Tag Archives: we have eco 410

ECO 410 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer University New

ECO/410 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-410-Week-11-Quiz-Strayer-378.htm

 

Quiz 10 Chapter 19 and 20

Working Capital Management

19.1 Trident Brazil’s Operating Cycle

Multiple Choice

1) Working capital management involves the management of:
A) current and long-term assets.
B) current assets and current liabilities.
C) current liabilities and long-term assets.
D) current liabilities and long-term debt and equity.

2) The cash conversion cycle:
A) is a subset of the operating cycle.
B) occurs in the latter stages of the operating cycle.
C) is a subset of the accounts receivable period.
D) all of the above.

3) The proper order of events for the operating cycle is:
A) input serving period, accounts receivable period, inventory period, quotation period.
B) quotation period, accounts receivable period, inventory period, input servicing period.
C) quotation period, input servicing period, inventory period, accounts receivable period.
D) accounts receivable period, input servicing period, quotation period, inventory period.

4) TrinityApps Corporation (US) has bid a price on a project for a Korean firm, but the Korean firm has not yet placed an order. This portion of the operating cycle is best described as the:
A) quotation period.
B) input sourcing period.
C) cash conversion cycle.
D) accounts payable cycle.

5) The period in the cash cycle where the customer places the order, and the firm determines what materials for manufacture are NOT in inventory is called the ________ period.
A) quotation
B) input sourcing
C) accounts payable
D) accounts receivable

6) The accounts payable period of the operating cycle:
A) is equal to the inventory period.
B) may run concurrently but shorter than the inventory period.
C) may run concurrently but longer than the inventory period.
D) Any one of the above may be true.

True/False

1) Typically, the inventory period and the accounts payable period at least partially overlap in the firms operating cycle.

2) Typically, the inventory period and the accounts receivable period at least partially overlap in the firms operating cycle.

3) The operating cycle begins with the quotation period and ends with the accounts payable period.

19.2 Trident’s Repositioning Decisions

Multiple Choice

1) Of the following, which would NOT be a significant decision-making factor in a multinational firm’s repositioning decision-making?
A) the subsidiary’s tax environment (high or low)
B) the stability of the local currency
C) the ability to move capital in and out of the subsidiary’s country
D) All of the above are significant factors.

True/False

1) In a country with a relatively high tax rate, it make sense the the MNE to reposition cash flows TO that country.

2) The MNE would prefer to leave capital with a firm in a country with high growth prospects over the alternative of leaving capital with a firm in a country with low growth prospects (other factors equal).

19.3 Constraints on Repositioning Funds

Multiple Choice

1) Each of the following is listed by your authors as a constraint on repositioning funds by an MNE EXCEPT:
A) political constraints.
B) tax constraints.
C) transaction costs.
D) All of the above are listed by your authors.

True/False

1) Local liquidity needs sometimes impact a firm’s worldwide optimal cash position.

2) The constraints on repositioning of funds that occur when exchanging one currency for another are considered to be primarily political constraints.

3) Political constraints can block the transfer of funds either overtly or covertly. OVERT blockage occurs when dividends or other forms of fund remittances are severely limited, heavily taxed, or excessively delayed by the need for bureaucratic approval.

19.4 Conduits for Moving Funds by Unbundling Them

Multiple Choice

1) ________ allows a multinational firm to recover funds from subsidiaries without piquing host country sensitivities over large dividend drains.
A) Unbundling funds
B) Bundling funds
C) Coordinating funds
D) none of the above

2) Unbundling of funds by an MNE may be a useful practice for which of the following reasons?
A) An increase in the funds flow (charges) in any of the before-tax categories reduces the taxable profits of the foreign subsidiary if the host-country tax authorities acknowledge the charge as a legitimate expense.
B) An item-by-item matching of remittance to input, such as royalties for intellectual property, and fees for patents and advice, is equitable to the host country and foreign investor alike.
C) Unbundling facilitates allocation of overhead from a parent”s international division, so-called shared services, to each operating subsidiary in accordance with a predetermined formula.
D) All of the reasons listed above

True/False

1) If all investment inputs are unbundled, part of what might have been classified as residual profits may turn out to be tax-deductible expenses related to a specific purchased benefit.

2) The before-tax/after-tax distinction is quite significant to a parent company attempting to repatriate funds in the most tax-efficient method if it is attempting to manage its own foreign tax credit/deficits between foreign units.

19.5 International Dividend Remittances

Multiple Choice

1) In anticipation of a foreign exchange loss, an MNE may speed up the transfer of funds out of the company via dividends. When undertaking such an activity the MNE must be concerned with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) interest rate differences between the two countries.
B) the negative impact on host country relations.
C) defection on the part of executives in the home headquarters.
D) MNEs must be concerned with all of the above.

True/False

1) Political risk may motivate parent firms to require foreign subsidiaries to remit all locally generated funds above that required to internally finance growth in sales and planned capital expansions.

19.6 Net Working Capital

Multiple Choice

1) One possible definition of net working capital (NWC) provided by your authors is:
A) NWC = A/R + inventory – A/P.
B) NWC = cash + A/P – inventory.
C) NWC = A/P + A/R – short-term loans.
D) NWC = A/R + inventory – long-term debt.

2) Which of the following actions will result in an increase in NWC?
A) an increase in A/P that exceeds an increase in A/R
B) a reduction in inventory
C) a reduction in A/P plus a smaller reduction in A/R
D) an increase in A/P and a smaller reduction in inventory

3) Which of the following statements is true?
A) A/R provide part of the funding for inventory.
B) A/P provide part of the funding for A/R and inventory.
C) Inventory pays for A/R and A/P.
D) None of the above is true.

TABLE 19.1
Use the information to answer following question(s).

TrinityApps Corporation Balance Sheet December 31, 20xx

4) Refer to Table 19.1. The NWC for TrinityApps is:
A) $80,000
B) $680,000
C) $35,000
D) $45,000

5) Refer to Table 19.1. If TrinityApps increases inventory by $10,000 and A/P also by $10,000, the net change in NWC is:
A) $20,000
B) $10,000
C) $0
D) none of the above

6) Refer to Table 19.1. NWC currently makes up what percentage of total firm value for TrinityApps?
A) 6.6%
B) 5.1%
C) 11.8%
D) 9.2%

Instruction 19.1:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).

Sunny Manufacturing Systems Inc. is supplied with plastic chips for their plastic injection molding manufacturing process. Their supplier, Sun Chemical, Inc. offers financing terms of a 2% discount if the accounts payable are paid in 10 days or less with the full balance due in 45 days. Short-term financing available to Sunny Manufacturing is available at an annual rate of 9.6%. Sunny Manufacturing has just purchased $400,000 of plastic chips from Sun Chemical.

7) Refer to Instruction 19.1. What is the amount of money Sunny Manufacturing will save on accounts payable if they accept the discount?
A) $400,000
B) $8,000
C) $33,333
D) $20,000

8) Refer to Instruction 19.1. What is the effective annual interest cost of supplier financing offered by Sun Chemical?
A) 7.3%
B) 9.5%
C) 10.4%
D) 22.9%

9) Refer to Instruction 19.1. Should Sunny Manufacturing take the discount offered by Sun Chemical?
A) Yes, Sunny Manufacturing will get to use their raw materials 35 days earlier than if they waited to pay at the end of the 45 days.
B) No, Sunny Manufacturing will not have to pay any interest if they just pay in 45 days.
C) Yes, Sunny Manufacturing’s short term borrowing rate of 9.6% is less than Sun’s offered cost of carry of 22.9%.
D) No, it costs Sunny Manufacturing 22.9% to accept the discount and they are better off paying the full amount in 45 days.

10) Days working capital is equal to:
A) days payables + days receivables – days inventory.
B) days inventory + days receivables – days payables.
C) days payables + days inventory + days receivables.
D) none of the above

11) Amundsen of Norway receives raw materials from their corporate parent in the U.S. with payment terms of net 60 days. Most of their sales are to firms in Norway where normal payment terms are net 30 days. This causes a problem for the subsidiary with working capital management because:
A) accounts receivable are so much longer than accounts payable.
B) accounts payable are so much longer than accounts receivable.
C) accounts receivable and accounts payable are equal.
D) This doesn’t really cause a problem; in fact it is to the benefit of the Norwegian subsidiary.

True/False

1) In principle, the firm tries to minimize its NWC balance.

2) Other things equal, managers prefer a lower “days working capital” to a higher one.

3) The authors present empirical evidence that shows the days sales basis for working capital to be 30 days GREATER in the U.S. compared to a similar industry in Europe.

Essay

1) What is a free-trade zone? Identify three techniques and provide examples of how firms and countries can benefit from having free trade zones.

19.7 International Cash Management

Multiple Choice

1) Other things equal, a firm would rather have ________ in a depreciating currency, and ________ in an appreciating currency.
A) accounts receivable; accounts payable
B) accounts receivable; accounts receivable
C) accounts payable; accounts receivable
D) none of the above

2) Which of the following is NOT a precautionary motive for holding cash?
A) Anticipated funds to be remitted from several Middle East countries are in question due to unrest in the region.
B) The firm has several short-term obligations in unhedged foreign currency-denominated contracts.
C) The firm must pay ordinary wages in two days.
D) All are precautionary motives.

3) Increases to cash flows can be anticipated if which of the following occurs?
A) A receivables contract is denominated in an appreciating foreign currency.
B) Sales are less than anticipated.
C) Days in accounts receivable increase by 15 days.
D) none of the above

4) A centralized depository benefits the firm primarily by:
A) reducing the cost of repatriating funds.
B) positioning profits where taxes are lowest.
C) reducing the total amount of capital employed within the total firm.
D) earning a higher rate of return than in domestic banking deposits.

5) The Clearing House Interbank Payment System (CHIPS) is:
A) the largest publicly operated payments system in the world.
B) owned and operated by the world’s seven largest central banks.
C) a computerized network that connects banks globally.
D) none of the above

6) An organizational structure employed by an MNE to reduce its use of bank lending for the support of operations is:
A) a centralized depository.
B) a reinvoicing center.
C) a cost center.
D) a syndicated bank.

7) ________ is the process that cancels via offset all, or part, of the debt owed by one entity to another related entity.
A) Syndicated banking
B) Centralized depositing
C) Multilateral netting
D) Debt cancellation

True/False

1) In an inflationary economy, demand for credit usually exceeds supply.

2) For disbursement purposes, it is to the benefit of the firm to minimize float.

3) Regarding wire transfers, CHIPS actually clears transactions whereas SWIFT does not.

4) A significant problem with centralized cash depositories is that they are isolated from the rest of the firm and tend to be at an information disadvantage.

5) A reason for holding all precautionary balances in a central pool is that the total pool, if centralized, can be reduced in size without any loss in the level of protection.

6) A disadvantage of a centralized cash management system is that managers will not be able to get the lowest average rate available for the firm. Instead, it misses out on the really low borrowing rates.

Essay

1) Central depositories are used for international cash management. What is a central depository? Identify and provide examples of at least three advantages to MNEs of having a central depository.

19.8 Financing Working Capital

Multiple Choice

1) A precautionary cash balance:
A) is used to replace spoiled or damaged inventory.
B) is held to facilitate cash disbursements when receipts slow down.
C) is used for normal day-to-day operations.
D) is held for the benefit of a sister affiliate.

2) An in-house bank:
A) is a separate bank chartered to operate within a business firm.
B) is in fact a set of functions performed by the firm’s existing treasury department.
C) assesses the credit standing of the bank’s customers.
D) provides banking services for employees.

3) A foreign banking office that is separately incorporated in the host country is:
A) a correspondent bank.
B) a representative office.
C) a bank subsidiary.
D) an Edge Act corporation.

True/False

1) An Edge Act corporation is a subsidiary of a U.S. bank located outside of the U.S. and incorporated to engage in international banking and financing operations.

2) Because they are direct payments, dividends are among the most efficient way for foreign subsidiaries to remit funds back to the parent.

3) Even though dividends are cash payments, firms typically must consider both cash flow and net income when making dividend distribution decisions.

Chapter 20 International Trade Finance

20.1 The Trade Relationship

Multiple Choice

1) The exporter-importer relationship to a corporation of a foreign importer that has not previously conducted business with the firm would be an:
A) unaffiliated known.
B) affiliated party.
C) unaffiliated unknown.
D) any of the above

2) Which of the following relationships between importing and exporting parties would require the least detailed contract to conduct business?
A) affiliated party
B) unaffiliated unknown party
C) known unaffiliated party
D) domestic supplier

3) Polaris Corporation has made an agreement to ship goods to a foreign firm with whom they have not entered into a contract for three years. However, the firms have communicated regularly since the last sale three years ago. This is an example of an:
A) unaffiliated known party transaction.
B) unaffiliated unknown party transaction.
C) affiliated party transaction.
D) none of the above

True/False

1) Today, international trade is dominated by transactions between unaffiliated parties (known or unknown).

2) Because most international transactions are between affiliated parties, international transaction contracts are less complex, but the management of the total value of the MNE is more complex.

3) An advantage of trading with an affiliated party for an MNE, compared to an unaffiliated party, could be reduced contracting costs and less to even no need to protect against nonpayment.

20.2 The Trade Dilemma

Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT a financial instrument that may be included in an international trade transaction?
A) Letter of Credit
B) Sight Draft
C) Order bill of lading
D) Federal funds transaction

True/False

1) The fundamental dilemma of foreign trade is being unwilling to trust a stranger in a foreign land.

20.3 Benefits of the System

Multiple Choice

1) The combination of a letter of credit, a sight draft, and an order bill of lading protect both parties in international transactions from which of the following?
A) the risk of noncompletion
B) the risk of foreign exchange risk (when combined with a various hedging techniques)
C) the risk that financing will not be available due to foreign exchange risk
D) All of these risks are reduced when using these trade implements.

True/False

1) If a foreign exchange transaction calls for payment in the importer’s currency, the exporter has the foreign exchange risk.

2) If a foreign exchange transaction calls for payment in the exporter’s currency, the importer has the foreign exchange risk.

3) In the case of international trade, the risk of nonpayment is essentially eliminated with the use of a letter of credit issued through a trustworthy bank.

20.4 Key Documents

Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT true regarding a letter of credit?
A) The importer and exporter agree on a transaction.
B) The importer applies to its local bank for the issuance of a letter of credit.
C) The exporter applies to its local bank for the issuance of a letter of credit.
D) The importer’s bank cuts a sales contract based on its assessment of the creditworthiness of the importer.

2) A/An ________ letter of credit is intended to serve as a means of arranging payment, but not as a guarantee of payment.
A) irrevocable
B) revocable
C) confirmed
D) unconfirmed

3) A/An ________ letter of credit is an obligation only of the issuing bank whereas other banks honor a/an ________ letter of credit.
A) irrevocable; unconfirmed
B) revocable; confirmed
C) confirmed; irrevocable
D) unconfirmed; confirmed

4) A letter of credit that is confirmed in the ________ country has the additional advantage of eliminating the problem of ________.
A) exporter’s; portfolio risk
B) importer’s; blocked foreign exchange
C) exporter’s; blocked foreign exchange
D) none of the above

5) The draft is the instrument normally used in international commerce to:
A) transfer product.
B) prove ownership.
C) transfer title.
D) initiate the sale.

6) The ________ is the instrument normally used to actually effect payment in international commerce.
A) banker’s acceptance
B) bill of exchange
C) bill of lading
D) letter of credit

7) The person or company initiating the draft or bill of exchange is known as the:
A) maker.
B) drawer.
C) originator.
D) any of the above

8) The person or company to whom the draft or bill of exchange is addressed is the:
A) drawee.
B) drawer.
C) maker.
D) originator.

9) Drafts that have been accepted by banks become:
A) clean drafts.
B) nonmarketable.
C) banker’s acceptances.
D) none of the above

10) Which of the following purposes is NOT served by the bill of lading?
A) It acts as a receipt.
B) It acts as a contract.
C) It acts as a document of title.
D) It acts as all of the above.

11) The ________ is issued to the exporter by a common carrier transporting the merchandise.
A) bill of lading
B) draft
C) banker’s acceptance
D) line of credit

12) A straight bill of lading is most likely to be used under which of the following circumstances?
A) when the merchandise has not been paid for in advance
B) when the transaction is being financed by a bank
C) when the shipment is to an affiliate
D) none of the above

13) To become a negotiable instrument, a draft must conform to the following requirements EXCEPT:
A) it must be in writing and signed by the maker or drawer.
B) it must be payable to order or to bearer.
C) it must be written in English.
D) it must be payable on demand or at a fixed or determinable future date.

True/False

1) A letter of credit is an agreement by the bank to pay against documents rather than the actual merchandise.

2) The primary advantage of a letter of credit is that it reduces risk.

3) The major advantage of a letter of credit to the exporter is that the exporter does not receive any funds until the documents have arrived at a local port or airfield.

4) To constitute a true letter of credit transaction, the issuing bank must receive a fee or other valid business consideration for issuing the L/C.

5) To constitute a true letter of credit transaction, the bank’s L/C must contain a specified expiration date or a definite maturity.

6) To constitute a true letter of credit transaction, the bank’s commitment must be open-ended and cannot have a stated maximum amount of money.

7) A revocable L/C is intended to serve as a means of arranging payment but not as a guarantee of payment.

8) A sight draft is payable on presentation to the drawee; a time draft allows a delay in payment.

9) A draft is sometimes called a revocable letter of credit.

10) A time draft is payable on presentation to the drawee; the drawee must pay at once or dishonor the draft. A sight draft, allows a delay in payment.

11) The bill of lading is issued to the exporter by a common carrier transporting the merchandise. It serves three purposes: a receipt, a contract, and a document of title.

Essay

1) Explain what a letter of credit (L/C) is, who the principle parties are, what the principle advantage is, and how the L/C facilitates international trade.

20.5 Example: Documentation in a Typical Trade Transaction

Multiple Choice

1) In a typical international trade transaction, the order of activity would be which of the following?
A) The foreign buyer places an order; The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The manufacturer’s bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer’s bank for acceptance; The buyer’s bank submits payment to the manufacturer’s bank.
B) The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The buyer’s bank submits payment to the manufacturer’s bank; The foreign buyer places an order; The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The manufacturer’s bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer’s bank for acceptance.
C) The foreign buyer places an order; The manufacturer’s bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer’s bank for acceptance; The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The buyer’s bank submits payment to the manufacturer’s bank.
D) The domestic manufacturer ships to the buyer; The manufacturer’s bank presents a draft and documents to the buyer’s bank for acceptance; The foreign buyer places an order; The buyer’s bank submits payment to the manufacturer’s bank.

True/False

1) Because of the risks involved in international trade, most transactions follow conventional methods and rarely require flexibility or creativity on the part of management.

Comment: Few international transactions are typical and often require flexibility or creativity on the part of management.

20.6 Government Programs to Help Finance Exports

Multiple Choice

1) The Export-Import Bank is an independent agency of the U.S. government established in 1934 to:
A) ship money abroad.
B) import agricultural products during the recession.
C) facilitate and stimulate foreign trade of the United States.
D) none of the above

2) In the United States, the Foreign Credit Insurance Corporation:
A) is a subsidiary of the Export-Import Bank.
B) provides letters of credit for U.S. importers.
C) provides letters of credit for U.S. exporters.
D) provides policies that protect U.S. exporters against default by foreign importers.

Instruction 20.1:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).

Cypress Systems Inc., of Florida, agrees to sell specialized hydroponic growing equipment to Landcaster’s of Australia. Because the two companies have never done business with each other, Cypress requires a banker’s acceptance as payment for the $1,000,000 order. The banker’s acceptance carries a 1.4% commission per annum and payment is to be received in 6 months. If Cypress Inc. chooses to discount or sell the bankers acceptance to its bank, the discount rate is 1.00% per annum.

3) Refer to Instruction 20.1. What is the size of the discount (not including the commission fee) Cypress must take for receiving the proceeds of the sale today rather than waiting for six months?
A) $7,000
B) $5,000
C) $12,000
D) $14.000

4) Refer to Instruction 20.1. What is the size of the commission Cypress will pay the bank for the banker’s acceptance?
A) $7,000
B) $5,000
C) $12,000
D) $14,000

5) Refer to Instruction 20.1. What is the total Cypress can expect to receive if the firm takes payment today?
A) $993,000
B) $995,000
C) $988,000
D) $996,000

6) Refer to Instruction 20.1. ________ is an unsecured promissory note.
A) A banker’s acceptance
B) An overdraft
C) A securitized loan
D) Commercial paper

7) Rogue Spices Inc. has a Canadian receivables contract for $200,000 due in 270 days. The firm has been approached by a factoring firm that offers to purchase the receivables at a 12% per annum discount plus a 1% charge for a nonrecourse clause. What is the annualized percentage all-in-cost of this factoring alternative?
A) 14.82%
B) 13.00%
C) 12.00%
D) 9.09%

True/False

1) The Foreign Credit Insurance Association is a branch of the U.S. federal government.

2) The Export-Import Bank (also called Eximbank) is an independent agency of the U.S. government, established in 1934 to stimulate and facilitate the foreign trade of the United States.

3) Essentially, the Eximbank lends dollars to borrowers inside the United States for the purchase of U.S. goods and services.

4) Banker’s acceptances can be used to finance only international trade receivables but not domestic trade receivables.

Essay

1) What is a banker’s acceptance? How are they initiated? Why are they desirable for the exporter?

20.7 Forfaiting: Medium- and Long-Term Financing

Multiple Choice

1) ________ is a specialized technique to eliminate the risk of nonpayment by importers in instances where the importing firm and/or its government is perceived by the exporter to be too risky for open account credit.
A) Forfeiting
B) Marketable Bank Shares
C) Forfaiting
D) Banker’s Acceptances

True/False

1) In effect, the forfaiter functions both as a money market firm and a specialist in packaging financial deals involving country risk.

ECO 410 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer University New

ECO/410 Week 9 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-410-Week-9-Quiz-Strayer-376.htm

 

Quiz 8 Chapter 15 and 16

Multinational Tax Management

15.1 Tax Principles

Multiple Choice

1) The issue of ethics in the reporting of income and the payment of taxes is a considerable one. The authors state that most MNEs operating in foreign countries tend to follow the general principle of:
A) “when in Rome, do as the Romans do.”
B) full disclosure to the tax authorities.
C) maintain a competitive playing field by cheating as much as the local competition, no more, no less.
D) none of the above

2) Which of the following is an unlikely objective of U.S. government policy for the taxation of foreign MNEs?
A) to raise revenues
B) to provide an incentive for U.S. private investment in developing countries
C) to improve the U.S. balance of payments
D) All of the above are objectives.

3) A ________ tax policy is one that has no impact on private decision-making, while a ________ policy is designed to encourage specific behavior.
A) flat; tax incentive
B) neutral; flat
C) neutral; tax incentive
D) none of the above

4) Which of the following is NOT an example of a tax incentive policy?
A) The federal government gives a tax credit to MNEs that make domestic capital improvements but not foreign capital improvements.
B) Corporations are allowed to take a direct tax credit for each dollar of matching donations they make to institutions of higher education.
C) A tax law is passed that makes interest on property non tax-deductible, but interest payments on durable goods are.
D) All are examples of a tax incentive policy.

5) Toyota Motor Company operates in many different countries and pays taxes at many different rates. However, they always pay the same rate as their local competitors. Toyota Motor Company is operating in an environment of ________ tax policy.
A) domestic neutrality
B) foreign neutrality
C) territorial approach
D) none of the above

6) The United States taxes the domestic and remitted foreign earnings of U.S. based MNEs no matter where the earnings occurred. This is an example of a/an ________ approach to levying taxes.
A) worldwide
B) territorial
C) neutral
D) equitable

7) The United States taxes all earnings on U.S. soil by both domestic and foreign firms. This is an example of a ________ approach to levying taxes.
A) worldwide
B) neutral
C) territorial
D) none of the above

8) Bacon Signs Inc. is based in a country with a territorial approach to taxation but generates 100% of its income in a country with a worldwide approach to taxation. The tax rate in the country of incorporation is 25%, and the tax rate in the country where they earn their income is 50%. In theory, and barring any special provisions in the tax codes of either country, Bacon should pay taxes at a rate of:
A) 75%.
B) 62.5%.
C) 0%.
D) 50%.

9) The territorial approach to taxation policy is also termed the ________ approach.
A) source
B) ethical
C) greedy
D) location

10) A tax that is effectively a sales tax at each stage of production is defined as a/an ________ tax.
A) flat
B) equitable
C) value-added tax
D) none of the above

11) What is the total value of taxes paid in the following example if the value added tax is 10%? A farmer raises wheat that he sells for $1.50 to the grain company. The grain company sells to the processor for $2.00 per bushel. The processor turns the wheat into a breakfast cereal and wholesales it for $3.00 per bushel. The retailer sells the cereal for $4.00 per bushel.
A) $0.15
B) $0.20
C) $0.30
D) $0.40

TABLE 15.1
Use the information to answer following question(s).

BayArea Designs Inc., located in Northern California, has two international subsidiaries, one located in the Ukraine, the other in Korea. Consider the information below to answer the next several questions.

12) Refer to Table 15.1. If BayArea pays out 50% of its earnings from each subsidiary, what are the additional U.S. taxes due on the foreign sourced income from the Ukraine and Korea respectively.
A) Ukraine = $0; Korea = ($30,000)
B) Ukraine = $100,000; Korea = $0
C) Ukraine = $0; Korea = $66,250
D) none of the above

13) Refer to Table 15.1. The additional U.S. taxes due on the repatriation of income from the Ukraine to the United States, alone, assuming a 50% payout rate, is:
A) excess foreign tax credits of $110,000.
B) additional U.S. taxes due of $97,000.
C) additional U.S. taxes due of $36,500.
D) excess foreign tax credits of $18,500.

14) Refer to Table 15.1. How much in additional U.S. taxes would be due if BayArea averaged the tax credits and liabilities of the two foreign units, assuming a 50% payout rate from each?
A) $3,750
B) $13,750
C) $2,500
D) $0

15) Refer to Table 15.1. If BayArea set the payout rate from the Ukraine subsidiary at 25%, how should BayArea set the payout rate of the Korean subsidiary (approximately) to more efficiently manage its total foreign tax bill?
A) 28.5%
B) 24.5%
C) 42.6%
D) 82.3%

16) Refer to Table 15.1. What is the minimum effective tax rate that BayArea can achieve on its foreign-sourced income?
A) 26%
B) 35%
C) 40%
D) 0%

17) Tax-haven subsidiaries are typically established in a country that can meet the following requirements:
A) a low tax on foreign investment or sales income earned by resident corporations and a low dividend withholding tax on dividends paid to the parent firm.
B) the facilities to support financial services, for example, good communications, professional qualified office workers, and reputable banking services.
C) a stable government that encourages the establishment of foreign-owned financial and service facilities within its borders.
D) all of the above

18) A tax that is a form of social redistribution of income is defined as a/an ________ tax.
A) un-American
B) transfer
C) flat
D) none of the above

19) A ________ is a direct reduction of taxes whereas a ________ reduces the taxable income before taxes.
A) foreign tax credit; domestic tax credit
B) tax deduction; tax credit
C) tax credit; tax deduction
D) none of the above

Instruction 15.1:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).

Green Valley Exporters USA has $100,000 of before tax foreign income. The host country has a corporate income tax rate of 25% and the U.S. has a corporate income tax rate of 35%.

20) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. has no bilateral trade agreement with the host country, what is the total amount of income taxes Green Valley Exporters will pay?
A) $25,000
B) $35,000
C) $51,250
D) $60,000

21) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. has a bilateral trade agreement with the host country that calls for the total tax paid to be equal to the maximum amount that could be paid in the highest taxing country, what is the total amount of income taxes Green Valley Exporters will pay to the host country, and how much will they pay in U.S income taxes on the foreign earned income?
A) $25,000; $10,000
B) $25,000; $26,250
C) $35,000; $0
D) none of the above

22) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. treated the taxes paid on income earned in the host country as a tax-deductible expense, then Green Valley’s total U.S. corporate tax on the foreign earnings would be:
A) $10,000.
B) $26,250.
C) $35,000.
D) $51,250.

23) Refer to Instruction 15.1. If the U.S. treated the taxes paid on income earned in the host country as a tax-credit, then Green Valley’s total U.S. corporate tax on the foreign earnings would be:
A) $51,250.
B) $35,000.
C) $26,250.
D) $10,000.

24) Tax treaties typically result in ________ between the two countries in question.
A) lower property taxes for U.S. citizens overseas
B) elimination of differential tax rates
C) increased double taxation
D) reduced withholding tax rates

25) Transfer pricing is a strategy that may be used by MNEs to:
A) reduce consolidated corporate income taxes.
B) partially finance a subsidiary in another country.
C) transfer funds from a subsidiary to the parent corporation.
D) all of the above

26) ________ is the pricing of goods, services, and technology between related companies.
A) Among pricing
B) Retail pricing
C) Transfer pricing
D) Wholesale pricing

True/False

1) The primary objective of multinational tax planning is to minimize the firm’s worldwide tax burden.

2) A country CANNOT have both a territorial and a worldwide approach as a national tax policy.

3) Tax treaties generally have the effect of increasing the withholding taxes between the countries that are negotiating the treaties.

4) A value-added tax has gained widespread usage in Western Europe, Canada, and parts of Latin America.

5) All indications are that the value-added tax will soon be the dominant form of taxation in the U.S.

6) Among the G7 nations, the U.S. has a below average corporate income tax rate that makes it attractive for other countries to invest in the U.S.

7) In the mid 1980s the U.S. led the way to higher corporate income tax rates worldwide. Today, most of the G7 nations have surpassed the U.S. and have higher corporate income tax rates than the U.S.

8) The ideal tax should not only raise revenue efficiently but also have as few negative effects on economic behavior as possible.

9) The worldwide approach, also referred to as the residential or national approach to tax policy, levies taxes on the income earned by firms that are incorporated in the host country, regardless of where the income was earned (domestically or abroad).

10) The territorial approach, also referred to as the source approach to tax policy, levies taxes on the income earned by firms that are incorporated in the host country, regardless of where the income was earned (domestically or abroad).

11) Of the OECD 30 countries, most employ a worldwide approach to tax policy, but a few, including the United States, use the worldwide approach.

12) FEW governments rely on income taxes, both personal and corporate, for their primary revenue source.

13) Between 2006 – 2012, global corporate tax rates have trended upward.

14) Tax credits are LESS valuable on a dollar-for-dollar basis than are deductible expenses.

15) Tax treaties typically result in reduced withholding tax rates between the two signatory countries.

16) Tax credits are less valuable on a dollar-for-dollar basis than are tax-deductible expenses.

17) The U.S. Internal Revenue Service can reallocate revenues and expenses between parent corporations and their subsidiaries to more clearly reflect a proper allocation of income. In such instances it is the responsibility of the corporation to prove that the IRS has been arbitrary in its decision-making, thus establishing a “guilty until proved innocent” tax approach.

18) Tax haven subsidiaries of MNEs are categorically referred to as international offshore financial centers.

Essay

1) Explain the worldwide and territorial approaches of national taxation. The authors state that the United States uses both approaches. How can this be? Give an example of each taxation approach.

2) What is a value-added tax? Where is this type of tax in wide usage? Why do you suppose this form of taxation has NOT been widely accepted in the United States?

Chapter 16 International Portfolio Theory and Diversification

16.1 International Diversification and Risk

Multiple Choice

1) Beta may be defined as:
A) the measure of systematic risk.
B) a risk measure of a portfolio.
C) the ratio of the variance of the portfolio to the variance of the market.
D) all of the above

2) ________ risk is measured with beta.
A) Systematic
B) Unsystematic
C) International
D) Domestic

3) A fully diversified domestic portfolio has a beta of:
A) 0.0
B) 1.0
C) -1.0
D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

4) Unsystematic risk:
A) is the remaining risk in a well-diversified portfolio.
B) is measured with beta.
C) can be diversified away.
D) all of the above

5) A well-diversified portfolio has about ________ of the risk of the typical individual stock.
A) 8%
B) 19%
C) 27%
D) 52%

6) An internationally diversified portfolio:
A) should result in a portfolio with a lower beta than a purely domestic portfolio.
B) has the same overall risk shape as a purely domestic portfolio.
C) is only about 12% as risky as the typical individual stock.
D) all of the above

7) In some respects, internationally diversified portfolios are the same in principle as a domestic portfolio because:
A) the investor is attempting to combine assets that are perfectly correlated.
B) investors are trying to reduce systematic risk.
C) investors are trying to reduce the total risk of the portfolio.
D) all of the above

8) In some respects, internationally diversified portfolios are different from a domestic portfolio because:
A) investors may also acquire foreign exchange risk.
B) international portfolio diversification increases expected return but does not decrease risk.
C) investors must leave the country to acquire foreign securities.
D) all of the above

Instruction 16.1:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).

In September 2009 a U.S. investor chooses to invest $500,000 in German equity securities at a then current spot rate of $1.30/euro. At the end of one year the spot rate is $1.35/euro.

9) Refer to Instruction 16.1. How many euros will the U.S. investor acquire with his initial $500,000 investment?
A) €650,000
B) €370,370
C) €500,000
D) €384,615

10) Refer to Instruction 16.1. At an average price of €60/share, how many shares of stock will the investor be able to purchase?
A) 8333 shares
B) 6410 shares
C) 6173 shares
D) 10,833 shares

11) Refer to Instruction 16.1. At the end of the year the investor sells his stock that now has an average price per share of €57. What is the investor’s average rate of return before converting the stock back into dollars?
A) 5.0%
B) -3.0%
C) -5.0%
D) 3.0%

12) Refer to Instruction 16.1. At the end of the year the investor sells his stock that now has an average price per share of €57. What is the investor’s average rate of return after converting the stock back into dollars?
A) -1.35%
B) 5.0%
C) -5.0%
D) -7.24%

13) A U.S. investor makes an investment in Britain and earns 14% on the investment while the British pound appreciates against the U.S. dollar by 8%. What is the investor’s total return?
A) 22.00%
B) 23.12%
C) 6.00%
D) 4.88%

14) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A) International diversification benefits induce investors to demand foreign securities.
B) An international security adds value to a portfolio if it reduces risk without reducing return.
C) Investors will demand a security that adds value.
D) All of the above are true.

True/False

1) Portfolio diversification can eliminate 100% of risk.

2) Increasing the number of securities in a portfolio reduces the unsystematic risk but not the systematic risk.

3) International diversification benefits may induce investors to demand foreign securities.

4) If the addition of a foreign security to the portfolio of the investor aids in the reduction of risk for a given level of return, then the security adds value to the portfolio.

5) If the addition of a foreign security to the portfolio of the investor decreases the expected return for a given level of risk, then the security adds value to the portfolio.

16.2 Internationalizing the Domestic Portfolio

Multiple Choice

1) Portfolio theory assumes that investors are risk-averse. This means that investors:
A) cannot be induced to make risky investments.
B) prefer more risk to less for a given return.
C) will accept some risk, but not unnecessary risk.
D) All of the above are true.

2) The efficient frontier of the domestic portfolio opportunity set:
A) runs along the extreme left edge of the opportunity set.
B) represents optimal portfolios of securities that represent minimum risk for a given level of expected portfolio return.
C) contains the portfolio of risky securities that the logical investor would choose to hold.
D) all of the above

3) The addition of foreign securities to the domestic portfolio opportunity set shifts the efficient frontier:
A) down and to the left.
B) up and to the right.
C) up and to the left.
D) down and to the right.

4) Relative to the efficient frontier of risky portfolios, it is impossible to hold a portfolio that is located ________ the efficient frontier.
A) to the left of
B) to the right of
C) on
D) to the right or left of

5) The ________ connects the risk-free security with the optimal domestic portfolio.
A) security market line
B) capital asset pricing model
C) capital market line
D) none of the above

Instruction 16.2:
Use the information to answer the following question(s).

A U.S. investor is considering a portfolio consisting of 60% invested in the U.S. equity index fund and 40% invested in the British equity index fund. The expected returns for the funds are 10% for the U.S. and 8% for the British, standard deviations of 20% for the U.S. and 18% for the British, and a correlation coefficient of 0.15 between the U.S. and British equity funds.

6) Refer to Instruction 16.2. What is the expected return of the proposed portfolio?
A) 9.2%
B) 9.0%
C) 19.2%
D) 19%

7) Refer to Instruction 16.2. What is the standard deviation of the proposed portfolio?
A) 38.00
B) 19.20
C) 19.00
D) 14.45

True/False

1) The graph for the efficient frontier has beta on the vertical axis and standard deviation of the horizontal axis.

2) The portfolio with the least risk among all those possible in the domestic portfolio opportunity set is called the minimum risk domestic portfolio.

3) The optimal domestic portfolio of risky securities is always the portfolio of minimum risk.

4) The standard deviation of a portfolio is the sum of the weighted average standard deviations of the individual assets.

5) The optimal domestic portfolio combines the risk-free asset and a portfolio of domestic securities found on the efficient frontier.

6) The internationally diversified portfolio opportunity set shifts TO THE RIGHT of the purely domestic opportunity set.

Essay

1) Draw the curve representing the Optimal Domestic Efficient Frontier. Be sure to draw and label the following: The vertical axis and the horizontal axis, the risk-free security, the minimum risk portfolio, the domestic portfolio opportunity set, the optimal domestic portfolio, and the capital market line. Choose a point along the domestic portfolio opportunity set between the optimal domestic portfolio and the minimum risk domestic portfolio and explain why that point is not the optimal risky domestic portfolio for investors to hold.

16.3 National Markets and Asset Performance

Multiple Choice

1) The authors present a comparison of correlation coefficients between major global equity markets over a variety of different periods. The comparison yields a number of conclusions listed here EXCEPT:
A) the correlation between equity markets for the full twentieth century shows quite low levels of correlation between some of the largest markets (close to 0.50 in some cases).
B) that same century of data, however, yields a high correlation between the U.S. and Canada (0.80).
C) the correlation coefficients between those same equity markets for selected sub periods over the last quarter of the twentieth century, however, show significantly different correlation coefficients.
D) None of the answers listed are inaccurate conclusions.

True/False

1) Capital markets around the world are on average less integrated today than they were 20 years ago.

2) In an empirical study on national market returns in the 20th century, Dimson, Marsh, and Staunton (2002) determined that the equity returns in the United States out-performed the other 15 countries in the study.

3) In an empirical study on national market returns in the 20th century, Dimson, Marsh, and Staunton (2002) found that just under one-half of the 16 countries in the study had negative average returns in their equity markets.

4) In an empirical study on national market returns in the 20th century, Dimson, Marsh, and Staunton (2002) determined that due to high levels of correlation or returns between countries, there is almost NO BENEFIT to international portfolio diversification.

5) Of the major trading partners with the United States, Canada has among the LOWEST correlation of returns with the U.S.

Essay

1) If an investor is able to determine a global beta for his portfolio and holds a portfolio that is well-diversified with international investments, which performance measure is more appropriate, the Sharpe Measure or the Treynor Measure? Why? Explain each performance measure.

16.4 Market Performance Adjusted for Risk: The Sharpe and Treynor Performance Measures

Multiple Choice

1) The Sharpe measure uses ________ as the measure of risk and the Treynor measure uses ________ as the measure of risk.
A) standard deviation; variance
B) beta; variance
C) standard deviation; beta
D) beta; standard deviation

TABLE 16.1
Use the information to answer following question(s).

2) Refer to Table 16.1. What is the value of the Sharpe Measure for France?
A) 0.113
B) 0.0071
C) either A or B
D) neither A nor B

3) Refer to Table 16.1. What is the value of the Treynor Measure for the Netherlands?
A) 0.197
B) 0.0109
C) either A or B
D) neither A nor B

4) Refer to Table 16.1. ________ appears to have the greatest amount of risk as measured by monthly standard deviation, but ________ has the best return per unit of risk according to the Sharpe Measure.
A) United States; Austria
B) France; Austria
C) United States; Netherlands
D) France; Netherlands

5) The Sharpe and Treynor Measures tend to be consistent in their ranking of portfolios when the portfolios:
A) are poorly diversified.
B) are properly diversified.
C) contain only U.S. equity investments.
D) none of the above

True/False

1) The Sharpe and Treynor measures are each measures of return per unit of risk.

2) Good financial advice would suggest that investors should examine returns by the amount of return per unit of risk accepted, rather than in isolation.

3) The denominator of the Treynor measure is portfolio risk as measured by the standard deviation of the portfolio.

4) The denominator of the Sharpe measure is portfolio risk as measured by the standard deviation of the portfolio.

5) The denominator of the Sharpe measure is the portfolio’s beta, the systematic risk of the portfolio, as measured against the world market portfolio.

6) The denominator of the Treynor measure is the portfolio’s beta, the systematic risk of the portfolio, as measured against the world market portfolio.

ECO 410 Week 8 Quiz – Strayer University New

ECO/410 Week 8 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-410-Week-8-Quiz-Strayer-375.htm

 

Quiz 7 Chapter 13 and 14

Chapter 13

The Global Cost and Availability of Capital

13.1 Financial Globalization and Strategy

Multiple Choice

1) If a firm lies within a country with ________ or ________ domestic capital markets, it can achieve lower global cost and greater availability of capital with a properly designed and implemented strategy to participate in international capital markets.
A) liquid; segmented
B) liquid; large
C) illiquid; segmented
D) large; illiquid

2) Other things equal, a firm that must obtain its long-term debt and equity in a highly illiquid domestic securities market will probably have a:
A) relatively low cost of capital.
B) relatively high cost of capital.
C) relatively average cost of capital.
D) cost of capital that we cannot estimate from this question.

3) Relatively high costs of capital are more likely to occur in:
A) highly illiquid domestic securities markets.
B) highly liquid domestic securities markets.
C) unsegmented domestic securities markets.
D) none of the above

4) Reasons that firms may find themselves with relatively high costs of capital include:
A) The firms reside in emerging countries with undeveloped capital markets.
B) The firms are too small to easily gain access to their own national securities market.
C) The firms are family owned and they choose not to access public markets and lose control of the firm.
D) all of the above

5) Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to the segmentation of capital markets?
A) excessive regulatory control
B) perceived political risk
C) anticipated foreign exchange risk
D) All of the above are contributing factors.

6) Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to the segmentation of capital markets?
A) lack of transparency
B) asymmetric availability of information
C) insider trading
D) All of the above are contributing factors.

7) The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is:
A) the required rate of return for all of a firm’s capital investment projects.
B) the required rate of return for a firm’s average risk projects.
C) not applicable for use by MNE.
D) equal to 13%.

8) The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) is an approach:
A) to determine the price of equity capital.
B) used by marketers to determine the price of saleable product.
C) that can be applied only to domestic markets.
D) none of the above

9) Which of the following is NOT a key variable in the equation for the capital asset pricing model?
A) the risk-free rate of interest
B) the expected rate of return on the market portfolio
C) the marginal tax rate
D) All are important components of the CAPM.

10) ________ risk is a function of the variability of expected returns of the firm’s stock relative to the market index and the measure of correlation between the expected returns of the firm and the market.
A) Systematic
B) Unsystematic
C) Total
D) Diversifiable

11) Systematic risk:
A) is the standard deviation of a security’s return.
B) is measured with beta.
C) is measured with standard deviation.
D) none of the above

12) Which of the following is generally unnecessary in measuring the cost of debt?
A) a forecast of future interest rates
B) the proportions of the various classes of debt a firm proposes to use
C) the corporate income tax rate
D) All of the above are necessary for measuring the cost of debt.

13) The after-tax cost of debt is found by:
A) dividing the before-tax cost of debt by (1 – the corporate tax rate).
B) subtracting (1 – the corporate tax rate) from the before-tax cost of debt.
C) multiplying the before-tax cost of debt by (1 – the corporate tax rate).
D) subtracting the corporate tax rate from the before-tax cost of debt.

14) A firm whose equity has a beta of 1.0:
A) has greater systematic risk than the market portfolio.
B) stands little chance of surviving in the international financial market place.
C) has less systematic risk than the market portfolio.
D) None of the above is true.

15) The difference between the expected (or required) return for the market portfolio and the risk-free rate of return is referred to as:
A) beta.
B) the geometric mean.
C) the market risk premium.
D) the arithmetic mean.

16) In general the geometric mean will be ________ the arithmetic mean for a series of returns.
A) less than
B) greater than
C) equal to
D) greater than or equal to

17) The beginning share price for a security over a three-year period was $50. Subsequent year-end prices were $62, $58 and $64. The arithmetic average annual rate of return and the geometric average annual rate of return for this stock was:
A) 9.30% and 8.58% respectively.
B) 9.30% and 7.89% respectively.
C) 9.30% and 7.03% respectively.
D) 9.30% and 6.37% respectively.

18) If a company fails to accurately predict it’s cost of equity, then:
A) the firm’s wacc will also be inaccurate.
B) the firm may not be using the proper interest rate to estimate NPV.
C) the firm may incorrectly accept or reject projects based on decisions made using the cost of capital computed with an incorrect cost of equity.
D) All of the above are true.

19) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding beta?
A) Beta will have a value of less than 1.0 if the firm’s returns are less volatile than the market.
B) Beta will have a value of greater than 1.0 if the firm’s returns are more volatile than the market.
C) Beta will have a value of equal to 1.0 if the firm’s returns are of equal volatility to the market.
D) All of the statements above are true.

20) Which of the following will NOT affect a firm’s beta?
A) the choice of the market portfolio against which to compare the variability of a firm’s returns
B) the choice of the risk-free security
C) the choice of the time period used to calculate the firm’s beta
D) None of the above, because each of them affects the calculation of a firm’s beta.

True/False

1) A national securities market is segmented if the required rate of return on securities in that market differs from comparable securities traded in other, unsegmented markets.

2) Other things equal, an increase in the firm’s tax rate will increase the WACC for a firm that has both debt and equity financing.

3) If a firm’s expected returns are more volatile than the expected return for the market portfolio, it will have a beta less than 1.0.

4) The WACC is usually used as the risk-adjusted required rate of return for new projects that are of the same average risk as the firm’s existing projects.

5) One of the elegant beauties of international equity markets is that over the last 100 or so years, the average market risk premium is almost identical across major industrial countries.

6) Firms acquire debt in either the form of loans from commercial banks, or by selling new common stock.

7) When estimating an average corporate after-tax cost of capital, the component cost of equity is multiplied by (1-t) to allow for the tax-deductibility of dividend payments.

8) International CAPM (ICAPM) assumes that there is a global market in which the firm’s equity trades, and estimates of the firm’s beta, and the market risk premium, must then reflect this global portfolio.

9) Use of the International CAPM (ICAPM) assures that the WACC will be lower than if a purely domestic market portfolio had been used in the estimation of the cost of equity.

10) A global portfolio is an index of all the securities in the world, whereas a world portfolio represents those securities actually available to an investor.

11) The CAPM has now become very widely accepted in global business as the preferred method of calculating the cost of equity for a firm. As a result of this, there is now little debate over what numerical values should be used in its application.

12) The geometric mean will, in all but a few extreme circumstances, yield a larger return than the arithmetic mean return.

Essay

1) What are the components of the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) and how do they differ for an MNE compared to a purely domestic firm?

13.2 The Demand for Foreign Securities: The Role of International Portfolio Investors

Multiple Choice

1) The primary goal of both domestic and international portfolio managers is:
A) to maximize return for a given level of risk, or to minimize risk for a given level of return.
B) to minimize the number of unique securities held in their portfolio.
C) to maximize their WACC.
D) all of the above

2) Which of the following is NOT a portfolio diversification technique used by portfolio managers?
A) diversify by type of security
B) diversify by the size of capitalization of the securities held
C) diversify by country
D) All of the above are diversification techniques.

3) If all capital markets are fully integrated, securities of comparable expected return and risk should have the same required rate of return in each national market after adjusting for:
A) time of day and language requirements.
B) political risk and time lags.
C) foreign exchange risk and political risk.
D) foreign exchange risk and the spot rate.

4) Capital market segmentation is a financial market imperfection caused mainly by:
A) government constraints.
B) institutional practices.
C) investor perceptions.
D) all of the above

5) Capital market imperfections leading to financial market segmentation include:
A) asymmetric information between domestic and foreign-based investors.
B) high securities transaction costs.
C) foreign exchange risks.
D) all of the above

6) Capital market imperfections leading to financial market segmentation include:
A) political risks.
B) corporate governance differences.
C) regulatory barriers.
D) all of the above

7) The authors refer to companies that have access to a ________ as MNEs, and firms without such access are identified as ________.
A) global cost and availability of capital; domestic firms.
B) large domestic capital market; geographically challenged.
C) world financial markets; antiquated.
D) none of the above

8) The MNE can ________ its ________ by gaining access to markets that are more liquid and/or less segmented than its own.
A) increase; MCC.
B) decrease; MCC.
C) maintain; MRR.
D) none of the above

True/False

1) Internationally diversified portfolios often have a lower rate of return and almost always have a higher level of portfolio risk than their domestic counterparts.

2) Empirical tests of market efficiency fail to show that most major national markets are reasonably efficient.

3) A MNEs marginal cost of capital is constant for considerable ranges in its capital budget, but this statement cannot be made for most domestic firms.

4) Capital market segmentation is a financial market imperfection caused mainly by government constraints, institutional practices, and investor perceptions.

5) Since the 1980s and 1990s, segmentation in global financial markets has been reduced. As a result of this, the correlation among securities markets has increased, thereby reducing, but not eliminating, the benefits of international portfolio diversification.

13.3 The Cost of Capital for MNEs Compared to Domestic Firms

Multiple Choice

1) Theoretically, most MNEs should be in a position to support higher ________ than their domestic counterparts because their cash flows are diversified internationally.
A) equity ratios
B) debt ratios
C) temperatures
D) none of the above

2) According to your authors, diversifying cash flows internationally may help MNEs reduce the variability of cash flows because:
A) of a lack of competition among international firms.
B) of an offset to cash flow variability caused by exchange rate variability.
C) returns are not perfectly correlated between countries.
D) none of the above

3) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding MNEs when compared to purely domestic firms?
A) MNEs tend to rely more on short and intermediate term debt.
B) MNEs have greater foreign exchange risk.
C) MNEs have greater costs of asymmetric information.
D) MNEs have higher agency costs.

4) Empirical research has found that systematic risk for MNEs is greater than that for their domestic counterparts. This could be due to:
A) the fact that the increase in the correlation of returns between the market and the firm is less than the increase in the standard deviation of returns of the firm.
B) the fact that the decrease in the correlation of returns between the market and the firm is greater than the increase in the standard deviation of returns of the firm.
C) the reduction in the correlation of returns between the firm and the market is less than the increase in the variability of returns caused by factors such as asymmetric information, foreign exchange risk, and the like.
D) None of the above; systematic risk is less for MNEs than for their domestic counterparts.

5) The optimal capital budget:
A) occurs where the marginal cost of capital equals the marginal rate of return of the opportunity set of projects.
B) is typically larger for purely domestic firms than for MNEs.
C) is an illusion found only in international finance textbooks.
D) none of the above

6) Empirical studies indicate that MNEs have higher costs of capital than purely domestic firms. This could be due to higher levels of:
A) political risk.
B) exchange rate risk.
C) agency costs.
D) all of the above

7) Despite the theoretical elegance of this hypothesis, empirical studies have come to the opposite conclusion.Despite the favorable effect of international diversification of cash flows, bankruptcy risk was only about the same for MNEs as for domestic firms. However, MNEs faced higher costs for each of the following EXCEPT:
A) agency costs.
B) political risk.
C) asymmetric information.
D) In fact, each of these costs were higher for the MNE than for the domestic firm.

True/False

1) Because of the international diversification of cash flows, the risk of bankruptcy for MNEs is significantly lower than that for purely domestic firms.

2) The opportunity set of projects is typically smaller for MNEs than for purely domestic firms because international markets are typically specialized niches.

3) Surprisingly, empirical studies find that MNEs have a higher level of systematic risk than their domestic counterparts.

Essay

1) What do theory and empirical evidence say about capital structure and the cost of capital for MNEs versus their domestic counterparts?

13.4 The Riddle: Is the Cost of Capital Higher for MNEs?

Multiple Choice

1) Empirical studies indicate that WACC for an MNE is higher than for their domestic competitors. Reasons cited for this increased cost include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) agency costs.
B) foreign exchange risk.
C) political risk.
D) All of the above are cited as reasons for an MNE’s increased WACC.

True/False

1) Empirical studies indicate that MNEs have a lower debt/capital ratio than domestic counterparts, indicating that MNEs have a lower cost of capital.

Chapter 14 Raising Equity and Debt Globally

14.1 Designing a Strategy to Source Capital Globally

Multiple Choice

1) The choice of when and how to source capital globally is usually aided early on by the advice of:
A) an investment banker.
B) your stock broker.
C) a commercial banker.
D) an underwriter.

2) Investment banking services include which of the following?
A) advising when a security should be cross-listed
B) preparation of stock prospectuses
C) help to determine the price of the issue
D) all of the above

3) Which of the following is the typical order of sourcing capital abroad?
A) an international bond issue, then cross listing the outstanding issues on other exchanges, then an international bond issue in the target market
B) an international bond issue in the target market, then cross listing the outstanding issues on other exchanges, then an international bond issue
C) an international bond issue in less prestigious markets, then an international bond issue in the target market, and ultimately a eurobond issue
D) cross listing the outstanding issues on other exchanges, then an international bond issue, then an international bond issue in the target market

4) By cross listing and selling its shares on a foreign stock exchange, a firm typically tries to accomplish which of the following?
A) improve the liquidity of its existing shares
B) increase its share price
C) increase the firm’s visibility
D) all of the above

True/False

1) Most firms raise their initial capital in foreign markets.

14.2 Optimal Financial Structure

Multiple Choice

1) Which financial economists are most closely associated with the financial theory of optimal capital structure?
A) Modigliani and Miller
B) Fama, Fisher, Jensen, and Roll
C) Black and Scholes
D) Markowitz and Sharpe

2) For most firms, the cost of capital decreases to a low point as the firm ________ debt financing. At some point beyond this optimal level, the cost of capital increases as the amount of debt ________.
A) decreases; increases
B) decreases; decreases
C) increases; increases
D) increases; decreases

3) One of the most important factors in making debt less expensive than equity is:
A) the tax deductibility of depreciation.
B) the tax deductibility of equity.
C) the tax deductibility of dividends.
D) the tax deductibility of interest.

4) One of the most important factors in making debt less expensive than equity is:
A) the seniority of equity obligations to debt claims.
B) the tax deductibility of dividends.
C) the tax deductibility of equity.
D) the seniority of debt obligations to equity claims.

5) Which of the following is NOT a factor offsetting the tax advantage of debt as a source of financing?
A) increased agency costs
B) increased probability of financial distress (bankruptcy) due to fixed interest payments
C) alternative tax shields to those supplied by interest payments
D) All of the above offset the tax advantage of debt as a source of financing.

6) Most financial theorists believe that the optimal capital structure is a ________ with a debt to total value ratio somewhere around ________.
A) point; 50%
B) point; 25%
C) range; 30%-60%
D) range; 10%-40%

7) Not all firms have the same optimal capital structure. Factors that might influence a firm’s capital structure include:
A) the industry in which it operates.
B) the volatility of its sales and operating income.
C) the collateral value of its assets.
D) all of the above

8) MNEs situated in countries with small illiquid and segmented markets are most like:
A) small domestic U.S. firms in that they must rely on internally generated funds and bank borrowing.
B) large U.S. MNEs in that they are all MNEs and have worldwide markets and sources of financing.
C) small domestic U.S. firms in that they have a strong niche market in the U.S.
D) None of the above is true.

9) In theory, the MNE should support ________ debt ratios than a purely domestic firm because their cash flows are ________.
A) lower; more stable due to international diversification
B) lower; less stable due to international diversification
C) higher; more stable due to international diversification
D) higher; less stable due to international diversification

10) TropiKana Inc., a U.S firm, has just borrowed $1,000,000 to make improvements to an Italian fruit plantation and processing plant. If the interest rate is 6.00% per year, how much interest will they pay in the first year?
A) $6,000
B) $60,000
C) $600,000
D) €60,000

11) TropiKana Inc., a U.S firm, has just borrowed euro 1,000,000 to make improvements to an Italian fruit plantation and processing plant. If the interest rate is 5.50% per year and the Euro depreciates against the dollar from $1.40/€ at the time the loan was made to $1.35/€ at the end of the first year, how much interest will TropiKana pay at the end of the first year (rounded)?
A) $55,000
B) €74,250
C) $74,250
D) $77,000

12) TropiKana Inc., a U.S firm, has just borrowed euro 1,000,000 to make improvements to an Italian fruit plantation and processing plant. If the interest rate is 5.50% per year and the Euro appreciates against the dollar from $1.40/€ at the time the loan was made to $1.45/€ at the end of the first year, how much interest will TropiKana pay at the end of the first year (rounded)?
A) $55,000
B) $79,750
C) $77,000
D) $37,931

13) TropiKana Inc., a U.S firm, has just borrowed euro 1,000,000 to make improvements to an Italian fruit plantation and processing plant. If the interest rate is 5.50% per year and the Euro appreciates against the dollar from $1.40/€ at the time the loan was made to $1.45/€ at the end of the first year, how much interest and principle will TropiKana pay at the end of the first year if they repay the entire loan plus interest (rounded)?
A) $1,529,750
B) €1,529,750
C) $1,055,000
D) $1,477,000

14) TropiKana Inc., a U.S firm, has just borrowed euro 1,000,000 to make improvements to an Italian fruit plantation and processing plant. If the interest rate is 5.50% per year and the Euro depreciates against the dollar from $1.40/€ at the time the loan was made to $1.35/€ at the end of the first year, how much interest and principle will TropiKana pay at the end of the first year if they repay the entire loan plus interest (rounded)?
A) $1,477,000
B) $1,055,000
C) €1,424,250
D) $1,424,250

15) TropiKana Inc., a U.S firm, has just borrowed euro 1,000,000 to make improvements to an Italian fruit plantation and processing plant. If the interest rate is 5.50% per year and the Euro appreciates against the dollar from $1.40/€ at the time the loan was made to $1.45/€ at the end of the first year, what is the before tax cost of capital if the firm repays the entire loan plus interest (rounded)?
A) 1.73%
B) 5.50%
C) 10.50%
D) 9.27%

True/False

1) Financial theory has at last provided us with a single optimal capital structure for domestic firms.

2) Financial practice suggests that there is a range for an optimal capital structure for a firm within an industry rather than a specific optimal ratio of debt to equity.

3) In part because of access to global markets, MNEs are better able than their domestic counterparts to maintain their desired debt ratio even when raising new capital.

4) When a firm borrows in a foreign currency, the effective cost is the foreign interest rate plus an adjustment for changes in the exchange rate.

5) The domestic theory of optimal capital structure does not need to be modified for MNEs.

6) Portfolio diversification of domestic firms reduces risk because cash flows are not perfectly correlated. The same reasoning is often argued for MNEs diversifying into international markets.

7) A significant advantage of borrowing foreign currency-denominated bonds is that the borrower need not worry about relative changes in the value of the home currency.

8) For firms to raise capital in international markets, it is more important to adhere to capital structure ratios similar to those found in the United States and United Kingdom than to those in the firm’s home country.

14.3 Raising Equity Globally

Multiple Choice

1) The stock exchange with the greatest value of shares traded is:
A) NYSE.
B) Tokyo.
C) Nasdaq.
D) London.

2) The number of foreign firms traded on the London exchange is ________ than the number traded on the NYSE, and the costs of listing and disclosure in London are ________ those for the NYSE.
A) less than; less than
B) less than; greater than
C) greater than; less than
D) greater than; greater than

True/False

1) The Tokyo exchange is the number one choice of firms looking to gain liquidity by cross-listing their equity securities.

2) The least liquid stock markets as identified by the authors offer little liquidity for their own domestic firms, and are of little value to foreign firms.

14.4 Depositary Receipts

Multiple Choice

1) ________ are negotiable certificates issued by a bank to represent the underlying shares of stock, which are held in trust at a foreign custodian bank.
A) Negotiable CDs
B) International mutual funds
C) Depositary receipts
D) Eurodeposits

2) Depositary receipts traded outside the United States are called ________ depositary receipts.
A) Euro
B) Global
C) American
D) none of the above

3) Each ADR represents ________ of the shares of the underlying foreign stock.
A) a multiple
B) 100
C) 1
D) ADRs have nothing to do with foreign stocks.

4) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of ADRs to U.S. shareholders?
A) Transfer of ownership is done in the U.S. in accordance with U.S. laws.
B) In the event of the death of the shareholder, the estate does not go through a foreign court.
C) Settlement for trading is generally faster in the United States.
D) All of the above are advantages of ADRs.

5) ADRs that are created at the request of a foreign firm wanting its shares traded in the United States are:
A) facilitated.
B) unfacilitated.
C) sponsored.
D) unsponsored.

6) Who pays the costs of creating a sponsored ADR?
A) the foreign firm whose stocks underlie the ADR
B) the U.S. bank creating the ADR
C) both the U.S. bank and the foreign firm
D) the SEC since they require the regulation

7) Level I ADRs trade primarily:
A) on the New York Stock Exchange.
B) on the American Stock Exchange.
C) over the counter or pink sheets.
D) Level I ADRs typically do not trade at all, but instead are privately issued and held until maturity.

8) Level II ADRs must meet:
A) U.S. GAAP standards.
B) home country accounting standards.
C) both U.S. GAAP and home country standards.
D) none of the above

9) Level ________ is the easiest standard to satisfy for issuing ADRs.
A) 144a
B) III
C) II
D) I

10) Level III ADR commitment applies to:
A) firms that want to list existing shares on the NYSE.
B) banks issuing foreign mutual funds.
C) ADR issues of under $25,000.
D) the sale of a new equity issued in the United States.

True/False

1) ADRs cannot be exchanged for the underlying shares of the foreign stock, therefore, arbitrage cannot keep the prices in line with the foreign price of the stock.

2) An unsponsored ADR may be initiated without the approval of the foreign firm with the underlying stock.

3) ADRs are considered an effective way for firms to improve the liquidity of their stock, especially if the home market is small and illiquid.

Essay

1) ADRs are a popular investment tool for many U.S. investors. In recent years several alternatives for investing in foreign equity securities have become available for U.S. investors, yet ADRs remain popular. Define what an ADR is and provide at least three examples of the advantages they may hold over alternative foreign investment vehicles for U.S. investors.

14.5 Private Placement

Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following were NOT identified by the authors as an alternative instrument to source equity in global markets?
A) sale of a directed public share issue to investors in a target market
B) private placements under SEC rule 144a
C) sale of shares to private equity funds
D) All of the above are alternatives to source equity instruments.

2) A/An ________ is defined as one that is targeted at investors in a single country and underwritten in whole or part by investment institutions from that country.
A) SEC rule 144a placement
B) directed public share issue
C) Euroequity public issue
D) strategic alliance

3) The term “euro” as used in the euro equity market implies:
A) the issuers are located in Europe.
B) the investors are located in Europe.
C) both A and B
D) none of the above

4) Private equity funds (PEF) differ from traditional venture capital (VC) funds in that:
A) VC operates mainly in lesser-developed countries while PEF do not.
B) VC typically invests in family business whereas PEF do not.
C) VC is almost unavailable to emerging markets while PEF capital is available.
D) All of the above are true.

5) Strategic alliances are normally formed by firms that expect to gain synergies from which of the following?
A) economies of scale
B) economies of scope
C) complementary marketing
D) all of the above

True/False

1) SEC rule 144A permits institutional buyers to trade privately placed securities without the previous holding periods restrictions and without requiring SEC registration.

14.6 Foreign Equity Listing and Issuance

Multiple Choice

1) Your authors note several empirical studies that have found:
A) no share price effect for foreign firms that cross-list on major U.S. exchanges.
B) a positive share price effect for foreign firms that cross-list on major U.S. exchanges.
C) a negative share price effect for foreign firms that cross-list on major U.S. exchanges.
D) none of the above

2) Empirical evidence shows that new issues of equity by domestic firms in the U.S. market typically has a ________ stock price reaction and new equity issues in the U.S. markets by foreign firms with segmented domestic markets have a ________ stock price reaction.
A) negative; negative
B) positive; negative
C) negative; positive
D) positive; positive

3) In addition to gaining liquidity, which of the following could also be considered a legitimate reason for cross-listing equity?
A) enhance a firm’s local image
B) become more familiar with the local financial community
C) get better local press coverage
D) all of the above

4) Another school of thought about the worldwide trend toward fuller and more standardized disclosure rules is that the cost of U.S. level equity capital disclosure:
A) chases away potential listers of equity.
B) is an onerous costly burden.
C) leads to fewer foreign firms cross listing in U.S. equity markets.
D) all of the above

5) According to the U.S. school of thought, the worldwide trend toward fuller and more standardized disclosure rules should ________ the cost of equity capital.
A) increase
B) decrease
C) have no impact on
D) none of the above

6) For the most part, U.S. SEC disclosure requirements are ________ other, non-U.S. equity market rules.
A) more stringent than
B) less stringent than
C) equally stringent to
D) none of the above

True/False

1) The combined impact of a new equity issue undertaken simultaneously with a cross-listing has a more favorable impact on stock price than cross-listing alone.

2) Because of stringent SEC rules, American companies typically do not find foreign disclosure rules to be overly onerous.

Essay

1) What are the two schools of thought regarding the worldwide trend toward increased financial disclosure by publicly traded firms. Explain which school of thought you hold to and why.

14.7 Raising Debt Globally

Multiple Choice

1) ________ are domestic currencies of one country on deposit in a second country.
A) LIBORs
B) Eurocurrencies
C) Federal funds
D) Discount window deposits

2) Of the following, which was NOT cited by the authors as a valuable function provided by the Eurocurrency market?
A) Eurocurrency deposits are an efficient and convenient money market device for holding excess corporate liquidity.
B) Eurocurrency deposits are a tool used by the Federal Reserve to regulate the money supply of countries that peg their currency against the U.S. dollar.
C) The Eurocurrency market is a major source of short-term bank loans to finance corporate working capital needs.
D) All of the above were cited by the authors.

3) Eurobanks are:
A) banks where Eurocurrencies are deposited.
B) major world banks that conduct a Eurocurrency business in addition to normal banking activities.
C) financial intermediaries that simultaneously bid for time deposits in and make loans in a currency other than that of the currency of where it is located.
D) All of the above are descriptions of a Eurobank.

4) Eurocredits are:
A) bank loans to MNEs and others denominated in a currency other than that of the country where the bank is located.
B) typically variable rate and tied to the LIBOR.
C) usually for maturities of six months or less.
D) All of the above are true.

5) In general, which has the shorter maturity and is more appropriate for funding short-term inventory needs?
A) commercial paper
B) Euro-Medium-Term notes (EMTNs)
C) the international bond market
D) all of the above

6) Foreign bonds sold in the United States are nicknamed “Yankee bonds,” foreign bonds sold in Japan are called “Samurai bonds.” What are foreign bonds sold in the United Kingdom nicknamed?
A) “Union Jacks”
B) “Royalty”
C) “Bulldogs”
D) “Churchill’s”

7) A ________ is a bond underwritten by a syndicate from a single country, sold within in that country, denominated in that country’s currency, but the issuer is from outside that country.
A) foreign bond
B) Eurobond
C) domestic bond
D) none of the above

True/False

1) Eurocurrencies are NOT the same as the euro developed for the common European currency.

2) The Eurocurrency market continues to thrive because it is a large international money market relatively free of governmental regulation and interference.

3) Moody’s rates international bonds at the request of the issuer with the stipulation that Moody’s will publish the ratings even if the ratings are unfavorable.

Essay

1) The Euro-medium-term-note (EMTN) has filled a substantial niche market in global financing. What are the distinguishing characteristics of the EMTN and why is it such a popular form of financing for MNEs?

ECO 410 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer University New

ECO/410 Week 5 Quiz – Strayer

Click on the Link Below to Purchase A+ Graded Course Material

http://budapp.net/ECO-410-Week-5-Quiz-Strayer-372.htm

 

Chapter 7

International Parity Conditions

7.1 Prices and Exchange Rates

Multiple Choice

1) If an identical product can be sold in two different markets, and no restrictions exist on the sale or transportation costs, the product’s price should be the same in both markets. This is known as:
A) relative purchasing power parity.
B) interest rate parity.
C) the law of one price.
D) equilibrium.

2) The Economist publishes annually the “Big Mac Index” by which they compare the prices of the McDonald’s Corporation’s Big Mac hamburger around the world. The index estimates the exchange rates for currencies based on the assumption that the burgers in question are the same across the world and therefore, the price should be the same. If a Big Mac costs $2.54 in the United States and 294 yen in Japan, what is the estimated exchange rate of yen per dollar as hypothesized by the Hamburger index?
A) $0.0086/¥
B) ¥124/$
C) $0.0081/¥
D) ¥115.75/$

3) If the current exchange rate is 113 Japanese yen per U.S. dollar, the price of a Big Mac hamburger in the United States is $3.41, and the price of a Big Mac hamburger in Japan is 280 yen, then other things equal, the Big Mac hamburger in Japan is:
A) correctly priced.
B) under priced.
C) over priced.
D) There is not enough information to determine if the price is appropriate or not.

4) The price of a Big Mac in the U.S. is $3.41 and the price in Mexico is Peso 29.0. What is the implied PPP of the Peso per dollar?
A) Peso 8.50/$1
B) Peso 10.8/$1
C) Peso 11.76/$1
D) None of the above

5) Assume the implied PPP rate of exchange of Mexican Pesos per U.S. dollar is 8.50 according to the Big Mac Index. Further, assume the current exchange rate is Peso 10.80/$1. Thus, according to PPP and the Law of One Price, at the current exchange rate the peso is:
A) overvalued.
B) undervalued.
C) correctly valued.
D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

6) According to the Big Mac Index, the implied PPP exchange rate is Mexican peso 8.50/$1 but the actual exchange rate is peso10.80/$1. Thus, at current exchange rates the peso appears to be ________ by ________.
A) overvalued; approximately 21%
B) overvalued; approximately 27%
C) undervalued; approximately 21%
D) undervalued; approximately 27%

7) Other things equal, and assuming efficient markets, if a Honda Accord costs $24,682 in the U.S., then at an exchange rate of $1.57/£, the Honda Accord should cost ________ in Great Britain.
A) £24,682
B) £38,751
C) £10,795
D) £15,721

8) One year ago the spot rate of U.S. dollars for Canadian dollars was $1/C$1. Since that time the rate of inflation in the U.S. has been 4% greater than that in Canada. Based on the theory of Relative PPP, the current spot exchange rate of U.S. dollars for Canadian dollars should be approximately:
A) $0.96/C$
B) $1/C$
C) $1.04/C$
D) Relative PPP provides no guide for this type of question.

9) ________ states that differential rates of inflation between two countries tend to be offset over time by an equal but opposite change in the spot exchange rate.
A) The Fisher Effect
B) The International Fisher Effect
C) Absolute Purchasing Power Parity
D) Relative Purchasing Power Parity

10) Two general conclusions can be made from the empirical tests of purchasing power parity (PPP):
A) PPP holds up well over the short run but poorly for the long run, and the theory holds better for countries with relatively low rates of inflation.
B) PPP holds up well over the short run but poorly for the long run, and the theory holds better for countries with relatively high rates of inflation.
C) PPP holds up well over the long run but poorly for the short run, and the theory holds better for countries with relatively low rates of inflation.
D) PPP holds up well over the long run but poorly for the short run, and the theory holds better for countries with relatively high rates of inflation.

11) A country’s currency that strengthened relative to another country’s currency by more than that justified by the differential in inflation is said to be ________ in terms of PPP.
A) overvalued
B) over compensating
C) undervalued
D) under compensating

12) If we set the real effective exchange rate index between Canada and the United States equal to 100 in 1998, and find that the U.S. dollar has risen to a value of 112.6, then from a competitive perspective the U.S. dollar is:
A) overvalued.
B) undervalued.
C) very competitive.
D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

13) If we set the real effective exchange rate index between the United Kingdom and the United States equal to 100 in 2005, and find that the U.S. dollar has changed to a value of 91.4, then from a competitive perspective the U.S. dollar is:
A) overvalued.
B) undervalued.
C) equally valued.
D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

14) The government just released international exchange rate statistics and reported that the real effective exchange rate index for the U.S. dollar vs the Japanese yen decreased from 105 last year to 95 currently and is expected to fall still further in the coming year. Other things equal U.S. ________ to/from Japan think this is good news and U.S. ________ to/from Japan think this is bad news.
A) importers; exporters
B) importers; importers
C) exporters; exporters
D) exporters; importers

True/False

1) If a market basket of goods cost $100 is the US and €70 in France, then the PPP exchange rate would be $.70/€.

2) The assumptions for relative PPP are more rigid than the assumptions for absolute PPP.

3) Empirical tests prove that PPP is an accurate predictor of future exchange rates.

4) Consider the price elasticity of demand. If a product has price elasticity less than one it is considered to have relatively elastic demand.

Essay

1) The authors state that empirical tests of purchasing power parity “have, for the most part, not proved PPP to be accurate in predicting future exchange rates.” The authors then state that PPP does hold up reasonably well in two situations. What are some reasons why PPP does not accurately predict future exchange rates, and under what conditions might we reasonably expect PPP to hold?

7.2 Exchange Rate Pass-Through

Multiple Choice

1) ________ states that nominal interest rates in each country are equal to the required real rate of return plus compensation for expected inflation.
A) Absolute PPP
B) Relative PPP
C) The Law of One Price
D) The Fisher Effect

2) In its approximate form the Fisher effect may be written as ________. Where: i = the nominal rate of interest, r = the real rate of return and π = the expected rate of inflation.
A) i = (r)(π)
B) i = r + π + (r)(π)
C) i = r + π
D) i = r + 2π

3) Assume a nominal interest rate on one-year U.S. Treasury Bills of 2.60% and a real rate of interest of 1.00%. Using the Fisher Effect Equation, what is the approximate expected rate of inflation in the U.S. over the next year?
A) 2.10%
B) 2.05%
C) 1.60%
D) 1.00%

4) Assume a nominal interest rate on one-year U.S. Treasury Bills of 3.80% and a real rate of interest of 2.00%. Using the Fisher Effect Equation, what is the exact expected rate of inflation in the U.S. over the next year?
A) 1.84%
B) 1.80%
C) 1.76%
D) 1.72%

5) The relationship between the percentage change in the spot exchange rate over time and the differential between comparable interest rates in different national capital markets is known as:
A) absolute PPP.
B) the law of one price.
C) relative PPP.
D) the international Fisher Effect.

6) According to the international Fisher Effect, if an investor purchases a five-year U.S. bond that has an annual interest rate of 5% rather than a comparable British bond that has an annual interest rate of 6%, then the investor must be expecting the ________ to ________ at a rate of at least 1% per year over the next 5 years.
A) British pound; appreciate
B) British pound; revalue
C) U.S. dollar; appreciate
D) U.S. dollar; depreciate

7) ________ states that the spot exchange rate should change in an equal amount but in the opposite direction to the difference in interest rates between two countries.
A) Fisher-open
B) Fisher-closed
C) The Fisher Effect
D) none of the above

8) Exchange rate pass-through may be defined as:
A) the bid/ask spread on currency exchange rate transactions.
B) the degree to which the prices of imported and exported goods change as a result of exchange rate changes.
C) the PPP of lesser-developed countries.
D) the practice by Great Britain of maintaining the relative strength of the currencies of the Commonwealth countries under the current floating exchange rate regime.

9) Phillips NV produces DVD players and exports them to the United States. Last year the exchange rate was $1.25/euro and Plillips charged 120 euro per player in Euroland and $150 per DVD player in the United States. Currently the spot exchange rate is $1.45/euro and Phillips is charging $160 per DVD player. What is the degree of pass through by Phillips NV on their DVD players?
A) 92%
B) 33.3%
C) 41.7%
D) 4.1%

10) Jaguar has full manufacturing costs of their S-type sedan of £22,803. They sell the S-type in the UK with a 20% margin for a price of £27,363. Today these cars are available in the US for $55,000 which is the UK price multiplied by the current exchange rate of $2.01/£. Jaguar has committed to keeping the US price at $55,000 for the next six months. If the UK pound appreciates against the USD to an exchange rate of $2.15/£, and Jaguar has not hedged against currency changes, what is the amount the company will receive in pounds at the new exchange rate?
A) £22,803
B) £25,581
C) £27,363
D) £55,000

11) Jaguar has full manufacturing costs of their S-type sedan of £22,803. They sell the S-type in the UK with a 20% margin for a price of £27,363. Today these cars are available in the US for $55,000 which is the UK price multiplied by the current exchange rate of $2.01/£. Jaguar has committed to keeping the US price at $55,000 for the next six months. If the UK pound appreciates against the USD to an exchange rate of $2.15/£, and Jaguar has not hedged against currency changes, what is the percentage margin the company will realize given the new exchange rate?
A) 20.0%
B) 15.3%
C) 12.4%
D) 7.2%

12) The price elasticity of demand for DVD players manufactured by Sony of Japan is greater than one. If the Japanese yen appreciates against the U.S. dollar by 10% and the price of the Sony DVD players in the U.S also rises by 10%, then other things equal, the total dollar sales revenues of Sony DVDs would:
A) decline.
B) increase.
C) stay the same.
D) insufficient information

True/False

1) The final component of the equation for the Fisher Effect, (r)(π), where r = the real rate of return and π = the expected rate of inflation, is often dropped from the equation because the number is simply too large for most Western economies.

2) Empirical studies show that the Fisher Effect works best for short-term securities.

3) The current U.S. dollar-yen spot rate is ¥125/$. If the 90-day forward exchange rate is ¥127/$ then the yen is at a forward premium.

4) The premium or discount on forward currency exchange rates between any two countries is visually obvious when you plot the interest rates of each country on the same yield curve. The currency of the country with the higher yield curve should be selling at a forward discount.

5) Use interest rate parity to answer this question. A U.S. investor has a choice between a risk-free one-year U.S. security with an annual return of 4%, and a comparable British security with a return of 5%. If the spot rate is $1.43/£, the forward rate is $1.44/£, and there are no transaction costs, the investor should invest in the U.S. security.

6) Both covered and uncovered interest arbitrage are risky operations in the sense that even without default in the securities, the returns are unknown until all transactions are complete.

7) All that is required for a covered interest arbitrage profit is for interest rate parity to not hold.

Essay/Short Answer

1) The authors describe an application of uncovered interest arbitrage (UIA) known as “yen carry trade.” Define UIA and describe the example of yen carry trade. Why would an investor engage in the practice of yen carry trade and is there any risk of loss or lesser profit from this investment strategy?

2) The Fisher Effect is a familiar economic theory in the domestic market. In words, define the Fisher Effect and explain why you think it is also appropriately applied to international markets.

7.3 The Forward Rate

Multiple Choice

1) If the forward rate is an unbiased predictor of the expected spot rate, which of the following is NOT true?
A) The expected value of the future spot rate at time 2 equals the present forward rate for time 2 delivery, available now.
B) The distribution of possible actual spot rates in the future is centered on the forward rate.
C) The future spot rate will actually be equal to what the forward rate predicts.
D) All of the above are true.

2) Which of the following is NOT an assumption of market efficiency?
A) Instruments denominated in other currencies are perfect substitutes for one another.
B) Transaction costs are low or nonexistent.
C) All relevant information is quickly reflected in both spot and forward exchange markets.
D) All of the above are true.

3) Empirical tests have yielded ________ evidence about market efficiency with a general consensus that developing foreign markets are ________.
A) conflicting; not efficient
B) conflicting; efficient
C) consistent; inefficient
D) none of the above

4) A ________ is an exchange rate quoted today for settlement at some time in the future.
A) spot rate
B) forward rate
C) currency rate
D) yield curve

5) Assume the current U.S. dollar-British spot rate is 0.6993£/$. If the current nominal one-year interest rate in the U.S. is 5% and the comparable rate in Britain is 6%, what is the approximate forward exchange rate for 360 days?
A) £1.42/$
B) £1.43/$
C) £0.6993/$
D) £0.7060/$

6) Assume the current U.S. dollar-yen spot rate is 90 ¥/$. Further, the current nominal 180-day rate of return in Japan is 1% and 2% in the United States. What is the approximate forward exchange rate for 180 days?
A) ¥89.12/$
B) ¥89.55/$
C) ¥90.89/$
D) ¥90.45/$

7) The current U.S. dollar-yen spot rate is 125¥/$. If the 90-day forward exchange rate is 127 ¥/$ then the yen is selling at a per annum ________ of ________.
A) premium; 1.57%
B) premium; 6.30%
C) discount; 1.57%
D) discount; 6.30%

8) The theory of ________ states that the difference in the national interest rates for securities of similar risk and maturity should be equal to but opposite in sign to the forward rate discount or premium for the foreign currency, except for transaction costs.
A) international Fisher Effect
B) absolute PPP
C) interest rate parity
D) the law of one price

9) With covered interest arbitrage:
A) the market must be out of equilibrium.
B) a “riskless” arbitrage opportunity exists.
C) the arbitrageur trades in both the spot and future currency exchange markets.
D) all of the above

10) Covered interest arbitrage moves the market ________ equilibrium because ________.
A) toward; purchasing a currency on the spot market and selling in the forward market narrows the differential between the two
B) toward; investors are now more willing to invest in risky securities
C) away from; purchasing a currency on the spot market and selling in the forward market increases the differential between the two
D) away from; demand for the stronger currency forces up interest rates on the weaker security

True/False

1) If exchange markets were not efficient, it would pay for a firm to spend resources on forecasting exchange rates.

2) If the forward exchange rate is an unbiased predictor of future spot rates, then future spot rates will always be equal to current forward rates.

3) COVERED interest arbitrage (CIA), is where investors borrow in countries and currencies exhibiting relatively low interest rates and convert the proceeds into currencies that offer much higher interest rates. The transaction is “covered,” because the investor does not sell the higher yielding currency proceeds forward.

7.4 Prices, Interest Rates, and Exchange Rates in Equilibrium

Multiple Choice

1) According to the International Fisher Effect, the forecast change in the spot rate between two countries is equal to:
A) the current spot rate multiplied by the ratio of the inflation rates in the respective countries.
B) but the opposite sign to the difference between nominal interest rates.
C) but the opposite sign to the difference between inflation rates.
D) but the opposite sign to the difference between real interest rates.

True/False

1) In their approximate form, PPP, IRP, and forward rates as an unbiased predictor of the future spot rate lead to similar forecasts of the future spot rate.

Multinational Business Finance, 13e (Eiteman/Stonehill/Moffett)
Chapter 8 Foreign Currency Derivatives and Swaps

8.1 Foreign Currency Futures

Multiple Choice

1) Financial derivatives are powerful tools that can be used by management for purposes of:
A) speculation.
B) hedging.
C) human resource management.
D) A and B above

2) A foreign currency ________ contract calls for the future delivery of a standard amount of foreign exchange at a fixed time, place, and price.
A) futures
B) forward
C) option
D) swap

3) Which of the following is NOT a contract specification for currency futures trading on an organized exchange?
A) size of the contract
B) maturity date
C) last trading day
D) All of the above are specified.

4) About ________ of all futures contracts are settled by physical delivery of foreign exchange between buyer and seller.
A) 0%
B) 5%
C) 50%
D) 95%

5) Futures contracts require that the purchaser deposit an initial sum as collateral. This deposit is called a:
A) collateralized deposit.
B) marked market sum.
C) margin.
D) settlement.

6) A speculator in the futures market wishing to lock in a price at which they could ________ a foreign currency will ________ a futures contract.
A) buy; sell
B) sell; buy
C) buy; buy
D) none of the above

7) A speculator that has ________ a futures contract has taken a ________ position.
A) sold; long
B) purchased; short
C) sold; short
D) purchased; sold

8) Peter Simpson thinks that the U.K. pound will cost $1.43/£ in six months. A 6-month currency futures contract is available today at a rate of $1.44/£. If Peter was to speculate in the currency futures market, and his expectations are correct, which of the following strategies would earn him a profit?
A) Sell a pound currency futures contract.
B) Buy a pound currency futures contract.
C) Sell pounds today.
D) Sell pounds in six months.

9) Jack Hemmings bought a 3-month British pound futures contract for $1.4400/£ only to see the dollar appreciate to a value of $1.4250 at which time he sold the pound futures. If each pound futures contract is for an amount of £62,500, how much money did Jack gain or lose from his speculation with pound futures?
A) $937.50 loss
B) $937.50 gain
C) £937.50 loss
D) £937.50 gain

10) Which of the following statements regarding currency futures contracts and forward contracts is NOT true?
A) A futures contract is a standardized amount per currency whereas the forward contact is for any size desired.
B) A futures contract is for a fixed maturity whereas the forward contract is for any maturity you like up to one year.
C) Futures contracts trade on organized exchanges whereas forwards take place between individuals and banks with other banks via telecom linkages.
D) All of the above are true.

11) Which of the following is NOT a difference between a currency futures contract and a forward contract?
A) The futures contract is marked to market daily, whereas the forward contract is only due to be settled at maturity.
B) The counterparty to the futures participant is unknown with the clearinghouse stepping into each transaction, whereas the forward contract participants are in direct contact setting the forward specifications.
C) A single sales commission covers both the purchase and sale of a futures contract, whereas there is no specific sales commission with a forward contract because banks earn a profit through the bid-ask spread.
D) All of the above are true.

12) A foreign currency ________ gives the purchaser the right, not the obligation, to buy a given amount of foreign exchange at a fixed price per unit for a specified period.
A) future
B) forward
C) option
D) swap

13) A foreign currency ________ option gives the holder the right to ________ a foreign currency, whereas a foreign currency ________ option gives the holder the right to ________ an option.
A) call, buy, put, sell
B) call, sell, put, buy
C) put, hold, call, release
D) none of the above

14) The price at which an option can be exercised is called the:
A) premium.
B) spot rate.
C) strike price.
D) commission.

15) An ________ option can be exercised only on its expiration date, whereas a/an ________ option can be exercised anytime between the date of writing up to and including the exercise date.
A) American; European
B) American; British
C) Asian; American
D) European; American

16) An ________ option can be exercised only on its expiration date, whereas a/an ________ option can be exercised anytime between the date of writing up to and including the exercise date.
A) American; European
B) American; British
C) Asian; American
D) European; American

17) A call option whose exercise price exceeds the spot price is said to be:
A) in-the-money.
B) at-the-money.
C) out-of-the-money.
D) over-the-spot.

18) A call option whose exercise price is less than the spot price is said to be:
A) in-the-money.
B) at-the-money.
C) out-of-the-money.
D) under-the-spot.

19) An option whose exercise price is equal to the spot rate is said to be:
A) in-the-money.
B) at-the-money.
C) out-of-the-money.
D) on-the-spot.

20) The main advantage(s) of over-the-counter foreign currency options over exchange traded options is (are):
A) expiration dates tailored to the needs of the client.
B) amounts that are tailor made.
C) client desired expiration dates.
D) all of the above

21) As a general statement, it is safe to say that businesses generally use the ________ for foreign currency option contracts, and individuals and financial institutions typically use the ________.
A) exchange markets; over-the-counter
B) over-the-counter; exchange markets
C) private; government sponsored
D) government sponsored; private

TABLE 8.1
Use the table to answer following question(s).

April 19, 2009, British Pound Option Prices (cents per pound, 62,500 pound contracts).

22) Refer to Table 8.1. What was the closing price of the British pound on April 18, 2009?
A) $1.448/£
B) £1.448/$
C) $14.48/£
D) none of the above

23) Refer to Table 8.1. The exercise price of ________ giving the purchaser the right to sell pounds in June has a cost per pound of ________ for a total price of ________.
A) 1460; 0.68 cents; $425.00
B) 1440; 1.06 cents; $662.50
C) 1450; 1.02 cents; $637.50
D) 1440; 1.42 cents; $887.50

24) Refer to Table 8.1. The May call option on pounds with a strike price of 1440 mean:
A) $88/£ per contract.
B) $0.88/£.
C) $0.0088/£.
D) none of the above

25) Dash Brevenshure works for the currency trading unit of ING Bank in London. He speculates that in the coming months the dollar will rise sharply vs. the pound. What should Dash do to act on his speculation?
A) Buy a call on the pound.
B) Sell a call on the pound.
C) Buy a put on the pound.
D) Sell a put on the pound.

26) A put option on yen is written with a strike price of ¥105.00/$. Which spot price maximizes your profit if you choose to exercise the option before maturity?
A) ¥100/$
B) ¥105/$
C) ¥110/$
D) ¥115/$

27) A call option on euros is written with a strike price of $1.30/euro. Which spot price maximizes your profit if you choose to exercise the option before maturity?
A) $1.20/euro
B) $1.25/euro
C) $1.30/euro
D) $1.35/euro

28) A call option on UK pounds has a strike price of $2.05/£ and a cost of $0.02. What is the break-even price for the option?
A) $2.03/£
B) $2.07/£
C) $2.05/£
D) The answer depends upon if this is a long or a short call option.

29) Your U.S firm has an accounts payable denominated in UK pounds due in 6 months. To protect yourself against unexpected changes in the dollar/pound exchange rate you should:
A) buy a pound put option.
B) sell a pound put option.
C) buy a pound call option.
D) sell a pound call option.

30) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper thinks the yen will move to ¥128.00/$ in the next six months. Jasper should ________ at ________ to profit from changing currency values.
A) buy yen; the forward rate
B) buy dollars; the forward rate
C) sell yen; the forward rate
D) There is not enough information to answer this question.

31) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper thinks the yen will move to ¥128.00/$ in the next six months. If Jasper buys $100,000 worth of yen at today’s spot price and sells within the next six months at ¥128/$, he will earn a profit of:
A) $146.09
B) $101,460.94
C) $1460.94
D) nothing; he will lose money

32) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper thinks the yen will move to ¥128.00/$ in the next six months. If Jasper buys $100,000 worth of yen at today’s spot price her potential gain is ________ and her potential loss is ________.
A) $100,000; unlimited
B) unlimited; unlimited
C) $100,000; $100,000
D) unlimited; $100,000

33) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper thinks the yen will move to ¥128.00/$ in the next six months. If Jasper’s expectations are correct, then he could profit in the forward market by ________ and then ________.
A) buying yen for ¥128.00/$; selling yen at ¥128.53/$
B) buying yen for ¥128.53/$; selling yen at ¥128.00/$
C) There is not enough information to answer this question
D) He could not profit in the forward market.

34) The maximum gain for the purchaser of a call option contract is ________ while the maximum loss is ________.
A) unlimited; the premium paid.
B) the premium paid; unlimited.
C) unlimited; unlimited.
D) unlimited; the value of the underlying asset.

35) The buyer of a long call option:
A) has a maximum loss equal to the premium paid.
B) has a gain equal to but opposite in sign to the writer of the option.
C) has an unlimited maximum gain potential.
D) all of the above

36) Which of the following is NOT true for the writer of a call option?
A) The maximum loss is unlimited.
B) The maximum gain is unlimited.
C) The gain or loss is equal to but of the opposite sign of the buyer of a call option.
D) All of the above are true.

37) Which of the following is NOT true for the writer of a put option?
A) The maximum loss is limited to the strike price of the underlying asset less the premium.
B) The gain or loss is equal to but of the opposite sign of the buyer of a put option.
C) The maximum gain is the amount of the premium.
D) All of the above are true.

38) The buyer of a long put option:
A) has a maximum loss equal to the premium paid.
B) has a gain equal to but opposite in sign to the writer of the option.
C) has maximum gain potential limited to the difference between the strike price and the premium paid.
D) all of the above

39) The value of a European style call option is the sum of two components:
A) the present value plus the intrinsic value.
B) the time value plus the present value.
C) the intrinsic value plus the time value.
D) the intrinsic value plus the standard deviation.

True/False

1) Currency futures contracts have become standard fare and trade readily in the world money centers.

2) The major difference between currency futures and forward contracts is that futures contracts are standardized for ease of trading on an exchange market whereas forward contracts are specialized and tailored to meet the needs of clients.

3) The writer of the option is referred to as the seller, and the buyer of the option is referred to as the holder.

4) Foreign currency options are available both over-the-counter and on organized exchanges.

5) Jasper Pernik is a currency speculator who enjoys “betting” on changes in the foreign currency exchange market. Currently the spot price for the Japanese yen is ¥129.87/$ and the 6-month forward rate is ¥128.53/$. Jasper would earn a higher rate of return by buying yen and a forward contract than if he had invested her money in 6-month US Treasury securities at an annual rate of 2.50%.

6) Most option profits and losses are realized through taking actual delivery of the currency rather than offsetting contracts.

Essay

1) Why are foreign currency futures contracts more popular with individuals and banks while foreign currency forwards are more popular with businesses?

2) Compare and contrast foreign currency options and futures. Identify situations when you may prefer one vs. the other when speculating on foreign exchange.

8.2 Option Pricing and Valuation

Multiple Choice

1) Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining the premium price of a currency option?
A) the present spot rate
B) the time to maturity
C) the standard deviation of the daily spot price movement
D) All of the above are factors in determining the premium price.

2) The ________ of an option is the value if the option were to be exercised immediately. It is the option’s ________ value.
A) intrinsic value; maximum
B) intrinsic value; minimum
C) time value; maximum
D) time value; minimum

3) Assume that a call option has an exercise price of $1.50/£. At a spot price of $1.45/£, the call option has:
A) a time value of $0.04.
B) a time value of $0.00.
C) an intrinsic value of $0.00.
D) an intrinsic value of -$0.04.

4) The single largest interest rate risk of a firm is:
A) interest sensitive securities.
B) debt service.
C) dividend payments.
D) accounts payable.

5) ________ is the possibility that the borrower’s creditworthiness is reclassified by the lender at the time of renewing credit. ________ is the risk of changes in interest rates charged at the time a financial contract rate is set.
A) Credit risk; Interest rate risk
B) Repricing risk; Credit risk
C) Interest rate risk; Credit risk
D) Credit risk; Repricing risk

Instruction 8.1:
For the following problem(s), consider these debt strategies being considered by a corporate borrower. Each is intended to provide $1,000,000 in financing for a three-year period.

• Strategy #1: Borrow $1,000,000 for three years at a fixed rate of interest of 7%.
• Strategy #2: Borrow $1,000,000 for three years at a floating rate of LIBOR + 2%, to be reset annually. The current LIBOR rate is 3.50%
• Strategy #3: Borrow $1,000,000 for one year at a fixed rate, and then renew the credit annually. The current one-year rate is 5%.

6) Refer to Instruction 8.1. Choosing strategy #1 will:
A) guarantee the lowest average annual rate over the next three years.
B) eliminate credit risk but retain repricing risk.
C) maintain the possibility of lower interest costs, but maximizes the combined credit and repricing risks.
D) preclude the possibility of sharing in lower interest rates over the three-year period.

7) Refer to Instruction 8.1. Choosing strategy #2 will:
A) guarantee the lowest average annual rate over the next three years.
B) eliminate credit risk but retain repricing risk.
C) maintain the possibility of lower interest costs, but maximizes the combined credit and repricing risks.
D) preclude the possibility of sharing in lower interest rates over the three-year period.

8) Refer to Instruction 8.1. Choosing strategy #3 will:
A) guarantee the lowest average annual rate over the next three years.
B) eliminate credit risk but retain repricing risk.
C) maintain the possibility of lower interest costs, but maximizes the combined credit and repricing risks.
D) preclude the possibility of sharing in lower interest rates over the three-year period.

9) Refer to Instruction 8.1. Which strategy (strategies) will eliminate credit risk?
A) Strategy #1
B) Strategy #2
C) Strategy #3
D) Strategies #1 and #2

10) Refer to Instruction 8.1. If your firm felt very confident that interest rates would fall or, at worst, remain at current levels, and were very confident about the firm’s credit rating for the next 10 years, which strategy would you likely choose? (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) Strategy #3
B) Strategy #2
C) Strategy #1
D) Strategy #1, #2, or #3; you are indifferent among the choices.

11) Refer to Instruction 8.1. The risk of strategy #1 is that interest rates might go down or that your credit rating might improve. The risk of strategy #2 is: (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) that interest rates might go down or that your credit rating might improve.
B) that interest rates might go up or that your credit rating might improve.
C) that interest rates might go up or that your credit rating might get worse.
D) none of the above

12) Refer to Instruction 8.1. The risk of strategy #1 is that interest rates might go down or that your credit rating might improve. The risk of strategy #3 is: (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) that interest rates might go down or that your credit rating might improve.
B) that interest rates might go up or that your credit rating might improve.
C) that interest rates might go up or that your credit rating might get worse.
D) none of the above

13) Refer to Instruction 8.1. After the fact, under which set of circumstances would you prefer strategy #1? (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went up.
B) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went down.
C) Your credit rating improved and interest rates went down.
D) Not enough information to make a judgment.

14) Refer to Instruction 8.1. After the fact, under which set of circumstances would you prefer strategy #2? (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went up.
B) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went down.
C) Your credit rating improved and interest rates went down.
D) Not enough information to make a judgment.

15) Refer to Instruction 8.1. After the fact, under which set of circumstances would you prefer strategy #3? (Assume your firm is borrowing money.)
A) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went up.
B) Your credit rating stayed the same and interest rates went down.
C) Your credit rating improved and interest rates went down.
D) Not enough information to make a judgment.

True/False

1) The time value is asymmetric in value as you move away from the strike price (i.e., the time value at two cents above the strike price is not necessarily the same as the time value two cents below the strike price).

8.3 Interest Rate Derivatives

Multiple Choice

1) An interbank-traded contract to buy or sell interest rate payments on a notional principal is called a/an:
A) forward rate agreement.
B) interest rate future.
C) interest rate swap.
D) none of the above

2) A/an ________ is a contract to lock in today interest rates over a given period of time.
A) forward rate agreement
B) interest rate future
C) interest rate swap
D) none of the above

3) An agreement to exchange interest payments based on a fixed payment for those based on a variable rate (or vice versa) is known as a/an:
A) forward rate agreement.
B) interest rate future.
C) interest rate swap.
D) none of the above

4) The financial manager of a firm has a variable rate loan outstanding. If she wishes to protect the firm against an unfavorable increase in interest rates she could:
A) sell an interest rate futures contract of a similar maturity to the loan.
B) buy an interest rate futures contract of a similar maturity to the loan.
C) swap the adjustable rate loan for another of a different maturity.
D) none of the above

5) An agreement to swap a fixed interest payment for a floating interest payment would be considered a/an:
A) currency swap.
B) forward swap.
C) interest rate swap.
D) none of the above

6) An agreement to swap the currencies of a debt service obligation would be termed a/an:
A) currency swap.
B) forward swap.
C) interest rate swap.
D) none of the above

7) Which of the following would be considered an example of a currency swap?
A) exchanging a dollar interest obligation for a British pound obligation
B) exchanging a eurodollar interest obligation for a dollar obligation
C) exchanging a eurodollar interest obligation for a British pound obligation
D) All of the above are examples of a currency swap.

8) A firm with fixed-rate debt that expects interest rates to fall may engage in a swap agreement to:
A) pay fixed-rate interest and receive floating rate interest.
B) pay floating rate and receive fixed rate.
C) pay fixed rate and receive fixed rate.
D) pay floating rate and receive floating rate.

9) A firm with variable-rate debt that expects interest rates to rise may engage in a swap agreement to:
A) pay fixed-rate interest and receive floating rate interest.
B) pay floating rate and receive fixed rate.
C) pay fixed rate and receive fixed rate.
D) pay floating rate and receive floating rate.

10) The interest rate swap strategy of a firm with fixed rate debt and that expects rates to go up is to:
A) do nothing.
B) pay floating and receive fixed.
C) receive floating and pay fixed.
D) none of the above

11) The potential exposure that any individual firm bears that the second party to any financial contract will be unable to fulfill its obligations under the contract is called:
A) interest rate risk.
B) credit risk.
C) counterparty risk.
D) clearinghouse risk.

12) Which of the following is an unlikely reason for firms to participate in the swap market?
A) To replace cash flows scheduled in an undesired currency with cash flows in a desired currency.
B) Firms may raise capital in one currency but desire to repay it in another currency.
C) Firms desire to swap fixed and variable payment or receipt of funds.
D) All of the above are likely reasons for a firm to enter the swap market.

True/False

1) Historically, interest rate movements have shown less variability and greater stability than exchange rate movements.

2) Unlike the situation with exchange rate risk, there is no uncertainty on the part of management for shareholder preferences regarding interest rate risk. Shareholders prefer that managers hedge interest rate risk rather than having shareholders diversify away such risk through portfolio diversification.

3) Interest rate futures are relatively unpopular among financial managers because of their relative illiquidity and their difficulty of use.

4) A basis point is one-tenth of one percent.

5) A swap agreement may involve currencies or interest rates, but never both.

6) Some of the world’s largest and most financially sound firms may borrow at variable rates less than LIBOR.

7) Counterparty risk is greater for exchange-traded derivatives than for over-the-counter derivatives.

8) Swap rates are derived from the yield curves in each major currency.

Essay

1) Your firm is faced with paying a variable rate debt obligation with the expectation that interest rates are likely to go up. Identify two strategies using interest rate futures and interest rate swaps that could reduce the risk to the firm.

2) How does counterparty risk influence a firm’s decision to trade exchange-traded derivatives rather than over-the-counter derivatives?
Answer: With exchange-traded derivatives, the exchange is the clearinghouse. Thus, firms do not need to worry about the other party making good on its obligations and it is easier to trade the derivative products.