation must:
a. Convert gold into paper currency, and vice versa, at a stipulated rate
b. Permit gold to be freely imported and exported
c. Tolerate wide fluctuations in its exchange rate
d. Define its monetary unit in terms of a stipulated amount of gold

17. All of the following exchange-rate systems require international reserves to finance balance-of-payments disequilibriums except:
a. Pegged or fixed exchange rates
b. Managed floating exchange rates
c. Adjustable pegged exchange rates
d. Freely floating exchange rates

18. A dollar shortage would indicate that the dollar is:
a. Undervalued in international markets
b. Overvalued in international markets
c. Overvalued in terms of gold
d. Overvalued in terms of special drawing rights

19. The U.S. gold outflow that began in the late 1940s and continued through the 1960s was due in part to:
a. Crawling pegged exchange rates
b. Freely floating exchange rates
c. An undervalued dollar
d. An overvalued dollar

20. The U.S. dollar glut of the 1960s was due in part to:
a. An undervalued dollar
b. An overvalued dollar
c. Freely floating exchange rates
d. Crawling pegged exchange rates

21. For developing countries such as Mexico and Brazil, severe economic problems in the 1980s were caused by:
a. A fall in the world demand for products produced by developing countries
b. High prices of basic raw materials and other commodities
c. Low real interest rates in the United States
d. High levels of income and imports for the United States

22. In response to the international debt problem, the United States set up a special fund in 1986 to help make up for lost oil revenues. Under the plan, the United States would make more money available as world oil prices fell. This plan was designed to help:
a. Argentina
b. Saudi Arabia
c. Mexico
d. Brazil

23. Which indicator of international debt burden schedules interest and principal payments on long-term debt as a percent of export earnings?
a. Debt service ratio
b. Debt-to-export ratio
c. Ratio of external debt to gross domestic product
d. Ratio of external debt to gross national product

24. Which term best describes the process in which the International Monetary Fund provides loans to countries facing balance-of-payments difficulties provided that they initiate programs holding promise of correcting these difficulties?
a. Conditionality
b. Debt service
c. Reciprocal currency arrangement
d. Swap agreement

25. All of the following are major goals of the International Monetary Fund except:
a. Promoting international cooperation among member countries
b. Fostering a multilateral system of international payments
c. Making long-term development and reconstruction loans
d. Promoting exchange-rate stability and the elimination of exchange restrictions

26. Which international reserve asset was officially phased out of the international monetary system by the United States in the early 1970s?
a. Special drawing rights
b. Swap agreements
c. General arrangements to borrow
d. Gold

27. Bilateral agreements between central banks, which provide for an exchange of currencies to help finance temporary balance-of-payments disequilibriums, are referred to as:
a. IMF drawings
b. Special drawing rights
c. Buffer stock facility
d. Swap agreements

28. Which organization is largely intended to make long-term reconstruction loans to developing nations?
a. Export-Import Bank
b. World Bank
c. International Monetary Fund
d. United Nations

29. “Owned” international reserves consist of:
a. Special drawing rights
b. Oil facility
c. IMF drawings
d. Reciprocal currency arrangements

30. “Borrowed” international reserves consist of:
a. IMF drawings
b. Foreign currencies
c. Gold
d. Special drawing rights

31. Concerning international lending risk of commercial banks, ____ refers to the probability that part/all of the interest/principal of a loan will not be repaid.
a. Country risk
b. Credit risk
c. Currency risk
d. Presidential risk

32. Concerning international lending risk of commercial banks, ____ is closely related to political developments in a borrowing country, especially the government’s views concerning international investments and loans.
a. Economic risk
b. Credit risk
c. Country risk
d. Currency risk

33. Concerning international lending risk of commercial banks, ____ is associated with possible changes in the exchange value of a nation’s currency.
a. Political risk
b. Country risk
c. Credit risk
d. Currency risk

34. To reduce their exposure to developing country debt, lending commercial banks have practiced all of the following except:
a. Making outright loan sales to other commercial banks
b. Reducing their capital base as a cushion against losses
c. Dealing in debt-for-debt swaps with foreign governments
d. Dealing in debt/equity swaps with foreign governments

35. To reduce losses on developing country loans, commercial banks sometimes sell their loans, at a discount, to a developing country government for local currency which is then used to finance purchases of ownership shares in developing country industries. This practice is known as:
a. Debt forgiveness
b. Debt buyback
c. Debt-for-debt swap
d. Debt/equity swap

36. Concerning international debt, ____ refers to a negotiated reduction in the contractual obligations of the debtor country and includes schemes such as markdowns and write-offs of debt.
a. Debt/equity swap
b. Debt-for-debt swap
c. Debt forgiveness
d. Debt sales

37. The exchange of borrowing country debt for an ownership position in the borrowing country is known as:
a. Debt forgiveness
b. Debt-for-debt swap
c. Debt reduction
d. Debt/equity swap

38. “Country risk” analysis is concerned with all of the following except:
a. Depreciation of the borrowing country’s currency
b. Political instability in the borrowing country
c. Economic growth in the borrowing country
d. External debt of the borrowing country

39. Debt reduction
a. Refers to any voluntary scheme that lessens the burden on the debtor nation
b. May be accomplished through debt rescheduling
c. May be achieved through debt/equity swaps
d. All of the above

40. Most analysts feel that the financial difficulties in East Asia were triggered by
a. Misallocation of investment
b. Unavailability of cheap foreign labor
c. Lack of alignment of the exchange rate with the dollar
d. Surpluses in the trade accounts of the Asian countries

41. A nation may experience debt-servicing problems because of
a. Pursuit of improper macroeconomic policies
b. Inadequate borrowing
c. Adverse economic events
d. Both a and c

42. Swap arrangements
a. Are agreements between governments
b. Require repayment within a stipulated period
c. Are usually multilateral agreements
d. Are never initiated by telephone

TRUE/FALSE

1. Under a system of fixed exchange rates, international reserves are needed to bridge the gap between monetary receipts and monetary payments.

2. International reserves allow a country to finance disequilibria in its balance-of-payments position.

3. An advantage of international reserves is that they allow countries to sustain temporary balance-of-payments deficits until acceptable adjustment measures can operate to correct the disequilibrium.

4. With floating exchange rates, countries require sizable amounts of international reserves for the stabilization of exchange rates.

5. When exchange rates are fixed by central bankers, the need for international reserves disappears.

6. When exchange rates are fixed by central bankers, international reserves are necessary for financing payments imbalances and the stabilization of exchange rates.

7. There exists a direct relationship between the degree of exchange rate flexibility and the need for international reserves.

8. With floating exchange rates, payments imbalances tend to be corrected by market-induced fluctuations in the exchange rate, and the need for exchange-rate stabilization and international reserves disappears.

The diagram below represents the exchange market position of the United States in trade with the United Kingdom. Starting at the equilibrium exchange rate of $3 per pound, suppose the demand for pounds rises from D0 to D1.

Figure 17.1 Foreign Exchange Market

9. Refer to Figure 17.1. Under a fixed exchange rate system, U.S. monetary authorities would have to supply 8 million pounds in exchange for dollars to keep the exchange rate at $3 per pound.

10. Refer to Figure 17.1. If the exchange rate was allowed to rise to $4 per pound, U.S. monetary authorities would have to supply 6 million pounds to the foreign exchange market in exchange for dollars to maintain this rate.

11. Refer to Figure 17.1. Under a floating exchange rate system, the exchange rate would rise to $4 and U.S. monetary authorities would have to supply 4 million pounds to the foreign exchange market in exchange for dollars to maintain this rate.

12. To the extent that adjustments in prices, interest rates, and income levels promote balance-of-payments equilibrium, the demand for international reserves decreases.

13. The greater a nation’s propensity to apply tariffs and quotas to key sectors, the greater will be the need for international reserves.

14. The demand for international reserves is negatively related to the level of world prices and income.

15. The demand for international reserves tend to increase with the level of world income and trade activity.

16. If a nation with a balance-of-payments deficit is willing and able to initiate quick actions to increase export receipts and decrease import payments, the amount of international reserves needed will be relatively large.

17. The supply of international reserves consists of owned reserves and borrowed reserves.

18. Foreign currencies constitute the smallest component of the world’s international reserves.

19. Gold constitutes the largest component of the world’s international reserves.

20. The U.S. dollar has been considered a reserve (key) currency because trading nations have been willing to hold it as an international reserve asset.

21. The U.S. dollar, Japanese yen, British pound, and Mexican peso are the major reserve currencies of the international monetary system.

22. By the 1990s, the British pound had replaced the U.S. dollar as the world’s key currency.

23. A goal of the International Monetary Fund is to make short-term loans to member nations so as to allow them to correct balance of payments disequilibriums without resorting to measures that would destroy national prosperity.

24. When granting loans to financially troubled nations, the International Monetary Fund requires some degree of conditionality, meaning that the borrowing nation must agree to implement economic policies as mandated by the IMF.

25. The International Monetary Fund has sometimes demanded that financially-troubled nations, that borrow from the IMF, undergo austerity programs including slashing of public spending and private consumption.

26. The main purpose of the International Monetary Fund is to grant long-term loans to developing nations to help them finance the development of infrastructure such as roads, dams, and bridges.

27. Gold is currently the most widely used asset in the international monetary system.

28. In 1974 the United States revoked a 41-year ban on U.S. citizen’s ownership of gold.

29. In 1975 the official price of gold was abolished as the unit of account for the international monetary system. As a result, gold was demonetized as an international reserve asset.

30. In the 1970s, the major industrial countries abandoned the managed-floating exchange rate system and adopted a system of fixed exchange rates tied to the price of gold.

31. Created by the International Monetary Fund, special drawing rights (SDRs) are unconditional rights to draw currencies of other nations, thus enabling countries to finance their current-account deficits.

32. The value of the SDR is tied to a currency basket consisting of the U.S. dollar, German mark, Japanese yen, French franc, and British pound.

33. The SDR has replaced the dollar, yen, and mark as the key asset of the international financial system.

34. Because the value of the SDR is tied directly to the value of the U.S. dollar, a 10 percent dollar depreciation would result in a 10 percent decrease in the SDR’s value.

35. A main purpose of the International Monetary Fund is to make loans of foreign currencies to member countries which are experiencing current-account surpluses.

36. When a deficit nation borrows from the International Monetary Fund, it purchases with its currency the foreign currency required to help finance the payments deficit.

37. The so-called General Arrangements to Borrow provide a permanent increase in the supply of international reserves.

38. Swap arrangements are bilateral agreements between central banks to allow countries to temporarily borrow funds to ease current-account deficits and discourage speculative capital flows.

39. IMF drawings, swap arrangements, buffer stock facility, and compensatory financing for exports are classified as owned reserves rather than borrowed reserves.

40. Concerning international lending risk, credit risk refers to the probability that part or all of the interest rate or principal of a loan will not be repaid.

41. Concerning international lending risk, country risk refers to the risk that part or all of the interest or principal of a loan will not be repaid.

42. Concerning international lending risk, currency risk is the risk of asset losses due to changing currency values.

43. A country with a high debt/export ratio and a high debt service/export ratio would likely be considered as an attractive place in which to invest by foreign residents.

44. A debt buyback is a debt-reduction technique in which a government of a debtor nation buys loans from commercial banks at a discount.

45. Under a debt-for-debt swap, a commercial bank sells its loans at a discount to a developing country government for local currency which it then uses to finance an equity investment in the debtor country.

46. A debt-equity swap results in a trade surplus nation forgiving the loans made to a trade-deficit nation.

47. Eurocurrencies are deposits, denominated and payable in dollars and other foreign currencies, in banks outside the United States, primarily in London, the market’s center.

SHORT ANSWER

1. Why do countries hold international reserves?

2. How can a bank reduce its exposure to the debt of developing nations?

ESSAY

1. Describe the eurocurrency market.

2. Are international reserve needs different for different exchange rate regimes?

ECO 410 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer University New

ECO/410 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 8 Chapter 15 and 16

Multinational Tax Management

15.1 Tax Principles

Multiple Choice

1) The issue of ethics in the reporting of income and the payment of taxes is a considerable one. The authors state that most MNEs operating in foreign countries tend to follow the general principle of:
A) “when in Rome, do as the Romans do.”
B) full disclosure to the tax authorities.
C) maintain a competitive playing field by cheating as much as the local competition, no more, no less.
D) none of the above

2) Which of the following is an unlikely objective of U.S. government policy for the taxation of foreign MNEs?
A) to raise revenues
B) to provide an incentive for U.S. private investment in developing countries
C) to improve the U.S. balance of payments
D) All of the above are objectives.

3) A ________ tax policy is one that has no impact on private decision-making, while a ________ policy is designed to encourage specific behavior.
A) flat; tax incentive
B) neutral; flat
C) neutral; tax incentive
D) none of the above

4) Which of the following is NOT an example of a tax incentive policy?
A) The federal government gives a tax credit to MNEs that make domestic capital improvements but not foreign capital improvements.
B) Corporations are allowed to take a direct tax credit for each dollar of matching donations they make to institutions of higher education.
C) A tax law is passed that makes interest on property non tax-deductible, but interest payments on durable goods are.
D) All are examples of a tax incentive policy.

5) Toyota Motor Company operates in many different countries and pays taxes at many different rates. However, they always pay the same rate as their local competitors. Toyota Motor Company is operating in an environment of ________ tax policy.
A) domestic neutrality
B) foreign neutrality
C) territorial approach
D) none of the above

6) The United States taxes the domestic and remitted foreign earnings of U.S. based MNEs no matter where the earnings occurred. This is an example of a/an ________ approach to levying taxes.
A) worldwide
B) territorial
C) neutral
D) equitable

7) The United States taxes all earnings on U.S. soil by both domestic and foreign firms. This is an example of a ________ approach to levying taxes.
A) worldwide
B) neutral
C) territorial
D) none of the above

8) Bacon Signs Inc. is based in a country with a territorial approach to taxation but generates 100% of its income in a country with a worldwide approach to taxation. The tax rate in the country of incorporation is 25%, and the tax rate in the country where they earn their income is 50%. In theory, and barring any special provisions in the tax codes of either country, Bacon should pay taxes at a rate of:
A) 75%.
B) 62.5%.
C) 0%.
D) 50%.

9) The territorial approach to taxation policy is also termed the ________ approach.
A) source
B) ethical
C) greedy
D) location

10) A tax that is effectively a sales tax at each stage of production is defined as a/an ________ tax.
A) flat
B) equitable
C) value-added tax
D) none of the above

11) What is the total value of taxes paid in the following example if the value added tax is 10%? A farmer raises wheat that he sells for $1.50 to the grain company. The grain company sells to the processor for $2.00 per bushel. The processor turns the wheat into a breakfast cereal and wholesales it for $3.00 per bushel. The retailer sells the cereal for $4.00 per bushel.
A) $0.15
B) $0.20
C) $0.30
D) $0.40

TABLE 15.1
Use the information to answer following question(s).

BayArea Designs Inc., located in Northern California, has two international subsidiaries, one located in the Ukraine, the other in Korea. Consider the information below to answer the next several questions.

12) Refer to Table 15.1. If BayArea pays out 50% of its earnings from each subsidiary, what are the additional U.S. taxes due on the foreign sourced income from the Ukraine and Korea respectively.
A) Ukraine = $0; Korea = ($30,000)
B) Ukraine = $100,000; Korea = $0
C) Ukraine = $0; Korea = $66,250
D) none of the above

13) Refer to Table 15.1. The additional U.S. taxes due on the repatriation of income from the Ukraine to the United States, alone, assuming a 50% payout rate, is:
A) excess foreign tax credits of $110,000.
B) additional U.S. taxes due of $97,000.
C) additional U.S. taxes due of $36,500.
D) excess foreign tax credits of $18,500.

14) Refer to Table 15.1. How much in additional U.S. taxes would be due if BayArea averaged the tax credits and liabilities of the two foreign units, assuming a 50% payout rate from each?
A) $3,750
B) $13,750
C) $2,500
D) $0

15) Refer to Table 15.1. If BayArea set the payout rate from the Ukraine subsidiary at 25%, how should BayArea set the payout rate of the Korean subsidiary (approximately) to more efficiently manage its total foreign tax bill?
A) 28.5%
B) 24.5%
C) 42.6%
D) 82.3%

16) Refer to Table 15.1. What is the minimum effective tax rate that BayArea can achieve on its foreign-sourced income?
A) 26%
B) 35%
C) 40%
D) 0%

17) Tax-haven subsidiaries are typically established in a country that can meet the following requirements:
A) a low tax on foreign investment or sales income earned by resident corporations and a low dividend withholding tax on dividends paid to the parent firm.
B) the facilities to support financial services, for example, good communications, professional qualified office workers, and reputable banking services.
C) a stable government that encourages the establishment of foreign-owned financial and service facilities within its borders.
D) all of the above

18) A tax that is a form of social redistribution of income is defined as a/an ________ tax.
A) un-American
B) transfer
C) flat
D) none of the above

19) A ________ is a direct reduction of taxes whereas a ________ reduces the taxable income before taxes.
A) foreign tax credit; domestic tax credit
B) tax deduction; tax credit
C) tax credit; tax deduction
D) none of the above

Instruction 15.1:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).

Green Valley Exporters USA has $100,000 of before tax foreign income. The host country has a corporate income tax rate of 25% and the U.S. has a corporate income tax rate of 35%.

20) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. has no bilateral trade agreement with the host country, what is the total amount of income taxes Green Valley Exporters will pay?
A) $25,000
B) $35,000
C) $51,250
D) $60,000

21) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. has a bilateral trade agreement with the host country that calls for the total tax paid to be equal to the maximum amount that could be paid in the highest taxing country, what is the total amount of income taxes Green Valley Exporters will pay to the host country, and how much will they pay in U.S income taxes on the foreign earned income?
A) $25,000; $10,000
B) $25,000; $26,250
C) $35,000; $0
D) none of the above

22) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. treated the taxes paid on income earned in the host country as a tax-deductible expense, then Green Valley’s total U.S. corporate tax on the foreign earnings would be:
A) $10,000.
B) $26,250.
C) $35,000.
D) $51,250.

23) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. treated the taxes paid on income earned in the host country as a tax-credit, then Green Valley’s total U.S. corporate tax on the foreign earnings would be:
A) $51,250.
B) $35,000.
C) $26,250.
D) $10,000.

24) Tax treaties typically result in ________ between the two countries in question.
A) lower property taxes for U.S. citizens overseas
B) elimination of differential tax rates
C) increased double taxation
D) reduced withholding tax rates

25) Transfer pricing is a strategy that may be used by MNEs to:
A) reduce consolidated corporate income taxes.
B) partially finance a subsidiary in another country.
C) transfer funds from a subsidiary to the parent corporation.
D) all of the above

26) ________ is the pricing of goods, services, and technology between related companies.
A) Among pricing
B) Retail pricing
C) Transfer pricing
D) Wholesale pricing

True/False

1) The primary objective of multinational tax planning is to minimize the firm’s worldwide tax burden.

2) A country CANNOT have both a territorial and a worldwide approach as a national tax policy.

3) Tax treaties generally have the effect of increasing the withholding taxes between the countries that are negotiating the treaties.

4) A value-added tax has gained widespread usage in Western Europe, Canada, and parts of Latin America.

5) All indications are that the value-added tax will soon be the dominant form of taxation in the U.S.

6) Among the G7 nations, the U.S. has a below average corporate income tax rate that makes it attractive for other countries to invest in the U.S.

7) In the mid 1980s the U.S. led the way to higher corporate income tax rates worldwide. Today, most of the G7 nations have surpassed the U.S. and have higher corporate income tax rates than the U.S.

8) The ideal tax should not only raise revenue efficiently but also have as few negative effects on economic behavior as possible.

9) The worldwide approach, also referred to as the residential or national approach to tax policy, levies taxes on the income earned by firms that are incorporated in the host country, regardless of where the income was earned (domestically or abroad).

10) The territorial approach, also referred to as the source approach to tax policy, levies taxes on the income earned by firms that are incorporated in the host country, regardless of where the income was earned (domestically or abroad).

11) Of the OECD 30 countries, most employ a worldwide approach to tax policy, but a few, including the United States, use the worldwide approach.

12) FEW governments rely on income taxes, both personal and corporate, for their primary revenue source.

13) Between 2006 – 2012, global corporate tax rates have trended upward.

14) Tax credits are LESS valuable on a dollar-for-dollar basis than are deductible expenses.

15) Tax treaties typically result in reduced withholding tax rates between the two signatory countries.

16) Tax credits are less valuable on a dollar-for-dollar basis than are tax-deductible expenses.

17) The U.S. Internal Revenue Service can reallocate revenues and expenses between parent corporations and their subsidiaries to more clearly reflect a proper allocation of income. In such instances it is the responsibility of the corporation to prove that the IRS has been arbitrary in its decision-making, thus establishing a “guilty until proved innocent” tax approach.

18) Tax haven subsidiaries of MNEs are categorically referred to as international offshore financial centers.

Essay

1) Explain the worldwide and territorial approaches of national taxation. The authors state that the United States uses both approaches. How can this be? Give an example of each taxation approach.

2) What is a value-added tax? Where is this type of tax in wide usage? Why do you suppose this form of taxation has NOT been widely accepted in the United States?

Chapter 16 International Portfolio Theory and Diversification

16.1 International Diversification and Risk

Multiple Choice

1) Beta may be defined as:
A) the measure of systematic risk.
B) a risk measure of a portfolio.
C) the ratio of the variance of the portfolio to the variance of the market.
D) all of the above

2) ________ risk is measured with beta.
A) Systematic
B) Unsystematic
C) International
D) Domestic

3) A fully diversified domestic portfolio has a beta of:
A) 0.0
B) 1.0
C) -1.0
D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

4) Unsystematic risk:
A) is the remaining risk in a well-diversified portfolio.
B) is measured with beta.
C) can be diversified away.
D) all of the above

5) A well-diversified portfolio has about ________ of the risk of the typical individual stock.
A) 8%
B) 19%
C) 27%
D) 52%

6) An internationally diversified portfolio:
A) should result in a portfolio with a lower beta than a purely domestic portfolio.
B) has the same overall risk shape as a purely domestic portfolio.
C) is only about 12% as risky as the typical individual stock.
D) all of the above

7) In some respects, internationally diversified portfolios are the same in principle as a domestic portfolio because:
A) the investor is attempting to combine assets that are perfectly correlated.
B) investors are trying to reduce systematic risk.
C) investors are trying to reduce the total risk of the portfolio.
D) all of the above

8) In some respects, internationally diversified portfolios are different from a domestic portfolio because:
A) investors may also acquire foreign exchange risk.
B) international portfolio diversification increases expected return but does not decrease risk.
C) investors must leave the country to acquire foreign securities.
D) all of the above

Instruction 16.1:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).

In September 2009 a U.S. investor chooses to invest $500,000 in German equity securities at a then current spot rate of $1.30/euro. At the end of one year the spot rate is $1.35/euro.

9) Refer to Instruction 16.1. How many euros will the U.S. investor acquire with his initial $500,000 investment?
A) €650,000
B) €370,370
C) €500,000
D) €384,615

10) Refer to Instruction 16.1. At an average price of €60/share, how many shares of stock will the investor be able to purchase?
A) 8333 shares
B) 6410 shares
C) 6173 shares
D) 10,833 shares

11) Refer to Instruction 16.1. At the end of the year the investor sells his stock that now has an average price per share of €57. What is the investor’s average rate of return before converting the stock back into dollars?
A) 5.0%
B) -3.0%
C) -5.0%
D) 3.0%

12) Refer to Instruction 16.1. At the end of the year the investor sells his stock that now has an average price per share of €57. What is the investor’s average rate of return after converting the stock back into dollars?
A) -1.35%
B) 5.0%
C) -5.0%
D) -7.24%

13) A U.S. investor makes an investment in Britain and earns 14% on the investment while the British pound appreciates against the U.S. dollar by 8%. What is the investor’s total return?
A) 22.00%
B) 23.12%
C) 6.00%
D) 4.88%

14) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A) International diversification benefits induce investors to demand foreign securities.
B) An international security adds value to a portfolio if it reduces risk without reducing return.
C) Investors will demand a security that adds value.
D) All of the above are true.

True/False

1) Portfolio diversification can eliminate 100% of risk.

2) Increasing the number of securities in a portfolio reduces the unsystematic risk but not the systematic risk.

3) International diversification benefits may induce investors to demand foreign securities.

4) If the addition of a foreign security to the portfolio of the investor aids in the reduction of risk for a given level of return, then the security adds value to the portfolio.

5) If the addition of a foreign security to the portfolio of the investor decreases the expected return for a given level of risk, then the security adds value to the portfolio.

16.2 Internationalizing the Domestic Portfolio

Multiple Choice

1) Portfolio theory assumes that investors are risk-averse. This means that investors:
A) cannot be induced to make risky investments.
B) prefer more risk to less for a given return.
C) will accept some risk, but not unnecessary risk.
D) All of the above are true.

2) The efficient frontier of the domestic portfolio opportunity set:
A) runs along the extreme left edge of the opportunity set.
B) represents optimal portfolios of securities that represent minimum risk for a given level of expected portfolio return.
C) contains the portfolio of risky securities that the logical investor would choose to hold.
D) all of the above

3) The addition of foreign securities to the domestic portfolio opportunity set shifts the efficient frontier:
A) down and to the left.
B) up and to the right.
C) up and to the left.
D) down and to the right.

4) Relative to the efficient frontier of risky portfolios, it is impossible to hold a portfolio that is located ________ the efficient frontier.
A) to the left of
B) to the right of
C) on
D) to the right or left of

5) The ________ connects the risk-free security with the optimal domestic portfolio.
A) security market line
B) capital asset pricing model
C) capital market line
D) none of the above

Instruction 16.2:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).

A U.S. investor is considering a portfolio consisting of 60% invested in the U.S. equity index fund and 40% invested in the British equity index fund. The expected returns for the funds are 10% for the U.S. and 8% for the British, standard deviations of 20% for the U.S. and 18% for the British, and a correlation coefficient of 0.15 between the U.S. and British equity funds.

6) Refer to Instruction 16.2. What is the expected return of the proposed portfolio?
A) 9.2%
B) 9.0%
C) 19.2%
D) 19%

7) Refer to Instruction 16.2. What is the standard deviation of the proposed portfolio?
A) 38.00
B) 19.20
C) 19.00
D) 14.45

True/False

1) The graph for the efficient frontier has beta on the vertical axis and standard deviation of the horizontal axis.

2) The portfolio with the least risk among all those possible in the domestic portfolio opportunity set is called the minimum risk domestic portfolio.

3) The optimal domestic portfolio of risky securities is always the portfolio of minimum risk.

4) The standard deviation of a portfolio is the sum of the weighted average standard deviations of the individual assets.

5) The optimal domestic portfolio combines the risk-free asset and a portfolio of domestic securities found on the efficient frontier.

6) The internationally diversified portfolio opportunity set shifts TO THE RIGHT of the purely domestic opportunity set.

Essay

1) Draw the curve representing the Optimal Domestic Efficient Frontier. Be sure to draw and label the following: The vertical axis and the horizontal axis, the risk-free security, the minimum risk portfolio, the domestic portfolio opportunity set, the optimal domestic portfolio, and the capital market line. Choose a point along the domestic portfolio opportunity set between the optimal domestic portfolio and the minimum risk domestic portfolio and explain why that point is not the optimal risky domestic portfolio for investors to hold.

16.3 National Markets and Asset Performance

Multiple Choice

1) The authors present a comparison of correlation coefficients between major global equity markets over a variety of different periods. The comparison yields a number of conclusions listed here EXCEPT:
A) the correlation between equity markets for the full twentieth century shows quite low levels of correlation between some of the largest markets (close to 0.50 in some cases).
B) that same century of data, however, yields a high correlation between the U.S. and Canada (0.80).
C) the correlation coefficients between those same equity markets for selected sub periods over the last quarter of the twentieth century, however, show significantly different correlation coefficients.
D) None of the answers listed are inaccurate conclusions.

True/False

1) Capital markets around the world are on average less integrated today than they were 20 years ago.

2) In an empirical study on national market returns in the 20th century, Dimson, Marsh, and Staunton (2002) determined that the equity returns in the United States out-performed the other 15 countries in the study.

3) In an empirical study on national market returns in the 20th century, Dimson, Marsh, and Staunton (2002) found that just under one-half of the 16 countries in the study had negative average returns in their equity markets.

4) In an empirical study on national market returns in the 20th century, Dimson, Marsh, and Staunton (2002) determined that due to high levels of correlation or returns between countries, there is almost NO BENEFIT to international portfolio diversification.

5) Of the major trading partners with the United States, Canada has among the LOWEST correlation of returns with the U.S.

Essay

1) If an investor is able to determine a global beta for his portfolio and holds a portfolio that is well-diversified with international investments, which performance measure is more appropriate, the Sharpe Measure or the Treynor Measure? Why? Explain each performance measure.

16.4 Market Performance Adjusted for Risk: The Sharpe and Treynor Performance Measures

Multiple Choice

1) The Sharpe measure uses ________ as the measure of risk and the Treynor measure uses ________ as the measure of risk.
A) standard deviation; variance
B) beta; variance
C) standard deviation; beta
D) beta; standard deviation

TABLE 16.1
Use the information to answer following question(s).

2) Refer to Table 16.1. What is the value of the Sharpe Measure for France?
A) 0.113
B) 0.0071
C) either A or B
D) neither A nor B

3) Refer to Table 16.1. What is the value of the Treynor Measure for the Netherlands?
A) 0.197
B) 0.0109
C) either A or B
D) neither A nor B

4) Refer to Table 16.1. ________ appears to have the greatest amount of risk as measured by monthly standard deviation, but ________ has the best return per unit of risk according to the Sharpe Measure.
A) United States; Austria
B) France; Austria
C) United States; Netherlands
D) France; Netherlands

5) The Sharpe and Treynor Measures tend to be consistent in their ranking of portfolios when the portfolios:
A) are poorly diversified.
B) are properly diversified.
C) contain only U.S. equity investments.
D) none of the above

True/False

1) The Sharpe and Treynor measures are each measures of return per unit of risk.

2) Good financial advice would suggest that investors should examine returns by the amount of return per unit of risk accepted, rather than in isolation.

3) The denominator of the Treynor measure is portfolio risk as measured by the standard deviation of the portfolio.

4) The denominator of the Sharpe measure is portfolio risk as measured by the standard deviation of the portfolio.

5) The denominator of the Sharpe measure is the portfolio’s beta, the systematic risk of the portfolio, as measured against the world market portfolio.

6) The denominator of the Treynor measure is the portfolio’s beta, the systematic risk of the portfolio, as measured against the world market portfolio.

ECO 305 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer University New

ECO/305 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 8 Chapter 12 and 13

EXCHANGE-RATE DETERMINATION

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The relationship between the exchange rate and the prices of tradable goods is known as the:
a. Purchasing-power-parity theory
b. Asset-markets theory
c. Monetary theory
d. Balance-of-payments theory

2. If the exchange rate between Swiss francs and British pounds is 5 francs per pound, then the number of pounds that can be obtained for 200 francs equals:
a. 20 pounds
b. 40 pounds
c. 60 pounds
d. 80 pounds

3. Low real interest rates in the United States tend to:
a. Decrease the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to depreciate
b. Decrease the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to appreciate
c. Increase the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to depreciate
d. Increase the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to appreciate

4. High real interest rates in the United States tend to:
a. Decrease the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to depreciate
b. Decrease the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to appreciate
c. Increase the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to depreciate
d. Increase the demand for dollars, causing the dollar to appreciate

5. Assume that the United States faces an 8 percent inflation rate while no (zero) inflation exists in Japan. According to the purchasing-power parity theory, the dollar would be expected to:
a. Appreciate by 8 percent against the yen
b. Depreciate by 8 percent against the yen
c. Remain at its existing exchange rate
d. None of the above

6. In the presence of purchasing-power parity, if one dollar exchanges for 2 British pounds and if a VCR costs $400 in the United States, then in Great Britain the VCR should cost:
a. 200 pounds
b. 400 pounds
c. 600 pounds
d. 800 pounds

7. If wheat costs $4 per bushel in the United States and 2 pounds per bushel in Great Britain, then in the presence of purchasing-power parity the exchange rate should be:
a. $.50 per pound
b. $1.00 per pound
c. $2.00 per pound
d. $8.00 per pound

8. A primary reason that explains the appreciation in the value of the U.S. dollar in the 1980s is:
a. Large trade surpluses for the United States
b. Relatively high inflation rates in the United States
c. Lack of investor confidence in the U.S. monetary policy
d. Relatively high interest rates in the United States

9. The high foreign exchange value of the U.S. dollar in the early 1980s can best be explained by:
a. Additional investment funds made available from overseas
b. Lack of investor confidence in U.S. fiscal policy
c. Market expectations of rising inflation in the United States
d. American tourists overseas finding costs increasing

10. When the price of foreign currency (i.e., the exchange rate) is below the equilibrium level:
a. An excess demand for that currency exists in the foreign exchange market
b. An excess supply of that currency exists in the foreign exchange market
c. The demand for foreign exchange shifts outward to the right
d. The demand for foreign exchange shifts backward to the left

11. When the price of foreign currency (i.e., the exchange rate) is above the equilibrium level:
a. An excess supply of that currency exists in the foreign exchange market
b. An excess demand for that currency exists in the foreign exchange market
c. The supply of foreign exchange shifts outward to the right
d. The supply of foreign exchange shifts backward to the left

12. The appreciation in the value of the dollar in the early 1980s is explained by all of the following except:
a. The United States being considered a safe haven by foreign investors
b. Relatively high real interest rates in the United States
c. Confidence of foreign investors in the U.S. economy
d. Relatively high inflation rates in the United States

13. Suppose Mexico and the United States were the only two countries in the world. There exists an excess supply of pesos on the foreign exchange market. This suggests that:
a. Mexico’s current account is in surplus
b. Mexico’s current account is in deficit
c. The U.S. current account is in deficit
d. The U.S. current account is in equilibrium

14. If Canada runs a trade surplus with Mexico and exchange rates are floating:
a. The peso will depreciate relative to the dollar
b. The dollar will depreciate relative to the peso
c. The prices of all foreign goods will fall for Canadians
d. The prices of all foreign goods will rise for Canadians

15. If Mexico’s labor productivity rises relative to Europe’s labor productivity:
a. The peso tends to depreciate against the euro in the short run
b. The peso tends to appreciate against the euro in the short run
c. The peso tends to depreciate against the euro in the long run
d. The peso tends to appreciate against the euro in the long run

16. The international exchange value of the U.S. dollar is determined by:
a. The rate of inflation in the United States
b. The number of dollars printed by the U.S. government
c. The international demand and supply for dollars
d. The monetary value of gold held at Fort Knox, Kentucky

17. For the United States, suppose the annual interest rate on government securities equals 8 percent while the annual inflation rate equals 4 percent. For Japan, suppose the annual interest rate on government securities equals 10 percent while the annual inflation rate equals 7 percent. These variables would cause investment funds to flow from:
a. The United States to Japan, causing the dollar to depreciate
b. The United States to Japan, causing the dollar to appreciate
c. Japan to the United States, causing the yen to depreciate
d. Japan to the United States, causing the yen to appreciate

18. For the United States, suppose the annual interest rate on government securities equals 12 percent while the annual inflation rate equals 8 percent. For Japan, suppose the annual interest rate equals 5 percent. These variables would cause investment funds to flow from:
a. The United States to Japan, causing the dollar to depreciate
b. The United States to Japan, causing the dollar to appreciate
c. Japan to the United States, causing the yen to depreciate
d. Japan to the United States, causing the yen to appreciate

19. Given a system of floating exchange rates, stronger U.S. preferences for imports would trigger:
a. An increase in the demand for imports and an increase in the demand for foreign currency
b. An increase in the demand for imports and a decrease in the demand for foreign currency
c. A decrease in the demand for imports and an increase in the demand for foreign currency
d. A decrease in the demand for imports and a decrease in the demand for foreign currency

20. Given a system of floating exchange rates, weaker U.S. preferences for imports would trigger:
a. An increase in the demand for imports and an increase in the demand for foreign currency
b. An increase in the demand for imports and a decrease in the demand for foreign currency
c. A decrease in the demand for imports and an increase in the demand for foreign currency
d. A decrease in the demand for imports and a decrease in the demand for foreign currency

21. Under a system of floating exchange rates, relatively low productivity and high inflation rates in the United States result in:
a. An increase in the demand for foreign currency, a decrease in the supply of foreign currency, and a depreciation in the dollar
b. An increase in the demand for foreign currency, an increase in the supply of foreign currency, and an appreciation in the dollar
c. A decrease in the demand for foreign currency, a decrease in the supply of foreign currency, and a depreciation in the dollar
d. A decrease in the demand for foreign currency, an increase in the supply of foreign currency, and an appreciation in the dollar

22. Under a system of floating exchange rates, relatively high productivity and low inflation rates in the United States result in:
a. An increase in the demand for foreign currency, a decrease in the supply of foreign currency, and a depreciation in the dollar
b. An increase in the demand for foreign currency, an increase in the supply of foreign currency, and an appreciation in the dollar
c. A decrease in the demand for foreign currency, a decrease in the supply of foreign currency, and a depreciation in the dollar
d. A decrease in the demand for foreign currency, an increase in the supply of foreign currency, and an appreciation in the dollar

23. Which example of market expectations causes the dollar to appreciate against the yen–expectations that the U.S. economy will have:
a. Faster economic growth than Japan
b. Higher future interest rates than Japan
c. More rapid money supply growth than Japan
d. Higher inflation rates than Japan

24. Which example of market expectations causes the dollar to depreciate against the yen–expectations that the U.S. economy will have:
a. Faster economic growth than Japan
b. Higher future interest rates than Japan
c. Less rapid money supply growth than Japan
d. Lower inflation rates than Japan

25. For an American investor, the expected rate of return on European securities depends on all of the following factors except the:
a. Rate of return on equivalent American securities
b. The current exchange rate between the dollar and the pound
c. Exchange rate anticipated to prevail when the securities mature
d. Interest rate paid on European securities

26. Which of the following is likely to result in long-run depreciation of the U.S. dollar relative to the euro?
a. Relatively low interest rates in the United States
b. Relatively high labor productivity in the United States
c. Tariffs levied by the United States on steel imports from Europe
d. Stronger American preferences for goods produced in Europe

27. Which of the following is likely to result in long-run appreciation of the U.S. dollar relative to the peso?
a. Relatively high interest rates in Mexico
b. Relatively high labor productivity in Mexico
c. Tariffs applied by Mexico on computer imports from the United States
d. Stronger Mexican preferences for goods produced in the United States

28. Long-run determinants of the dollar’s exchange value include all of the following except:
a. Preferences of Americans for foreign produced goods
b. U.S. tariffs placed on imports of foreign produced goods
c. Productivity of the American worker
d. Interest rates in U.S. financial markets

29. Which theory of exchange-rate determination best views the foreign exchange market as being similar to a stock exchange where future expectations are important and prices are volatile?
a. Balance-of-payments approach
b. Purchasing-power-parity approach
c. Asset-markets approach
d. Monetary approach

30. According to the purchasing-power-parity theory, the U.S. dollar maintains its purchasing-power parity if it depreciates by an amount equal to the excess of:
a. U.S. interest rates over foreign interest rates
b. Foreign interest rates over U.S. interest rates
c. U.S. inflation over foreign inflation
d. Foreign inflation over U.S. inflation

31. An exchange rate is said to ____ when its short-run response to a change in market fundamentals is greater than its long-run response.
a. Overshoot
b. Undershoot
c. Depreciate
d. Appreciate

32. Concerning exchange rate forecasting, ____ is a common sense approach based on a wide array of political and economic data.
a. Econometric analysis
b. Technical analysis
c. Judgmental analysis
d. Sunspot analysis

33. Concerning exchange rate forecasting, ____ involves the use of historical exchange rate data to estimate future values, while ignoring the economic determinants of exchange rate movements.
a. Econometric analysis
b. Judgmental analysis
c. Technical analysis
d. Sunspot analysis

34. Concerning exchange rate forecasting, ____ relies on econometric models which are based on macroeconomic variables likely to affect currency values.
a. Fundamental analysis
b. Technical analysis
c. Judgmental analysis
d. Sunspot analysis

35. Concerning exchange-rate determination, “market fundamentals” include all of the following except:
a. Monetary policy and fiscal policy
b. Profitability and riskiness of investments
c. Speculative opinion about future exchange rates
d. Productivity changes affecting production costs

36. In the short run, exchange rates respond to market forces such as:
a. Inflation rates
b. Expectations of future exchange rates
c. Investment profitability
d. Government trade policy

37. Long-run exchange rate movements are governed by all of the following except:
a. National productivity levels
b. Consumer tastes and preferences
c. Rates of inflation
d. Interest rate levels

38. Exchange rate determination in the short run is underlied by which of the following assumptions:
a. Tariffs and quotas affect trade patterns only in the short run
b. Prices of goods and services affect trade patterns only in the short run
c. Expected returns on financial assets affect investment flows in the short run
d. Preferences for goods and services affect trade flows only in the short run

39. That identical goods should cost the same in all nations, assuming it is costless to ship goods between nations and there are no barriers to trade, is a reflection of the:
a. Monetary approach to exchange-rate determination
b. Law of one price
c. Fundamentalist approach to exchange-rate determination
d. Exchange-rate-overshooting principle

40. The Canadian dollar would depreciate on the foreign exchange market if:
a. Canadian consumer tastes change in favor of goods produced domestically
b. The profitability of assets in Canada rises relative to the profitability of assets abroad
c. Canada experiences a disastrous wheat-crop failure, leading to imports of more wheat
d. Canada realizes technological improvements in the production of manufactured goods, leading to relatively low costs for Canada

41. The demand in the United States for yen will increase if, other things remaining equal:
a. Labor costs rise in Japan
b. Income rises in Japan
c. Prices rise in Japan
d. Interest rates rise in Japan

42. The quantity of Canadian dollars supplied to the foreign exchange market would increase if, other things remaining equal:
a. Preferences for imports rise in Canada
b. Labor productivity increases in Canada
c. Prices of goods and services decrease in Canada
d. Import tariffs rise in Canada

43. The U.S. demand for pesos would shift to the right if there occurred a (an):
a. Change in preferences toward U.S. manufactured goods
b. Increase in the dollar/peso exchange rate
c. Decrease in the U.S. population
d. Increase in the U.S. price level

44. The supply of francs, would shift to the right for all of the following reasons except:
a. An increase in Swiss real income
b. An increase in Swiss prices
c. An increase in the Swiss population
d. An increase in Swiss interest rates

The figure below illustrates the supply and demand schedules of Swiss francs in a market of freely-floating exchange rates.

Figure 12.1 The Market for Francs

45. Refer to Figure 12.1. Should preferences for imports rise in the United States and fall in Switzerland, there would occur a (an):
a. Increase in the demand for francs–decrease in the supply of francs-depreciation of the dollar
b. Increase in the demand for francs–decrease in the supply of francs-appreciation of the dollar
c. Decrease in the demand for francs–decrease in the supply of francs-appreciation of the dollar
d. Decrease in the demand for francs–increase in the supply of francs-depreciation of the dollar

46. Refer to Figure 12.1. Should real interest rates in the United States rise relative to real interest rates in Switzerland, there would occur a (an):
a. Increase in the demand for francs–decrease in the supply of francs-depreciation of the dollar
b. Increase in the demand for francs–decrease in the supply of francs-appreciation of the dollar
c. Decrease in the demand for francs–increase in the supply of francs-appreciation of the dollar
d. Decrease in the demand for francs–decrease in the supply of francs-depreciation of the dollar

47. Refer to Figure 12.1. Should the U.S. price level rise relative to the Swiss price level, there would occur a (an):
a. Increase in the demand for francs–increase in the supply of francs-appreciation of the dollar
b. Decrease in the demand for francs–decrease in the supply of francs-depreciation of the dollar
c. Increase in the supply of francs–decrease in the demand for francs-appreciation of the dollar
d. Decrease in the supply of francs–increase in the demand for francs-depreciation of the dollar

48. Refer to Figure 12.1. Should the United States impose tariffs on imports from Switzerland, there would occur a (an):
a. Increase in the demand for francs and a depreciation of the dollar
b. Decrease in the demand for francs and an appreciation of the dollar
c. Decrease in the supply of francs and an appreciation of the dollar
d. Increase in the supply of francs and a depreciation of the dollar

49. Refer to Figure 12.1. Should Swiss labor productivity rise, leading to a decrease in Swiss manufacturing costs, there would occur a (an):
a. Increase in the supply of francs and a depreciation of the dollar
b. Increase in the supply of francs and an appreciation of the dollar
c. Decrease in the demand for francs and an appreciation of the dollar
d. Increase in the demand for francs and a depreciation of the dollar

50. Refer to Figure 12.1. If Switzerland experienced a disastrous wheat-crop failure, leading to additional wheat imports from the United States, there would occur an:
a. Increase in the supply of francs and an appreciation of the dollar
b. Increase in the supply of francs and a depreciation of the dollar
c. Increase in the demand for francs and a depreciation of the dollar
d. Increase in the demand for francs and an appreciation of the dollar

51. Given floating exchange rates, if Japan increases its demand for Canadian goods at the same time that Canada increases its demand for Japanese goods, then we would expect the yen’s exchange value to:
a. Appreciate against the dollar
b. Depreciate against the dollar
c. Remain constant against the dollar
d. Appreciate, depreciate, or remain constant against the dollar

52. Given floating exchange rates, assume that the Swiss decrease their import purchases from Italy while at the same time the Italians increase their purchases of Swiss government securities. The first action by itself would lead to a (an) ____ of the franc against the lira while the second action by itself would lead to a (an) ____ of the franc against the lira.
a. Appreciation, appreciation
b. Depreciation, depreciation
c. Appreciation, depreciation
d. Depreciation, appreciation

53. Given floating exchange rates, a simultaneous decrease in the Canadian demand for British products and increase in the British desire to invest in Canadian government securities would cause a (an):
a. Appreciation of the pound against the dollar
b. Depreciation of the pound against the dollar
c. Unchanged pound/dollar exchange rate
d. None of the above

54. Assume a system of floating exchange rates. Due to a high savings rate, suppose the level of savings in Japan is in excess of domestic investment needs. If Japanese residents invest abroad, the yen’s exchange value will ____ and the Japanese trade balance will move toward ____.
a. Appreciate, deficit
b. Appreciate, surplus
c. Depreciate, deficit
d. Depreciate, surplus

55. Given a system of floating exchange rates, assume that Boeing Inc. of the United States places a large order, payable in yen, with a Japanese contractor for jet engine parts. The immediate effect of this transaction will be a shift in the:
a. Supply curve of yen to the left which causes the dollar to appreciate against the yen
b. Supply curve of yen to the right which causes the dollar to depreciate against the yen
c. Demand curve for yen to the left which causes the dollar to appreciate against the yen
d. Demand curve for yen to the right which causes the dollar to depreciate against the yen

56. For purchasing-power parity to exist:
a. Flows of currency in the trade account must be offset by flows of currency in the capital account
b. The nominal interest rate must be equal to the real interest rate in all countries
c. Converting a sum of funds from one currency to another does not alter its purchasing power
d. A country’s trade account must always be in balance

57. Assume that interest rates in the United States and Britain are the same. If a U.S. resident anticipates that the exchange value of the dollar is going to appreciate against the pound, she should:
a. Borrow needed funds from British banks rather than U.S. banks
b. Borrow needed funds from U.S. banks rather than British banks
c. Convert U.S. dollars into British pounds
d. Any of the above

58. Given a system of floating exchange rates, if Canada’s labor productivity rises relative to the labor productivity of its trading partners:
a. Canadian imports will fall and the dollar will appreciate
b. Canadian imports will fall and the dollar will depreciate
c. Canadian imports will rise and the dollar will appreciate
d. Canadian imports will rise and the dollar will depreciate

59. Assume that labor productivity growth is slower in the United States than in its trading partners. Given a system of floating exchange rates, the impact of this growth differential for the United States will be:
a. Increased exports and an appreciation of the dollar
b. Increased exports and a depreciation of the dollar
c. Increased imports and an appreciation of the dollar
d. Increased imports and a depreciation of the dollar

60. Suppose the exchange rate between the U.S. dollar and the Japanese yen is initially 90 yen per dollar. According to purchasing-power parity, if the price of traded goods rises by 10 percent in the United States and remains constant in Japan, the exchange rate will become
a. 72 yen per dollar
b. 81 yen per dollar
c. 99 yen per dollar
d. 108 yen per dollar

61. Suppose the exchange rate between the U.S. dollar and the Japanese yen is initially 90 yen per dollar. According to purchasing-power parity, if the price of traded goods rises by 5 percent in the United States and 15 percent in Japan, the exchange rate will become:
a. 72 yen per dollar
b. 81 yen per dollar
c. 99 yen per dollar
d. 108 yen per dollar

62. Suppose the exchange rate between the U.S. dollar and the Japanese yen is initially 90 yen per dollar. According to purchasing power parity, if the price of traded goods falls by 5 percent in the United States and rises by 5 percent in Japan, the exchange rate will become:
a. 72 yen per dollar
b. 81 yen per dollar
c. 99 yen per dollar
d. 108 yen per dollar

63. Suppose that the yen-dollar exchange rate changes from 85 yen per dollar to 80 yen per dollar. One can say that the:
a. Yen has appreciated against the dollar and the dollar has depreciated against the yen
b. Yen has depreciated against the dollar and the dollar has appreciated against the yen
c. Yen has appreciated against the dollar and the dollar has appreciated against the yen
d. Yen has depreciated against the dollar and the dollar has depreciated against the yen

64. Given a floating exchange rate system an increase in ____ would cause the dollar to appreciate against the euro.
a. U.S. labor costs
b. The U.S. money supply
c. U.S. prices of goods
d. U.S. real interest rates

65. Under a system of floating exchange rates, a Japanese trade surplus against Canada would result in a (an):
a. Rise in the dollar price of the yen
b. Fall in the dollar price of the yen
c. Rise in the yen price of the dollar
d. Unchanged dollar/yen exchange rate

66. When deciding between U.S. and British government securities, an American investor typically considers:
a. U.S. and British interest rates and anticipated changes in the exchange rate
b. Budget deficits of the U.S. government and British government
c. Shifts in the demand for U.S. goods and British goods
d. U.S. and British inflation rates and anticipated changes in the exchange rate

67. In the long run, exchange rates are primarily determined by:
a. Agreements among governments of the world’s industrial countries
b. Relative interest rates in developing countries and industrial countries
c. Economic fundamentals such as relative productivity levels
d. The rate at which country’s currencies exchange for gold

68. Increased tariffs on U.S. steel imports cause the dollar to ____ in the ____.
a. Appreciate, long run
b. Depreciate, long run
c. Appreciate, short run
d. Depreciate, short run

69. Lower tariffs on U.S. agricultural imports cause the dollar to ____ in the ____.
a. Appreciate, long run
b. Depreciate, long run
c. Appreciate, short run
d. Depreciate, short run

70. Relatively high interest rates in the United States causes the dollar to ____ in the ____.
a. Appreciate, long run
b. Depreciate, long run
c. Appreciate, short run
d. Depreciate, short run

71. The asset market theory of exchange rate determination suggests that the most important factor influencing the demand for domestic and foreign securities is:
a. Expected return on these assets relative to one another
b. Ability of these assets to easily be converted into cash
c. Riskiness of these assets relative to one another
d. Level of government restrictions on trade and investment flows

72. With floating exchange rates, easy credit and low short term interest rates lead to
a. Exchange rate depreciation in the short run
b. Exchange rate appreciation in the short run
c. Exchange rate depreciation in the long run
d. Exchange rate appreciation in the long run

73. With floating exchange rates, relatively high productivity growth for a nation leads to
a. Exchange rate depreciation in the short run
b. Exchange rate appreciation in the short run
c. Exchange rate depreciation in the long run
d. Exchange rate appreciation in the long run

74. All of the following are important long-run determinants of exchange rates except
a. Consumer tastes
b. Trade policy
c. Labor productivity
d. Interest rates

75. The purchasing-power parity theory suffers from the problem
a. Of choosing the appropriate price index
b. That it overlooks the influence of capital flows
c. That government policy may modify exchange rates
d. All of the above

TRUE/FALSE

1. In a free market, exchange rates are determined by market fundamentals and market expectations.

2. Concerning exchange-rate determination, market fundamentals include inflation rates, productivity levels, and speculative opinion about future exchange rates.

3. Market expectations include news about market fundamentals, speculative opinion about future exchange rates, and profitability and riskiness of investments.

4. In a free market, the equilibrium exchange rate occurs at the point where the quantity demanded of a foreign currency equals the quantity of that currency supplied.

5. Exchange rates are determined by the unregulated forces of supply and demand for foreign currencies as long as central banks do not intervene in the foreign exchange markets.

6. Over the long run, foreign exchange rates are determined by transfers of bank deposits that respond to differences in real interest rates and to shifting expectations of future exchange rates.

The figure below illustrates the supply and demand schedules of Swiss francs under a system of floating exchange rates.

Figure 12.2. The Market for Swiss Francs

7. Refer to Figure 12.2. If the United States decreases tariffs on imports from Switzerland, there would occur a decrease in the demand for francs and a decrease in the dollar price of the franc.

8. Refer to Figure 12.2. If Swiss manufacturing costs increase relative to those of the United States, there would occur an increase in the supply of francs and an appreciation in the dollar’s exchange value.

9. Refer to Figure 12.2. If the Federal Reserve adopts a restrictive monetary policy that leads to relatively high interest rates in the United States, the demand for francs would decrease, the supply of francs would increase, and the dollar’s exchange value would appreciate.

10. Refer to Figure 12.2. As the profitability of assets in Switzerland rises relative to the profitability of assets in the United States, U.S. residents make additional investments in Switzerland; this leads to an increased demand for francs and a depreciation of the dollar’s exchange value.

11. Refer to Figure 12.2. If the rate of inflation in the United States is higher than the rate of inflation in Switzerland, the demand for francs decreases, the supply of francs increases, and the dollar’s exchange value appreciates.

12. Under floating exchange rates, short-run exchange rates are primarily determined by national differences in real interest rates and shifting expectations of future exchange rates.

13. Day-to-day influences on foreign exchange rates always cause rates to move in the same direction as changes in long-term market fundamentals.

14. With floating exchange rates, a country experiencing faster economic growth than its trading partners find its currency’s exchange value appreciating.

15. If U.S. labor productivity growth is 2 percent per annum and Swiss labor productivity growth is 6 percent per annum, the dollar will depreciate against the franc under a system of floating exchange rates.

16. In 1985 and 1986 U.S. interest rates fell relative to interest rates in Japan. Under floating exchange rates, this would lead to the dollar’s exchange value depreciating against the yen.

17. A country having stronger preferences for imports than its trading partners have for its exports finds its demand for foreign exchange rising more rapidly than its supply of foreign exchange.

18. Economies with relatively high growth rates in labor productivity tend to find their currencies’ exchange values appreciating under a floating exchange-rate system.

19. Under floating exchange rates, relatively low domestic interest rates tend to promote depreciation of a currency’s exchange value while relatively high domestic interest rates lead to currency appreciation.

20. Suppose expansionary monetary policy in the United States leads to interest rates falling to 2 percent while tight monetary policy in Switzerland leads to interest rates rising to 8 percent. With floating exchange rates, the dollar would appreciate against the franc.

21. The purchasing-power-parity theory is used to predict exchange-rate movements in the short run.

22. According to the law of one price, identical goods should cost the same in all nations, assuming there are no shipping costs nor trade barriers.

23. The purchasing- power-parity theory predicts that if the U.S. inflation rate exceeds the Japanese inflation rate by 4 percent, the dollar’s exchange value will appreciate by 4 percent against the yen.

24. Assume the initial yen/dollar exchange rate to be 100 yen per dollar. If the U.S. inflation rate is 2 percent and the Japanese inflation rate is 7 percent, the exchange rate should move to 105 yen per dollar according to the purchasing-power-parity theory.

25. Assume the initial dollar/pound exchange rate to be $2 per pound. If the U.S. inflation rate is 8 percent and the U.K. inflation rate is 3 percent, the exchange rate should move to $2.10 per pound according to the purchasing-power-parity theory.

26. If consumer tastes in the United States change in favor of goods produced in France, the demand for francs will increase which causes an appreciation of the dollar against the franc under a floating exchange rate system.

27. As the profitability of Japanese assets rises relative to the profitability of Australian assets, Australian residents will make additional investments in Japan; this results in an increased demand for yen and a depreciation of the dollar under a system of floating exchange rates.

28. If the United States experiences an enormous wheat crop failure, it will have to import more wheat and the dollar’s exchange value will depreciate under a system of floating exchange rates.

29. If Japan realizes technological improvements in the production of automobiles, which lowers its production costs relative to foreign producers, Japanese exports will rise and the yen’s exchange value will appreciate under a system of floating exchange rates.

30. If Mexico applies tariffs to imports of manufactured goods, Mexico’s demand for foreign exchange will rise and the peso will depreciate under a system of floating exchange rates.

31. According to the “Big Mac” index, if a Big Mac costs $2.28 in the United States and 25.75 krone in Denmark (equivalent to $4.25), the Danish krone is an undervalued currency.

32. According to the “Big Mac” index, if a Big Mac costs $2.28 in the United States and 48 baht in Thailand (equivalent to $1.91), the baht is an undervalued currency.

33. Long-run determinants of exchange rate include labor productivity levels, inflation rates, consumer preferences for goods and services, and trade barriers.

34. In the short run, exchange rates are primarily determined by investor expectations of returns on assets such as government securities and bank accounts.

35. Changes in market expectations have their greatest impact on exchange-rate changes over the long run as opposed to the short run.

36. If it is widely expected that the British economy will experience more rapid inflation than the Australian economy, the pound will depreciate against the dollar under a system of floating exchange rates.

37. According to the asset-markets approach, adjustments among financial assets are a key determinant of long-run movements in exchange rates.

38. The asset-markets approach views exchange-rate determination as similar to the stock market in which prices are volatile and expectations are important.

39. According to the principle of exchange-rate overshooting, a short-run depreciation of a currency is likely to be greater than a long-run depreciation of that currency.

40. Exchange-rate overshooting is based on the notion that the supply schedule of a currency is more elastic in the short run than in the long run.

41. According to exchange-rate overshooting, an appreciation of the Australian dollar is likely to be greater over a long time period than over a short time period.

42. Concerning exchange rate forecasting, fundamental analysis involves consideration of a variety of macroeconomic variables and policies that tend to affect currency values.

43. Econometric models are best suited for forecasting long-run exchange rates rather than short-run exchange rates.

44. Concerning exchange rate forecasting, technical analysis extrapolates from past exchange-rate trends while ignoring economic and political determinants of exchange rates.

45. Given an efficient foreign exchange market, the spot rate is the rational approximation of the markets expectation of the forward rate that will exist at the end of the forward period.

46. A forward premium on the British pound serves as a rough benchmark of the expected rate of appreciation in the pound’s spot rate.

47. A forward discount on Mexico’s peso serves as a rough benchmark of the expected appreciation in the peso’s spot rate.

48. If you were considering hiring a forecasting firm to predict future spot rates of the yen, you would hope that the firm could predict better what would be implied by the yen’s forward rate.

49. Although the law of one price predicts that identical goods should cost the same in all nations, transportation costs and tariffs tend to prevent this prediction from actually occurring.

50. If real interest rates decline in the United States relative to real interest rates abroad, the dollar’s exchange value will appreciate under a floating exchange-rate system.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is the purchasing power parity approach to exchange rate determination?

2. What is exchange rate overshooting?

ESSAY

1. In a free market, what determines exchange rates in the long run and the short run?

2. What is the asset market approach to exchange rate determination?

CHAPTER 13—BALANCE-OF-PAYMENTS ADJUSTMENTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following does not represent an automatic adjustment in balance-of-payments disequilibrium? Variations in:
a. Domestic income
b. Foreign prices
c. Domestic prices
d. Foreign par values

2. The balance-of-payments adjustment mechanism developed during the 1700s by the English economist David Hume is the:
a. Income-adjustment mechanism
b. Flexible-exchange-rate-adjustment mechanism
c. Price-adjustment mechanism
d. Rank-reserve-adjustment mechanism

3. Which chain of events would promote payments equilibrium for a surplus nation, according to the price-adjustment mechanism?
a. Increasing money supply–increasing domestic prices–rising imports–falling exports
b. Increasing money supply–falling domestic prices–rising imports–falling exports
c. Decreasing money supply–increasing domestic prices–falling imports–rising exports
d. Decreasing money supply–decreasing domestic prices–falling imports–rising exports

4. Which chain of events would promote payments equilibrium for a deficit nation, according to the price-adjustment mechanism?
a. Increasing money supply–increasing domestic prices–rising imports–falling exports
b. Increasing money supply–falling domestic prices–rising imports–falling exports
c. Decreasing money supply–increasing domestic prices–falling imports–rising exports
d. Decreasing money supply–decreasing domestic prices–falling imports–rising exports

5. During the gold standard era, central bankers agreed to react positively to international gold flows so as to reinforce the automatic adjustment mechanism. Which of the following best represents the above statement?
a. Income-adjustment mechanism
b. Price-adjustment mechanism
c. Rules of the game
d. Discretionary fiscal policy

6. During the gold standard era, the “rules of the game” suggested that:
a. Surplus countries should increase their money supplies
b. Deficit countries should increase their money supplies
c. Surplus and deficit countries should increase their money supplies
d. Surplus and deficit countries should decrease their money supplies

7. Which of the following balance-of-payments adjustment mechanisms is most closely related to the quantity theory of money?
a. Income-adjustment mechanism
b. Price-adjustment mechanism
c. Interest-rate-adjustment mechanism
d. Output-adjustment mechanism

8. Under the gold standard, a surplus nation facing a gold inflow and an increase in its money supply would also experience a:
a. Rise in its interest rate and a short-term financial inflow
b. Rise in its interest rate and a short-term financial outflow
c. Fall in its interest rate and a short-term financial inflow
d. Fall in its interest rate and a short-term financial outflow

9. Under the gold standard, a deficit nation facing a gold outflow and a decrease in its money supply would also experience a:
a. Rise in its interest rate and a short-term financial inflow
b. Rise in its interest rate and a short-term financial outflow
c. Fall in its interest rate and a short-term financial inflow
d. Fall in its interest rate and a short-term financial outflow

10. Assume that Canada initially faces payments equilibrium in its merchandise trade account as well as in its capital and financial account. Now suppose that Canadian interest rates increase to levels higher than those abroad. For Canada, this tends to promote:
a. Net financial inflows
b. Net financial outflows
c. Net merchandise exports
d. Net merchandise imports

11. Assume that Canada initially faces payments equilibrium in its merchandise trade account as well as in its capital and financial account. Now suppose that Canadian interest rates fall to levels below those abroad. For Canada, this tends to promote:
a. Net financial inflows
b. Net financial outflows
c. Net merchandise exports
d. Net merchandise imports

12. Suppose the United States levies an interest equalization tax, which taxes Americans on dividend and interest income from foreign securities. Such a tax would be intended to:
a. Encourage financial movements from the United States to overseas
b. Discourage financial movements from the United States to overseas
c. Discourage financial movements from overseas to the United States
d. None of the above

13. Assume that interest rates on comparable securities are identical in the United States and foreign countries. Now suppose that investors anticipate that in the future the U.S. dollar will appreciate against foreign currencies. Investment funds would thus be expected to:
a. Flow from the United States to foreign countries
b. Flow from foreign countries to the United States
c. Remain totally in foreign countries
d. Not be affected by the expected dollar appreciation

14. Suppose Japan increases its imports from Sweden, leading to a rise in Sweden’s exports and income level. With a higher income level, Sweden imports more goods from Japan. Thus a change in imports in Japan results in a feedback effect on its exports. This process is best referred to as the:
a. Monetary approach to balance-of-payments adjustment
b. Discretionary income adjustment process
c. Foreign repercussion effect
d. Price-specie flow mechanism

Exhibit 13.1

Assume the marginal propensity to consume for U.S. households equals 0.9, and the marginal propensity to import for the United States equals 0.1. Suppose there occurs an increase in investment of $10 billion at each level of income.

15. Refer to Exhibit 13.1. The value of the multiplier for the United States equals:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

16. Refer to Exhibit 13.1. The change in the level of U.S. income resulting from the additional investment spending equals
a. $20 billion
b. $30 billion
c. $40 billion
d. $50 billion

17. Refer to Exhibit 13.1. The change in the level of U.S. imports resulting from the rise in U.S. income equals:
a. $5 billion
b. $10 billion
c. $15 billion
d. $20 billion

18. The monetary approach to balance-of-payments adjustments suggests that all payments deficits are the result of:
a. Too high interest rates in the home country
b. Too low interest rates in the home country
c. Excess money supply over money demand in the home country
d. Excess money demand over money supply in the home country

19. The monetary approach to balance-of-payments adjustments suggests that all payments surpluses are the result of:
a. Too high interest rates in the home country
b. Too low interest rates in the home country
c. Excess money supply over money demand in the home country
d. Excess money demand over money supply in the home country

20. Starting from a position where the nation’s money demand equals the money supply, and its balance of payments is in equilibrium, economic theory suggests that the nation’s balance of payments would move into a deficit position if there occurred in the nation a:
a. Decrease in the money supply
b. Increase in the money demand
c. Decrease in the money demand
d. None of the above

21. Which approach to balance-of-payments adjustment suggests that balance-of-payments surpluses are the result of excess money demand in the home country?
a. Absorption approach
b. Elasticities approach
c. Monetary approach
d. Purchasing-power-parity approach

22. According to the “rules of the game” of the gold standard era, a country’s central bank agreed to react to international gold flows so as to:
a. Officially devalue a currency during eras of payments surpluses
b. Officially revalue a currency during eras of payments deficits
c. Offset the automatic-adjustment mechanism (e.g., prices)
d. Reinforce the automatic-adjustment mechanism

23. According to the quantity theory of money, a change in the domestic money supply will bring about:
a. Inverse and proportionate changes in the price level
b. Inverse and less-than-proportionate changes in the price level
c. Direct and proportionate changes in the price level
d. Direct and less-than-proportionate changes in the price level

24. The formulation of the so-called income adjustment mechanism is associated with:
a. Adam Smith
b. David Ricardo
c. David Hume
d. John Maynard Keynes

25. The value of the foreign trade multiplier equals the reciprocal of the sum of the marginal propensities to:
a. Save plus import
b. Import plus invest
c. Consume plus export
d. Save plus import

26. Starting from a position where the nation’s money demand equals the money supply and its balance of payments is in equilibrium, economic theory suggests that the nation’s balance of payments would move into a deficit position if there occurred in the nation:
a. An increase in the money supply
b. A decrease in the money supply
c. An increase in money demand
d. None of the above

27. Starting from a position where the nation’s money demand equals the money supply and its balance of payments is in equilibrium, economic theory suggests that the nation’s balance of payments would move into a surplus position if there occurred in the nation:
a. A decrease in the money supply
b. An increase in the money supply
c. A decrease in the money demand
d. None of the above

28. Starting from a position where the nation’s money demand equals the money supply and its balance of payments is in equilibrium, economic theory suggests that the nation’s balance of payments would move into a surplus position if there occurred in the nation:
a. An increase in the money demand
b. A decrease in the money demand
c. An increase in the money supply
d. None of the above

29. Assume identical interest rates on comparable securities in the United States and foreign countries. Suppose investors anticipate that in the future the U.S. dollar will depreciate against foreign currencies. Investment funds would tend to:
a. Flow from the United States to foreign countries
b. Flow from foreign countries to the United States
c. Remain totally in foreign countries
d. Remain totally in the United States

30. Suppose that rising U.S. income leads to higher sales and profits in the United States. This would likely result in:
a. Increasing portfolio investment into the United States
b. Decreasing portfolio investment into the United States
c. Increasing direct investment into the United States
d. Decreasing direct investment into the United States

Figure 13.1. U.S. Capital and Financial Account

31. Refer to Figure 13.1. Upward movements along U.S. capital and financial account schedule CA0 would be caused by:
a. U.S. interest rates rising relative to foreign interest rates
b. U.S. interest rates falling relative to foreign interest rates
c. Taxes placed on income earned by U.S. residents from their foreign investments
d. Taxes placed on income earned by foreign residents from their U.S. investments

32. Refer to Figure 13.1. Downward movements along U.S. capital and financial account schedule CA0 would be caused by:
a. U.S. interest rates rising relative to foreign interest rates
b. U.S. interest rates falling relative to foreign interest rates
c. Taxes placed on income earned by U.S. residents from their foreign investments
d. Taxes placed on income earned by foreign residents from their U.S. investments

33. Refer to Figure 13.1. The U.S. capital and financial account schedule would shift upward from CA0 to CA1 if:
a. U.S. interest rates exceeded foreign interest rates
b. Foreign interest rates exceeded U.S. interest rates
c. Taxes were placed on income earned by U.S. residents from their foreign investments
d. Taxes were placed on income earned by foreign residents from their U.S. investments

34. Refer to Figure 13.1. The U.S. capital and financial account schedule would shift upward from CA0 to CA1 if:
a. U.S. residents receive subsidies to invest in foreign nations
b. U.S. interest rates rise relative to foreign interest rates
c. Taxes are reduced on income earned by U.S. residents from their foreign investments
d. Expected profits decline on U.S. investments in foreign manufacturing

35. Refer to Figure 13.1. The U.S. capital and financial account schedule would shift upward from CA0 to CA1 for all of the following reasons except:
a. U.S. political stability improves relative to foreign political stability
b. U.S. interest rates fall relative to foreign interest rates
c. Taxes are placed on income earned by U.S. residents from foreign investments
d. Restrictions are imposed on foreign loans granted by U.S. banks

36. Refer to Figure 13.1. U.S. capital and financial account schedule CA0 would shift upwards, or downwards, for all of the following reasons except:
a. U.S. residents being taxed on income earned from foreign investments
b. U.S. banks being restricted on loans that can be made abroad
c. U.S. political stability changing relative to foreign political stability
d. U.S. interest rates changing relative to foreign interest rates

Table 13.1. Canada’s Saving, Investment, Import, and Export Functions (in billions of dollars) Under a System of Fixed Exchange Rates

Export Function X = 3000
Investment Function I = 1000
Saving Function S = -1000 + 0.2Y
Import Function M = 500 + 0.25Y

37. Referring to Table 13.1, if Canada’s income rises by $200 billion, saving would rise by:
a. $10 billion
b. $20 billion
c. $30 billion
d. $40 billion

38. Referring to Table 13.1, if Canada’s income rises by $200 billion, imports would rise by:
a. $50 billion
b. $75 billion
c. $100 billion
d. $125 billion

39. Referring to Table 13.1, Canada’s foreign trade multiplier equals:
a. 1.75
b. 2.05
c. 2.22
d. 2.64

40. Referring to Table 13.1, Canada’s equilibrium level of income is:
a. $8000 billion
b. $9000 billion
c. $10,000 billion
d. $11,000 billion

41. Refer to Table 13.1. If improved business optimism leads to increases in Canada’s planned investment spending from $1000 billion to $1200 billion, Canada’s equilibrium income rises by approximately:
a. $444 billion
b. $555 billion
c. $666 billion
d. $777 billion

42. Refer to Table 13.1. If weak economic conditions abroad result in Canada’s exports falling from $3000 billion to $2500 billion, Canada’s equilibrium income falls by approximately:
a. $888 billion
b. $990 billion
c. $1110 billion
d. $1220 billion

Figure 13.2. Australian Economy Under a Fixed Exchange Rate System

43. Refer to Figure 13.2. The slope of the (X-M) schedule and (S-I) schedule indicates that Australia’s foreign trade multiplier is:
a. 0.5
b. 1.0
c. 1.5
d. 2.0

44. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S-I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that improving economic conditions abroad lead to an autonomous increase in Australian exports of $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $5 billion

45. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S- I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that worsening economic conditions abroad lead to an autonomous decrease in Australian exports of $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $5 billion

46. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S-I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that improving profit expectations lead to an autonomous increase in Australian investment of $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $5 billion

47. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S-I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that worsening profit expectations lead to an autonomous decrease in Australian investment of $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $5 billion

48. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S-I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that increased thriftiness leads to an autonomous increase in Australian saving of $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $5 billion

49. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S-I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that dwindling thriftiness leads to an autonomous decrease in Australian saving to $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, deficit of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, surplus of $5 billion

50. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S-I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that changing preferences lead to an autonomous increase in Australian imports of $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $5 billion

51. Refer to Figure 13.2. Starting at equilibrium income $50 billion, where (S-I)0 intersects (X-M)0, suppose that changing preferences lead to an autonomous decrease in Australian imports of $5 billion. Australian income thus ____ which leads to Australia’s trade account moving to a ____.
a. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $2.5 billion
b. Rises to $60 billion, surplus of $5 billion
c. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $2.5 billion
d. Falls to $40 billion, deficit of $5 billion

52. In explaining balance-of-payments adjustments, the classical economists
a. Focused on interest rates exclusively
b. Remained aware of the role of interest rates
c. Only focused their attention on short-term interest rates
d. Paid exclusive attention to long-tem interest rates

53. J. M. Keynes suggested that a trade deficit nation
a. Would experience a fall in income
b. Would experience a decline in imports
c. Would require active intervention by the government
d. Both a and b

54. The classical gold standard
a. Existed from early 1800’s to early 1900’s
b. Did not allow for imports and exports of gold
c. Led to the outflow of gold from surplus nations
d. Led to the inflow of gold to deficit nations

55. The classical economists assumed
a. That the volume of final output is fixed at the full-employment level in the long-run
b. The velocity of money is constant
c. The velocity of money depends on physical, structural, and institutional factors
d. All of the above

TRUE/FALSE

1. Under a fixed exchange rate system, adjustment mechanisms work for the automatic return to current-account balance after the initial balance has been disrupted.

2. When a country’s current account moves into disequilibrium, automatic adjustments in tariffs and quotas occur which move the current account back into equilibrium.

3. Prices, interest rates, and income are the automatic adjustment variables that help restore current-account equilibrium under a system of fixed exchange rates.

4. That the balance of payments could be adjusted by prices and interest rates, under a fixed exchange rate system, originated with Keynesian theory during the 1930s.

5. David Hume’s price-adjustment mechanism supported the mercantilist view that a nation could maintain a trade surplus indefinitely.

6. Under the price-adjustment mechanism, a government’s efforts to maintain a current-account surplus is self defeating over the long run because a nation’s current account automatically moves toward equilibrium.

7. Under the gold standard of the 1800s, exchange rates were allowed to float freely in the currency markets.

8. Under the gold standard, each participating nation defined the mint price of gold in terms of its national currency was prepared to buy and sell gold at that price.

9. Under the gold standard, a nation with a current-account surplus would realize gold outflows, a decrease in its money supply, and a fall in its domestic price level.

10. The essence of the classical price-adjustment mechanism is embodied in the quantity theory of money.

11. According to the equation of exchange, the total expenditures on final goods equals the monetary value of the final goods sold.

12. Regarding the equation of exchange, the classical economists assumed that final output was below its maximum level while the velocity of money was volatile.

13. According to the quantity theory of money, a change in the money supply will induce an inverse and less-than-proportionate change in the price level.

14. Under the price-adjustment mechanism, a trade-surplus nation would realize gold inflows, an increase in its money supply, and a loss of international competitiveness.

15. The price-adjustment mechanism’s relevance to the real world has been questioned on the grounds that national output is generally not at the full-employment level and that the velocity of money is not always constant.

16. According to the price-adjustment mechanism, trade deficits can occur only in the long run rather than in the short run.

17. Under the price-adjustment mechanism, trade-deficit nations realize price inflation and a loss of competitiveness while trade surplus nations realize price deflation and an improvement in competitiveness.

18. Under the classical gold standard, adjustments in domestic prices and short-term interest rates automatically promoted balance-of-payments equilibrium over the long run.

19. Under the classical gold standard, a trade surplus nation would realize gold inflows, an increase in its money supply, rising interest rates, and net investment inflows.

20. The gold standard’s “rules of the game” required central bankers in a surplus country to initiate contractionary monetary policies which lead to higher interest rates and net investment inflows.

21. The gold standard’s “rules of the game” required central bankers in a trade deficit nation to expand the money supply, leading to falling interest rates and net investment outflows.

22. The “rules of the game” served to reinforce and speed up the interest-rate-adjustment mechanism under a system of fixed exchange rates.

Figure 13.3. U.S. Capital and Financial Account Under a Fixed Exchange Rate System

23. Refer to Figure 13.3. As U.S. interest rates rise relative to foreign interest rates, the U.S. slides upward along schedule CA0, thus moving towards capital and financial account surplus.

24. Refer to Figure 13.3. Decreases in U.S. interest rates relative to foreign interest rates would shift U.S. capital and financial account schedule CA0 downward toward CA1, resulting in net financial outflows from the United States.

25. Refer to Figure 13.3. Falling investment profitability in the United States, relative to investment profitability abroad, would shift the U.S. capital and financial account schedule downward from CA0 to CA1, resulting in net financial outflows from the United States.

26. Refer to Figure 13.3. As the U.S. government decreases taxes on income earned by U.S. residents from foreign investments, the U.S. capital and financial account schedule shifts downward from CA0 to CA1 and the United States realizes net financial outflows.

27. Refer to Figure 13.3. If the political and economic stability of foreign countries worsens relative to that of the United States, the U.S. capital and financial account schedule would shift downward from CA0 to CA1, resulting in net financial outflows from the United States.

28. According to the Keynesian income-adjustment mechanism, income differentials among nations guarantee current-account equilibrium in a world of fixed exchange rates.

29. Keynesian theory asserts that, under a system of fixed exchange rates, the influence of income changes in surplus and deficit countries will automatically promote current-account equilibrium.

30. The Keynesian income-adjustment mechanism contends that a trade-surplus nation tends to realize falling income and falling imports, thus accentuating the trade surplus.

31. The foreign-trade multiplier equals the sum of the marginal propensity to import and the marginal propensity to save.

32. If the marginal propensity to save equals 0.2 and the marginal propensity to import equals 0.3, the foreign-trade multiplier equal 2.0.

33. For an open economy subject to international trade, equilibrium income occurs where saving plus investment equals imports plus exports.

34. If the marginal propensity to save equals 0.1 and the marginal propensity to import equals 0.3, an autonomous increase in exports of $1,000 would expand domestic income by $2,500 which leads to an increase in imports of $750.

35. If the marginal propensity to save equals 0.2 and the marginal propensity to import equals 0.3, an autonomous decrease in investment spending of $1 million leads to a $2 million decrease in domestic income and a $600,000 decrease in imports.

36. For the income adjustment mechanism to reverse a trade deficit, economic policymakers must be willing to permit domestic income to increase which leads to rising imports.

37. Reliance on an automatic adjustment process tends to be unacceptable in trade-deficit nations since it requires them to accept price deflation and/or falling income as a cost of reducing imports.

38. An “automatic” adjustment mechanism would require a trade-surplus nation to accept price deflation and/or falling income as the cost of increasing imports.

Figure 13.4. Canadian Economy Under a Fixed Exchange Rate System

39. Referring to Figure 13.4, Canada’s marginal propensity to save equals 0.25 and marginal propensity to import equal 0.5.

40. Referring to Figure 13.4, Canada’s foreign-trade multiplier equals 2.0.

41. Refer to Figure 13.4. Starting at equilibrium income $100 billion, where (S – I)0 intersects (X – M)0, an autonomous decrease in Canadian imports of $10 billion leads to a $20 billion decrease in income and a trade deficit of $5 billion.

42. Refer to Figure 13.4. Starting at equilibrium income $100 billion, where (S – I)0 intersects (X – M)0, an autonomous increase in Canadian investment of $10 billion leads to a $20 billion increase in income and no change in the country’s trade account.

43. Refer to Figure 13.4. Starting at equilibrium income $100 billion, where (S – I)0 intersects (X – M)0, an autonomous decrease in saving of $10 billion leads to a $20 billion increase in income and a trade deficit of $5 billion.

44. Refer to Figure 13.4. Starting at equilibrium income $100 billion, where (S – I)0 intersects (X – M)0, an autonomous decrease in Canadian exports of $10 billion leads to a $20 decrease in income and a trade deficit of $5 billion.

45. According to the monetary approach, balance-of-payments disequilibriums are the result of imbalances in a country’s money supply and money demand.

46. The monetary approach contends that, under a fixed exchange rate system, an excess supply of money leads to a trade surplus.

47. The monetary approach contends that, under a fixed exchange rate system, an excess demand for money leads to a trade deficit.

48. The monetary approach contends that, under a fixed exchange rate system, policies that increase the supply of money relative to the demand for money lead to a trade surplus.

SHORT ANSWER

1. Compared to classical economists, how did Keynesian economics change the discussion of trade adjustment?

2. What is the foreign repercussion effect?

ESSAY

1. Explain David Hume’s theory of automatic adjustment for balance of payments disequilibria.

2. Is the monetary approach to the balance-of-payments part of the traditional adjustment theories?

ECO 410 Week 8 Quiz – Strayer University New

ECO/410 Week 8 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 7 Chapter 13 and 14

Chapter 13

The Global Cost and Availability of Capital

13.1 Financial Globalization and Strategy

Multiple Choice

1) If a firm lies within a country with ________ or ________ domestic capital markets, it can achieve lower global cost and greater availability of capital with a properly designed and implemented strategy to participate in international capital markets.
A) liquid; segmented
B) liquid; large
C) illiquid; segmented
D) large; illiquid

2) Other things equal, a firm that must obtain its long-term debt and equity in a highly illiquid domestic securities market will probably have a:
A) relatively low cost of capital.
B) relatively high cost of capital.
C) relatively average cost of capital.
D) cost of capital that we cannot estimate from this question.

3) Relatively high costs of capital are more likely to occur in:
A) highly illiquid domestic securities markets.
B) highly liquid domestic securities markets.
C) unsegmented domestic securities markets.
D) none of the above

4) Reasons that firms may find themselves with relatively high costs of capital include:
A) The firms reside in emerging countries with undeveloped capital markets.
B) The firms are too small to easily gain access to their own national securities market.
C) The firms are family owned and they choose not to access public markets and lose control of the firm.
D) all of the above

5) Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to the segmentation of capital markets?
A) excessive regulatory control
B) perceived political risk
C) anticipated foreign exchange risk
D) All of the above are contributing factors.

6) Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to the segmentation of capital markets?
A) lack of transparency
B) asymmetric availability of information
C) insider trading
D) All of the above are contributing factors.

7) The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is:
A) the required rate of return for all of a firm’s capital investment projects.
B) the required rate of return for a firm’s average risk projects.
C) not applicable for use by MNE.
D) equal to 13%.

8) The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) is an approach:
A) to determine the price of equity capital.
B) used by marketers to determine the price of saleable product.
C) that can be applied only to domestic markets.
D) none of the above

9) Which of the following is NOT a key variable in the equation for the capital asset pricing model?
A) the risk-free rate of interest
B) the expected rate of return on the market portfolio
C) the marginal tax rate
D) All are important components of the CAPM.

10) ________ risk is a function of the variability of expected returns of the firm’s stock relative to the market index and the measure of correlation between the expected returns of the firm and the market.
A) Systematic
B) Unsystematic
C) Total
D) Diversifiable

11) Systematic risk:
A) is the standard deviation of a security’s return.
B) is measured with beta.
C) is measured with standard deviation.
D) none of the above

12) Which of the following is generally unnecessary in measuring the cost of debt?
A) a forecast of future interest rates
B) the proportions of the various classes of debt a firm proposes to use
C) the corporate income tax rate
D) All of the above are necessary for measuring the cost of debt.

13) The after-tax cost of debt is found by:
A) dividing the before-tax cost of debt by (1 – the corporate tax rate).
B) subtracting (1 – the corporate tax rate) from the before-tax cost of debt.
C) multiplying the before-tax cost of debt by (1 – the corporate tax rate).
D) subtracting the corporate tax rate from the before-tax cost of debt.

14) A firm whose equity has a beta of 1.0:
A) has greater systematic risk than the market portfolio.
B) stands little chance of surviving in the international financial market place.
C) has less systematic risk than the market portfolio.
D) None of the above is true.

15) The difference between the expected (or required) return for the market portfolio and the risk-free rate of return is referred to as:
A) beta.
B) the geometric mean.
C) the market risk premium.
D) the arithmetic mean.

16) In general the geometric mean will be ________ the arithmetic mean for a series of returns.
A) less than
B) greater than
C) equal to
D) greater than or equal to

17) The beginning share price for a security over a three-year period was $50. Subsequent year-end prices were $62, $58 and $64. The arithmetic average annual rate of return and the geometric average annual rate of return for this stock was:
A) 9.30% and 8.58% respectively.
B) 9.30% and 7.89% respectively.
C) 9.30% and 7.03% respectively.
D) 9.30% and 6.37% respectively.

18) If a company fails to accurately predict it’s cost of equity, then:
A) the firm’s wacc will also be inaccurate.
B) the firm may not be using the proper interest rate to estimate NPV.
C) the firm may incorrectly accept or reject projects based on decisions made using the cost of capital computed with an incorrect cost of equity.
D) All of the above are true.

19) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding beta?
A) Beta will have a value of less than 1.0 if the firm’s returns are less volatile than the market.
B) Beta will have a value of greater than 1.0 if the firm’s returns are more volatile than the market.
C) Beta will have a value of equal to 1.0 if the firm’s returns are of equal volatility to the market.
D) All of the statements above are true.

20) Which of the following will NOT affect a firm’s beta?
A) the choice of the market portfolio against which to compare the variability of a firm’s returns
B) the choice of the risk-free security
C) the choice of the time period used to calculate the firm’s beta
D) None of the above, because each of them affects the calculation of a firm’s beta.

True/False

1) A national securities market is segmented if the required rate of return on securities in that market differs from comparable securities traded in other, unsegmented markets.

2) Other things equal, an increase in the firm’s tax rate will increase the WACC for a firm that has both debt and equity financing.

3) If a firm’s expected returns are more volatile than the expected return for the market portfolio, it will have a beta less than 1.0.

4) The WACC is usually used as the risk-adjusted required rate of return for new projects that are of the same average risk as the firm’s existing projects.

5) One of the elegant beauties of international equity markets is that over the last 100 or so years, the average market risk premium is almost identical across major industrial countries.

6) Firms acquire debt in either the form of loans from commercial banks, or by selling new common stock.

7) When estimating an average corporate after-tax cost of capital, the component cost of equity is multiplied by (1-t) to allow for the tax-deductibility of dividend payments.

8) International CAPM (ICAPM) assumes that there is a global market in which the firm’s equity trades, and estimates of the firm’s beta, and the market risk premium, must then reflect this global portfolio.

9) Use of the International CAPM (ICAPM) assures that the WACC will be lower than if a purely domestic market portfolio had been used in the estimation of the cost of equity.

10) A global portfolio is an index of all the securities in the world, whereas a world portfolio represents those securities actually available to an investor.

11) The CAPM has now become very widely accepted in global business as the preferred method of calculating the cost of equity for a firm. As a result of this, there is now little debate over what numerical values should be used in its application.

12) The geometric mean will, in all but a few extreme circumstances, yield a larger return than the arithmetic mean return.

Essay

1) What are the components of the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) and how do they differ for an MNE compared to a purely domestic firm?

13.2 The Demand for Foreign Securities: The Role of International Portfolio Investors

Multiple Choice

1) The primary goal of both domestic and international portfolio managers is:
A) to maximize return for a given level of risk, or to minimize risk for a given level of return.
B) to minimize the number of unique securities held in their portfolio.
C) to maximize their WACC.
D) all of the above

2) Which of the following is NOT a portfolio diversification technique used by portfolio managers?
A) diversify by type of security
B) diversify by the size of capitalization of the securities held
C) diversify by country
D) All of the above are diversification techniques.

3) If all capital markets are fully integrated, securities of comparable expected return and risk should have the same required rate of return in each national market after adjusting for:
A) time of day and language requirements.
B) political risk and time lags.
C) foreign exchange risk and political risk.
D) foreign exchange risk and the spot rate.

4) Capital market segmentation is a financial market imperfection caused mainly by:
A) government constraints.
B) institutional practices.
C) investor perceptions.
D) all of the above

5) Capital market imperfections leading to financial market segmentation include:
A) asymmetric information between domestic and foreign-based investors.
B) high securities transaction costs.
C) foreign exchange risks.
D) all of the above

6) Capital market imperfections leading to financial market segmentation include:
A) political risks.
B) corporate governance differences.
C) regulatory barriers.
D) all of the above

7) The authors refer to companies that have access to a ________ as MNEs, and firms without such access are identified as ________.
A) global cost and availability of capital; domestic firms.
B) large domestic capital market; geographically challenged.
C) world financial markets; antiquated.
D) none of the above

8) The MNE can ________ its ________ by gaining access to markets that are more liquid and/or less segmented than its own.
A) increase; MCC.
B) decrease; MCC.
C) maintain; MRR.
D) none of the above

True/False

1) Internationally diversified portfolios often have a lower rate of return and almost always have a higher level of portfolio risk than their domestic counterparts.

2) Empirical tests of market efficiency fail to show that most major national markets are reasonably efficient.

3) A MNEs marginal cost of capital is constant for considerable ranges in its capital budget, but this statement cannot be made for most domestic firms.

4) Capital market segmentation is a financial market imperfection caused mainly by government constraints, institutional practices, and investor perceptions.

5) Since the 1980s and 1990s, segmentation in global financial markets has been reduced. As a result of this, the correlation among securities markets has increased, thereby reducing, but not eliminating, the benefits of international portfolio diversification.

13.3 The Cost of Capital for MNEs Compared to Domestic Firms

Multiple Choice

1) Theoretically, most MNEs should be in a position to support higher ________ than their domestic counterparts because their cash flows are diversified internationally.
A) equity ratios
B) debt ratios
C) temperatures
D) none of the above

2) According to your authors, diversifying cash flows internationally may help MNEs reduce the variability of cash flows because:
A) of a lack of competition among international firms.
B) of an offset to cash flow variability caused by exchange rate variability.
C) returns are not perfectly correlated between countries.
D) none of the above

3) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding MNEs when compared to purely domestic firms?
A) MNEs tend to rely more on short and intermediate term debt.
B) MNEs have greater foreign exchange risk.
C) MNEs have greater costs of asymmetric information.
D) MNEs have higher agency costs.

4) Empirical research has found that systematic risk for MNEs is greater than that for their domestic counterparts. This could be due to:
A) the fact that the increase in the correlation of returns between the market and the firm is less than the increase in the standard deviation of returns of the firm.
B) the fact that the decrease in the correlation of returns between the market and the firm is greater than the increase in the standard deviation of returns of the firm.
C) the reduction in the correlation of returns between the firm and the market is less than the increase in the variability of returns caused by factors such as asymmetric information, foreign exchange risk, and the like.
D) None of the above; systematic risk is less for MNEs than for their domestic counterparts.

5) The optimal capital budget:
A) occurs where the marginal cost of capital equals the marginal rate of return of the opportunity set of projects.
B) is typically larger for purely domestic firms than for MNEs.
C) is an illusion found only in international finance textbooks.
D) none of the above

6) Empirical studies indicate that MNEs have higher costs of capital than purely domestic firms. This could be due to higher levels of:
A) political risk.
B) exchange rate risk.
C) agency costs.
D) all of the above

7) Despite the theoretical elegance of this hypothesis, empirical studies have come to the opposite conclusion.Despite the favorable effect of international diversification of cash flows, bankruptcy risk was only about the same for MNEs as for domestic firms. However, MNEs faced higher costs for each of the following EXCEPT:
A) agency costs.
B) political risk.
C) asymmetric information.
D) In fact, each of these costs were higher for the MNE than for the domestic firm.

True/False

1) Because of the international diversification of cash flows, the risk of bankruptcy for MNEs is significantly lower than that for purely domestic firms.

2) The opportunity set of projects is typically smaller for MNEs than for purely domestic firms because international markets are typically specialized niches.

3) Surprisingly, empirical studies find that MNEs have a higher level of systematic risk than their domestic counterparts.

Essay

1) What do theory and empirical evidence say about capital structure and the cost of capital for MNEs versus their domestic counterparts?

13.4 The Riddle: Is the Cost of Capital Higher for MNEs?

Multiple Choice

1) Empirical studies indicate that WACC for an MNE is higher than for their domestic competitors. Reasons cited for this increased cost include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) agency costs.
B) foreign exchange risk.
C) political risk.
D) All of the above are cited as reasons for an MNE’s increased WACC.

True/False

1) Empirical studies indicate that MNEs have a lower debt/capital ratio than domestic counterparts, indicating that MNEs have a lower cost of capital.

Chapter 14 Raising Equity and Debt Globally

14.1 Designing a Strategy to Source Capital Globally

Multiple Choice

1) The choice of when and how to source capital globally is usually aided early on by the advice of:
A) an investment banker.
B) your stock broker.
C) a commercial banker.
D) an underwriter.

2) Investment banking services include which of the following?
A) advising when a security should be cross-listed
B) preparation of stock prospectuses
C) help to determine the price of the issue
D) all of the above

3) Which of the following is the typical order of sourcing capital abroad?
A) an international bond issue, then cross listing the outstanding issues on other exchanges, then an international bond issue in the target market
B) an international bond issue in the target market, then cross listing the outstanding issues on other exchanges, then an international bond issue
C) an international bond issue in less prestigious markets, then an international bond issue in the target market, and ultimately a eurobond issue
D) cross listing the outstanding issues on other exchanges, then an international bond issue, then an international bond issue in the target market

4) By cross listing and selling its shares on a foreign stock exchange, a firm typically tries to accomplish which of the following?
A) improve the liquidity of its existing shares
B) increase its share price
C) increase the firm’s visibility
D) all of the above

True/False

1) Most firms raise their initial capital in foreign markets.

14.2 Optimal Financial Structure

Multiple Choice

1) Which financial economists are most closely associated with the financial theory of optimal capital structure?
A) Modigliani and Miller
B) Fama, Fisher, Jensen, and Roll
C) Black and Scholes
D) Markowitz and Sharpe

2) For most firms, the cost of capital decreases to a low point as the firm ________ debt financing. At some point beyond this optimal level, the cost of capital increases as the amount of debt ________.
A) decreases; increases
B) decreases; decreases
C) increases; increases
D) increases; decreases

3) One of the most important factors in making debt less expensive than equity is:
A) the tax deductibility of depreciation.
B) the tax deductibility of equity.
C) the tax deductibility of dividends.
D) the tax deductibility of interest.

4) One of the most important factors in making debt less expensive than equity is:
A) the seniority of equity obligations to debt claims.
B) the tax deductibility of dividends.
C) the tax deductibility of equity.
D) the seniority of debt obligations to equity claims.

5) Which of the following is NOT a factor offsetting the tax advantage of debt as a source of financing?
A) increased agency costs
B) increased probability of financial distress (bankruptcy) due to fixed interest payments
C) alternative tax shields to those supplied by interest payments
D) All of the above offset the tax advantage of debt as a source of financing.

6) Most financial theorists believe that the optimal capital structure is a ________ with a debt to total value ratio somewhere around ________.
A) point; 50%
B) point; 25%
C) range; 30%-60%
D) range; 10%-40%

7) Not all firms have the same optimal capital structure. Factors that might influence a firm’s capital structure include:
A) the industry in which it operates.
B) the volatility of its sales and operating income.
C) the collateral value of its assets.
D) all of the above

8) MNEs situated in countries with small illiquid and segmented markets are most like:
A) small domestic U.S. firms in that they must rely on internally generated funds and bank borrowing.
B) large U.S. MNEs in that they are all MNEs and have worldwide markets and sources of financing.
C) small domestic U.S. firms in that they have a strong niche market in the U.S.
D) None of the above is true.

9) In theory, the MNE should support ________ debt ratios than a purely domestic firm because their cash flows are ________.
A) lower; more stable due to international diversification
B) lower; less stable due to international diversification
C) higher; more stable due to international diversification
D) higher; less stable due to international diversification

10) TropiKana Inc., a U.S firm, has just borrowed $1,000,000 to make improvements to an Italian fruit plantation and processing plant. If the interest rate is 6.00% per year, how much interest will they pay in the first year?
A) $6,000
B) $60,000
C) $600,000
D) €60,000

11) TropiKana Inc., a U.S firm, has just borrowed euro 1,000,000 to make improvements to an Italian fruit plantation and processing plant. If the interest rate is 5.50% per year and the Euro depreciates against the dollar from $1.40/€ at the time the loan was made to $1.35/€ at the end of the first year, how much interest will TropiKana pay at the end of the first year (rounded)?
A) $55,000
B) €74,250
C) $74,250
D) $77,000

12) TropiKana Inc., a U.S firm, has just borrowed euro 1,000,000 to make improvements to an Italian fruit plantation and processing plant. If the interest rate is 5.50% per year and the Euro appreciates against the dollar from $1.40/€ at the time the loan was made to $1.45/€ at the end of the first year, how much interest will TropiKana pay at the end of the first year (rounded)?
A) $55,000
B) $79,750
C) $77,000
D) $37,931

13) TropiKana Inc., a U.S firm, has just borrowed euro 1,000,000 to make improvements to an Italian fruit plantation and processing plant. If the interest rate is 5.50% per year and the Euro appreciates against the dollar from $1.40/€ at the time the loan was made to $1.45/€ at the end of the first year, how much interest and principle will TropiKana pay at the end of the first year if they repay the entire loan plus interest (rounded)?
A) $1,529,750
B) €1,529,750
C) $1,055,000
D) $1,477,000

14) TropiKana Inc., a U.S firm, has just borrowed euro 1,000,000 to make improvements to an Italian fruit plantation and processing plant. If the interest rate is 5.50% per year and the Euro depreciates against the dollar from $1.40/€ at the time the loan was made to $1.35/€ at the end of the first year, how much interest and principle will TropiKana pay at the end of the first year if they repay the entire loan plus interest (rounded)?
A) $1,477,000
B) $1,055,000
C) €1,424,250
D) $1,424,250

15) TropiKana Inc., a U.S firm, has just borrowed euro 1,000,000 to make improvements to an Italian fruit plantation and processing plant. If the interest rate is 5.50% per year and the Euro appreciates against the dollar from $1.40/€ at the time the loan was made to $1.45/€ at the end of the first year, what is the before tax cost of capital if the firm repays the entire loan plus interest (rounded)?
A) 1.73%
B) 5.50%
C) 10.50%
D) 9.27%

True/False

1) Financial theory has at last provided us with a single optimal capital structure for domestic firms.

2) Financial practice suggests that there is a range for an optimal capital structure for a firm within an industry rather than a specific optimal ratio of debt to equity.

3) In part because of access to global markets, MNEs are better able than their domestic counterparts to maintain their desired debt ratio even when raising new capital.

4) When a firm borrows in a foreign currency, the effective cost is the foreign interest rate plus an adjustment for changes in the exchange rate.

5) The domestic theory of optimal capital structure does not need to be modified for MNEs.

6) Portfolio diversification of domestic firms reduces risk because cash flows are not perfectly correlated. The same reasoning is often argued for MNEs diversifying into international markets.

7) A significant advantage of borrowing foreign currency-denominated bonds is that the borrower need not worry about relative changes in the value of the home currency.

8) For firms to raise capital in international markets, it is more important to adhere to capital structure ratios similar to those found in the United States and United Kingdom than to those in the firm’s home country.

14.3 Raising Equity Globally

Multiple Choice

1) The stock exchange with the greatest value of shares traded is:
A) NYSE.
B) Tokyo.
C) Nasdaq.
D) London.

2) The number of foreign firms traded on the London exchange is ________ than the number traded on the NYSE, and the costs of listing and disclosure in London are ________ those for the NYSE.
A) less than; less than
B) less than; greater than
C) greater than; less than
D) greater than; greater than

True/False

1) The Tokyo exchange is the number one choice of firms looking to gain liquidity by cross-listing their equity securities.

2) The least liquid stock markets as identified by the authors offer little liquidity for their own domestic firms, and are of little value to foreign firms.

14.4 Depositary Receipts

Multiple Choice

1) ________ are negotiable certificates issued by a bank to represent the underlying shares of stock, which are held in trust at a foreign custodian bank.
A) Negotiable CDs
B) International mutual funds
C) Depositary receipts
D) Eurodeposits

2) Depositary receipts traded outside the United States are called ________ depositary receipts.
A) Euro
B) Global
C) American
D) none of the above

3) Each ADR represents ________ of the shares of the underlying foreign stock.
A) a multiple
B) 100
C) 1
D) ADRs have nothing to do with foreign stocks.

4) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of ADRs to U.S. shareholders?
A) Transfer of ownership is done in the U.S. in accordance with U.S. laws.
B) In the event of the death of the shareholder, the estate does not go through a foreign court.
C) Settlement for trading is generally faster in the United States.
D) All of the above are advantages of ADRs.

5) ADRs that are created at the request of a foreign firm wanting its shares traded in the United States are:
A) facilitated.
B) unfacilitated.
C) sponsored.
D) unsponsored.

6) Who pays the costs of creating a sponsored ADR?
A) the foreign firm whose stocks underlie the ADR
B) the U.S. bank creating the ADR
C) both the U.S. bank and the foreign firm
D) the SEC since they require the regulation

7) Level I ADRs trade primarily:
A) on the New York Stock Exchange.
B) on the American Stock Exchange.
C) over the counter or pink sheets.
D) Level I ADRs typically do not trade at all, but instead are privately issued and held until maturity.

8) Level II ADRs must meet:
A) U.S. GAAP standards.
B) home country accounting standards.
C) both U.S. GAAP and home country standards.
D) none of the above

9) Level ________ is the easiest standard to satisfy for issuing ADRs.
A) 144a
B) III
C) II
D) I

10) Level III ADR commitment applies to:
A) firms that want to list existing shares on the NYSE.
B) banks issuing foreign mutual funds.
C) ADR issues of under $25,000.
D) the sale of a new equity issued in the United States.

True/False

1) ADRs cannot be exchanged for the underlying shares of the foreign stock, therefore, arbitrage cannot keep the prices in line with the foreign price of the stock.

2) An unsponsored ADR may be initiated without the approval of the foreign firm with the underlying stock.

3) ADRs are considered an effective way for firms to improve the liquidity of their stock, especially if the home market is small and illiquid.

Essay

1) ADRs are a popular investment tool for many U.S. investors. In recent years several alternatives for investing in foreign equity securities have become available for U.S. investors, yet ADRs remain popular. Define what an ADR is and provide at least three examples of the advantages they may hold over alternative foreign investment vehicles for U.S. investors.

14.5 Private Placement

Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following were NOT identified by the authors as an alternative instrument to source equity in global markets?
A) sale of a directed public share issue to investors in a target market
B) private placements under SEC rule 144a
C) sale of shares to private equity funds
D) All of the above are alternatives to source equity instruments.

2) A/An ________ is defined as one that is targeted at investors in a single country and underwritten in whole or part by investment institutions from that country.
A) SEC rule 144a placement
B) directed public share issue
C) Euroequity public issue
D) strategic alliance

3) The term “euro” as used in the euro equity market implies:
A) the issuers are located in Europe.
B) the investors are located in Europe.
C) both A and B
D) none of the above

4) Private equity funds (PEF) differ from traditional venture capital (VC) funds in that:
A) VC operates mainly in lesser-developed countries while PEF do not.
B) VC typically invests in family business whereas PEF do not.
C) VC is almost unavailable to emerging markets while PEF capital is available.
D) All of the above are true.

5) Strategic alliances are normally formed by firms that expect to gain synergies from which of the following?
A) economies of scale
B) economies of scope
C) complementary marketing
D) all of the above

True/False

1) SEC rule 144A permits institutional buyers to trade privately placed securities without the previous holding periods restrictions and without requiring SEC registration.

14.6 Foreign Equity Listing and Issuance

Multiple Choice

1) Your authors note several empirical studies that have found:
A) no share price effect for foreign firms that cross-list on major U.S. exchanges.
B) a positive share price effect for foreign firms that cross-list on major U.S. exchanges.
C) a negative share price effect for foreign firms that cross-list on major U.S. exchanges.
D) none of the above

2) Empirical evidence shows that new issues of equity by domestic firms in the U.S. market typically has a ________ stock price reaction and new equity issues in the U.S. markets by foreign firms with segmented domestic markets have a ________ stock price reaction.
A) negative; negative
B) positive; negative
C) negative; positive
D) positive; positive

3) In addition to gaining liquidity, which of the following could also be considered a legitimate reason for cross-listing equity?
A) enhance a firm’s local image
B) become more familiar with the local financial community
C) get better local press coverage
D) all of the above

4) Another school of thought about the worldwide trend toward fuller and more standardized disclosure rules is that the cost of U.S. level equity capital disclosure:
A) chases away potential listers of equity.
B) is an onerous costly burden.
C) leads to fewer foreign firms cross listing in U.S. equity markets.
D) all of the above

5) According to the U.S. school of thought, the worldwide trend toward fuller and more standardized disclosure rules should ________ the cost of equity capital.
A) increase
B) decrease
C) have no impact on
D) none of the above

6) For the most part, U.S. SEC disclosure requirements are ________ other, non-U.S. equity market rules.
A) more stringent than
B) less stringent than
C) equally stringent to
D) none of the above

True/False

1) The combined impact of a new equity issue undertaken simultaneously with a cross-listing has a more favorable impact on stock price than cross-listing alone.

2) Because of stringent SEC rules, American companies typically do not find foreign disclosure rules to be overly onerous.

Essay

1) What are the two schools of thought regarding the worldwide trend toward increased financial disclosure by publicly traded firms. Explain which school of thought you hold to and why.

14.7 Raising Debt Globally

Multiple Choice

1) ________ are domestic currencies of one country on deposit in a second country.
A) LIBORs
B) Eurocurrencies
C) Federal funds
D) Discount window deposits

2) Of the following, which was NOT cited by the authors as a valuable function provided by the Eurocurrency market?
A) Eurocurrency deposits are an efficient and convenient money market device for holding excess corporate liquidity.
B) Eurocurrency deposits are a tool used by the Federal Reserve to regulate the money supply of countries that peg their currency against the U.S. dollar.
C) The Eurocurrency market is a major source of short-term bank loans to finance corporate working capital needs.
D) All of the above were cited by the authors.

3) Eurobanks are:
A) banks where Eurocurrencies are deposited.
B) major world banks that conduct a Eurocurrency business in addition to normal banking activities.
C) financial intermediaries that simultaneously bid for time deposits in and make loans in a currency other than that of the currency of where it is located.
D) All of the above are descriptions of a Eurobank.

4) Eurocredits are:
A) bank loans to MNEs and others denominated in a currency other than that of the country where the bank is located.
B) typically variable rate and tied to the LIBOR.
C) usually for maturities of six months or less.
D) All of the above are true.

5) In general, which has the shorter maturity and is more appropriate for funding short-term inventory needs?
A) commercial paper
B) Euro-Medium-Term notes (EMTNs)
C) the international bond market
D) all of the above

6) Foreign bonds sold in the United States are nicknamed “Yankee bonds,” foreign bonds sold in Japan are called “Samurai bonds.” What are foreign bonds sold in the United Kingdom nicknamed?
A) “Union Jacks”
B) “Royalty”
C) “Bulldogs”
D) “Churchill’s”

7) A ________ is a bond underwritten by a syndicate from a single country, sold within in that country, denominated in that country’s currency, but the issuer is from outside that country.
A) foreign bond
B) Eurobond
C) domestic bond
D) none of the above

True/False

1) Eurocurrencies are NOT the same as the euro developed for the common European currency.

2) The Eurocurrency market continues to thrive because it is a large international money market relatively free of governmental regulation and interference.

3) Moody’s rates international bonds at the request of the issuer with the stipulation that Moody’s will publish the ratings even if the ratings are unfavorable.

Essay

1) The Euro-medium-term-note (EMTN) has filled a substantial niche market in global financing. What are the distinguishing characteristics of the EMTN and why is it such a popular form of financing for MNEs?

ECO 305 Week 8 Quiz – Strayer University New

ECO/305 Week 8 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 7 Chapter 10 and 11

CHAPTER 10

THE BALANCE OF PAYMENTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. On the balance-of-payments statements, merchandise imports are classified in the:
a. Current account
b. Capital account
c. Unilateral transfer account
d. Official settlements account

2. The balance of international indebtedness is a record of a country’s international:
a. Investment position over a period of time
b. Investment position at a fixed point in time
c. Trade position over a period of time
d. Trade position at a fixed point in time

3. Which balance-of-payments item does not directly enter into the calculation of the U.S. gross domestic product?
a. Merchandise imports
b. Shipping and transportation receipts
c. Direct foreign investment
d. Service exports

4. Which of the following is considered a capital inflow?
a. A sale of U.S. financial assets to a foreign buyer
b. A loan from a U.S. bank to a foreign borrower
c. A purchase of foreign financial assets by a U.S. buyer
d. A U.S. citizen’s repayment of a loan from a foreign bank

5. Which of the following would call for inpayments to the United States?
a. American imports of German steel
b. Gold flowing out of the United States
c. American unilateral transfers to less-developed countries
d. American firms selling insurance to British shipping companies

6. In a country’s balance of payments, which of the following transactions are debits?
a. Domestic bank balances owned by foreigners are decreased
b. Foreign bank balances owned by domestic residents are decreased
c. Assets owned by domestic residents are sold to nonresidents
d. Securities are sold by domestic residents to nonresidents

7. Which of the following is classified as a credit in the U.S. balance of payments?
a. U.S. exports
b. U.S. gifts to other countries
c. A flow of gold out of the U.S.
d. Foreign loans made by U.S. companies

Table 10.1 gives hypothetical figures for U.S. International Transactions.

Table 10.1. U.S. International Transactions

Amount
Transaction (billions of dollars)

Merchandise imports 110
Military transactions, net -5
Remittances, pensions, transfers -20
U.S. private assets abroad -50
Merchandise exports 115
Investment income, net 15
U.S. government grants -5
(excluding military)
Foreign private assets in the U.S. 25
Compensation of employees -5
Allocation of SDRs 5
Travel and transportation receipts, net 20

8. Referring to Table 10.1, the goods and services balance equals:
a. $5 billion
b. $15 billion
c. $20 billion
d. $25 billion

9. Referring to Table 10.1, the current account balance equals:
a. $5 billion
b. $10 billion
c. $15 billion
d. $20 billion

10. Unlike the balance of payments, the balance of international indebtedness indicates the international:
a. Investment position of a country at a given moment in time
b. Investment position of a country over a one-year period
c. Trade position of a country at a given moment in time
d. Trade position of a country over a one-year period

11. Which of the following indicates the international investment position of a country at a given moment in time?
a. The balance of payments
b. The capital account of the balance of payments
c. The current account of the balance of payments
d. The balance of international indebtedness

12. Concerning the U.S. balance of payments, which account is defined in essentially the same way as the net export of goods and services, which comprises part of the country’s gross domestic product?
a. Merchandise trade account
b. Goods and services account
c. Current account
d. Capital account

13. If an American receives dividends from the shares of stock she or he owns in Toyota, Inc., a Japanese firm, the transaction would be recorded on the U.S. balance of payments as a:
a. Capital account debit
b. Capital account credit
c. Current account debit
d. Current account credit

14. If the United States government sells military hardware to Saudi Arabia, the transaction would be recorded on the U.S. balance of payments as a:
a. Current account debit
b. Current account credit
c. Capital account debit
d. Capital account credit

15. The U.S. balance of trade is determined by:
a. Exchange rates
b. Growth of economies overseas
c. Relative prices in world markets
d. All of the above

16. U.S. military aid granted to foreign countries is entered in the:
a. Merchandise trade account
b. Capital account
c. Current account
d. Official settlements account

17. If the U.S. faces a balance-of-payments deficit on the current account, it must run a surplus on:
a. The official settlements account
b. The capital account
c. Either the official settlements account or the capital account
d. Both the official settlements account and the capital account

18. The current account of the U.S. balance of payments does not include:
a. Investment income
b. Merchandise exports and imports
c. The sale of securities to foreigners
d. Unilateral transfers

19. The U.S. has a balance of trade deficit when its:
a. Merchandise exports exceed its merchandise imports
b. Merchandise imports exceed its merchandise exports
c. Goods and services exports exceed its goods and services imports
d. Goods and services imports exceed its goods and services exports

20. The value to American residents of income earned from overseas investments shows up in which account in the U.S. balance of payments?
a. Current account
b. Trade account
c. Unilateral transfers account
d. Capital account

Table 10.2. International Investment Position of the United States

U.S. assets abroad
U.S. government assets $800 billion
U.S. private assets $200 billion

Foreign assets in the U.S.
Foreign official assets $600 billion
Foreign private assets $300 billion

21. Consider Table 10.2. The U.S. balance of international indebtedness suggests that the United States is a net:
a. Debtor
b. Creditor
c. Spender
d. Exporter

22. For the first time since World War I, in 1985 the United States became a net international:
a. Exporter
b. Importer
c. Debtor
d. Creditor

23. A country that is a net international debtor initially experiences:
a. An augmented savings pool available to finance domestic spending
b. A higher interest rate, which leads to lower domestic investment
c. A loss of funds to trading partners overseas
d. A decrease in its services exports to other countries

24. Credit (+) items in the balance of payments correspond to anything that:
a. Involves receipts from foreigners
b. Involves payments to foreigners
c. Decreases the domestic money supply
d. Increases the demand for foreign exchange

25. Debt (-) items in the balance of payments correspond to anything that:
a. Involves receipts from foreigners
b. Involves payments to foreigners
c. Increases the domestic money supply
d. Decreases the demand for foreign exchange

26. When all of the debit or credit items in the balance of payments are combined:
a. Merchandise imports equal merchandise exports
b. Capital imports equal capital exports
c. Services exports equal services imports
d. The total surplus or deficit equals zero

27. In the balance of payments, the statistical discrepancy is used to:
a. Ensure that the sum of all debits matches the sum of all credits
b. Ensure that trade imports equal the value of trade exports
c. Obtain an accurate account of a balance-of-payments deficit
d. Obtain an accurate account of a balance-of-payments surplus

28. All of the following are credit items in the balance of payments, except:
a. Investment inflows
b. Merchandise exports
c. Payments for American services to foreigners
d. Private gifts to foreign residents

29. All of the following are debit items in the balance of payments, except:
a. Capital outflows
b. Merchandise exports
c. Private gifts to foreigners
d. Foreign aid granted to other nations

30. The role of ____ is to direct one nation’s savings into another nation’s investments:
a. Merchandise trade flows
b. Services flows
c. Current account flows
d. Capital flows

31. When a country realizes a deficit on its current account:
a. Its net foreign investment position becomes positive
b. It becomes a net demander of funds from other countries
c. It realizes an excess of imports over exports on goods and services
d. It becomes a net supplier of funds to other countries

32. Reducing a current account deficit requires a country to:
a. Increase private saving relative to investment
b. Increase private consumption relative to saving
c. Increase private investment relative to consumption
d. Increase private investment relative to saving

33. Reducing a current account deficit requires a country to:
a. Increase the government’s deficit and increase private investment relative to saving
b. Increase the government’s deficit and decrease private investment relative to saving
c. Decrease the government’s deficit increase private investment relative to saving
d. Decrease the government’s deficit and decrease private investment relative to saving

34. Reducing a current account surplus requires a country to:
a. Increase the government’s deficit and increase private investment relative to saving
b. Increase the government’s deficit and decrease private investment relative to saving
c. Decrease the government’s deficit and increase private investment relative to saving
d. Decrease the government’s deficit and decrease private investment relative to saving

35. Concerning a country’s business cycle, rapid growth of production and employment is commonly associated with:
a. Large or growing trade deficits and current account deficits
b. Large or growing trade deficits and current account surpluses
c. Small or shrinking trade deficits and current account deficits
d. Small or shrinking trade deficits and current account surpluses

36. The burden of a current account deficit would be the least if a nation uses what it borrows to finance:
a. Unemployment compensation benefits
b. Social Security benefits
c. Expenditures on food and recreation
d. Investment on plant and equipment

37. Concerning a country’s business cycle, ____ is commonly associated with large or growing current account deficits:
a. Rapid growth rates of production and employment
b. Slow growth rates of production and employment
c. Falling interest rates on government securities
d. Falling interest rates on corporate securities

38. According to researchers at the Federal Reserve, the loss of jobs associated with a deficit in the current account tends to be:
a. Offset by the increase of jobs associated with a surplus in the capital account
b. Reinforced by the decrease of jobs associated with a surplus in the capital account
c. A threat to the level of employment for the economy as a whole
d. Of no long-run economic consequence for workers who lose their jobs

TRUE/FALSE

Table 10.3 shows hypothetical transactions, in billions of U.S. dollars, that took place during a year.

Table 10.3. International Transactions of the United States

Amount
(billions of dollars)
Transaction

Allocation of SDRs 10
Changes in U.S. assets abroad 100
Statistical discrepancy -15
Merchandise imports -400
Payments on foreign assets in U.S. -20
Remittances, pensions, transfers -60
Travel and transportation receipts, net 30
Military transactions, net -10
Investment income, net 100
Merchandise exports 350
U.S. government grants (excluding military) -20
Changes in foreign assets in the U.S. 190
Other services, net 80
Receipts on U.S. investments abroad 30
Compensation of employees -10

1. Refer to Table 10.3. The merchandise-trade balance registered a deficit of $50 billion.

2. Refer to Table 10.3. The services balance registered a surplus of $100 billion.

3. Refer to Table 10.3. The goods-and-services balance registered a surplus of $50 billion.

4. Refer to Table 10.3. The unilateral-transfers balance registered a deficit of $40 billion.

5. Refer to Table 10.3. The current-account balance registered a surplus of $30 billion.

6. Refer to Table 10.3. The “net exports” component of the U.S. gross domestic product registered $-110 billion.

7. Refer to Table 10.3. The payments data suggest that the United States was a “net demander” of $30 billion from the rest of the world.

8. The balance of payments refers to the stock of trade and investment transactions that exists at a particular point in time.

9. Referring to the balance-of-payments statement, an international transaction refers to the exchange of goods, services, and assets between residents of one country and those abroad.

10. The balance of payments includes international transactions of households and businesses, but not government.

11. Because the balance of payments utilizes double-entry accounting, merchandise exports will always be in balance with merchandise imports.

12. On the U.S. balance-of-payments statement, the following transactions are credits, leading to the receipt of dollars from foreigners: merchandise exports, transportation receipts, income received from investments abroad, and investments in the United States by foreign residents.

13. On the U.S. balance of payments, the following transactions are debits, leading to payments to foreigners: merchandise imports, travel expenditures, gifts to foreign residents, and overseas investments by U.S. residents.

14. The “goods and services” account of the balance of payments shows the monetary value of international flows associated with transactions in goods, services, and unilateral transfers.

15. An increase in import restrictions by the U.S. government tends to promote a merchandise-trade surplus.

16. Services transactions on Canada’s balance-of-payments statement would include Canadian ships transporting lumber to Japan, foreign tourists spending money in Canada, and Canadian engineers designing bridges in China.

17. On the balance-of-payments statement, dividend and interest income are classified as capital-account transactions.

18. A surplus on Germany’s goods-and-services balance indicates that Germany has sold more goods and services to foreigners than it has bought from them over a one-year period.

19. The merchandise-trade account on the balance-of-payments statement is defined the same way as “net exports” which constitutes part of the nation’s gross domestic product.

20. A positive balance on the goods-and-services account of the balance of payments indicates an excess of exports over imports which must be added to the nation’s gross domestic product.

21. For the United States, merchandise trade has generally constituted the largest portion of its goods-and-services account.

22. Unilateral transfers refer to two-sided transactions, reflecting the movement of goods and services in one direction with corresponding payments in the other direction.

23. Unilateral transfers consist of private-sector transfers, such as church contributions to alleviate starvation in Africa, as well as governmental transfers, such as foreign aid.

24. Current-account transactions include direct foreign investment, purchases of foreign government securities, and commercial bank loans made abroad.

25. On the U.S. balance-of-payments statement, a capital inflow would occur if a Swiss resident purchases the securities of the U.S. government.

26. If Toyota Inc. of Japan builds an automobile assembly plant in the United States, the Japanese capital account would register an outflow.

27. If Bank of America receives repayment for a loan it made to a Mexican firm, the U.S. capital account would register an inflow.

28. On the balance-of-payments statement, a capital inflow can be likened to the import of goods and services.

29. The capital account of the balance of payments includes private-sector transactions as well as official-settlements transactions of the home country’s central bank.

30. If the current account of the balance of payments registers a deficit, the capital account registers a surplus, and vice versa.

31. Concerning the balance of payments, a current-account surplus means an excess of exports over imports of goods, services, investment income, and unilateral transfers.

32. If a country realizes a current-account deficit in its balance of payments, it becomes a net supplier of funds to the rest of the world.

33. Concerning the balance of payments, a current-account deficit results in a worsening of a country’s net foreign investment position.

34. In the balance-of-payments statement, statistical discrepancy is treated as part of the merchandise trade account because merchandise transactions are generally the most frequent source of error.

35. Because a large number of international transactions fail to get recorded, statisticians insert a residual, known as statistical discrepancy, to ensure that total debits equal total credits.

36. Concerning the balance of payments, the goods-and-services balance is commonly referred to as the “trade balance” by the news media.

37. Since the 1970s, the merchandise trade account of the U.S. balance of payments has registered deficit.

38. Although the United States has realized merchandise trade deficits since the early 1970s, its goods-and-services balance has always registered surplus.

39. In the past two decades, the U.S. services balance has generally registered surplus.

40. The U.S. unilateral-transfers balance has consistently registered surplus in the past two decades.

41. Because the balance of payments is a record of the economic transactions of a country over a period of time, it is a “flow” concept.

42. The United States would be a “net creditor” if the value of U.S. assets abroad exceeded the value of foreign assets in the United States.

43. If a country consistently realizes a current-account surplus in its balance of payments, it likely will become a “net debtor” in its balance of international indebtedness.

44. By the mid-1980s, the United States had evolved from the status of a net-creditor nation to a net-debtor nation in its balance of international indebtedness.

45. The net-debtor status, that the United States achieved in its balance of international indebtedness by the mid-1980s, reflected the continuous current-account surplus that the United States attained in its balance of payments during the 1970s.

46. Although a net-debtor country may initially benefit from an inflow of savings from abroad, over the long run continued borrowing results in growing dividend payments to foreigners and a drain on the debtor-country’s economic resources.

47. The official reserve assets of the United States consist of holdings of gold and foreign corporate securities.

48. That U.S. importers purchase bananas from Brazil constitutes a debit transaction on the U.S. balance of payments.

49. That German investors collect interest income on their holdings of U.S. Treasury bills constitutes a credit transaction on the U.S. balance of payments.

50. That U.S. charities donate funds to combat starvation in Africa constitutes a debit transaction on the U.S. balance of payments.

51. To reduce a current account deficit, a country should either decrease the budget deficit of its government or reduce investment spending relative to saving.

52. Most economists belief that in the 1980s, a massive outflow of capital caused a current account deficit for the United States.

53. A current account deficit for the United States necessarily reduces the standard of living for American households.

54. Rapid growth of production and employment is commonly associated with large or growing trade surpluses and current account surpluses.

55. Often, countries realizing rapid economic growth rates possess long-run current account deficits.

56. For the United States, a consequence of its current account deficit is a growing foreign ownership of the capital stock of the United States and a rising fraction of U.S. income that must be diverted abroad in the form of interest and dividends to foreigners.

57. Most economists contend that any reduction in the current account deficit is better achieved through increased national saving than through reduced domestic investment.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What are the components of the current account of the balance of payments?

2. Concerning the balance of international indebtedness, when is a country a net creditor or a net debtor?

ESSAY

1. How do we measure the international investment position of the United States at any point in time? How did the U.S. become a net debtor nation so rapidly?

2. What does a current account deficit mean?

CHAPTER 11—FOREIGN EXCHANGE

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Assume you are an American exporter and expect to receive 50 pounds sterling at the end of 60 days. You can remove the risk of loss due to a devaluation of the pound sterling by:
a. Selling sterling in the forward market for 60-day delivery
b. Buying sterling now and selling it at the end of 60 days
c. Selling the dollar equivalent in the forward market for 60-day delivery
d. Keeping the sterling in Britain after it is delivered to you

2. Which of the following tends to cause the U.S. dollar to appreciate in value?
a. An increase in U.S. prices above foreign prices
b. Rapid economic growth in foreign countries
c. A fall in U.S. interest rates below foreign levels
d. An increase in the level of U.S. income

3. Concerning the covering of exchange market risks–assuming that a depreciation of the domestic currency is anticipated, one can say that there is an incentive for:
a. Exporters to rush to cover their future needs
b. Importers to rush to cover their future needs
c. Both exporters and importers to rush to cover their future needs
d. Neither exporters nor importers to rush to cover their future needs

4. When short-term interest rates become lower in Tokyo than in New York, interest arbitrage operations will most likely result in a:
a. Increase in the spot price of the yen
b. Increase in the forward price of the dollar
c. Sale of dollars in the forward market
d. Purchase of yen in the spot market

5. An appreciation in the value of the U.S. dollar against the British pound would tend to:
a. Discourage the British from buying American goods
b. Discourage Americans from buying British goods
c. Increase the number of dollars that could be bought with a pound
d. Discourage U.S. tourists from traveling to Britain

6. Concerning the foreign exchange market, one can best say that:
a. There is a spot market for virtually every currency in the world
b. The market is highly centralized like the stock exchange
c. Most foreign exchange payments are made with bank notes
d. The values of the forward and spot rates are always in agreement

7. Suppose researchers discover that Swiss beer causes cancer when given in large amounts to British mice. This finding would likely result in a (an):
a. Increase in the demand for Swiss francs
b. Decrease in the demand for Swiss francs
c. Increase in the supply of Swiss francs
d. Decrease in the supply of Swiss francs

8. Suppose that real incomes increase more rapidly in the United States than in Mexico. In the United States, this situation would likely result in a (an):
a. Increase in the demand for pesos
b. Decrease in the demand for pesos
c. Increase in the supply of pesos
d. Decrease in the supply of pesos

9. A depreciation of the dollar refers to:
a. A fall in the dollar price of foreign currency
b. An increase in the dollar price of foreign currency
c. A loss of foreign-exchange reserves for the U.S.
d. An intervention in the international money market

10. If Canadian speculators believed the Swiss franc was going to appreciate against the U.S. dollar, they would:
a. Purchase Canadian dollars
b. Purchase U.S. dollars
c. Purchase Swiss francs
d. Sell Swiss francs

11. A major difference between the spot market and the forward market is that the spot market deals with:
a. The immediate delivery of currencies
b. The merchandise trade account
c. Currencies traded for future delivery
d. Hedging of international currency risks

12. The exchange rate is kept the same in all parts of the market by:
a. Forward cover
b. Hedging
c. Exchange speculation
d. Exchange arbitrage

13. If you have a commitment to pay a friend in Britain 1,000 pounds in 30 days, you could remove the risk of loss due to the appreciation of the pound by:
a. Buying dollars in the forward market for delivery in 30 days
b. Selling dollars in the forward market for delivery in 30 days
c. Buying the pounds in the forward market for delivery in 30 days
d. Selling the pounds in the forward market for delivery in 30 days

14. An increase in the dollar price of other currencies tends to cause:
a. U.S. goods to be cheaper than foreign goods
b. U.S. goods to be more expensive than foreign goods
c. Foreign goods to be more expensive to residents of foreign nations
d. Foreign goods to be cheaper to residents of the United States

15. The balance on merchandise trade:
a. Must be negative
b. Must be positive
c. Must be zero
d. May be negative, positive, or zero

16. Which of the following would not induce the U.S. demand curve for foreign exchange to shift backward to the left?
a. Worsening American tastes for goods produced overseas
b. Increasing interest rates in the U.S. compared to those overseas
c. A fall in the level of U.S. income
d. A depreciation in the U.S. dollar against foreign currencies

17. A U.S. export company scheduled to receive 1 million pounds six months from today can hedge its foreign exchange risk by:
a. Buying today 1 million pounds in the forward market for delivery in six months
b. Buying 1 million pounds in the spot market for delivery in six months
c. Selling 1 million pounds in the spot market for delivery in six months
d. Selling today 1 million pounds in the forward market for delivery in six months

18. Over time, a depreciation in the value of a nation’s currency in the foreign exchange market will result in:
a. Exports rising and imports falling
b. Imports rising and exports falling
c. Both imports and exports rising
d. Both imports and exports falling

19. Grain shortages in countries that buy large amounts of grain from the United States would increase the demand for American grain and:
a. Reduce the demand for dollars
b. Increase the demand for dollars
c. Reduce the supply of dollars
d. Increase the supply of dollars

20. Suppose the exchange rate between the Japanese yen and the U.S. dollar is 100 yen per dollar. A Japanese stereo with a price of 60,000 yen will cost:
a. $60
b. $600
c. $6000
d. None of the above

21. The supply of foreign currency may be:
a. Upward-sloping
b. Backward-sloping
c. Vertical
d. None of the above

22. Suppose that a Swiss watch that costs 400 francs in Switzerland costs $200 in the United States. The exchange rate between the franc and the dollar is:
a. 2 francs per dollar
b. 1 franc per dollar
c. $2 per franc
d. $3 per franc

23. In the early 1980s, the Federal Reserve pursued a tight monetary policy. All else being equal, the impact of that policy was to ____ interest rates in the United States relative to those in Europe and cause the dollar to ____ against European currencies.
a. Decrease, depreciate
b. Decrease, appreciate
c. Increase, depreciate
d. Increase, appreciate

24. Under a system of floating exchange rates, the Swiss franc would depreciate in value if which of the following occurs?
a. Price inflation in France
b. An increase in U.S. real income
c. A decrease in the Swiss money supply
d. Falling interest rates in Switzerland

25. A depreciation of the dollar will have its most pronounced impact on imports if the demand for imports is:
a. Constant
b. Inelastic
c. Elastic
d. Unitary elastic

26. During the era of dollar appreciation, from 1981 to 1985, a main reason why the dollar did not fall in value was:
a. Flows of foreign investment into the United States
b. Rising price inflation in the United States
c. A substantial decrease in U.S. imports
d. A substantial increase in U.S. exports

27. Which financial instrument provides a buyer the right to purchase or sell a fixed amount of currency at a prearranged price, within a few days to a couple of years?
a. Letter of credit
b. Foreign currency option
c. Cable transfer
d. Bill of exchange

28. Given the foreign currency market for the Swiss franc, the supply of francs slopes upward, because as the dollar price of the franc rises:
a. America’s demand for Swiss merchandise rises
b. America’s demand for Swiss merchandise falls
c. Switzerland’s demand for American merchandise rises
d. Switzerland’s demand for American merchandise falls

29. In a supply-and-demand diagram for Japanese yen, with the exchange rate in dollars per yen on the vertical axis, the demand schedule for yen is drawn sloping:
a. Upward
b. Vertical
c. Downward
d. Horizontal

30. Suppose there occurs an increase in the Canadian demand for Japanese computers. This results in:
a. An increase in the demand for yen
b. A decrease in the demand for yen
c. An increase in the supply of yen to Canada
d. A decrease in the supply of yen to Canada

Table 11.1 gives the exchange rate quotations for the U.S. dollar and the British pound.

Table 11.1. Foreign Exchange Quotations

U.S. Dollar Currency Per
Equivalent U.S. Dollar

Tuesday Monday Tuesday Monday

Britain (Pound) 1.4270 1.4390 .7008 .6949
30-day Forward 1.4211 1.4333 .7037 .6977
60-day Forward 1.4090 1.4220 .7097 .7032
180-day Forward 1.3930 1.4070 .7179 .7107

31. Consider Table 11.1. If one were to buy pounds for immediate delivery, on Tuesday the dollar cost of each pound would be:
a. $0.7008
b. $0.7037
c. $1.4211
d. $1.4270

32. Consider Table 11.1. If one were to sell dollars for immediate delivery, on Tuesday the pound cost of each dollar would be:
a. .7008 pounds per dollar
b. .7037 pounds per dollar
c. 1.4270 pounds per dollar
d. 1.4211 pounds per dollar

33. Consider Table 11.1. Comparing Tuesday to the previous Monday, by Tuesday the dollar had:
a. Depreciated against the pound
b. Appreciated against the pound
c. Not changed against the pound
d. None of the above

34. Consider Table 11.1. Concerning the Tuesday quotations: compared to the cost of buying 100 pounds on the spot market, if 100 pounds were bought for future delivery in 180 days the dollar cost of the pounds would be:
a. $3.40 higher
b. $3.40 lower
c. $6.80 higher
d. $6.80 lower

35. Which method of trading currencies involves the conversion of one currency into another at one point in time with an agreement to reconvert it back to the original currency at some point in the future?
a. Forward transaction
b. Futures transaction
c. Spot transaction
d. Swap transaction

36. Most foreign exchange trading occurs between banks and:
a. National governments
b. Other banks
c. Corporations
d. Household investors

37. The most important (in terms of dollar value) type of foreign exchange transaction by U.S. banks is the:
a. Spot transaction
b. Forward transaction
c. Swap transaction
d. Option transaction

38. In the interbank market for foreign exchange, the ____ refers to the price that a bank is willing to pay for a unit of foreign currency.
a. Offer rate
b. Bid rate
c. Spread rate
d. Transaction rate

39. In the interbank market for foreign exchange, the ____ refers to the price for which a bank is willing to sell a unit of foreign currency.
a. Offer rate
b. Option rate
c. Futures rate
d. Bid rate

40. In the interbank market for foreign exchange, the ____ refers to the difference between the offer rate and the bid rate.
a. Cross rate
b. Option
c. Arbitrage
d. Spread

41. A corporation dealing in foreign exchange may desire to obtain an exchange quote between the pound and franc, whose values are both expressed relative to the dollar. ____ are used to determine such a relationship.
a. Spot exchange rates
b. Forward exchange rates
c. Cross exchange rates
d. Option exchange rates

42. Suppose the exchange value of the British pound is $2 per pound while the exchange value of the Swiss franc is 50 cents per pound. The cross exchange rate between the pound and the franc is:
a. 1 franc per pound
b. 2 francs per pound
c. 3 francs per pound
d. 4 francs per pound

Exhibit 11.1

Assume the following: (1) the interest rate on 6-month treasury bills is 8 percent per annum in the United Kingdom and 4 percent per annum in the United States; (2) today’s spot price of the pound is $1.50 while the 6-month forward price of the pound is $1.485.

43. Refer to Exhibit 11.1. By investing in U.K. treasury bills rather than U.S. treasury bills, and not covering exchange rate risk, U.S. investors earn an extra return of:
a. 4 percent per year, 1 percent for the 6 months
b. 4 percent per year, 2 percent for the 6 months
c. 2 percent per year, 0.5 percent for the 6 months
d. 2 percent per year, 1 percent for the 6 months

44. Refer to Exhibit 11.1. If U.S. investors cover their exchange rate risk, the extra return for the 6 months on the U.K. treasury bills is:
a. 1.0 percent
b. 1.5 percent
c. 2.0 percent
d. 2.5 percent

45. Refer to Exhibit 11.1. If the price of the 6-month forward pound were to ____, U.S. investors would no longer earn an extra return by shifting funds to the United Kingdom.
a. Rise to $1.52
b. Rise to $1.53
c. Fall to $1.48
d. Fall to $1.47

46. Assume that you are the Chase Manhattan Bank of the United States, and you have 1 million Swiss francs in your vault that you will need to use in 30 days. Moreover, you need 500,000 British pounds for the next 30 days. You arrange to loan your francs to Barclays Bank of London for 30 days in exchange for 500,000 pounds today, and reverse the transaction at the end of 30 days. You have just arranged a:
a. Forward contract
b. Futures contract
c. Spot contract
d. Currency swap

Figure 11.1 illustrates the supply and demand schedules for the Swiss franc. Assume that exchange rates are flexible.

Figure 11.1. Supply and Demand Schedules of Francs

47. Refer to Figure 11.1. At the equilibrium exchange rate of ____ per franc, ____ francs will be purchased at a total dollar cost of ____.
a. $.50, 5 million, $2.5 million
b. $.50, 5 million, $1.5 million
c. $.70, 3 million, $2.1 million
d. $.70, 7 million, $4.9 million

48. Refer to Figure 11.1. Suppose the exchange rate is $.70 per franc. At this exchange rate there is an ____ of francs which leads to a ____ in the dollar price of the franc, a (an) ____ in the quantity of francs supplied, and a (an) ____ in the quantity of francs demanded.
a. Excess demand, rise, increase, decrease
b. Excess demand, rise, decrease, increase
c. Excess supply, fall, decrease, increase
d. Excess supply, fall, increase, decrease

49. Refer to Figure 11.1. Suppose the exchange rate is $.30 per franc. At this exchange rate there is an ____ of francs which leads to a ____ in the dollar price of the franc, a (an) ____ in the quantity of francs supplied, and a (an) ____ in the quantity of francs demanded.
a. Excess demand, rise, increase, decrease
b. Excess demand, rise, decrease, increase
c. Excess supply, fall, decrease, increase
d. Excess supply, fall, increase, decrease

50. Refer to Figure 11.1. Suppose the exchange rate is $.70 per franc. Free-market forces would lead to a (an) ____ of the dollar against the franc and a (an) ____ in U.S. international competitiveness.
a. Depreciation, improvement
b. Depreciation, worsening
c. Appreciation, improvement
d. Appreciation, worsening

51. Refer to Figure 11.1. Suppose the exchange rate is $.30 per franc. Free-market forces would lead to a (an) ____ of the dollar against the franc and a (an) ____ in U.S. international competitiveness:
a. Depreciation, improvement
b. Depreciation, worsening
c. Appreciation, improvement
d. Appreciation, worsening

The figure below illustrates the market for Swiss francs in a world of market-determined exchange rates. Assume the equilibrium exchange rate is $0.5 per franc, given by the intersection of schedules S0 and D0.

Figure 11.2. Market for Francs

52. Refer to Figure 11.2. A shift in the demand for francs from D0 to D1 or a shift in the supply of francs from S0 to S2, would result in a (an):
a. Depreciation in the dollar against the franc
b. Appreciation in the dollar against the franc
c. Unchanged dollar/franc exchange rate
d. None of the above

53. Refer to Figure 11.2. A shift in the demand for francs from D0 to D2, or a shift in the supply of francs from S0 to S1, would result in a (an):
a. Depreciation in the dollar against the franc
b. Appreciation in the dollar against the franc
c. No change in the dollar/franc exchange rate
d. None of the above

54. A (An) ____ is an arrangement by which two parties exchange one currency for another and agree that the exchange will be reversed at a stipulated date in the future:
a. Arbitrage
b. Swap
c. Option
d. Hedge

Table 11.2. Supply and Demand of British Pounds

Quantity Dollars Quantity
of Pounds per of Pounds
Supplied Pound Demanded

1,000 2.00 200
800 1.80 400
600 1.60 600
400 1.40 800
200 1.20 1,000

55. Refer to Table 11.2. The equilibrium exchange rate equals:
a. $1.20 per pound
b. $1.40 per pound
c. $1.60 per pound
d. $1.80 per pound

56. Refer to Table 11.2. At the exchange rate of $1.40 per pound, there is an ____ for pounds. This imbalance causes ____ in the price of the pound, which leads to ____ in the quantity of pounds supplied and ____ in the quantity of pounds demanded.
a. Excess supply, a decrease, an increase, a decrease
b. Excess supply, an increase, a decrease, an increase
c. Excess demand, an increase, an increase, a decrease
d. Excess demand, an increase, a decrease, an increase

57. Refer to Table 11.2. At the exchange rate of $1.80 per pound, there is an ____ for pounds. This imbalance causes ____ in the price of the pound, which leads to ____ in the quantity of pounds supplied and ____ in the quantity of pounds demanded.
a. Excess supply, a decrease, a decrease, an increase
b. Excess supply, an increase, a decrease, an increase
c. Excess demand, an increase, an increase, a decrease
d. Excess demand, an increase, a decrease, an increase

Table 11.3. Key Currency Cross Rates

Dollar Euro Pound Swiss Franc

Canada 1.5326 1.4400 2.2362 0.9790
Japan 124.48 116.96 181.63 79.515
Mexico 9.7410 9.1526 14.213 6.2223
Switzerland 1.5655 1.4709 2.2842 ……….
U.K. .68540 .6440 ………. .4378
Euro 1.06430 ………. 1.5529 .67984
U.S. ………. .9396 1.4591 .63877

58. Referring to Table 11.3, the cross exchange rate between the euro and Swiss franc is approximately:
a. .68 euros per franc
b. .68 francs per euro
c. .64 euros per franc
d. .64 francs per euro

59. Referring to Table 11.3, the yen cost of purchasing 100 British pounds is roughly:
a. 18,000 yen
b. 19,000 yen
c. 20,000 yen
d. 21,000 yen

Table 11.4. Forward Exchange Rates

U.S. Dollar Equivalent

Wednesday Tuesday

Switzerland (Franc) .6598 .6590
30-day Forward .6592 .6585
90-day Forward .6585 .6578
180-day Forward .6577 .6572

60. Refer to Table 11.4. On Wednesday, the 30-day forward franc was selling at a:
a. 1 percent premium per annum against the dollar
b. 2 percent premium per annum against the dollar
c. 1 percent discount per annum against the dollar
d. 2 percent discount per annum against the dollar

61. Refer to Table 11.4. On Wednesday, the 90-day forward franc was selling at a:
a. 0.8 percent premium per annum against the dollar
b. 1.6 percent premium per annum against the dollar
c. 0.8 percent discount per annum against the dollar
d. 1.6 percent discount per annum against the dollar

62. Refer to Table 11.4. On Wednesday, the 180-day forward franc was selling at a:
a. 0.6 percent premium per annum against the dollar
b. 1.6 percent premium per annum against the dollar
c. 0.6 percent discount per annum against the dollar
d. 1.6 percent discount per annum against the dollar

63. Refer to Table 11.4. Comparing the franc’s forward rates against the franc’s spot rate, the exchange market’s consensus is that over the period of a forward contract, the franc’s spot rate will:
a. Depreciate against the dollar
b. Appreciate against the dollar
c. Remain constant against the dollar
d. None of the above

64. The offer rate
a. Is the price at which the bank is willing to sell a unit of foreign currency
b. Is the price that the bank is willing to pay for a unit of foreign currency
c. Is synonymous with the spread rate
d. None of the above

65. When the dollar depreciates
a. U.S. exporters tend to sell more goods in foreign markets
b. U.S. consumers travel abroad more cheaply
c. More foreign tourists can afford to visit the United States
d. both a and c

66. When the dollar gets stronger
a. U.S. firms become more competitive in international market
b. Foreign tourists travel in the U.S. at a higher cost
c. U.S. inflation increases
d. U.S. consumers face higher prices on foreign goods

TRUE/FALSE

1. Similar to stock and commodity exchanges, the foreign exchange market is an organized structure with a central meeting place and formal licensing requirements.

2. Most foreign exchange transactions are conducted between commercial banks and household customers.

3. Foreign-exchange brokers help commercial banks carry out foreign exchange trading and maintain desired balances of foreign exchange.

4. A person needing foreign exchange immediately would purchase it on the spot market.

5. Most foreign exchange trading is carried out in the forward market.

6. Swap transactions among commercial banks involve the conversion of one currency to another at one point with an agreement to reconvert it back into the original currency at some point in the future.

7. The bid rate refers to the price at which a bank is willing to sell a unit of foreign currency; the offer rate is the price at which a bank is willing to buy a unit of foreign currency.

8. A commercial bank profits from foreign-exchange trading when its bid rate exceeds its offer rate.

9. The “spread” is a bank’s profit margin on foreign exchange trading and equals the difference between the bid rate and the offer rate.

10. If Citibank quoted bid and offer rates for the Swiss franc at $.4850/$.4854, the bank would be prepared to buy, say, 1 million francs for $485,000 and sell them for $485,400.

11. If Chase Manhattan Bank quotes bid and offer rates for the Swiss franc at $.5250/$.5260, the bank would realize profits of $1,000 on the purchase and sale of 1 million francs.

12. If a Citibank dealer expects the Swiss franc to appreciate against the U.S. dollar, she will attempt to lower both bid and offer rates for the franc, attempting to persuade other dealers to buy francs from Citibank and dissuade other dealers from selling francs to Citibank.

13. If a Citibank dealer expects the Swiss franc to depreciate in the future, he will lower bid and offer rates for the franc in order to discourage other dealers from selling francs to Citibank and persuade other dealers to buy francs from Citibank.

14. If it takes $0.18544 to purchase 1 French franc, it takes 5.3926 francs to purchase $1.

15. If it takes 113.28 yen to buy $1, it takes $.009624 to buy 1 yen.

16. If it takes $1.5515 to buy 1 pound and $0.6845 to buy 1 franc, it takes 2.27 francs to buy 1 pound.

17. “Futures” currency contracts are issued by commercial banks and are tailored in size to the needs of the exporter or importer, while “forward” currency contracts are issued by the International Monetary Market in standardized round lots.

18. A foreign currency option is an agreement between a holder (corporation) and a writer (commercial bank) giving the holder the right to buy or sell a certain amount of foreign currency at any time through some specified date.

19. A “call” option gives General Motors the right to sell pounds at a specified price, while a put option gives General Motors the right to buy pounds at a specified price.

20. The demand for foreign exchange is derived from credit transactions on the balance of payments.

21. The U.S. demand for pounds is derived from U.S. exports to the United Kingdom, U.K. investments in the United States, and U.K. tourist expenditures in the United States.

22. As the dollar’s exchange value appreciates against the pound, U.S. residents tend to import more British goods and thus demand more pounds.

23. As the dollar depreciates against the peso, U.S. residents tend to import more Mexican goods and thus demand more pesos.

24. The supply of francs is derived from the desire of the Swiss to purchase German goods, make investments in Germany, repay debts to German lenders, and extend transfer payments to German residents.

25. The demand schedule for Swiss francs is always downsloping while the supply schedule of francs is always upsloping.

26. The supply schedule of yen has a positive-sloping region which corresponds to the inelastic region on the Japanese demand schedule for foreign currency.

27. The supply schedule of pesos has a negative-sloping region corresponding to the inelastic region on the Mexican demand schedule for foreign currency.

28. If the Swiss demand for dollars is elastic, a depreciation of the dollar against the franc will lead to a greater quantity of francs being supplied to the foreign exchange market to obtain dollars.

29. If the Swiss demand for dollars is inelastic, an appreciation of the dollar against the franc will lead to a greater quantity of francs being supplied to the foreign exchange market to obtain dollars.

30. If the Swiss demand for dollars is elastic, an appreciation of the dollar against the franc will lead to a greater quantity of francs being supplied to the foreign exchange market to obtain dollars.

31. If the Swiss demand for dollars is inelastic, a depreciation of the dollar against the franc will lead to a greater quantity of francs being supplied to the foreign exchange market to obtain dollars.

32. Movements along the demand schedule for pounds are caused by changes in the pound’s exchange rate.

33. Given an upward-sloping supply schedule of pounds and a downward-sloping demand schedule for pounds, an increase in the demand schedule causes an appreciation of the dollar against the pound.

34. Given an upward-sloping supply schedule of pounds and a downward-sloping demand schedule for pounds, a decrease in the demand schedule causes an appreciation of the dollar against the pound.

35. Given an upward-sloping supply schedule of pounds and a downward-sloping demand schedule for pounds, an increase in the supply schedule causes an appreciation of the dollar against the pound.

36. Given an upward-sloping supply schedule of pounds and a downward-sloping demand schedule for pounds, a decrease in the supply schedule causes an appreciation of the dollar against the pound.

37. The trade-weighted dollar is the weighted average of the exchange rates between the dollar and the most important industrial-country trading partners of the United States.

38. If the trade-weighted dollar moves from an index value to 100 to 110, the dollar depreciates by 10 percent against the trade-weighted averages of the exchange rates of the major trading partners of the United States.

39. An increase in the trade-weighted value of the dollar indicates a dollar appreciation relative to the currencies of its major trading partners and a worsening of U.S. international competitiveness.

40. With arbitrage, a trader attempts to purchase a foreign currency at a low price and, at a later date, resell the currency at a higher price in order to make a profit.

41. Arbitrage results in a riskless profit since a trader purchases a currency at a low price and simultaneously resells it at a higher price.

42. If the exchange rate is $0.01 per yen in New York and $0.015 per yen in Tokyo, an arbitrager could profit by buying yen in Tokyo and simultaneously sell them in New York.

43. Currency arbitrage tends to result in identical yen/dollar exchange rates in New York and in Tokyo.

44. In the forward market, the exchange rate is agreed on at the time of the currency contract, but payment is not made until the future delivery of the currency actually takes place.

45. If the spot price of the Swiss franc is $0.4020 and the 90-day forward franc sells for $0.4026, the franc is at a 90-day forward discount of $0.0006, or at a 0.2 percent forward discount per annum against the dollar.

46. Suppose that Sears owes 1 million yen to a Japanese electronics manufacturer in 3 months. It could hedge against the risk of a depreciation of the dollar against the yen by contracting to purchase 1 million yen in the forward market, at today’s forward rate, for delivery in 3 months.

47. Assume that Boeing anticipates receiving 20 million yen in 3 months from exports of jumbo jets to a Japanese airline. The firm could hedge against the risk of a depreciation of the dollar against the yen by contracting to sell its expected yen proceeds for dollars in the forward market at today’s forward rate.

48. A U.S. investor’s extra rate of return on an investment in France, as compared to the United States, equals the interest-rate differential adjusted for any change in the dollar/franc exchange rate.

49. A currency speculator’s goal is to buy a currency at a low price and immediately resell it at a higher price, thus realizing a riskless profit.

50. Stabilizing speculation reinforces market forces by intensifying an appreciation or a depreciation in a currency’s exchange value.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What foreign exchange transactions do banks typically engage in?

2. How is the equilibrium rate of exchange determined?

ESSAY

1. Is it possible to trade foreign exchange in the futures market? How does such trading differ from the forward market?

2. Where are foreign currency options traded?

ECO 410 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer University New

ECO/410 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

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Chapter 7

International Parity Conditions

7.1 Prices and Exchange Rates

Multiple Choice

1) If an identical product can be sold in two different markets, and no restrictions exist on the sale or transportation costs, the product’s price should be the same in both markets. This is known as:
A) relative purchasing power parity.
B) interest rate parity.
C) the law of one price.
D) equilibrium.

2) The Economist publishes annually the “Big Mac Index” by which they compare the prices of the McDonald’s Corporation’s Big Mac hamburger around the world. The index estimates the exchange rates for currencies based on the assumption that the burgers in question are the same across the world and therefore, the price should be the same. If a Big Mac costs $2.54 in the United States and 294 yen in Japan, what is the estimated exchange rate of yen per dollar as hypothesized by the Hamburger index?
A) $0.0086/¥
B) ¥124/$
C) $0.0081/¥
D) ¥115.75/$

3) If the current exchange rate is 113 Japanese yen per U.S. dollar, the price of a Big Mac hamburger in the United States is $3.41, and the price of a Big Mac hamburger in Japan is 280 yen, then other things equal, the Big Mac hamburger in Japan is:
A) correctly priced.
B) under priced.
C) over priced.
D) There is not enough information to determine if the price is appropriate or not.

4) The price of a Big Mac in the U.S. is $3.41 and the price in Mexico is Peso 29.0. What is the implied PPP of the Peso per dollar?
A) Peso 8.50/$1
B) Peso 10.8/$1
C) Peso 11.76/$1
D) None of the above

5) Assume the implied PPP rate of exchange of Mexican Pesos per U.S. dollar is 8.50 according to the Big Mac Index. Further, assume the current exchange rate is Peso 10.80/$1. Thus, according to PPP and the Law of One Price, at the current exchange rate the peso is:
A) overvalued.
B) undervalued.
C) correctly valued.
D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

6) According to the Big Mac Index, the implied PPP exchange rate is Mexican peso 8.50/$1 but the actual exchange rate is peso10.80/$1. Thus, at current exchange rates the peso appears to be ________ by ________.
A) overvalued; approximately 21%
B) overvalued; approximately 27%
C) undervalued; approximately 21%
D) undervalued; approximately 27%

7) Other things equal, and assuming efficient markets, if a Honda Accord costs $24,682 in the U.S., then at an exchange rate of $1.57/£, the Honda Accord should cost ________ in Great Britain.
A) £24,682
B) £38,751
C) £10,795
D) £15,721

8) One year ago the spot rate of U.S. dollars for Canadian dollars was $1/C$1. Since that time the rate of inflation in the U.S. has been 4% greater than that in Canada. Based on the theory of Relative PPP, the current spot exchange rate of U.S. dollars for Canadian dollars should be approximately:
A) $0.96/C$
B) $1/C$
C) $1.04/C$
D) Relative PPP provides no guide for this type of question.

9) ________ states that differential rates of inflation between two countries tend to be offset over time by an equal but opposite change in the spot exchange rate.
A) The Fisher Effect
B) The International Fisher Effect
C) Absolute Purchasing Power Parity
D) Relative Purchasing Power Parity

10) Two general conclusions can be made from the empirical tests of purchasing power parity (PPP):
A) PPP holds up well over the short run but poorly for the long run, and the theory holds better for countries with relatively low rates of inflation.
B) PPP holds up well over the short run but poorly for the long run, and the theory holds better for countries with relatively high rates of inflation.
C) PPP holds up well over the long run but poorly for the short run, and the theory holds better for countries with relatively low rates of inflation.
D) PPP holds up well over the long run but poorly for the short run, and the theory holds better for countries with relatively high rates of inflation.

11) A country’s currency that strengthened relative to another country’s currency by more than that justified by the differential in inflation is said to be ________ in terms of PPP.
A) overvalued
B) over compensating
C) undervalued
D) under compensating

12) If we set the real effective exchange rate index between Canada and the United States equal to 100 in 1998, and find that the U.S. dollar has risen to a value of 112.6, then from a competitive perspective the U.S. dollar is:
A) overvalued.
B) undervalued.
C) very competitive.
D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

13) If we set the real effective exchange rate index between the United Kingdom and the United States equal to 100 in 2005, and find that the U.S. dollar has changed to a value of 91.4, then from a competitive perspective the U.S. dollar is:
A) overvalued.
B) undervalued.
C) equally valued.
D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

14) The government just released international exchange rate statistics and reported that the real effective exchange rate index for the U.S. dollar vs the Japanese yen decreased from 105 last year to 95 currently and is expected to fall still further in the coming year. Other things equal U.S. ________ to/from Japan think this is good news and U.S. ________ to/from Japan think this is bad news.
A) importers; exporters
B) importers; importers
C) exporters; exporters
D) exporters; importers

True/False

1) If a market basket of goods cost $100 is the US and €70 in France, then the PPP exchange rate would be $.70/€.

2) The assumptions for relative PPP are more rigid than the assumptions for absolute PPP.

3) Empirical tests prove that PPP is an accurate predictor of future exchange rates.

4) Consider the price elasticity of demand. If a product has price elasticity less than one it is considered to have relatively elastic demand.

Essay

1) The authors state that empirical tests of purchasing power parity “have, for the most part, not proved PPP to be accurate in predicting future exchange rates.” The authors then state that PPP does hold up reasonably well in two situations. What are some reasons why PPP does not accurately predict future exchange rates, and under what conditions might we reasonably expect PPP to hold?

7.2 Exchange Rate Pass-Through

Multiple Choice

1) ________ states that nominal interest rates in each country are equal to the required real rate of return plus compensation for expected inflation.
A) Absolute PPP
B) Relative PPP
C) The Law of One Price
D) The Fisher Effect

2) In its approximate form the Fisher effect may be written as ________. Where: i = the nominal rate of interest, r = the real rate of return and π = the expected rate of inflation.
A) i = (r)(π)
B) i = r + π + (r)(π)
C) i = r + π
D) i = r + 2π

3) Assume a nominal interest rate on one-year U.S. Treasury Bills of 2.60% and a real rate of interest of 1.00%. Using the Fisher Effect Equation, what is the approximate expected rate of inflation in the U.S. over the next year?
A) 2.10%
B) 2.05%
C) 1.60%
D) 1.00%

4) Assume a nominal interest rate on one-year U.S. Treasury Bills of 3.80% and a real rate of interest of 2.00%. Using the Fisher Effect Equation, what is the exact expected rate of inflation in the U.S. over the next year?
A) 1.84%
B) 1.80%
C) 1.76%
D) 1.72%

5) The relationship between the percentage change in the spot exchange rate over time and the differential between comparable interest rates in different national capital markets is known as:
A) absolute PPP.
B) the law of one price.
C) relative PPP.
D) the international Fisher Effect.

6) According to the international Fisher Effect, if an investor purchases a five-year U.S. bond that has an annual interest rate of 5% rather than a comparable British bond that has an annual interest rate of 6%, then the investor must be expecting the ________ to ________ at a rate of at least 1% per year over the next 5 years.
A) British pound; appreciate
B) British pound; revalue
C) U.S. dollar; appreciate
D) U.S. dollar; depreciate

7) ________ states that the spot exchange rate should change in an equal amount but in the opposite direction to the difference in interest rates between two countries.
A) Fisher-open
B) Fisher-closed
C) The Fisher Effect
D) none of the above

8) Exchange rate pass-through may be defined as:
A) the bid/ask spread on currency exchange rate transactions.
B) the degree to which the prices of imported and exported goods change as a result of exchange rate changes.
C) the PPP of lesser-developed countries.
D) the practice by Great Britain of maintaining the relative strength of the currencies of the Commonwealth countries under the current floating exchange rate regime.

9) Phillips NV produces DVD players and exports them to the United States. Last year the exchange rate was $1.25/euro and Plillips charged 120 euro per player in Euroland and $150 per DVD player in the United States. Currently the spot exchange rate is $1.45/euro and Phillips is charging $160 per DVD player. What is the degree of pass through by Phillips NV on their DVD players?
A) 92%
B) 33.3%
C) 41.7%
D) 4.1%

10) Jaguar has full manufacturing costs of their S-type sedan of £22,803. They sell the S-type in the UK with a 20% margin for a price of £27,363. Today these cars are available in the US for $55,000 which is the UK price multiplied by the current exchange rate of $2.01/£. Jaguar has committed to keeping the US price at $55,000 for the next six months. If the UK pound appreciates against the USD to an exchange rate of $2.15/£, and Jaguar has not hedged against currency changes, what is the amount the company will receive in pounds at the new exchange rate?
A) £22,803
B) £25,581
C) £27,363
D) £55,000

11) Jaguar has full manufacturing costs of their S-type sedan of £22,803. They sell the S-type in the UK with a 20% margin for a price of £27,363. Today these cars are available in the US for $55,000 which is the UK price multiplied by the current exchange rate of $2.01/£. Jaguar has committed to keeping the US price at $55,000 for the next six months. If the UK pound appreciates against the USD to an exchange rate of $2.15/£, and Jaguar has not hedged against currency changes, what is the percentage margin the company will realize given the new exchange rate?
A) 20.0%
B) 15.3%
C) 12.4%
D) 7.2%

12) The price elasticity of demand for DVD players manufactured by Sony of Japan is greater than one. If the Japanese yen appreciates against the U.S. dollar by 10% and the price of the Sony DVD players in the U.S also rises by 10%, then other things equal, the total dollar sales revenues of Sony DVDs would:
A) decline.
B) increase.
C) stay the same.
D) insufficient information

True/False

1) The final component of the equation for the Fisher Effect, (r)(π), where r = the real rate of return and π = the expected rate of inflation, is often dropped from the equation because the number is simply too large for most Western economies.

2) Empirical studies show that the Fisher Effect works best for short-term securities.

3) The current U.S. dollar-yen spot rate is ¥125/$. If the 90-day forward exchange rate is ¥127/$ then the yen is at a forward premium.

4) The premium or discount on forward currency exchange rates between any two countries is visually obvious when you plot the interest rates of each country on the same yield curve. The currency of the country with the higher yield curve should be selling at a forward discount.

5) Use interest rate parity to answer this question. A U.S. investor has a choice between a risk-free one-year U.S. security with an annual return of 4%, and a comparable British security with a return of 5%. If the spot rate is $1.43/£, the forward rate is $1.44/£, and there are no transaction costs, the investor should invest in the U.S. security.

6) Both covered and uncovered interest arbitrage are risky operations in the sense that even without default in the securities, the returns are unknown until all transactions are complete.

7) All that is required for a covered interest arbitrage profit is for interest rate parity to not hold.

Essay/Short Answer

1) The authors describe an application of uncovered interest arbitrage (UIA) known as “yen carry trade.” Define UIA and describe the example of yen carry trade. Why would an investor engage in the practice of yen carry trade and is there any risk of loss or lesser profit from this investment strategy?

2) The Fisher Effect is a familiar economic theory in the domestic market. In words, define the Fisher Effect and explain why you think it is also appropriately applied to international markets.

7.3 The Forward Rate

Multiple Choice

1) If the forward rate is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot rate, which of the following is NOT true?
A) The expected value of the future spot rate at time 2 equals the present forward rate for time 2 delivery, available now.
B) The distribution of possible actual spot rates in the future is centered on the forward rate.
C) The future spot rate will actually be equal to what the forward rate predicts.
D) All of the above are true.

2) Which of the following is NOT an assumption of market efficiency?
A) Instruments denominated in other currencies are perfect substitutes for one another.
B) Transaction costs are low or nonexistent.
C) All relevant information is quickly reflected in both spot and forward exchange markets.
D) All of the above are true.

3) Empirical tests have yielded ________ evidence about market efficiency with a general consensus that developing foreign markets are ________.
A) conflicting; not efficient
B) conflicting; efficient
C) consistent; inefficient
D) none of the above

4) A ________ is an exchange rate quoted today for settlement at some time in the future.
A) spot rate
B) forward rate
C) currency rate
D) yield curve

5) Assume the current U.S. dollar-British spot rate is 0.6993£/$. If the current nominal one-year interest rate in the U.S. is 5% and the comparable rate in Britain is 6%, what is the approximate forward exchange rate for 360 days?
A) £1.42/$
B) £1.43/$
C) £0.6993/$
D) £0.7060/$

6) Assume the current U.S. dollar-yen spot rate is 90 ¥/$. Further, the current nominal 180-day rate of return in Japan is 1% and 2% in the United States. What is the approximate forward exchange rate for 180 days?
A) ¥89.12/$
B) ¥89.55/$
C) ¥90.89/$
D) ¥90.45/$

7) The current U.S. dollar-yen spot rate is 125¥/$. If the 90-day forward exchange rate is 127 ¥/$ then the yen is selling at a per annum ________ of ________.
A) premium; 1.57%
B) premium; 6.30%
C) discount; 1.57%
D) discount; 6.30%

8) The theory of ________ states that the difference in the national interest rates for securities of similar risk and maturity should be equal to but opposite in sign to the forward rate discount or premium for the foreign currency, except for transaction costs.
A) international Fisher Effect
B) absolute PPP
C) interest rate parity
D) the law of one price

9) With covered interest arbitrage:
A) the market must be out of equilibrium.
B) a “riskless” arbitrage opportunity exists.
C) the arbitrageur trades in both the spot and future currency exchange markets.
D) all of the above

10) Covered interest arbitrage moves the market ________ equilibrium because ________.
A) toward; purchasing a currency on the spot market and selling in the forward market narrows the differential between the two
B) toward; investors are now more willing to invest in risky securities
C) away from; purchasing a currency on the spot market and selling in the forward market increases the differential between the two
D) away from; demand for the stronger currency forces up interest rates on the weaker security

True/False

1) If exchange markets were not efficient, it would pay for a firm to spend resources on forecasting exchange rates.

2) If the forward exchange rate is an unbiased predictor of future spot rates, then future spot rates will always be equal to current forward rates.

3) COVERED interest arbitrage (CIA), is where investors borrow in countries and currencies exhibiting relatively low interest rates and convert the proceeds into currencies that offer much higher interest rates. The transaction is “covered,” because the investor does not sell the higher yielding currency proceeds forward.

7.4 Prices, Interest Rates, and Exchange Rates in Equilibrium

Multiple Choice

1) According to the International Fisher Effect, the forecast change in the spot rate between two countries is equal to:
A) the current spot rate multiplied by the ratio of the inflation rates in the respective countries.
B) but the opposite sign to the difference between nominal interest rates.
C) but the opposite sign to the difference between inflation rates.
D) but the opposite sign to the difference between real interest rates.

True/False

1) In their approximate form, PPP, IRP, and forward rates as an unbiased predictor of the future spot rate lead to similar forecasts of the future spot rate.

Multinational Business Finance, 13e (Eiteman/Stonehill/Moffett)
Chapter 8 Foreign Currency Derivatives and Swaps

8.1 Foreign Currency Futures

Multiple Choice

1) Financial derivatives are powerful tools that can be used by management for purposes of:
A) speculation.
B) hedging.
C) human resource management.
D) A and B above

2) A foreign currency ________ contract calls for the future delivery of a standard amount of foreign exchange at a fixed time, place, and price.
A) futures
B) forward
C) option
D) swap

3) Which of the following is NOT a contract specification for currency futures trading on an organized exchange?
A) size of the contract
B) maturity date
C) last trading day
D) All of the above are specified.

4) About ________ of all futures contracts are settled by physical delivery of foreign exchange between buyer and seller.
A) 0%
B) 5%
C) 50%
D) 95%

5) Futures contracts require that the purchaser deposit an initial sum as collateral. This deposit is called a:
A) collateralized deposit.
B) marked market sum.
C) margin.
D) settlement.

6) A speculator in the futures market wishing to lock in a price at which they could ________ a foreign currency will ________ a futures contract.
A) buy; sell
B) sell; buy
C) buy; buy
D) none of the above

7) A speculator that has ________ a futures contract has taken a ________ position.
A) sold; long
B) purchased; short
C) sold; short
D) purchased; sold

8) Peter Simpson thinks that the U.K. pound will cost $1.43/£ in six months. A 6-month currency futures contract is available today at a rate of $1.44/£. If Peter was to speculate in the currency futures market, and his expectations are correct, which of the following strategies would earn him a profit?
A) Sell a pound currency futures contract.
B) Buy a pound currency futures contract.
C) Sell pounds today.
D) Sell pounds in six months.

9) Jack Hemmings bought a 3-month British pound futures contract for $1.4400/£ only to see the dollar appreciate to a value of $1.4250 at which time he sold the pound futures. If each pound futures contract is for an amount of £62,500, how much money did Jack gain or lose from his speculation with pound futures?
A) $937.50 loss
B) $937.50 gain
C) £937.50 loss
D) £937.50 gain

10) Which of the following statements regarding currency futures contracts and forward contracts is NOT true?
A) A futures contract is a standardized amount per currency whereas the forward contact is for any size desired.
B) A futures contract is for a fixed maturity whereas the forward contract is for any maturity you like up to one year.
C) Futures contracts trade on organized exchanges whereas forwards take place between individuals and banks with other banks via telecom linkages.
D) All of the above are true.

11) Which of the following is NOT a difference between a currency futures contract and a forward contract?
A) The futures contract is marked to market daily, whereas the forward contract is only due to be settled at maturity.
B) The counterparty to the futures participant is unknown with the clearinghouse stepping into each transaction, whereas the forward contract participants are in direct contact setting the forward specifications.
C) A single sales commission covers both the purchase and sale of a futures contract, whereas there is no specific sales commission with a forward contract because banks earn a profit through the bid-ask spread.
D) All of the above are true.

12) A foreign currency ________ gives the purchaser the right, not the obligation, to buy a given amount of foreign exchange at a fixed price per unit for a specified period.
A) future
B) forward
C) option
D) swap

13) A foreign currency ________ option gives the holder the right to ________ a foreign currency, whereas a foreign currency ________ option gives the holder the right to ________ an option.
A) call, buy, put, sell
B) call, sell, put, buy
C) put, hold, call, release
D) none of the above

14) The price at which an option can be exercised is called the:
A) premium.
B) spot rate.
C) strike price.
D) commission.

15) An ________ option can be exercised only on its expiration date, whereas a/an ________ option can be exercised anytime between the date of writing up to and including the exercise date.
A) American; European
B) American; British
C) Asian; American
D) European; American

16) An ________ option can be exercised only on its expiration date, whereas a/an ________ option can be exercised anytime between the date of writing up to and including the exercise date.
A) American; European
B) American; British
C) Asian; American
D) European; American

17) A call option whose exercise price exceeds the spot price is said to be:
A) in-the-money.
B) at-the-money.
C) out-of-the-money.
D) over-the-spot.

18) A call option whose exercise price is less than the spot price is said to be:
A) in-the-money.
B) at-the-money.
C) out-of-the-money.
D) under-the-spot.

19) An option whose exercise price is equal to the spot rate is said to be:
A) in-the-money.
B) at-the-money.
C) out-of-the-money.
D) on-the-spot.

20) The main advantage(s) of over-the-counter foreign currency options over exchange traded options is (are):
A) expiration dates tailored to the needs of the client.
B) amounts that are tailor made.
C) client desired expiration dates.
D) all of the above

21) As a general statement, it is safe to say that businesses generally use the ________ for foreign currency option contracts, and individuals and financial institutions typically use the ________.
A) exchange markets; over-the-counter
B) over-the-counter; exchange markets
C) private; government sponsored
D) government sponsored; private

TABLE 8.1
Use the table to answer following question(s).

April 19, 2009, British Pound Option Prices (cents per pound, 62,500 pound contracts).

22) Refer to Table 8.1. What was the closing price of the British pound on April 18, 2009?
A) $1.448/£
B) £1.448/$
C) $14.48/£
D) none of the above

23) Refer to Table 8.1. The exercise price of ________ giving the purchaser the right to sell pounds in June has a cost per pound of ________ for a total price of ________.
A) 1460; 0.68 cents; $425.00
B) 1440; 1.06 cents; $662.50
C) 1450; 1.02 cents; $637.50
D) 1440; 1.42 cents; $887.50

24) Refer to Table 8.1. The May call option on pounds with a strike price of 1440 mean:
A) $88/£ per contract.
B) $0.88/£.
C) $0.0088/£.
D) none of the above

25) Dash Brevenshure works for the currency trading unit of ING Bank in London. He speculates that in the coming months the dollar will rise sharply vs. the pound. What should Dash do to act on his speculation?
A) Buy a call on the pound.
B) Sell a call on the pound.
C) Buy a put on the pound.
D) Sell a put on the pound.

26) A put option on yen is written with a strike price of ¥105.00/$. Which spot price maximizes your profit if you choose to exercise the option before maturity?
A) ¥100/$
B) ¥105/$
C) ¥110/$
D) ¥115/$

27) A call option on euros is written with a strike price of $1.30/euro. Which spot price maximizes your profit if you choose to exercise the option before maturity?
A) $1.20/euro
B) $1.25/euro
C) $1.30/euro
D) $1.35/euro

28) A call option on UK pounds has a strike price of $2.05/£ and a cost of $0.02. What is the break-even price for the option?
A) $2.03/£
B) $2.07/£
C) $2.05/£
D) The answer depends upon if this is a long or a short call option.

29) Your U.S firm has an accounts payable denominated in UK pounds due in 6 months. To protect yourself against unexpected changes in the dollar/pound exchange rate you should:
A) buy a pound put option.
B) sell a pound put option.
C) buy a pound call option.
D) sell a pound call option.

30) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper thinks the yen will move to ¥128.00/$ in the next six months. Jasper should ________ at ________ to profit from changing currency values.
A) buy yen; the forward rate
B) buy dollars; the forward rate
C) sell yen; the forward rate
D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

31) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper thinks the yen will move to ¥128.00/$ in the next six months. If Jasper buys $100,000 worth of yen at today’s spot price and sells within the next six months at ¥128/$, he will earn a profit of:
A) $146.09
B) $101,460.94
C) $1460.94
D) nothing; he will lose money

32) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper thinks the yen will move to ¥128.00/$ in the next six months. If Jasper buys $100,000 worth of yen at today’s spot price her potential gain is ________ and her potential loss is ________.
A) $100,000; unlimited
B) unlimited; unlimited
C) $100,000; $100,000
D) unlimited; $100,000

33) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper thinks the yen will move to ¥128.00/$ in the next six months. If Jasper’s expectations are correct, then he could profit in the forward market by ________ and then ________.
A) buying yen for ¥128.00/$; selling yen at ¥128.53/$
B) buying yen for ¥128.53/$; selling yen at ¥128.00/$
C) There is not enough information to answer this question
D) He could not profit in the forward market.

34) The maximum gain for the purchaser of a call option contract is ________ while the maximum loss is ________.
A) unlimited; the premium paid.
B) the premium paid; unlimited.
C) unlimited; unlimited.
D) unlimited; the value of the underlying asset.

35) The buyer of a long call option:
A) has a maximum loss equal to the premium paid.
B) has a gain equal to but opposite in sign to the writer of the option.
C) has an unlimited maximum gain potential.
D) all of the above

36) Which of the following is NOT true for the writer of a call option?
A) The maximum loss is unlimited.
B) The maximum gain is unlimited.
C) The gain or loss is equal to but of the opposite sign of the buyer of a call option.
D) All of the above are true.

37) Which of the following is NOT true for the writer of a put option?
A) The maximum loss is limited to the strike price of the underlying asset less the premium.
B) The gain or loss is equal to but of the opposite sign of the buyer of a put option.
C) The maximum gain is the amount of the premium.
D) All of the above are true.

38) The buyer of a long put option:
A) has a maximum loss equal to the premium paid.
B) has a gain equal to but opposite in sign to the writer of the option.
C) has maximum gain potential limited to the difference between the strike price and the premium paid.
D) all of the above

39) The value of a European style call option is the sum of two components:
A) the present value plus the intrinsic value.
B) the time value plus the present value.
C) the intrinsic value plus the time value.
D) the intrinsic value plus the standard deviation.

True/False

1) Currency futures contracts have become standard fare and trade readily in the world money centers.

2) The major difference between currency futures and forward contracts is that futures contracts are standardized for ease of trading on an exchange market whereas forward contracts are specialized and tailored to meet the needs of clients.

3) The writer of the option is referred to as the seller, and the buyer of the option is referred to as the holder.

4) Foreign currency options are available both over-the-counter and on organized exchanges.

5) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper would earn a higher rate of return by buying yen and a forward contract than if he had invested her money in 6-month US Treasury securities at an annual rate of 2.50%.

6) Most option profits and losses are realized through taking actual delivery of the currency rather than offsetting contracts.

Essay

1) Why are foreign currency futures contracts more popular with individuals and banks while foreign currency forwards are more popular with businesses?

2) Compare and contrast foreign currency options and futures. Identify situations when you may prefer one vs. the other when speculating on foreign exchange.

8.2 Option Pricing and Valuation

Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining the premium price of a currency option?
A) the present spot rate
B) the time to maturity
C) the standard deviation of the daily spot price movement
D) All of the above are factors in determining the premium price.

2) The ________ of an option is the value if the option were to be exercised immediately. It is the option’s ________ value.
A) intrinsic value; maximum
B) intrinsic value; minimum
C) time value; maximum
D) time value; minimum

3) Assume that a call option has an exercise price of $1.50/£. At a spot price of $1.45/£, the call option has:
A) a time value of $0.04.
B) a time value of $0.00.
C) an intrinsic value of $0.00.
D) an intrinsic value of -$0.04.

4) The single largest interest rate risk of a firm is:
A) interest sensitive securities.
B) debt service.
C) dividend payments.
D) accounts payable.

5) ________ is the possibility that the borrower’s creditworthiness is reclassified by the lender at the time of renewing credit. ________ is the risk of changes in interest rates charged at the time a financial contract rate is set.
A) Credit risk; Interest rate risk
B) Repricing risk; Credit risk
C) Interest rate risk; Credit risk
D) Credit risk; Repricing risk

Instruction 8.1:
For the following problem(s), consider these debt strategies being considered by a corporate borrower. Each is intended to provide $1,000,000 in financing for a three-year period.

• Strategy #1: Borrow $1,000,000 for three years at a fixed rate of interest of 7%.
• Strategy #2: Borrow $1,000,000 for three years at a floating rate of LIBOR + 2%, to be reset annually. The current LIBOR rate is 3.50%
• Strategy #3: Borrow $1,000,000 for one year at a fixed rate, and then renew the credit annually. The current one-year rate is 5%.

6) Refer to Instruction 8.1. Choosing strategy #1 will:
A) guarantee the lowest average annual rate over the next three years.
B) eliminate credit risk but retain repricing risk.
C) maintain the possibility of lower interest costs, but maximizes the combined credit and repricing risks.
D) preclude the possibility of sharing in lower interest rates over the three-year period.

7) Refer to Instruction 8.1. Choosing strategy #2 will:
A) guarantee the lowest average annual rate over the next three years.
B) eliminate credit risk but retain repricing risk.
C) maintain the possibility of lower interest costs, but maximizes the combined credit and repricing risks.
D) preclude the possibility of sharing in lower interest rates over the three-year period.

8) Refer to Instruction 8.1. Choosing strategy #3 will:
A) guarantee the lowest average annual rate over the next three years.
B) eliminate credit risk but retain repricing risk.
C) maintain the possibility of lower interest costs, but maximizes the combined credit and repricing risks.
D) preclude the possibility of sharing in lower interest rates over the three-year period.

9) Refer to Instruction 8.1. Which strategy (strategies) will eliminate credit risk?
A) Strategy #1
B) Strategy #2
C) Strategy #3
D) Strategies #1 and #2

10) Refer to Instruction 8.1. If your firm felt very confident that interest rates would fall or, at worst, remain at current levels, and were very confident about the firm’s credit rating for the next 10 years, which strategy would you likely choose? (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) Strategy #3
B) Strategy #2
C) Strategy #1
D) Strategy #1, #2, or #3; you are indifferent among the choices.

11) Refer to Instruction 8.1. The risk of strategy #1 is that interest rates might go down or that your credit rating might improve. The risk of strategy #2 is: (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) that interest rates might go down or that your credit rating might improve.
B) that interest rates might go up or that your credit rating might improve.
C) that interest rates might go up or that your credit rating might get worse.
D) none of the above

12) Refer to Instruction 8.1. The risk of strategy #1 is that interest rates might go down or that your credit rating might improve. The risk of strategy #3 is: (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) that interest rates might go down or that your credit rating might improve.
B) that interest rates might go up or that your credit rating might improve.
C) that interest rates might go up or that your credit rating might get worse.
D) none of the above

13) Refer to Instruction 8.1. After the fact, under which set of circumstances would you prefer strategy #1? (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went up.
B) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went down.
C) Your credit rating improved and interest rates went down.
D) Not enough information to make a judgment.

14) Refer to Instruction 8.1. After the fact, under which set of circumstances would you prefer strategy #2? (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went up.
B) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went down.
C) Your credit rating improved and interest rates went down.
D) Not enough information to make a judgment.

15) Refer to Instruction 8.1. After the fact, under which set of circumstances would you prefer strategy #3? (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went up.
B) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went down.
C) Your credit rating improved and interest rates went down.
D) Not enough information to make a judgment.

True/False

1) The time value is asymmetric in value as you move away from the strike price (i.e., the time value at two cents above the strike price is not necessarily the same as the time value two cents below the strike price).

8.3 Interest Rate Derivatives

Multiple Choice

1) An interbank-traded contract to buy or sell interest rate payments on a notional principal is called a/an:
A) forward rate agreement.
B) interest rate future.
C) interest rate swap.
D) none of the above

2) A/an ________ is a contract to lock in today interest rates over a given period of time.
A) forward rate agreement
B) interest rate future
C) interest rate swap
D) none of the above

3) An agreement to exchange interest payments based on a fixed payment for those based on a variable rate (or vice versa) is known as a/an:
A) forward rate agreement.
B) interest rate future.
C) interest rate swap.
D) none of the above

4) The financial manager of a firm has a variable rate loan outstanding. If she wishes to protect the firm against an unfavorable increase in interest rates she could:
A) sell an interest rate futures contract of a similar maturity to the loan.
B) buy an interest rate futures contract of a similar maturity to the loan.
C) swap the adjustable rate loan for another of a different maturity.
D) none of the above

5) An agreement to swap a fixed interest payment for a floating interest payment would be considered a/an:
A) currency swap.
B) forward swap.
C) interest rate swap.
D) none of the above

6) An agreement to swap the currencies of a debt service obligation would be termed a/an:
A) currency swap.
B) forward swap.
C) interest rate swap.
D) none of the above

7) Which of the following would be considered an example of a currency swap?
A) exchanging a dollar interest obligation for a British pound obligation
B) exchanging a eurodollar interest obligation for a dollar obligation
C) exchanging a eurodollar interest obligation for a British pound obligation
D) All of the above are examples of a currency swap.

8) A firm with fixed-rate debt that expects interest rates to fall may engage in a swap agreement to:
A) pay fixed-rate interest and receive floating rate interest.
B) pay floating rate and receive fixed rate.
C) pay fixed rate and receive fixed rate.
D) pay floating rate and receive floating rate.

9) A firm with variable-rate debt that expects interest rates to rise may engage in a swap agreement to:
A) pay fixed-rate interest and receive floating rate interest.
B) pay floating rate and receive fixed rate.
C) pay fixed rate and receive fixed rate.
D) pay floating rate and receive floating rate.

10) The interest rate swap strategy of a firm with fixed rate debt and that expects rates to go up is to:
A) do nothing.
B) pay floating and receive fixed.
C) receive floating and pay fixed.
D) none of the above

11) The potential exposure that any individual firm bears that the second party to any financial contract will be unable to fulfill its obligations under the contract is called:
A) interest rate risk.
B) credit risk.
C) counterparty risk.
D) clearinghouse risk.

12) Which of the following is an unlikely reason for firms to participate in the swap market?
A) To replace cash flows scheduled in an undesired currency with cash flows in a desired currency.
B) Firms may raise capital in one currency but desire to repay it in another currency.
C) Firms desire to swap fixed and variable payment or receipt of funds.
D) All of the above are likely reasons for a firm to enter the swap market.

True/False

1) Historically, interest rate movements have shown less variability and greater stability than exchange rate movements.

2) Unlike the situation with exchange rate risk, there is no uncertainty on the part of management for shareholder preferences regarding interest rate risk. Shareholders prefer that managers hedge interest rate risk rather than having shareholders diversify away such risk through portfolio diversification.

3) Interest rate futures are relatively unpopular among financial managers because of their relative illiquidity and their difficulty of use.

4) A basis point is one-tenth of one percent.

5) A swap agreement may involve currencies or interest rates, but never both.

6) Some of the world’s largest and most financially sound firms may borrow at variable rates less than LIBOR.

7) Counterparty risk is greater for exchange-traded derivatives than for over-the-counter derivatives.

8) Swap rates are derived from the yield curves in each major currency.

Essay

1) Your firm is faced with paying a variable rate debt obligation with the expectation that interest rates are likely to go up. Identify two strategies using interest rate futures and interest rate swaps that could reduce the risk to the firm.

2) How does counterparty risk influence a firm’s decision to trade exchange-traded derivatives rather than over-the-counter derivatives?
Answer: With exchange-traded derivatives, the exchange is the clearinghouse. Thus, firms do not need to worry about the other party making good on its obligations and it is easier to trade the derivative products.

ECO 305 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer University New

ECO/305 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

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CHAPTER 7

TRADE POLICIES FOR THE DEVELOPING NATIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is not a major factor that encourages developing nations to form international commodity agreements?
a. Inelastic commodity supply schedules
b. Inelastic commodity demand schedules
c. Export markets that tend to be unstable
d. Secular increases in their terms of trade

2. International commodity agreements do not:
a. Consist of consuming and producing nations who desire market stability
b. Levy export cutbacks so as to offset rising commodity prices
c. Utilize buffer stocks to generate commodity price stability
d. Increase the supply of commodities to prevent rising prices

3. Concerning the price elasticities of supply and demand for commodities, empirical estimates suggest that most commodities have:
a. Inelastic supply schedules and inelastic demand schedules
b. Inelastic supply schedules and elastic demand schedules
c. Elastic supply schedules and inelastic demand schedules
d. Elastic supply schedules and elastic demand schedules

4. If the demand schedule for bauxite is relatively inelastic to price changes, an increase in the supply schedule of bauxite will cause a:
a. Decrease in price and a decrease in sales revenue
b. Decrease in price and an increase in sales revenue
c. Increase in price and a decrease in sales revenue
d. Increase in price and an increase in sales revenue

5. A primary goal of international commodity agreements has been the:
a. Maximization of members’ revenues via export taxes
b. Nationalization of corporations operating in member nations
c. Adoption of tariff protection against industrialized nation sellers
d. Moderation of commodity price fluctuations when markets are unstable

6. Which device has the International Tin Agreement utilized as a way of stabilizing tin prices?
a. Multilateral contracts
b. Export subsidies
c. Buffer stocks
d. Export tariffs

7. Which method has not generally been used by the international commodity agreements to stabilize commodity prices?
a. Production quotas applied to the level of commodity output
b. Buffer stock arrangements among producing nations
c. Export restrictions applied to international sales of commodities
d. Measures to nationalize foreign-owned production operations

8. The OPEC nations during the 1970s manifested their market power by utilizing:
a. Export tariffs levied for revenue purposes
b. Export tariffs levied for protective purposes
c. Import tariffs levied for protective purposes
d. Import tariffs levied for revenue purposes

9. One factor that has prevented the formation of cartels for producers of commodities is that:
a. The demand for commodities tends to be price inelastic
b. Substitute products exist for many commodities
c. Commodity produces have been able to dominate world markets
d. Production of most commodities is capital intensive

10. Which device has been used by the International Wheat Agreement to stipulate the minimum prices at which importers will buy stipulated quantities from producers and the maximum prices at which producers will sell stipulated quantities to importers?
a. Buffer stocks
b. Export controls
c. Multilateral contracts
d. Production controls

11. If the bauxite exporting countries form a cartel to boost the price of bauxite so as to increase sales revenue, they believe that the demand for bauxite:
a. Is inelastic with respect to price changes
b. Is elastic with respect to price changes
c. Will increase in response to a price increase
d. Will not change in response to a price change

12. If the supply schedule for tin is relatively inelastic to price changes, a decrease in the demand schedule for tin will cause a:
a. Decrease in price and an increase in sales revenue
b. Decrease in price and a decrease in sales revenue
c. Increase in price and an increase in sales revenue
d. Increase in price and a decrease in sales revenue

13. Which of the following could partially explain why the terms of trade of developing countries might deteriorate over time?
a. Developing-country exports mainly consist of manufactured goods
b. Developing-country imports mainly consist of primary products
c. Commodity export prices are determined in highly competitive markets
d. Commodity export prices are solely determined by developing countries

14. Which terms-of-trade concept emphasizes a nation’s capacity to import?
a. Income terms of trade
b. Commodity terms of trade
c. Barter terms of trade
d. Price terms of trade

15. Which trade strategy have developing countries used to restrict imports of manufactured goods so that the domestic market is preserved for home producers, who thus can take over markets already established in the country?
a. International commodity agreement
b. Export promotion
c. Multilateral contract
d. Import substitution

16. Which trade strategy have developing countries used to replace commodity exports with exports such as processed primary products, semi-manufacturers, and manufacturers?
a. Multilateral contract
b. Buffer stock
c. Export promotion
d. Export quota

17. To help developing countries expand their industrial base, some industrial countries have reduced tariffs on designated manufactured imports from developing countries below the levels applied to imports from industrial countries. This scheme is referred to as:
a. Generalized system of preferences
b. Export-led growth
c. International commodity agreement
d. Reciprocal trade agreement

18. Which nation accounts for the largest amount of OPEC’s oil reserves and production?
a. Iran
b. Libya
c. Iraq
d. Saudi Arabia

19. Assuming identical cost and demand curves, OPEC as a cartel will, in comparison to a competitive industry:
a. Produce greater output and charge a lower price
b. Produce greater output and charge a higher price
c. Produce less output and charge a higher price
d. Produce less output and charge a lower price

20. Which of the following situations reduces the likelihood of successful operation of a cartel?
a. Cartel sales experience a rapid expansion
b. The demand for cartel output is price inelastic
c. The number of firms in the cartel is large
d. It is very difficult for new firms to enter the market

21. Which industrialization policy used by developing countries places emphasis on the comparative advantage principle as a guide to resource allocation?
a. Export promotion
b. Import substitution
c. International commodity agreements
d. Multilateral contract

22. A widely used indicator to differentiate developed countries from developing countries is:
a. International trade per capita
b. Real income per capita
c. Unemployment per capita
d. Calories per capita

23. Concerning the hypothesis that there has occurred a long-run deterioration in the developing countries’ terms of trade, empirical studies provide:
a. Mixed evidence that does not substantiate the deterioration hypothesis
b. Overwhelming support for the deterioration hypothesis
c. Overwhelming opposition to the deterioration hypothesis
d. None of the above

24. For the oil-importing countries, the increases in oil prices in 1973-1974 and 1979-1980 resulted in all of the following except:
a. Balance of trade deficits
b. Price inflation
c. Constrained economic growth
d. Improving terms of trade

25. Hong Kong and South Korea are examples of developing nations that have recently pursued industrialization policies.
a. Import substitution
b. Export promotion
c. Commercial dumping
d. Multilateral contract

26. Stabilizing commodity prices around long-term trends tends to benefit importers at the expense of exporters in markets characterized by:
a. Demand-side disturbances
b. Supply-side disturbances
c. Demand-side and supply-side disturbances
d. None of the above

27. Stabilizing commodity prices around long-term trends tends to benefit exporters at the expense of importers in markets characterized by:
a. Demand-side disturbances
b. Supply-side disturbances
c. Demand-side and supply-side disturbances
d. None of the above

28. To be considered a good candidate for an export cartel, a commodity should:
a. Be a manufactured good
b. Be a primary product
c. Have a high price elasticity of supply
d. Have a low price elasticity of demand

29. To be considered a good candidate for an export cartel, a commodity should:
a. Be a manufactured good
b. Be a primary product
c. Have a low price elasticity of supply
d. Have a high price elasticity of demand

30. To help developing nations strengthen their international competitiveness, many industrial nations have granted nonreciprocal tariff reductions to developing nations under the:
a. International commodity agreements program
b. Multilateral contract program
c. Generalized system of preferences program
d. Export-led growth program

The diagram below illustrates the international tin market. Assume that producing and consuming countries establish an international commodity agreement under which the target price of tin is $5 per pound.

Figure 7.1. Defending the Target Price in Face of Changing Demand Conditions

31. Consider Figure 7.1. Suppose the demand for tin increases from D0 to D1. Under a buffer stock system, the buffer-stock manager could maintain the target price by:
a. Selling 15 pounds of tin
b. Selling 30 pounds of tin
c. Buying 15 pounds of tin
d. Buying 30 pounds of tin

32. Consider Figure 7.1. Suppose the demand for tin decreases from D0 to D2. Under a buffer stock system, the buffer-stock manager could maintain the target price by:
a. Selling 15 pounds of tin
b. Selling 30 pounds of tin
c. Buying 15 pounds of tin
d. Buying 30 pounds of tin

33. Consider Figure 7.1. Suppose the demand for tin decreases from D0 to D2. Under a system of export quotas, the tin producers could maintain the target price by:
a. Increasing the quantity of tin supplied by 15 pounds
b. Increasing the quantity of tin supplied by 30 pounds
c. Decreasing the quantity of tin supplied by 15 pounds
d. Decreasing the quantity of tin supplied by 30 pounds

The diagram below illustrates the international tin market. Assume that the producing and consuming countries establish an international commodity agreement under which the target price of tin is $5 per pound.

Figure 7.2. Defending the Target Price in Face of Changing Supply Conditions

34. Consider Figure 7.2. Suppose the supply of tin increases from S0 to S1. Under a buffer stock system, the buffer-stock manager could maintain the target price by:
a. Purchasing 15 pounds of tin
b. Purchasing 30 pounds of tin
c. Selling 15 pounds of tin
d. Selling 30 pounds of tin

35. Consider Figure 7.2. Suppose the supply of tin decreases from S0 to S2. Under a buffer stock system, the buffer-stock manager could maintain the target price by:
a. Purchasing 15 pounds of tin
b. Purchasing 30 pounds of tin
c. Selling 15 pounds of tin
d. Selling 30 pounds of tin

36. Consider Figure 7.2. Assume there exists a cartel of several producers that is maximizing total profit. If one producer cheats on the cartel agreement by decreasing its price and increasing its output, rational action of the other producers is to:
a. Increase their price in order to regain sacrificed profits
b. Decrease their price as well
c. Keep on selling at the agreed-upon price
d. Give the product away for free

37. A reason why it is difficult for producers to maintain a cartel is that:
a. The elasticity of demand for the cartel’s output decreases over time
b. Producers in the cartel have the economic incentive to cheat
c. Economic profits discourage other producers from entering the industry
d. Producers in the cartel have the motivation to lower price but not to raise price

38. Once a cartel establishes its profit-maximizing price:
a. Entry into the industry of new competitors will not affect the cartel’s profits
b. Output changes by cartel members have no effect on the market price
c. Each cartel member is tempted to cheat on the cartel price in order to add to its profit
d. All cartel members have a strong incentive to adhere to the agreed-upon price

Figure 7.3. World Oil Market

39. Consider Figure 7.3. Under competitive conditions, the quantity of oil produced equals:
a. 40 barrels
b. 70 barrels
c. 90 barrels
d. 110 barrels

40. Consider Figure 7.3. Under competitive conditions, the price of a barrel of oil equals:
a. $7
b. $11
c. $12
d. $16

41. Consider Figure 7.3. Under competitive conditions, producer profits total:
a. $0
b. $140
c. $200
d. $280

42. Consider Figure 7.3. Under a profit-maximizing cartel, the quantity of oil produced equals:
a. 40 barrels
b. 70 barrels
c. 90 barrels
d. 110 barrels

43. Consider Figure 7.3. Under a profit-maximizing cartel, the price of a barrel of oil equals:
a. $7
b. $11
c. $16
d. $19

44. Consider Figure 7.3. Under a profit-maximizing cartel, producers realize:
a. Profits totaling $280
b. Profits totaling $360
c. Losses totaling $140
d. Losses totaling $180

45. Import substitution policies make use of:
a. Tariffs that discourage goods from entering a country
b. Quotas applied to goods that are shipped abroad
c. Production subsidies granted to industries with comparative advantages
d. Tax breaks granted to industries with comparative advantages

46. Export-led growth tends to:
a. Exploit domestic comparative advantages
b. Discourage competition in the global economy
c. Lead to unemployment among domestic workers
d. Help firms benefit from diseconomies of large-scale production

47. All of the following nations except ____ have recently utilized export-led (outward oriented) growth policies.
a. Hong Kong
b. South Korea
c. Argentina
d. Singapore

48. The characteristics that have underlaid the economic success of the “high-performing Asian Economies” have included all of the following except:
a. High rates of domestic investment
b. Diseconomies of scale occurring at low output levels
c. Large endowments of human capital
d. High levels of labor productivity

49. The development of countries like South Korea and Singapore has been underlaid by all of the following except:
a. High domestic interest rates
b. R&D and product innovation
c. Education and on-the-job training
d. High levels of saving and investment

50. For most developing countries:
a. Productivity is high among domestic workers
b. Population-growth and illiteracy rates are low
c. Saving and investment levels are high
d. Agricultural goods and raw materials constitute much of domestic output

51. East Asian economies have performed well by
a. Obtaining foreign technology
b. Remaining open to international trade
c. Investing in their people
d. All of the above

52. East Asian economies started enacting export-push strategies
a. By late 1950s and 1960s
b. Immediately after World War II
c. In the late 1980s
d. In the early 2000s

53. Prior to the formation of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries, individual oil producing nations,
a. Operated like sellers in a competitive market
b. Behaved like individual sellers in a monopoly market
c. Had considerable control over the price of oil
d. Both b and c.

54. A key factor underlying the instability of primary product prices and export receipts of developing nations is the
a. Low price elasticity of the demand of primary products
b. High price elasticity of supply of primary products
c. High price elasticity of demand of primary products
d. None of the above

TRUE/FALSE

1. The developing nations are most of those in Africa, Asia, North America, and Western Europe.

2. Most developing-nation exports go to industrial nations while most developing-nation imports originate in industrial nations.

3. The majority of developing-nation exports are primary products such as agricultural goods and raw materials; of the manufactured goods exported by developing nations, most are labor-intensive goods.

4. Developing nations overwhelmingly acknowledge that they have benefited from international trade according to the principle of comparative advantage.

5. Among the economic problems facing developing countries have been low dependence on primary-product exports, unstable export markets, and worsening terms of trade.

6. For developing countries, a key factor underlying the instability of primary-product prices and export receipts is the high price elasticity of demand for products such as tin and copper.

7. Empirical research indicates that the demand and supply schedules for most primary products are relatively inelastic to changes in price.

8. If the demand for coffee is price inelastic, an increase in the supply of coffee leads to falling prices and rising sales revenues.

9. Not only do changes in demand induce relatively wide fluctuations in price when supply is inelastic, but changes in supply induce relatively wide fluctuations in price when demand is inelastic.

10. Developing countries have complained that because their commodity terms of trade has deteriorated in recent decades, they should receive preferential tariff treatment from industrialized countries.

11. To promote stability in commodity markets, International Commodity Agreements have utilized production and export controls, buffer stocks, and multilateral contracts.

12. During periods of falling demand for coffee, an International Commodity Agreement could offset downward pressure on price by implementing policies to increase the supply of coffee.

13. To prevent the market price of tin from rising above the target price, the manager of a buffer stock will purchase excess supplies of tin from the market.

14. To prevent the market price of tin from falling below the target price, the manager of a buffer stock would purchase any excess supply of tin that exists at the target price.

15. Prolonged defense of a price ceiling tends to increase the supply of a commodity held by a buffer stock manager, thus putting downward pressure on price.

16. Rather than conduct massive stabilization operations, buffer stock officials will periodically revise target prices should they move out of line with long-term price trends.

17. A multilateral contract stipulates the maximum price at which importing nations will purchase guaranteed quantities from producing nations and the minimum price at which producing nations will sell guaranteed amounts to importing nations.

18. It is widely agreed that import-substitution policies have been a main contributor to above-average growth rates in developing countries.

19. Under the Generalized System of Preferences program, the major industrial countries agree to temporarily reduce tariffs on designated imports from other industrial countries.

20. The “newly industrializing countries” of East Asia have emphasized the implementation of import-substitution policies to insulate their industries from international competition.

21. In recent decades, the East Asian “newly industrializing countries” have pursued export-led growth (outward orientation) as an industrialization strategy.

22. The purpose of a cartel is to support prices higher than would occur under more competitive conditions, thus increasing the profits of cartel members.

23. A cartel tends to be most successful in maximizing the profits of its members when there are a large number of producers in the cartel and these producers’ cost and demand conditions greatly differ from each other.

24. When cartel members agree to restrict output to increase the price of their product, a single member of the cartel has an economic incentive to violate the agreement by increasing its output so as to increase profits.

25. Developing countries have often felt that it is easier to protect their manufacturers, via import-substitution policies, against foreign competitors than to force industrial nations to reduce trade restrictions on products exported by developing countries.

26. Import-substitution policies are supported by the fact that many developing countries have small domestic markets and thus their producers enjoy the benefits of diseconomies of small-scale production.

27. Export-led growth industrialization suffers a major problem: it depends on the willingness and ability of foreign nations to absorb the goods exported by the country pursuing such a policy.

28. The so-called Four Tigers include Australia, South Korea, Taiwan, and Hong Kong.

29. By the 1990s, China had departed from a capitalistic economy and shifted to a Soviet-type economy encompassing small-scale, labor-intensive industry.

30. During the late 1980s and early 1990s, China dismantled much of its centrally-planned economy and permitted free enterprise to replace it.

31. In its transition toward capitalism, by the 1990s China permitted free enterprise as well as democracy for its people.

32. Most of China’s manufactured exports have constituted labor-intensive goods.

33. In 1999 the United States revoked the normal-trade-relations (most-favored-nation) status it provided China in retaliation for China’s suppression of human rights.

34. A multilateral contract specifies the maximum price at which exporting countries agree to sell a product and the minimum price at which importing countries agree to buy a product.

35. As a profit-maximizing cartel, the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries would produce a greater output and charge a lower price than what would occur in a competitive market.

36. The success of buffer stocks is limited by the fact that stockpiles of a product may be exhausted after prolonged sales, while funds may be exhausted after prolonged purchases.

37. The United Nation Conference on Trade and Development in 1964 was successful in convincing developing countries to switch from export-led industrialization to import-substitution industrialization.

38. Under the Generalized System of Preferences program, the industrialized countries agree to maintain lower tariffs on imports of natural resources and higher tariffs on imports of manufactured goods.

39. The replacement of imports of one nation with imports of another nation is known as “import substitution.”

40. During periods of weak demand, the Organization of Petroleum Countries has implemented production (export) quotas to ensure that excess oil supplies be kept off the market.

SHORT ANSWER

1. What are some major trade problems faced by developing nations?

2. Are economic downturns helpful to cartels?

ESSAY

1. What are some of the growth strategies that have been employed by the developing nations? How successful are these strategies?

2. Describe the flying-geese pattern of economic growth? What countries have pursued this strategy?

ECO 410 Week 5 Quiz 4 Chapter 7 and 8 – Strayer University NEW

ECO 410 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

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Chapter 7

International Parity Conditions

7.1 Prices and Exchange Rates

Multiple Choice

1) If an identical product can be sold in two different markets, and no restrictions exist on the sale or transportation costs, the product’s price should be the same in both markets. This is known as:
A) relative purchasing power parity.
B) interest rate parity.
C) the law of one price.
D) equilibrium.

2) The Economist publishes annually the “Big Mac Index” by which they compare the prices of the McDonald’s Corporation’s Big Mac hamburger around the world. The index estimates the exchange rates for currencies based on the assumption that the burgers in question are the same across the world and therefore, the price should be the same. If a Big Mac costs $2.54 in the United States and 294 yen in Japan, what is the estimated exchange rate of yen per dollar as hypothesized by the Hamburger index?
A) $0.0086/¥
B) ¥124/$
C) $0.0081/¥
D) ¥115.75/$

3) If the current exchange rate is 113 Japanese yen per U.S. dollar, the price of a Big Mac hamburger in the United States is $3.41, and the price of a Big Mac hamburger in Japan is 280 yen, then other things equal, the Big Mac hamburger in Japan is:
A) correctly priced.
B) under priced.
C) over priced.
D) There is not enough information to determine if the price is appropriate or not.

4) The price of a Big Mac in the U.S. is $3.41 and the price in Mexico is Peso 29.0. What is the implied PPP of the Peso per dollar?
A) Peso 8.50/$1
B) Peso 10.8/$1
C) Peso 11.76/$1
D) None of the above

5) Assume the implied PPP rate of exchange of Mexican Pesos per U.S. dollar is 8.50 according to the Big Mac Index. Further, assume the current exchange rate is Peso 10.80/$1. Thus, according to PPP and the Law of One Price, at the current exchange rate the peso is:
A) overvalued.
B) undervalued.
C) correctly valued.
D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

6) According to the Big Mac Index, the implied PPP exchange rate is Mexican peso 8.50/$1 but the actual exchange rate is peso10.80/$1. Thus, at current exchange rates the peso appears to be ________ by ________.
A) overvalued; approximately 21%
B) overvalued; approximately 27%
C) undervalued; approximately 21%
D) undervalued; approximately 27%

7) Other things equal, and assuming efficient markets, if a Honda Accord costs $24,682 in the U.S., then at an exchange rate of $1.57/£, the Honda Accord should cost ________ in Great Britain.
A) £24,682
B) £38,751
C) £10,795
D) £15,721

8) One year ago the spot rate of U.S. dollars for Canadian dollars was $1/C$1. Since that time the rate of inflation in the U.S. has been 4% greater than that in Canada. Based on the theory of Relative PPP, the current spot exchange rate of U.S. dollars for Canadian dollars should be approximately:
A) $0.96/C$
B) $1/C$
C) $1.04/C$
D) Relative PPP provides no guide for this type of question.

9) ________ states that differential rates of inflation between two countries tend to be offset over time by an equal but opposite change in the spot exchange rate.
A) The Fisher Effect
B) The International Fisher Effect
C) Absolute Purchasing Power Parity
D) Relative Purchasing Power Parity

10) Two general conclusions can be made from the empirical tests of purchasing power parity (PPP):
A) PPP holds up well over the short run but poorly for the long run, and the theory holds better for countries with relatively low rates of inflation.
B) PPP holds up well over the short run but poorly for the long run, and the theory holds better for countries with relatively high rates of inflation.
C) PPP holds up well over the long run but poorly for the short run, and the theory holds better for countries with relatively low rates of inflation.
D) PPP holds up well over the long run but poorly for the short run, and the theory holds better for countries with relatively high rates of inflation.

11) A country’s currency that strengthened relative to another country’s currency by more than that justified by the differential in inflation is said to be ________ in terms of PPP.
A) overvalued
B) over compensating
C) undervalued
D) under compensating

12) If we set the real effective exchange rate index between Canada and the United States equal to 100 in 1998, and find that the U.S. dollar has risen to a value of 112.6, then from a competitive perspective the U.S. dollar is:
A) overvalued.
B) undervalued.
C) very competitive.
D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

13) If we set the real effective exchange rate index between the United Kingdom and the United States equal to 100 in 2005, and find that the U.S. dollar has changed to a value of 91.4, then from a competitive perspective the U.S. dollar is:
A) overvalued.
B) undervalued.
C) equally valued.
D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

14) The government just released international exchange rate statistics and reported that the real effective exchange rate index for the U.S. dollar vs the Japanese yen decreased from 105 last year to 95 currently and is expected to fall still further in the coming year. Other things equal U.S. ________ to/from Japan think this is good news and U.S. ________ to/from Japan think this is bad news.
A) importers; exporters
B) importers; importers
C) exporters; exporters
D) exporters; importers

True/False

1) If a market basket of goods cost $100 is the US and €70 in France, then the PPP exchange rate would be $.70/€.

2) The assumptions for relative PPP are more rigid than the assumptions for absolute PPP.

3) Empirical tests prove that PPP is an accurate predictor of future exchange rates.

4) Consider the price elasticity of demand. If a product has price elasticity less than one it is considered to have relatively elastic demand.

Essay

1) The authors state that empirical tests of purchasing power parity “have, for the most part, not proved PPP to be accurate in predicting future exchange rates.” The authors then state that PPP does hold up reasonably well in two situations. What are some reasons why PPP does not accurately predict future exchange rates, and under what conditions might we reasonably expect PPP to hold?

7.2 Exchange Rate Pass-Through

Multiple Choice

1) ________ states that nominal interest rates in each country are equal to the required real rate of return plus compensation for expected inflation.
A) Absolute PPP
B) Relative PPP
C) The Law of One Price
D) The Fisher Effect

2) In its approximate form the Fisher effect may be written as ________. Where: i = the nominal rate of interest, r = the real rate of return and π = the expected rate of inflation.
A) i = (r)(π)
B) i = r + π + (r)(π)
C) i = r + π
D) i = r + 2π

3) Assume a nominal interest rate on one-year U.S. Treasury Bills of 2.60% and a real rate of interest of 1.00%. Using the Fisher Effect Equation, what is the approximate expected rate of inflation in the U.S. over the next year?
A) 2.10%
B) 2.05%
C) 1.60%
D) 1.00%

4) Assume a nominal interest rate on one-year U.S. Treasury Bills of 3.80% and a real rate of interest of 2.00%. Using the Fisher Effect Equation, what is the exact expected rate of inflation in the U.S. over the next year?
A) 1.84%
B) 1.80%
C) 1.76%
D) 1.72%

5) The relationship between the percentage change in the spot exchange rate over time and the differential between comparable interest rates in different national capital markets is known as:
A) absolute PPP.
B) the law of one price.
C) relative PPP.
D) the international Fisher Effect.

6) According to the international Fisher Effect, if an investor purchases a five-year U.S. bond that has an annual interest rate of 5% rather than a comparable British bond that has an annual interest rate of 6%, then the investor must be expecting the ________ to ________ at a rate of at least 1% per year over the next 5 years.
A) British pound; appreciate
B) British pound; revalue
C) U.S. dollar; appreciate
D) U.S. dollar; depreciate

7) ________ states that the spot exchange rate should change in an equal amount but in the opposite direction to the difference in interest rates between two countries.
A) Fisher-open
B) Fisher-closed
C) The Fisher Effect
D) none of the above

8) Exchange rate pass-through may be defined as:
A) the bid/ask spread on currency exchange rate transactions.
B) the degree to which the prices of imported and exported goods change as a result of exchange rate changes.
C) the PPP of lesser-developed countries.
D) the practice by Great Britain of maintaining the relative strength of the currencies of the Commonwealth countries under the current floating exchange rate regime.

9) Phillips NV produces DVD players and exports them to the United States. Last year the exchange rate was $1.25/euro and Plillips charged 120 euro per player in Euroland and $150 per DVD player in the United States. Currently the spot exchange rate is $1.45/euro and Phillips is charging $160 per DVD player. What is the degree of pass through by Phillips NV on their DVD players?
A) 92%
B) 33.3%
C) 41.7%
D) 4.1%

10) Jaguar has full manufacturing costs of their S-type sedan of £22,803. They sell the S-type in the UK with a 20% margin for a price of £27,363. Today these cars are available in the US for $55,000 which is the UK price multiplied by the current exchange rate of $2.01/£. Jaguar has committed to keeping the US price at $55,000 for the next six months. If the UK pound appreciates against the USD to an exchange rate of $2.15/£, and Jaguar has not hedged against currency changes, what is the amount the company will receive in pounds at the new exchange rate?
A) £22,803
B) £25,581
C) £27,363
D) £55,000

11) Jaguar has full manufacturing costs of their S-type sedan of £22,803. They sell the S-type in the UK with a 20% margin for a price of £27,363. Today these cars are available in the US for $55,000 which is the UK price multiplied by the current exchange rate of $2.01/£. Jaguar has committed to keeping the US price at $55,000 for the next six months. If the UK pound appreciates against the USD to an exchange rate of $2.15/£, and Jaguar has not hedged against currency changes, what is the percentage margin the company will realize given the new exchange rate?
A) 20.0%
B) 15.3%
C) 12.4%
D) 7.2%

12) The price elasticity of demand for DVD players manufactured by Sony of Japan is greater than one. If the Japanese yen appreciates against the U.S. dollar by 10% and the price of the Sony DVD players in the U.S also rises by 10%, then other things equal, the total dollar sales revenues of Sony DVDs would:
A) decline.
B) increase.
C) stay the same.
D) insufficient information

True/False

1) The final component of the equation for the Fisher Effect, (r)(π), where r = the real rate of return and π = the expected rate of inflation, is often dropped from the equation because the number is simply too large for most Western economies.

2) Empirical studies show that the Fisher Effect works best for short-term securities.

3) The current U.S. dollar-yen spot rate is ¥125/$. If the 90-day forward exchange rate is ¥127/$ then the yen is at a forward premium.

4) The premium or discount on forward currency exchange rates between any two countries is visually obvious when you plot the interest rates of each country on the same yield curve. The currency of the country with the higher yield curve should be selling at a forward discount.

5) Use interest rate parity to answer this question. A U.S. investor has a choice between a risk-free one-year U.S. security with an annual return of 4%, and a comparable British security with a return of 5%. If the spot rate is $1.43/£, the forward rate is $1.44/£, and there are no transaction costs, the investor should invest in the U.S. security.

6) Both covered and uncovered interest arbitrage are risky operations in the sense that even without default in the securities, the returns are unknown until all transactions are complete.

7) All that is required for a covered interest arbitrage profit is for interest rate parity to not hold.

Essay/Short Answer

1) The authors describe an application of uncovered interest arbitrage (UIA) known as “yen carry trade.” Define UIA and describe the example of yen carry trade. Why would an investor engage in the practice of yen carry trade and is there any risk of loss or lesser profit from this investment strategy?

2) The Fisher Effect is a familiar economic theory in the domestic market. In words, define the Fisher Effect and explain why you think it is also appropriately applied to international markets.

7.3 The Forward Rate

Multiple Choice

1) If the forward rate is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot rate, which of the following is NOT true?
A) The expected value of the future spot rate at time 2 equals the present forward rate for time 2 delivery, available now.
B) The distribution of possible actual spot rates in the future is centered on the forward rate.
C) The future spot rate will actually be equal to what the forward rate predicts.
D) All of the above are true.

2) Which of the following is NOT an assumption of market efficiency?
A) Instruments denominated in other currencies are perfect substitutes for one another.
B) Transaction costs are low or nonexistent.
C) All relevant information is quickly reflected in both spot and forward exchange markets.
D) All of the above are true.

3) Empirical tests have yielded ________ evidence about market efficiency with a general consensus that developing foreign markets are ________.
A) conflicting; not efficient
B) conflicting; efficient
C) consistent; inefficient
D) none of the above

4) A ________ is an exchange rate quoted today for settlement at some time in the future.
A) spot rate
B) forward rate
C) currency rate
D) yield curve

5) Assume the current U.S. dollar-British spot rate is 0.6993£/$. If the current nominal one-year interest rate in the U.S. is 5% and the comparable rate in Britain is 6%, what is the approximate forward exchange rate for 360 days?
A) £1.42/$
B) £1.43/$
C) £0.6993/$
D) £0.7060/$

6) Assume the current U.S. dollar-yen spot rate is 90 ¥/$. Further, the current nominal 180-day rate of return in Japan is 1% and 2% in the United States. What is the approximate forward exchange rate for 180 days?
A) ¥89.12/$
B) ¥89.55/$
C) ¥90.89/$
D) ¥90.45/$

7) The current U.S. dollar-yen spot rate is 125¥/$. If the 90-day forward exchange rate is 127 ¥/$ then the yen is selling at a per annum ________ of ________.
A) premium; 1.57%
B) premium; 6.30%
C) discount; 1.57%
D) discount; 6.30%

8) The theory of ________ states that the difference in the national interest rates for securities of similar risk and maturity should be equal to but opposite in sign to the forward rate discount or premium for the foreign currency, except for transaction costs.
A) international Fisher Effect
B) absolute PPP
C) interest rate parity
D) the law of one price

9) With covered interest arbitrage:
A) the market must be out of equilibrium.
B) a “riskless” arbitrage opportunity exists.
C) the arbitrageur trades in both the spot and future currency exchange markets.
D) all of the above

10) Covered interest arbitrage moves the market ________ equilibrium because ________.
A) toward; purchasing a currency on the spot market and selling in the forward market narrows the differential between the two
B) toward; investors are now more willing to invest in risky securities
C) away from; purchasing a currency on the spot market and selling in the forward market increases the differential between the two
D) away from; demand for the stronger currency forces up interest rates on the weaker security

True/False

1) If exchange markets were not efficient, it would pay for a firm to spend resources on forecasting exchange rates.

2) If the forward exchange rate is an unbiased predictor of future spot rates, then future spot rates will always be equal to current forward rates.

3) COVERED interest arbitrage (CIA), is where investors borrow in countries and currencies exhibiting relatively low interest rates and convert the proceeds into currencies that offer much higher interest rates. The transaction is “covered,” because the investor does not sell the higher yielding currency proceeds forward.

7.4 Prices, Interest Rates, and Exchange Rates in Equilibrium

Multiple Choice

1) According to the International Fisher Effect, the forecast change in the spot rate between two countries is equal to:
A) the current spot rate multiplied by the ratio of the inflation rates in the respective countries.
B) but the opposite sign to the difference between nominal interest rates.
C) but the opposite sign to the difference between inflation rates.
D) but the opposite sign to the difference between real interest rates.

True/False

1) In their approximate form, PPP, IRP, and forward rates as an unbiased predictor of the future spot rate lead to similar forecasts of the future spot rate.

Multinational Business Finance, 13e (Eiteman/Stonehill/Moffett)
Chapter 8 Foreign Currency Derivatives and Swaps

8.1 Foreign Currency Futures

Multiple Choice

1) Financial derivatives are powerful tools that can be used by management for purposes of:
A) speculation.
B) hedging.
C) human resource management.
D) A and B above

2) A foreign currency ________ contract calls for the future delivery of a standard amount of foreign exchange at a fixed time, place, and price.
A) futures
B) forward
C) option
D) swap

3) Which of the following is NOT a contract specification for currency futures trading on an organized exchange?
A) size of the contract
B) maturity date
C) last trading day
D) All of the above are specified.

4) About ________ of all futures contracts are settled by physical delivery of foreign exchange between buyer and seller.
A) 0%
B) 5%
C) 50%
D) 95%

5) Futures contracts require that the purchaser deposit an initial sum as collateral. This deposit is called a:
A) collateralized deposit.
B) marked market sum.
C) margin.
D) settlement.

6) A speculator in the futures market wishing to lock in a price at which they could ________ a foreign currency will ________ a futures contract.
A) buy; sell
B) sell; buy
C) buy; buy
D) none of the above

7) A speculator that has ________ a futures contract has taken a ________ position.
A) sold; long
B) purchased; short
C) sold; short
D) purchased; sold

8) Peter Simpson thinks that the U.K. pound will cost $1.43/£ in six months. A 6-month currency futures contract is available today at a rate of $1.44/£. If Peter was to speculate in the currency futures market, and his expectations are correct, which of the following strategies would earn him a profit?
A) Sell a pound currency futures contract.
B) Buy a pound currency futures contract.
C) Sell pounds today.
D) Sell pounds in six months.

9) Jack Hemmings bought a 3-month British pound futures contract for $1.4400/£ only to see the dollar appreciate to a value of $1.4250 at which time he sold the pound futures. If each pound futures contract is for an amount of £62,500, how much money did Jack gain or lose from his speculation with pound futures?
A) $937.50 loss
B) $937.50 gain
C) £937.50 loss
D) £937.50 gain

10) Which of the following statements regarding currency futures contracts and forward contracts is NOT true?
A) A futures contract is a standardized amount per currency whereas the forward contact is for any size desired.
B) A futures contract is for a fixed maturity whereas the forward contract is for any maturity you like up to one year.
C) Futures contracts trade on organized exchanges whereas forwards take place between individuals and banks with other banks via telecom linkages.
D) All of the above are true.

11) Which of the following is NOT a difference between a currency futures contract and a forward contract?
A) The futures contract is marked to market daily, whereas the forward contract is only due to be settled at maturity.
B) The counterparty to the futures participant is unknown with the clearinghouse stepping into each transaction, whereas the forward contract participants are in direct contact setting the forward specifications.
C) A single sales commission covers both the purchase and sale of a futures contract, whereas there is no specific sales commission with a forward contract because banks earn a profit through the bid-ask spread.
D) All of the above are true.

12) A foreign currency ________ gives the purchaser the right, not the obligation, to buy a given amount of foreign exchange at a fixed price per unit for a specified period.
A) future
B) forward
C) option
D) swap

13) A foreign currency ________ option gives the holder the right to ________ a foreign currency, whereas a foreign currency ________ option gives the holder the right to ________ an option.
A) call, buy, put, sell
B) call, sell, put, buy
C) put, hold, call, release
D) none of the above

14) The price at which an option can be exercised is called the:
A) premium.
B) spot rate.
C) strike price.
D) commission.

15) An ________ option can be exercised only on its expiration date, whereas a/an ________ option can be exercised anytime between the date of writing up to and including the exercise date.
A) American; European
B) American; British
C) Asian; American
D) European; American

16) An ________ option can be exercised only on its expiration date, whereas a/an ________ option can be exercised anytime between the date of writing up to and including the exercise date.
A) American; European
B) American; British
C) Asian; American
D) European; American

17) A call option whose exercise price exceeds the spot price is said to be:
A) in-the-money.
B) at-the-money.
C) out-of-the-money.
D) over-the-spot.

18) A call option whose exercise price is less than the spot price is said to be:
A) in-the-money.
B) at-the-money.
C) out-of-the-money.
D) under-the-spot.

19) An option whose exercise price is equal to the spot rate is said to be:
A) in-the-money.
B) at-the-money.
C) out-of-the-money.
D) on-the-spot.

20) The main advantage(s) of over-the-counter foreign currency options over exchange traded options is (are):
A) expiration dates tailored to the needs of the client.
B) amounts that are tailor made.
C) client desired expiration dates.
D) all of the above

21) As a general statement, it is safe to say that businesses generally use the ________ for foreign currency option contracts, and individuals and financial institutions typically use the ________.
A) exchange markets; over-the-counter
B) over-the-counter; exchange markets
C) private; government sponsored
D) government sponsored; private

TABLE 8.1
Use the table to answer following question(s).

April 19, 2009, British Pound Option Prices (cents per pound, 62,500 pound contracts).

22) Refer to Table 8.1. What was the closing price of the British pound on April 18, 2009?
A) $1.448/£
B) £1.448/$
C) $14.48/£
D) none of the above

23) Refer to Table 8.1. The exercise price of ________ giving the purchaser the right to sell pounds in June has a cost per pound of ________ for a total price of ________.
A) 1460; 0.68 cents; $425.00
B) 1440; 1.06 cents; $662.50
C) 1450; 1.02 cents; $637.50
D) 1440; 1.42 cents; $887.50

24) Refer to Table 8.1. The May call option on pounds with a strike price of 1440 mean:
A) $88/£ per contract.
B) $0.88/£.
C) $0.0088/£.
D) none of the above

25) Dash Brevenshure works for the currency trading unit of ING Bank in London. He speculates that in the coming months the dollar will rise sharply vs. the pound. What should Dash do to act on his speculation?
A) Buy a call on the pound.
B) Sell a call on the pound.
C) Buy a put on the pound.
D) Sell a put on the pound.

26) A put option on yen is written with a strike price of ¥105.00/$. Which spot price maximizes your profit if you choose to exercise the option before maturity?
A) ¥100/$
B) ¥105/$
C) ¥110/$
D) ¥115/$

27) A call option on euros is written with a strike price of $1.30/euro. Which spot price maximizes your profit if you choose to exercise the option before maturity?
A) $1.20/euro
B) $1.25/euro
C) $1.30/euro
D) $1.35/euro

28) A call option on UK pounds has a strike price of $2.05/£ and a cost of $0.02. What is the break-even price for the option?
A) $2.03/£
B) $2.07/£
C) $2.05/£
D) The answer depends upon if this is a long or a short call option.

29) Your U.S firm has an accounts payable denominated in UK pounds due in 6 months. To protect yourself against unexpected changes in the dollar/pound exchange rate you should:
A) buy a pound put option.
B) sell a pound put option.
C) buy a pound call option.
D) sell a pound call option.

30) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper thinks the yen will move to ¥128.00/$ in the next six months. Jasper should ________ at ________ to profit from changing currency values.
A) buy yen; the forward rate
B) buy dollars; the forward rate
C) sell yen; the forward rate
D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

31) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper thinks the yen will move to ¥128.00/$ in the next six months. If Jasper buys $100,000 worth of yen at today’s spot price and sells within the next six months at ¥128/$, he will earn a profit of:
A) $146.09
B) $101,460.94
C) $1460.94
D) nothing; he will lose money

32) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper thinks the yen will move to ¥128.00/$ in the next six months. If Jasper buys $100,000 worth of yen at today’s spot price her potential gain is ________ and her potential loss is ________.
A) $100,000; unlimited
B) unlimited; unlimited
C) $100,000; $100,000
D) unlimited; $100,000

33) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper thinks the yen will move to ¥128.00/$ in the next six months. If Jasper’s expectations are correct, then he could profit in the forward market by ________ and then ________.
A) buying yen for ¥128.00/$; selling yen at ¥128.53/$
B) buying yen for ¥128.53/$; selling yen at ¥128.00/$
C) There is not enough information to answer this question
D) He could not profit in the forward market.

34) The maximum gain for the purchaser of a call option contract is ________ while the maximum loss is ________.
A) unlimited; the premium paid.
B) the premium paid; unlimited.
C) unlimited; unlimited.
D) unlimited; the value of the underlying asset.

35) The buyer of a long call option:
A) has a maximum loss equal to the premium paid.
B) has a gain equal to but opposite in sign to the writer of the option.
C) has an unlimited maximum gain potential.
D) all of the above

36) Which of the following is NOT true for the writer of a call option?
A) The maximum loss is unlimited.
B) The maximum gain is unlimited.
C) The gain or loss is equal to but of the opposite sign of the buyer of a call option.
D) All of the above are true.

37) Which of the following is NOT true for the writer of a put option?
A) The maximum loss is limited to the strike price of the underlying asset less the premium.
B) The gain or loss is equal to but of the opposite sign of the buyer of a put option.
C) The maximum gain is the amount of the premium.
D) All of the above are true.

38) The buyer of a long put option:
A) has a maximum loss equal to the premium paid.
B) has a gain equal to but opposite in sign to the writer of the option.
C) has maximum gain potential limited to the difference between the strike price and the premium paid.
D) all of the above

39) The value of a European style call option is the sum of two components:
A) the present value plus the intrinsic value.
B) the time value plus the present value.
C) the intrinsic value plus the time value.
D) the intrinsic value plus the standard deviation.

True/False

1) Currency futures contracts have become standard fare and trade readily in the world money centers.

2) The major difference between currency futures and forward contracts is that futures contracts are standardized for ease of trading on an exchange market whereas forward contracts are specialized and tailored to meet the needs of clients.

3) The writer of the option is referred to as the seller, and the buyer of the option is referred to as the holder.

4) Foreign currency options are available both over-the-counter and on organized exchanges.

5) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper would earn a higher rate of return by buying yen and a forward contract than if he had invested her money in 6-month US Treasury securities at an annual rate of 2.50%.

6) Most option profits and losses are realized through taking actual delivery of the currency rather than offsetting contracts.

Essay

1) Why are foreign currency futures contracts more popular with individuals and banks while foreign currency forwards are more popular with businesses?

2) Compare and contrast foreign currency options and futures. Identify situations when you may prefer one vs. the other when speculating on foreign exchange.

8.2 Option Pricing and Valuation

Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining the premium price of a currency option?
A) the present spot rate
B) the time to maturity
C) the standard deviation of the daily spot price movement
D) All of the above are factors in determining the premium price.

2) The ________ of an option is the value if the option were to be exercised immediately. It is the option’s ________ value.
A) intrinsic value; maximum
B) intrinsic value; minimum
C) time value; maximum
D) time value; minimum

3) Assume that a call option has an exercise price of $1.50/£. At a spot price of $1.45/£, the call option has:
A) a time value of $0.04.
B) a time value of $0.00.
C) an intrinsic value of $0.00.
D) an intrinsic value of -$0.04.

4) The single largest interest rate risk of a firm is:
A) interest sensitive securities.
B) debt service.
C) dividend payments.
D) accounts payable.

5) ________ is the possibility that the borrower’s creditworthiness is reclassified by the lender at the time of renewing credit. ________ is the risk of changes in interest rates charged at the time a financial contract rate is set.
A) Credit risk; Interest rate risk
B) Repricing risk; Credit risk
C) Interest rate risk; Credit risk
D) Credit risk; Repricing risk

Instruction 8.1:
For the following problem(s), consider these debt strategies being considered by a corporate borrower. Each is intended to provide $1,000,000 in financing for a three-year period.

• Strategy #1: Borrow $1,000,000 for three years at a fixed rate of interest of 7%.
• Strategy #2: Borrow $1,000,000 for three years at a floating rate of LIBOR + 2%, to be reset annually. The current LIBOR rate is 3.50%
• Strategy #3: Borrow $1,000,000 for one year at a fixed rate, and then renew the credit annually. The current one-year rate is 5%.

6) Refer to Instruction 8.1. Choosing strategy #1 will:
A) guarantee the lowest average annual rate over the next three years.
B) eliminate credit risk but retain repricing risk.
C) maintain the possibility of lower interest costs, but maximizes the combined credit and repricing risks.
D) preclude the possibility of sharing in lower interest rates over the three-year period.

7) Refer to Instruction 8.1. Choosing strategy #2 will:
A) guarantee the lowest average annual rate over the next three years.
B) eliminate credit risk but retain repricing risk.
C) maintain the possibility of lower interest costs, but maximizes the combined credit and repricing risks.
D) preclude the possibility of sharing in lower interest rates over the three-year period.

8) Refer to Instruction 8.1. Choosing strategy #3 will:
A) guarantee the lowest average annual rate over the next three years.
B) eliminate credit risk but retain repricing risk.
C) maintain the possibility of lower interest costs, but maximizes the combined credit and repricing risks.
D) preclude the possibility of sharing in lower interest rates over the three-year period.

9) Refer to Instruction 8.1. Which strategy (strategies) will eliminate credit risk?
A) Strategy #1
B) Strategy #2
C) Strategy #3
D) Strategies #1 and #2

10) Refer to Instruction 8.1. If your firm felt very confident that interest rates would fall or, at worst, remain at current levels, and were very confident about the firm’s credit rating for the next 10 years, which strategy would you likely choose? (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) Strategy #3
B) Strategy #2
C) Strategy #1
D) Strategy #1, #2, or #3; you are indifferent among the choices.

11) Refer to Instruction 8.1. The risk of strategy #1 is that interest rates might go down or that your credit rating might improve. The risk of strategy #2 is: (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) that interest rates might go down or that your credit rating might improve.
B) that interest rates might go up or that your credit rating might improve.
C) that interest rates might go up or that your credit rating might get worse.
D) none of the above

12) Refer to Instruction 8.1. The risk of strategy #1 is that interest rates might go down or that your credit rating might improve. The risk of strategy #3 is: (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) that interest rates might go down or that your credit rating might improve.
B) that interest rates might go up or that your credit rating might improve.
C) that interest rates might go up or that your credit rating might get worse.
D) none of the above

13) Refer to Instruction 8.1. After the fact, under which set of circumstances would you prefer strategy #1? (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went up.
B) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went down.
C) Your credit rating improved and interest rates went down.
D) Not enough information to make a judgment.

14) Refer to Instruction 8.1. After the fact, under which set of circumstances would you prefer strategy #2? (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went up.
B) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went down.
C) Your credit rating improved and interest rates went down.
D) Not enough information to make a judgment.

15) Refer to Instruction 8.1. After the fact, under which set of circumstances would you prefer strategy #3? (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went up.
B) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went down.
C) Your credit rating improved and interest rates went down.
D) Not enough information to make a judgment.

True/False

1) The time value is asymmetric in value as you move away from the strike price (i.e., the time value at two cents above the strike price is not necessarily the same as the time value two cents below the strike price).

8.3 Interest Rate Derivatives

Multiple Choice

1) An interbank-traded contract to buy or sell interest rate payments on a notional principal is called a/an:
A) forward rate agreement.
B) interest rate future.
C) interest rate swap.
D) none of the above

2) A/an ________ is a contract to lock in today interest rates over a given period of time.
A) forward rate agreement
B) interest rate future
C) interest rate swap
D) none of the above

3) An agreement to exchange interest payments based on a fixed payment for those based on a variable rate (or vice versa) is known as a/an:
A) forward rate agreement.
B) interest rate future.
C) interest rate swap.
D) none of the above

4) The financial manager of a firm has a variable rate loan outstanding. If she wishes to protect the firm against an unfavorable increase in interest rates she could:
A) sell an interest rate futures contract of a similar maturity to the loan.
B) buy an interest rate futures contract of a similar maturity to the loan.
C) swap the adjustable rate loan for another of a different maturity.
D) none of the above

5) An agreement to swap a fixed interest payment for a floating interest payment would be considered a/an:
A) currency swap.
B) forward swap.
C) interest rate swap.
D) none of the above

6) An agreement to swap the currencies of a debt service obligation would be termed a/an:
A) currency swap.
B) forward swap.
C) interest rate swap.
D) none of the above

7) Which of the following would be considered an example of a currency swap?
A) exchanging a dollar interest obligation for a British pound obligation
B) exchanging a eurodollar interest obligation for a dollar obligation
C) exchanging a eurodollar interest obligation for a British pound obligation
D) All of the above are examples of a currency swap.

8) A firm with fixed-rate debt that expects interest rates to fall may engage in a swap agreement to:
A) pay fixed-rate interest and receive floating rate interest.
B) pay floating rate and receive fixed rate.
C) pay fixed rate and receive fixed rate.
D) pay floating rate and receive floating rate.

9) A firm with variable-rate debt that expects interest rates to rise may engage in a swap agreement to:
A) pay fixed-rate interest and receive floating rate interest.
B) pay floating rate and receive fixed rate.
C) pay fixed rate and receive fixed rate.
D) pay floating rate and receive floating rate.

10) The interest rate swap strategy of a firm with fixed rate debt and that expects rates to go up is to:
A) do nothing.
B) pay floating and receive fixed.
C) receive floating and pay fixed.
D) none of the above

11) The potential exposure that any individual firm bears that the second party to any financial contract will be unable to fulfill its obligations under the contract is called:
A) interest rate risk.
B) credit risk.
C) counterparty risk.
D) clearinghouse risk.

12) Which of the following is an unlikely reason for firms to participate in the swap market?
A) To replace cash flows scheduled in an undesired currency with cash flows in a desired currency.
B) Firms may raise capital in one currency but desire to repay it in another currency.
C) Firms desire to swap fixed and variable payment or receipt of funds.
D) All of the above are likely reasons for a firm to enter the swap market.

True/False

1) Historically, interest rate movements have shown less variability and greater stability than exchange rate movements.

2) Unlike the situation with exchange rate risk, there is no uncertainty on the part of management for shareholder preferences regarding interest rate risk. Shareholders prefer that managers hedge interest rate risk rather than having shareholders diversify away such risk through portfolio diversification.

3) Interest rate futures are relatively unpopular among financial managers because of their relative illiquidity and their difficulty of use.

4) A basis point is one-tenth of one percent.

5) A swap agreement may involve currencies or interest rates, but never both.

6) Some of the world’s largest and most financially sound firms may borrow at variable rates less than LIBOR.

7) Counterparty risk is greater for exchange-traded derivatives than for over-the-counter derivatives.

8) Swap rates are derived from the yield curves in each major currency.

Essay

1) Your firm is faced with paying a variable rate debt obligation with the expectation that interest rates are likely to go up. Identify two strategies using interest rate futures and interest rate swaps that could reduce the risk to the firm.

2) How does counterparty risk influence a firm’s decision to trade exchange-traded derivatives rather than over-the-counter derivatives?
Answer: With exchange-traded derivatives, the exchange is the clearinghouse. Thus, firms do not need to worry about the other party making good on its obligations and it is easier to trade the derivative products.

ECO 410 Week 11 Quiz 10 Chapter 19 and 20 – Strayer University NEW

ECO 410 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

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Chapter 19

Working Capital Management

19.1 Trident Brazil’s Operating Cycle

Multiple Choice

1) Working capital management involves the management of:
A) current and long-term assets.
B) current assets and current liabilities.
C) current liabilities and long-term assets.
D) current liabilities and long-term debt and equity.

2) The cash conversion cycle:
A) is a subset of the operating cycle.
B) occurs in the latter stages of the operating cycle.
C) is a subset of the accounts receivable period.
D) all of the above.

3) The proper order of events for the operating cycle is:
A) input serving period, accounts receivable period, inventory period, quotation period.
B) quotation period, accounts receivable period, inventory period, input servicing period.
C) quotation period, input servicing period, inventory period, accounts receivable period.
D) accounts receivable period, input servicing period, quotation period, inventory period.

4) TrinityApps Corporation (US) has bid a price on a project for a Korean firm, but the Korean firm has not yet placed an order. This portion of the operating cycle is best described as the:
A) quotation period.
B) input sourcing period.
C) cash conversion cycle.
D) accounts payable cycle.

5) The period in the cash cycle where the customer places the order, and the firm determines what materials for manufacture are NOT in inventory is called the ________ period.
A) quotation
B) input sourcing
C) accounts payable
D) accounts receivable

6) The accounts payable period of the operating cycle:
A) is equal to the inventory period.
B) may run concurrently but shorter than the inventory period.
C) may run concurrently but longer than the inventory period.
D) Any one of the above may be true.

True/False

1) Typically, the inventory period and the accounts payable period at least partially overlap in the firms operating cycle.

2) Typically, the inventory period and the accounts receivable period at least partially overlap in the firms operating cycle.

3) The operating cycle begins with the quotation period and ends with the accounts payable period.

19.2 Trident’s Repositioning Decisions

Multiple Choice

1) Of the following, which would NOT be a significant decision-making factor in a multinational firm’s repositioning decision-making?
A) the subsidiary’s tax environment (high or low)
B) the stability of the local currency
C) the ability to move capital in and out of the subsidiary’s country
D) All of the above are significant factors.

True/False

1) In a country with a relatively high tax rate, it make sense the the MNE to reposition cash flows TO that country.

2) The MNE would prefer to leave capital with a firm in a country with high growth prospects over the alternative of leaving capital with a firm in a country with low growth prospects (other factors equal).

19.3 Constraints on Repositioning Funds

Multiple Choice

1) Each of the following is listed by your authors as a constraint on repositioning funds by an MNE EXCEPT:
A) political constraints.
B) tax constraints.
C) transaction costs.
D) All of the above are listed by your authors.

True/False

1) Local liquidity needs sometimes impact a firm’s worldwide optimal cash position.

2) The constraints on repositioning of funds that occur when exchanging one currency for another are considered to be primarily political constraints.

3) Political constraints can block the transfer of funds either overtly or covertly. OVERT blockage occurs when dividends or other forms of fund remittances are severely limited, heavily taxed, or excessively delayed by the need for bureaucratic approval.

19.4 Conduits for Moving Funds by Unbundling Them

Multiple Choice

1) ________ allows a multinational firm to recover funds from subsidiaries without piquing host country sensitivities over large dividend drains.
A) Unbundling funds
B) Bundling funds
C) Coordinating funds
D) none of the above

2) Unbundling of funds by an MNE may be a useful practice for which of the following reasons?
A) An increase in the funds flow (charges) in any of the before-tax categories reduces the taxable profits of the foreign subsidiary if the host-country tax authorities acknowledge the charge as a legitimate expense.
B) An item-by-item matching of remittance to input, such as royalties for intellectual property, and fees for patents and advice, is equitable to the host country and foreign investor alike.
C) Unbundling facilitates allocation of overhead from a parent”s international division, so-called shared services, to each operating subsidiary in accordance with a predetermined formula.
D) All of the reasons listed above

True/False

1) If all investment inputs are unbundled, part of what might have been classified as residual profits may turn out to be tax-deductible expenses related to a specific purchased benefit.

2) The before-tax/after-tax distinction is quite significant to a parent company attempting to repatriate funds in the most tax-efficient method if it is attempting to manage its own foreign tax credit/deficits between foreign units.

19.5 International Dividend Remittances

Multiple Choice

1) In anticipation of a foreign exchange loss, an MNE may speed up the transfer of funds out of the company via dividends. When undertaking such an activity the MNE must be concerned with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) interest rate differences between the two countries.
B) the negative impact on host country relations.
C) defection on the part of executives in the home headquarters.
D) MNEs must be concerned with all of the above.

True/False

1) Political risk may motivate parent firms to require foreign subsidiaries to remit all locally generated funds above that required to internally finance growth in sales and planned capital expansions.

19.6 Net Working Capital

Multiple Choice

1) One possible definition of net working capital (NWC) provided by your authors is:
A) NWC = A/R + inventory – A/P.
B) NWC = cash + A/P – inventory.
C) NWC = A/P + A/R – short-term loans.
D) NWC = A/R + inventory – long-term debt.

2) Which of the following actions will result in an increase in NWC?
A) an increase in A/P that exceeds an increase in A/R
B) a reduction in inventory
C) a reduction in A/P plus a smaller reduction in A/R
D) an increase in A/P and a smaller reduction in inventory

3) Which of the following statements is true?
A) A/R provide part of the funding for inventory.
B) A/P provide part of the funding for A/R and inventory.
C) Inventory pays for A/R and A/P.
D) None of the above is true.

TABLE 19.1
Use the information to answer following question(s).

TrinityApps Corporation Balance Sheet December 31, 20xx

4) Refer to Table 19.1. The NWC for TrinityApps is:
A) $80,000
B) $680,000
C) $35,000
D) $45,000

5) Refer to Table 19.1. If TrinityApps increases inventory by $10,000 and A/P also by $10,000, the net change in NWC is:
A) $20,000
B) $10,000
C) $0
D) none of the above

6) Refer to Table 19.1. NWC currently makes up what percentage of total firm value for TrinityApps?
A) 6.6%
B) 5.1%
C) 11.8%
D) 9.2%

Instruction 19.1:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).

Sunny Manufacturing Systems Inc. is supplied with plastic chips for their plastic injection molding manufacturing process. Their supplier, Sun Chemical, Inc. offers financing terms of a 2% discount if the accounts payable are paid in 10 days or less with the full balance due in 45 days. Short-term financing available to Sunny Manufacturing is available at an annual rate of 9.6%. Sunny Manufacturing has just purchased $400,000 of plastic chips from Sun Chemical.

7) Refer to Instruction 19.1. What is the amount of money Sunny Manufacturing will save on accounts payable if they accept the discount?
A) $400,000
B) $8,000
C) $33,333
D) $20,000

8) Refer to Instruction 19.1. What is the effective annual interest cost of supplier financing offered by Sun Chemical?
A) 7.3%
B) 9.5%
C) 10.4%
D) 22.9%

9) Refer to Instruction 19.1. Should Sunny Manufacturing take the discount offered by Sun Chemical?
A) Yes, Sunny Manufacturing will get to use their raw materials 35 days earlier than if they waited to pay at the end of the 45 days.
B) No, Sunny Manufacturing will not have to pay any interest if they just pay in 45 days.
C) Yes, Sunny Manufacturing’s short term borrowing rate of 9.6% is less than Sun’s offered cost of carry of 22.9%.
D) No, it costs Sunny Manufacturing 22.9% to accept the discount and they are better off paying the full amount in 45 days.

10) Days working capital is equal to:
A) days payables + days receivables – days inventory.
B) days inventory + days receivables – days payables.
C) days payables + days inventory + days receivables.
D) none of the above

11) Amundsen of Norway receives raw materials from their corporate parent in the U.S. with payment terms of net 60 days. Most of their sales are to firms in Norway where normal payment terms are net 30 days. This causes a problem for the subsidiary with working capital management because:
A) accounts receivable are so much longer than accounts payable.
B) accounts payable are so much longer than accounts receivable.
C) accounts receivable and accounts payable are equal.
D) This doesn’t really cause a problem; in fact it is to the benefit of the Norwegian subsidiary.

True/False

1) In principle, the firm tries to minimize its NWC balance.

2) Other things equal, managers prefer a lower “days working capital” to a higher one.

3) The authors present empirical evidence that shows the days sales basis for working capital to be 30 days GREATER in the U.S. compared to a similar industry in Europe.

Essay

1) What is a free-trade zone? Identify three techniques and provide examples of how firms and countries can benefit from having free trade zones.

19.7 International Cash Management

Multiple Choice

1) Other things equal, a firm would rather have ________ in a depreciating currency, and ________ in an appreciating currency.
A) accounts receivable; accounts payable
B) accounts receivable; accounts receivable
C) accounts payable; accounts receivable
D) none of the above

2) Which of the following is NOT a precautionary motive for holding cash?
A) Anticipated funds to be remitted from several Middle East countries are in question due to unrest in the region.
B) The firm has several short-term obligations in unhedged foreign currency-denominated contracts.
C) The firm must pay ordinary wages in two days.
D) All are precautionary motives.

3) Increases to cash flows can be anticipated if which of the following occurs?
A) A receivables contract is denominated in an appreciating foreign currency.
B) Sales are less than anticipated.
C) Days in accounts receivable increase by 15 days.
D) none of the above

4) A centralized depository benefits the firm primarily by:
A) reducing the cost of repatriating funds.
B) positioning profits where taxes are lowest.
C) reducing the total amount of capital employed within the total firm.
D) earning a higher rate of return than in domestic banking deposits.

5) The Clearing House Interbank Payment System (CHIPS) is:
A) the largest publicly operated payments system in the world.
B) owned and operated by the world’s seven largest central banks.
C) a computerized network that connects banks globally.
D) none of the above

6) An organizational structure employed by an MNE to reduce its use of bank lending for the support of operations is:
A) a centralized depository.
B) a reinvoicing center.
C) a cost center.
D) a syndicated bank.

7) ________ is the process that cancels via offset all, or part, of the debt owed by one entity to another related entity.
A) Syndicated banking
B) Centralized depositing
C) Multilateral netting
D) Debt cancellation

True/False

1) In an inflationary economy, demand for credit usually exceeds supply.

2) For disbursement purposes, it is to the benefit of the firm to minimize float.

3) Regarding wire transfers, CHIPS actually clears transactions whereas SWIFT does not.

4) A significant problem with centralized cash depositories is that they are isolated from the rest of the firm and tend to be at an information disadvantage.

5) A reason for holding all precautionary balances in a central pool is that the total pool, if centralized, can be reduced in size without any loss in the level of protection.

6) A disadvantage of a centralized cash management system is that managers will not be able to get the lowest average rate available for the firm. Instead, it misses out on the really low borrowing rates.

Essay

1) Central depositories are used for international cash management. What is a central depository? Identify and provide examples of at least three advantages to MNEs of having a central depository.

19.8 Financing Working Capital

Multiple Choice

1) A precautionary cash balance:
A) is used to replace spoiled or damaged inventory.
B) is held to facilitate cash disbursements when receipts slow down.
C) is used for normal day-to-day operations.
D) is held for the benefit of a sister affiliate.

2) An in-house bank:
A) is a separate bank chartered to operate within a business firm.
B) is in fact a set of functions performed by the firm’s existing treasury department.
C) assesses the credit standing of the bank’s customers.
D) provides banking services for employees.

3) A foreign banking office that is separately incorporated in the host country is:
A) a correspondent bank.
B) a representative office.
C) a bank subsidiary.
D) an Edge Act corporation.

True/False

1) An Edge Act corporation is a subsidiary of a U.S. bank located outside of the U.S. and incorporated to engage in international banking and financing operations.

2) Because they are direct payments, dividends are among the most efficient way for foreign subsidiaries to remit funds back to the parent.

3) Even though dividends are cash payments, firms typically must consider both cash flow and net income when making dividend distribution decisions.

Chapter 20 International Trade Finance

20.1 The Trade Relationship

Multiple Choice

1) The exporter-importer relationship to a corporation of a foreign importer that has not previously conducted business with the firm would be an:
A) unaffiliated known.
B) affiliated party.
C) unaffiliated unknown.
D) any of the above

2) Which of the following relationships between importing and exporting parties would require the least detailed contract to conduct business?
A) affiliated party
B) unaffiliated unknown party
C) known unaffiliated party
D) domestic supplier

3) Polaris Corporation has made an agreement to ship goods to a foreign firm with whom they have not entered into a contract for three years. However, the firms have communicated regularly since the last sale three years ago. This is an example of an:
A) unaffiliated known party transaction.
B) unaffiliated unknown party transaction.
C) affiliated party transaction.
D) none of the above

True/False

1) Today, international trade is dominated by transactions between unaffiliated parties (known or unknown).

2) Because most international transactions are between affiliated parties, international transaction contracts are less complex, but the management of the total value of the MNE is more complex.

3) An advantage of trading with an affiliated party for an MNE, compared to an unaffiliated party, could be reduced contracting costs and less to even no need to protect against nonpayment.

20.2 The Trade Dilemma

Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT a financial instrument that may be included in an international trade transaction?
A) Letter of Credit
B) Sight Draft
C) Order bill of lading
D) Federal funds transaction

True/False

1) The fundamental dilemma of foreign trade is being unwilling to trust a stranger in a foreign land.

20.3 Benefits of the System

Multiple Choice

1) The combination of a letter of credit, a sight draft, and an order bill of lading protect both parties in international transactions from which of the following?
A) the risk of noncompletion
B) the risk of foreign exchange risk (when combined with a various hedging techniques)
C) the risk that financing will not be available due to foreign exchange risk
D) All of these risks are reduced when using these trade implements.

True/False

1) If a foreign exchange transaction calls for payment in the importer’s currency, the exporter has the foreign exchange risk.

2) If a foreign exchange transaction calls for payment in the exporter’s currency, the importer has the foreign exchange risk.

3) In the case of international trade, the risk of nonpayment is essentially eliminated with the use of a letter of credit issued through a trustworthy bank.

20.4 Key Documents

Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding a letter of credit?
A) The importer and exporter agree on a transaction.
B) The importer applies to its local bank for the issuance of a letter of credit.
C) The exporter applies to its local bank for the issuance of a letter of credit.
D) The importer’s bank cuts a sales contract based on its assessment of the creditworthiness of the importer.

2) A/An ________ letter of credit is intended to serve as a means of arranging payment, but not as a guarantee of payment.
A) irrevocable
B) revocable
C) confirmed
D) unconfirmed

3) A/An ________ letter of credit is an obligation only of the issuing bank whereas other banks honor a/an ________ letter of credit.
A) irrevocable; unconfirmed
B) revocable; confirmed
C) confirmed; irrevocable
D) unconfirmed; confirmed

4) A letter of credit that is confirmed in the ________ country has the additional advantage of eliminating the problem of ________.
A) exporter’s; portfolio risk
B) importer’s; blocked foreign exchange
C) exporter’s; blocked foreign exchange
D) none of the above

5) The draft is the instrument normally used in international commerce to:
A) transfer product.
B) prove ownership.
C) transfer title.
D) initiate the sale.

6) The ________ is the instrument normally used to actually effect payment in international commerce.
A) banker’s acceptance
B) bill of exchange
C) bill of lading
D) letter of credit

7) The person or company initiating the draft or bill of exchange is known as the:
A) maker.
B) drawer.
C) originator.
D) any of the above

8) The person or company to whom the draft or bill of exchange is addressed is the:
A) drawee.
B) drawer.
C) maker.
D) originator.

9) Drafts that have been accepted by banks become:
A) clean drafts.
B) nonmarketable.
C) banker’s acceptances.
D) none of the above

10) Which of the following purposes is NOT served by the bill of lading?
A) It acts as a receipt.
B) It acts as a contract.
C) It acts as a document of title.
D) It acts as all of the above.

11) The ________ is issued to the exporter by a common carrier transporting the merchandise.
A) bill of lading
B) draft
C) banker’s acceptance
D) line of credit

12) A straight bill of lading is most likely to be used under which of the following circumstances?
A) when the merchandise has not been paid for in advance
B) when the transaction is being financed by a bank
C) when the shipment is to an affiliate
D) none of the above

13) To become a negotiable instrument, a draft must conform to the following requirements EXCEPT:
A) it must be in writing and signed by the maker or drawer.
B) it must be payable to order or to bearer.
C) it must be written in English.
D) it must be payable on demand or at a fixed or determinable future date.

True/False

1) A letter of credit is an agreement by the bank to pay against documents rather than the actual merchandise.

2) The primary advantage of a letter of credit is that it reduces risk.

3) The major advantage of a letter of credit to the exporter is that the exporter does not receive any funds until the documents have arrived at a local port or airfield.

4) To constitute a true letter of credit transaction, the issuing bank must receive a fee or other valid business consideration for issuing the L/C.

5) To constitute a true letter of credit transaction, the bank’s L/C must contain a specified expiration date or a definite maturity.

6) To constitute a true letter of credit transaction, the bank’s commitment must be open-ended and cannot have a stated maximum amount of money.

7) A revocable L/C is intended to serve as a means of arranging payment but not as a guarantee of payment.

8) A sight draft is payable on presentation to the drawee; a time draft allows a delay in payment.

9) A draft is sometimes called a revocable letter of credit.

10) A time draft is payable on presentation to the drawee; the drawee must pay at once or dishonor the draft. A sight draft, allows a delay in payment.

11) The bill of lading is issued to the exporter by a common carrier transporting the merchandise. It serves three purposes: a receipt, a contract, and a document of title.

Essay

1) Explain what a letter of credit (L/C) is, who the principle parties are, what the principle advantage is, and how the L/C facilitates international trade.

20.5 Example: Documentation in a Typical Trade Transaction

Multiple Choice

1) In a typical international trade transaction, the order of activity would be which of the following?
A) The foreign buyer places an order; The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The manufacturer’s bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer’s bank for acceptance; The buyer’s bank submits payment to the manufacturer’s bank.
B) The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The buyer’s bank submits payment to the manufacturer’s bank; The foreign buyer places an order; The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The manufacturer’s bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer’s bank for acceptance.
C) The foreign buyer places an order; The manufacturer’s bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer’s bank for acceptance; The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The buyer’s bank submits payment to the manufacturer’s bank.
D) The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The manufacturer’s bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer’s bank for acceptance; The foreign buyer places an order; The buyer’s bank submits payment to the manufacturer’s bank.

True/False

1) Because of the risks involved in international trade, most transactions follow conventional methods and rarely require flexibility or creativity on the part of management.

Comment: Few international transactions are typical and often require flexibility or creativity on the part of management.

20.6 Government Programs to Help Finance Exports

Multiple Choice

1) The Export-Import Bank is an independent agency of the U.S. government established in 1934 to:
A) ship money abroad.
B) import agricultural products during the recession.
C) facilitate and stimulate foreign trade of the United States.
D) none of the above

2) In the United States, the Foreign Credit Insurance Corporation:
A) is a subsidiary of the Export-Import Bank.
B) provides letters of credit for U.S. importers.
C) provides letters of credit for U.S. exporters.
D) provides policies that protect U.S. exporters against default by foreign importers.

Instruction 20.1:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).

Cypress Systems Inc., of Florida, agrees to sell specialized hydroponic growing equipment to Landcaster’s of Australia. Because the two companies have never done business with each other, Cypress requires a banker’s acceptance as payment for the $1,000,000 order. The banker’s acceptance carries a 1.4% commission per annum and payment is to be received in 6 months. If Cypress Inc. chooses to discount or sell the bankers acceptance to its bank, the discount rate is 1.00% per annum.

3) Refer to Instruction 20.1. What is the size of the discount (not including the commission fee) Cypress must take for receiving the proceeds of the sale today rather than waiting for six months?
A) $7,000
B) $5,000
C) $12,000
D) $14.000

4) Refer to Instruction 20.1. What is the size of the commission Cypress will pay the bank for the banker’s acceptance?
A) $7,000
B) $5,000
C) $12,000
D) $14,000

5) Refer to Instruction 20.1. What is the total Cypress can expect to receive if the firm takes payment today?
A) $993,000
B) $995,000
C) $988,000
D) $996,000

6) Refer to Instruction 20.1. ________ is an unsecured promissory note.
A) A banker’s acceptance
B) An overdraft
C) A securitized loan
D) Commercial paper

7) Rogue Spices Inc. has a Canadian receivables contract for $200,000 due in 270 days. The firm has been approached by a factoring firm that offers to purchase the receivables at a 12% per annum discount plus a 1% charge for a nonrecourse clause. What is the annualized percentage all-in-cost of this factoring alternative?
A) 14.82%
B) 13.00%
C) 12.00%
D) 9.09%

True/False

1) The Foreign Credit Insurance Association is a branch of the U.S. federal government.

2) The Export-Import Bank (also called Eximbank) is an independent agency of the U.S. government, established in 1934 to stimulate and facilitate the foreign trade of the United States.

3) Essentially, the Eximbank lends dollars to borrowers inside the United States for the purchase of U.S. goods and services.

4) Banker’s acceptances can be used to finance only international trade receivables but not domestic trade receivables.

Essay

1) What is a banker’s acceptance? How are they initiated? Why are they desirable for the exporter?

20.7 Forfaiting: Medium- and Long-Term Financing

Multiple Choice

1) ________ is a specialized technique to eliminate the risk of nonpayment by importers in instances where the importing firm and/or its government is perceived by the exporter to be too risky for open account credit.
A) Forfeiting
B) Marketable Bank Shares
C) Forfaiting
D) Banker’s Acceptances

True/False

1) In effect, the forfaiter functions both as a money market firm and a specialist in packaging financial deals involving country risk.